[TEST AND DISCUSSION - 2022] “ANESTHESIA” Questions

1. First spinal anaesthesia in human

beings was given by
A. August Bier
B. Sicard
C. Morton
D. Priestley

2. Best fluid for replacement

A. RL
B. DNS
C. Hydroxyethyl starch
D. 5% Dextrose
A. 75 psi
3. Best parameter to guide fluid B. 760 psi
A. Urine output C. 1250 psi
B. Stroke volume variation D. 2000 psi
C. Pulse pressure variation
D. Flow time across descending aorta 6. Pin index for the following gas is:

4. The following cylinder is

A. Oxygen
B. Nitrous oxide A. 2, 5
C. Entonox B. 3, 5
D. Heliox C. 1, 5
D. 2, 6
5. Pressure in the following cylinder is:
7. Identify

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[TEST AND DISCUSSION - 2022] “ANESTHESIA” Questions

D. 100% Ca(OH)2

10. Desiccated Barylime can cause burns

with
A. Desflurane
B. Isoflurane
C. Sevoflurane
D. Halothane

11. There may be production of carbon

monoxide if the following agent is used
with desiccated sodalime
A. Desflurane
B. Halothane
C. Sevoflurane
D. All of the above
A. Rotameter
B. Pressure regulator 12. Following laryngoscope blades are used
C. Vaporizer for
D. None of the above

8. Fresh gas flow for the following circuit

Adjustable pressure limiting valve (expiratory valve)

Fresh gas inlet

Machine end Patient end

Mask

Breathing bag

Fresh gas flow

Expired gases

A. Equal to minute volume A. Newborns

B. Twice of minute volume B. Infants
C. 1.5 times of minute volume C. Toddlers
D. Thrice of minute volume D. All of the above

9. The constitution of sodalime is: 13. Cuffed tubes in children can be used
A. 5% Ca(OH)2, 95% NaOH only after:
B. 5% NaOH, 95% Ca(OH)2 A. 1 year
B. 2 years
C. 80% Ca(OH)2 ,2% KOH, 3% NaOH,
C. 5 years
15% water D. Can be used at any age

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[TEST AND DISCUSSION - 2022] “ANESTHESIA” Questions

14. Reasonable tube size required for 4-

year child will be :
A. 2 mm
B. 4.5 mm
C. 5.5 mm
D. 6 mm

15. All is true about the following

equipment except
Pilot balloon

Inflatable cuff

A. Angle to mouth to ear lobe

B. Angle to mouth to tragus + 1 cm
C. Angle to mouth to angle of jaw
Ventilation port D. All of the above

18. The following tube will be best for

A. Should be avoided for full stomach
patients
B. Can be used for failed intubation
C. Can help in assisting intubation
D. Available in 3 sizes

16. Identify

A. Neurosurgery
B. Cardiac surgery
C. Thoracic surgery
D. GI surgery

A. Proseal 19. Maximum oxygen among the following

B. I-gel is delivered by
C. LMA supreme
D. None of the above

17. The optimal length of the following

equipment

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[TEST AND DISCUSSION - 2022] “ANESTHESIA” Questions

B. Anithyroid
C. Anticoagulants
D. Antihypertensive

23. Aspirin should be stopped before

surgery
A. 7 day prior to surgery
B. 5 days prior
C. 3 days prior
D. to be continued
A. a)
24. Herbal medications should be stopped
B. b)
before surgery
C. c)
A. 1 day prior to surgery
D. All deliver equal concentration
B. 5 days prior
C. 7 days prior
20. The following is used for:
D. 2 weeks prior

25. The most important aim of

Preanesthetic medication:
A. To decrease secretions
B. Produce amnesia
C. Allay anxiety
D. Reduce the dose of inducing agents

26. The following is used to monitor

A. Thoracoabdominal angular
curvature during respiration
B. Flexion and extension of neck during
intubation
C. Free rotation
D. To assess difficulty in intubation in
oral cavity
A. Depth of anesthesia
21. ASA classification is done for: B. Cerebral oxygenation
A. Status of patient C. Cerebral blood flow
B. Risk D. Cerebral metabolic rate
C. Pain
D. Lung disease 27. What does point D represent in the
Image indicates?
22. All of the following drugs can be
continued before surgery except:
A. Antiepileptics

