DELHI PUBLIC SCHOOL

Secunderabad
Nacharam | Mahendra Hills | Nadergul
SUBJECT: Social Science Class: IX
FINAL - REVISION WORKSHEET

1. What was the status of Non-Russian nationalities before 1917 Russian Revolution?
(i) They had equal status
(ii) They were treated as inferiors
(iii) They were given equal rights
(iv) They were not allowed to practice their own language and culture
a) (i) and (ii)
b) (iii) and (iv)
c) (ii) and (iv)
d) (i) and (iii)

2. Arrange the following statements in sequential order based on the events of Russian revolution.
i. Formation of the Russian Social Democratic Workers Party.
ii. Beginning of Collectivization
iii. Abdication of the Tsar
iv. The Civil War

a) i – iii – iv – ii
b) iv – i – ii – iii
c) i – iv – ii – iii
d) iv – ii – iii – i

4. Identify the picture and answer the below question.

This poster states: ‘The smoke from the chimneys is the breathing of Soviet
Russia.’ Factories came to be seen as a symbol of .
a) Symbol of Capitalism
b) Symbol of Cooperatives
c) Symbol of Industralisation
d) Symbol of Socialism

5. Which of the following was not a feature of the October Manifesto?

(a) Freedom of speech, press and association
(b) Power to make laws conferred on the Duma
(c) Authority of the Tsar was reduced
(d) Final decision-making power was vested in the Tsar
6. Which of the following statements accurately shows The First World War and the Russian Empire?
a. The First World War on the ‘eastern front’ differed from that on the ‘western front’.
b. In the east, armies fought from trenches stretched along eastern France.
c. In the west, armies moved a good deal and fought battles leaving large casualties.
d. The destruction of crops and buildings led to over 3 million refugees in USSR.
7. The duration between day and night is more in Jammu and Kashmir in comparison to Kerala. What could
be the possible reason?
a) Longitude
b) Latitude
c) Climatic Zones
d) Prime meridian
8. The peninsular part of India experiences peak summers earlier than northern India because:
(a) Due to northward movement of the sun, the global heat belt shifts northward
(b) There is less rainfall in the peninsula during that time.
(c) Cold waves from Central Asia sweeps through the northern plains during the time.
(d) Clouds do not form in those months
9. Which of the following prevents the southwest monsoon winds from escaping from India?
(a) The Himalayas
(b) The surrounding seas
(c) Low pressure over Central Asia
(d) The Indian deserts

10. Consider the statements given below and choose the correct answer
Statement i: Parts of western coast and northeastern India receive over about 250 cm of rainfall annually.
Statement ii: The country receives low rainfall. Snowfall is restricted to the Himalayan region.
a) Statement (i) is correct and (ii) is incorrect.
b) Statement (i) is incorrect and (ii) is correct
c) Both (i) & (ii) are incorrect
d) Both (i) & (ii) are correct
11. (A) : By the beginning of November, the monsoon withdraws from the Northern Plains. (R):
The south-west monsoon winds weaken and start withdrawing gradually.
a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A
c) A is true but R is false.
d) A is false but R is true.
12. Identify the wind from the clue given below
i. Hot, dry and dusty
ii. Blows during summer
iii. Blows in North India
Options
a. Kal Baisakhi
b. Western cyclonic disturbance
c. Jet stream
d. Loo
13. Identify the incorrect statements about climatic controls.
I. As the distance from the sea increases, its moderating influence decreases and the people experience extreme
weather conditions.
II. Ocean currents along with onshore winds affect the climate of the coastal areas.
III. As one goes from the surface of the earth to higher altitudes, the atmosphere becomes denser and
temperature increase.
a. Only III b. II & III
c. Only II d. Only I
13. Lakes are of great value to human beings. Which of the following statements about lakes given below is
incorrect?
(a) Helps to regulate the flow of rivers
(b) It results in flooding
(c) Can be used for developing hydel power
(d) Enhances natural beauty
14. Which one of the following lakes is a saltwater lake?
(a) Wular Lake
(b) Sambhar Lake
(c) Barapani Lake
(d) Dal Lake
15. Describe major peninsular rivers under the following column.
River Origin Length States shared Tributaries
Narmada
Tapi
Godavari
Mahanadi
Krishna
Kaveri

