15-10-2023 CODE-A

MM : 720 NEET-2024 Term Test Series for Class-12th Time : 03:20

Term Test - 04
Physics : Introduction, The experiments of Faraday and Henry, Magnetic Flux, Faraday's laws of
induction, Lenz's law and conservation of energy Motional electromotive force, Energy
consideration: A quantitative study Eddy currents, Inductance: Self Inductance: Mutual
Inductance, AC Generator. Introduction AC voltage applied to a resistor, representation of
AC current and voltage by rotating vectors -phasors, AC voltage applied to an inductor, AC
voltage applied to a capacitor AC voltage applied to a series LCR circuit, Power in AC circuit,
The power factor LC Oscillations, transformers. Introduction, Displacement currents,
Electromagnetic waves, Electromagnetic spectrum. & Introduction, Reflection of light,
spherical mirrors Refraction Total internal reflection, Refraction at spherical surface
Refraction through lenses Refraction through a prism, Dispersion by prism, some natural
phenomena due to sunlight Optical instruments – The eye, microscope Optical instruments
– Telescope.
Chemistry : Werner's theory of coordination compounds, Definition of some important terms pertaining
to coordination compounds Nomenclature of coordination compounds, Isomerism in
coordination compounds Valence bond theory of complex compounds Crystal field theory,
colour of coordination complexes Bonding in metal carbonyls & organometallics, Stability of
coordination compounds, Importance & Application of coordination compounds &
Classification of Halogen compounds, Nomenclature of Halogen compounds, Nature of C-X
bond, methods of preparation of Haloalkanes & Haloarenes Physical properties of
Haloalkanes, optical activity Nucleophilic substitution reactions of haloalkanes Elimination
reactions in haloalkanes Elimination versus substitution, Reactions of R-X with Na Aromatic
nucleophilic substitution, Elimination addition Reaction Electrophilic substitution of ArX,
Polyhalogen compounds
Botany : Genetic code - Salient featurest-RNA - The adapter molecule, Translation. Regulation of
gene expression, Operon concept Human genome Project - Goals, Methodologies, Salient
features, Applications and future challenges, DNA fingerprinting. & Live stocks, animal
Breeding, inbreeding, outbreeding, out crossing, cross breeding, Interspecific hybridisation,
MOET, artificial insemination Dairy farm management, poultry farm management, indigenous
& exotic breeds, bacterial, viral & fungal diseases Bee keeping, Sericulture, Aqua culture
(Fisheries)Introduction, Plant breeding – Definition, Main steps Green revolution, Plant
breeding for disease resistance, Plant breeding for resistance to insect pests, Improved food
quality, Anti nutritional factors, Single cell protein, Green manure, Energy crops, Petroleum
plants,
Zoology : Drugs and alcohol abuse-Opioids, Cannabinoids, Sedatives and tranquilisers,
Hallucinogens, Stimulants, Tobacco addiction. Adolescence, addiction & dependence,
effects of drugs & alcohol abuse, prevention & control Biotechnology-Principles, tools of
recombinant DNA technology Separation and isolation of DNA fragments, Cloning vectors,
Competent host Processes of recombinant DNA technology & Biotechnological applications
in agriculture–Bt cotton, Pest resistant plants Biotechnological applications in medicine–
Genetically engineered insulin, Gene therapy, Molecular diagnosis Transgenic Animals,
ethical issues, biopiracy
Instructions :
(i) Use Blue/Black ballpoint pen only to darken the appropriate circle.
(ii) Mark should be dark and should completely fill the circle.
(iii) Dark only one circle for each entry.
(iv) Dark the circle in the space provided only.
(v) Rough work must not be done on the Answer sheet and do not use white-fluid or any other rubbing material
on Answer sheet.
(vi) Each question carries 4 marks. For every wrong response 1 mark shall be deducted from total score.

(1)
NEET_12_KHUB TE-04 (15-Oct-23)

2. 13.7 × 10 −8
Jm
−3

PHYSICS
Physics 3. 6.8 × 10 −8
Jm
−3

4. 1.7 × 10 −8
Jm
−3

Section A 5. A convergent lens of power ‘24D’ is used

1. A small circular loop of wire of radius a as a simple microscope. The
is located at the Centre of a much larger magnification produced by the lens.
circular wire loop of radius b. The two When the final image is formed at least
loops are in the same plane. The outer distance of distinct vision is
loop of radius b carries an alternating
current I = I cos (ωt). The emf induced
0
1. 6
in the smaller inner loop is nearly
2. 4
2

1.
πμ 0 I 0 a
. ω sin (ωt)
2 b
3. 7
2

2. πμ 0 I 0

2
.
a

b
ω cos (ωt) 4. 5

A rectangular loop with a sliding

2

3. πμ 0 I0
a
ω sin (ωt) 6.
connector of length 𝓁 = 1. 0 m is
b

4. πμ 0 I 0 b
2

ω cos (ωt)
situated in a uniform magnetic field
B = 2T perpendicular to the plane of
a

2. Which one of the following alternative is loop. Resistance of connector is r = 2Ω .

FALSE for a prism placed in a minimum Two resistances of 6Ω and 3Ω are
deviation connected as shown in figure. The
power dissipated as Joule heat when the
1. i 1 = i2 connector is moved with a constant
velocity of 2 m/s is
2. r 1 = r2

3. i 1 = r1

4. All of these

3. The primary winding of a transformer 1. 6 W

has 500 turns whereas its secondary has
5000 turns. The primary is connected to 2. 4 W
an A.C. supply of 20 V, 50 Hz. The
secondary will have an output of 3. 2 W

1. 2 V, 5 Hz 4. 1 W

2. 200 V, 500 Hz 7. The correct statements of the following

about Electromagnetic waves are
3. 2 V, 50 Hz
a) Accelerated charges radiate E.M.
4. 200 V, 50 Hz waves
4. The maximum electric field of a plane b) The frequency of wave is equal to the
electromagnetic wave is 88 V /m. The frequency of oscillating charge
average energy density of E.M. wave is
c) Gamma rays are produced by
1. 3.4 × 10 −8
Jm
−3
radioactive decay of nucleus

Page 2 of 18
NEET_12_KHUB TE-04 (15-Oct-23)

1. a, b only 1. 2.5 watt

2. a, c only 2. 5.0 watt

3. b, c only 3. 10.0 watt

4. All a, b, c are correct 4. 50.0 watt

8. The alternating current in a circuit is 11. Alternating current in circuit is given by

given by i = i sin πnt, then the time
0
taken by the current to rise from zero to
r.m.s value is equal to
I = I0 sin 2πnt Then the time taken by
the current to rise from zero to r.m.s.
value is equal to

1. 1 1. 1

2n
n

2. 1 2. 1

n
2n

3. 1 3. 1

4n
4n

4. 1 4. 1

8n
8n

9. White light is incident on face AB of a 12. A condenser of capacity 1µF and a

glass prism. The path of the green
component is shown in the figure. If the
green light is just totally internally
reflected at face AC as shown, the light
emerging from face AB will contain
resistance 0.5 mega-ohm are connected
in series with a DC supply of 2 V. The
time constant of circuit is
1. 2s
2. 1s

3. 0.5s

4. 0.25s

13. In a series L-C-R circuit connected to an

AC source operating at angular
frequency ω = and voltage of
1

√ LC

amplitude V the algebraic sum of the

0

potential difference across the capacitor

1. Yellow, orange and red colours and inductor is :

2. Violet, indigo and blue colours 1. zero

3. All colours 2. V0

ωL

4. All colours except green 3. ω CV 0

10. In an AC circuit the voltage and current 4. 2V 0

are described by
) volts and 14. A magnet is brought towards a coil (i)
π
V = 200 sin(314t −
6

i = 50 sin(314t + )mA respectively.