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[TEST AND DISCUSSION - 2022] “ANESTHESIA” Questions

30. Guaranteed recovery from non-

depolarizers means Train of four score
A. 0.3
B. 0.5
C. 0.7
D. 0.9

31. In shock Mixed venous oxygen

saturation will be
A. End-Tidal point A. Decrease
B. Inhalational phase B. Increase
C. Baseline Inspired Gas C. No effect
D. Expired Air D. May increase or decrease depending
on blood pressure
28. The following capnogram represents
32. Gold standard non-invasive method for
measurement of arterial oxygen
saturation
A. Pulse oximeter
B. Co-oximeter
C. Blood gases
D. Capnograph

33. Index of potency of inhalational agent

is:
A. Exhausted soda-lime A. Minimum alveolar concentration
B. Bronchospasm B. Diffusion coefficient
C. Spontaneous effort C. Alveolar concentration/blood
D. Endobronchial intubation concentration
D. Dead space concentration
29. The following trace of capnograph will
be seen in all of the following 34. Most Rapid recovery is seen with
conditions except A. Isoflurane
B. Halothane
C. Desflurane
D. Sevoflurane

35. Inhalational agent of choice for

asthmatics:
A. Halothane
A. Extubation B. Sevoflurane
B. Disconnection from circuit C. Isoflurane
C. Complete tube obstruction D. Desflurane
D. COPD

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[TEST AND DISCUSSION - 2022] “ANESTHESIA” Questions

36. Hepatitis cannot be seen with:

A. Halothane
B. Desflurane
C. Sevoflurane
D. Isoflurane

37. Inhalational agent of choice for shock

in present day anesthesia
A. Halothane
B. Sevoflurane
C. Desflurane
D. Enflurane

38. Safest for renal patient:

A. Papaverine intra-arterially
A. Desflurane
B. Heparin
B. Halothane
C. Stellate ganglion block
C. Sevoflurane
D. All of the above
D. Isoflurane
43. Not a physical property of the
39. Agent of choice for neurosurgical
following:
procedures:
A. Halothane
B. Isoflurane
C. Desflurane
D. Sevoflurane

40. All can be used for induction in children

except?
A. Desflurane
B. Sevoflurane
C. Halothane
D. none of the above

41. Which one of the following agents

sensitizes the myocardium to
catecholamines?
A. Isoflurane A. Water based preparation
B. Ether B. Color of the solution is white
C. Halothane C. It contains egg lecithin
D. Propofol D. Used as 2% strength
42. Treatment of intra-arterial injection of 44. Most cardiac stable IV agent-
the following: A. Thiopentone

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[TEST AND DISCUSSION - 2022] “ANESTHESIA” Questions

B. Halothane D. Nalorphine is antagonist at mu

C. Etomidate receptors
D. Propofol
49. Which of the following has ceiling
45. Most commonly used Benzodiazepine effect?
in anesthetic practice: A. Morphine
A. Diazepam B. Fentanyl
B. Lorazepam C. Buprenorphine
C. Midazolam D. Pethidine
D. All are equally used
50. How much score of the following
46. The following is preferred agent for confirms recovery
induction in all except:

A. 0.3
B. 0.5
C. 0.7
A. Tetralogy of Fallot D. 0.9
B. Constrictive pericarditis
C. Cardiac tamponade 51. First to be recover:
D. Ventricular septal defect (VSD) A. Laryngeal muscles
B. Diaphragm
47. Mu receptors are responsible for all C. Thenar muscles
actions except D. Intercostals
A. Analgesia
B. Respiratory depression 52. Rocuronium is used in anaesthesia for:
C. Sedation A. Intubation
D. Diuresis B. Maintenance of muscle relaxation
C. Both of the above
48. False statement about opioid and D. None of the above
receptor interaction:
A. Morphine is agonist at mu 53. Not a systemic effect of
receptors. succinylcholine:
B. Pentazocine is antagonist at kappa A. Tachycardia
receptors B. Hyperkalemia
C. Butorphanol is agonist at kappa C. Increased intracranial tension
receptors D. Masseter spasm

