Final exam

AMT GC 001 Mathematics

1. Which one of the following is not a prime number?
2 27 13

2. Which one of the following is not a prime number?

2,3,5,7 4,6,8,9 11,13,17

3. There is a 20 Helicopter, 40 Engine and 60 propeller then what is the ratio of Helicopter To
propeller to Engine?
3:2:1 1:3:2 2:1:3

4. Solve this Simountaneous equation 2x+4y=5 for x?

2/7 7/2 10/2

5. Which one is improper fraction?

1/7 7/2 2/7

6. What is this number {-3,-2,-1 ,0 ,1 ,2 ,3}

Rational Number Positive integer Counting Number

7. What is the Cuboid of

30 m² 300 m² 0.0003 m²

8. What is the angle of two triangle 2:3:5?

Acute angle Right angle Obtus angle

9. Simplify this (a- b) (a+ b)?

a²- b² a² -2ab -b² b ²+2ab -b²

10. Write the fraction form of 125%?

5/4 4/5 10/2

11. Which one is a linear equation?

X +5y= 4 X² -2x +4= 7 X(x +1)= 2

12. What is the LCM of 9,15,40

2880 200 400

13. A triangle whose all angles and sides are equal?

Isosceles Equilateral Scalen

14. What is this number {0, 1, 2, 3……}?

Prime Number Rational Number Whole Number

AMT GC 002 Physics

1. A First class lever is to be used to lift 500-lb weight the distance from the weight to the fulcrum is 12
inches and from the fulcrum to the applied effort 60 inch how much force is required to the lift
weight? What is the mechanical advantage

100lb & 2 200lb & 5 100lb & 5

2. Which one of the following is not true?

A single fixed pulley in a first class lever with equal arms

Advantage of a single fixed pulley is to change the direction of the force

The mechanical advantage of a single pulley is 2

3. A Boeing 747 weighing 450,000 pounds needs to be raised 4 feet in the air so maintenance can be
done on the landing gears. How much potential energy does the airplane possess because of this
raised position

450,000 –lb 1.800,000 ft- lb 1.800 ft lb

4. A device used to measure the relative density of the liquids is

Hydrometer Densitometer Thermometer

5. To measure the resistance of the flow (of Liquids) is

Density Viscosity Specific Gravity

6. 20ft² of the gas argon is compressed to 15²ft the gas starts out a temperature of 60F and pressure
of 1,000 Psig after being compressed its is temperature 90 degree F what would its new pressure be in
PSIG (60 degree Fahrenheit = 520 degree Rankine = 90 Degrees Fahrenheit = 550 Rankine

1,431 1.416.3 2.847.3

7. The smallest unit of substance that exhibits the physical and chemical properties of a substance is

Atom Molecule Electron

8. The process by which a solid changes directly into a gas is called

Sublimation Evaporation Freezing

9. One of the following is deprived physical quantity

Mass Length Weight

10. Which one of the following is a vector quantity

 Speed Distance Velocity

11. An aircraft suspended from it CG would have

A nose down tendency

A tail down tendency

No tendency to rotate in either a nose-down or nose-up attitude

12. When the sheet metal of an airplane is assembled using a rivet, the rivet experiences

Compression stress Shear stress Tensile stress

M 3 Electrical fundamentals

M 4 Electronics fundamentals
01. Forward voltage of a silicon diode is.

A. 1.6V B. 0.6V C. 0.2V

02. Diodes are.

A. conductors. B. semi-conductors. C. Insulators.

03. To conduct, a junction diode made of silicon requires a forward blas of at

least.

A. 0.2V B. 1.41V C. 0.7 V

04. A semiconductor doped with an element having a valency of 5 will produce.

A, an N type material.

B, either an N type or a P type depending on what type of semiconductor

materialis used.

C. a P type material.

05. A Zener diode is used across the output for a power supply circuit to. A. give
a full wave rectification.
B. prevent thermal runway.

C. provide a steady DC voltage output without falling.

06. In an NPN transistor the P is the.

A. collector B. emitter C. base

07. Which way does conventional current flow in a PNP junction?.

A. Emitter to base B. Collector to base C. Collector to emitter.

08. For conduction of a transistor, the emitter base junction is.

A. forward or reverse as appropriate to the input signal.

B. reverse biased.

C. forward biased.

09. For an NPN transistor to conduct the collector circuit has to be.

A. more positive than the base

B. less positive than the emitter

C, more positive than the emitter

10. A transistor is used as.

A. amplifier B. switch C. Both

11. With an NPN transistor electrons leave the.

A. Base. B. Collector C, Emitter.

12. In a transistor, the arrow always points in the direction of.

A. electron flow. B, conventional current. C. emitter

13. In an NPN transistor in active region the:

A. collector is more positive than the base.

B. collector is the same as the base.

C. emitter is more positive than the base.

14. A transistor at saturation has.

A. low resistance. B. zero resistance. C. high resistance.

15.The emitter, base and collector currents in a BJT transistor is:

A. Ie Ic- Ib. B. Ib le + Ic. C. le = lb + Ic.

16. What power is required for a desynn indicator system?.

A. Dc B. AC 400 Hz C. AC 50 Hz

17.What material would have 3 electrons in the outermost orbit?.

A. Majority Carrier material.

B. The donor to an N-Type semi-conductor material.

C. The acceptor to a P-Type semi-conductor material.

18. Synchro indicator systems are used when the indication is required to move.

A, a fraction of the input distance.

B, at the same rate as the input.

C. slower than the input rate.

19.Doping is mixing impurity in semiconductors, it is;

Chemical reaction

Physical reaction

Both chemical and physical reaction

20.In synchro system, synchro generators are found.

Near the quantity being measured.

 In cockpit instruments.

Both

M 5 Digital techniques EIS

1. Give the decimal value of binary 10011.

A. 610 B. 1910 C. 1810

2. Convert hexadecimal value 16 to decimal.

A. 2210 B. 1610 C 1010

3. Convert binary 111111110010 to hexadecimal.

A. EE216 B. FF216 C. 2FE16

4. Convert the following binary number to decimal.

010112

A. 11. B. 23 c. 35

5. The base of the Hexadecimal number system is

A. 6 B. 8 C. 16

6. Name the number system which uses alphabets as well as numerals

A. Binary B. Octal C. Hexadecimal

7. Which out of the following binary numbers is equivalent to decimal number 24?

A. 110111 B. 11000 C. 11111

8. The ASCII code is basically

A. 5 bit code B. 6 bit code C. 7 bit code

9. If a 3-input NOR gate has eight input possibilities, how many of those possibilities will
result in a HIGH output?

A. 1 B. 8 C. 7
10. The output of an OR gate with three inputs, A, B, and C, is LOW when

A. A=0, B=0, C=0.

B. A=0, B=1, C=1

C. A=0, B=1, C=1

11. Output will be a LOW for any case when one or more inputs are zero for a(n):

A. OR gate B. NOT gate C. AND gate

12. If the input to a NOT gate is A and the output is X, then

A. X=A B. X=A' C. X=0

13. Logically, the output of a NOR gate would have the same Boolean expression as a(n):

A. NAND gate immediately followed by an inverter

B. OR gate immediately followed by an inverter

C. AND gate immediately followed by an inverter

14. The output of an exclusive-OR gate is HIGH if

A. All inputs are LOW

B. all inputs are HIGH

C. the inputs are unequal

15. The logic expression for a NOR gate is

A X=A+B B. X=A+B C . X=A+B

16. The logic gate that will have HIGH or "1" at its output when any one (or more) of its inputs
is HIGH is a(n):

A. OR gate B. AND gate C. NOR gate

17. The output of a NAND gate is LOW if

A. all inputs are LOW B. all inputs are HIGH C. any input LOW

18. Which computer bus is used to specify memory locations?

A. Address bus B. Control bus C. Data bus

19. Which of the following is interactive aircraft computer?

A. FMC B. Air data computer C. IRS computer

20. Which of the following aircraft computers can be used as reference computer to other
aircraft systems?

A. FMC B. ADC C. IRS computer

21. Which of the following are basic units of a computer?

A. CPU, input/output unit and memory

B. operand, register, and arithmetic/logic unit (ALU)

C. control and timing, register, and memory

22. Electrostatic sensitive device is a component which can be damaged by common

A. Dynamic charges B. Static charges C. Electronic charges

23. Which of the following is a device that reduces or inhibits electrostatic discharge?

A. Dynamic device B. Static devices C. Anti-static devices

24. A static bag is used for storing or shipping electronic components which may be prone to
damage caused by electrostatic discharge.

