Q.
1) Ans: C
Exp:
• Option 1 and 2 are incorrect: To secure
opportunities for healthy development of children
and To promote equal justice and to provide free
legal aid to the poor (Article 39 A) was added by
the The 42nd Amendment Act of 1976.
• Option 3 is correct: To secure equitable
distribution of material resources of the
community for the common good has been
provided in Article 39 of Constitution. This has
been cited by the Supreme Court during the verdict
regarding coal blocks and Spectrum bands.
• Option 4 is incorrect: The 44th Amendment Act of
1978 added one more Directive Principle which
requires the State to minimise inequalities in
income, status, facilities and opportunities
Q.2) Ans: B
Exp:
• Statement 1 is correct: To promote equal justice
and to provide free legal aid to the poor. It is one
of the socialist principles provided in Article 39A of
the Constitution.
• Statement 2 is correct: To make provision for just
and humane conditions of work is socialist
principle in Article 42.
• Statement 3 is incorrect: To promote cottage
industries on a co-operative basis in rural areas is a
Gandhian Principle. (Article 43)
• Statement 4 is incorrect: To promote the
educational and economic interests of SCs,STs, and
other weaker sections of the society. This is also a
Gandhian principle. (Article 48)
Q.3)Ans: C
Exp:
• Statement 1 is correct: Article 335 states the
claims of the members of the Scheduled Castes and
the Scheduled Tribes shall be taken into
consideration, consistently with the maintenance
of efficiency of administration, in the making of
appointments to services and posts in connection
with the affairs of the Union or a State.
• Statement 2 is incorrect: Article 46 of Indian
Constitution directs states to promote the
educational and economic interests of SCs, STs,
and other weaker sections and to protect them
from social injustice and exploitation. This is a
Gandhian Directive Principle.
• Statement 3 is incorrect: To promote international
peace and security and maintain just and
honourable relations between nations and to
foster respect for international law and treaty
obligations is liberal intellectual principle provided
in Part IV of constitution.
Q.4) Ans: B
Exp:
• Statement 1 is incorrect: Directive principles of
State Policy are directions provided by the
constitution to the Government and administrative
functionaries.
• Statement 2 is correct: The term justice in the
Preamble embraces three distinct forms– social,
economic and political. Social justice denotes the
equal treatment of all citizens without any social
discrimination. Economic justice denotes the non-
discrimination between people on the basis of
economic factors. Political justice implies that all
citizens should have equal political right. The ideal
of justice–social, economic and political–has been
taken from the Russian Revolution.
Q.5)Ans: D
Exp:
• Statement 1 is incorrect: A writ of Certiorari means
‘to be certified’ or ‘to be informed’. It is issued by a
higher court to a lower court or tribunal either to
transfer a case pending with the latter to itself or
to squash the order of the latter in a case. It is
issued on the grounds of excess of jurisdiction or
lack of jurisdiction or error of law. Thus, unlike
prohibition, which is only preventive, certiorari is
both preventive as well as curative.
• Statement 2 is incorrect: A writ of Prohibition is
issued by a superior court to an inferior court or
tribunal to prevent it from exceeding its
jurisdiction and to compel it to keep within the
limits of its jurisdiction. It issued only against
judicial and quasi- judicial authorities. It is not
available against administrative authorities,
legislative bodies, and private individuals or
bodies.
Q.6) Ans: A
Exp:
The constitution entails the following rights under the
Right to Freedom of Religion:
IDMP DAY 13 15
 1. Article 25: Freedom of Conscience and Free
Profession, Practice and Propagation of
Religion
2. Article 26: Freedom to Manage Religious
Affairs
3. Article 27: Freedom from Taxation for
Promotion of a Religion
4. Article 28: Freedom from Attending Religious
Instruction
• Option 1 is Correct: Article 25 says that all persons
are equally entitled to freedom of conscience and
the right to freely profess, practice and propagate
religion. These rights are available to all persons–
citizens as well as noncitizens. Rights under these
are subject to public order, morality, health and
other provisions relating to fundamental rights.