π Speedly (ii) Slowly, then the induced
6

The average power dissipated in the emf/induced charge will be respectively

circuit is

Page 3 of 18
NEET_12_KHUB TE-04 (15-Oct-23)

1. More in first case/More in first 18. In the series LCR circuit, the voltmeter
case and ammeter readings are respectively,
2. More in first case/Equal in both
cases
3. Less in first case/More in second
case
4. Less in first case/Equal in both
cases

15. A circular beam of light of diameter

d=2cm falls on a plane surface of glass.
The angle of incidence is 600 and 1. V = 250V, I = 4 A
refractive index of glass is μ = 3/2. The 2. V = 150V, I = 2 A
diameter of the refracted beam is
3. V = 1000V, I = 5 A
1. 4.00cm
4. V = 100V, I = 2 A
2. 3.0cm
19. The equivalent inductance between A
3. 3.26cm and B is
4. 2.52cm

16. If the refractive indices of a prism for

red, yellow and violet colours be 1.61,
1.63 and 1.65 respectively, then the
dispersive power of the prism will be

1. 1.65−1.62

1.61−1

2. 1.62−1.61

1.65−1
1. 0.8H

3. 1.65−1.61 2. 1H
1.63−1

3. 4H
4. 1.65−1.63

1.61−1

4. 16H
17. A prism of refractive index μ and angle
A is placed in the minimum deviation 20. An alternating current is given by
position. If the angle of minimum i = (3 sin ωt + 4 cos ωt)A. The rms

deviation is A, then the value of A in current will be

terms of μ is
1. 7

√2
A
1. sin −1 μ
( )
2

2. 1

√2
A

2. sin −1
√
μ−1

3. 5

√2
A

3. 2 cos −1
(
μ

2
)

4. 5 A
4. cos −1
(
μ

2
)

Page 4 of 18
NEET_12_KHUB TE-04 (15-Oct-23)

21. A power transmission line feeds input used. The least capacitance of capacitor
power at 2300V to a step down connected across the switch must be
transformer with its primary windings equal to
having 4000 turns. What should be the
number of turns in the secondary in order 1. 50µF
to get output power at 230V?
2. 25µF
1. 200
3. 100µF
2. 400
4. 12.5µF
3. 20
25. An observers looks at tree of height 15m
4. 40 with a telescope of magnifying power
10. To him, the tree appears
22. The loop PQ, as shown in figure moves
with a velocity v. Both loop and velocity 1. 10 times taller
are in the plane of paper and a magnetic
→ 2. 15 times taller
field B exists in the region perpendicular
to plane and directed inward. Find the 3. 10 times nearer
emf induced between P and Q.
4. 15 times nearer

26. A circular coil of radius 10 cm, 100 turns

and resistance 2Ω is placed with its
plane perpendicular to horizontal
component of the earth’s magnetic field.
It is rotated about its vertical diameter
through 180° in 0.25 s. The induced
current through the coil is (Horizontal
component of earth’s magnetic field is
1. Bv2r 3.0 × 10
−5
T)

2. B(a+b+2r)v 1. 3.77 × 10–4 A

3. B(a+b+2r)v 2. 37.7 × 10–4 A
4. Bπrv 3. 75.4 × 10–4 A

23. The resistance of a coil for dc is 5Ω . In 4. 75.4 × 10–5 A

case of ac, the resistance:
27. One 10V, 60W bulb is to be connected to
1. will remain 5Ω 100V line. The required induction coil
has self inductance of value (f=50Hz)
2. will decrease
1. 0.052 H
3. will increase
2. 2.42 H
4. will be zero
3. 16.2 mH
24. A circuit has a self-inductance of 1H and
carries a current of 2A. To prevent 4. 1.62 mH
sparking when the circuit is switched off,
a capacitor which can withstand 400 V is 28.

Page 5 of 18
NEET_12_KHUB TE-04 (15-Oct-23)
Twelve wires of equal lengths are
connected in the form of a skeleton -
cube. If the cube moves perpendicular to
the field, then
1. emf is induced in the arms AE,
BF, CG and DH
2. emf is induced in the arms AB,
DC, EF and HG
3. emf is induced in the arms AD,
BC, EH and FG
4. No emf is induced in any arm
29. Mutual inductance M between two
concentric coils of radii 1m and 2m is
1.
μ0 π
2
2. μ0 π
4
μ0 π
3. 8
4. μ0 π
10
30. The condition under which a microwave
oven heats up a food item containing
water molecules most efficiency is
1. The frequency of the microwaves
must match the resonant
frequency of the water molecules
2. The frequency of the microwaves
has no relation with natural
frequency of water molecules
3. Microwaves are heat waves, so
always produce heating
4. Infra - red waves produce heating
in an electron
31. Assertion(A): Corpuscular theory fails in
explaining the velocities of light in air
and water.
Reason(R): According to corpuscular
theory, light should travel faster in
denser media than is rarer media.
1. If both A and R are true and R is
the correct explanation of A
2. If both A and R are true but R is
not the correct explanation of A
3. If A is true but R is false
4. If both A and R are false
32. The magnetic field within a long, straight
solenoid with a circular cross-section of
radius r is (as shown) increasing at a rate
of α
The rate of change of flux through a
circle with radius "a" inside the solenoid,
normal to the axis of the solenoid and
with centre on the solenoid axis is
1. √2πa α 2
2. 1
2
πa α
2
3. πa2α
4. 3
2
πaα
33. A new unit of length is chosen such that
the speed of light in vacuum is unity. If
light takes 8 min and 20 s to cover
distance between the sun and the earth,
that distance in terms of the new unit will
be
1. 5
2. 50
3. 500
Page 6 of 18
NEET_12_KHUB TE-04 (15-Oct-23)

4. 5000 4. 0.4

34. A triangular prism of glass is shown in
the figure. A ray incident normally to one
face is totally reflected, if θ = 45 . The
0
index of refraction of glass is
37. A wheel with 10 metallic spokes each 0.5
m long is rotated with a speed of 120
rev/min in a plane normal to the earth's
magnetic field at the place. If the
magnitude of the field is 0.4 G, the
induced e.m.f. between the axle and the
rim of the wheel equal to
1. 1.256 × 10-3 V

