Info Uni 2021

Entrance Exams 2020-21
(Patterns and Analysis)

Entrance Exams 2020 – 21 (Patterns and Analysis)
Index
MANAGEMENT __________________________________ 06
Delhi University (DU-JAT) 07

IIM Indore (IPMAT) 12
IIM Rohtak (IPMAT) 16
Narsee Monjee Institute of Management Studies (NPAT) 20
Symbiosis Center for Management Studies (SET) 23
St. Xavier's College (BMS) 26
Christ University (BBA) 28
Guru Gobind Singh Indraprastha University (CET BBA) 31
Jamia Millia Islamia University (BBA) 35
Manipal University (MUOET) 37
Bharati Vidyapeeth University (BUMAT) 38
LAW __________________________________________ 40
Common Law Admission Test (CLAT) 41
All India Law Entrance Test (AILET) 45
Symbiosis Law Admission Test (SLAT) 47
Christ University (CULEE) 50
Maharashtra Common Entrance Test (MHCET) 51
Jamia Millia Islamia University (Law) 53
Panjab University (Law) 54
Law School Admission Test (LSAT) 56
MASS COMMUNICATION __________________________ 57

Delhi University (BMMC) 58
Delhi University 5 Year Integrated Programme 59
Page 2 of 132
St. Xavier's College (BMM) 60

Guru Gobind Singh Indraprastha University (CET BJMC) 61
Christ University (Mass Communication) 63
Manipal University (MUOET) 65
HOTEL MANAGEMENT ___________________________ 66

Ministry of Tourism (NCHMCT) 67
Guru Gobind Singh Indraprastha University (CET HM) 69
Christ University (HM) 71
Jamia Milia Islamia University (JMIEEE-BHM) 73
Bharti Vidyapeeth University (BHMCT) (BVPHM) 76
IHM Aurangabad 77
Oberoi's Systematic Training and Education Programme (STEP) 79
Manipal University 81
B.Com ________________________________________ 82
Guru Gobind Singh Indraprastha University (CET B. Com) 83

Christ University (B.Com.) 85
Jamia Millia Islamia University (B.Com.) 86
Banaras Hindu University (BHU - UET) 87
ECONOMICS____________________________________ 88
Guru Gobind Singh Indraprastha University (CET Eco Hons.) 89

Christ University BA (Eco Hons.) 91
Jamia Millia Islamia University BA (Hons.) Economics 92
Page 3 of 132
PSYCHOLOGY __________________________________ 93
Christ University (Psychology) 94
Jamia Millia Islamia University (Psychology) 96
Banaras Hindu University (BHU-UET) 97
Mount Carmel College (Psychology) 98
Aligarh Muslim University (Psychology) 99
Ashoka University, Sonepat 100
MIT-World Peace University, Pune 102
ENGLISH HONS ________________________________ 103
Guru Gobind Singh Indraprastha University (CET Eng. Hons.) 104

Jamia Milia Islamia 105
University of English & Foreign language, Hyderabad 106
Christ University 107
Integrated MA in English Studies IIT Chennai 108
Banaras Hindu University 109
Presidency University, Kolkata 110
LIBERAL ARTS _________________________________ 111

Symbiosis School for Liberal Arts 112
Jyoti Dalal School of Liberal Arts 115
Jindal School of Liberal Arts and Humanities 118
FLAME University, Pune 119
BCA _________________________________________ 121
Guru Gobind Singh Indraprastha University (CET BCA) 122

Bharatiya Vidyapeeth University 123
All India Management Association 124
Page 4 of 132
OTHERS ______________________________________ 125
Indian Statistical Institute, Bangalore 126

Indian Statistical Institute, Kolkata 127
SAT __________________________________________ 128
Page 5 of 132
MANAGEMENT
 Delhi University (DU-JAT)

 IIM Indore (IPMAT)
 IIM Rohtak (IPMAT)
 Narsee Monjee Institute of Management Studies
(NPAT)
 Symbiosis Center for Management Studies (SET)
 St. Xavier's College (BMS)
 Christ University (BBA)
 Guru Gobind Singh Indraprastha University (CET BBA)
 Jamia Millia Islamia University (BBA)
 Manipal University (MUOET)
 Bharati Vidyapeeth University (BUMAT)
1. Delhi University (DU-JAT)

1. Bachelor of Management Studies (BMS)
2. Bachelor of Business Administration – Financial
COURSES:
Investment Analysis (BBA-FIA)
3. B.A.(Honours) Business Economics (BBE)
NO. OF STAGES – 1 1. Written Test – DUET ( Delhi University Entrance Test)
NO. OF SEATS TOTAL – 1424 (BMS – 687, BBA-FIA – 171, BBE – 566)
 A candidate must have passed 10+2 or equivalent examination with
60% marks in best of 4 subjects.
 Mathematics and English are compulsory subjects.
ELIGIBILITY  The applicant should have “passed” individually in each subject
required (including practical if any) for calculating merit and eligibility
to the course they seek admission in.
 Applicants with “compartment” results are not eligible to apply.
ENTRANCE DATE 7 September 2020
MODE Online
Number of Questions: Total – 100 Qs (MCQ)
 General Awareness/ Current Affairs / Business Awareness
 Logical Reasoning
 Quantitative Ability
PATTERN  Verbal Ability
Marking Scheme: Maximum Marks: 400
 Right Answer: +4
 Wrong Answer: -1
Total Duration: 120 Minutes
WEIGHTAGE Entrance Test: 65% & Qualifying Examination: 35%.
PREVIOUS/POTENTIAL 1. Mode of examination changed to online from 2017.
CHANGES/SPECIAL 2. Use of simple calculators is allowed from 2017.
REMARKS
Page 7 of 132
PREVIOUS/POTENTIAL 2017 (Written 65% and Class 12th 35%)

CHANGES/SPECIAL 2018 (Written 65% and Class 12th 35%)
REMARKS 2019 (Written 65% and Class 12th 35%)
2020 (Written 65% and Class 12th 35%)
DUET 2020 was conducted by National Testing Agency for the first time
and it was conducted in two different sessions for shift-1 courses and for
shift-2 courses in Delhi University.
The slots had different papers, which was evaluated through the process
of normalization, to ensure parity.
Special Remarks: 2020
1. Like last year, National Testing Agency (NTA) was assigned the job of
conducting the DUET this year also.
2. Like last two year, the questions were not divided into sections; and
were jumbled up.
3. Quantitative Aptitude: Surprisingly, this year, a majority of the
questions was from Quantitative Aptitude. The major surprise was
change in number of question from 25 to around 38.Overall the
number of questions of basic math and higher math were nearly same.
So one could have maximized his/her score by attempting maximum
questions from basic math section as the questions from higher math
were on difficult side. The difficulty level of the questions in this
section can be summed up as easy-moderate.
In shift 1, there were 2 questions from Permutation And
Combination, 2-3 questions from Arithmetic Progression (AP),
Geometric (GP), 2 questions from Limits, 1-2 questions from
Matrices, 1 from Trigonometry, 8 questions were from Functions and
Graph, 2 questions from Inequalities, 2 questions from Coordinate
Geometry, 1 question from logarithm, 2 Questions from Geometry, 2
Questions from Time and Work, 2 questions from Time-Speed &
Distance, 2 questions from percentage, 1 questions from SI/CI, 2
questions from Ratios, 3 questions from Algebra and 3 questions from
Number Systems.
General Awareness: Most surprising thing in the paper was the less
no. of General Awareness questions There were just 12 Questions in
Shift 1 and 10 questions in Shift 2 that too mainly from Current
Affairs. In Shift 1, 10 questions were from Current Affairs and 2
questions were from General Science - Diseases (Pandemic) and
Virus, this is also because of the current scenario of Pandemic
(COVID-19). Questions from Current affairs were based on Ranking
(Ease of Doing Business), 2 questions on Awards and Honours (Nobel
Peace Prize 2019 and BCCI C.K. Nayudu Lifetime Achievement
Award), Science and Technology (Parker Probe Mission – NASA),
National Security Advisor, Central Vista Project, full form of CMIE,
Deal for Digital India, 1 question was there from Business Awareness
Page 8 of 132
i.e. on Merger and Acquisition. Overall, the level of difficulty was

easy. Every student must have felt comfortable answering the
questions, except for the fact that the number of questions was lesser
than expected.
In Shift 2, 10 questions were there, all from Current Affairs.
Questions were like Chairman of IRDAI, Ranking (Human
Development Index), Awards and Honours – Best Actor Award –
Dadasaheb Phalke Award, Chandrayaan – 2, UNESCO’s partnership
for Online Classes, Speaker of Lok Sabha, Unbreakable –
Autobiography of Mary Kom, UDAY Scheme, MGNREGA scheme,
Mergers of Banks.
Logical Reasoning: LR section in shift 1 had 31-32 questions and in
Shift 2 had 24 questions. Like other areas, the questions based on
reasoning were easy. The questions based on Reasoning were mostly
from Analytical Reasoning, with just a couple of questions from Verbal
Reasoning. The difficulty level of the questions can be summed up as
easy-moderate; and with proper time management, one could have
easily attempted most of the questions. In shift 1, there were 7-8
questions from Arrangements, 6 questions from Series and Sequence,
4 questions from Odd one out, 2-3 questions from Visual Reasoning, 1
question from each topic like Family Tree, Coding, Statement-
Conclusion, Clocks, Calendars and 4-5 questions on other topics of
easy level were there. In shift 2, questions from simple arrangement,
series, Visual Reasoning, Coding/Decoding, Critical Reasoning, Dice,
Directions and Data Sufficiency were asked. The overall level of
difficulty was easy.
Verbal Ability: Much like last year, the questions based on English
were easy. The total number of questions in Shift 1 and Shift 2 were
18 and 22 respectively. In shift 1, there was only one RC/Passage
with 6 questions, which gave students time to work with other areas.
The questions which followed the passage were direct and fact based.
There were 2 questions on Short passages, 2-3 questions on
Antonyms, 2 questions on Para jumbles, 2 questions on Fill in the
blanks, 2-3 questions on Active-Passive Voice, 2 questions on word
pairing. In shift 2, this section had questions covering conventional
areas such as vocabulary grammar, completion, & comprehension.
The level of the questions was easy except one or two moderate level
questions. There was one RC with 5 questions. All the questions
based on it were direct and factual. As usual this section was
dominated by vocabulary, followed by vocabulary based questions.
There were 9-10 questions from Vocabulary and Fill in the blanks, 2-3
Sentence arrangements questions, 2-3 questions on Active-passive
voice. And few other easy questions were there. Overall, the level of
this section in the paper was easy-moderate.
Page 9 of 132
Delhi University Entrance Test (DUET):
Admissions for BMS BBAFIA

SSCBS
2018 Closed at Rank 173 Closed at Rank 181
CUT OFFS
2019 Closed at Rank 163 Closed at Rank 107
(CLOSING CUT OFFS)
2020 Closed at Rank185 Closed at Rank 113
Overall Cutoff:
Overall Score of 80+ Marks out of 100 (JAT + Class 12th) is a good
benchmark for Final Selection into SSCBS.
FOR BMS
1. Shaheed Sukhdev College of Business Studies - 232 seats (UR – 93,
SC – 35, ST – 17, OBC – 63, EWS – 24 )
2. Deen Dyal Upadhyaya College – 60 seats (UR – 24, SC – 9, ST – 5,
OBC – 16, EWS – 6 )
3. Keshav Mahavidyalaya –59 (Gen-24, SC-9, ST-4, OBC-16, EWS-6,)
4. Sri Guru Gobind Singh College of Commerce – 51 seats
5. College of Vocational Studies – 58 seats
6. Ram Lal Anand College – 58 seats
7. Ramanujan College – 58 seats
8. Aryabhatta College – 58 seats
9. Shaheed Rajguru College of Applied Sciences – 58 seats
ORDER OF
FOR BBA-FIA
PREFERENCE OF
1. Shaheed Sukhdev College of Business Studies - 113 seats (UR – 45,
COLLEGES (EXAM
SC – 13, ST – 8, OBC – 31, EWS – 12 )
SPECIFIC)
2. Shaheed Rajguru College of Applied Sciences for Women – 58 seats
FOR BBE
1. Sri Guru Gobind Singh College of Commerce – 40 seats
2. Sri Guru Tegh Bahadur Khalsa College – 40 seats
3. Gargi College – 59 seats
4. College of Vocational Studies – 78 seats
5. Maharaja Agrasen College – 58 seats
6. Aryabhatta College – 58 seats
7. Shivaji College – 78 seats
8. Lakshmibai College – 38 seats
9. Sri Guru Nanak Dev Khalsa College – 40 seats
10. BR Ambedkar College – 77 seats
FEES FOR BMS
1. Shaheed Sukhdev College of Business Studies - Rs. 14,025
2. Deen Dyal Upadhyaya College – Rs. Rs 21,525
3. Keshav Mahavidyalaya – Rs 14,836
4. Sri Guru Gobind Singh College of Commerce – Rs. 44,200
Page 10 of 132
5. College of Vocational Studies – Rs. 10,150

6. Ram Lal Anand College – Rs 25,930
7. Ramanujan College – Rs 30,000
8. Aryabhatta College – Rs 23,830
9. Shaheed Rajguru College of Applied Sciences – Rs 15,620
FOR BBA-FIA
1. Shaheed Sukhdev College of Business Studies - Rs 25,025
2. Shaheed Rajguru College of Applied Sciences for Women – Rs. 26,620
FOR BBE
1. Sri Guru Gobind Singh College of Commerce - Rs 44,200
2. Sri Guru Tegh Bahadur Khalsa College - Rs 43,965
3. Gargi College - Rs 41,220
4. College of Vocational Studies – Rs. 27,000
5. Maharaja Agrasen College - Rs 16,000
6. Aryabhatta College - Rs 26,130
7. Shivaji College - Rs 36,270
8. Lakshmibai College - Rs 19,385
9. Sri Guru Nanak Dev Khalsa College - Rs 39,025
10. BR Ambedkar College - Rs 24,575
(Above mentioned fee is for three years)
Page 11 of 132
2. IIM Indore (IPMAT)

COURSES: 5 YEARS INTEGRATED PROGRAMME IN MANAGEMENT (IPM)
1. Aptitude Test (IPMAT)
NO. OF STAGES – 3 2. Written Ability Test (WAT)
3. Personal Interview
NO. OF SEATS 150
 Minimum 60% in Standard X/ SSC and Standard XII/ HSC or
equivalent examinations (55% for the candidates from SC/ ST/ PwD
ELIGIBILITY
category)
 Maximum 20 years of age as on July 31, 2020.
ENTRANCE DATE 7th September 2020
MODE ONLINE
Number of Questions:
The structure of the exam was different from the previous year, with
Quantitative Aptitude Section divided into two.
1. Quantitative Ability (MCQ) – 20 Questions
2. Quantitative Ability (Short Answers) – 10 Questions
3. Verbal Ability (MCQ) – 30 Questions
Total – 60 Questions
Marking Scheme:
Right Answer: +4
Wrong Answer: -1
No Negative Marking in Quantitative Ability (Short Answers)
PATTERN Maximum Marks: 240
2. Written Ability Test (WAT)
Word Limit: 150 Words
Candidates are made to write an essay on subjective or topics of
current relevance.
3. Video Assessment (instead of Personal interview)
This year the students were assessed through video based
assessment process. Candidates shortlisted were required to upload
a self-recorded video file within stipulated time period after the
announcement of the Aptitude Test Result.
Candidates were given a set of questions on which they were
required to record their video and upload it.
1. IPMAT Score – 85%
WEIGHTAGE
2. Video Assessment – 15%
PREVIOUS/POTENTIAL 1. Earlier the exam was postponed twice due to Covid-19 pandemic.
CHANGES/SPECIAL This year IIM Indore introduced many changes in the IPMAT exam
REMARKS pattern like number of questions, sectional and overall time duration,
Page 12 of 132
difficulty level among others.

IPMAT 2020: Changes in Exam Pattern
 Total number of questions reduced to 60 from 100
 Test duration reduced to 90 minutes from earlier 120 minutes
 Sectional Time limit reduced to 30 minutes for each section from 40
earlier
 Maximum Marks reduced to 240 from 400 earlier
 IPMAT 2020 was conducted in afternoon session instead of morning
session last year
 Selection process is based on Video Assessment instead of personal
interview
2. Like last two years Quantitative Aptitude Section divided into

two – QA MCQ and QA Subjective. Change in the pattern of IPMAT
– IIM Indore is as follows:
2017: 1. QA – 60 Qs
2. VA – 40 Qs
Total – 100 Questions (90 MCQ and 10 open end in QA)
2018: 1. Quantitative Ability (MCQ) – 40 Qs
2. Quantitative Ability (Short Answers) – 20 Qs
3. Verbal Ability (MCQ) – 40 Qs
3. Sectional time limit introduced in 2017 and after that it is

implemented in the exam every year. One could move to the next
section any time before the completion of the sectional time limit, but
could not come back to the previous section. The order of sections
was pre-defined. Candidate must answer the sections in a pre-
specified order and this order remains same for all the candidates.
Changes in the duration of Time of the Exam over the years is as
follows:
2017: Total Duration: 120 Minutes
QA – 75 minutes
VA – 45 minutes
2018: Total Duration: 120 Minutes (40 minutes each)
Quantitative Ability (MCQ) – 40 Minutes
Quantitative Ability (Short Answers) – 40 Minutes
Page 13 of 132
Verbal Ability (MCQ) – 40 Minutes

4. Use of calculators is not allowed but on-screen calculators are

provided.
SPECIAL REMARKS
1. The Quantitative Aptitude (MCQ) section had a wide mix of
topics. There was a case let of 5 questions on Data Interpretation.
Three questions from data interpretation set were inference based;
while the other two were slightly difficult. 2 questions from
probability and P & C, 2 questions from Averages, 1 questions from
each topics like Numbers and number applications, Geometry,
Coordinate Geometry, Logarithms, Functions, Ratio and proportion,
Percentages, Trigonometry, Set Theory, Matrices, Function etc.
Instead of solving, elimination options would have helped in 6-8
Questions. Just like last year, questions from higher maths were
limited. Time was a restraint. Overall, this was a Moderate -Difficult
section.
2. Quantitative Ability (SA) section contained 10 short answer type
questions. The level of difficulty of this section was easy-moderate.
There were 3 questions each from Numbers, 1 question each from
Geometry/coordinate geometry, Time-Speed-Distance, matrices,
Averages and Percentages, Ratio and Proportion, Sets and Functions,
Logarithms and Determinants. An attempt of 6-7 questions can be
considered good, despite no negative marking.
3. The questions in Verbal Ability section could easily be completed in
around the given time frame. The section was dominated by RC,
grammar & vocabulary. Overall, it was not a difficult section. 1
passage of 300 words with 5-6 Questions, 6 questions from Fill-in-
the-blanks (Usage of appropriate words), 5 questions from Fill-in-the-
blanks (Usage of 3 words), 5 questions from Incorrect word usage, 3
questions from Fill-in-the-blanks (Logical word usage), 3 questions
from Para jumbles (Type-in-The-Answer), 2 questions from Fill in the
blanks (Paragraph completion).
Page 14 of 132
2018 Cut-off: VA – 85
QA MCQ – 24
QA SA - 12
CUT OFFS (CLOSING 2019 Cut-off: VA – 71
CUT OFFS) QA MCQ – 31
QA SA – 28
2020 Cut-off: QA SA – 20
QA MCQ – 26
VA MCQ - 68
FEES Rs. 4 lakh per annum for first 3 years and for the next 2 years, its Rs.
16 lakh : Total - Rs. 28 Lakh
Page 15 of 132
3. IIM – ROHTAK (IPMAT)

IIM Rohtak conducted its first-ever Integrated Program in Management Aptitude Test (IPMAT) this year
at various centers to select students for its five-year Integrated Program in Management after Class XII.
IIM Rohtak now becomes the second IIM, after IIM Indore, to start the IPM program.
COURSES: 5 YEARS INTEGRATED PROGRAMME IN MANAGEMENT (IPM)