16. Consider the statements given below and choose the correct answer
Statement i: The Ganga water is able to dilute and assimilate pollution loads within 10 km of large cities
Statement ii: This affects not only the quality of water but also the self-cleansing capacity of the river.
a. Statement (i) is correct and (ii) is incorrect.
b. Statement (i) is incorrect and (ii) is correct
c. Both (i) & (ii) are incorrect
d. Both (i) & (ii) are correct
17. (A): The Ganga Action Plan was expanded to cover ganga river.
(R) : The NRCP is to improve the water quality of the rivers, which are major water sources in the country,
through the implementation of pollution abatement work.
a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A
c) A is true but R is false.
d) A is false but R is true.
18. Identify the incorrect statements about rivers.
I. The main water divide in Peninsular India is formed by the Western Ghats.
II. The Narmada and the Tapi are the only long rivers, which flow east and make esturies.
III. The drainage basins of the peninsular rivers are comparatively smaller in size.

a. Only III b. II & III

c. Only II d. Only I
20. Which of the following decisions was taken by the convention?
a) Declared France a Republic
b) All men and women above 21 years got the right to vote
c) Declared France a constitutional monarchy
d) Abolished the monarchy
21. A) : The Constitution of 1791 improved the condition of women in France. (R):
Education was made compulsory to women and divorce was made legal.
a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A
c) A is true but R is false.
d) A is false but R is true.
22. Identify the correct option that describes the act given below.
I. Louis XVI had to increase taxes
II. Peasants, artisans and women were denied entry to the assembly.
III. Members of the clergy too were forced to give up their privileges.
a) France Becomes a Constitutional Monarchy
b) The Outbreak of the Revolution
c) France Abolishes Monarchy and Becomes a Republic
d) The Struggle to Survive
23. Identify the painting from the options given
below.
The revolutionary government sought to mobilise the
loyalty of its subjects. Symbols from civilisations of
ancient and were used to convey
the aura of a hallowed history.
a) Greece & Rome
b) Italy & Rome
c) Austria & Rome
d) Prussia & Rome

24. Evaluate the impacts of The Revolution and Everyday Life by identifying the appropriate statements among
the following options:
I. Declaration of the Rights of Man and Citizen proclaimed freedom of speech and
expression to be a political right.
II. Plays, songs and festive processions attracted large numbers of people.
III. Newspapers, pamphlets, books and printed pictures flooded the towns of France.
a) Statement I and III
b) Statement I
c) Statement III
d) Statement II and III
25. Which one among the following pairs is incorrectly matched?
LIST I LIST II
a. The bundle of rods or fasces Strength lies in unity
b. Sceptre Royal power
c. The broken chain The act of becoming free
d. Red Phrygian cap Personification of the law

26. Which of the following island union territories is located near Eastern coast in India?
(a) Daman and Diu, Dadra and Nagar Haveli
(b) Puducherry
(c) Andaman and Nicobar Islands.
(d) Lakshadweep
27. Which of the following states has the largest coastline?
(a) Rajasthan
(b) Gujarat
(c) West Bengal
(d) Kerala
28. (A) : The Indian landmass has a central location between the East and the West Asia. (R):
India is a southward extension of the Asian continent.
a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A
c) A is true but R is false.
d) A is false but R is true.
29. Consider the statements given below and choose the correct answer
Statement i: The spices, muslin and other merchandise were taken from China to different countries.
Statement ii: The influence of Greek sculpture, and the architectural styles of dome and minarets from East Asia
can be seen in different parts of our country.
a) Statement (i) is correct and (ii) is incorrect.
b) Statement (i) is incorrect and (ii) is correct
c) Both (i) & (ii) are incorrect
d) Both (i) & (ii) are correct
30. Which one among the following pairs is incorrectly matched?

State International Border

e. Gujarat Pakistan
f. Bihar Nepal
g. Arunachal Pradesh China
h. Assam Myanmar
31. Both the latitudinal and longitudinal extent of India’s mainland is about 30°. But on looking at the map of
India which of the following alternatives do you observe about India’s size?
(a) East-west extent appears to be smaller than north-south extent
(b) East-west extent appears to be larger than north-south extent
(c) East-west and north-south extent appears equal
(d) North-south extent appears to be smaller than east-west extent
32. Which geographical feature bounds India’s mainland south of 22°N latitude?
(a) Young Fold Mountains
(b) Sandy Desert
(c) Lava Plateaus
(d) Seas and Ocean
33. India achieved multi-faceted socio-economic progress during which of the following periods?
(a) Since ancient times
(b) During medieval period
(c) In the 21st century
(d) During the last five decades