2. 6.28 × 10-4V

3. 1.256 × 10-4V
4. 6.28 × 10-5V

38. Light with energy flux of 18W /cm 2

falls on a non reflecting surface at

1. Less than 1.41 normal incidence. If the surface has an
2. Equal to 1.41 area of 20 cm . The average force
2

exerted on the surface during a 30

3. Greater than 1.41 minute time span is about.

4. None of the above 1. 1.2 × 10 −8

N

35. The r.m.s current in an circuit is 2 A. If 2. 1.2 × 10 −7

N

the wattless current be √3A, what is the 3. 1.2 × 10 −6

N
power factor?
4. 1.2 × 10 −5
N
1. 1

39. In an ac circuit, V and I are given by

√3

V = 100 sin (100 t) volts,

2. 1

√2 π
I = 100 sin (100t +
3
. The
) mA

3. 1

2 power dissipated in circuit is

4. 1

3
1. 2.5 W

2. 5W
Section B
3. 10W
36. A Galilean telescope measures 9cm from
the objective to the eye-piece. The focal 4. 20 W
length of the objective is 15cm. Its
magnifying power at far point 40. A 140 mH inductor is connected to 220V,
adjustment is 50 Hz A.C. supply. The rms value of
current is
1. 2.5
1. 5 A
2. 215
2. 5
A
3. 513 √2

Page 7 of 18
NEET_12_KHUB TE-04 (15-Oct-23)

3. 5√2A
4. 31.4A

41. In the process of charging of a capacitor,

the current produced between the plates
of the capacitor is :

1. μ 0
dϕ E

dt

2. 1

μ0
dϕ E

dt

3. 1 dϕ E

ε0 dt 1. mgR cos θ

B
2
𝓁 2

4. ε 0
dϕ E

2. mgR sin θ
dt
B
2
𝓁 2

42. Assertion (A): An emf →

E is induced in a 3. mgR tan θ

B2 𝓁 2

closed loop where magnetic flux is

→
varied. The induced E is not a 4. mgR cot θ

B
2
𝓁 2

conservative field.
44. Assertion(A): Optical instruments are
Reason (R): The line integral E. dl
→→
assembled using lenses with very wide
around the closed loop is non zero. apertures.
Reason (R): Wide aperture of lenses
1. Both 'A' and 'R' are true and 'R' is
the correct explanation of 'A'. enables them to collect more light and
produce bright images.
2. Both 'A' and 'R' are true and 'R' is
not the correct explanation of 'A' 1. If both A and R are true and R is
the correct explanation of A
3. 'A' is true and 'R' is false
2. If both A and R are true but R is
4. Both 'A' and 'R' are false not the correct explanation of A

43. A copper rod of mass m slides under 3. If A is true but R is false

gravity on two smooth parallel rails 𝓁
distance apart and set at an angle θ to 4. If both A and R are false
the horizontal. At the bottom, the rails
45. Two coils A and B have mutual
are joined by a resistance R. There is a inductance 2 × 10 henry . If the
−2

uniform magnetic field perpendicular to

current in the primary is
the plane of the rails. The terminal i = 5 sin (10π t) , then the maximum
velocity of the rod is
value of emf induced in coil B is

1. π volts
2. π/2 volt

3. π/3 volt

4. π/4 volt

Page 8 of 18
NEET_12_KHUB TE-04 (15-Oct-23)

46. A ray of light passes through an
equilateral glass prism in such a manner
that the angle of incidence is equal to the
angle of emergence and each of these
angles is equal to 3/4 of the angle of
prism. The angle of deviation is
velocity ω in the uniform magnetic field
B perpendicular to the plane of motion.
If the upper one third of its length is
coated with copper, then the potential
difference across the whole length of the
stick is

1. 45 0

2. 39 ∘

3. 20 0

4. 30 0

47. Two different loops are concentric and

lie in the same plane. The current in the
outer loop is clockwise and increasing
with time. The induced current in the
inner loop then, is

1. Clockwise
2

2. Zero 1. 9Bωl

3. Counter clock wise 2. 4Bωl

4. In a direction that depends on the 3. 5Bωl

2

ratio of the loop radii 2

4. Bωl

48. A 100Ω resistor is connected to a 220 V, 2

50 Hz ac supply. Then rms value of

current in the circuit is

1. 11A Chemistry
CHEMISTRY
2. 1.11A
Section A
3. 22 A 51. The incorrect statement among the
following is?
4. 2.2 A
1. -OH group activates the benzene
49. A complex current wave is given by ring for the attack of an
i = 5 + 5 sin (100ωt)A, Its average
electrophile at o and p - positions.
value over one time period is given as
2. Halogens are moderately
1. 10 A deactivating group in the case of
2. 5 A aryl halides

3. √50 A 3. Chlorobenzene is more reactive

than benzene towards the
4. 0 electrophilic substitution
reaction.
50. A wooden stick of length 3l is rotated
about an end with constant angular 4. − NO is a meta directing group
2

Page 9 of 18
 NEET_12_KHUB TE-04 (15-Oct-23)

2. 9
52. Arrange the following compounds in
increasing order of their density 3. 7
i) CH2Cl2 4. 8
ii) CHCl3
55. The final product in the given reaction
iii) CCl4 is:
Na CH 3 −CH 2 −I

−
CH 3 − C ≡ CH → A →
1. iii<ii<i Product

2. iii<i<ii 1. CH 3 = CH − CH 2 − CH 3

3. iii<i=ii CH 3 − CH 2 − C ≡ C − CH 2 −
2. CH 3

4. i<ii<iii
3. CH ≡ C − CH 2 − CH 2 − CH 3

53. Match the reactions given in Column I 4. CH − C ≡ C − CH 2 − CH 3

with the names given in Column II 3

56. In the following sequence of reactions

HBr alc.KOH

CH 3 CH 2 CH 2 OH → A
−
− → B
H Br aq.KOH

−
−→ C → D The original
P eroxide

compound and D are:

1. Same
2. Isomers

3. Metamers

4. Homologues

57. In the reaction.

a l c.KOH Br 2 Excess KCN

−
−
C2 H5 I → X → Y → Z

X,Y and Z are respectively:

1. C 2 H4 , C 2 H 5 Br, C 2 H 5 CN

1. (a)-(i), (b)-(iii), (c)-(ii), (d)-(iv) 2. C 2 H5 OH, C 2 H 5 Br, C 2 H 5 CN

2. (a)-(iv), (b)-(ii), (c)-(i), (d)-(iii) C 2 H 4 , CH 2 BrCH 2 Br, NCCH 2

3. CH 2 CN
3. (a)-(ii), (b)-(i), (c)-(iv), (d)-(iii)
4. C 2 H4 , C 2 H 4 Br 2 , C 2 H 5 CN
4. (a)-(iv), (b)-(i), (c)-(iii), (d)-(ii)
58. Which of the following alkyl halides is
54. The total possible chloro derivatives hydrolysed by S 1 mechanism?
N
(structural)of all types for ethane will be
1. CH 3 Cl
1. 6

Page 10 of 18
NEET_12_KHUB TE-04 (15-Oct-23)

2. CH 3 CH 2 Cl

3. CH 3 CH 2 CH 2 Cl

4. (CH 3 )3 CCl

59. The incorrect statement among the

following is?