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[TEST AND DISCUSSION - 2022] “ANESTHESIA” Questions

54. Not a contraindication of D. Any one depending on potency of

succinylcholine: local anesthetic
A. Recent burns
B. Recent cerebral stroke 61. Which one of the following local
C. Recent crush injury anaesthetic is highly cardio-toxic?
D. Recent myocardial ischemia A. Lignocaine
B. Procaine
55. Hoffman degradation is shown by: C. Mepivacaine
A. Cis-atracurium D. Bupivacaine
B. Atracurium
C. Both 62. Maximum safe dose of xylocaine with
D. None adrenaline:
A. 3 mg/kg
56. Most cardiac stable muscle relaxant: B. 4.5 mg/kg
A. Vecuronium C. 5 mg/kg
B. Atracurium D. 7 mg/kg
C. Rocuronium
D. Rapacuronium 63. Conc. of lignocaine for spinal
A. 1%
57. Sellick maneuver is done to prevent: B. 2%
A. Hypoxia C. 3%
B. Aspiration D. 5%
C. Hypotension
D. Hypercarbia 64. The following is different from
Lignocaine in terms of
58. Not an epileptogenic anaesthetic:
A. Methohexitone
B. Enflurane
C. Atracurium
D. Thiopentone

59. All of the following cause malignant

hyperthermia, except:
A. Nitrous oxide
B. Halothane
C. Suxamethonium
D. Isoflurane

60. Fibers first to be affected by local

anaesthetic are:
A. A A. Potency
B. C B. Concentration
C. B C. Cardiotoxicity

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[TEST AND DISCUSSION - 2022] “ANESTHESIA” Questions

D. None of the above 69. High spinal anaesthesia is characterized

by:
65. False about Ropivacaine: A. Hypertension, tachycardia
A. Less cardiotoxic than bupivacaine B. Hypertension, bradycardia
B. More cardiotoxic than lignocaine C. Hypotension, tachycardia
C. Contains only one (S) enantiomer D. Hypotension, bradycardia
D. More potent than bupivacaine
70. The following needle can be used for
66. This is which block

A. Caudal
A. Stellate ganglion block B. Epidural
B. Gasserian ganglion block C. Combined spinal epidural
C. Brachial plexus block D. All of the above
D. Cervical plexus block
71. In all of the following conditions
67. Highest incidence of pneumothorax neuraxial blockade is absolutely
occurs when brachial plexus is blocked contraindicated, except:
by which route: A. Patient refusal
A. Interscalene B. Coagulopathy
B. Supraclavicular C. Severe hypovolemia
C. Beirs block D. Preexisting neurological deficits
D. Axillary
72. Visual analogue scale is most
68. In infants spinal cord extends up to: commonly used to measure:
A. L1 A. Sleep
B. L2 B. Sedation
C. L3 C. Pain intensity
D. S2 D. Depth of anaesthesia

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[TEST AND DISCUSSION - 2022] “ANESTHESIA” Questions