• Option 2 is incorrect: Article 29 mentions that any
section of the citizens residing in any part of India
having a distinct language, script or culture of its
own, shall have the right to conserve the same. It
is thus included under the CULTURAL AND
EDUCATIONAL RIGHTS.
• Option 3 is incorrect: Article 30 grants grants that
all minorities (linguistic and religious) shall have
the right to establish and administer educational
institutions of their choice and that the State shall
not discriminate against any educational
institution managed by a minority while granting
an aid. It is also included under the CULTURAL AND
EDUCATIONAL RIGHTS.
Q.7) Ans: C
Exp:
• Statement 1 is correct: The Supreme Court has
ruled that Article 32 is a basic feature of the
Constitution. Hence, it cannot be abridged or taken
away even by way of an amendment to the
Constitution.
• Statement 2 is correct: Article 32 confers the right
to remedies for the enforcement of the
fundamental rights of an aggrieved citizen. That is
why Dr. Ambedkar called Article 32 as the most
important article of the Constitution– “an article
without which this constitution would be a nullity.
It is the very soul of the Constitution and the very
heart of it “
• Statement 3 is incorrect: The right to move the
Supreme Court only (The right to move the High
court is safeguarded by Article 226 and not Article
32) for the enforcement of the Fundamental Rights
is guaranteed.
• Statement 4 is correct: In case of the enforcement
of Fundamental Rights, the jurisdiction of the
Supreme Court is original but not exclusive. It is
concurrent with the jurisdiction of the high court
under Article 226. It vests original powers in the
high court to issue directions, orders and writs of
all kinds for the enforcement of the Fundamental
Rights. However, the Supreme Court has ruled that
where relief through the High court is available
under Article 226, the aggrieved party should first
move the high court.
Q.8) Ans: D
Exp:
List of Fundamental Rights not available to Foreigners
• Prohibition of discrimination on grounds of
religion, race, caste, sex or place of birth (Article
15).
• Equality of opportunity in matters of public
employment (article 16)
• Protection of six rights under regarding freedom of
a) Speech and Expression) Assembly) Association)
Movement, e) Residence, f) Profession (article 19)
• Protection of language, script and culture of
minorities (Article 29)
• Right of minorities to establish and administer
educational institutions (Article 30)
List of Fundamental Rights available to both
Foreigners and citizens
• Equality before law and equal protection of laws
(Article 14).
• Protection in respect of conviction for offences
(Article 20).
• Protection of life and personal liberty (Article 21)
• Right to elementary education (Article 21A).
• Protection against arrest and detention in certain
cases (Article 22)
• Prohibition of traffic in human beings and forced
labour (Article 23).
• Prohibition of employment of children in factories
etc., (Article 24).
• Freedom of conscience and free profession,
practice and propagation of religion (Article 25).
• Freedom to manage religious affairs (Article 26).
• Freedom from payment of taxes for promotion of
any religion (Article 27).
• Freedom from attending religious instruction or
worship in certain educational institutions (Article
28).
Q.9) Ans: B
Exp:
IDMP DAY 13 16
• Statement 1 is incorrect: Article 33 empowers the
Parliament to restrict or abrogate the fundamental
rights of the members of armed forces,
paramilitary forces, police forces, intelligence
agencies and analogous forces. The power is
conferred only on Parliament and not on state
legislatures.
• Statement 2 is correct: Various Acts such as the
Army Act (1950), the Navy Act (1950), the Air Force
Act (1950) etc. impose restrictions on their
freedom of speech, right to form associations, right
to be members of trade unions or political
associations, right to communicate with the press
etc. and ensures the proper discharge of their
duties and the maintenance of discipline among
them.