NO. OF STAGES - 3 2. Written Ability Test (WAT)
NO. OF SEATS 150
 Minimum 60% in Standard X/ SSC and Standard XII/ HSC or
equivalent examinations (55% for the candidates from SC/ ST/ PwD
ELIGIBILITY category)
 Maximum 20 years of age as on July 31, 2020.
 Reservation will be applicable as per GOI norms after meeting the
minimum eligibility criteria.
ENTRANCE DATE 20th July 2020
Page 16 of 132
MODE ONLINE
Aptitude Test (IPMAT) 2020
1. Quantitative Ability (MCQ) – 20 Qs
2. Logical Reasoning (MCQ) – 20 Qs
Total – 60 Qs
Marking Scheme:
Right Answer: +4
Wrong Answer: -1
Maximum Marks: 240
Total Duration: 45 Minutes (No sectional TIME LIMIT)
Written Ability Test (WAT)
Candidates are made to write an essay on subjective or topics of current
relevance.
Personal Interview
The duration of the Interview was 15-20 minutes each.
Strong focus on Academics and Current Affairs.
Aptitude Test (IPMAT) 2019
PATTERN
1. Quantitative Ability (MCQ) – 40 Qs
2. Logical Reasoning (MCQ) – 40 Qs
Total – 120 Qs
Marking Scheme:
Right Answer: +4
Wrong Answer: -1
Maximum Marks: 480
Total Duration: 120 Minutes (No sectional TIME LIMIT)
Candidates are made to write an essay on subjective or topics of current
relevance.
Personal Interview
The duration of the Interview was 15-20 minutes each.
Strong focus on Academics and Current Affairs.
The questions asked in the interview were majorly from Academics. The
questions were from the academic background of the candidates.
The questions were also asked about current affairs. Some students were
questioned on the city they belong to. Questions were also asked based
on hobbies and extra-curricular activities
WEIGHTAGE 1. IPMAT Score – 50%
Page 17 of 132
2. WAT Score – 10%

3. Interview (Online) – 30%
4. Past Academics – 10%
IPMAT- Rohtak 2020: Changes in Exam Pattern
 Total number of questions reduced to 60 in 2020 from 120 in 2019
 Test duration reduced to 45 minutes in 2020 from earlier 120 minutes
in 2019
 Maximum Marks reduced to 240 in 2020 from 480 in 2019
1. After having faced technical glitches in conduction of the Remote

proctored Online test earlier, the institute decided to go in for a
Google forms based online test. The technical requirement for taking
up the test was very basic – laptop with minimum internet bandwidth
requirement of 512 kbps. A smartphone also could have been used in
case of an emergency.
2. In Quantitative Aptitude (MCQ) section, Arithmetic was the most
dominant area comprising of 7-8 questions. Questions were spread
across the topics of Simple Interest- Compound Interest, Profit &
Loss, Time Speed Distance, Percentage and Averages. Permutation &
Combinations and probability together had another 7 questions.
Students have reported typo error/data inconsistency in approx 2
arithmetic questions. There was a single question on Linear Equations
as well. Questions on Square root & cube root were easy. Not much
SPECIAL REMARKS questions from Higher Mathematics were seen in IPMAT this year.
Overall QA section was easy but there were a few time-consuming
questions as well.
3. This Logical Reasoning section was very easy as most of the
questions were straight forward and doable. There were around 15
questions on Analytical Reasoning and Mental Ability whereas 5
questions on Verbal Reasoning. There were 2 questions on series –
one each on the identification of the missing number and finding the
incorrect number in the given series. There was an easy question on
Number coding. Blood relations questions (2-3 questions) were also
easy. 1 question each on Dices and Directions was there. There were
5-6 questions from Linear and circular arrangements which were a
little time-consuming. There were 5 questions on Syllogisms which
were of moderate difficulty level.
4. In Verbal Ability section, there were around 8 questions based on
vocabulary with 2-3 questions on One-word substitution, 2-3
questions on Fill in the blanks and 2 questions on analogies. There was
a single question based on Sentence Rearrangement. The format in
which Sentence Rearrangement was asked in this paper was quite
interesting. There was a Match the following based question in which
4 sentences were divided into two columns and the student had to
find the correct match. There were 3 questions based on Spotting the
Page 18 of 132
error and Identifying the correct/incorrect sentence. One interesting

question type that came up in the test were the questions which had 4
sentences and 2 of these 4 sentences were required to be connected
using one of the conjunctions given in the options. There were 2 such
questions and students would have found these questions to be time-
consuming. This section had 3 passages, of around 3-4 lines, with 2
questions each. Most of the questions from these passages were
direct and could be answered quite easily. Overall, the difficulty level
was easy.
Category Minimum cut off marks

General 144
NC-OBC 120
SC 96
ST 96
CUT OFFS (CLOSING EWS 120
CUT OFFS)
Category Minimum Cut Off marks 2019
General 256
NC-OBC 195
SC 157
ST 141
EWS 205
Rs. 4, 51, 000 per annum for first 3 years and for the next 2 years, its
FEES
Rs. 7, 60, 000
Total - Rs. 28, 73, 000/-
Page 19 of 132
4. Narsee Monjee Institute of

Management Studies (NPAT)
BBA, B.Sc (Finance), B.Com (Hons.) and B.Sc Economics,
COURSES:
BBA (Branding & Advertising)
NO. OF STAGES - 1 Written Test - NMIMS Programs After Twelfth (NPAT)
BBA: Mumbai – 600, Bengaluru – 120, Hyderabad – 60, Navi Mumbai –
NO. OF SEATS 180, Indore – 120, Dhule – 60, Chandigarh – 120
BBA (Branding & Advertising): Mumbai – 120
A candidate must have passed 10+2 or equivalent examination and must
have obtained a minimum of 60% aggregate marks for being able to do
BBA/B.Sc. Finance & B.Com (Hons) with Mathematics / Statistics at
ELIGIBILITY
their 10+2 or equivalent examination in one or the first attempt.
For BBA (Branding & Advertising): Mathematics or Statistics is not

compulsory.
ENTRANCE DATE 26th, 27th and 28th June 2020
MODE Online
Number of Questions: 120
1. Logical Reasoning – 40 Qs
2. Quantitative Aptitude – 40 Qs
3. Verbal Ability – 40 Qs
Total – 120 Qs (MCQ)
Marking Scheme: No Negative Marking
PATTERN
Right Answer: +1
Maximum Marks: 120
NPAT 2020 was remote proctored exam which was conducted over three
days i.e. 26th, 27th and 28th June 2020. Candidates had the choice of
appearing for the test two times and the best score out of two was
considered for the further examination process.
WEIGHTAGE Final Merit Ranks are compiled from the overall NPAT Score based on
the “Course and Campus Preferences” as filled by candidates.
1. There was no Sectional Time in 2020 same like 2019 and Duration of
the paper was 100 minutes same like 2019.
PREVIOUS/POTENTIAL 2. Sectional time limit was introduced in 2017 (LR – 45 minutes, QA – 45
CHANGES/SPECIAL minutes and VA – 30 minutes) and Duration of the paper was reduced
REMARKS from 120 Minutes to 100 Minutes.
2016 : Time Duration – 120 Minutes (No Sectional Time Limit)
2017 : Time Duration – 120 Minutes (Sectional Time Limit)
LR – 45 minutes
Page 20 of 132
QA – 45 minutes
VA – 30 minutes
3. Topic-wise split of questions was provided beforehand on the
university's website along with the application form and was largely
followed in the exam.
2016 : Total Questions - 150 (QA - 50, VA - 50, LR – 50)
4. There was NO NEGATIVE MARKING in this exam like last year.
Special Remarks
 Quant and Numerical Ability section were of moderate to difficult,
difficulty level. There were a few lengthy questions of good difficulty in
this section. There were 6-7 questions from Statistics, 4-5 questions
on Functions, 3-4 questions on Trigonometry, 4 questions on Set-
Theory, 3-4 questions on Percentage, 3-4 questions on Profit & Loss,
2-3 questions on fraction, 2 questions on quadratic equation.
There were 1-2 questions from topics like Ratio and Proportion,
Surds & Indices, Time – Speed & Distance, SI CI, Algebra,
Mensuration and BODMAS.
 Logical Reasoning was a fairly standard section with mixed topics.
There were 3 DI case lets (Pie chart-4 questions, Graph – 2
questions, Tables – 4 questions) with total 10 questions, 5 questions
each on selection criteria (set based), 4 questions were from data
sufficiency, 4 Questions on Syllogism, 3-4 questions on Logical
Inequalities, 3-4 questions from Visual Reasoning, 2-3 questions on
Venn Diagram, 1-2 questions from Mathematical Operations, Family
Tree, Ranking. 1 question from each topics like Linear Arrangement
and Cubes. There were 2 questions on Statement Argument
Statement Assumption. The questions were time consuming, as few of
them were tricky. Overall, this section was easy-moderate.
 Verbal Ability Section was dominated by Reading Comprehension
and Grammar. There were 3 RC with total 15 questions. 3 RC
passages on Day 1 were based on topics like Astrology, Environment –
Recycle and reusage of Paper and Upcycle of Apparels/Fashion. So,
they were based on variety of topics like astrology, environment,
fashion, economy, online platform etc. RC passages were easy, but
one of the passages was tricky. 15-17 questions were from
Vocabulary, Prepositions, Conjunctions and Tenses, Sentence
Correction based on tenses, Tenses, Subject-Verb Agreement, Missing
Pronoun, Indefinite Pronoun, Error Identification and Parallelism. 5
Page 21 of 132
questions from Para-Jumbles, 4-5 questions on Idioms and Phrases:

Sentence Based, Identification of meaning based on usage. Overall they
were moderate to difficult.
 Overall, the paper was of moderate difficulty level but the challenge
was to manage the time effectively.
CUT OFFS (CLOSING While NPAT authorities have not published overall cut-offs since 2016,
CUT OFFS) 80+ is likely to be a good score to see you through.
1. Mumbai,
2. Bengaluru
ORDER OF 3. Navi Mumbai
PREFERENCE OF 4. Indore
COLLEGES 5. Hyderabad
6. Dhule
7. Chandigarh.
 Program fees for 1st year - BBA program – (Academics Fees)
 Mumbai Campus (Rs. 2,81,000/-)
 Bengaluru campus (Rs. 2,76,000/-)
FEES  Indore Campus (Rs. 2,51,000/-)
 Navi Mumbai (Rs. 2,76,000/-)
 Dhule Campus (Rs. 1,51,000/-)
 Hyderabad (Rs. 2,51,000/-)
Page 22 of 132
5. Symbiosis Center for Management

Studies (SET)
COURSE: Bachelor of Business Administration (BBA)
1. Symbiosis Entrance Test (SET)
2. Written Ability Test (WAT) and Personal Interview (PI)
NO. OF STAGES - 2
Important Note:
SET Score is applicable for BBA, BSC, Eco (H), B.A. (Mass Comm.), B.Sc.
Culinary Arts, BCA, B.A/B.Sc. – Liberal Arts Hons. & Bachelor of Design
NO. OF SEATS 780 (Pune – 300, Noida – 300 & Nagpur - 180)
Standard XII (10+2) or equivalent examination passed from any
ELIGIBILITY
recognized board with minimum 50% marks or equivalent grade (45%
marks or equivalent grade for Scheduled Caste/Scheduled Tribes).
ENTRANCE DATE 26 July-29 July 2020
MODE ONLINE
1. Symbiosis Entrance Test (SET - B)
1. General Awareness – 20 Qs (instead of 40 questions in 2019)
2. Logical Reasoning – 15 Qs (instead of 30 questions in 2019)
3. Quantitative Aptitude – 20 Qs (instead of 40 questions in 2019)
4. Verbal Ability – 20 Qs (instead of 40 questions in 2019)
Total – 75 Qs (MCQ) instead of 150 Questions in 2019
Right Answer: +1
Maximum Marks: 75 (instead of 150 in 2019)
PATTERN Total Duration: 75 Minutes (instead of 150 Minutes)
2. Written Ability Test (WAT)
Word Limit: None
Weightage – 50%
REMARKS
current relevance. The topics given are not very complex.
Personal Interview (PI)
Duration – The duration of the Interview is 10 minutes each.
Weightage – 50%
Extra-curricular and Personal Focused.
Final Merit List is compiled from the overall score of:
WEIGHTAGE
1. Symbiosis Entrance Test(SET): 50 %
2. Personal Interaction and Written Ability Test (PI-WAT): 50 %
PREVIOUS/POTENTIAL 1. Symbiosis SET-B BBA exam tested the aptitude of the candidates
Page 23 of 132
CHANGES/SPECIAL through an online computer based entrance test conducted in the

REMARKS remote-proctored manner. As such, a number of changes were
introduced in the SET-B BBA 2020 exam pattern. Candidates were
required to have a desktop/laptop and an internet question to attempt
the exam from a location of their convenience. It was of 105 minutes
test, which was divided into two parts; first 75 minutes for MCQ
section followed by 30 minutes for WAT.
SET-B 2020: Changes in Exam Pattern

Special Remarks
1. The Verbal Ability section consisted of 20 questions divided across
Reading Comprehension, Grammar and Vocabulary.
Reading Comprehension: There was one passage followed by 5
questions. The topic of discussion was “foreign policy” and the length
of the passage was approximately 200 to 250 words. One question
was vocabulary based, one was a specific detail question and the other
three were inference based questions. Overall the passage was of
easy to moderate difficulty level.
Vocabulary: There was a variety of vocabulary question types
including synonyms and antonyms, fill in the blanks, one word
substitution, identify the correct spelling, idioms and phrasal verbs.
The words were not highly uncommon and could have been
attempted by a well prepared student.
Grammar: Grammar was tested in two formats: Sentence Correction
and Fill in the Blanks. Concepts like prepositions, conjunctions and
verbs were tested and the sentences were very short and simple,
making it easy to attempt these questions in around a minute per
question.
Overall, the difficulty level was easy to moderate.
2. The Quantitative Aptitude section was the easiest among others.
Candidates expected it to be the most difficult and with majority
questions from Arithmetic. These questions were from Percentages,
Simple interest and Compound interest, Profit and Loss, Averages,
Allegations, Time and Work and Time Speed Distance. Except a
question from SICI, all questions were simple and straight forward. In
addition to this, there were questions on Probability, Set Theory,
Surds and Indices and Number series, which were again easy. There
were 2 questions on Data Interpretation and 1 question on data
sufficiency. Overall, the difficulty level was Easy.
3. Like every year, General Awareness section followed its trend of
asking unconventional questions. There were a total of 20 questions,
Page 24 of 132
almost equally distributed between Current Affairs and Static GK.

Static GK questions were based on World History (World War-I,
Perestroika); Geography (related to Port Blair, waterfall in
Meghalaya); Important Organizations (Prasar Bharati, UNICEF,
DRDO), and Art & Culture (main language of Kerala, Pawl Kut festival
of Mizoram). Current Affairs questions were based on Awards &
Recognitions (Times Next 100 list, Dada Saheb Phalke award);
Persons in News (Chief of Defense Staff, Indian-American nominated
to IBRD); International Affairs (Russian war medal to Kim Jong-Un)
and Sports.
The Current Affairs section was easy to moderate, while Static GK
section was Moderate to Difficult. That’s takes the overall difficulty
level of GK section to Moderate-Difficult.
4. The Logical Reasoning section had similar types of questions to
those of last year’s SET General exam. There were 5 questions on
Puzzles, 2 questions on Coding-Decoding, 2 questions on Direction
Sense, 1 question on Blood Relations and 1 question on Calendar. All
the questions very straight forward. There were 2 questions each on
Statement – Course of Action and Syllogisms. Overall, this section was
the easiest one.
Overall difficulty level of the paper was easy to moderate.
SET BBA:
CUT OFFS (CLOSING Pune: 50 Marks for PI in 2020, 84 Marks for PI in 2019
CUT OFFS) Noida: 45 Marks for PI in 2020, 74 Marks for PI in 2019
Nagpur: 40 Marks for PI
ORDER OF 1. Symbiosis, Pune
PREFERENCE OF 2. Symbiosis, Noida
COLLEGES (EXAM 3. Symbiosis, Nagpur
SPECIFIC)
Symbiosis, Pune: Rs. 3, 10, 000 per year
Symbiosis, Noida: Rs. 3, 10, 000 per year
FEES
Symbiosis, Nagpur: Rs. 3, 10, 000 per year
All the fee mentioned is only for Academics or Tuition Fee
Page 25 of 132
6. St. Xavier's College (BMS)
COURSE: Bachelor of Management Studies (BMS)

NO. OF STAGES – 1 Entrance Test
NO. OF SEATS 60
1. The candidate belonging to General/Open category should have
passed the final Examination of 10 + 2 system conducted by any
ELIGIBILTY recognized Central / State Board with at least 65% aggregate marks
2. Minimum percentage requirement for Christian Minority Candidate is
60% & SC/ST candidate is 55%.
ENTRANCE DATE July 30 and July 31 in 4 different slots
MODE ONLINE
1. Online Test
Total – 100 Qs (MCQ based) comprising of:
 English - 20%
 Logical Reasoning & Visual Reasoning - 20%
 Data Interpretation* - 20%
PATTERN  Mathematics* - 20%
 General Knowledge & General Awareness - 20%
* (Mathematics and Data Interpretation will be based on the
Syllabus of Std. X across all Boards)
Right Answer: +1
Maximum Marks: 100
Total Duration: 135 Minutes (instead of 2 hours)
WEIGHTAGE 1. Test Score – 60%
2. Class 12th – 40%
1. Mode of examination changed to online from 2019.
2. WAT & PI removal and introduction of new weightage for admission
in 2019.
2017: Test Score – 60% (Written Test, WAT & PI) and Class 12th –
40%
PREVIOUS/POTENTIAL 2018: Test Score – 60% (Written Test, WAT & PI) and Class 12th –
CHANGES/SPECIAL 40%
REMARKS 2019: Online Test – 60% and Class 12th – 40%
2020: Online Test – 60% and Class 12th – 40%
3. The pattern of the Exam has also been changed in 2019. Earlier, the
questions were asked on CA, GA, DI, LR, QA, VA and Critical
Analysis etc. But now the online exam has clear cut weightage of 5
sections i.e. English - 20%, Logical Reasoning & Visual Reasoning -
20%, Data Interpretation - 20%, Mathematics - 20%, General
Page 26 of 132
Knowledge & General Awareness - 20% in Online Exam.

Remarks based on 2020:
General Awareness Section was of moderate level. This section was
a mixture of Static GK, Business Awareness and Current Affairs.
There were 8 Questions from Current Affairs 6 Questions from
Static GK, and 6 Questions from Business Awareness. Some of the
GK topics were cyclone, personalities, logos & taglines, general
sciences. Overall section was of easy - moderate difficulty level
In Quantitative Aptitude section, Questions came from Probability,
Simplification, boats and streams, pipes and cisterns, Mensuration
(Geometry), time, speed, work and distance, profit and loss, simple
interest & compound interest, ratio proportion and variation,
permutation & combination, number and sequence series,
percentage, etc. Questions were from basic mathematics topics.
Overall this section was easy – moderate.
English Section had questions from all the topics. The key topics
were vocabulary, active and passive voice, collective nouns, analogies.
There was 1 RC/passage with 5 Questions. Overall section was of
moderate difficulty level
Data Interpretation was of moderate difficulty level. There was one
difficult set, the remaining 3 sets were easy with 5 Q in each set.
Logical Reasoning questions were very easy. Except 2-3 tricky
Questions, the rest were of easy. The section covered almost all the
topic but the important topics covered were blood relations, coding
decoding, series etc.
CUT OFFS (CLOSING First Cut Off 2020 – 84.65 for General (Composite Score)
CUT OFFS) In 2019
First Cut Off 2019 – 76 for General
Second Cut Off 2019 – 72.68 for General
FEES First Year of B.M.S. - Rs. 36,009
Second Year of B.M.S. - Rs. 27,225
Third Year of B.M.S. - Rs. 29,144
Page 27 of 132
7. Christ University (BBA)

Bachelor of Business Administration (BBA)
BBA ( Honours )
BBA (Finance and International Business)
COURSES: BBA (Tourism and Travel Management)
BBA (Finance and Accountancy)
BBA (Business Analytics)
BBA (Fin Tech Honours)
NO. OF STAGES - 4 1. Christ University Entrance Test
2. Skill Assessment
3. Micro Presentation (Extempore)
NO. OF SEATS 1200 (Approx.) in all 3 Campuses (Bengaluru, Ghaziabad & Lavasa)
Basic eligibility for the programme is a pass at the +2 level (Karnataka
PUC / ISC / CBSE / NIOS / State Boards) in any stream (Humanities, Social
ELIGIBILITY
Sciences, Commerce & Management, and Science) from any recognized
Board in India.
Session 1 – 2nd May, 2020
ENTRANCE DATE Session 2 – 3rd & 4th May, 2020
Session 3 – 17th May 2020
MODE ONLINE
1. Christ BBA – Test 2020 similar to 2019
1. Current Affairs / General Awareness – 25 Qs
2. Data Interpretation – 20 Qs
Marking Scheme:
PATTERN Right Answer: +1
Wrong Answer: -0.25
Maximum Marks: 120
2. Skill Assessment
Word Limit: None
Total Duration: 90 Seconds
Total Duration: PIs are 15-20 Minutes each.
WEIGHTAGE Final Merit List is compiled from the overall score of all 4 assessment
Page 28 of 132
rounds and Academic Performance.