1. Primary halide react most rapidly 1. (i) < (ii) < (iii)
in S 2 reactions.
N
2. (ii) < (i) < (iii)
2. 1 alkyl halides undergo S
0
N 1

fast. 3. (iii) < (ii) < (i)

3. A mixture containing two 4. (i) < (iii) < (ii)

enantiomers in equal proportion
will have zero optical rotation. 63. Which of the following alkyl halides will
undergo S 1 reaction most readily?
N

4. Propan - 2 - ol does not contain 1. (CH 3 )3 C − F

an asymmetric carbon
2. (CH 3 )3 C − Cl
60. In which of the following species, S N 2

reaction takes place most readily? 3. (CH 3 )3 C − Br

1. H 3C − I
4. (CH 3 )3 C − I

2. H 3C − CH 2 − I
64. Assertion (A) : Methyl bromide is more
3. (CH 3 ) 2 CH − CH 2 − I reactive than ethyl bromide towards S 2 N

reactions.
4. (CH 3 )3 C − CH 2 − I
Rason (R) : Stability of methyl
61. Statement-I: S 2 reactions may proceed
N
carbocation is greater than ethyl
with retention of configuration. carbocation

Statement-II: S 1 reactions may be

N
1. Both A and R are true and R
accompained by almost racemisation. explains A

1. Both statement-I and Statement- 2. Both A and R are true but R

II are correct. doesn’t explain A

2. Both statement-I and Statement- 3. A is true but R is false

II are incorrect.
4. Both A and R are false
3. Statement-I is correct &
Statement-II is incorrect. 65. Least reactive towards nucleophilic
substitution reaction is
4. Statement-I is incorrect &
Statement-II is correct.

62. Increasing order towards nucleophilic

substitution:

Page 11 of 18
NEET_12_KHUB TE-04 (15-Oct-23)

1. Reactivity of halides towards

2 0 0 0
SN is 1 > 2 > 3

2. Low concentration of nucleophile

1.
favours SN 2

3. Polar protic solvents favour SN 2

reactions

4. In SN rearrangements are likely

2

to occur.

68. Identify major product formed in the

2. following reaction

3.
1.

2.

4.

3.

66. Arrange the given set of compounds in

the increasing order of their boiling 4.
points.
I. 1 - Chloropropane II.
Isopropylchloride 69. Toluene on bromination in Fe and dark
III. 1 - Chlorobutane forms o-bromotoluene and p-
bromotoluene.These two can be
1. II < III < I seperated easily from the mixture
2. I < II < III because these are having

3. II < I < III 1. same molar mass

4. III < I < II 2. large difference in melting points

3. less difference in melting points
67. Correct statement about nucleophilic
substitution reaction is

Page 12 of 18
NEET_12_KHUB TE-04 (15-Oct-23)

4. same percentage composition of

C and H

70. Alkyl halides are prepared from alcohols

by treating with
(A)HCl+ZnCl2

(B)Red P+Br2
(C)H2SO4 + KI

1. A and B 1.
2. B and C
3. A and C

4. A,B and C

71.

2.

; Identify correct match?

3.

1. A = KI ; Z = Iodobenzene
2. A = KCl ; Z = Chlorobenzene

3. A = KBr ; Z = Bromobenzene
4. A = KF ; Z = Fluorobenzene

72. Major product of the following reaction

is

Page 13 of 18
 NEET_12_KHUB TE-04 (15-Oct-23)

1. Locant for Br is 2

2. Locant for methyl group is 4

4. 3. Locant for double bond is 3

4. Locant for Br is 4

76. Incorrect match among the following is

1. [Co (NH ) ] - octahedral -
+3
3 6

73. Identify the reaction in which product inner orbital complex

formed is wrongly matched?
2. [CoF ] octahedral - outer
6
−3

orbital complex

3. [NiCl 4]
−2
- tetrahedral -SP 3

1.
4. [Ni(CN) - tetrahedral -SP
−2 3
4]

77. The correct increasing order of field

strength of ligands according to
2. CH3CH2OH+SOCl2→ spectrochemical series is
CH3CH2Cl
1. I −
< F
−
< C2 O
−2

4
< CO
red P/ Br 2

3
− 2 → 3 2 CO < C 2 O
−2 3. CH CH OH
< F
−
< I
− CH CH Br 2. 4

NaBr /H 2 SO 4

3
− 2 → F < C2 O < CO < I 4. CH CH OH 3. − −2

4
−

CH3CH2Br
4. C 2 O4
−2
< F
−
< I
−
< CO

74. Swarts reaction is represented as CH3Br

+ X →CH3F + Y. In this reaction (X) 78. Hybridisation of central metal in
cannot be [N i(CO) ], [N i(CN ) ] and −2

4 4

1. AgF [N iCl ] 4 is respectively

−2

2. CoF2 1. sp 3
, dsp
2
and dsp
2

3. Hg2F2 2. sp 3
, dsp
2
and sp
3

4. NaF 3. sp 3
, sp
3
and dsp
2

75. For the given structure according to 4. dsp 2

, sp
3
and sp
3

IUPAC system,the correct statement is

79. Pick up the true statement about the
complex compound with the formula
[Co(N H 3 ) Cl 3 ]
3

1. IUPAC name is triamminecobalt

(III) chloride
2. The complex can exhibit fac-mer
isomerism

Page 14 of 18
NEET_12_KHUB TE-04 (15-Oct-23)

3. The complex can show optical 2. 2.84 BM

isomerism
3. 4.89 BM
4. The hybrid state of cobalt is dsp 2

4. 5.92 BM

80. If excess of AgN O solution is added to

3 85. Which of the following complexes can
100 ml of a 0.024 M solution of show all the three types of isomerisms:
dichlorobis(ethylene diamine) cobalt(III) optical, geometrical and ionization
chloride. How many moles of AgCl will isomerism
be precipitated? I) K [CrCl (C O ) ]
3 2 2 4 2

II)[PtCl (en) ] SO
2 2 4
1. 0.0012
III) Na[Fe (NH ) (CN) ] 3 2 4

2. 0.0016 IV)[Co(en) ] Cl 3 3

3. 0.0024 1. II only

4. 0.0048 2. I and II only

81. [Co(tn) Cl 2 ]Cl and [Co(pn) Cl 2 ]Cl

3. II and III only
2 2

are the examples of which of the

4. IV only
following type of isomerism
1. Geometrical isomerism Section B
2. Hydrated isomerism 86. Which of the following is a polynuclear
compound?
3. Ligand isomerism
1. [Co(NH 3
)
4
Cl 2 ] Cl

