Test Bank for Pathology for the

Physical Therapist Assistant 1st Edition

by Goodman
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Test Bank 1-2

D. disease with a rapid onset and short duration

ANS: D
PAGE NUMBER: 3
RATIONALE: Choices A, B, and C all refer to chronic illness. Chronic illnesses and conditions
require constant medical management and may be with a patient for life. Acute illnesses have a
short duration and usually a rapid onset.

4. Which of the following is considered a natural part of the psychological process of dealing
with illness?
A. noncompliance
B. paranoia
C. denial
D. persistent depression

ANS: C
PAGE NUMBER: 3
RATIONALE: Denial is an unconscious defense mechanism that allows a person to avoid
painful reality for as long as possible. Denial can be a natural part of the process of dealing with
illness, which normally culminates in acceptance. The other three choices are never a natural part
of the psychological aspect of dealing with illness. If any one of these other conditions persists,
appropriate medical personnel should be notified.

5. A patient after recent and total knee replacement cannot climb stairs. Using the Nagi
disablement model, what classification does the inability to negotiate stairs fall under?
A. disease or pathology
B. impairment
C. functional limitation
D. disability

ANS: C
PAGE NUMBER: 4
RATIONALE: Using the Nagi model, total knee replacement would be defined as a disease or
pathology. Impairment usually occurs at the organ/tissue level. It can be described as the
inflammation after a total knee replacement. Functional limitations occur at the individual level
and restrict the person’s performance of specific actions. In this situation a disability would
occur because the individual would not be able to get to the second floor of her home.

6. Using the International Classification of Functioning, Disability, and Health (ICF)

classification system, which of the following would be defined as the execution of specific tasks
or actions?
A. activity
B. activity limitations
C. participation
D. participation restrictions

Copyright © 2012 by Saunders, an imprint of Elsevier Inc.

Test Bank 1-3

ANS: A
PAGE NUMBER: 5
RATIONALE: Activity is defined as the execution of specific tasks or actions by the individual,
and activity limitations are the difficulties that an individual might have in executing certain
activities. Participation is the individual’s involvement in life situations, and participation
restrictions are the problems the individual might have in real life situations.

7. A person with injury to the brain in the right hemisphere would most likely exhibit which of
the following cognitive deficits?
A. decreased executive functions
B. poor complex problem solving
C. slowed information processing
D. memory deficits

ANS: A
PAGE NUMBER: 6
RATIONALE: Damage to the right hemisphere or frontal lobe often causes a decrease in
executive functions. Diffuse and/or global cortical damage results in poor complex problem
solving, and diffuse cortical/subcortical damage results in slow information processing. Memory
deficits usually arise from temporal lobe damage.

8. In which type of cognitive deficit should the physical therapist assistant use repetition to teach
the patient new activities?
A. decreased executive functions
B. poor complex problem solving
C. slowed information processing
D. memory deficits

ANS: B
PAGE NUMBER: 6
RATIONALE: Patients with decreased executive functions should be taught time management
techniques, and the client should be included in group activities. Patients with slowed
information processing should have all environmental distractions removed. External aids and
multiple approaches to improve retention of information should be used for patients with
memory deficits.

9. Which of the following groups of people should focus on practicing healthy behaviors?
A. individuals with acute diseases
B. individuals with subacute diseases
C. individuals with chronic diseases
D. any individual regardless of disease process

ANS: D
PAGE NUMBER: 7
RATIONALE: Healthy behaviors should be practiced by all individuals regardless of the
presence of disease and/or a disease process.

Copyright © 2012 by Saunders, an imprint of Elsevier Inc.

Test Bank 1-4

10. Which of the following is not a principle of immunotics?

A. Immunotics is used to prevent illness.
B. Immunotics has no side effects.
C. Immunotics represents a group of immunity boosters.
D. Immunotics is used to treat illness after it occurs.

ANS: D
PAGE NUMBER: 8
RATIONALE: Immunotics fends off infection and keeps the immune system working by using
natural and organic substances. Immunotics has no side effects and does no harm. Antibiotics are
used to treat illness after it occurs and can have very serious side effects.

11. Preventive medicine is categorized as primary, secondary, or tertiary. Primary prevention is

characterized by which of the following?
A. regular exercise to prevent osteoporosis
B. skin test for tuberculosis
C. colonoscopy for colon cancer
D. radiation for localized cancer

ANS: A
PAGE NUMBER: 8
RATIONALE: Primary prevention is geared toward removing or reducing the risk of disease
factors, and secondary prevention techniques are designed to promote early detection of disease.
Tertiary prevention involves therapies aimed at limiting the impact of an already established
disease.

12. Which of the following was not a purpose of the Human Genome Project?
A. to identify all human genes
B. to map the genes’ locations on chromosomes
C. to determine the origins of humans on the planet
D. to provide detailed information on genes function

ANS: C
PAGE NUMBER: 10
RATIONALE: The Human Genome Project was completed in April 2003 and provides a
reference DNA sequence of the human genome. Because virtually every human illness and even
many lifestyle-related conditions have a hereditary component, the Human Genome Project may
hold the key to the prevention or cure of many, if not all, diseases and disorders.

13. The nucleus of nearly every cell in the human body contains _________.
A. amino acids
B. DNA
C. proteins
D. ribosomes

Copyright © 2012 by Saunders, an imprint of Elsevier Inc.

Test Bank 1-5

ANS: B
PAGE NUMBER: 11
RATIONALE: DNA instructs the ribosome to assemble amino acids. Cellular function is then
directed to proteins containing the amino acids.

14. What is the process by which a cell will undergo an acquired mutation?
A. The mutation is inherited from the mother or father.
B. The defective gene is delivered using a viral vector.
C. The defective gene is delivered using a nonviral vector.
D. DNA flaws are passed along from the mother cell to daughter cells.

ANS: D
PAGE NUMBER: 11
RATIONALE: Acquired mutations arise during the normal process of cell division. Each day the
body replaces thousands of cells. Some genetic errors occur as information is passed along from
the mother cell to the daughter cell. The daughter cells should recognize mutations and repair
them, but sometimes this mechanism fails. Acquired mutations can be passed on to daughter
cells; they cannot be inherited.

15. In utero gene therapy (IUGT) is most beneficial for genetic diseases if gene therapy is
performed _________.
A. immediately after conception
B. before symptoms have manifested
C. after symptoms have manifested, but before birth
D. after birth

ANS: B
PAGE NUMBER: 11
RATIONALE: IUGT is most beneficial for genetic diseases if gene therapy is performed before
symptoms have manifested.

16. What type of gene therapy is the most controversial because it carries an unknown level of
risk?
A. small molecule therapy
B. transferring a gene into cancer cells to make them sensitive to certain drugs
C. germ-lined therapy
D. In utero gene therapy IUGT

ANS: C
PAGE NUMBER: 12
RATIONALE: Germ-lined therapy is an approach that delivers genes to sperm or eggs. It also
can be delivered to the cells that produce sperm or eggs. This therapy is highly controversial
because it carries an unknown level of risk such as interference with another gene and because of
the required specificity of the insertion.

Copyright © 2012 by Saunders, an imprint of Elsevier Inc.