A. True B. False

25. Which of the following will provide no ground reference?

A. Metal mat B. Conducting mat C. Insulating mat

26. When transporting ESDS it is important to:

A. Keep them in a conductive bag

B. Remove them and place them in a metal foil

C. Place them in an insulated plastic package.

27.An Electronic Flight Instrument System (EFIS) is a flight deck instrument display system in
which the display technology used is.......?

A. Electronmechanical B. Hydromechanical C. Electronic

28. If the PFD fails, then PFD image is:

A automatically switched to the ND screen

B. is manually switched to the ND screen

C. the flight crew will not be able to get any flight information

29. Secondary engine parameters are displayed on"

A. Upper EICAS display unit B. Lower EICAS display unit C. Navigational display

30. EICAS provides the following information:

A. Engine parameters only

B. Engine parameters and system warnings

C. Engine parameters and navigational data

M 6 part 1 Material
1) Which property of metal is useful in sheet metal that is curved sheet?

A) Malleability B) Ductility C) Conductivity

2) In the SAE/AISI four digit numerical index system, which digit indicates the principal alloying
element?

A) The first B) The second C) The third

3) Which one has free carbon (graphite)?

A) Low carbon steel B) High carbon steel C) cast steel

4) Alloy steel is composed of

A) Iron + carbon B) Iron + carbon + other metal C) Iron + other metal

5) The major alloy element in 2024 alloy is

A) Iron B) Carbon C) Copper

6) Which aircraft metal has the highest strength ratio?

A) Aluminum B) Steel C) Magnesium

7) Which statement is not true? In the heat treatment of aluminum alloy?

A. solution heat treatment is alloyed by precipitation heat treatment

B. precipitation heat treatment is alloyed by solution heat treatment

8. which type of rivet head style is not applicable for aircraft use

A. universal head B. counter sank head C. brazier head

9. which is the easiest method to identify the type of material of rivet

A. by the marking on the head B. by marking a filling test C. by immersing in an acidic

solution

10. which of the following is not a cause for corrosion

A. salt, water and chemical B. dissimilar metal contact C. oil and grease

11. which of the following metal is highly corrosive if unprotected?

A. aluminum B. magnesium C. nickel

12. a composite is made up of layer of fibers and raising then it is

A. sandwiches structures B. monolithic structures C. honeycomb structures

13. which of the PR1440 sealant type is applied with brush

A. type A B. type B C. mixture of type A and type B

14. which stress is not experienced by adhesive joints

A. peel B. tension C. compression

15. in dissimilar metal corrosion, which metallic agent corrode

A. anode B. cathode C. both

16. corrosion attack along the grain boundary resulting from lack of uniformity is

A. dissimilar metal corrosion B. intergranular corrosion C. filiform corrosion

17. distance b/n the two consecutive crests of a thread of crew is known as

A. pitch B. lead C. root

18. if a bolt tightens when it rotated in counter clockwise direction, then it is

 A. right hand thread B. left hand thread C. self-tapping screw

19. class of fit for aircraft bolts is

A. class 1 B. class 2 C. class 3

20. the unthreaded portion of a bolt is referred to as

A. total length B. grip length C. head

21. which safety method is preferred to lock a drilled shank bolt?

A. cotter pin B. safety wire

22. which type is not preffered in areas where the temperature is above 2500c

A. all metal type B. rubber inserted nut C. wing nut

23.which of the ff is non-metallic material?

A. steel B. nickel C. composite

24.in the SAE 4340 alloy what 3 stand for

A. major alloying element B. % of major alloying element C. % of carton in the alloy

25. what must be the minimum carbon for hardening a steel

A. 0.3% B. 0.4% C. 0.5%

26. stainless steel is an alloy of

A. iron and carbon B. iron and copper C. chromium and nickel

27. which of the ff is a pure aluminum?

A. 1100 B. 2024 C. 5056

28. the process of covering an aluminum surface with pure aluminum is

A. anodizing B. cladding C. sulfurizing

29. duration of a metal to kept in furnace at a specified temperature is

A. soaking time B. cooling time C. heating time

30. which type of stress is imposed on a rivet?

 A. compressive B. tensile C. shear

31. the two head styles of a rivet for aircraft uses

A. round and brazier B. countersunk and universal C. universal and square

32. what is the angle of a ‘ V’ thread?

A. 29 deg B. 45 deg C. 60 deg

33. a type of corrosion that develops from left over wash primers is

A. fretting corrosion B. filiform corrosion C. intergranuar corrosion

M 6 part 2 cables & connectors

1 What are the basic elements of electrical circuit at least?

A. Capacitor, Source, power Load device, inductor 5, Resistor

B. Cables/conductor, Transformer

C. Source, power Load device, conductor

2. What are the important performance issues that should be considered when
choosing cables to install in the aircraft systems?

A Current carrying capability

B. Permissible voltage drop

C, Both

3. Which one of the following factors is not considered when choosing the
correct wire?

A. Conductor material, insulation material, type of installation

B. Flexibility of the wire, diameter of the wire, length of the wire

C. Color of the wire, color of the insulation, location of installation

4. Which one Of the following materials one is not commonly used for aircraft
wiring purpose.

A. Silver B. Copper C. Aluminum

5. For Carbon arc tracking to occur:

A. The insulator type can be any type of insulator and short circuit should be
created

B. There should be short circuit or low resistance path between conductors or

conductor and A/C structure, and the insulation material should be polyimide or
polymer type.

C. If the insulating material is polyimide or polymer, it doesn't matter whether

there is short circuit or not.

6. What is the possible consequence of carbon arc tracking?

A. Structural damage B. Initial fire C Both

7. Short circuit created between conductors or conductors and aircraft structure

due to abrasion, chaffing or other mechanical damage can cause:

A. Wet Arc tracking

B. Dry Arc tracking

C. Both

8. Which of the following systems is used to classify and identify wires currently
in our aircrafts?

A. Current rating

B. AWG

C. Voltage rating

9. Which of the following copper wires carries higher current?

 A. AWG 10 B., AWG 0000 C. AWG 14

10. One Circular mil is a unit used to measure the AWG wire size and is
equivalent to cross sectional area of

A. circle having 0.001in diameter

B. A circle having 0.01in diameter

C. A circle having 0.1in diameter

11. Most aircraft wiring that is required to carry large amounts of current for
long distances is made up of:

A. Copper wire B: Aluminium wire C. Stainless steel wire

12. Which of the following is not true about cables in aircraft systems?

A. AWG system is used to select the right conductor size

B. AWG 8 has higher resistance than AWG 6 for given equal length

C.The maximum current carrying capability increases as the wire gauge number
decreases

13. What is the rule of thumb used to replace a given gage Aluminum wire?

A. 4 gage number lesser copper wire

B. 2 gage numbers lesser copper wire

C. 2 gage numbers higher copper wire

14. In which of the following situations is a permissible voltage drop in the wires
higher as compared to each other?

A. Continuous operation

B. Intermittent operation

C. It is the same
 15. Which of the following cable classifications is very flexible and suitable for
soldering in aircraft systems?

A. Airframe cabl B. Interconnect cable C. Equipment wire

16. A cable type which has a center core conductor then an insulator, a second a
wire braid metal shield conductor and an outer insulator jacket is called.