4. Ionization isomerism
2. NaFe [Fe (CN) 6
]

82. The oxidation state of oxygen in

O [P tF ] is
2 6
3. [Cr (H 2 O) 5 Cl] Cl 2

1. 0 4. [Co 2 (NH 3 ) (OH) ] Cl 3

6 3

2. + 1

2 87. The coordination number and oxidation

number of M in the compound
3. +1 [M (SO )(NH ) ] will be
4 3 5

4. − 1

2 1. 6 and 3

83. In ferrocene the effective atomic number 2. 2 and 6

of iron is 3. 6 and 2
1. 36
2. 35 4. 3 and 6
3. 37
4. 34 88. tris(ethane-1, 2-diammine)cobalt (III)
sulphate is denoted by the formula
84. Magnetic moment of the complex
[Fe(CN) ] approximately is
6
−3
1. [Co 3 (en)] SO 4

1. 1.73 BM 2. [Co (en) 3

] SO 4

Page 15 of 18
NEET_12_KHUB TE-04 (15-Oct-23)

3. [Co (en) 3
] (SO 4 )
3 2
1. hexacyanitroferrate (III) ion

4. [Co (en) 3
] (SO 4 )
2 3
2. tricyanoferrate (III) ion

89. The IUPAC name of 3. hexacyanidoferrate (III) ion

[Co (NH 3 ) Cl (NO 2 )] Cl is
4
4. hexacyanoiron (III) ion.
1. Tetraamminechloridonitrito-N-
cobalt (III) chloride 92. The incorrect statement with respect to
valence bond theory
2. Tetraamminechloronitrocobalt
1. The electrons in the metal
(II) chloride
orbitals may undergo regrouping
3. Tetraamminechloronitrocobalt (I) even against Hund’s rule.
chloride 2. The electrons in an incompletely
4. Tetraamminechloronitrocobalt filled orbitals give rise to the
(III) chloride resultant magnetic moment

List –II 3. Ligand orbitals overlap the

90.
vacant metal orbitals to form a
List –I (Charge on
strong coordinate covalent bond
(Complex) Co-ord.
to the extent possible
Sphere
A) CoCl 3. 6
i) +1 4. The number of electrons lost is
NH 3
equal to the coordination number
B) CoCl
NH
3. 5
ii) +2 of the metal
3

C) CoCl 3.
93. Correct increasing order for the
4
NH
iii) +3
3
wavelengths of absorption in the visible
D) CoCl
NH
3. 3
iv) +4 region for the complexes of Co is 3+

v) 0 3+ 3+
[Co (en) ] , [Co (NH 3 ) ] ,
3 6

The correct match in terms of the charge 1. [Co (H 2 O) ]

6
3+

on the complex 3+ 3+
[Co (H 2 O) ] , [Co (en) ] ,
6 3

2. [Co (NH 3 ) ]
6
3+

(A) (B) (C) (D)

3+ 3+
1) iii ii v i [Co (H 2 O) ]
6
, [Co (NH 3 ) ]
6
,

2) iii i ii v 3. [Co (en) ]

3
3+

3) iii ii i v 3+ 3+
[Co (NH 3 ) ] , [Co (en) ] ,
4) iv iii ii i 6 3

4. [Co (H 2 O) ]
6
3+

1. 1
94. If Δ < P, the correct electronic
0

2. 2 configuration for d4 system will be

3. 3 1. t 4
2g
e
0
g

4. 4 2. t 3
2g
eg
1

91. The name of complex ion, is

3−
[Fe(CN) 6 ]
3. t 0
2g
e
4
g

Page 16 of 18
NEET_12_KHUB TE-04 (15-Oct-23)

4. t 2
2g
e
2
g
4. Ethylene diammine

95. Which of the following complex 99. K 2 SO 4 . Al 2 (SO 4 ) . 24H 2 O

3
is
compound shows optical isomerism?
1. a complex salt
1. [Cu (NH 3 )4 ]
2+

2. a double salt
2. [Zn (Cl)
2−

4
]
3. a complex salt & double salt
3. [Cr (C 2 O4 )3 ]
3−
4. a basic salt

4. [Co (CN) 6
]
3−
100.Statement -I: Potassium ferrocyanide is
diamagnetic whereas potassium
96. The correct order of the stoichiometries ferricyanide is paramagnetic
of AgCl formed when AgNO3 in excess Statement -II: Crystal field splitting in
is treated with the complexes ferrocyanide ion is greater than that of
: CoCl 3 . 6 NH 3 , CoCl 3 . 5 NH 3 , CoCl 3 . ferricyanide ion
4 NH 3

respectively is
1. 1 AgCl, 3 AgCl, 2 AgCl
2. 3 AgCl, 1 AgCl, 2 AgCl
3. 3 AgCl, 2 AgCl, 1 AgCl
4. 2 AgCl, 3 AgCl, 1 AgCl
97. Assertion (A): (Ph P) RhCl is
1. Both statements I and II are
correct
2. Statement I is correct II is false
3. Statement I is false II is correct
4. Both statements I and II are false
3 3

Wilkinson’s catalyst.
Reason(R): (Ph P) RhCl can show 3 3

optical isomerism but does not show

geometrical isomerism

1. Both A and R are true and R is

the correct explanation of A

2. Both A and R are true and R is

not the correct explanation of A

3. A is true but R is false

4. Both A and R are false

98. The polydentate ligand used in the

treatment of lead poisoning

1. EDTA
2. Glycinate

3. Oxalate

Page 17 of 18
NEET_12_KHUB TE-04 (15-Oct-23)

BOTANY
106. Which among the given conditions regulate the
SECTION - A
expression of genes?
101. The salient features of genetic code are :
A. Metabolic conditions
(A) The code is palindromic
B. Physiological conditions
(B) UGA act as initiator codon
C. Environmental condition
(C) The code is unambiguous and specific
(1) A and C only
(D) The code is nearly universal
(2) A, B and C
Choose the most appropriate answer from the
(3) B and C only
options given below :
(4) A and B only
(1) (A) and (D) only (2) (B) and (C) only
107. What is the amino acid sequence in the
(3) (A) and (B) only (4) (C) and (D) only
polypeptide segment translated from the mRNA
102. Assertion (A) : Conventional breeding is often base sequence of UUG-CCU-AAG-AGC-UGG?
constrained by the availability of limited number of
(1) Phenyl alanine - Proline Asparagine -
disease resistance genes that are present and
Tryptophan
identified in various crops or wild relatives
(2) Leucine - Proline - Lysine Serine -Tryptophan
Reason (R) : Selection among soma clonal
variants and genetic engineering are not methods (3) Leucine - Lysine - Serine Proline - Alanine
of plant breeding (4) Serine - Alanine - Proline - Serine- Cysteine
(1) A and R correct, R explains A 108. Read the following statements.
(2) A and R correct, R does not explains A Statement – I: Transcriptional unit is DNA flanked
(3) A is incorrect, R is correct on either side by promoter and terminator.