1. Written Exam
2. Skill Assessment
3. Micro Presentation
5. Academic Performance
PREVIOUS/POTENTIAL Written Exam
CHANGES/SPECIAL 1. The GA section is medium difficulty level focused on the Static GK
REMARKS and Current Affairs; however, the weightage of the Static part was
visibly much higher than the Current Affairs part. Infact, the questions
on Current Affairs were not from 2019-20 but on the events
happened in 2017, 2018 and 2019.
2. Like last year, there is only basic Mathematics tested in the QA
section with more weightage of Average and Linear Equations,
Numbers, Ratio & Proportion, Percentage and Profit & Loss. Few
questions were asked from Probability, Set Theory, and Clocks &
Calendars as well.
3. Like last year, LR section was relatively easy and one of the most
scoring sections in this exam. Majority of the questions were from
Analytical and Logical Reasoning. There were 4-5 questions in a set of
Puzzles. 5-6 questions each on Coding-Decoding and Blood Relations.
Few questions were from Statement & Conclusion and Series,
Sequence.
4. Data Interpretation questions are usually based on tabular and Bar
Graphs. This section consisted of two to three sets of Data
Interpretation. All the sets were from Tables. The questions were
calculative in nature i.e. percentage change, highest/lowest percentage
increase/decrease.
5. Like last year, VA section was dominated by Grammar and Reading
Comprehension. Grammar consisted Fill in the blanks of Prepositions,
Verbs, and Adverbs. There were two passages of Reading
comprehension with six questions in each, which can be categorized as
easy. There were four to five questions of Synonyms and Antonyms.
There were two easy questions of Critical Reasoning. Overall this
section can be termed as easy.
Skill Assessment
current relevance and they are tested on their Written Skills,
Communication Skills and Reasoning Skills. The topics presented are
not very complex.
Micro Presentation (Extempore)
Candidates are asked to speak (Extempore) on any of the topics that
they randomly pick as part of the selection process. The topics are
provided on the university's website beforehand.
Personal Interview
Page 29 of 132
Strong focus on HR type and Personal Questions and sometimes have

the tendency to get quirky trying to make candidates uncomfortable
and/or under stress. Along with PI, assessment of past performance in
classes 10, 11 and 12 is also done.
CUT OFFS (CLOSING 85+ Marks in the written exam is a good benchmark for Final Selection
CUT OFFS)
ORDER OF 1. Bengaluru
PREFERENCE OF 2. Lavasa (Pune)
COLLEGES (EXAM 3. Ghaziabad
SPECIFIC)
FEES Rs. 4, 95, 000 (Full Course tuition fee)
Page 30 of 132
8. Guru Gobind Singh Indraprastha

University (CET BBA)
Bachelor of Business Administration (BBA)
COURSES: BBA (Banking & Insurance)
BBA (Computer Aided Management)
NO. OF STAGES - 2 Common Entrance Test BBA (CET BBA)
NO. OF SEATS 5500 approx.
Pass in 12th Class of 10+2 of CBSE or equivalent with a minimum of
ELIGIBILITY
50% marks in aggregate* and must also have passed English (core or
elective or functional) as a subject.
ENTRANCE DATE 14th September, 2020
MODE ONLINE (at Centre)
Number of Questions in 2020:
1. General Awareness & Business Awareness
2. Management Aptitude & Communication Skills
3. Logical Reasoning
4. Verbal Ability
PATTERN
Total – 100 Qs (MCQ) instead of 150 in 2019
Marking Scheme:
Right Answer: +4
Wrong Answer: -1
Maximum Marks: 400
WEIGHTAGE Admission shall be on the basis of the merit of the written test / CET.
Special Remarks 2020:
1. Total Questions were 100 instead of 150, out of which 45 questions
were from English Language & Comprehension, 30 questions
combined from General Awareness (20-21 Questions) and
Management Aptitude & Communication Skills (8-9 Questions) and
25 questions were from Logical & Analytical reasoning.
2. In General Awareness section, there was significantly higher
PREVIOUS/POTENTIAL
weightage of static GK with the overall difficulty level of this section
CHANGES/SPECIAL
being Moderate. There were questions like Full Form of NBFC,
REMARKS
Founder of Ramakrishna mission, 1 questions was on Fungi, India’s
only active Volcano, there was a question on the educational
background of Gita Gopinath, Chief economist of IMF, 2019 Nobel
Economics Prize, Books and Authors – Author of the book –
“Business@SpeedofThought”, Richest source of Vitamin C, One
Polity questions on Fundamental Duties, Kondaikanal is in which state
etc. In shift 2, there were questions on Polity like term of members
of Union Government, year of the establishment of Public Service
Page 31 of 132
Commission of India,Term of Rajya Sabha Member, First/Highest Law

Officer. There were questions on the establishing year of ISRO,
Important Personality – Verghese Kurien (Dairy Development), 2
questions on National Anthem – First sung at (Year & Place), Time of
National Anthem. There were few questions on Awards and
Honours like First Non-Indian to receive Bharat Ratna, Pulitzer Prize
is related to which field. There were few questions on Sports also like
First Indian to win a medal in individual Olympic event, ICC Cricketer
of the Year Award 2019, Olympic Flame symbolize etc. 1 question on
books and Authors (India Positive), Geography Questions like which
river crosses equator twice. 1 science question on Lactometer used
to measure Density of Milk. Few CA questions were there like India’s
first Lunar Probe Programme by ISRO, Chief Election Commissioner
who also served as first CEC of Nepal and Suda, Delhi Police anti-
street crime vans. Other Questions were Full form of NITI Aayog,
Sister planet of Earth Sabrimala Temple, There was 1 question like
“Kai Po Che” based on which novel because of the top news of that
time related to Sushant Singh Rajput. Few Business Awareness
Questions were also there, on Punchlines – Badhti ka naam Zindagi,
Chairman of Tata Group, Type of Unemployement, Demonetisation,
Indian Businessman in Forbes magazine, Black Zero, Monopolistic
Competition, Stock Exchange “Big Board”, Grofers, etc.
Overall, this section was a mixture of Static GK, Current Affairs and
Business Awareness with easy to moderate difficulty level.
3. In Logical Reasoning Section, there were 3 sets of Puzzles with 5
questions each (Total – 15 questions) – 1 puzzle was on Friends and
their subject, another was on Family members, their names and
professions, 3rd was on Teachers and their subjects. There were 5
Questions from Analogies which were doable, 2 questions were from
Blood Relation which were very easy, 3 questions from Statement-
Conclusion which were easy. There was no question from topics like
Syllogism, Series & Sequence, Odd one out. It was very different from
last year’s paper. Compared to the rest of the question paper, the
Logical Reasoning Section was relatively simpler and easier. No
separate QA Section but few basic questions were asked in Logical
Reasoning section
4. Again, for Management Aptitude and Communication Skills the
overall difficulty level of the section was moderate or average. Only
8-9 8 questions were asked from this section. Questions were from
topic like benefit of Digital Transformation, Value Creation, purpose
of Social Media etc. Overall, it was and easy and manageable section.
5. The English Section primarily focused on reading Comprehension in
Shift 1 but RC was missing in another shifts. In shift 1, there were 5
RCs with 5 questions each which mean total 25 Questions. Few
questions of RC can be considered as difficult. 5-6 Questions were
Page 32 of 132
there from Sentence Correction, 5-6 questions from One word

Substitution, 9-10 Questions Fill in the blanks questions like
Vocabulary – Antonym and Synonym. Few questions on Idioms,
Direct-Indirect speech. Etc.
6. The overall level of difficulty of the paper was moderate.
300+ Marks in the written exam is a good benchmark for Final Selection
CUT OFFS (CLOSING into Top 5 colleges in 2020
CUT OFFS) 400+ Marks in the written exam is a good benchmark for Final Selection
into Top 5 colleges in 2019
Online Counseling 2020 Cut-Offs
1. Maharaja Surajmal Institute, C 4 Janak Puri, New Delhi 11005
Cut off 2020: Maximum Rank for Delhi: 1184 & For Outside Delhi:
741
2. Maharaja Agrasen Institute of Management Studies, Sec 22, Rohini,
Delhi 110085
Cut off 2020: Maximum Year Rank For Delhi: 2310 & For Outside
Delhi: 1468
3. Vivekananda Institute of Professional Studies, AU Block (Outer Ring
Road), Pitampura, New Delhi
Cut off 2020: Maximum Rank For Delhi: 1250 & For Outside Delhi:
1055
4. Jagannath International Management School, OCF, Poc 9 Sec b Vasant
Kunj New Delhi 110070
Cut off 2020: Maximum For Delhi: 3740 & For Outside Delhi: 1870
5. Jagan Institute of Management Studies, 3, Institutional AREA, Sec 5
ORDER OF PREFERENCE
Rohini (Near Rajiv Gandhi Cancer Resarch Institute) Delhi 110085
OF COLLEGES (EXAM
SPECIFIC)
1806
&
6. Jagannath International Management School, MOR Pkt 105 Kalkaji,
CUT-OFFs
(Opp. Kalkaji Police Station) New Delhi 110019
1849
7. Ideal Institute of Management and Technology, 16 X Karkardooma,
(Near Telephone Exchange), Vivek Vihar, Delhi-92
3507
8. Trinity Institute of Professional Studies, Sec 9 Dwarka, (Adjacent to
Metro Pillar No. 1160), New Delhi 110075
3727
9. Bhai Parmanand Institute of Business Studies, Opp. Madhuban,
Sharkarpur (Extn.), Delhi 110092
2357
10. Management Education & Research Institute, Janak Puri
Page 33 of 132
12221
FEES 1. Maharaja Surajmal Institute, C 4 Janak Puri, New Delhi 11005: Rs.
79,000
2. Maharaja Agrasen Institute of Management Studies, Sec 22, Rohini,
Delhi 110085: Rs. 79,000
3. Vivekananda Institute of Professional Studies, AU Block (Outer Ring
Road), Pitampura, New Delhi: Rs. 79,000
4. Jagannath International Management School, OCF, Poc 9 Sec b
Vasant Kunj New Delhi 110070: Rs. 79,000
5. Jagan Institute of Management Studies, 3, Institutional AREA, Sec 5
Rohini (Near Rajiv Gandhi Cancer Resarch Institute) Delhi 110085:
Rs. 79,000
6. Jagannath International Management School, MOR Pkt 105 Kalkaji,
(Opp. Kalkaji Police Station) New Delhi 110019: Rs. 79,000
7. Trinity Institute of Professional Studies, Sec 9 Dwarka, (Adjacent to
Metro Pillar No. 1160), New Delhi 110075: Rs. 79,000
8. Ideal Institute of Management and Technology, 16 X Karkardooma,
(Near Telephone Exchange), Vivek Vihar, Delhi-92: Rs. 79,000
9. Bhai Parmanand Institute of Business Studies, Opp. Madhuban,
Sharkarpur(Extn.), Delhi 110092: Rs. 79,000
10. Management Education & Research Institute, Janak Puri: Rs. 79,000
(Above mentioned fee for only tuition Fee)
Page 34 of 132
9. Jamia Millia Islamia University (BBA)

NO. OF STAGES - 1 Written Exam- Jamia BBA
NO. OF SEATS 44
ELIGIBILITY Senior Secondary School Certificate or an equivalent examination with
not less than 50% marks in aggregate of best 5-papers.
ENTRANCE DATE 1st November 2020
MODE OFFLINE
Number of Questions in 2020 similar to in 2019:
1. General Awareness – 40 Qs
PATTERN Total – 100 Qs (MCQ)
Marking Scheme:
Right Answer: +1
Wrong Answer: -0.25
Maximum Marks: 100
Total Duration:
105 Minutes
WEIGHTAGE Final Ranks are compiled from the overall Jamia BBA Score.
PREVIOUS/POTENTIAL Special Remarks (Based on 2020):
CHANGES/SPECIAL 1. There is only basic mathematics tested in the Quantitative Aptitude
REMARKS section. The section had questions from every possible area one can
think of and it covered almost all the topics like Percentage, Profit &
Loss, Numbers, Ratio & Proportion, Average and Linear Equations. A
couple of questions were asked from Set Theory, Probability and
Logarithm etc.
2. In Verbal Ability section, there was just one passage (Topic was
related to Gandhi) followed by 5 questions which were directly from
the passage. There were 5 Questions from Active-Passive Voice, 5
questions from one-word substitution, 5 questions from Vocabulary
(Synonyms – Tetchy, odious, Vocation, Narrated and Candid).
Overall, the difficulty level of this section was easy.
3. The Logical Reasoning section is relatively easy and one of the most
scoring sections in this exam. There were questions based on series,
coding-decoding, data sufficiency, blood relations, odd one out,
arrangements, cause and effect, Series, Sequence etc. Overall, the
difficulty level of this section was very easy.
4. In General Awareness section, there were questions from both
Static GK – 22 Questions and Current Affairs – 18 Questions. In
Static GK, the questions from different topics like History – 4
questions, Geography – 1 question, Indian Polity – 1 question,
Page 35 of 132
Economics – 6 Questions, General Science – 4 Questions,

Miscellaneous – 6 Questions (Newspapers – 2 Questions, Personality
– 1 question, Books & Authors – 2 Questions and Computer
Awareness – 1 Question). There were 4 questions from History –
Last independent Nawab of Bengal and Lord Ripon Hunter
Commission, Lahore session of 1929, founder of Madras Labour
Union. --- Current Affairs Questions were there and these questions
were on things like status of House of Sparrow, IDSA renamed after
Manohar Parrikar, Ra’ad Cruise Missile, Laureus World Sports Award
2020, Hosting Country of FIFA U-17 women’s football World Cup
2020, Set-up of Central Consumer Protection Authority, Important
Days- World Day of Social Justice, Committees & Commissions –
related to Assam Accord of 1985, Gross National Happiness Index,
Ashraf Ghani – President of Afghanistan, 1st state in India to launch
unified vehicle registration, International Organisation secured $ 118
million offshore, Books and Authors – Accidental Prime minister,
Donald Trump’s visit in India, State with lowest percent of persons
with poverty line, State with 1st position in cement production, State
with largest number of representative in Rajya Sabha. There were
questions on newspapers and their editors & publishers – Indian
Mirror, Jugantar – Barinda Ghosh.
Overall, this section was a mixture of Both Static GK and Current
Affairs and the difficulty level was moderate.
CUT OFFS (CLOSING Cut off for 2020:
CUT OFFS) BBA – 53.25 (General Category)
Cut off for 2019:

BBA – 69.00 (General Category)
FEES Rs. 13,100 (6 Semester)
Page 36 of 132
10. Manipal University (MUOET)

Manipal University Online Entrance Test (MUOET)
NO. OF STAGES - 1
Important Note:
MUOET Score is applicable for BBA and B.Com (H)"
NO. OF SEATS Not Available on the official website
ELIGIBILITY Pass in 10+2, A Level, IB, American 12th grade or equivalent with a
minimum of 50% marks in aggregate.
No entrance Exam Conducted this year because of Pandemic
ENTRANCE DATE
situation
MODE ONLINE (2019)
Number of Questions (Based on 2019):
PATTERN (Based on 4. Verbal Ability – 20 Qs
2019) 5. Case Study – 15 Qs
Right Answer: +1
Maximum Marks: 100
WEIGHTAGE Final Ranks are compiled from the overall MUOET Score. (2019)
Special Remarks: (Based on 2019)
1. More emphasis on static questions in General Awareness Section.
2. There is only basic mathematics tested in the QA section.
3. The LR section had covered all the topics with direct and easy
PREVIOUS/POTENTIAL
questions. Questions were from arithmetic, algebra, geometry, data
CHANGES/SPECIAL
interpretation etc.
REMARKS
4. In VA section, the main focus was on Vocabulary and Grammar. It had
1 Reading Comprehension and questions on spotting errors, sentence
improvement, vocabulary etc.
5. In Case Study section, questions were on the latest trends and
developments in the media, social and economic areas.
CUT OFFS (CLOSING 70+ Marks in the written exam is a good benchmark for Final Selection.
CUT OFFS)
FEES Rs. 4,69,000 (3 Years) – Only tuition fee
Page 37 of 132
11. Bharati Vidyapeeth University

(BUMAT)
Bharati Vidyapeeth Management Aptitude Test (BUMAT)
NO. OF STAGES - 1
Important Note: BUMAT is applicable for BBA and BCA
NO. OF SEATS BBA – 600 seats Delhi and Pune
A Candidate applying for the BBA Programme should have passed HSC
ELIGIBILITY (10+2) or equivalent examination from any statutory board with
minimum 45% of marks in aggregate (40 % in case of SC/ST candidates).
ENTRANCE DATE 19th August 2020
MODE ONLINE
Number of Questions in 2020 similar to in 2019:
4. Reading Comprehension – 20 Qs
PATTERN
Right Answer: +1
Maximum Marks: 200
WEIGHTAGE Final Ranks are compiled from the overall BUMAT Score.
Special Remarks:
1. The LR section had covered almost all the topics with direct and easy
questions.
2. There is only basic Mathematics tested in the QA section.
PREVIOUS/POTENTIAL
3. In VA and Reading Comprehension Section, the overall difficulty level
CHANGES/SPECIAL
was Moderate. Most of the questions were asked from Reading
REMARKS
comprehension & Vocabulary (two passages of 4 questions each were
asked). Questions asked in passages were based on inferences which
make the section difficult. Synonym, Antonym, para jumbles, idioms,
phrases & cloze test were also asked.
CUT OFFS (CLOSING 140+ Marks in the written exam is a good benchmark for Final Selection.
CUT OFFS)
1. Institute of Management & Entrepreneurship Development, Pune
ORDER OF
(Intake BBA-240 & BCA-60)
PREFERENCE OF
2. Institute of Management & Research New Delhi
COLLEGES (EXAM
Intake BBA-360 (Morning Shift-180+Afternoon Shift-80) & BCA-120
SPECIFIC)
(Morning Shift -60+ Afternoon Shift -60)
FEES 1. Institute of Management & Entrepreneurship Development, Pune
Fees for BBA – Rs.1,00,000/- p.a.
Page 38 of 132
2. Institute of Management & Research New Delhi

Fees for BBA – BBA Rs. 1,40,000
Page 39 of 132
LAW
 Common Law Admission Test (CLAT)

 All India Law Entrance Test (AILET)
 Symbiosis Law Admission Test (SLAT)
 Christ University (CULEE)
 Maharashtra Common Entrance Test (MHCET)
 Jamia Millia Islamia University (Law)
 Panjab University (Law)
 Law School Admission Test (LSAT)
1. Common Law Admission Test (CLAT)

Different NLUs offer different courses. But the primary
courses are
a) B.A. LL.B.
COURSES: b) B.Com. LL.B.
c) B.B.A. LL.B.
d) B.Sc. LL.B.
e) BSW LL.B.
NO. OF STAGES Online CBT Mode – Common Law Admission Test (CLAT)
MODE Online
NO. OF SEATS 2705
Any candidate who has completed 10+2 is eligible to apply for CLAT Exam.
Minimum marks required for different categories are listed below:
ELIGIBILITY 45% marks for General/ Other Backward Class (OBC)/ Specially abled persons
categories. 40% marks for Scheduled Class (SC)/ Scheduled Tribe (ST)
categories
Number of questions in 2020: 150 (MCQ)
a) Legal Reasoning: 39 marks
b) Current Affairs including General Knowledge: 36 marks
c) Logical Reasoning: 30 marks
d) Reading Comprehension: 30 marks
e) Quantitative Techniques: 15 marks
Marking scheme: Maximum marks 150
 Right answer: +1
 Wrong answer: -0.25
 One more thing was witnessed this time if any question was left for mark for
PATTERN review it was considered as not answered. Though no deduction of marks
were made.
Number of questions 2019: 200 (MCQ)

a) Legal Aptitude: 50 marks
b) General Knowledge and Current Affairs: 50 marks
c) Logical Reasoning: 40 marks
d) English including comprehension: 40 marks
e) Elementary Mathematics: 20 marks
(Closing cut offs: Ranks as per 3rd allotment list)

Different for different NLU’s
CUT OFFS
a) NLSIU, Bangalore - 98
b) NALSAR, Hyderabad – 177
Page 41 of 132
c) NLIU , Bhopal - 429

d) WBNUJS, Kolkata -227
e) NLU, Jodhpur - 323
f) HNLU, Raipur - 772
g) GNLU, Gandhinagar - 470
h) CNLU, Patna - 1256
i) RMLNLU, Lucknow - 742
j) RGNUL, Patiala - 1012
k) HPNLU, Shimla - 2005
l) NLU, Odisha - 1052
m) TNNLS, Tiruchirappalli - 1799
n) DSNLU, Vishakhapatnam - 1518
o) MNLU, Mumbai - 557
p) MNLU, Nagpur - 1575
q) NLUJAA, Guwahati - 1584
r) MNLU, Aurangabad - 2403
s) NUALS, Kochi – 1076
t) NLUO, Cuttack – 1052
u) NUSRL, Ranchi – 1290
v) DNLU, Jabalpur – 2001
w) NLU Sonipat – 2074
(Closing Cut offs: Ranks as per 3rd allotment list) 2019