A. Multi-core cable B. Data bus cable C.Co-axial cable

17. The Engine Igniter leads are the common application of

A. High Tension cable B. Co-axial cable C. Multi-core cable

18. Which of the following provision is not considered while storing and
handling aircraft cables?

A.Cables are supplied on plywood or plastic drums

B. Cables must not be stored near chemicals, solvents or oils

C. Cable ends don't need to be sealed

19. For individual single or multi-core the minimum bend radius should be
diameter of the cable. the outside

A. 6 times B. 10 times C. 15 times

20. To prevent radio interference, wires that carry AC or pulsating DC are often
shielded.

A. true B. false

21. Which of the following is not the contact point of a connector/

A. Keyway B. Socket C. Plug

22. Method to prevent inadvertent mis-mating of similar connectors mounted

on the same panel.

A Shell B. Contact locking device C. Keyway

23. As the shell size is higher:

A. The number of contacts becomes higher

B. The contact size becomes higher

C. The size of the connector becomes smaller

24. Which one of the following is not a connector electrical characteristic?

A. Insulation resistance, current rating, insulation dielectric breakdown,

operating temperature

B. Stowage plug, protective cups, cable clamps

C. Both

25. The formation of satisfactory crimped joint depends on:

A. Size of conductor, crimp barrel selection

B. Crimp tool selection

C. Both

M 7 part 1 Occupational health and safety

1) Occupational health and safety of work place with factor those affect

A) Safety of electrical equipment

B) Employee health and tool

C) Safety of equipment and tools

2) State of minimum acceptable risk

A) Health B) safety C) hazard

3) Sign prescribed by specific behavior A) Prohibition B) warning C) mandatory4) Which of the

following sign round shape with black pictogram on white background and red diagonal line A)
Prohibition B) mandatory C) warning6) If a marking on fire extinguisher has star shape to which class
of fire suitable

A) class B B) class C C) class D 7) the most common confined area hazard in an aircraft during
maintenance activity is:

A, cargo compartment

B, fuel tank compartment

C, main electronic compartment

9, which type of hazard in maintenance work that body positions and working conditions put strain on
your body A, work organization hazard

B, ergonomics hazard

C, physical hazard10) Which types of fires extinguisher effective for class A/B/C type

A) H2O B) CO2 C) Halon

11) Which type of fire extinguisher used in class D fire

A) Water B) dry powder C) CO2

12) Marking on fire extinguisher indicates

A) Type of fire extinguisher

B) means of expelling

C) Suitable of class of fire

13) Water extinguisher are the best type to use class A fire but should never be used on which class fire
A) Class B B) class C C) class C & D

14) Among four recognized class of hazard that will not result injury to people or serious damage to
equipment A) Negligible B) marginal C) warning

15) Work place injury, illness, death impose cost up on

A) Employees B) community C) both

16) Hazard is a potential cause to injury damage and loss of material

A) True B) false

17) The most common injury in the hospitality of industry

 A) FALL B) being fall by object C) both18) AWG system number used designated electrical wire size
the number assigned size is related

A) Cross sectional

B) combined resist and current carrying capacity

C) Current carry capacity

19) Which cable connector is better in aircraft?

A) Crimped B) soldered C) both

20) Aluminum is more conductivity than copper

A) True B) false

21) Which types of cable can be affected by EMF INTERFERENCE?

A) Shielded cable B) twisted cable C) coaxial cable

22) Most conductive material used in aircraft

A) Copper B) tin C) aluminum

23) Which types of fire extinguisher is used in maintenance area of aircraft

A) Class A/B/C B) class B/D C) all

24) In which way routing of coaxial cable differ from the routing of electrical cable

A) coaxial cable routes parallel with the rips and stringles

B) coaxial cable routes directly C) coaxial cable routes right angle with the rips and strangles

M 7 part 2 Engineering Drawing

M 7 part 3 manual & Documentation

1. The mandatory document provided by regulatory body is

A. Service bulletin

B. Airworthiness directives

C. Advisory circulars
2. In which document are aircraft operational limits ( such as speed limisetc,) found?

A. Supplemental type certificateB. Type certificate data sheet C. Airworthiness directives

3. What is devised to standardize the technical data and maintenance activities on large aircraft?

A. ISO numbering

B. FAA numbering

C. ATA numbering system

4. What is published to notify A/C owners of unsafe condition and prescribe conditions under which
product may continue to be operated and are regulation & must be complied ?

A. Service bulletin
B. Airworthiness directives
C. Advisory circulars

5. What code is established by law to provide for the safe and orderly conduct of flight operations to
prescribe airmen privileges and limitations?

A. Code of federal regulation

B. Code of aviation regulation

C. Code of aerospace regulation

6. Document issued by FAA approving a product(aircraft,engine,or propeller)modification is

A. TSDS

B. Supplemental type certificate

C. Aircraft registration number

7. The first element in ATA chapter indicates A. SectionB. Major chapter

C. Sub section

8. Who is responsible to assign the first element

A. The operator B. Manufacturer C. ATA

9. The second element in ATA chapter indicates

A. Section B. Major chapte C. Sub section

10. Who is responsible to assign the fourth digit of the second element
A. The operator B. manufacturer C. ATA

11. Which one of the following is true

A. Double zeros represent information relevant to single subsystem/subject

B. Double zeros represent information relevant to whole subsystem /subject

C. Double zeros represent information relevant to some subsystem /subject

12. Which maintenance document will help you in finding the exact hardware part number?

A. AMM B. IPC C. SRM

13. Which diagram gives you a graphic representation of an assembly or a system?A. Schematic diagram

B. Block diagram

C. Sketch

14. Periodic inspections that have to be done after a certain amount of time or usage is termed as

A. preventive B. Routine check

15. The mandatory document provided by regulatory body is

A. Service bulletin

B.Airworthiness dirctives

C. Advisory circulars

16. In which document are aircraft operational limits ( such as speed limisetc,) found?

A.Supplemental type certificate

B.Type certificate data sheet

C. Airworthiness directives

17. What is devised to standardize the technical data and maintenance activities on large aircraft?

A. ISO numbering

B. FAA numbering

C. ATA numbering system

18. What is published to notify A/C owners of unsafe condition and prescribe conditions under which
product may continue to be operated and are regulation & must be complied ?
A. Service bulletin

B. Airworthiness directives

C. Advisory circulars

19. What code is established by law to provide for the safe and orderly conduct of flight operations to
prescribe airmen privileges and limitations?

A. Code of federal regulation

B. Code of aviation regulation

C. Code of aerospace regulation

20. Document issued by FAA approving a product(aircraft,engine,or propeller)modification is

A. TSDS

B. Supplemental type certificateC. Aircraft registration number 21. The first element in ATA chapter
indicates

A. Section B. Major chapter C. Sub section

22. Who is responsible to assign the first element A. The operator B. Manufacturer C. ATA

23. The second element in ATA chapter indicates

A. Section B. Major chapter C. Sub section

24. Who is responsible to assign the fourth digit of the second element

A. The operator B. manufacturer C. ATA

M 7 part 5 EWIS
1.what is the Instrument that we use to measure current?

A) ammeter B, voltmeter C, Ohmmeter

2. what method is used to extend the rage of ammeter?

A. connect the Resister across the meter B, connect the Resister in series with the ammeter

C, Remove Resister from the Meter

3.which test equipment needs its own supply?

A. Ammeter B. ohmmeter C. wattmeter

4. Resistor to extend voltmeter is called?

A. multiplier B, shunt C. Parallel Resistor

5. which test equipment need its own power supply.

A. Ammeter B. Voltmeter C. Ohmmeter

6. ohmmeter has to be connected ________________with the Load.

A, series B. parallel c, Energized ckt

7. we should start from the lower range when we measure ammeter.

A. True B.False

8. A test equipment used to measure every big resistance like Insulation Resistance is called A,
wattmeter B. megger c, Frequency meter

9, what kind of Ac value do the AC voltmeter read when connected to measure in a ckt with AC power
supply? A, Root mean square B, Average c, peak to peak

10, when we measure Insulation Resistance what does infinity reading indicate?