34. The four states which are situated along the Himalayas are :
(a) Jammu and Kashmir, Himachal Pradesh, Uttarakhand, Arunachal Pradesh
(b) Gujarat, Maharashtra, Haryana, Rajasthan
(c) Gujarat, Chhattisgarh, Bihar, Jharkhand
(d) Bihar, West Bengal, Orissa, Uttar Pradesh
35. Why did Helmuth’s father kill himself in the spring of 1945?
a) He was depressed by Germany’s defeat in Second World War
b) He feared that common people would mishandle him and his family
c) He feared revenge by the Allied Powers
d) He wanted to die because of the crimes he had committed during Nazi rule
36. (A): The Britain intervened and bailed Germany out of the crisis by introducing the Dawes Plan
(R) : The terms of reparation to ease the financial burden on Germans.
a. Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
b. Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
c. A is true but R is false.
d. A is false but R is true.
37. The term ‘Proletarianisation’ refers to:
a) Impoverished to the level of the middle class.
b) Impoverished to the level of the upper/ruling class.
c) Impoverished to the level of the working class.
d) Exploitation of the new emerging middle class

38. Assess the impacts of The Effects of the War by identifying the appropriate statements among the following
options is incorrect:
IV. The war had a devastating impact on the entire continent both politically and socially.
V. From a continent of debtor, Europe turned into one of creditor.
VI. The infant Weimar Republic was being made to pay for the sins of the old empire.
a. Statement II and I
b. Only Statement I
c. Only Statement III
d. Statement II and III
39. Arrange the following statements in sequential order based on the events of Nazism.
v. Proclamation of the Weimar Republic
vi. Germany invades the USSR
vii. The United States joins Second World War
viii. Treaty of Versailles
a. i – iii – iv – ii
b. iv – i – ii – iii
c. i – iv – ii – iii
d. iv – ii – iii – i
40. Identify the picture and answer the below question.

country secretly rescued their Jews from

Germany. This is one of the boats used for the purpose.

a) Russian
b) France
c) Poland
d) Denmark

41. The Purvachal or the Eastern hills and mountains of India include which ranges?
a) The Western Ghats and the Eastern Ghats
b) The Patkai Hills, the Naga Hills, the Manipur Hills, and the Mizo Hills
c) The Himadri, Himachal, and Shiwaliks
d) The Central Highlands and the Deccan Plateau
42. The Western Coastal Plain of India is sandwiched between which two geographical features?
a) The Western Ghats and the Arabian Sea
b) The Eastern Ghats and the Bay of Bengal
c) The Himalayan Mountains and the Ganges River
d) The Deccan Plateau and the Indian Ocean
43. Which part of the Peninsular Plateau lies to the north of the Narmada River and includes areas like Malwa
and Bundelkhand?
a) Deccan Plateau
b) Central Highlands
c) Western Ghats
d) Eastern Ghats
44. Consider the statements given below and choose the correct answer
Statement i: The Western Ghats cause orographic rain by facing the rain bearing moist winds to rise along
the western slopes of the Ghats.
Statement ii: The height of the Western Ghats progressively increases from south to north.
a) Statement (i) is correct and (ii) is incorrect.
b) Statement (i) is incorrect and (ii) is correct
c) Both (i) & (ii) are incorrect
d) Both (i) & (ii) are correct

45. Which physiographic division of India is locally known as the “storehouse of minerals” and has played a
crucial role in the industrialization of the country?
a) The Himalayan Mountains
b) The Peninsular Plateau
c) The Northern Plains
d) The Indian Desert
46. (A): Large rivers, such as the Mahanadi, the Godavari, the Krishna and the Kaveri have formed extensive
delta on this coast.
(R) : The plains along the Bay of Bengal are narrow and level.
a. Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
b. Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A
c. A is true but R is false.
d. A is false but R is true.
47. Identify the incorrect statements about Coral reefs.
I. Coral polyps are short-lived microscopic organisms, which live in colonies.
II. The Great Barrier Reef of Lakshadweep is a good example of the first kind of coral reefs.
III. They flourish in shallow, mud-free and warm waters.
IV. The coral secretion and their skeletons from coral deposits in the form of reefs
a. Only III b. II & III
c. Only II d. Only I
48. Which one among the following pairs is incorrectly matched?
River Himalayas
I. Teesta and Dihang Nepal Himalayas
II. Indus and Satluj Punjab Himalaya
III. Satluj and Kali Kumaon Himalaya
IV. Kali and Teesta Assam Himalayas
a. I & III
b. II & IV
c. IV & I
d. III & II
49. Which of the following factors is not responsible for the uneven distribution of population in India?
a) Physical features
b) Climate
c) Cultural factors
d) Government policies