(4) A is correct, R is incorrect Statement – II: Translational unit is mRNA flanked

on either side by initiator codon and terminator
103. High aspartic acid, low nitrogen and sulphur
codon.
content in maize leads to resistance to -
In the light of given statements, choose the correct
(1) Stem borers (2) Aphids
answer from the options given below.
(3) White rust (4) Cereal leaf beetle
(1) Both statement – I and statement – II are
104. Identify incorrect match from the following. correct
(1) AAA-Lys (2) GGG-Gly (2) Both statement – I and statement – II are
(3) CCC-Arg (4) UUU-Phe wrong
105. Statement (A): Neither does any complementarity (3) Statement – I is correct but statement – II is
exist between nucleotides and amino acids, nor wrong
could be drawn theoretically (4) Statement – I is wrong but statement – II is
Statement (B): Change in base sequence in correct
genetic material were responsible for change in 109. Which of the following statements is correct
amino acid in proteins. regarding nectar-less cotton varieties?
(1) Both A and B are correct (1) They do not attract stem sawfly
(2) Both A and B are false (2) They are produced by mutation breeding
(3) A is true but B is false (3) They do not attract bollworms
(4) A is false but B is true (4) They attract cereal leaf beetle
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NEET_12_KHUB TE-04 (15-Oct-23)

110. These are the steps involved in classical plant (3) is the product of lac ‘a’ gene.
breeding. (4) is involved in uptake of lactose.
(1) Crossing and artificial selection 116. Filamentous blue green alga used as SCP among
(2) Hybridisation and natural selection the following.
(3) Cloning and artificial selection (1) Brevibacterium (2) Methylophilus
(4) Cloning and natural selection (3) Spirulina (4) Yeast
111. 'Hidden hunger' refers to deficiency of which of the 117. 3-10 kg of grain can produce ___ of meat by
following in human beings. animal farming.
(1) Macronutrients, Protein and Vitamins (1) 250 gm (2) 1 kg
(2) Micronutrient, Protein, Carbohydrates (3) 250 kg (4) 10 kg
(3) Micronutrient, Protein, Vitamins 118. Agriculture contributes about __A__ of India’s
(4) Macronutrients, Lipids and Vitamins GDP and gives employment to nearly __B__ of the
population.
112. Plants, bacteria, fungi and animals whose genes
have been altered by manipulation are called Select the option which correctly fills A and B.

(1) genetically modified organisms A B

(2) physically modified organisms
I 33 62
(3) mentally modified organisms
II 62 33
(4) wild organisms
113. In Eukaryotes, which of the following mechanisms III 35 89.5
is not correct in terms of regulation of gene IV 89.5 35
expression?
(1) Transcription
(2) Splicing (1) I (2) II

(3) Transport of mRNA from cytoplasm to nucleus (3) III (4) IV

(4) Translation 119. Evaluation in research fields is followed by testing

the material in farmers fields for
114. What is indicated by P, Q, R in the figure given
below represent? (1) one growing season
(2) at least three growing seasons
(3) two growing season
(4) at least ten growing seasons
120. Which one of the following is not a mutant variety,
but -shows resistance to Yellow mosaic Virus?
(1) Mug bean (2) Parbhanikranti
(1) P – repressor, Q – y gene, R –transacetylase
(3) Pusa sadabahar (4) Pusa komal
(2) P – transacetylase, Q – repressor, R – y gene
121. What enzyme catalyzes the hydrolysis of lactose
(3) P – y gene, Q – transacetylase, R– repressor into galactose and glucose in E.coli?
(4) P – y gene, Q – repressor, R –transacetylase (1) Lactase
115. Permease of lac operon in E.coli (2) Amylase
(1) is the product of lac ‘z’ gene. (3) Beta-galactosidase
(2) catalyzes the breakdown oflactose. (4) Lipase

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NEET_12_KHUB TE-04 (15-Oct-23)

122. During hybridization offsprings with hybrid vigour 128. The agricultural practice of breeding and raising
superior to both parents are self-pollinated for a livestock is called
few successive generations in order to (1) bioprospecting
(1) retain their parental characters
(2) hybridisation
(2) remove their parental characters
(3) animal husbandry
(3) increase homozygosity
(4) biofortification
(4) segregate characters
129. The average human gene consists of
123. Identify the incorrect statement for lac operon
(1) 1,000 bp (2) 2,000 bp
model.
(3) 3,000 bp (4) 4,000 bp
(1) Lactose acts as inducer which inactivates
repressor 130. Which of the following is hallucinogen?
(2) RNA polymerase stay away from promoter in (A) Cocaine
the presence of repressor (B) Datura
(3) Regulation of lac operon by repressor is (C) Atropa belladona
referred to as negative regulation
(1) A only (2) B only
(4) The repressor of the operon is synthesised
during specific periods from r-gene (3) C only (4) A, B and C

124. Tropical canes grown in south India 131. Hisardale is an example of

(A) did not grow well in north India (1) interspecific hybridisation

(B) had thicker stems (2) out crossing

(C) higher sugar content (3) cross breeding
(1) A only (2) B only (4) inbreeding
(3) C only (4) A, B, and C 132. Antithrombin obtained from milk of a transgenic
125. Template independent enzymatic synthesis of goat is used to remove clots. Another biological
RNA is carried out using the following enzyme. product,  – 1 – antitrypsin, obtained from a
transgenic sheep is used in the treatment of
(1) Glutamate dehydrogenase
(1) emphysema
(2) Polynucleotide phosphorylase
(2) asthma
(3) Poly-A polymerase
(3) haemophilia
(4) Peptidyl transferase
126. Which of the following is not associated with (4) phenylketonuria
‘hidden hunger’? 133. The first clinical gene therapy was given for the
(1) Reduced life span deficiency of

(2) Increased risk of diseases (1) phenylalanine hydroxylase enzyme

(3) Reduced mental abilities (2) alkaline phosphatase enzyme

(4) Increased fertility (3) beta galactosidase enzyme

127. Outbreeding is an important strategy of animal (4) adenosine deaminase enzyme
husbandry because it 134. Mule is formed by
(1) is useful in overcoming inbreeding depression (1) interspecific hybridisation
(2) exposes harmful recessive genes that are (2) cross-breeding
eliminated by selection
(3) inbreeding
(3) helps in accumulation of supe riorgenes
(4) out crossing
(4) is useful in producing pure lines of animals
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NEET_12_KHUB TE-04 (15-Oct-23)