A, The Insulation is normal B, the insulation is defective & cannot be used

11, when ohmmeter reads OL, what does it indicates?

A, the reading is beyond the equipment Range capability

B, it means the resistance will be OK

C, the reading is within the equipment range capacity

12, What is continuity testing?

A, its current measurement

B, it’s the confirmation that there is no open b/n tho points in aconductor

C, it’s attest done to make sure that there is continuous voltage supplay

13, when we do a bonding check we actually measure

A, current B, voltage C, Resistance

14, what is metallic bonding in A/c?

A, method of keeping A/C metallic structure at equal potential

B, mechanical security b/n two structures

 C, it’s lightening protection

15, where does braided bonding cord used in A/C?

A, b/n moving parts B, parts subjected to vibration c, its use in both cases

16, A process where deliberate distortion of terminal shank is used to secure the terminal in the
conductor is called A, striping B, crimping C, sleeving

17, what is the Result in failure to use the correct approved tool in wire maintanace?

A, Reduction in current carrying capability B, Reduction in current carrying capability C,both can
result

18, what is the use of conduits in electrical wiring?

A, mechanical protection B, electromagnetic interference protection C, lightening protection

19, what type of sleeving is used as a general purpose wire sleeving?

A, flexible vinyl B, silicon rubber C, Nylon

20. crimped splice can be used on multi core cable. A. True B. False

21, which of the following of crimp joint requirement?

A, joints must be staggered B, any tool can be used to crimp c, it is not for crimps get inspect

22, what is the minimum separation in stamping wire identification

A,15inch B, 100inch C, not required

23, which of the following is internal contamination source to electrical cables

A, Hydraullic Fluid B, Rain C, Mud

24, when wires are bounded without external protection it called

A, Open Wire B, closed wire C, wire in conduct

25, How much separation is required b/n cables & lines carrying fuel oxygen

A, 15 cm B, 100cm C, ½cm

26, what is the use of drain hole in a conductor?

A, Prevent electromagnetic interference

B, prevent condensed moisture from running along cables

 C, it is mechanical protection of electric cables

27, what is the use of approved circular grommet in wire protection

A, it protects electrical cable from chaffing B, it is a clamp

C, it is a wire insulation28. a gas lines and fluid lines are part of aircraft in which wire claps are
installed.

A. True B.False

29, which EASA EWIS module deals about documentation?

A, module A B, Module B C,Module C

30, which EASA EWIS module deals about wire?

A, module A B, Module E C,Module C

M 8 AERODYNAMICS
1. The property of air that it “wets” or trends to adhere to any surface over which it flows can
expressed as

A. Humidity B. Viscosity C. Density

2. Which of the following is NOT true about standard atmosphere? (ISA)

A. It gives meaningful a/c performance specification

B. Used as reference for pressure altitude definition

C. Temporary and pressure values are assumed to be 15C and 760 inches of mercury

3. Which of the following is NOT Correct?

A. Compared to warm air, cold air is less dense for a given volume

B. The atmospheric layer closest to earth where all weather changes take place is called the
stratosphere.

C. Composition of permanent gases 78% N2 21% O2 and about less than <1% argon

4. Bernoulli’s principle state that the total energy of a particle in motion is constant at all points on its
path is__________

A. Steady flow B. Turbulent flow C. All air flow types

5. Which of the following is NOT true about flow air?

A. Laminar flow is with minimum of turbulence

B. Laminar air flow is an air flow in which the air passes over the surface in smooth layers

C. A laminar flow is a flow characterized by turbulence

6. AOA (Angle of attack) is:-

A. The angle between the mean camber line and the relative wind

B. The angle between the air foil and the relative wind

C. The angle between the horizontal planes passing through the longitudinal axis and the

cord of the air foil?

7. The phenomena that air is forced down by aerodynamic action below & behind the wing (airfoil) of
an airplane is

A. Angle of incidence B. Downwash C. Up wash

8. Which of the following is INCORRECT about stagnation point?

A. Is located close to the leading edge of a wing

B. Its position moves with angle of attack

C. A point at which flow is splitting up & velocity reached to its maximum

9. Which of the following is correct?

A. Center of pressure and center of gravity are located at the same point on the chord of the given
airfoil

B. The point on the chord line of an airfoil where all of the aerodynamic forced are considered to be
concentrated is called center of gravity.

C. The point on the chord line an air foil where all of the aerodynamic force are considered to be
concentrated is called center of pressure.

10. Which of the following is not true?

A. Wash in is the condition in the rigging of an airplane in which a wing is twisted so that its angle of
incidence greater at the tip than the root

B. Aspect ratio is found by dividing the square of chord by the wing area.

C. Symmetrical airfoil is an airfoil that has the same shape on both sides of its center line.
D. Yaw is the rotation of an aircraft about its vertical axis.

11. Wings, stabilizers, aileron, rudder can be treated as airfoil.

A. True B. False

12. When the critical angle of attack is exceeded an a/c will stall at the same

A. Air speed regard less of the attitude with the relation to the horizon

B. Angle of attack & attitude with the relation to horizon

C. Angle of attack regardless of the attitude with the relation to horizon

13. What are the three planes of an a/c movement?

A. Pitching, lateral, & rolling

B. Pitching, rolling & yawing

C. Yawing, longitudinal & rolling

14. What are the three axis about which an aircraft can move?

A. Pitching, lateral & longitudinal

B. Yawing, longitudinal & normal

C. Longitudinal, lateral & normal

15. Which three terms describe static stability?

A. Positive, neutral & negative

B. Stable, rolling & unstable

C. Yawing, neutral & satble

16. The basic force involved in an a/c is produced by the turbo jet engine or propeller and the counter
acting force for the weight are ____&_____ are stable.

A. Drag/trust B. Thrust/weight C. Thrust/drag

17. Lateral control is basically performed by

A. Ailerons B. rudders C. Elevators

18. Which of the following is true?

A. The angle of attack(AOA) at which the air no longer flows smoothly over the top of the wing and the
wing stalls is called maximum angle of incidence

B. The wing design in which greater angle of incidence at which the root of the wing than the tip is
maintained called washout

C. As the angle of attack increase, the location of cp is unchanged

19. If CG is forward of the CP there is a natural tendency for the aircraft to want pitch

A. Nose down B. Nose up C No change

20. L/D I ratio is maximum when

A. Induced & parasitic drag are the same

B. Induced drag is greater than parasitic

C. Parasitic drag is greater than induced

21. In differential aileron system the aileron moving upward to begin turn travels _______than the
aileron moving down ward.

A. Greater B. Lesser C. The same

22. Which of the following is NOT true about spoilers?

A. Hinged surfaces located ahead of the flap

B. Can be used in lateral control (flight spoilers)

C. Basically designed for pitching control

23. A horizontal tail surfaces that combines the function of the stability and elevator is called__

A. Elevons B. Ruddervator C. Stabilator

24. Dutch roll____

A. Is the safest condition for the air craft once it happened

B. A coupled longitudinal/directional oscillation

C. A result of two oscillations (roll & yaw)

25. Name the three forces acting on gliding aircraft

A. Force, weight, lift

B. Drag, weight, thrust

C. Drag, weight, lift

26. Which of the following is NOT true?

A. Glide ratio is the number of feet a glider travels horizontally in….. for every foot of altitude lost

B. A glide is the descent with the thrust equal to maximum

C. Glide ratio= (lift/drag)

27. In sweep back wings

A. Wing tips washout

B. Wing tips wash in

C. Wing tips washout for some parts & wash in for others parts of…..

28. Which of the following is NOT true?

A. Fitness ratio is the ratio between wing span & max. Thickness of the airfoil

B. Aspect ratio is the ratio between is the square of the span & the wing area

C. Fitness ratio is the ratio between maximum thickness of the airfoil & the chord

29. for the above formulae which of the following is TRUE?

A. S stands for total span of the wing/airfoil

B. Increase the velocity of the aircraft decreases the corresponding coefficient of the lift or drag

C. When the speed of aircraft is double (others constant) lift forced doubles

30.Ratio of actual load the acting on the wing to the gross weight of the airplane is called____.