Different for different NLU’s
x) a) NLSIU - 57
y) NALSAR – 129
z) NLIU , Bhopal - 376
aa) WBNUJS, Kolkata -227
bb) NLU, Jodhpur - 354
cc) HNLU, Raipur - 638
dd) GNLU, Gandhinagar - 468
ee) CNLU, Patna - 1098
ff) RMLNLU, Lucknow - 694
gg) RGNUL, Patiala - 926
hh) HPNLU, Shimla - 1471
ii) NLU, Odisha - 953
jj) TNNLS,Tiruchirappalli - 1412
kk) DSNLU, Vishakhapatnam - 1292
ll) MNLU, Mumbai - 512
mm) MNLU, Nagpur - 1190
nn) NLUJAA, Guwahati - 1299
MNLU, Aurangabad – 1344
PREVIOUS/ In 2020 the offline mode was again changed to online mode due to pandemic. In
POTENTIAL 2019, the exam was conducted in offline mode whereas in 2018, the exam was
CHANGES/ conducted in online mode.
SPECIAL REMARKS The following is the section wise analysis:
Page 42 of 132
1. Legal aptitude: There were total 39 questions from 8 passages. This

section was the easiest among all the sections. Most of the questions in this
section were highly probable and all of the topics were covered in
PRATHAM’S legal classes. The passages were asked on Force majeure
clause under Contract Law, LG polymer gas link, palghar mob lynching ,
Arnab Goswami v. Union of India, Clauses of Article 20, Obscenity,
Common intention and similar intention , Principle of natural justices. This
section was lengthy though easy.
2. Current Affairs including general knowledge: There were around 7
passages with a total of 36 questions. The passages were on rafale delivery,
national education policy, SCO summit, UAE-Israel mediation by trump,
national infrastructure policy etc. It was important to read passage before
answering the questions. This section was easy for those who have read
newspaper from June 2020 – September 2020. Articles were given from
Hindustan times, Economic times, NDTV etc. The level of this section was
easy to moderate.
3. Logical Reasoning: The passages asked in this section were from
COVID-19 & Institutionalized Education, crisis in news media, Anti-alcohol
campaign in Soviet Union, CBSE result etc. The most important thing in
this section was the time management. All of the passages were taken
from newspaper. This section was easy to moderate.
4. Verbal Ability: This section had 6 passages on topics of current relevance
with 5 questions in each passage. The passages were on Climatic change,
“bois locker room”, Excerpts from a Short story “The CAT‟ by Mary E.
Wilkins Freeman, Short Story by Kate Chopin, Excerpts from “The Case for
the Defence‟ by Graham Greene, use of telemedicine during the current
COVID pandemic. This section was moderately difficult and questions were
from mix of fact based, inferential and vocabulary based. The vocab asked
was mostly covered in PRATHAM’S vocab classes.
5. Quantitative techniques: There were total 15 questions divided into 3
sets. The level of this section was easy to moderate.
The following is the section wise analysis 2019:

1. Legal aptitude: This section was almost a direct one. Interestingly there
were no questions from assertion- reason and legal current affairs. The
questions from Law of Torts were from Defamation, Vicarious liability,
nuisance, etc. Law of contract topic was from communication of
acceptance, proposal, and consideration, etc. The topics like culpable
homicide, murder were covered under criminal law. There were some
questions that were directly asked from previous year’s paper with a slight
change in their principal. The difficulty level of this section was easy to
moderate.
2. General knowledge and Current Affairs: This section covered almost
questions from current affairs. Current affairs broadly covered questions
from awards and honours, politics, foreign affairs, books and authors,
military developments, appointments, etc. Some questions were also asked
Page 43 of 132
from static GK which includes headquarters of Asian development bank,

planets, etc. The level of this section was easy to moderate.
3. Logical Reasoning: There were around 8 questions on logical reasoning
based. There were 2 sets of 5 questions from arrangements, 2 questions
were on analogies, 4 questions on odd one out. There were no new
sections covered in this section. The difficulty level of this section was
relatively easy.
4. English: This section was based on the historic pattern of CLAT. There
was one reading comprehension with 10 questions on the difference
between invention and innovation. Other questions were from foreign
words, vocab, sentence correction, phrased to be used in sequence, etc.
This section was easy, doable and scoring.
5. Mathematics: It was the easiest section over the past few years. The
topics covered were percentages, profit, and loss, algebra, calendars,
clocks, time and work. This section was easy.
(As per Students preference, 2020)
1. National Law School of India University, Bangalore
2. NALSAR University of Law, Hyderabad
3. The West Bengal National University of Juridical Sciences, Kolkata
4. National Law University, Jodhpur, Jodhpur
5. National Law Institute University, Bhopal
6. Gujarat National Law University, Gandhinagar
7. Rajiv Gandhi National University of Law, Patiala
8. Hidayatullah National Law University, Raipur
9. Dr. Ram Manohar Lohia National Law University, Lucknow
ORDER OF 10. National Law University, Odisha
PREFERENCE OF 11. Maharashtra National Law University, Mumbai
COLLEGES 12. National University of Study and Research in Law, Ranchi
13. National University of Advanced Legal Studies, Kochi
14. Chanakya National Law University, Patna
15. Maharashtra National Law University, Nagpur
16. Damodaram Sanjivayya National Law University, Visakhapatnam
17. National Law School and Judicial Academy, Assam
18. Tamil Nadu National Law School, Trichy
19. Himachal Pradesh National Law University, Shimla, Himachal Pradesh
20. Dharmashastra National Law University, Jabalpur, Madhya Pradesh
21. Maharashtra National Law University, Aurangabad
22. Dr. B.R. Ambedkar National Law University, Sonepat
FEES Rs.1, 50,000 to Rs.3, 00,000 (Approx.) – Per Year
Page 44 of 132
2. All India Law Entrance Test (AILET)

COURSES: B.A. LL.B
NO. OF STAGES Online Test – All India Law Entrance Test- AILET
MODE Online mode
NO. OF SEATS 80
ENTRANCE DATE September 26, 2020
Candidates should have passed the 10+2 examination and scored a minimum of
ELIGIBLITY
50%.
a. Legal Aptitude: 35 marks
b. General Knowledge and Current Affairs: 35 marks
c. Logical Reasoning: 35 marks
d. English including comprehension: 35 marks
e. Elementary Mathematics: 10 marks
PATTERN
f. TOTAL: 150 marks
Marking scheme: Maximum marks 150
 Right answer: +1
 Wrong answer: -0.25
CUT OFFS 2020 – 75.25 marks (Second Cut off)
The following is the section wise analysis in 2020:
1. Verbal Ability: A lot of questions were based on sentence correction, Fill in
the blanks, Idioms & phrases and verb. The only key to score in this section
was time management. There was only one passage in this section on
gangetic plains and mostly direct/indirect were based out of it. Overall the
level of this section was moderately difficult though lengthy.
2. General Awareness: This section is classified as easy as it would not have
intimidated students too much. Maximum questions were asked from
current affairs that covers question on best picture award, youngest MP,
nobel peace prize, Magsaysay award, fake news criminalization.
PREVIOUS/ 3. Legal reasoning: The Legal Reasoning Questions were lengthy and of
POTENTIAL difficult level. The tradition of keeping 4 principles per question was kept.
CHANGES/ Total questions were 35 out of which 17 questions were from legal
SPECIAL REMARKS reasoning and remaining 18 questions were asked from legal current affairs.
Surprisingly no question was asked from assertion- reason.
4. Quantitative Aptitude: This section was of moderately difficult level and
maximum questions were from equations, permutations and combinations,
ratio, profit & loss, time, speed and distance.
5. Logical Reasoning: This section was the easiest of the lot. Out of the total
35 Questions arrangements and puzzles had the maximum Questions.
Questions were also asked from direction, clock & calendar, critical
reasoning, calendars, odd one out, short passages and blood relations. This
section was the most scoring one.
Page 45 of 132
The following is the section wise analysis of 2019:

1. Verbal Ability: A lot of questions were based on sentence correction and
Figure of speech. Overall the level of this section was difficult than previous
years AILET paper. The remaining questions were from part of speech and
word filing questions.
2. General Awareness: This section is classified as easy as it would not have
intimidated students too much. Maximum questions were asked from
current affairs and economics that cover questions on U.N, appointment,
awards, largest & longest, Bank mergers and Gafa Tax. Other remaining
questions were asked from science, geography, and sports.
3. Legal Section: The Legal Reasoning Questions were lengthy and of
moderate level. Total questions were 35 out of which 13 questions were
based on principle-facts (IPC, Contracts & torts), 2 questions were asked
from the Constitution in the form of assertion-reason and remaining 20
questions were asked from legal current affairs which include amendments,
Bills, Acts, high court judgments and panels.
4. Quantitative Aptitude: This section was of moderate level and maximum
questions were from ratio, profit & loss, time, speed and distance.
Logical Reasoning: This section was of a difficult level. There was one set that
troubled the students the most. The rest was moderate. Out of the total 35
Questions, group & conditions and critical reasoning had the maximum
Questions. Questions were also asked from Syllogism, analogy, direction, clock
& calendar, and blood relations. Critical Reasoning Sections had questions based
on statement conclusion, cause & effect relationships and data inference
FEES Rs.1, 86, 000 first year with Hostel
Page 46 of 132
3. Symbiosis Law Admission Test (SLAT)
1. B.A. LL.B.
COURSES:
2. B.B.A. LL.B.
1. Entrance Test MCQ based and Written ability Test
NO. OF STAGES 2. Writing Ability Test
MODE Online (No Negative Marking) : home proctored mode
1080 seats in 4 campuses at Pune, Noida, Hyderabad, and Nagpur
NO. OF SEATS B.A.LL.B.: 480
B.B.A LL.B.: 600
ENTRANCE DATE July 26, 2020
ELIGIBLITY 45% marks in class 12th and 5% relaxation is given to SC/ST candidates
Exam Pattern in 2020:
1. Legal Aptitude: 15 marks
2. General Knowledge and Current Affairs: 15 marks
3. Logical Reasoning: 15 marks
4. Analytical Reasoning: 15 marks
5. English including comprehension: 15 marks
TOTAL Marks : 75 marks
Time: 75 minutes
Once the MCQ part was over students were given 30 minutes for written
PATTERN
ability test.
Exam Pattern in 2019:
1. Legal Aptitude: 30 marks
2. General Knowledge and Current Affairs: 30 marks
3. Logical Reasoning: 30 marks
4. Analytical Reasoning: 30
TOTAL Marks : 150 marks
Time: 2 hours and 30 minutes
Merit List according to:
a. SLAT score – 50%
CRITERIA FOR
b. PI – 25%
SELECTION
c. WAT – 20%
d. Academic Performance – 5%
Section wise analysis of written exam in 2020
PREVIOUS/ 1. Legal aptitude: This section was mostly dominated with legal reasoning
POTENTIAL questions. This section had legal reasoning questions from Constitution,
CHANGES/ criminal law, torts and contracts. There were 2 questions that were asked
SPECIAL REMARKS without principle. If the student has done previous years paper of CLAT and
AILET then this section was easily doable.
Page 47 of 132
2. General Awareness: There were 12 questions from current affairs in this

section and 3 were from static GK. 6 questions were asked from world
news, 3 questions were from awards and honours, 1 question each was
asked from government schemes, defence and persons in news. Questions
from static GK were asked from Indian & world geography & books and
authors. This section was easiest among the lot. Students have covered all of
the questions in Pratham CA classes.
3. Reading comprehension: This section had 3 passages of varying word
range. 2 passages were difficult to comprehend & 1 was easy. Overall this
section was moderately difficult.
4. Analytical reasoning: Questions were pretty easy & manageable. There
were a total of 6 Q from ratio-proportion & fractions, 3 Q each from profit
& loss & averages, 2 Q from percentages & 1 Q each from time & work &
partnership.
5. Logical reasoning: This section was easy and could be completed in 15
minutes only. Mostly questions were asked from analytical reasoning
section. Visual reasoning based questions were also asked in the section.
Section wise analysis of written exam in 2019

1. Legal aptitude: Around 21 questions were asked from legal GK. The
questions included were from Constitution, criminal law and contracts.
There were 8 questions that were asked without principle. Overall this
section was easy.
2. General knowledge: There were 25 questions of current affairs in this
section. The questions from amendments, personalities, government
schemes, and world news were asked.
3. Reading comprehension: This section had 6 passages of varying word
range. 2 passages were difficult to comprehend & 4 were easy. Topics varied
from environment protection, mining & surveillance, GST, racism,
reclamation & history.
4. Analytical reasoning: Questions were pretty easy & manageable. There
were a total of 6 Q from ratio-proportion & fractions, 3 Q each from profit
& loss & averages, 2 Q from percentages & 1 Q each from time & work &
partnership.
Logical reasoning: The questions covered in this section were vocab based (3
Q each on Antonym-Synonym & verbal analogies). 7 Q on verbal reasoning was
split into statement-conclusion (5 Q) & course of action (2 Q). Other type was
conventional logical reasoning spread across circular arrangement case let &
number series (4 Q each), Venn diagram & word coding (2 Q each) & 1 Q each
based on directions, clock, family tree & puzzle.
a. Symbiosis Pune
ORDER OF
b. Symbiosis Noida
PREFERENCE OF
c. Symbiosis Hyderabad
COLLEGES
d. Symbiosis Nagpur
Rs. 3, 55,000 First Year
FEES
Page 48 of 132

Above mentioned fee includes tuition fee only
Page 49 of 132
4. Christ University (CULEE)

NAME OF THE
Christ university law entrance examination
EXAM
B.A. LL.B. (H)
COURSES:
BBA LL.B.(H)
1. Written exam: Christ university entrance test
2. Skill assessment: This round consists of written skills, communication skills
and logical reasoning test.
NO. OF STAGES
3. Micro presentation : Micro Presentation for 90 sec has to be given during
this round
4. Personal interview
MODE Online (Negative marking)
Mandatory to pass 12th from any recognized board in India with atleast 45%
ELIGIBLITY
marks.
Exam pattern in 2020 was similar to 2019
English language : 30
Critical, analytical and logical reasoning: 20
General knowledge and current affairs : 25
Data analysis &interpretation : 20
PATTERN
Quantitative aptitude & Numerical ability: 25
Marking Scheme : Maximum Marks- 120
+1 for right answer
-.25 for wrong answer
Duration: 120 min.
BA LL.B.: 10,90, 000 (Five Years)
FEES
BBA LL.B.: 9,22,500 (Five Years)
Page 50 of 132
5. Maharashtra Common Entrance Test

(MHCET)
1. B.A. LL.B.
COURSES: 2. B.B.A. LL.B.
3. B.Com. LL.B.
NO. OF STAGES Online entrance test
MODE Online (No negative marking)
NO. OF SEATS Approx.10260 seats are offered in 153 colleges
ENTRANCE DATE 11th October, 2020
The candidate should have passed 12th from any recognized educational board
ELIGIBLITY
with minimum 45% and 40% for SC/ST belonging to Maharashtra
Exam Pattern in 2020 was similar to 2019
Total questions: 150
1. General Awareness - 30
2. Legal Awareness and Reasoning -40
3. Logical and Analytical Reasoning - 40
PATTERN 4. Quantitative Aptitude - 10
5. English Comprehensive – 30
Duration: 120 min.
Right answer: +1
No negative marking
Medium : English and Marathi
Section wise analysis of written exam, 2020
1. English: This section was easy overall. There were 2 RC with one having 8
questions and other one having 5 questions. There were other questions on
phrase replacements, fill in the blanks, sentence correction, bold letter
replacement.
2. General knowledge: This section was a mix blend of questions from
general knowledge and current affairs. Approximately 16 questions were
asked from general awareness and 14 were from current affairs. The
PREVIOUS/ questions in GK were asked from history, geography, and polity. And
POTENTIAL current affairs questions were covered from cricket, government schemes,
CHANGES/ important days, etc.
SPECIAL REMARKS 3. Legal aptitude: This section was an easy one. All questions were based on
legal reasoning. It covered most of the questions from contracts, torts, and
constitution. No prior knowledge was required to solve this section only the
applicability of principle was required.
4. Logical reasoning: This section was difficult amongst the lot and a bit
lengthy. There were total 20 questions on puzzle and seating arrangements.
There were questions from coding-decoding, blood relations, syllogism,
distance and direction, statement-conclusion, etc.
5. Mathematics: This section was easier than last year. The questions were
Page 51 of 132
asked from profit/loss, discount, time and work, successive percentages.

As per the preference of students
ORDER OF 1. GLC Mumbai
PREFERENCE OF 2. ILS Pune
COLLEGES 3. KC. Law college, Mumbai
4. Rizvi law college, Mumbai
FEES College/ University Specific
Page 52 of 132
6. Jamia Millia Islamia University (Law)

NAME OF THE
JMI Law entrance exam
EXAM
COURSES: B.A. LL.B. (H)
NO. OF STAGES Written Exam
MODE Offline (Negative Marking)
NO. OF SEATS 120
ENTRANCE DATE November 22, 2020
Must have passed class 12th with not less than 50% marks in all the core
ELIGIBLITY
subjects and English language
1. General Knowledge and Current affairs - 30
2. Legal Awareness and Reasoning- 40
3. Quantitative Aptitude- 10
4. English Comprehensive (Legal language)-30
5. General Studies- 40
PATTERN
TOTAL MARKS – 150
Time Duration : 120 minutes
Marking Scheme:
Correct answer: +1
Wrong answer: -.25
Closing Cut offs (2020)
BA.LL.B(H) / BA.LL.B.(H)(Self-financed): 89.00
CUT OFFS
Closing Cut offs (2019)
BA.LL.B(H) / BA.LL.B.(H)(Self-financed): 92.5
ORDER OF Faculty of law, Jamia Millia University
PREFERENCE OF
COLLEGES
Rs.10, 400 for BA.LL.B.(H) – Per Annum
FEES
Rs 40,500 for BA LL.B.(H) (self-financed) – Per Annum
Page 53 of 132
7. Panjab University (Law)
NAME OF THE
PU-CET Entrance Exam
EXAM
B.A. LL.B. (H)
COURSES:
B.COM.LL.B. (H)
In the year 2020, due to pandemic entrance test was cancelled and admissions
were given on the merit of class 12th marks.
NO. OF STAGES
Only Written Exam (Following analysis is given on the basis of entrance exam
conducted in the year 2019).
MODE Offline (Negative Marking)
B.A.LL.B. (H) : 300 Seats
NO. OF SEATS
B.com. LL.B.(H):180 Seats
ENTRANCE DATE Second week of June
ELIGIBLITY Candidate should have passed 10+2 examination with atleast 50% marks (45%
CRITERIA marks in case of SC/ST/BC/PWD)
1. General knowledge and current affairs: 60 Questions
2. Aptitude of Law: 20
3. Mental Ability: 10
4. Proficiency in English language: 10
PATTERN
TOTAL MARKS: 100
Marking Scheme- Correct answer: +1
Wrong answer: -.25
Duration of paper: 90 minutes
1. Preliminary merit list: The University publishes the preliminary merit list of
the candidates on the basis of entrance test only. However the name in the
list will be included only when the candidate has attained minimum of 15%
marks and 10% marks in the case of candidate belonging to
SC/ST/BC/PWD.
SELECTION
2. Final merit list :
CRITERIA
BA.LL.B. : Entrance test 50% Marks + 50% marks of class 12th + other
admissible weightage
B.com LL.B.: Entrance test 50% marks + 50% marks of class 12 th +
weightage of commerce subjects and other admissible weightage (such as
NSS,NCC etc)
The question paper is available in English, Hindi and Punjabi (Except for the
portion “English language”). However the medium of teaching and examination
is English only.
PREVIOUS/
1. General knowledge and current affairs: The questions were asked
POTENTIAL
from current affairs, history, geography, computer, banking, important
CHANGES/
dates, science, full forms, authors of books etc. The questions covered in
SPECIAL REMARKS
current affairs were from recent appointments, awards, recent judgments
of high courts, amendments etc.
2. English: This section covered questions on meaning of phrases, synonyms,
Page 54 of 132
antonyms, foreign words etc.