73. Not included in day care surgery? C. Echocardiography

A. Newborn D. Pulmonary artery catheterization
B. Uncontrolled ASA III
C. 90-Year-old hypertensive 78. A 65-year male with a history of
D. Controlled Diabetic myocardial ischemia 2 years back for
which he remained admitted in CCU for
74. The intra-abdominal pressure (IAP) 5 days is to be operated by
during laparoscopy should be set laparoscopic cholecystectomy. He is on
between: regular treatment since then. Untrue
A. 5-8 mmHg about premedication:
B. 10-15 mmHg A. Premedication should be avoided
C. 20-25 mmHg B. Premedication is mandatory
D. 30-35 mmHg C. Premedication is optional
D. Premedication depends on LVEF
75. Not a safe muscle relaxant for
myasthenia gravis: 79. A 65-year male with a history of
A. Suxamethonium myocardial ischemia 2 years back for
B. Atracurium which he remained admitted in CCU for
C. Cis-atracurium 5 days is to be operated by
D. Pancuronium laparoscopic cholecystectomy. He is on
regular treatment since then.
76. A 65-year male with a history of Monitoring of which ECG lead is most
myocardial ischemia 2 years back for important in intraoperative period:
which he remained admitted in CCU for A. Lead II
5 days is to be operated by B. Lead V1
laparoscopic cholecystectomy. He is on C. Lead V3
regular treatment since then. Which of D. Lead V5
the following drug should be stopped
in this patient: 80. A 65-year male with a history of
A. Sorbitrate myocardial ischemia 2 years back for
B. Aspirin which he remained admitted in CCU for
C. Atenolol 5 days is to be operated by
D. Nifedipine laparoscopic cholecystectomy. He is on
regular treatment since then. Induction
77. A 65-year male with a history of agent of choice will be:
myocardial ischemia 2 years back for
A. Thiopentone
which he remained admitted in CCU for B. Propofol
5 days is to be operated by C. Ketamine
laparoscopic cholecystectomy. He is on D. Etomidate
regular treatment since then. Which of
the following test would be most 81. A 65-year male with a history of
useful: myocardial ischemia 2 years back for
A. 12 lead ECG which he remained admitted in CCU for
B. TMT

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[TEST AND DISCUSSION - 2022]
5 days is to be operated by
laparoscopic cholecystectomy. He is on
regular treatment since then.
Anaesthesia is best maintained on:
A. O2 + N2O + halothane
B. O2 + N2O + isoflurane
C. O2 + N2O + sevoflurane
D. O2 + N2O + morphine
82. A 30- year female with thyroid swelling
is posted for subtotal thyroidectomy.
On clinical examination pulse rate is
130/min., eye signs are +ve, tremors
are present. Investigation revealed
high T3 and T4 levels and low TSH. True
statement about time of surgery is:
A. Should be deferred till patient is
euthyroid
B. Start antithyroid drugs and take
patient for surgery
C. Antithyroid drugs should be started
only after surgery
D. No need to start antithyroid drugs as
thyroidectomy will treat the disease
83. A 30- year female with thyroid swelling
is posted for subtotal thyroidectomy.
On clinical examination pulse rate is
130/min., eye signs are +ve, tremors
are present. Investigation revealed
high T3 and T4 levels and low TSH. All
of the following induction agents will
be safe to use except:
A. Thiopentone
B. Propofol
C. Etomidate
D. Ketamine
84. A 30- year female with thyroid swelling
is posted for subtotal thyroidectomy.
On clinical examination pulse rate is
130/min., eye signs are +ve, tremors
are present. Investigation revealed
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“ANESTHESIA” Questions
high T3 and T4 levels and low TSH.
Inhalational agent of choice is:
A. Isoflurane
B. Halothane
C. Sevoflurane
D. Methoxyflurane
85. A 30- year female with thyroid swelling
is posted for subtotal thyroidectomy.
On clinical examination pulse rate is
130/min., eye signs are +ve, tremors
are present. Investigation revealed
high T3 and T4 levels and low TSH. The
minimum alveolar concentration (MAC)
of isoflurane will:
A. Remain same
B. Increased
C. Decreased
D. Initially increase and decreased later
86. A 26- year female is to be operated for
a frontal lobe tumor. Her BP is 160/100
mmHg, pulse rate 58 /minute, on
fundoscopy papilledema is positive.
This patient should be premedicated
with:
A. Midazolam
B. Diazepam
C. Fentanyl
D. None of the above
87. A 26- year female is to be operated for
a frontal lobe tumor. Her BP is 160/100
mmHg, pulse rate 58 /minute, on
fundoscopy papilledema is positive.
Induction agent of choice is:
A. Thiopentone
B. Ketamine
C. Morphine
D. Etomidate
88. A 26- year female is to be operated for
a frontal lobe tumor. Her BP is 160/100
Page 11
[TEST AND DISCUSSION - 2022]
mmHg, pulse rate 58 /minute, on
fundoscopy papilledema is positive.
Which muscle relaxant should not be
used?
A. Vecuronium
B. Pancuronium
C. Rocuronium
D. Succinylcholine
89. A 26- year female is to be operated for
a frontal lobe tumor. Her BP is 160/100
mmHg, pulse rate 58 /minute, on
fundoscopy papilledema is positive.
Anaesthesia is best maintained on:
A. O2 + N2O + halothane
B. O2 + N2O + isoflurane
C. O2 + N2O + morphine
D. O2 + N2O + Sevoflurane
90. A 22 -year male is being operated for
removal of posterior fossa mass.
Surgery was being done in sitting
position, suddenly after 20-30 minutes
of surgery the patient developed PSVT,
ETCO2 became 15 mmHg. The most
probable diagnosis is:
A. Accidental extubation
B. Air embolism
C. Inhalational agent toxicity
D. Central cholinergic syndrome
91. A 22 -year male is being operated for
removal of posterior fossa mass.
Surgery was being done in sitting
position, suddenly after 20-30 minutes
of surgery the patient developed PSVT,
ETCO2 became 15 mmHg. Which of the
following agent should not be used in
this patient?
A. Nitrous oxide
B. Isoflurane
C. Desflurane
D. Propofol
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“ANESTHESIA” Questions
92. A 22 -year male is being operated for
removal of posterior fossa mass.
Surgery was being done in sitting
position, suddenly after 20-30 minutes
of surgery the patient developed PSVT,
ETCO2 became 15 mmHg. Most
sensitive test to detect the air
embolism would be:
A. Color Doppler
B. Transesophageal echocardiography
(TEE)
C. End tidal CO2
D. Pulmonary artery pressure
93. False about GA given to a Covid 19
patient
A. Rapid sequence induction is
preferred
B. Using HME filter is must
C. Macintosh is the preferred blade for
intubation
D. An additional filter should be placed
on expiratory limb
94. Maximum risk of contamination to
anesthesia personal occurs during
A. Induction
B. Maintenance
C. Reversal
D. Equal during all phases of anesthesia
95. Not a desirable ventilator setting for
Covid induced ARDS
A. Tidal volume 10 ml/kg
B. FIO2 80-100%
C. Plateau pressure 35-40 cmH20
D. All of the above
96. Advantages of high flow nasal cannula
(HFNC) are all except
A. Humidified oxygen
B. Positive end expiratory pressure
C. Decreases anatomical dead space
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 [TEST AND DISCUSSION - 2022] “ANESTHESIA” Questions