A. Load B. Load factor C. Coefficient of the lift

31. Vortex generators mounted on the wings improves flight characteristics at_____ speed, but those on
the empennage improve at ______ speed

A. High/low B. Low/high C. Low/low

32. One of the following is NOT considered as high lift device:

A. Leading edge flap B. Slats C. Ailerons

33. Among the two basic types of drag (induced & parasitic drag) Parasitic drag is sub divided into three
types. These are
A. Form drag, induced drag, parasitic drag

B. Form drag, interference drag, skin friction drag

C. Form drag, induced drag, total drag

34. which of the following is wrong paring / set with respect to the basic control surface, associated
airplane movement and axis of the respective relation

A. stabilizer, pitch, longitudinal

B. elevator, roll, longitudinal

C. rudder, yaw, vertical

35. AOA is the angle b/n

A. the main chamber line and the relative wind

B. the airfoil (chord of airfoil) and the relative wind

C. the horizontal plane passing through the longitudinal axis and the chord of airfoil

36.w/c of the following is INCORRECT about stagnation point

A. is located close to the leading edge of the airfoil

B. its position moves if the AOA is changed

C. a point at w/c flow is splitting and velocity reached to its maximum

37. the total energy of fluid (incompressible flow) remain constant when it moves from one point to
another the principle that addressed this property is

A. bernoullis principle

B. coanda

C. newtons law of inertia

38. w/c of the ff is correct

A. cp and cg are located at the same point on the chord of a given airfoil

B. the point on the chord line of an airfoil where all aerodynamic force are considered to be
concentrated is called cg

C. the point on the chord line of an airfoil where all aerodynamic force are considered to be
concentrated is called cp
39. w/c of the ff is NOT TRUE about washout in wing design?

A. angle of incidence is greater than at the root of the wing that at the tip

B. angle of incidence is greater than at the tip of the wing that at the root

C. it is applicable in sweepback wing configuration to make the root stall first

40.what are the force acting on a gliding a/c with low engine power

A. force, weight, lift

B. weight, lift, drag, thrust

C. drag, weight, lift

41. how does a glider pilot decreases the air speed of the a/c

A. lower the nose by pushing the stick forward

B. raise the nose by pulling the stick back

C. lower the nose by pulling the stick back

42. which of the ff is not true

A. load factor is unity in straight and level flight

B. the steeper the bank angle the greater the G-force feet

C. in the bank turn of 60 degrees, the pilot experiences 2.5G force

43. which of the is true

A. the greater the dihedral angle is, the less lift produced by the wing

B. the angle of incidence of a wing is angle b/n the relative wind and wind chord

C. the critical AOA is equal to the AOA at which the total drug is minimum ( where the

parasitic drug equals induced drug)

44. which of the ff is not true

A. vortex generator and wing fences are used to improve air / boundary flow

B. spoilers can be used in lateral control ( flight spoilers)

C. spoilers are basically designed for pitching control

45. if CG is AFT of the CP, there is a natural tendency for the aircraft to pitch

A. nose down B. nose up C. no change

M 11 part 1 Turbine aeroplanes aerodynamics & structure

Airframe

01.Which one of the following machine is designed to be supported in the air by the dynamic reaction
with the air?

Balloon Airship Glider

02. The following are purpose of fuselage except

Provide space for cargo & passengers

Provide lift

Serve as an attachment point for wings & landing gear

03. In which construction are longerones used as the primary load carrying members?

Truss construction

Full monocoque

Semi-monocoque

04. If the control stick of an aircraft with properly rigged flight controls, is moved rearward and to the
left, the right aileron will move?

down and the elevator will move up.

down and the elevator will move down.

up and the elevator will move down.

05. One of the following landing gear configurations do not allow more forceful application of the brakes
without nosing over?

Tricycle

Conventional

Tandom

06. During flight, which type of basic stress is exposed on the upper surface of the wing?
 Bending

Compression

Tension

07. A tab which has separate control from the cockpit is?

Trim tab

Servo tab

Balance tab

08. Airframe is basic assembled structure of

Balloon

Airplane

Airship

09 Which one of the following structural members is not found in full monocoque fuselages?

Longerons

frame

Skin

10.Which one of the following is not supported in the air by the dynamic reaction of its structure with
the air?

Sea plane

Airship

Amphibian

11.Which one of the following needs additional support?

A. Swept back wing

B. Cantilever wing

C. Semi-cantilever wing

12. How is a smooth airflow maintained in the gap between the stationary trailing edge of a wing and
the movable control surface(s)
A. By use of Gap seals

B. by use of balance panels

C. By use of wing fences

13. A fuselage construction where the skin carries all the loads without supporting structure is called

Truss type construction

Pure monocoque construction

Semi monocoque construction

14.The Pratt truss type of fuselage construction is known for?

A. Having longerons, diagonal & vertical members

B. Not having vertical members

C. Not having diagonal member

15. One of the following landing gear configurations do not allow more forceful application of the brakes
without nosing over?

A. Tricycle

B. Conventional

C. Tandom

16. Redundant systems are found in one of the following design type.

A. Safelife

B. Tertiary structure

C. Fail-safe

17. Which combination control surface functions as a rudder and elevator?

A. Ruddervator

B. Elevon

C. Stabilator

18. In a semi monocoque construction, which one of the following is used in attachment points of wings
and landing gears?
A. Longerons Bulkheads Formers

19.Which control surface makes the aircraft rotate about the vertical axis?

A. Aileron

B. Elevator

C. Rudder

20. Which of the following is a width measurement to the right or to the left of the center line of the
aircraft?

A. Butt line

B. Datum line

C. Water line

21. A Structural component that doesn't carry flight load is?

A. Fairings B. Landing gear C. Wing

M 11 part 2 electrical power & light

1.In parallel operation of generators Equalizer circuit operates by

Increasing the output of low generator and decreasing the output of high
generator until they are equal

Decreasing the output of the high generator until it is equal to the low
generator

Increasing the output of low generator until it is equal to the high generator

2. Which of the following is false about three phase AC generation

A. The phase difference is 120 o

B. All the armature wires are spaced 1200 with each other

C. The phase difference is 90 o

3. What is intermittent load

A. loads supplied from non-essential bus

B. operated for two minutes or less and are then turned off

C. operated continuously during flight

4. ______ consists of a low melting point fusible element or link, enclosed in a

glass or ceramic casing

A. Circuit breaker

B. Fuse

C. Switch

5. ______ Lights are intended to provide side and forward lighting during taxi
and when turning off the runway

Runway turnoff

Landing

Anti-collusion

6. lights is to provide the necessary illumination for cargo handling and for
performing all service activities

Taxi and service

Logo light

cargo and service compartment

7. What is the purpose of wing illumination light?

protects ice formation

use the wing lights to inspect the wings and slats for any ice accretion

it is an illumination for aircraft logo

8. Which power production is large scale with regard to armature and field
design?

stationary field and rotating armature

stationary armature and stationary field

stationary armature and rotating field

9. What is phase voltage Value in star winding?

Voltage measured between neutral and one phase

Voltage measured between neutral and neutral

Voltage measured between two phases

10. Which bus power system is available in modern aircraft

Split parallel bus

Split bus

Parallel bus

11. Which of the following is not true about power distribution requirements

Free from in its effects on other parts of the aircraft

Protected from damage

produces maximum possibility for electrical shock

12. IDG (integrated drive generator) consisits of

Constant speed drive(CSD) and generator

TRU and generator

CSD and TRU

13. Decreasing the current in the field coil of a DC generator will

Decrease the output

Increase the output

Increase the output frequency

14. What happens if a transformer is used at a frequency higher than that for
which it was designed,

there is no hazard at all

the primary current will be reduced

There is a risk of excessive heat generation at the primary windings and

subsequent burn out.