3. Legal aptitude: There were no questions on principle- facts. The
questions were direct in nature. The questions covered were from
Contract, basics of Muslim law, jurisprudence, torts, basics of international
law, Constitution.
4. Mental ability: This section covered questions from series, coding,
arrangements, blood relations, odd one out, analogy, puzzles, directions,
calendars, simple interest, number system, time, speed and distance, ratios
etc.
University institute of legal studies, Panjab University, Chandigarh
ORDER OF
University Institute of laws, Panjab University Regional Centre, Ludhiana
PREFERENCE OF
University institute of legal studies, Panjab University Regional Centre,
COLLEGES
Hoshiarpur
Page 55 of 132
8. Law School Admission Test (LSAT)

Around 80 Private Universities including OP Jindal Global
UNIVERSITIES
University
COURSES 1. B.A. LL.B. 2. B.B.A. LL.B. 3. B.Com. LL.B.
NO. OF STAGES 1. Exam 2. Counseling
MODE Home proctored online test
NO. OF SEATS 85 law schools in India (approx.)
ENTRANCE DATE First week of June
ELIGIBLITY 50% marks in class 12th
CRITERIA
SELECTION LSAT Score
CRITERIA
The Exam Pattern in 2020 was similar to 2019
1. Analytical Reasoning: 23 marks
2. Logical Reasoning: 45 marks (Divided into two parts of 22 and 23 questions
each)
PATTERN
4. TOTAL: 92
Exam duration: 140 minutes (35 minutes per section)
No negative marking
1. Analytical reasoning: The questions in this section were from assignment,
grouping, conditions and orders/assignments. Most of the questions have
conditions attached to them and students were supposed to read them
carefully.
PREVIOUS/
2. Logical reasoning 1 and logical reasoning 2: The questions in this
POTENTIAL
section were mostly on critical reasoning. The questions were on finding
CHANGES/
inference, finding conclusion and assumptions.
SPECIAL REMARKS
3. Reading comprehension: This section was moderately difficult. The
passages were not lengthy and the questions were inferential and required
understanding of the text. Most of the questions were based on deep
understanding of the passages.
(As per students preference list, 2020)
ORDER OF  OP Jindal Global University, Sonipat
PREFERENCE OF  School of law, university of petroleum and energy studies, Dehradun
COLLEGES  ICFAI law school, Hyderabad
 Alliance school of law, Bangalore
OP Jindal Global University – 5.75 lakhs per year
School of law, University of petroleum and energy studies, Dehradun – 16.48
Lakh for 5 Years
FEES ICFAI Law School, Hyderabad – 12.20 Lakh for 5 Years
Alliance school of law, Bangalore – 10 Lakh for 5 Years
However, scholarships are also awarded depending on the performance in
LSAT-India.
Page 56 of 132
MASS
COMMUNICATION
 Delhi University (BMMC)

 Delhi University 5 Year Integrated Programme
 St. Xavier's College (BMM)
 Guru Gobind Singh Indraprastha University (CET
BJMC)
 Christ University (Mass Communication)
 Manipal University (MUOET)
1. Delhi University (BMMMC)
COURSES: B.A. (H) Multi Media and Mass Communication (BMMMC)

Gen Category: An aggregate of 75% or more marks in the best four
ELIGIBILITY CRITERIA
(including 85% or more in English) in the qualifying examination.
No. of STAGES – 1 Written Test
MODE Online
NO. OF SEATS TOTAL – 65 Seats
 General Awareness/ Current Affairs / Business Awareness
 Verbal Ability
PATTERN  Media Awareness
Total Duration:120 Minutes
CUT OFFS Closing Score: 235 (5th cut off)
(CLOSING CUT OFFS) Closing Rank: 35 (5th cut off)
The first ranker scored 298.
 2017: Mode of the examination changed from offline to online. Marking
Scheme Changed from +1/ No Negative marking to +4 & -1.
PREVIOUS/POTENTIAL
 2018: The paper which was earlier section-wise changed to a mix of all
CHANGES/SPECIAL
sections.
REMARKS
 2019: The paper was a Mix of all sections.
 2020: The paper was majorly GA and CA dominated with only 10
questions from Media.
 Verbal Ability: questions were easy which didn't require too much of
thought. There were one word substitutions which were very easy too.
Fill in the blanks were both Grammar and Vocabulary based but were
manageable too. The passage was a short and easy one with questions
which were majorly information based. The idioms were given a good
weightage with as many as four questions which were fairly easy and
doable.
 General Awareness: There were some questions from 2018. The entire
paper was dominated by GA and CA. They asked questions like the capital
of Jharkhand, founders of Netflix and twitter, the headquarter of ICC etc.
 Media Awareness: There were questions fewer questions (10-12
questions). There were questions from films, some from internet and no
question from literature. They asked questions on Oscars, Jnanpith,
Filmfare and National awards.
Page 58 of 132
2. Delhi University 5 Year Integrated

Programme
COURSES: Five Year Integrated Program in Journalism
The admission to DSJ is on the basis of entrance test with eligibility of
minimum 50% in class XII (irrespective of the stream).
STAGES –1 Selection will be done only on the basis of the Entrance Test.
MODE ONLINE
NO. OF SEATS 120 seats for English; 60 seats for Hindi
 Duration: 120 minutes
 Sections: General Knowledge
Current Affairs
PATTERN Analytical and Comprehensive Skills
 Number of Questions: 100
 Marking Scheme: +4 for correct answers and -1 for incorrect
answers
In 2020:
Closing Rank was 46 (3rd cut off).
CUT OFFS (CLOSING Closing Score 195 (3rd cut off).
CUT OFFS) First ranker scored 295
In 2019:
Closing Rank for General Category was 41.
Section wise Remarks
The Verbal Section was easy with Idioms and Vocabulary which were
PREVIOUS/POTENTIAL
doable. The Comprehension was also an easy read.
CHANGES/SPECIAL
The General Awareness section was a mix of static and current. The
REMARKS
paper was majorly GA and CA dominated.
There was no question on Media Awareness.
Page 59 of 132
3. St. Xavier’s College (BMM)

BA Mass Communication & Journalism (BA MCJ) (earlier
COURSES:
BMM)
Eligibility Criteria Candidate should’ve cleared 12th standard examinations
A merit list will be generated with a cumulative of marks obtained in the
STAGES - 1
Entrance Test and 12th Standard Exams.
MODE ONLINE
NO. OF SEATS 60
Duration: 120 Minutes
Sections: General Knowledge (15%)
Current Affairs (10%)
Data Interpretations (20%)
Economics (10%)
PATTERN English Language and Comprehension Skills (20%)
Logical Reasoning and Critical Analysis (15%)
Creative Thinking (10%)
Marking Scheme: +1 for correct answer and No negative marking for an
incorrect answer.
ENTRANCE DATE 28th and 29th July 2020 - in 4 different slots
60% weightage given to the online test.
WEIGHTAGE 40% weightage to the score obtained in the qualifying class 12 th
Examinations
2020: 85.75 (Composite Score)
2019: 84 Marks
CUT OFF
2018: 84 Marks
2017: 76 Marks
 Verbal Ability: Verbal Section was easy with vocabulary being
generally familiar and the fill in the blanks were grammar based as well
as Vocab based. There were RCs which were time consuming.
 Logical Reasoning: There were a few critical reasoning questions
which could very easily have elimination method applied to them.
 Economics: There were questions on basic terminologies from 11th
and 12th syllabus.
SPECIAL REMARKS
 General Awareness: There was a major focus on Business Awareness
(like punchlines, logos etc). There was equal importance given to Static
and Current affairs.
 Media Aptitude: There was no media questions
Remark: There was a change this year in the conducting of the exam.
Unlike last year, the exam was held in various locations, This year, the
exam was a home proctored one.
Page 60 of 132

University (CET BJMC)
COURSES: Bachelors in Journalism and Mass Communication (BJMC)
A merit list will be generated with a cumulative of marks obtained in the
STAGES - 1
Entrance Test.
NO. OF SEATS 2130
MODE Online
ELIGIBILITY CRITERIA Candidate should’ve cleared 12th standard examinations. 50% in English
(Core or Functional being a compulsory subject)
ENTRANCE DATE 9th-14th September 2020.
The exam pattern in 2020 was similar to 2019
 Duration: 150 Minutes
 Sections: General Knowledge (25%)
Media Aptitude (25%)
PATTERN English Language and Comprehension Skills (25%)
Logical and Analytical Reasoning (25%)
 Number of Questions: 150
 Marking Scheme: +4 for correct answer and -1 for an incorrect
answer.
 Verbal Ability: The section was Medium in difficulty level. The RC
Passage was an easy read article which was followed by 7 questions
which were majorly informative type. If there were any inference type
questions, they were still easy. The Vocabulary section of the paper was
on a more difficult side with words being asked not just as synonyms
and antonyms but also in fill in the blanks which had options which
needed a good knowledge of words too. Grammar section had
questions which directed the students to correctly substitute the
underlined part of the sentence with the options given. This majorly
PREVIOUS/POTENTIAL checked the knowledge of modifiers and pronouns.
CHANGES/SPECIAL  Media Awareness: The questions were based on the static and
REMARKS current affairs. There were questions on first talkie movie, first hindi
newspaper, father of Indian cinema etc.
 General Knowledge and Current Affairs: This section was vast and
covered History to Polity to Books and Magazines. It was a mix of
current affairs and static GK. Difficulty level for this section is Easy to
Medium.
 Logical Reasoning: The questions were fairly easy. There were
questions of directions, seating arrangements, blood relations, number
series and odd one out.
It had some Quantitative Aptitude questions that pertained to topics
Page 61 of 132
like average speed, ratio and proportion, percentage, profit and loss
etc.
Page 62 of 132
5. Christ University (Mass Communication)

1. BA Journalism Hons.
2. Bachelors in Journalism, English, Psychology
COURSES:
3. Bachelors in Communication and Media, English,
Psychology
Stage 1: Entrance Exam
Stage 2: The skill assessment will consist of a test on written skills,
STAGES - 3
communication skills and logical reasoning.
Stage 3: Personal Interview
MODE Session 2 – 3rd & 4th May, 2020
Pattern of Entrance Exam in 2020 similar to 2019
 Marking Scheme: +1 and -0.25
BA Journalism, Psychology, Eng.
 Verbal Ability
 Language Skills
PATTERN  Comprehension Skills
 Subject Questions
BA Communication and Media, English and Psychology
 Comprehension Skills
 Verbal Reasoning
 Language Skills
 General Knowledge
Basic eligibility for the programme is a pass with minimum 55% at the +2
level (Karnataka PUC / ISC / CBSE / NIOS / State Boards) in any stream
ELIGIBILITY
(Humanities, Social Sciences, Commerce & Management, Sciences) from
any recognized Board in India.
CHRIST University Entrance Test,
Skill Assessment - The skill assessment will consist of a test on written
CRITERIA FOR skills, communication skills and logical reasoning.
SELECTION Micro Presentation (MP) for 90 sec / student during this selection process,
Personal interview & Assessment of past performance in Class 10, Class
11/12, during the Personal Interview.
Stage 1
PREVIOUS/POTENTIAL
 Verbal Ability: They asked Vocabulary questions which were easy to
CHANGES/SPECIAL
moderate in difficulty. The Comprehension was long but easy.
REMARKS
 Media Aptitude: There were only taglines and punch lines questions
Page 63 of 132
in the media aptitude section.

Stage 2
Candidates are made to write essay on subject based topic or topics of
current relevance. One topic is same for all whereas the second topic is
given to you separately. For eg. #MeToo Movement, Sec 377, Sec 497,
Is Moral Science important etc.
Stage 3
Personal interview. The Interview panel is known to be unpredictable
and can build pressure and/or stress. They focus on Subject Knowledge
as well as Current Affairs. Assessment of past performance in Class
10, Class 11/12, during the Personal Interview.
Page 64 of 132
6. Manipal University (MUOET)

COURSES: Bachelors in Media and Communication
STAGES Revised Process 2020
 Submission of 11th Class marks / grade sheet
 Submission of Statement of Purpose (SOP)
 Personal Interview (PI)
 Merit List based on 11th , SOP & PI
Exam Pattern in 2019

 Sections: Numeracy (20 Qs)
o General Knowledge (20 Qs)
o Case Study (15 Qs)
o Conceptual Questions (25 Qs)
o General English (20 Qs)
 Number of Question: 100
Marking Scheme: +1 and no negative marking
ELIGIBILITY Pass in 10+2 or equivalent from a recognized Board, with minimum 45 %
aggregate marks or equivalent
MODE Online (2019) No Exam in 2020
Special Note: There was NO entrance conducted in 2020.
Page 65 of 132
HOTEL
MANAGEMENT
 Ministry of Tourism (NCHMCT)

 Guru Gobind Singh Indraprastha University (CET HM)
 Christ University (HM)
 Jamia Milia Islamia University (JMIEEE-BHM)
 Bharti Vidyapeeth University (BHMCT) (BVPHM)
 IHM Aurangabad
 Oberoi's Systematic Training and Education
Programme (STEP)
 Manipal University
1. Ministry of Tourism (NCHMCT)

B.Sc. in Hospitality and Hotel Administration - Generic
COURSES:
B.Sc. in Hospitality and Hotel Administration – Specialization
NUMBER OF
More than 12,697 seats in 74 institutes
SEATS
10+2 system of Senior Secondary examination or its equivalent with English as one
of the subjects. Candidate must have passed English as a subject of study
(core/elective/functional) in the qualifying examination.
Age Limit:
ELIGIBILITY
For candidates from General and OBC categories, upper age limit is 25 years as on
01.07.2020. Candidates born on or after July 01, 1995 are eligible. In the case of
Scheduled Caste and Scheduled Tribe candidates, upper age limit is 28 years as on
01.07.2020. That is SC/ST candidates born on or after July 01, 1992 are eligible.
Upper age limit for Physically Challenged candidates shall be reckoned as per the
category he/she belongs to i.e. General/EWS/SC/ST/OBC.
ENTRANCE 29th August, 2020
DATE
All India merit list of candidates shall be prepared on the basis of marks secured in
MODE OF
the NCHM-JEE Computer Based Test (CBT). Some of the private universities
SELECTION:
accept NCHMCT scores for the admissions.
Subject Number of questions
Aptitude for Service Sector 50
Reasoning & Logical Deduction 30
English Language 60
PATTERN Numerical Ability & Scientific Aptitude 30
General Knowledge & Current Affairs 30
Total 200
Marking Scheme for MCQs: Correct Answer (+4) & Incorrect Answer (-1)
DURATION 3 hours
Institute Opening Rank Closing Rank
IHM Delhi, Pusa (Central Government IHM) 1 291
IHM Mumbai (Central Government IHM) 3 798
IHM Chennai (Central Government IHM) 13 4163
IHM Kolkata (Central Government IHM) 34 2138
CUTOFF IHM Hyderabad (Central Government IHM) 37 2712
IHM Bhubaneswar (Central Government IHM) 59 9058
IHM Goa (Central Government IHM) 68 4236
IHM Bengaluru (Central Government IHM) 74 1220
AIHM Chandigarh (Central Government IHM) 196 2185
IHM Bhopal (Central Government IHM) 251 5339
Page 67 of 132
*Note: Above Ranks are for general category (2nd cutoff list) for first 10
Colleges
NCHMCT JEE 2020 Analysis of Numerical Ability and Analytical Aptitude
Section
Basic school-level Mathematics questions were asked in the Numerical Ability
section of NCHMCT JEE 2020. Some of the topics from which questions were
asked include Time and Work, Time-Distance-Speed, Work and Wages, Simple
Interest, Compound Interest, Area of Triangles & Rectangles, Percentage & Laws,
HCF, LCM, and Ratios.
NCHMCT JEE 2020 Analysis of Reasoning and Logical Deduction Section
This section of NCHMCT JEE exam consisted of questions that were simple and
could be solved by applying basic logic. Questions in this section of the exam were
asked equally from almost all the topics. Some topics from which maximum
questions were asked were Blood Relations, Number Series, Verbal Reasoning as
well as Statement and Assumptions.
NCHMCT JEE 2020 Analysis of General Knowledge & Current Affairs
Section
This section comprised questions from static GK from subjects such as History and
NCHMCT JEE Science There were also many questions on recent happenings in India and the
2020 SECTION- world.
WISE EXAM NCHMCT JEE 2020 Analysis of English Language Section
ANALYSIS As is the case every year, the English section of NCHMCT JEE exam consisted of
Reading Comprehension and Vocabulary questions. Each Reading Comprehension
passage was followed by 4-5 questions. Vocabulary questions were from topics
such as Antonyms, Synonyms, Mark the Correct Word/ Sentence, Fill in the Blanks,
etc. The questions asked in this section of NCHMCT JEE 2020 were of Class 12
level.
NCHMCT JEE 2020 Questions asked in Aptitude for Service Sector
Section
The Aptitude for Service Sector section had questions related to the hotel industry
and their services. This is usually the easiest section of the exam but the only thing
worth paying attention to here is that there is graded marking in this section and
students need to justify why they have selected a particular option. Some of the
questions asked in this section were:
 How would you react if you see a person who has met with an accident?
 How would you take a decision if you were working at different posts (like:
Manager, Housekeeping, Receptionist) in the hospitality industry?
 How would you react if a customer misbehaved with you?
 How would make a disabled person comfortable?
Page 68 of 132

University (CET HM)
Bachelor of Hotel Management and Catering Technology
COURSES:
(BHMCT)
NUMBER OF SEATS 240
Eligibility criteria for IPUCET (BHMCT) i.e. the entrance test for hotel
management course offered by IPU is as follows:
 Candidate should have passed class XII of CBSE or its equivalent with
a minimum of 50% marks in aggregate*
 Candidate must also have passed in English (core or elective or
functional) as a subject.
 Candidates awaiting results/appearing for the qualifying exam can also
ELIGIBILITY CRITERIA appear for CET subject to the fulfillment of the above conditions on
declaration of the result.
 As on 01.08.2019, candidate should not be beyond 21 years of age.
 Candidates belonging to Scheduled Castes/Scheduled Tribes/Widows
or Wards of Defence Personnel/Persons With Disability will be
allowed 5% relaxation of marks in the minimum eligibility
requirement, irrespective of the fact whether there exists any
reservation for any category of such candidates or not.
MODE OF SELECTION: Online
Subject
English Language & Comprehension - 25%
PATTERN Logical Reasoning - 20 %

General Knowledge - 30%
Knowledge of Accounts / Commerce & Science – 20%
Total number of questions: 100

MARKING SCHEME Right Answer: +4, Wrong Answer: -1
DURATION Written Test = 2.5 hrs
Note
*Aggregate of 50% marks in the 12th class for the purpose of eligibility
will be taken as the aggregate of best four subjects (unless otherwise
NOTE specified) including English and compulsory subject(s), if any. These
compulsory subjects will vary for various programs. Compulsory
subject(s) if changed, whatever applicable will be notified on university
website before start of the counselling.
Page 69 of 132
1. Significantly higher weightage of static General Awareness with the

overall difficulty level of this section being easy-moderate.
2. For the VA section, significantly high weightage given to Grammar and
Vocabulary with questions in varying forms testing the same.
REMARKS:
3. There is NO SECTION FOR QA in this exam. However, the LR
section may include some questions of basic mathematics that are
quite straight forward and easy to attempt.
4. The exam was held in three shifts.
4,00,400 (For 3 years – Tuition fee only) – Banarsidas Chanidwala College
Fee:
of IP University
Page 70 of 132
3. Christ University (HM)

COURSES: Bachelor in Hotel Management (BHM)
NUMBER OF SEATS 90
 Basic eligibility for the programme is a pass at the +2 level in any

stream (Humanities, Social Sciences, Commerce & Management,
Sciences) from any recognised Board in India.
 Candidates writing the +2 examinations in March-May 2018 may
ELIGIBILITY apply with their class X and XI marks.
 Students pursuing International curriculum must note that eligibility is
according to AIU stipulations:
 Applicants pursuing IB curriculum must have 3 HL and 3 SL with 24
credits.
 Applicants pursuing GCE / excel must have a minimum of 3 A levels.
MODE OF SELECTION: Online
1. Christ Entrance Test
1. Current Affair / General Awareness – 20 Qs
2. Data Interpretation – 20 Qs
6. Fundamental Accounting – 20 Qs
Marking Scheme:
PATTERN
Right Answer: +1
Wrong Answer: - 0.25
Maximum Marks: 120
2. Skill Assessment
Word Limit: None
Total Duration: PIs are 15-20 Minutes each
Written Exam
SECTION-WISE EXAM
1. The GA section is medium difficulty level focused on the Static GK and
ANALYSIS
Current Affairs; however, the weightage of the Static part was visibly
Page 71 of 132
much higher than the Current Affairs part. Infact, the questions on
Current Affairs were not from 2018-19 but on the events happened in
2016-17.
2. There is only basic mathematics tested in the QA section with more
weightage of Average and Linear Equations, Numbers, Ratio &
Proportion, Percentage and Profit & Loss. Few questions were asked
from Probability, Set Theory, and Clocks & Calendars as well.
3. The LR section is relatively easy and one of the most scoring sections
in this exam. Majority of the questions were from Analytical and
Logical Reasoning. There were 4-5 questions in a set of Puzzles. 5-6
questions each on Coding-Decoding and Blood Relations. Few
questions were from Statement & Conclusion and Series, Sequence.
4. Data Interpretation questions are usually based on tabular and Bar
Graphs. This section consisted of two to three sets of Data
Interpretation. All the sets were from Tables. The questions were
calculative in nature i.e. percentage change, highest/lowest
percentage increase/decrease.
5. The VA section was dominated by Grammar and Reading
Comprehension. Grammar consisted Fill in the blanks of
Prepositions, Verbs, and Adverbs. There were two passages of
Reading comprehension with six questions in each, which can be
categorized as easy. There were four to five questions of Synonyms
and Antonyms. There were two easy questions of Critical Reasoning.
Overall this section can be termed an easy.
Skill Assessment
current relevance and they are tested on their Written Skills,
Communication Skills and Reasoning Skills. The topics presented are
not very complex and usually an option of 4-5 topics is provided that
the candidates randomly choose from.
Candidates are asked to speak (Extempore) on any of the topics that
they randomly pick as part of the selection process. The topics are
provided on the university's website beforehand.
Personal Interview
Strong focus on HR type and Personal Questions and sometimes have
the tendency to get quirky trying to make candidates uncomfortable
and/or under stress. Along with PI, assessment of past performance
in classes 10, 11 and 12 is also done.
Page 72 of 132
5. Jamia Milia Islamia University (JMIEEE-