135. The largest known gene in the human genome 140. A best plant breeder tries to produce a variety
codes for Which trait or character that he has firstly tried to
(1) Collagen (2) actin incorporate into crop plants
(3) myosin (4) dystrophin (1) Increase crop yield and improved quality
(2) Increase tolerance to environmental stresses
SECTION - B (3) Increase resistance to pathogens
136. Which of the following methodologies inthe (4) Increase tolerance to insect pests
Human Genome Project resulted in the
141. How many of the given names are various types
amplification of DNA fragments to besequenced?
of Brassica?
(1) Cloning (2) Mapping
Pusa komal, Pusa sem 2, Pusa sem 3, Pusa
(3) Blotting (4) Hybridisation
gaurav, Pusa swarnim, Pusa sawani, Pusa
137. What is the function of product of lac-z gene of lac shubhra.
operon?
(1) 1 (2) 2
(1) Hydrolysis of lactose
(3) 3 (4) 4
(2) Formation of allolactose
142. The accessibility of RNA polymerase to promoter
(3) Increase in cell permeability
regions of bacterial DNA in many cases is
(4) Both A and B
regulated by the interaction of proteins with
138. Match the following: sequences of the operon termed as
Column I (Plant disease) Column II (1) regulator (2) structural genes
(Pathogen)
(3) operator (4) inhibitor gene
(A) Black rot of (I) Virus 143. Which one is correct about Atlas-66?
crucifers
(1) It has high protein content
(B) Turnip mosaic (II) Bacteria
(2) It has been used as a donor for improving
disease
cultivated wheat
(C) Red rot of (III) Nematode (3) Both A & B
sugarcane
(4) None of the above
(D) Root knot of (IV) Fungi
144. Which of the following is not a biofortified crop?
tomato
(1) Iron rich rice
(1) A–II, B–I, C–IV, D–III
(2) Tryptophan and lysine rich maize
(2) A–II, B–I, C–III, D–IV
(3) Vitamin A rich spinach
(3) A–II, B–IV, C–III, D–I
(4) Nectar-less cotton
(4) A–IV, B–II, C–III, D–I
145. Breeding for improved nutritional quality is
139. Consider a statement that is made up of the
following triplet words like a genetic code CAT undertaken with the objectives of improving
ATE BIG RED RAT If a letter 'G' is inserted before (i) Protein content and quality
ATE, the result is similar to one of the following (ii) Oil content and quality
events
(iii) Vitamin contents
(1) Chromosomal mutations
(iv) Micronutrients and mineral contents
(2) Frame shift mutations
(1) i, ii, iii & iv (2) i, ii & iii only
(3) Some clonal variations
(3) ii, iii & iv only (4) i, iii & iv only
(4) Polyploidy

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NEET_12_KHUB TE-04 (15-Oct-23)

146. Which of the following increase heterozygosity 149. Continued inbreeding, especially close breeding
while maintaining fertility? usually reduces
(1) Inbreeding and out crossing (1) productivity and homozygosity
(2) Outcrossing and cross breeding
(2) heterozygosity and homozygosity
(3) Inbreeding and interspecific
(3) sterility and growth rate
(4) Outcrossing and interspecific hybridisation.
(4) fertility and productivity in conventional
147. What is it that forms the basis of DNA
Fingerprinting? methods

(1) The amount of DNA in the test sample 150. How many of the following statements are correct
(2) Satellite DNA occurring as highly repeated in the context of the salient features human
short DNA segment genome project?
(3) The relative proportions of purines and (I) There are a billion SNPs.
pyrimidines in DNA
(II) 99.9% genome is similar in all humans.
(4) The relative difference in the DNA
(III) 32% of genome codes for proteins
148. Bee product used in the preparation of cosmetics
and polishes of various kinds is (IV) The largest human gene is dystrophin with 2.4
million base pairs.
(1) honey, which is regurgitation of bees.
(2) beeswax obtained from the abdominal glands (V) The human genome has a 2968 genes in total.
of the bee. (1) I (2) II
(3) bee venom obtained from the sting of bee. (3) III (4) IV
(4) fibre produced by salivary glands of bees.

ZOOLOGY
(2) The period between 5-12 years of age may be
SECTION - A
thought of as adolescence period.
151. Which of the following is not made by cannabis
(3) Adolescence is a bridge linking childhood and
plant
adulthood.
(1) opioid (2) ganja (4) Adolescence is accompanied by several
(3) charas (4) hashish biological and behavioural changes.
152. Which statement is not true 154. Lysergisacid diethyamide drugs are used to treat
(1) Tobacco contains nicotine (1) cardiovascular diseases
(2) Nicotine lowers blood pressure by stimulating (2) Renal diseases
nor-adrenaline (3) respiratory problems
(3) smoking is associated with increased (4) mental illness
incidence of various cancers 155. Cannabinoid receptors are present on
(4) bronchitis, emphysema, coronary heart (1) lungs (2) gastrointestinal tract
diseases are also associated with tobacco
(3) brain (4) none of these
smoking
156. Cocaine is obtained from which plant
153. Which of the following is not true
(1) Papaver somniferum
(1) Adolescence means both ‘a period’ and ‘a
(2) Cannabis sativa
process’ during which a child becomes mature
in terms of his/her attitudes and beliefs for (3) Erythroxylum coca
effective participation in society. (4) Atropa belladona
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NEET_12_KHUB TE-04 (15-Oct-23)

157. Morphine is obtained from which part of the plant 165. Electroporation procedure involves
(1) Seed (2) root (1) fast passage of food through sieve pores in
(3) leaves (4) none of these phloem elements with the help of electric
stimulation.
158. The linking of antibiotic resistance gene with the
plasmid became possible with (2) opening of stomatal pores during night by
artificial light.
(1) DNA ligase (2) Endonucleases
(3) making transient pores in the cell membrane
(3) DNA polymerase (4) Exonucleases
to introduce gene constructs.
159. DNA or RNA segment tagged with a radioactive
(4) purification of saline water with the help of a
molecule is called membrane system.
(1) Vector (2) Probe 166. What is the first step in the Southern blot
(3) Clone (4) Plasmid technique?
160. Restriction endonucleases are enzymes which (1) Denaturation of DNA on the gel for
(1) make cuts at specific positions within the DNA hybridization with specific probe.
molecule (2) Production of a group of genetically identical
(2) recognize a specific nucleotide sequence for cells.
binding of DNA ligase (3) Digestion of DNA by restriction enzyme.
(3) restrict the action of the enzyme DNA (4) Denaturation of DNA from a nucleated cell
polymerase such as the one from the scene of crime.
(4) remove nucleotides from the ends of the DNA 167. The polymerase chain reaction (PCR) technology
molecule was discovered by
161. Agarose extracted from sea weeds finds use in : (1) Karry Mullis (2) Saiki et al
(1) Spectrophotometry (2) Tissue culture (3) Craig Venter (4) Maxam and Gilbert
(3) PCR (4) Gel electrophoresis 168. For transformation, micro-particles coated with
162. PCR and Restriction Fragment Length DNA to be bombarded with gene gun are made up
Polymorphism are the methods for : of :

(1) Study of enzymes (1) Silver or Platinum (2) Platinum or Zinc

(2) Genetic transformation (3) Silicon or Platinum (4) Gold or Tungsten

(3) DNA sequencing 169. Plasmid used to construct the first recombinant
DNA was isolated from which bacterium species?
(4) Genetic Fingerprinting
(1) Escherichia coli
163. ‘Cloning’ is meant for/to
(2) Salmonella typhimurium
(1) production of HGH gene in E. coli
(3) Agrobacterium tumefaciens
(2) preserve the genotype of organism
(4) Thermus aquaticus
(3) replace the original gene
170. Genetic engineering is possible because
(4) All of the above
(1) we can cut DNA at specific sites by restriction
164. Which one of the following is used as vector for endonucleases
cloning genes into higher organisms?
(2) restriction endonucleases purified from virus
(1) Baculovirus can be used in bacteria
(2) Salmonella typhimurium (3) the phenomenon of transduction in bacteria is
(3) Rhizopus nigricans well understood
(4) Retrovirus (4) we can seen DNA by electron microscope