15. Which unit takes the variable speed output from engine and hydro-
mechanically produces a constant output RPM

BPCU(bus power control unit)

GCU (generator control unit)

CSD (constant speed drive)

16. loads are those which can be isolated in an in-flight emergency for load
shedding purposes, and are connected to D.C. and A.C. busbars, as appropriate,
supplied from a generator

Essential

Non-Essential

Vital

17. What is the advantage of using AC power on aircraft?

Large power demand on aircraft is satisfied

both can be answers

less cost of transmission

18. What kind of circuits do you expect in the TRU unit

Inverter and rectifier

Converter and transformer

Transformer and rectifier

19. Which exterior lights are considered as attention getters?

Strobe light

Position light

Service light

20. Taxi lights are found mostly on ______ of aircraft

On wing tips

Nose landing gear strut

M 11 part 3 Basic instrument & avionics system

What the three instrument of that use gyroscope

Gyro horizon

Directional Gyro

Heading indicator Gyro

….………pump use lubricating oil

Wet pumps

The venture system has an integrated pump(T/F) False

Which drive system produces high rotor speeds (pneumatic/ electric)

Electric

Which type of pumps is used for positive pressure system ?

Dry pumps

angular change plane of rotation of a Gyro is called

Precession

Stationary gyro appear to veer due to earth Rotation This is called ?

Apparent drift

Gimbals error is more pronounced in _____ axis gyros.

Horizontal

The bigger the radius of gyration, the higher the rigidity. (T/F) True

What is gimbals lock?

Spin axis parallel to one of the other axes

The background sky in gyro horizons is attached to its _____ .

Outer gimbals

What is the purpose of the dither motor in RLGs?

To prevent lock in

Which gyro technology is implemented inside a chip?

MEMS

The modern solid-state gyro combined with other systems is called _____.

AHRS

Mechanical gyro is superior to RLGs. (T/F) False

The a/c symbol is attached to the case. (T/F) True

Why is there no erection mechanism in turn and bank indicator?

Centered by spring
Piston and dashpot is used for _______.

damping

In a coordinated left turn the ball is _____. (centered/far left/far right)

Centered

In turn coordinators, gyro is canted by ____˚ . 30

___ is used to increase instrument sensitivity.

Rate adjustment screw

The air bleed hole size is adjustable. (T/F) true

Pitot static
What is the lowest layer of the atmosphere?

Troposphere

What is the standard MSL temp. value?

15oc

What is the advantage of using standard atmosphere?

Simpler measurement mechanicims

What is the formula for measuring atm. pressure on a mercury barometer?

Patm=Hp

What are the three main indication instruments of pitot-static measurement?

Airspeed, altimeter,vertical speed

What is the formula for total pressure sampled by the pitot probe?

P+1/2pv2

The alternate source of static pressure for pressurized a/c is cabin air. (T/F) False

Why connect static ports on opposite sides?

To reduce attitude error

Compass
What is the first direction instrument inside the a/c?

Magnetic compass

What is the advantage of putting the magnetic compass remotely?

Reduce a/c magnetism that interferes with reading (reduce deviation error)

Magnetometers are obsolete technology. (T/F)False

To compensate for liquid temperature changes, a compass uses _____.

Diaphragm or bellows

What is the purpose making compass mounting pendulous?

To reduce dip error

What do you do to correct for deviation errors?

Compass swinging

Liquid is used to dampen movement. (T/F) True

At which headings is acceleration error maximum?

East and west

What is the only electrical component inside magnetic compasses?

Lighting bulb

01. Current aircraft----- gyroscope

02. The first gyroscopic instrument in the cockpit

M 11 part 4 Airframe system

01.What is the temporary disease caused by lack of oxygen

Anoxia Decompression sickness Hypoxia

02.Which of the following is a function of the fuel oil heat exchanger on a turbojet engine

Emulsifies the oil

Increases fuel temperature

Aerates the fuel

03.Kerosene is used as turbine engine fuel because

Kerosene has very high volatility which aids in ignition and lubrication

Kerosene does not contain any water

Kerosene has more heat energy per gallon and lubricates fuel system components

04.The valve which is used to drain water and sediment and drain trapped fuel after de-
fueling is

Refueling valve

Defueling valve

Drain valve

05.Which type of fuel is widely used in Gas turbine engines

Gasoline Jet A-1 Aviation gasoline

06.Which component in the fuel system delivers a continuous supply of fuel at the proper
pressure at all times during engine operation

Ejector fuel pump

Engine-driven fuel pump

Electrically driven booster pump

07.Which units in the vapor cycle cooling system separate the high-pressure side from the
low-pressure side

Condenser and evaporator

Condenser and evaporator

Compressor and receiver

08.What is the steering effect of pressing the right brake pedal on the airplane

Turns the airplane to the left

Stops the airplane

Turns the airplane to the right

09.Which of the following components is used to store hydraulic power

Accumulator

Gear pump

Reservoir

10.Spar valves are used for

Regulating flow of fuel

Controls the refueling of fuels

Shutoff fuel flow to the engine

11.Aircraft pressurization is mainly controlled by

Negative pressure relief valve

Outflow valve

Positive pressure relief valve

12.Superchargers are different from Turbochargers in that

Both are driven by Exhaust gas

Superchargers are driven by engine accessories and Turbochargers are driven by Exhaust gas

Turbochargers are driven by engine accessories and Superchargers are driven by Exhaust gas

13.Steel vanes are used in

Wet type vane pumps

High pressure compressors

Dry type vane pumps

14.Which one of the following cooling systems is an open-type cooling system

Air cycle cooling system

Combustion cooling system

Vapor cycle cooling system

15.Identify the component which is used to connect the landing gear to the fuselage

Reaction link

Torque link

Trunnion

16.Which one of the following statements is NOT true

Fuel system delivers a continuous supply of fuel at the proper pressure at all times during engine
operation

Each fuel system must supply fuel to an engine independently from the fuel system supplying fuel to
another engine

All fuel except unusable fuel should NOT be available throughout flight

17.The shock strut reduces landing impact by

Reducing the downward velocity

Reducing the aircraft weight

Increasing the impact time

18.Whenever the aircraft is on ground

The ground lock pins should be inserted

Ground power should be connected

The gear door should remain open

19.The purpose of the low limit valve in the air cycle cooling system is

To control the temperature of the cabin

To maintain airflow through a Heat exchanger

To prevent Ice formation in the water separator

20.Pneumatic power for emergency brake operation uses

Low pressure system

Medium pressure system

High pressure system

21.Which of the following gear type has better shock absorbing capability

Shock chord

Spring gear

Air oleo shock strut

22.Which of the following valves is used to order the operation of the landing gear and
landing gear doors

Sequence valve

Shuttle valve

Hydraulic fuse

23.One of the following brake systems has no connection to the aircraft main hydraulic
system

Power brake system

Independent brake system

Power boosted brake system

24.What is the advantage of pneumatic power as compared to hydraulic power

Pneumatic force is more controllable than hydraulic force

High pneumatic pressure is built with no energy loss

Air is freely available in the atmosphere

25.If a force is applied on a confined fluid, the pressure in the fluid

Depends on the volume of the fluid in the container

Varies with the height of the fluid column

Equal at every point and it acts perpendicular to the wall

26.The Addition of water into conditioned air is known as

Water separation

Water infiltration

Ozone conversion
27.At the outlet of the evaporator in the vapor cycle cooling system the state of the
refrigerant is