BHM)
COURSES: Bachelor of Hotel Management (BHM)
NUMBER OF SEATS 40
Senior Secondary School Certificate or an equivalent examination from a

ELIGIBILITY
recognized board with not less than 45% marks in aggregate of best 5
papers.
ENTRANCE DATE 26th October, 2020.
MODE Offline
90% weightage is for written test and 10% weightage is for personal
SELECTION PROCESS
interview.
Total Questions : 100
Quantitative Aptitude – 20
Reasoning – 25
English – 30
PATTERN General Awareness – 35
Marking Scheme
Right Answer: +1
Wrong Answer: -.25
Max Marks – 100
DURATION Duration- 120 minutes
Quantitative Aptitude (20 questions)
1. Simplification: (0-5 Questions) Problems based on BODMAS Rule,
Fractions, Percentages, Approximation, Decimals, Surds & Indices.
2. Number System: (0-3 Questions) Problems based on Divisibility &
Remainder, Multiples & Factors, Integers, LCM & HCF.
3. Average: (0-2 Questions) Questions on Average
Weight/Height/Age/Marks, Average Money expenditure, Average
Temperature etc.
PREVIOUS/POTENTIAL
4. Percentage: (0-2 Questions) Calculation oriented basic percentage
CHANGES/SPECIAL
problems.
REMARKS
5. Ratio and Proportion: (0-2 Questions) Problems based on Simple
Ratios, Compound Ratios.
6. Number Series: (0-5 Questions) Problems based on completing the
series, finding the missing term, finding the wrong term. The
concepts behind this can be based on simple arithmetic progression,
geometric progression, or more complex patterns.
7. Profit and Loss: (0-2 Questions) Successive Selling, partnerships,
discount.
Page 73 of 132
8. Speed, time and distance: (0-2 Questions) Relative speed, average

speed, problems based on trains, boat & stream.
9. Algebra: (0-4 Questions) Problems based on linear equation,
quadratic equations.
10. Mensuration: (0-2 Questions) Problems based on areas of square,
rectangle, circle, semicircle, parallelogram, cone, and cylinder.
11. Time and Work: (0-2 Questions) Problems based on work efficiency,
pipe & cistern, work and wages.
12. Interest: (0-2 Questions) Problems based on simple interest,
compound interest as well as mixture of both SI & CI.
Reasoning: (25 questions)
1. Inequalities: (0-5 Questions) Mostly Direct Mathematical Inequalities.
2-3 complex expressions like A > B ≥ C = D; E < B ≤ F. 2-4
conclusions which are to be deduced from these statements. Coded
inequalities problems asked where relation between alphabets are
coded such as A # B where # is actually code for > sign.
2. Ordering and Ranking: (0-5 Questions) Mostly Puzzle on ordering by
age, floor, rank, boxes of different colours one above another, order
in row etc.
3. Directions & Distances: (0-5 Questions)
4. Coding & Decoding: (0-5 Questions) Mostly questions on coding and
decoding in fictitious language are asked where a few statements are
given which are coded in some meaningless language and questions
are based on this code.
5. Blood Relations: (0-3 Questions) Family Tree and Coded Blood
Relation Problems.
6. Syllogisms: (0-5 Questions) Problems with 2-3 statements and 2-3
conclusions. Questions are asked whether the conclusions follow or
not.
7. Seating Arrangement: (0-5 Questions) Includes Uni-Directional and
Bi-Directional problems (i.e. facing inside, outside or in both
directions).
8. Analogy: (0-4 Questions)
9. Assertion and reason : (0-3 Questions)
English (30 questions)

1. Fill in the Blanks: (0-5 Questions) Single/Double blank type questions.
Vocabulary /grammar based questions.
2. Reading comprehension: (0-10 Questions) Likely the RC consists of
one/two passage of 0-10 questions. The topics you should look out
for are economy, business, geopolitics, governance, education,
technology, tourism, hospitality, transport and social issues.
3. Para Jumbles: (0-5 Questions) A set of 6 sentences are to be
rearranged to form a meaningful paragraph.
4. Cloze Test: (5-10 Questions) A single passage with 5 or 10 blanks.
Page 74 of 132
Passage could be on any topic ranging from science, banking &

economy to Social Issues. Words are usually easy to moderate and
vocabulary based.
5. Error Spotting: (5-10 Questions) Grammar based. Long Sentences
with error in one part was asked.
6. Word Association Pair: (0-5 Questions) Four words given and you
need to determine which two words have either synonymous or
antonyms relation between them. Your knowledge of vocabulary is
tested.
7. Phrase Idiom Meaning: (0-3 Questions) the phrases given and you
need to select the correct meaning of the given phrase.
8. Spellings: (0-3 Questions) You need to choose the word that is
correctly spelt or wrongly spelt from the given options.
9. Phrase Replacement/ Sentence Correction: (0-5 Questions)
Grammar/Vocabulary based, construction of sentences, order of
words, phrasal verbs, homonyms, etc.
10. Synonyms, antonyms, one word substitution (0-6 questions)
11. Grammar : (0 - 5 Questions) You may be asked to choose options
related to active/passive voice, tenses, articles, direct/indirect speech,
noun, pronoun, adjective, verb, adverb, preposition, conjunction,
interjection.
General Awareness: (25 questions)

1. Current awareness: (5-10 questions): covering recent events.
2. Computer awareness: (0-5) questions: covering questions about
basics of computer awareness specially MS Office, operating system,
hard ware, components, Internet, Keyboard Shortcuts, Computer
Abbreviation, and Networking.
3. History: (0-2 questions)
4. Geography: (0-2 questions)
5. Polity: (0 – 3 questions)
6. Science: Physics, Chemistry Biology) (0- 5 questions)
7. Environmental Science: (0 – 4 questions)
8. Tourism and Hospitality: (0-5 questions) Important tourism resources
of India like fairs and festivals, cuisines, dances, music, monuments, hill
stations, beaches, national parks, wildlife sanctuaries.
9. Economics: (0-4 questions)
FEES Rs. 35, 310/- (For full course – only tuition fee)
Page 75 of 132
6. Bharti Vidyapeeth University (BHMCT)

(BVPHM)
Bachelor of Hotel Management (BHM)

COURSES: Bachelor’s Degree in Science (Hospitality & Hotel
Administration)
For BHMCT – 60
NUMBER OF SEATS
For B.Sc. (H &HA) – 180
Eligibility Criteria for BHMCT
Candidates must have passed the HSC examination or equivalent
examination with English as a compulsory subject.
Should have obtained a minimum 45% aggregate marks and for
SC/ST 40% aggregate marks.
Those students who have completed the three years Diploma Course in
Hotel Management & Catering Technology (National Council or State
ELIGIBILITY
Board of Technical Education) are eligible to be admitted directly to the
seventh semester of BHMCT.
Eligibility Criteria for BSc (H &HA)
To be eligible for Admission to First year Degree in Science (Hospitality &
Hotel Administration) the candidate should have passed the Class 12th or
HSC examination of State Board of Secondary and Higher Education or
its equivalent examination with English as a compulsory subject.
ENTRANCE DATE 17th August, 2020
PATTERN Number of Questions: 100
DURATION 2 hours
Sections:
General Awareness – 20 Qs
Logical Reasoning – 20 Qs
REMARKS:
Quantitative Aptitude – 20 Qs
Verbal Ability – 20 Qs
Scientific Aptitude – 20 Qs
MARKING SCHEME Right: +1 Wrong: No negative
Page 76 of 132
7. IHM Aurangabad
BA (Honours) Hotel Management – 4 Years
COURSES:
BA (Honours) Culinary Arts – 4 Years
NUMBER OF SEATS Around 160
You should have completed the Std. XII (10+2) or equivalent

examination in any stream with English as the medium of instruction to
ELIGIBILITY CRITERIA participate in this admission process. If you have appeared for the board
exams in the current year and are awaiting results you can still apply. You
will be admitted to IHM-A only if you successfully qualify in the Board
Examination.
TENTATIVE DATE End of May
Complete Online Profiling Test
Candidates will only be able to access the IHM Aurangabad profiling test
after they have successfully paid the application fee of Rs 1,500. The
profiling test will be sent on the registered email ID provided by the
candidates in their IHM Aurangabad application form.
Once the candidates receive this test they need to click on the test link
and complete all the fields as listed in the test. On completion of the
profiling test, aspirants will immediately be given their assessment report.
The official website informs that the profiling test is conducted by IHM
Aurangabad for admissions 2019 as it is felt that this test helps aspirants
develop a better understanding of their strengths/weaknesses before they
are called to appear for the Group Discussion and Personal Interview
round.
The official website informs that aspirants need to “carry a hard copy of
this assessment report for verification before they proceed with the next
MODE OF SELECTION:
steps to a Group Discussion, writing a Statement of Purpose and finally
participating in a Personal Interview in July/August 2019”.
Step 3: Write Statement of Purpose
Aspirants need to share a Statement of Purpose of 1500 words. The
statement of purpose needs to be on the topic - “perspective on the role
this education at IHM-A would play in shaping my future by creating a
vibrant personality who would succeed in the hospitality world”.
Step 4: Appear for Group Discussion and Interview Round
The Group Discussion (GD) and Personal Interview round for IHM
Aurangabad admissions will be held at Taj Group Hotels located at
Kolkata, Chennai, New Delhi, Mumbai as well as IHM-A campus. In the
personal interview round, aspirants will be judged on the parameters
listed below:
 Communication Skills
 Analytical Skills
 General Awareness
Page 77 of 132
 Service Orientation
 Personality Factors
Apart from this, candidates are advised to strictly stick to the dress code
as prescribed by IHM Aurangabad authorities for the interview round.
 Ladies – (formal attire) Sarees or business suits, formal ensembles, full
sleeved shirt, scarves and formal shoes.
 Gentlemen – (formal attire) Suit, jacket or blazer, formal trousers, full
sleeved shirt, neck tie and formal shoes.
Candidates are shortlisted for admission in hotel management
programmes offered at IHM Aurangabad as per the below mentioned
parameters:
Profiling (weightage – 20%), Statement of Purpose (weightage – 10%),
WEIGHATGE Group Discussion (weightage – 20%) and a Personal Interview
(weightage – 50%).
Page 78 of 132
8. Oberoi’s Systematic Training and

Education Programme (STEP)
SYSTEMATIC TRAINING AND EDUCATION PROGRAMME

(STEP)
The Systematic Training and Education Programme -STEP includes
comprehensive on-the-job training at select Oberoi and Trident Hotels
along with a correspondence Bachelor's Degree in Tourism Studies from
Indira Gandhi National Open University (IGNOU). Trainees are provided
with assistance in the form of study materials and dedicated time to
prepare for the exams for their undergraduate degree.
Unlike other hospitality education programmes, the STEP programme

COURSES: focuses on practical training in hotels. No fee is payable by the
students selected for the STEP programme. Instead, The Oberoi
Group offers a monthly allowance, accommodation, meals on duty,
uniform and medical insurance.
The programmes offered:

 Hotel Operations Programme - Front Office and Food & Beverage
Service
 Hotel Operations Programme – Housekeeping
 Hotel Operations Programme - Kitchen
Clear pass in Class XII as on 1st July, of the year of joining, from a Board
recognized by the Indira Gandhi National Open University (IGNOU),
India. The programme requires a Class X English score of 71% or
above.
Age Limit: Candidates should be above 18 and below 20 years of age, as
on 15th August, of the year of joining the Programme.
 Come to the venue of the selection process on the date you have
chosen.
 On the day of the interview, the candidate must bring the following
documents with him/her:
Self-attested copies of the following:
1. One print-out of their application form along with one passport-
MODE OF SELECTION: size photograph.
2. One copy of their class X certificate. If the candidate's certificate
does not mention their date of birth, one copy of their birth
certificate will be required.
3. One copy of their class XII certificate.
 The candidate should be deemed medically fit by our company
doctor.
Page 79 of 132
 All the testimonials should be verified as authentic.

 A typical selection day will commence with candidates registering for
one of the Programmes.
 Thereafter, the candidates would go through three rounds of
selection activities:
Round 1: Candidates are divided into groups of 15-20 participants and
are taken through a round of activities, introduction and possibly
questioners. Here, the evaluator checks the candidates grooming, poise
and spoken English.
Round 2: Short-listed candidates from Round 1 are taken to another
round of activities on the same day including a one-on-one meeting with a
panel comprising of faculty. Here, the evaluator gets to know them better
and checks their aptitude for hospitality.
Round 3: Short-listed candidates from Round 2 will be invited for
another round of activities including a final interview with a panel. This
may be on a different day and city than the above two rounds. Oberoi
doesn't give Delhi as the location for Delhi candidates
For Hotel Operations Programme (Front Office / Food and
Beverage Service focus) and Housekeeping.
 The candidate should have obtained 61% marks or above, in English
in class X. The equivalent in CBSE is a B2 Grade or a 7 Grade Point.
For Hotel Operations Programme (Housekeeping focus)
 The candidate should have obtained 51% marks or above, in English
NOTE in class X. The equivalent in CBSE is a C1 Grade or a 6 Grade Point.
Qualities they look for
 A positive attitude with a desire for excellence
 Good communication skills in English
 Strong interpersonal skills
 Initiative, drive and an eye for detail
 Team orientation
Page 80 of 132
9. Manipal University
Bachelor of Hotel Management (BHM)
COURSES:
BA Culinary Arts
1. Passing 10+2 from a recognised board.
ELIGIBILITY CRITERIA 2. 45% Aggregate in 12th Class with English (Core or Functional being a
compulsory subject).
Admissions are offered on the merit list prepared on the basis of:
 Marks obtained in the qualifying examination
STAGES:  Department Test (DT)
 Group Discussion (GD) & Personal Interview (PI).
Merit List based on DT, GD, PI & qualifying exam marks
PATTERN: Duration: 60 minutes, 60 MCQ type questions
Page 81 of 132
B.Com
 Guru Gobind Singh Indraprastha University (CET B.

Com)
 Christ University (B.Com.)
 Jamia Millia Islamia University (B.Com.)
 Banaras Hindu University (BHU - UET)

University (CET B. Com)
COURSE: B.Com. (Hons)
No. of STAGES – 1: Written Test – CET B.com
MODE: Online
NO. OF SEATS: 1880
50% in aggregate in 10+2 examination / senior school certificate
Examination of C.B.S.E. as minimum marks for admission to B.Com
ELIGIBILITY CRITERIA:
with pass in five subjects (One language and four elective subjects)
or an examination recognized as equivalent to that.
 English Language & Comprehension – 25%
 Logical Reasoning – 25 %
 Data Interpretation – 35%
 Basic general Awareness – 15%
 Right Answer: +4 & Wrong Answer: -1
PATTERN
 English Language & Comprehension – 25%
 Logical Reasoning – 25 %
 Data Interpretation – 35%
 Basic general Awareness – 15%
WEIGHTAGE CET Score – 100%
For the Delhi School Students Rank Should within first 1000, for top three
CUT OFF
colleges
ORDER OF 1. Maharaja Surajmal Institute. Cut off 2020: Maximum Rank For Delhi: 1197 &
PREFERENCE OF For Outside Delhi: 471
COLLEGES (EXAM
SPECIFIC)
Page 83 of 132
2. Maharaja Agrasen Institute of Management Studies. Cut off 2020: Maximum

Rank For Delhi: 1197 & For Outside Delhi: 471
3. Vivekananda Institute of Professional Studies. Cut off 2020: Maximum Rank
For Delhi: 1429 & For Outside Delhi: 823
4. Jagannath International Management School, Kalkaji. Cut off 2020: Maximum
5. Institute of Information Technology & Management, Janak Puri. Cut off 2020:
Maximum Rank For Delhi: 3011 & For Outside Delhi: 1613
6. Institute of Innovation in Technology & Management, Janak Puri. Cut off
2020: Maximum Rank For Delhi: 3379 & For Outside Delhi: 1540
7. Trinity Institute of Professional Studies, Dwarka. Cut off 2020: Maximum
8. Delhi School of Professional Studies & Research, Rohini. Cut off 2020:
Maximum Rank For Delhi: 5013 & For Outside Delhi: 2259
9. Delhi Institute of Rural Development, Nangli. Cut off 2020: Maximum Rank
For Delhi: 7021 & For Outside Delhi: 3205
10. Chandarprabhu Jain College of Higher Studies, Narela. Cut off 2020:
Maximum Rank for Delhi: 7211 & For Outside Delhi: 3189.
Page 84 of 132
2. Christ University (B.Com.)

COURSE: B.Com (Hons.)
1. Entrance Exam
STAGES – 4: 2. Skill Assessment
MODE Online
Eligibility for the programme is a pass at the +2 level (Karnataka
PUC / ISC / CBSE / NIOS / State Boards) in any stream (Humanities,
Social Sciences, Commerce & Management, Sciences) from any
recognized Board in India.
 Fundamental Accounting - 20
 Quantitative Aptitude - 20
 Data Analysis and Interpretation - 20
 Reasoning: Critical, Analytical and Logical - 20
 General Knowledge, Current Affairs – 20
 English Language - 20
PATTERN Marking Scheme: Maximum Marks: 120
 Wrong Answer: -0.25

Total Duration: PIs are 15-20 minutes each.
Page 85 of 132
3. Jamia Millia Islamia University

(B.Com.)
COURSE: B. Com (Hons.)

STAGES - 1 Entrance Test
MODE Offline
NO. OF SEATS 55
Senior Sec. School Certificate or an equivalent examination with not less
than 50% marks in aggregate of best 5-papers or in the subject concerned.
ENTRANCE DATE 1st November 2020
Exam Pattern in 2020 similar to 2019
1. Language Skills: 20
2. General Awareness: 40
PATTERN 3. Numerical Ability: 20
4. Reasoning: 20
Page 86 of 132
4. Banaras Hindu University (BHU - UET)

COURSE : B. Com (Hons.)
STAGES - 1 Entrance Test
MODE Offline
NO. OF SEATS 600
1. The candidate should have secured a minimum aggregate of
50% in 10+2 or equivalent examinations with commerce/
economics/ mathematics/ finance/financial markets
management/computer science/vocational courses as one of
the subjects. The candidate should have passed in the listed
subjects to be eligible.
2. The candidate should not be more than 22 years
1. Accountancy – 15 Qs
2. Financial Statement Analysis – 15 Qs
3. Financial Markets Management – 15 Qs
4. Money and Banking – 15 Qs
5. Basic Maths – 15 Qs
6. Basic Computers – 15 Qs
PATTERN
7. Business Organizations – 15 Qs
8. Business Management – 15 Qs
9. Current Economic Affairs – 15 Qs
10. Economics – 15 Qs
 Wrong Answer: - 1
Page 87 of 132
ECONOMICS
 Guru Gobind Singh Indraprastha University (Eco

Hons.)
 Christ University BA (Honours) Economics
 Jamia Millia Islamia UniversitY BA (Hons.) Economics

University (Eco Hons.)
COURSES: BA (Honours) Economics

No. of STAGE: Written Test – CET
MODE: Online
NO. OF SEATS 270 Seats
Candidates with an aggregate* of 50% marks in 10+2 level examination
compulsory study at 10+2 Level from a recognized state and central
government board with Mathematics and English compulsory subjects
at 10+2 Level.
General English 20%
Economics and Statistics 40%
Mathematics 40%
PATTERN
General English 20%
Economics and Statistics 40%
Mathematics 40%
WEIGHTAGE 1. CET Score – 100%
Page 89 of 132
1. Vivekanand Institute of Professional Studies, Pitampura

489
2. Maharaja Agrasen Institute of Management Studies, Rohini
532
3. Jagan Institute Of Management Studies, Rohini
629
4. Fairfield Institute of Management & Technology, Kapashera
809
5. Delhi Technical Campus, Greater Noida
767
Page 90 of 132
2. Christ University BA (Honours) Economics

COURSES: BA (Honours) Economics
1. Entrance Exam
2. Skill Assessment
STAGES – 4:
Basic eligibility for the programme is a pass with minimum 55% at
the 10+2 level (Karnataka PUC / ISC / CBSE / NIOS / State Boards)
ELIGIBILITY
in any stream from any recognized Board in India.
CRITERIA:
Candidates should have studied either Economics or
Mathematics at the +2 level
MODE Online
 Quantitative Aptitude - 15
 Logical Reasoning - 35
 General Knowledge, Current Affairs – 25
 English Language – 20
 Economics - 25

PATTERN Total Duration: 120 Minutes
Skill Assessment
Word Limit: None

Personal Interview
Total Duration: The duration of the Interview is 15-20 minutes
each.
Page 91 of 132
3. Jamia Millia Islamia University BA (Hons.)