50. Which of the following factors are responsible for low density of population in one area?
(a) Flat plains abundant rainfall
(b) Rugged terrain and unfavourable climate
(c) Fertile soil and abundant rain fall
(d) Rugged terrain and favourable climate
51. The magnitude of population growth refers to
(a) the total population of an area
(b) the number of persons added each year
(c) the rate at which the population increases
(d) the number of females per thousand males
52. The rate or pace of population increase per year is referred to as which of the following?
(a) Absolute increase
(b) Magnitude of increase
(c) Annual growth rate
(d) Population change
53. Which among the following is not included in the policy framework of NPP 2000?
(a) imparting free and compulsory education above 14 years of age
(b) reducing the infant mortality rate
(c) achieving universal immunisation of children against all vaccines preventable diseases
(d) making family welfare a people-centred programme
54. Identify the incorrect statements about Adolescent Population.
I. Adolescents are, generally, grouped in the age group of 14 to 19 years.
II. Nutrition requirements of adolescents are higher than those of a normal child or adult.
III. Poor nutrition can lead to deficiency and stunted growth.
a. Only III b. II & III
c. Only II d. Only I
55. Which of the following is not an example of a poverty alleviation program in India?
a) Prime Minister Rozgar Yojana
b) National food for work programme
c) Swachh Bharat Abhiyan
d) Rural Employment Generation Programme

56. What is the main aim of National Rural Employment Guarantee Act (NREGA) ?
a. Reducing poverty by providing employment opportunities in rural areas
b. Providing free education to children from poor families
c. Promoting industrial growth in urban areas
d. Ensuring equal distribution of land among the poor

57. In which state the land reforms measures helped in reduction in poverty?
A. Tamilnadu b. Punjab
c. West Bengal d. Kerala
58. Assertion: Poverty is a major challenge for economic development.
Reason: Poverty is associated with low levels of human development, poor health, and low levels of productivity,
which hinder economic growth.
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is correct but (R) is wrong.
(D) (A) is wrong but (R) is correct.

59. Match the following

Column 1 Column 2
a. Conducts survey to calculate poverty i. Agriculture labor
line
b. Socially Vulnerable Group ii. Women and children
c. Economically Vulnerable group iii. NSSO
d. Poorest of the poor iv. Scheduled caste

a. a-i, b- ii, c- iv , d- iii

b. a. –iii, b- iv , c-i , d- ii
c. a-ii, b- i c- iv , d- iii
d. a-iii, b- i c- iv , d- i

60. Assertion: Agricultural sector of the economy is characterized by low productivity and low income levels.
Reason: This sector comprises activities such as agriculture, animal husbandry , sericulture etc. and often
carried out by unskilled and semi-skilled workers..

1. Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
2. Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
3. (A) is correct but (R) is wrong.
4. (A) is wrong but (R) is correct.

61. Which one of these is the most labour absorbing sector of the economy?
A. Industries B. Agriculture
C. Transportation D. Service

62. Which of the following is NOT a factor that influences human capital formation?

A. Government policies B. Education and healthcare facilities

C. Social factors D. Natural Factors

63. Assertion: Food security exists when all people, at all times, have physical, social, and economic access to
sufficient, safe, and nutritious food to meet their dietary needs and food preferences.
Reason: Food security is a multi-dimensional concept that involves not only the availability of food but also access
to food, utilization of food, and stability of food supply.