High-pressure, Low-temperature liquid

High-pressure, High-temperature vapor

Low-pressure, low-temperature vapor

28.The conventional landing gear arrangement offers

Good runway visibility from the flight deck

Better propeller ground clearance

More forceful brake application advantage

29.Which of the following fluids are used with natural rubber seals

Vegetable base fluids

Mineral base fluids

Phosphate ester base fluids

30.Double acting hand pumps discharge fluid at

A.Every third stroke B. Every second stroke C. Every stroke

M 11 part 5 Auxiliary system

1. What is the purpose of ice and rain protection?

A. To prevent the craft from flying in to ice and rain condition

B. To keep passenger comfort at all weather condition

C. To prevent ice buildup which may affect the safety and performance of the aircraft

2. Which of the following is not possible adverse effect of ice and rain condition?

A: loss of electrical power

B. jamming of controls

C. loss of visibility

3. What is the cause for ice in the atmosphere?

 A coldness acting on moisture in the air

B. high speed of aircraft

C. precipitation of moisture

4. Which detecting system detect icing condition?

A. pitot probes

B. hot rod ice detector

C. Temprature/moiture probes

5. What is de-icing system?

A. a system that aware the pilot the formation ice on critical aircraft structures

B. a system that remove ice formed on critical aircraft structure

C. a system that prevent ice formation on critical aircraft structure

6. How does thermal electric anti-ice system work?

A. by blowing hot air from engine compressor over components to be anti-iced

B. electric current that will heat the part component to be anti-iced is made to pass through it

C. electric current is made to flows through an integral conductive element that produces heat

7. What is the typical used in a propeller de-ice system?

A. propeller does not need de-icing since high speeed rotation of the propellers does not allow ice
formation

B. pneumatic inflatable boots

C. Electrically heated boots

8. Why only aircrafts with large turbine engines use thermal anti-ice system?

A. aircrafts with smaller engine will not be able to supply the required hot air quantity

B. aircrafts with smaller engine does not fly in to-icing condition

C. aircrafts with smaller engine need only de-icing|

9. What is anti-icing system?

A. a system that aware the pilot the formation ice on critical aircraft structures
 B. a system that aware the pilot an icing condition exist

C. a system that prevent ice formation on critical aircraft structure

10. why should one NEVER operate the windscreen wipers on a dry screen?

A. The wipers may be damaged

B. windscreens may be scratched

C. wiper motor may be damaged

11. How is water delivered to different water access points?

A. by gravity force]

B. by compressed air

C. by water pump

12. Which of the following is not correct about the aircraft water system?

A. The water system supplies water to cock pit window wipers

B. The water is supplied to water faucets in the galleys and lavatories

C. The water system supplies water to the water heaters and vacuum toilet units

13. Which of the following is not drained overboard via drain masts?

A. waste water from the lavatory

B. waste water from toilets

C. waste water from galley sinks

14. How is Liquid flush toilets waste handled?

A. collected in tank under each toilet bowl

B. waste is drained overboard via drain mast

C. toilet waste is sucked in to collection tank by vacuum action

15. Hearing noises from the vacuum toilet flush valve indicates that,

A. The flush valve does not close properly

 B. collection tank full

C. low water pressure

16. Demand type oxygen system is designed for:

A. Passengers

B. Cockpit crew

C. Cabin crew

17. After the passenger masks fall what starts the flow of O2?

A. Pulling the masks

B. Putting the mask on one's face

C. A switch on the PSU

18. The purpose of the discharge indication disc is to:

A. Show if the 02 system is contaminated

B. Show low pressure in the system

C. Show if overpressure occurred in the system

19. During replacement of O2 system components more emphasis is given to:

A. Strength of materials

B. Cleanliness

C. Size of materials

20. During hotter weather to what level is the oxygen bottle filled?

A. Higher B. Lower C. Same

21. Which ice detector type is the most modern

A. Vibrating Rod Ice Detector

B. Pressure Ice Detector

C. Torque Ice Detector

22. What type of components use Thermal Electric Anti-Icing System

A. Wing leading edge surfaces

B. Horizontal leading edge surfaces

C. Data probes

23. What is the purpose of gray water system?

A. To supply portable water to galley

B. To supply drinking water to passenger

C. To remove waste water from galley lavatory and door seals

24. Most Modern Aircrafts use ___________ oxygen system for passengers.

A. Gaseous B. Chemical C. Liquid

25. Most Modern Aircrafts use ________ oxygen system for cockpit Crew.

A. Gaseous B. Chemical C. Liquid

M 11 part 6 IMA cabine info system

01. In typical B787 aircraft, which function prioritizes data sent to the flight
compartment/cockpit printer?

Central Maintenance Computing Function (CMCF)

Flight Deck Communication Function (FDCF)

Data Communication Management Function (DCMF)

02. Which of the following OIS systems services is provided to the passengers?

Electronic logbook forms

Minimum Equipment List (MEL) e-document

Worldwide e-mail and Internet services

03. Which subsystems is considered as cabin core system in a typical A350

aircraft?
Cabin Video Monitoring system (CVMS)

In-Flight Entertainment (IFE) system

Cabin Intercommunication Data System (CIDS)

04. In a typical A350 aircraft, which Cabin Intercommunication Data System

(CIDS) components are used to host cabin systems application softwares and
control the whole cabin functions?

CIDS Directors

Flight Attendant Panels (FAPs)

Decoder/Encoder Units

05. In a typical Boeing 787 aircraft, which system is used to process and monitor
airplane's systems fault Information and supply maintenance messages?

Multi-Function Display (MFD)

Central Maintenance Computing System (CMCS)

Airplane Condition Monitoring System (ACMS)

06. Which of the following is TRUE about manufacturer's approaches on IMA?

It differs for both Boeing & Airbus

It is the same for both Boeing & Airbus

Both Airbus & Boeing didn't apply IMA concepts

07. Which part of the OMS systems is used to monitor aircraft systems data?

Central Maintenance System (CMS)

Data Loading Systems

Aircraft Condition Monitoring System (ACMS)

08. Which aircraft systems replaces numerous separate processors and LRU with
fewer, more centralized processing units?

Onboard maintenance Systems (OMS)

Onboard Information system (OIS)

Integrated Modular Avionics (IMA)

09. Where will be the cockpit door surveillance system videos displayed for the
pilots?

On the Flight attendance panels (FAPS)

On onboard maintenance terminal (OMT)

On the System Display of the Control & Display System (CDS)

10. Which display system components are NOT used to access e-

documentations used for the maintenance crews in a typical A350 aircraft?

Electronic Flight Bag (EFB) laptops

Onboard Maintenance Terminal (OMT)

OIS display units

11. Which cabinet is NOT used to host the OIS applications and related
databases (e-documentations) in a typical A380 aircraft?

Avionics Server Function Cabinet (ASFC)

Data Communication Management Function

Open world Server Function Cabinet (OSFC

12. Which cabin core systems function is NOT part of cabin communication
functions?

Cabin Interphone
In-flight Entertainment (IFE) system

Passenger Address (PA)

13. Which of the following is NOT true about conventional avionics system?

It interconnects each LRU using point-to-point data buses

It uses a separate LRU hardware for each avionics function

It has a common communication platform & sharing resources

14. In a typical A350 aircraft, what type of communication network cable is

used?

Coaxial cable

Fiber cable

Quad cable

15. Which one of the following is NOT part of the main functions of Onboard
Maintenance Systems (OMS)?

Data loading & configuration management

Failure processing & reporting

Replacing separated units with fewer integrated modules

16. Which of the following OIS tools is NOT used to support maintenance
operations in a typical A380 aircraft?

Electronic Logbook tool

Weight & Balance (W&B) computation tool

Central Maintenance System (CMS)

17. Which one of the following is NOT the function of Aircraft Condition
Monitoring Systems (ACMS)?
Softwares configuration management

Real-time data monitoring

Trend monitoring & reports generation

18. Which database type is used to provide information about airports,

runways, approaches and waypoints in the aircraft?

Terrain database

Navigation database

Performance database

19. Where are the Cockpit Door Surveillance System (CDSS) infrared cameras
installed in a typical A350 aircraft?

in the avionics compartment

inside the cabin

in the cockpit entrance area

20. Which cabin monitoring subsystem helps the flight and cabin crew monitor
some areas of the cabin using real-time videos?

Cabin Video Monitoring System (CVMS)

Taxling Aid camera system

Cockpit Door Surveillance System (CDSS)

21. Which interphone systems is active only on ground?

Service interphone system

Passenger Addressing

Cabin interphone system

22. Which of the following OIS electronic documentation is NOT used to support
flight operations in a typical A380 aircraft?