Economics
COURSES: BA (Hons.) Economics
STAGES – 1 Entrance Test
Senior Secondary School Certificate or an equivalent examination
with not less than 50% marks in aggregate
ENTRANCE DATE 1st November, 2020
MODE Offline
NO. OF SEATS 53
1. Language Skills: 20
2. General Awareness: 40
3. Numerical Ability: 20
4. Reasoning: 20
PATTERN
Page 92 of 132
PSYCHOLOGY
 Christ University (Psychology)

 Jamia Millia Islamia University (Psychology)
 Banaras Hindu University (BHU-UET)
 Mount Carmel College (Psychology)
 Aligarh Muslim University (Psychology)
 Ashoka University, Sonepat
 MIT-World Peace University, Pune
1. Christ University (Psychology)

B.Sc. in Psychology (Hons.)
B.A. in Psychology
o BA CEP-Bachelor of Arts (BA) in Communication and Media,
English and Psychology
o BA JPEng-Bachelor of Arts (BA) in Journalism, Psychology,
English
o BA PSEng-Bachelor of Arts (BA) in Psychology, Sociology,
English
COURSES:
o BA PSEco-Bachelor of Arts (BA) in Psychology, Sociology,
Economics
o BA PEP-Bachelor of Arts (BA) in Performing Arts, English,
Psychology
o BA TEP-Bachelor of Arts (BA) in Theatre Studies, English and
Psychology
o BA MPE-Bachelor of Arts (BA) in Music-Western Classical,
Psychology, English
Basic eligibility for the programme is a pass at the +2 level (Karnataka PUC /
ELIGIBILITY ISC / CBSE / NIOS / State Boards) in any stream (Humanities, Social Sciences,
Commerce & Management, Science) from any recognised Board in India.
NO. OF SEATS Not Available
1. Christ University Entrance Test
2. Skill Assessment
STAGES - 4
MODE ONLINE
1. Christ Entrance – Test
1. Current Affair – 10 Qs
2. General Knowledge – 30 Qs
5. Psychology – 30 Qs
Marking Scheme:
Right Answer: +1
Wrong Answer: -0.25
Maximum Marks: 120
2. Skill Assessment
The skill assessment will consist of a test on written skills, communication
Page 94 of 132
skills and logical reasoning

Word Limit: None
Micro Presentation for 90 seconds / student during this selection process
Total Duration: PIs are 15-20 minutes each.
Final Merit List is compiled from the overall score of all 4 assessment rounds.
1. Written Exam
CRITERIA FOR 2. Skill Assessment
SELECTION 3. Micro Presentation
5. Academic Performance
ORDER OF
PREFERENCE OF
Bengaluru and Ghaziabad
COLLEGES (EXAM
SPECIFIC)
FEES Rs. 1, 50, 000- Rs. 2, 00, 000 (Full Course) approx.
Page 95 of 132
2. Jamia Millia Islamia University

(Psychology)
COURSE: B.A. (Hons.) Psychology
NO. OF SEATS 42
Senior Secondary School Certificate or an equivalent examination with not less
ELIGIBILITY
than 50% marks in aggregate of best 5-papers.
STAGES - 1 Written Exam
MODE OFFLINE
PATTERN
Marking Scheme:
Right Answer: +1
Wrong Answer: -0.25
Maximum Marks: 100
Total Duration:
105 Minutes
CRITERIA FOR Final Ranks are compiled from the overall Jamia BBA Score.
SELECTION
CUT OFFS 65+ Marks in the written exam is a good benchmark for Final Selection.
(CLOSING CUT
OFFS)
Page 96 of 132
3. Banaras Hindu University (BHU-UET)
COURSE: B. A. (Hons.) Psychology

Passed 10+2 or equivalent Examination securing a minimum of 50% marks
in the aggregate.
ELIGIBILITY
AGE: Not to be more than 22 years on 1st July 2019 (applicant should be
born on or after 1st July of 1997).
STAGES – 1 Undergraduate Entrance Test (UET)
These questions shall be based on General knowledge and Current Affairs,
General Mental Ability/Reasoning, Numerical Ability and Language
Comprehension.
PATTERN Marking Scheme:
Right Answer: +3
Wrong Answer: -0.25
Maximum Marks: 360
Total Duration: 120 minutes (Two hours)
Page 97 of 132
4. Mount Carmel College (Psychology)
B.A. (Psychology, English Literature and Communication

COURSES:
Studies)
NO. OF SEAT 40 Seats
Passed Std. XII/ PUC or equivalent school leaving examinations with
ELIGIBILITY
Minimum 60%.
Entrance Test: Candidates are selected based on marks obtained in 10+2
STAGE – 2
and entrance test and performance in personal interview.
The entrance test is designed to check the aptitude of a student. The test
PATTERN checks one’s knowledge of current affairs, basic grammar, and general
knowledge and Media interest.
Page 98 of 132
5. Aligarh Muslim University (Psychology)
B.A. (Hons.) - Economics/ Political Science/ Psychology/

COURSE:
Social Work
NO. OF SEATS 85
Senior Secondary School Certificate or an equivalent examination with at
least 50% marks in aggregate of English and three other Subjects.
ELIGIBILITY
Age Limit: Not more than 24 years as on 01st July in the year of
admission.
STAGES - 1 Entrance Test - Combined Admission Test
There shall be one objective type paper of 100 marks with the following
components:
a) English : 25 Marks
PATTERN b) Indo-Islamic Culture and Aligarh Movement : 25 Marks
c) General Awareness and Current Affairs : 40 Marks
d) Reasoning and Intelligence : 10 Marks
Duration: 2 Hours
Page 99 of 132
6. Ashoka University, Sonepat
COURSE: B.A. (Hon.) in Psychology

Candidate must have passed (10+2) examination or equivalent from
ELIGIBILITY
recognized Board of Education with minimum 60%.
MODE ONLINE
1. Application Round
- Personal Details
- Academic Score (9th to 12th)
- SAT/ACT (optional)
- Personal Essay
- Letter of recommendation
STAGES - 3
- Extra/Co-curricular Activities
2. Interview Round
- Ashoka Aptitude Test (Mandatory except for SAT/ACT takers)
- On-the-spot essay (mandatory)
- In person/skype interview with panel (mandatory)
3. Decisions & Financial Aid
ADMISSION Shortlisted candidates will be sent an invitation for the Interview Round.
PROCESS
1. ON-THE-SPOT ESSAY; Mandatory (30 Minutes)
The on-the-spot essay evaluates the following parameters: engagement
with the prompt, critical thinking, clarity of thought, and creativity. The
candidate will be given two topics to choose from at the time of writing
the essay. The candidate cannot use any external resources to help them
write the essay. The essay has no word limit and can be attempted with
minimal preparation
2. ASHOKA APTITUDE TEST; Mandatory except for SAT/ACT
takers (90 minutes)
The Ashoka Aptitude Test (AAT) evaluates the thinking skills of the
PATTERN candidate.
The AAT consists of questions on problem-solving skills (includes
numerical and spatial reasoning) and critical thinking skills (includes
understanding arguments and reasoning using everyday language).
The AAT has 40 Multiple Choice Questions (20 problem-solving
questions and 20 critical thinking questions) and is designed to be
taken with minimal preparation
3. INTERVIEW WITH A PANEL; Mandatory
The Ashoka Interview seeks to understand and get to know the candidate,
their background and story. It also evaluates various parameters of the
application form submitted by the candidate to gauge the candidate’s
Page 100 of 132

suitability to Ashoka University’s academic and residential life programme.

The candidate will be interviewed by a panel of two members. The time
taken for the interview might vary depending on the interaction.
The Ashoka Aptitude Test will be administered on the day of the interview
and will be conducted at the interview venue.
FEES Rs. 9, 87, 000 (Per Year including all expenses)
Page 101 of 132

7. MIT-World Peace University, Pune

COURSE: B.A. Hons. (Psychology)
NO. OF SEATS 60
XII or HSC passed preferably from Arts or Science streams with minimum
60% marks (50% for SC/ ST). Any other educational background (apart from
ELIGIBILITY
Arts & Science streams) may be acceptable with minimum of 60% marks
(50% for SC/ ST).
1. UG-PET Entrance Exam
STAGES
Total Marks - 200
SELECTION 1. UG-PET Entrance Exam - 100 Marks
CRITERIA 2. Personal Interview – 50 Marks
3. Academic Credentials – 50 Marks
1. UG-PET Entrance Exam- 100 Marks
3. Quantitative Aptitude (Basic) – 25 Qs
Marking Scheme:
Right Answer: +1
PATTERN Maximum Marks: 100
2. Personal Interview – Total 50 Marks
 Communication (10 marks)
 Knowledge (10 marks)
 Attitude (10 marks)
 Extra-curricular activities (10 marks)
 Personality/overall presentation (10 marks)
3. Academic Credentials – 50 Marks
 10th marks
 11th/12th marks
FEES Rs. 1, 00, 000 (Per Year)
Page 102 of 132

ENGLISH HONS.
 Guru Gobind Singh Indraprastha University (CET Eng.

Hons.)
 Jamia Milia Islamia
 University of English & Foreign language, Hyderabad
 Christ University
 Integrated MA in English Studies IIT Chennai
 Banaras Hindu University
 Presidency University, Kolkata

University (CET Eng. Hons.)
COURSES: BA Hons English

Candidates with an aggregate* of 50% marks in 10 + 2 level examination
ELIGIBILITY CRITERIA from recognized state and central government board (for example,
C.B.S.E) with compulsory English at 10+2 level
Admission shall be on the basis of the merit of the written test / Common
STAGES
Entrance Test (CET)
MODE ONLINE
NO. OF SEATS 150
General English (50%)
PATTERN Literary Aptitude (30%) &
General Awareness (20%).
EXAM DATE 10th September 2020 (This year) Normally May/June
1. Vivekanand Institute of Professional Studies, Pitampura
ORDER OF Cut off 2020: Maximum Year Rank For Delhi: 508 & For Outside
PREFERENCE OF Delhi: 218
COLLEGES (EXAM 2. Fairfield Institute of Management & Technology, Kapashera
SPECIFIC) Cut off 2020: Maximum Year Rank For Delhi: 554 & For Outside
Delhi: 248
Page 104 of 132

2. Jamia Milia Islamia

STAGES Entrance
NO. OF SEATS 60
Pass in 12th Class of 10+2 of CBSE or equivalent with a minimum of
ELIGIBILITY CRITERIA 50% marks in aggregate* and must also have passed English (core or
elective or functional) as a subject.
DATE OF EXAM October-November 2020 (This Year), Normally in June/July
Part A: Objective – 40 Marks, 40 Questions on 1 mark each
PATTERN Part B: Subjective – 60 Marks, Unseen Passages for Comprehension – 20
marks, Grammar & Vocabulary- 10 marks and Essay – 30 Marks.
Senior Sec. School Certificate or an equivalent examination with not less
ELIGIBILITY
than 50% marks in aggregate or in the subject concerned.
Page 105 of 132

3. University of English & Foreign language,

Hyderabad
B.A. (Hons.) English

COURSES:
B.A. (Hons.) Foreign Languages
No. of STAGES – 1 Written Test in 2nd Week of MARCH
MODE Online
NO. OF SEATS TOTAL – 100
ELIGIBILITY Pass in the Intermediate/10+2 examination or its equivalent, with 50%
marks for general/OBC candidates, and 45% marks for SC/ST category
candidates, with English as one of the subjects.
PATTERN  Section A - Grammar (15 marks)
 Section B - Vocabulary (10 marks)
 Section C- Reading (15 marks)
 Section D- Writing (10 marks)
 Section E- General Knowledge (10 marks)
 Section F- Reasoning (20 marks)
 Section G- Literature (20 marks)
Page 106 of 132

4. Christ University
COURSES BA Hons (English)

STAGES 1. Aptitude Test
2. Skill Assessment Test and Personal Interview
MODE ONLINE
NO. OF SEATS NA
PATTERN Test Pattern will be updated by March 2021 for next year
ELIGIBILITY Basic eligibility for the programme is a pass at the +2 level in any stream
(Humanities, Social Sciences, Commerce & Management, Sciences) from
any recognised Board in India.
Page 107 of 132

5. Integrated MA in English Studies IIT

Chennai
Integrated M.A. in Development Studies
COURSES:
Integrated M.A. in English Studies
Selection will be based on The Humanities and Social Sciences Entrance
STAGES - 1
Examination (HSEE)
MODE Online + OFFLINE ESSAY WRITING
NO. OF SEATS 52 Seats – Each stream will have 26 seats.
The final examination of the 10+2 system, conducted by a Central or
State Board recognized by the Association of Indian Universities.
Candidates belonging to the General, GEN-EWS and OBC-NCL category
must secure a minimum of 60% aggregate marks in the qualifying
examination. Candidates belonging to SC, ST and PwD categories must
secure a minimum of 55% aggregate marks in the qualifying examination.
ENTRANCE DATE 9th September, 2020. (Usually April 3rd or 4th Week)
3 Hours Written Exam in 2 parts:
Part I – ONLINE Objective (2.5 Hours)
(i) English and Comprehension Skill
(ii) Analytical and Quantitative Ability
(iii) General Studies covering the areas of Indian Economy, Indian Society
and Culture, World Affairs
PATTERN
(iv) Environment and Ecology.
Part II - Essay Writing (30 Minutes):

Part II requires the candidates to write an essay on general topic involving
description, or/and reflection or/and discussion.
Negative marks may be awarded for incorrect answers in Part I.
Page 108 of 132

6. Banaras Hindu University

COURSES BA Hons English
Admission is through counseling based on the rank obtained in (BHU-
STAGES - 2
UET).
MODE ONLINE (Offline Till 2017)
NO. OF SEATS 130
There shall be one Paper of 120 minutes (Two hours) duration carrying
360 marks containing 120 multiple-choice questions. These questions shall
PATTERN be based on General knowledge and Current Affairs (60 MCQs), General
Mental Ability/Reasoning (15 MCQs), Numerical Ability (15 MCQs) and
Language Comprehension (30 MCQs).
ENTRANCE DATE Second Week MAY
ELIGIBILITY Passed 10+2 or equivalent Examination securing a minimum of 50%
marks in the aggregat
CRITERIA FOR Final Merit List is compiled after the counselling
SELECTION
Page 109 of 132

7. Presidency University, Kolkata

STAGES – 1 Written Test
MODE OFFLINE
NO. OF SEATS 30
1. One hour on-line test consisting of 40 multiple-choice questions: 30
MCQs on English language and 10 MCQs on English literature. There
PATTERN will be negative marking.
2. One-and-half hour pen-and-paper written test comprising an essay
(50 marks) and a critical appreciation of an unseen poem (50 marks).
ENTRANCE DATE 2nd Week June
Candidate must have secured minimum 80% (Arts) or 85% (Science or
ELIGIBILITY
Commerce) marks and 75% marks in English
Page 110 of 132

LIBERAL ARTS
 Symbiosis School for Liberal Arts

 Jyoti Dalal School of Liberal Arts
 Jindal School of Liberal Arts and Humanities
 FLAME University, Pune
1. Symbiosis School for Liberal Arts
Bachelor of Arts (Liberal Arts Degree) &

COURSE:
Bachelor of Science (Liberal Arts Degree)
ELIGIBILITY CBSE, ICSE, and HSC: Students should have passed with at least 50%
(Open Category) and 45% (SC, ST) in the 12th Standard.
STAGES - 2 1. Symbiosis Entrance Test (SET)
2. Written Ability Test (WAT) and Personal Interview (PI)
MODE ONLINE (Offline Till 2017)
NO. OF SEATS 100
Symbiosis Entrance Test (SET)
1. General Awareness – 20 Qs (instead of 40 questions)
2. Logical Reasoning – 15 Qs (instead of 30 questions)
3. Quantitative Aptitude – 20 Qs (instead of 40 questions)
4. Verbal Ability – 20 Qs (instead of 40 questions)
Total – 75 Qs (MCQ) instead of 150 Questions
Right Answer: +1
Maximum Marks: 75 (instead of 150)
Total Duration: 75 Minutes (instead of 150 Minutes)
PATTERN
Word Limit: None
Weightage – 50%
REMARKS
current relevance. The topics presented are not very complex and
usually an option of 4-5 topics is provided.
Personal Interview (PI)
Duration - PIs are 10 minutes each.
Weightage – 50%
Extra-curricular and Personal Focused.
ENTRANCE DATE 26 July-29 July 2020
1. SET Score
CRITERIA FOR
2. WAT + Personal Interview
SELECTION
Note: All candidates will have to register for the General Paper of the
SET (Symbiosis Entrance Test).
PREVIOUS/POTENTIAL Symbiosis SET BBA exam tested the aptitude of the candidates through
CHANGES/SPECIAL an online computer based entrance test conducted in the remote-
Page 112 of 132

REMARKS proctored manner. As such, a number of changes were introduced in

the SET BBA 2020 exam pattern. Candidates were required to have a
desktop/laptop and an internet question to attempt the exam from a
location of their convenience. It was of 105 minutes test, which was
divided into two parts; first 75 minutes for MCQ section followed by 30
minutes for WAT.
SET General 2020: Changes in Exam Pattern
Special Remarks
The Verbal Ability section consisted of 20 questions divided across
Reading Comprehension, Grammar and Vocabulary.
Reading Comprehension: There was one passage followed by 5
questions. The topic of discussion was “foreign policy” and the length of
the passage was approximately 200 to 250 words. One question was
vocabulary based, one was a specific detail question and the other three
were inference based questions. Overall the passage was of easy to
moderate difficulty level.
Vocabulary: There was a variety of vocabulary question types including
synonyms and antonyms, fill in the blanks, one word substitution,
identify the correct spelling, idioms and phrasal verbs. The words were
not highly uncommon and could have been attempted by a well
prepared student.
Grammar: Grammar was tested in two formats: Sentence Correction
and Fill in the Blanks. Concepts like prepositions, conjunctions and
verbs were tested and the sentences were very short and simple,
making it easy to attempt these questions in around a minute per
question.
Overall, the difficulty level was easy to moderate.
The Quantitative Aptitude section was the easiest among others.
Candidates expected it to be the most difficult and with majority
questions from Arithmetic. These questions were from Percentages,
Simple interest and Compound interest, Profit and Loss, Averages,
Allegations, Time and Work and Time Speed Distance. Except a
question from SICI, all questions were simple and straight forward. In
addition to this, there were questions on Probability, Set Theory, Surds
and Indices and Number series, which were again easy. There were 2
questions on Data Interpretation and 1 question on data sufficiency.
Overall, the difficulty level was Easy.
Like every year, General Awareness section followed its trend of
asking unconventional questions. There were a total of 20 questions,
almost equally distributed between Current Affairs and Static GK. Static
GK questions were based on World History (World War-I,
Page 113 of 132

Perestroika); Geography (related to Port Blair, waterfall in Meghalaya);

Important Organizations (Prasar Bharati, UNICEF, DRDO), and Art &
Culture (main language of Kerala, Pawl Kut festival of Mizoram).
Current Affairs questions were based on Awards & Recognitions (Times
Next 100 list, Dada Saheb Phalke award); Persons in News (Chief of
Defense Staff, Indian-American nominated to IBRD); International
Affairs (Russian war medal to Kim Jong-Un) and Sports.
The Current Affairs section was easy to moderate, while Static GK
section was Moderate to Difficult. That’s takes the overall difficulty level
of GK section to Moderate-Difficult.
The Logical Reasoning section had similar types of questions to those
of last year’s SET General exam. There were 5 questions on Puzzles, 2
questions on Coding-Decoding, 2 questions on Direction Sense, 1
question on Blood Relations and 1 question on Calendar. All the
questions very straight forward. There were 2 questions each on
Statement – Course of Action and Syllogisms. Overall, this section was
the easiest one.
Overall difficulty level of the paper was easy to moderate.
FEES Rs. 3,85,000 P.A.
Page 114 of 132

2. Jyoti Dalal School of Liberal Arts

COURSE: B.A. (Hons) – Liberal Arts
NUMBER OF SEATS 80
The Candidate must have passed 10+2 or equivalent examination including
CBSE/HSC/ International Baccalaureate Diploma (IB certificate / & D.P.
ELIGIBILITY
awarded candidates are not eligible) /ISC in any stream from a recognized
Board in the first attempt and should have obtained a minimum of 60%
aggregate marks.
STAGES - 2 1. Written Test - NMIMS Programs After Twelfth (NPAT)
2. Short Written Test and Personal Interview (June)
MODE Online
ENTRANCE DATE 26th, 27th and 28th June 2020
PATTERN Right Answer: +1
Maximum Marks: 120
NPAT 2020 was remote proctored exam which was conducted over three
days i.e. 26th, 27th and 28th June 2020. Candidates had the choice of
appearing for the test two times and the best score out of two was
considered for the further examination process.
CRITERIA FOR
1. NPAT Score
SELECTION
2. Short Written+ Personal Interview
1. There was no Sectional Time in 2020 same like 2019 and Duration of
the paper was 100 minutes same like 2019.
2. Sectional time limit was introduced in 2017 (LR – 45 minutes, QA – 45
minutes and VA – 30 minutes) and Duration of the paper was reduced
from 120 Minutes to 100 Minutes.
PREVIOUS/POTENTIAL
2017 : Time Duration – 120 Minutes (Sectional Time Limit)
CHANGES/SPECIAL
LR – 45 minutes
REMARKS
QA – 45 minutes
VA – 30 minutes
Page 115 of 132