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NEET_12_KHUB TE-04 (15-Oct-23)

171. Gel electrophoresis is a 176. The term "competent" refers to

(1) technique of separation of charged molecules
under the influence of magnetic field
(2) technique of incorporation of DNA molecules
into the cell through transient pores made due to
electrical impulses
(3) technique of separation of DNA fragments
through the pores of agarose gel under the
influence of electric field
(4) technique of separation and purification of
gene products.
172. In recombinant DNA technology, the term vector
refers to
(1) the enzyme that cuts DNA into restriction
fragments
(2) the sticky end of a DNA fragment
(3) a plasmid used to transfer DNA into a living
cell
(4) a DNA fragment which carries only ori gene
173. In agarose gel electrophoresis
(1) DNA migrates towards the negative electrode
(2) supercoiled plamids migrate slower than their
nicked counterparts
(3) larger molecules migrate faster than smaller
molecules
(4) ethidium bromide can be used to visualize the
DNA
174. Which of the following is based upon the principle
of antigen-antibody interaction?
(1) PCR (2) ELISA
(3) R DNA technology (4) RNA
175. Two microbes found to be very useful in genetic
engineering are
(1) Vibrio cholerae and a tailed bacteriophage
(2) Diplococcus sp. and Pseudomonas sp.
(3) Crown gall bacterium and Caenorhabditis
elegans
(4) Escherichia coli and Agrobacterium
tumefaciens
(24)
(1) increasing the competition between cells
(2) making cells impermeable for DNA
(3) increasing the efficiency with which DNA
enters the bacterium through pores in its cell wall
(4) making cells permeable for divalent cations
177. The correct sequence of different steps of
polymerase chain reaction is
(1) Annealing o Denaturation o Extension
(2) Denaturation o Extension o Annealing
(3) Denaturation o Annealing o Extension
(4) Extension o Denaturation o Annealing
178. Eukaryotic genes do not function properly when
cloned into a bacterial cell, because
(1) of high pH present in bacterial cells
(2) of inability to excise introns and destruction by
bacterial restriction enzymes
(3) of inappropriate insertion of genes
(4) both (1) and (2).
179. Which structure involved in genetic engineering?
(1) Plastid (2) Plasmid
(3) Codon (4) None of these
180. Ti-plasmid used in genetic engineering has been
modified by
(1) adding tumour forming genes.
(2) deleting tumour forming genes.
(3) adding genes for endonucleases.
(4) deleting genes for endonucleases.
181. Which of the following technique is used for the
detection of RNA fragments?
(1) Northern blotting
(2) Chromatography
(3) Transformation
(4) Transduction
182. Which of these is not correctly matched?
(1) Gene gun—biolistic gun
(2) Plasmids—extrachromosomal DNA
(3) DNA ligase—Biological scissors
(4) Bacteriophages—viruses.
NEET_12_KHUB TE-04 (15-Oct-23)

183. Polyethylene glycol method is used for (1) (ii) only (2) (i) only
(1) biodiesel production (3) (i) and (ii) only (4) (i) and (iii) only
(2) seedless fruit production 189. Which of the following statements is/are correct
(3) energy production from sewage with regard to the disadvantages of GM crops?

(4) gene transfer without a vector (1) GM crops can affect human health by causing
allergic reactions.
184. In history of biology, human genome project led to
the development of : (2) Transgenes in commercial crops can
endanger native species e.g., the Bt toxin gene
(1) biotechnology (2) biomonitoring
expressed in pollen might endanger pollinators
(3) bioinformatics (4) biosystematics like honeybees.
185. Dolly sheep was obtained by – (3) Production of GM crops causes damage to the
(1) Cloning the udder cell (somatic cell) fused with natural environment and is always costly.
enucleated oocyte (4) All of these
(2) Cloning of gametes 190. Which of the following genes were introduced in
(3) Tissue culture cotton to protect it from cotton bollworms?

(4) None of the above (1) Cry Ac and Cry ab

(2) Bt Ac and Bt Ab

SECTION - B (3) Cry IAc and Cry II Ab

186. Which of the following forms the basis of DNA
Finger printing?
(1) The relative proportions of purines and
pyrimidines in DNA.
(2) Satellite DNA occurring as highly repeated
short DNA segments.
(3) The relative difference in the DNA occurrence
in blood, skin and saliva.
(4) The relative amount of DNA in the ridges and
grooves of the fingerprints.
187. The genetically-modified (GM) brinjal in India has
been developed for:
(1) insect-resistance
(2) enhancing shelf life
(3) enhancing mineral content
(4) drought-resistance
188. Which of the following statement(s) is/are true ?
(i) Biowar is the use of biological weapons
against humans and /or their crops and animals.
(ii) Bioethics is the unauthorized use of
bioresources and traditional knowledge related to
bioresources for commercial benefits.
(iii) Biopatent is exploitation of bioresources of
other nations without proper authorisation.
(25)
(4) Nif genes
191. Hirudin is
(1) a protein produced by Hordeum vulgare,
which is rich in lysine
(2) a toxic molecule isolated from Gossypium
hirsutum, which reduces human fertility
(3) a protein produced from transgenic Brassica
napus which prevents blood clotting
(4) an antibiotic produced by a genetically
engineered bacterium Escherichia coli.
192. Early detection of a disease is possible by
(1) PCR
(2) Gene therapy
(3) recombination DNA technology ad ELISA
(4) both (1) and (3)
193. Gene therapy can be referred to as
(1) pre-clinical testing for inherited diseases in
newborns
(2) treatment of diseases caused by genetic
defect
(3) genetic engineering using rDNA technology
(4) cancer treatment using in vitro cultured stem
cells
NEET_12_KHUB TE-04 (15-Oct-23)

194. Rules of conduct that may be used to regulate our 198. Golden rice is a promising transgenic crop, when
activities in relation to the biological world is called released for cultivation, it will help in
(1) bioethics (2) biowar (1) producing petrol like fuel from rice.
(3) biopatent (4) biopiracy (2) alleviation of vitamin A.
195. Flavr Savr is the transgenic variety of (3) pest resistance.
(1) cotton (2) rice (4) herbicide tolerance.
(3) tomato (4) potato 199. Chloramphenicol and erythromycin (broad
196. Biopiracy is related to spectrum antibiotics) are produced by

(1) Traditional knowledge (1) Streptomyces

(2) Biomolecules and regarding bioresources (2) Nitrobacter

genes isolated from bioresources (3) Rhizobium
(3) Bioresources (4) Penicillium
(4) All of the above 200. The transgenic animals are those which have
197. Genetically engineered bacteria have been used (1) foreign DNA in some cells.
in commercial production of (2) foreign DNA in all of their cells.
(1) thyroxine (2) human insulin (3) foreign RNA in all of their cells.
(3) testosterone (4) penicillin (4) Both (1) and (3)

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