Cabin Crew Operating Manual (CCOM)

Flight Crew Operating Manual (FCOM)

Minimum Equipment List (MEL)

23. Which IMA component is used to collect, convert and exchange data
between the AFDX network and LRUS?

Common/ Remote Data Concentrator (CRDC/RDC)

Core Processing Input/Output Modules (CPIOMS)

AFDX switches

24. In a typical A350 aircraft, which Cabin Intercommunication Data System

(CIDS) components are used to Interface the cabin crews for cabin services
monitoring and control functions?

CIDS Directors

Area call panels (ACPs)

Flight Attendant Panels (FAPs)

25. Where is the location of IFE Center (IFEC) in a typical A350 aircraft?

in the aft of the bulk cargo compartment

at the attendant station at door 1 area

in the avionics compartment

M 15 Gas Turbine Engines

01. A divergent dust will cause subsonic flow to decrease in

velocity, pressure remains constant

 pressure, increase velocity

velocity, increase pressure

02.What will result if an oil filter becomes completely blocked

Oil will flow at a reduced rate through the system

Oil flow to the engine will stop

Oil will flow at the normal rate through the system

03. An advantage of the centrifugal flow compressor is its high

peak efficiency

ram efficiency

pressure rise per stage

04. Which type of fuel control is used on most of today's turbine engines

Hydromechanical or electronic

Mechanical. Option

Electronic

05. As subsonic air flows through a convergent nozzle the velocity

decreases

remains constant

Increases

06. The purpose of the LP fuel pump is to

pump fuel from the aircraft fuel tanks to the engine

ensure the fuel flow governor gets enough fuel

ensure the H.P fuel pump does not cavitate

07. The basic gas turbine engine is divided into two main sections: the cold section and the hot section

The hot section includes the combustor, turbine, and exhaust

The hot section includes the combustor, diffuser, and exhaust

 The cold section includes the engine inlet, compressor, and turbine sections

08. How is engine oil usually cooled

By ram air

By bleed air

By a fuel/oil cooler

09. Engine anti-ice is taken from the

A turbine

H.P compressor

LP compressor

13. Vibration pick-ups are located

on the fan/compressor case

on both fan and turbine cases

on the turbine case

14. What are the two main functional components in a centrifugal compressor

Impeller and diffuser

Bucket and expander

Turbine and compressor

15. In a gas turbine engine, turbine section

velocity decreases and pressure increases

velocity increases and pressure decreases

temperature decreases along with pressure and velocity

16. What section provides proper mixing of the fuel and efficient burning of the gases

Combustion section and compressor section

Combustion section only

 Diffuser section and combustion section

17. On an axial flow, dual compressor forward fan engine, the fan turns the same speed as the

low pressure turbine

forward turbine wheel

high pressure compressor

18. At what point in an axial flow turbojet engine will the highest gas pressures

At the compressor outlet

Within the burner section

At the turbine entrance

19. What will be the position of VSV at engine start

Open

Closed

Slightly open

20. A jet engine derives its thrust by

reaction of the propelling gases

impingement of the propelling gases on the outside air

drawing air into the compressor

21. On a gas turbine engine, what is the fan driven by

HP turbine

LP turbine

IP turbine

22. How is the N1 measured on a double spool engine

speed probes from the shafts

Tachometer connected to the external gearbox

 Tachometer connected to the internal gearbox

23. Which one is the source of turbine case cooling

fan air

H.P compressor air

LP compressor air

24. What power out does aircraft the A.P.U supplies

electrics

pneumatics and electrics

pneumatics or air

25. Why do turbine engine ignition systems require high energy

To ignite the fuel under conditions of high altitude and low temperatures

To ignite the fuel under conditions of high altitude and high temperatures

Because the applied voltage is much greater

26. What is the primary purpose of the oil breather system that is used on turbine engines

Allows aeration of the oil for better lubrication because of the air/oil mist

Prevents foaming of the oil

Provides a proper oil spray pattern from the main bearing oil jets

27. An APU consists of

a power compressor and directly connected turbine

a power compressor and load compressor," gearbox

a load compressor and free turbine

28. When is ignition used

At high altitudes

For continuous relight

 For relight and start up

29. Self sustaining RPM means that

The engine can accelerate to full power in under 5 seconds

There is sufficient power for ground maneuvering

The engine will run independently without help

30. What type of oil system is usually found on turbine engines

Dry sump, pressure, and spray

Dry sump, dip, and splash

Wet sump, spray, and splash

31. An A.P.U is usually rotated during start by

an electric starter

a pneumatic starter

a turbine impingement system

32. Last chance' filters in a lubrication system are serviced during

line maintenance

routine oil change

engine overhaul

33. Which one is a secondary function of engine oil

Cools, seals, prevents corrosion

Cools, seals, prevents corrosion, cushions shock loads

Cools and seals

34. In a twin spool compressor system, the first stage turbine drives the

N2 compressor

N1 and N2 compressors

N1 compressor
35. Acoustic linings made from composite materials are used in what section of the engine?

Not used to suppress noise

Cold section only

Hot sections & Cold Section

M 17 aircraft propeller
1. The __________ that allowed no slip. pitch is the distance, in inches, that a propeller would move
forward in a medium

Actual

Geometric

Effective

2. What operational force causes the greatest stress on a propeller?

Aerodynamic twisting moment

Centrifugal force

Thrust bending force

3. When the flyweights are tilted outward, the governor is said to be in an ____ condition.

On speed

Over speed

under speed

6. Blade stations are measured, in inches, from the ___ of the ___

Tip, blade

Root, blade

Center, hub

7. What is the effect of ice formation on a propeller during flight?

Decrease engine power and propeller efficiency loss

Decreases trust and cause excessive vibration

 Increase stall speed and propeller noise level

8. Torque bending force tries to bend the propeller blades in the ____ direction of propeller rotation.

Opposite Same Perpendicular to

9. Which component of a constant-speed propeller system sense propeller shaft RPM?

Tachometer generator

Electronic unit

Propeller Governor

10. If the governor senses an over speed condition, the propeller blade angle should _____

Unchanged

Increases

Decreases

11. On a given propeller blade, the blade angle nearest the hub will be the ______

Highest

Zero

Lowest

12. Angle of attack is the angle between chord line and _____

Engine shaft axes

Relative wind.

Plane of rotation.

13. A blade angle of fixed-pitch climb propeller in comparison with pitch angle of a cruise propeller is

Lower Equal Higher

14. Thrust bending force tries to bend the tip of a propeller blade _____

Rearward of plane of rotation

Opposite to propeller rotation

Forward of plane of rotation

15. The flat surface of a propeller blade is called the _____ of the blade.

Back Face Cuff

16. Centrifugal Twisting Moment is a force that tends to:

Feather the propeller blades.

Decrease the propeller blade angle.

Increase the propeller blade angle.

17. During the thrust is reversing, what will be position of the propeller blade in relation with blade
angle?

Negative, leading edge pointing backward

Zero, leading edge pointing along rotation

Positive, leading edge pointing forward

18. How is the ant icing fluid ejected from the slinger ring on a propeller?

By pump pressure

By centripetal force

By centrifugal force

19. What is the purpose of metal tipping along the leading edge of a wooden propeller?

For Anti-icing. For balancing. For protection.

20. A device used to measure blade angle while the propeller is on the airplane or on the work bench.

Universal protractor Bench protractor Propeller tracking

21. When the flyweights are tilted inward, this condition of the governor is known as:

Under speed Over speed On speed

22. The actual distance a propeller moves forward through the air during one revolution is known as
the

Effective pitch Geometric pitch Relative pitch

23. Propeller blade angle is the angle between the chord of the propeller blade and the

Vertical plane Plane of rotation Relative wind

24. Which system that set all governors of a multiengine aircraft propeller at exactly at the same RPM
with Master governor?

Synchrophasing Auto feathering Synchronization

25. The operational force tends to bend the propeller blades forward at the tip?

Centrifugal-twisting force Torque-bending force Thrust-bending force