3. Topic-wise split of questions was provided beforehand on the

university's website along with the application form and was largely
followed in the exam.
4. There was NO NEGATIVE MARKING in this exam like last year.
Special Remarks
 Quant and Numerical Ability section were of moderate to difficult,
difficulty level. Candidates without Mathematics in class 12 could find it
difficult to attempt and score high in this section. There were a few
lengthy questions of good difficulty in this section. There were 6-7
questions from Statistics, 4-5 questions on Functions, 3-4 questions on
Trigonometry, 4 questions on Set-Theory, 3-4 questions on
Percentage, 3-4 questions on Profit & Loss, 2-3 questions on fraction, 2
questions on quadratic equation.
There were 1-2 questions from topics like Ratio and Proportion, Surds
& Indices, Time – Speed & Distance, SI CI, Algebra, Mensuration and
BODMAS.
 Logical Reasoning was a fairly standard section with mixed topics.
There were 3 DI case lets (Pie chart-4 questions, Graph – 2 questions,
Tables – 4 questions) with total 10 questions, 5 questions each on
selection criteria (set based), 4 questions were from data sufficiency, 4
Questions on Syllogism, 3-4 questions on Logical Inequalities, 3-4
questions from Visual Reasoning, 2-3 questions on Venn Diagram, 1-2
questions from Mathematical Operations, Family Tree, Ranking. 1
question from each topics like Linear Arrangement and Cubes. There
were 2 questions on Statement Argument Statement Assumption. The
questions were time consuming, as few of them were tricky. Overall,
this section was easy-moderate.
 Verbal Ability Section was dominated by Reading Comprehension and
Grammar. There were 3 RC with total 15 questions. 3 RC passages on
Day 1 were based on topics like Astrology, Environment – Recycle and
reusage of Paper and Upcycle of Apparels/Fashion. So, they were based
on variety of topics like astrology, environment, fashion, economy,
online platform etc. RC passages were easy, but one of the passages
was tricky. 15-17 questions were from Vocabulary, Prepositions,
Conjunctions and Tenses, Sentence Correction based on tenses,
Tenses, Subject-Verb Agreement, Missing Pronoun, Indefinite Pronoun,
Error Identification and Parallelism. 5 questions from Para-Jumbles, 4-5
questions on Idioms and Phrases: Sentence Based, Identification of
meaning based on usage. Overall they were moderate to difficult.
Page 116 of 132

 Overall, the paper was of moderate difficulty level but the challenge
was to manage the time effectively.
FEES Rs. 4,25,000 P.A.
Page 117 of 132

3. Jindal School of Liberal Arts and

Humanities
COURSE: B.A. (Hons.) Liberal Arts and Humanities
NUMBER OF SEATS 160
Applicants to the B.A. (Hons.) Liberal Arts & Humanities at JSLH should have
completed the 10+2 level of schooling or its equivalent with minimum 60%
aggregate marks.
ELIGIBILITY
Students must also submit a 1,000-word personal statement about why you
want to study Liberal Arts at JSLH. This essay should give the reader a sense
of your passions, goals, and personality.
1. Jindal Scholastic Aptitude Test (JSAT) – 55% of equivalent (SAT,
ACT)
2. All students must submit a 1,000-word Personal Statement about why
you want to study Liberal Arts and why you want to study at JSLH. This
STAGES - 3
essay should give the reader a sense of your passions, goals, and
personality.
3. Interview - Short listed candidates will be interviewed in person or over
the phone.
MODE Online
English Verbal – 40%
Logical Reasoning – 40%
Quantitative Skills – 20%
Right Answer: +1
Maximum Marks: 120
Jindal Scholastic Aptitude Test (JSAT) is conducted by JGU as a screening
test for its undergraduate programmes. It is an Online Test comprising of
ADMISSION
120 Multiple Choice Questions covering logical reasoning, quantitative
PROCEDURE
aptitude (Math) and verbal ability (English). Weightage for each category will
be based on the chosen JGU programme of study.
FEES Rs. 6,50,000 per year
Page 118 of 132

4. FLAME University, Pune

COURSE: B.A. (Hons.) Liberal Arts and Humanities
NUMBER OF SEATS NA
In the case of Higher Secondary School Certificate or State Boards, CBSE
and ICSE, 40% marks in 12th standard with English as one of the subjects is
ELIGIBILITY
the minimum requirement. If you wish to pursue BBA subsequently, 45% is
the minimum requirement in 12th standard.
The goal of our assessment process is to select best performing and well-
rounded applicants who can contribute and enhance the learning experience
at FLAME University. We have an internal assessment process which
considers the following aspects of your application:
 Aptitude Test (FEAT/SAT)
SELECTION PROCESS  Essay
 One-way Video Interview
 Past Academic Record
 Extracurricular activities/ achievements
 Statement of Purpose (SOP)
Note: FEAT and Essay/Interview are conducted Online on the same day.
FEAT is a written examination divided into 4 sections given below:
Section 1: Verbal Ability – 40 Questions (50 marks)
o Vocabulary - 10 questions (10 marks)
o Grammar and Usage - 10 questions (10 marks)
o Reading Comprehension - 12 questions (18 marks)
o Writing Composition - 8 questions (12 marks)
Section 2: Reasoning (Analytical and Logical) - 20 questions (40
marks)
Section 3: Quantitative Ability - 20 questions (30 marks)
Section 4: General Knowledge - 20 questions (20 marks)
Total duration: 120 minutes.
PATTERN
For candidates who have submitted their SAT/ACT scores, only Essay /
One-way Video Interview will be conducted (FEAT is optional for them).
Essay: During the online assessment, you will be required to complete an

essay, the topic of which will be provided on the spot. You are required to
complete your essay in ~200-250 words. You will be given 20 minutes for
the on-the-spot essay.
One-way Video Interview: This part of the admission process will also be
conducted online right after you complete the FLAME Entrance Aptitude
Test (FEAT) and the Essay. During the One-way Video Interview, you will
Page 119 of 132

be required to record your responses to three questions. For each question

you will be given 30 seconds to gather your thoughts. You will have to
express your thoughts for each question in not more than 90 seconds. Thus,
the total time for the One-way Video Interview will be 6 minutes. The video
interview questions will appear one at a time on your screen and you will be
asked to record an answer for each. Possible questions may include your
reasons for applying to FLAME, your passions, your role model, your
learnings from mistakes you have made, etc. Your responses will help the
admissions team know more about you, your personality, your
communication skills and your clarity of thought. It is meant to give you an
opportunity to express what may not be stated in your application.
To appear for the online selection process, you are required to carry your
AADHAR card or PAN card or Passport. This will serve as an identity proof
for you to attend FLAME University’s online admission process. Only
originals shall be treated as valid proof of identity. You are required to keep
the same handy during the entire online admission process. Please ensure
that you start the online admission process at your scheduled time.
Page 120 of 132

BCA
 Guru Gobind Singh Indraprastha University (CET BCA)

 Bharatiya Vidyapeeth University
 All India Management Association

University (CET BCA)
COURSES: Bachelor of Computer Application (BCA)

NO. OF STAGES – 1 Written Test – IPU CET
MODE Online
 Candidates should have passed 12th CBSE or an equivalent
examination with a minimum of 50% marks in aggregate with a
pass in English (core or elective or functional) and Mathematics or
Computer Science / Informatics Practice / Computer Applications.
 SC/ST/PWD Category: Minimum 45% aggregate marks in Class
12th or equivalent exam.
 Candidate applying for IPU CET BCA must be citizens of India.
 The age of the candidate should not be beyond 21 years.
 Candidates belonging to reserved categories (SC, ST & OBC) are
given a relaxation of 2 years on the maximum age.
 Numerical aptitude – 30% Qs
 English and Comprehension – 15% Qs
 Computer Awareness – 30% Qs
PATTERN  General Knowledge- IT and Science related – 25% Qs
WEIGHTAGE Based on Qualifying exam
The Best Top 10 Colleges of IPU for Bachelor of Computer
Application (BCA) are:
1. Maharaja Surajmal Institute, Janakpuri
2. Vivekananda Institute of Professional Studies, Pitampura
ORDER OF 3. Jagannath International Management School, Vasant Kunj
PREFERENCE OF 4. Institute of Information Technology & Management, Janakpuri
COLLEGES (EXAM 5. Jagan Institute of Management Studies, Rohini
SPECIFIC) 6. Institute of Innovation in Technology & Management, Janakpuri
7. Trinity Institute of Professional Studies, Dwarka
8. Integrated Institute of Technology, Dwarka
9. Ambedkar Institute of Technology, Shakarpur
10. Chanderprabhu Jain college of Higher Studies, Narela
Page 122 of 132

2. Bharati Vidyapeeth University

NO. OF STAGES – 1 Written Test - BUMAT
MODE Online
Candidates who wish to fill BUMAT 2020 Application form need to
fulfill the following eligibility criteria:
 The candidate must be an Indian National
 The candidate must have cleared Class 12 or equivalent
examination with 45 per cent aggregate (40 per cent marks for
SC/ST) from a recognized board
 Numerical aptitude – 60 Qs
 Logical Reasoning – 60 Qs
 Reading Comprehension – 20 Qs
 Verbal Ability - 60 Qs
PATTERN
 Wrong Answer: 0
 No sectional time limits
WEIGHTAGE Based on Qualifying exam
BUMAT 2020 exam 19th August 2020
Page 123 of 132

3. All India Management Association

NO. OF STAGES – 1 Written Test – AIMA UGAT
1. Offline (Paper based test)
MODE 2. Online (Remote proctored internet-based test)
Students can choose any ONE of the modes to apply.
 English Language – 40 Qs
 Numerical and Data Analysis – 30 Qs
 Reasoning and Intelligence – 30 Qs
PATTERN  General Knowledge – 30 Qs
 Wrong Answer: - 0.25
 The candidate must have cleared 10+2 from a recognized board
 The aspirants should have secured at least 50% marks at 10+2 level
ELIGIBILITY
 Candidates waiting for their results can also apply
CRITERIA
 The aspirant should be at least 17 years of age while appearing for the
exam
Page 124 of 132

OTHERS
 Indian Statistical Institute, Bangalore

 Indian Statistical Institute, Kolkata
1. Indian Statistical Institute, Bangalore
COURSES: B. Maths (Hons)

STAGES - 2 1. Entrance Exam – ISI Test
2. Interview
MODE Offline
NO. OF SEATS 50
ELIGIBILITY CRITERIA  The candidate must be Qualified in 12th or other equivalent
examination with Mathematics and English as subjects.
PATTERN Part 1– MCQ type question – 30 Qs
Part 2 – Descriptive Test – 08 Qs
Part 1 – 30 marks
Part 2 – 70 marks
Total Duration: 120 Minutes (MCQ) + 120 Minutes (Descriptive)
QUALIFYING CUT OFFS General – 50 marks
OBC – 45 marks
SC/ST/PWD – 40 marks
General – UGA 69/120 & UGB 30/80
CUT-OFF OBC – UGA 62.1/120 & UGB 27/80
SC/ST/PWD – UGA 55.2/120 & UGB 24/80
Page 126 of 132

2. Indian Statistical Institute, Kolkata
COURSES: B. Stats (Hons)

STAGES - 2 1. Entrance Exam
2. Interview
MODE Offline
NO. OF SEATS 50
ELIGIBILITY CRITERIA The candidate must be Qualified in 12th or other equivalent examination
with Mathematics and English as subjects.
PATTERN Part 1– MCQ type question – 30 Qs
Part 2 – Descriptive Test – 08 Qs
Part 1 – 30 marks
Part 2 – 70 marks
Total Duration: 120 Minutes (MCQ) + 120 Minutes (Descriptive)
QUALIFYING CUT OFFS General – 50 marks
OBC – 45 marks
SC/ST/PWD – 40 marks
Page 127 of 132

SAT
The SAT is a standardized exam that evaluates the mathematical, writing and reading prowess of a
candidate. It is designed for high-school students looking for a college education, and the exam is meant
to test the candidate’s ability to solve/analyze problems. Each section is marked in the range of 200-800
points, and the final score ranges from 400-1600. Moreover, the written essay is scored on a scale of 0-
24 and varies incrementally.
Eligibility:
1. College Board, a private, not-for-profit Corporation in the US owns and publishes the SAT, and does
not prescribe any prerequisites for the exam.
2. College Board does not specify any age requirement; however, a valid Indian passport is a must to
appear for the exam
3. One needs a debit/credit card with international currency support enabled to be able to register for
the exam.
SAT Exam Pattern

Components Details
SAT Format SAT (Reasoning Test) SAT Subject Test
Duration Three Hours (SAT without Essay) 3 Hours and 50
minutes (SAT with Essay)
Number of Sections in SAT (Reasoning ) Evidence-Based Reading and Writing, Reading Test,
Test Writing and Language Test, Mathematics and Essay
(optional)
Overall score range of SAT (Reasoning) 400-1600
Test
Total number of questions in SAT 154 questions + 1 (optional essay)
(Reasoning) Test
Type of examination Mostly objective
Number of Subjects in SAT Subject Test 20
Overall score range of SAT Subject Test 200-800
Comparison OLD VS NEW SAT
Time Number Time Number
Section allotted of Section allotted of
(Minutes) Questions (Minutes) Questions
Critical
70 67 Reading 65 52
Reading
Writing and
Writing 60 49 35 44
Old New Language
SAT SAT Essay
Essay 25 1 50 1
(optional)
Mathematics 70 54 Mathematics 80 58
180 (230 154 (155
Total 225 171 Total with with
Essay) Essay)
Page 129 of 132

Detailed description of SAT (Reasoning) test pattern
This section includes a short essay and multiple-choice questions on identifying errors
Writing and
and improving English grammar and usage. This section needs to be completed within
Language
35 minutes and consists of 44 questions.
As per the SAT exam pattern 2020, this section includes several reading passages and
sentence completions. It is again divided into three sub-sections. The questions asked
in this section are based on either short passage reading or long passage reading. The
Reading
questions are based on multiple choice questions (MCQ). These questions measure
aspirants’ understanding capability. According to the SAT 2020 exam pattern, 65
minutes is allotted to this section for attempting 52 questions.
This section includes questions on basic Arithmetic Operations, Algebra, Geometry,

Mathematics Statistics, and Probability. SAT exam pattern 2020 allows test takers 80 minutes to
solve 58 questions.
Section Wise Pattern

Section Duration Questions Scoring
65-minute Reading section 52 Questions (Reading)

Evidence-Based
200-800
Reading Writing
44 Questions (Writing and
35-minute Writing and Language section
Language)
20 Questions (No
25-minute No Calculator section
Calculator)
Mathematics 200-800
55-minute Calculator section 38 Questions (Calculator)
Special Remarks
1. International registration deadlines apply to anyone testing outside of the United States and U.S.
territories.
2. Deadlines expire at 11:59 p.m. Eastern Time, U.S.
3. There is no late registration for international testing. Online and telephone registrations must be
completed by the international deadlines listed above.
4. Mailed registration forms must be received by the international deadlines listed above.
5. If you register through an international representative, you need to submit your paper registration
with payment by the early registration deadline.
6. There are specific deadlines for making changes if students are testing outside the U.S. The deadline
for making changes is also noted on the Admission Ticket.
Page 130 of 132

7. International students should call Customer Service by the international change deadline to make
changes to their registration including adding a Language with Listening Test or selecting a different
Language with Listening Test.
8. Sunday administrations for students who cannot test on Saturday due to religious observance usually
occur the day after each Saturday test date.
9. You can't take the SAT Subject Tests and the SAT on the same test date.
10. When you register, you must tell us which SAT Subject Test(s) you plan to take. You can change
your mind on test day, with limits.
11. You can take only one Biology Subject Test per test date. After the first 60 questions, you have to
choose either Biology Ecological or Biology Molecular; you can't take both.
12. You can use calculators only on the Mathematics Level 1 and Level 2 Subject Tests.
13. The Language with Listening tests are offered only in November.
14. The Language with Listening tests are always given in the first hour of testing. You can take only one
Language with Listening test per test date.
15. As per the SAT exam pattern, there is no negative marking for the incorrect answer, so
candidates can safely guess an answer.
16. SAT Subject tests are taken for a specific subject. SAT 2019 Subject Tests are hour-long, content-
based exams that assess a candidate's strength in specific subjects. Questions cover topics
emphasized in most high school courses. The total number of subject options are 20 and all
the questions are based on MCQ.
SAT Fees
1. The basic fee for the exam is $52, but it varies based on the country of the applicant.
2. For Indian applicants, the fee for SAT comes out to be approx $106 (with written essay), or approx
$94 (without essay).
3. In Indian Rupees, the SAT exam fee is around 6200-7000 INR.
4. Apart from the general SAT, one can sit for subject SATs which can be useful under certain
circumstances.
5. The fee for subject SATs comes out to be approx $111, though the importance of subject tests is
gradually diminishing in general
Page 131 of 132

PRATHAM Test Prep
Head Office & Study Centre:
HS-13, Kailash Colony Main Market, South Delhi
New Delhi 110048
Tel: 9999975392, 011-42666000
Email: info@prathamonline.com
Login: www.prathamonline.com
YouTube: https://www.youtube.com/channel/UCKvtiFIEAzBEaueoJ4MzUjg

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Entrance Exams 2020-21

(Patterns and Analysis)

Delhi University (DU-JAT) 07

MASS COMMUNICATION __________________________ 57

St. Xavier's College (BMM) 60

HOTEL MANAGEMENT ___________________________ 66

Guru Gobind Singh Indraprastha University (CET B. Com) 83

Guru Gobind Singh Indraprastha University (CET Eco Hons.) 89

ENGLISH HONS ________________________________ 103

Guru Gobind Singh Indraprastha University (CET Eng. Hons.) 104

LIBERAL ARTS _________________________________ 111

BCA _________________________________________ 121

Guru Gobind Singh Indraprastha University (CET BCA) 122

OTHERS ______________________________________ 125

Indian Statistical Institute, Bangalore 126

SAT __________________________________________ 128

 Delhi University (DU-JAT)

1. Delhi University (DU-JAT)

PREVIOUS/POTENTIAL 2017 (Written 65% and Class 12th 35%)

i.e. on Merger and Acquisition. Overall, the level of difficulty was

Delhi University Entrance Test (DUET):

Admissions for BMS BBAFIA

5. College of Vocational Studies – Rs. 10,150

2. IIM Indore (IPMAT)

difficulty level among others.

2. Like last two years Quantitative Aptitude Section divided into

3. Sectional time limit introduced in 2017 and after that it is

Verbal Ability (MCQ) – 40 Minutes

4. Use of calculators is not allowed but on-screen calculators are

3. IIM – ROHTAK (IPMAT)

COURSES: 5 YEARS INTEGRATED PROGRAMME IN MANAGEMENT (IPM)

2. WAT Score – 10%

1. After having faced technical glitches in conduction of the Remote

error and Identifying the correct/incorrect sentence. One interesting

Category Minimum cut off marks

4. Narsee Monjee Institute of

For BBA (Branding & Advertising): Mathematics or Statistics is not

questions from Para-Jumbles, 4-5 questions on Idioms and Phrases:

5. Symbiosis Center for Management

CHANGES/SPECIAL through an online computer based entrance test conducted in the

SET-B 2020: Changes in Exam Pattern

almost equally distributed between Current Affairs and Static GK.

6. St. Xavier's College (BMS)

COURSE: Bachelor of Management Studies (BMS)

Knowledge & General Awareness - 20% in Online Exam.

7. Christ University (BBA)

rounds and Academic Performance.

Strong focus on HR type and Personal Questions and sometimes have

8. Guru Gobind Singh Indraprastha

Commission of India,Term of Rajya Sabha Member, First/Highest Law

there from Sentence Correction, 5-6 questions from One word

9. Jamia Millia Islamia University (BBA)

Economics – 6 Questions, General Science – 4 Questions,

Cut off for 2019:

10. Manipal University (MUOET)

11. Bharati Vidyapeeth University

2. Institute of Management & Research New Delhi

 Common Law Admission Test (CLAT)

1. Common Law Admission Test (CLAT)

Number of questions 2019: 200 (MCQ)

(Closing cut offs: Ranks as per 3rd allotment list)

c) NLIU , Bhopal - 429

(Closing Cut offs: Ranks as per 3rd allotment list) 2019