(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is correct but (R) is wrong.
(D) (A) is wrong but (R) is correct.
64. Match the Following
List 1 List 2
A. Human capital 1. Secondary Activity
B. Communication 2. Skill and knowledge
C. Making dinner for family 3. Tertiary Activity
D. Construction 4. Non-economic Activity

A. A-2,B-3,C-4,D-1
B. A-3,B-1,C-2,D-4
C. A-4,B-2,C-1,D-3
D. A-1, B-4,C-3,D-2

65. A teacher is explaining about Food Corporation of India. Samhita a students in the class wanted to know
about the uses of Buffer stock maintained by FCI . Which one of the following information will not help
Samhita related to the uses?
a. To distribute food grain in the deficit areas
b. To distribute food grains among the poor people at a low price
c. To resolve the problem of the shortage of the food during natural calamity
d. To export the food grains to other country for making profit

66. In which of the following scheme, one third works are reserved for the women?
(a) Antyodaya Anna Yojana
(b) Pradhan Mantri Gramodaya Yojana
(c) Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment Guarantee Act.
(d) Swarnajayanti Gram Swarozgar Yojana

67. Which of the following arguments do not support the idea that high level of buffer stocks of food grains is
very undesirable?
a .High carrying costs.
b Waste of food grains.
c. Deterioration in grain quality.
d. Proper and best maintenance of food grains.
68. Which one of the following statements is true about elections?

a. Elections guarantee good governance.

b. Elections ensure economic development.
c. Elections allow people to choose their representatives.
d. Elections eliminate corruption.

69. Which of the following is NOT a condition for a free and fair election?

a. Active participation of citizens

b. Discrimination among candidates
c. Equal opportunity for all candidates
d. Independent Election Commission
70. Which of the following statements about the reasons for conducting elections are false?

a. Elections enable people to judge the performance of the government

b. People elect the representatives of their choice in an election
c. Elections enable people to evaluate the performance of the judiciary
d. Elections enable people to indicate which policies they prefer
70. Arrange the following in correct sequence:
A. Election commission
B. Counting of Votes
C. Nominations of Candidates
D. Declaration of the result by the election Commission

a. C, A,B,D
b. A, C,B,D
c. D, A,B,C
d. B, A,C,D

71. In any society, people are bound to have difference of opinions and interests. Which is a better way of
dealing with these conflicts?
(a) By brutal power exercised by the government
(b) By allowing one group to dictate terms to others
(c) By providing equal opportunities to all
(d) By opting for a strong leader who should have all the powers.
72. Which of these is permitted under the Rule of Law?
(a) Prime Minister can be punished for violating the Constitution.
(b) Police has a right to kill anybody.
(c) Women can be paid lesser salaries.
(d) President can rule for as long as he wants.
73. A democratic government has to respect some rules after winning the elections. Which of these points is not
a part of those rules?
(a) Respecting guarantees given to the minorities.
(b) Every major decision has to go through a series of consultations.
(c) Office-bearers are not accountable.
(d) Office-bearers have some responsibilities.
74. Why did people react strongly to the Mandal Commission Report?
(A) It left out many backward communities
(B) It affected thousands of job opportunities
(C) Some high castes wanted to be included in it
(D) Both (A) and (C)

75. ‘‘Save Democracy’’ slogan was given by which of the following political party in 1977 Lok Sabha elections?
(A) Congress Party
(B) Janata Party
(B) Telugu Desam Party
(D) Left Front

76. Which of the following statements about the reasons for conducting elections is false?
(A) Elections enable people to judge the performance of the government
(B) People select the representatives of their choice in an election
(C) Elections enable people to evaluate the performance of the judiciary
(D) People can indicate which policies they prefer

77. Which one of the following provisions fails to ensure fair and equal chance to compete to candidates and
political parties?
(A) No party or candidate can bribe or threaten voters
(B) No party or candidate is bound by the model code of conduct
(C) No party of candidates can use government resources for election campaign
(D) Nobody can appeal to voters in the name of caste or religion
78. Which of these is not a freedom available under the Right to Freedom in India?
(a) Freedom to incite people to rebel against the government
(b) Freedom of speech and expression
(c) Freedom to assemble in a peaceful manner
(d) Freedom to form associations and unions
79. Which one of the following is not true regarding the Fundamental Rights?
(a) Parents property is inherited by the children.
(b) Workers from Uttar Pradesh go to Punjab to work on the farms.
(c) Christian missionaries set up a chain of missionary schools
(d) Men and women government employees get the same salary.
80. Which of the following rights is not available under the fundamental rights?
(a) Right to property
(b) Right to protect ones culture
(c) Right to Freedom
(d) Right to Equality
81. Which of these was the most salient underlying conflict in the making of a democratic constitution in South
Africa?
(A) Between South Africa and its neighbours
(B) Between men and women
(C) Between the white majority and the black minority
(D) Between the coloured minority and the black majority
82. What is meant by Secular?
(A) Citizens have complete freedom to follow any religion. But there is no official religion. Government treats all
religious beliefs and practices with equal respect
(B) All are equal before the law. The traditional social inequalities have to be ended The government should
ensure equal opportunity for all.
(C) There are no unreasonable restrictions on the citizens in what they think, how they wish to express their
thoughts and the way they wish to follow up their thoughts in action
(D) People have the supreme right to make decisions on internal as well as external matters. No external power
can dictate the government of India
83. What did the black population want in the new Constitution?
(a) A black President
(b) Substantial social and economic rights
(c) Whites should be turned out of the country
(d) Apartheid for the whites
84. Which of these positions is correct in relation to the ‘Sovereign’ status of India?
(a) USA can decide India’s foreign policy
(b) USSR can support the CPI (M) in setting up its government here
(c) The Indian government only can decide its internal and external policies
(d) Pakistan can control India’s Armed Forces
85. Which of the following is the neighboring country of India to the North?
(a) Pakistan
(b) Nepal
(c) Bangladesh
(d) Sri Lanka
86. Read the following passage and answer the questions that follows:

Internal migration does not change the size of the population, but influences the distribution of population within
the nation. Migration plays a very significant role in changing the composition and distribution of population. In
India, most migrations have been from rural to urban areas because of the ‘push’ factor in rural areas. These are
adverse conditions of poverty and unemployment in the rural areas and the ‘pull’ of the city in terms of increased
employment opportunities and better living conditions.

Migration is an important determinant of population change. It changes not only the population size but also the
population composition of urban and rural populations in terms of age and sex composition. In
 India, the rural-urban migration has resulted in a steady increase in the percentage of population in cities and
towns. The urban population has increased from 17.29 per cent of the total population in 1951 to 31.80 per cent in
2011. There has been a significant increase in the number of ‘million plus cities’ from 35 to 53 in just one decade,
i.e. 2001 to 2011.

Q1. What change is brought about by internal migration?

Q 2. Why do permanent migration occur from the rural areas to the urban areas? Q 3.
What are push and pull factors of migration?

87. Read the following passage and answer the questions that follow:
Sarva Shiksha Abhiyan is a significant step towards providing elementary education to all children in the age
group of 6-14 years by 2010. It is a time-bound initiative of the Central Government, in partnership with the
States, the local government and the community for achieving the goal of universalisation of elementary
education. Along with it, bridge courses and backto-school camps have been initiated to increase the enrolment in
elementary education. Mid-day meal scheme has been implemented to encourage attendance and retention of
children and improve their nutritional status. These policies could add to the literate population of India.The Gross
Enrolment Ratio (GER) in higher education in the age group of 18 to 23 years is 26.3% in 2018-19, which would
be broadly in line with world average. The strategy focuses on increasing access, quality, adoption of state-specific
curriculum modification, vocationalisation and networking on the use of information technology. There is also
focuses on distance education, convergence of formal, non-formal, distance and IT education institutions.

1. Mention any two features of Sarva Shiksha Abhiyan.

2. Why has mid-day meal scheme been implemented?
3. Name the initiatives taken by the government to improve elementary education in India.

88. Read the following passage and answer the questions that follow:

The war had a devastating impact on the entire continent both psychologically and financially. From a continent of
creditors, Europe turned into one of the debtors. Unfortunately, the infant Weimar Republic was being made to
pay for the sins of the old empire. The republic carried the burden of war guilt and national humiliation and was
financially crippled by being forced to pay compensation. Those who supported the Weimar Republic, mainly
Socialists, Catholics, and Democrats, became easy targets of attack in the conservative nationalist circles. They
were mockingly called the ‘November Criminals. This mindset had a major impact on the political developments
of the early 1930s, as we will soon see. The First World War left a deep imprint on European society and polity.
Soldiers came to be placed above civilians. Politicians and publicists laid great stress on the need for men to be
aggressive, strong, and masculine. The media glorified trench life. The truth, however, was that soldiers lived
miserable lives in these trenches, trapped with rats feeding on corpses. They faced poisonous gas and enemy
shelling and witnessed their ranks reduce rapidly. Aggressive war propaganda and national honor occupied center
stage in the public sphere, while popular support grew for conservative dictatorships that had recently come into
being. Democracy was indeed a young and fragile idea, which could not survive the instabilities of interwar
Europe.

1. Who were November Criminals?

2. Why Weimar Republic was unstable?
3. Why democracy became a fragile idea after the First World War?