D. Decreased need for intubation as

compared to NIV

97. The sequence of management in

cardiac arrest is:
A. A (airway)> B (breathing) > C
(circulation)
B. B> C > A
C. C >A > B
D. A > C > B

98. Ratio of compression to breathing

without advanced airway for two
resuscitators in pediatric patient
A. 30:2
B. 15:1
C. 15:2
D. None of the above

99. First shock for defibrillation for

Ventricular fibrillation
A. 200J
B. 300J
C. 360J
D. Depends on indication

100. In an infant CPR under ACLS total

breath/min. should be
A. 10
B. 20
C. 30
D. 40

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[TEST AND DISCUSSION - 2022] “ANESTHESIA” Answer Key

ANSWER KEY

1. A 39. D 77. C
2. A 40. A 78. B
3. D 41. C 79. C
4. C 42. D 80. D
5. D 43. A 81. D
6. B 44. C 82. A
7. A 45. C 83. D
8. A 46. D 84. A
9. C 47. D 85. A
10. C 48. B 86. D
11. D 49. C 87. A
12. D 50. D 88. D
13. D 51. A 89. D
14. C 52. C 90. B
15. D 53. A 91. A
16. A 54. D 92. B
17. D 55. C 93. C
18. A 56. A 94. C
19. B 57. B 95. D
20. D 58. D 96. D
21. A 59. A 97. C
22. C 60. A 98. D
23. C 61. D 99. C
24. C 62. D 100.C
25. C 63. D
26. A 64. D
27. A 65. D
28. D 66. A
29. D 67. B
30. D 68. C
31. A 69. D
32. B 70. D
33. A 71. D
34. C 72. C
35. B 73. B
36. C 74. B
37. C 75. D
38. A 76. B

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