• Statement 3 is correct: In case of enforcement of
fundamental rights, the jurisdiction of the supreme
court is original but not exclusive. It is concurrent
with jurisdiction of the high court under article
226. It vests original powers in the High Court to
issue directions, orders and writs of all kinds for the
enforcement of the fundamental rights. It means
that on violation of fundamental rights, the
aggrieved party has the option of moving either
the high court or the supreme court
Q.10) Ans: A
Exp:
• Statement 1 is correct: Article 34 provides for the
restrictions on fundamental rights while martial
law is in force. It empowers the Parliament to
indemnify any government servant or any act done
by him in connection with the maintenance or
restoration of order where martial law is in force.
The Parliament can also validate any sentence
passed or punishment inflicted under martial law
in such an area.
• Statement 2 is incorrect: There is no such
provision mentioned in the constitution. However,
during National Emergency the Govt. and the
courts continue to function, irrespective of the
grounds on which the emergency has been
declared.
• Statement 3 is incorrect: The expression ‘martial
law’ has not been defined anywhere in the
Constitution. Literally, it means ‘military rule’. It
refers to a situation where civil administration is
run by the military authorities according to their
own rules and regulations framed outside the
ordinary law. It thus implies the suspension of
ordinary law and the government by military
tribunals.
Q.11) Ans: A
Exp:
• Statement 1 is correct: Some of them are available
only to the citizens while others are available to all
persons whether citizens or foreigners or legal
persons like corporations or companies. Some
Fundamental Rights available to both Foreigners
and citizens are Equality before law and equal
protection of laws (Article 14), Protection in
respect of conviction for offences (Article 20),
Protection of life and personal liberty (article 21)
and Right to elementary education (Article 21A)
etc.
• Statement 2 is correct: All Rights are available
against the law of the legislature. Arbitrary
doctrine refers to acting in an unreasonable
manner, as fixed or done at pleasure, without
determining any methods or principle. The rights
protect a person/citizen from any such
arbitrariness.
• Statement 3 is correct: Some Fundamental rights
are available against the action of private
individuals. Article 15(2) prohibits discrimination in
access to shops, public restaurants, hotels etc. This
provision thus prohibits discrimination both by the
State and private individuals. Similarly, The
Supreme Court held that the right under Article 17
(Abolition of Untouchability) is available against
private individuals. Article 23 (Prohibition of Traffic
in Human Beings and Forced Labour) is also
available against private individuals.
• Statement 4 is incorrect: They are not sacrosanct
or permanent. The Parliament can curtail or repeal
them but only by a constitutional amendment act
and not by an ordinary act. Moreover, this can be
done without affecting the ‘basic structure’ of the
Constitution.
Q.12) Ans: D
Exp:
Article 35 of the Indian Constitution
Article 35 lays down that the power to make laws, to
give effect to certain specified Fundamental rights shall
vest only in the Parliament and not in the State
legislatures. The Parliament shall have power (and the
legislature of a state shall not have) to make laws with
respect to the following matters:
• Prescribing residence as a condition for certain
employments (Article 16)
IDMP DAY 13 17
• Empowering courts other than the Supreme Court
and the high courts to issue directions, orders and
writs (Article 32)
• Restricting or abrogating the application of
Fundamental Rights to members of armed forces,
police forces (Article 33)
• Identifying any government servant or any other
person for any act done during martial law (Article
34)
• Powers to make laws for prescribing punishment
for practice of Untouchability (Article 17) and
Traffic in Human beings (Article 23)
Q.13) Ans: D
Exp:
• All Options are correct
The expression ‘Personal Liberty’ in Article 21 is of
the widest amplitude and it covers a variety of
rights that go to constitute the personal liberties of
a man. Some of the rights declared by the Supreme
Court as part of Article 21 are as follows:
o Right to live with human dignity
o Right to livelihood
o Right to Shelter
o Right to health
o Right to free education up to 14 years of age
o Right to livelihood
o Right to reputation
o Right to sustainable development
o Right to travel abroad
o Right against handcuffing.
o Right against inhuman treatment.
o Right against delayed execution.
o Right against bonded labour.
o Right to privacy
o Right against custodial harassment.
Q.14) Ans: D
Exp:
• Option 1 is correct: In the Landmark case Animal
Welfare Board of India v. A. Nagaraja & Ors.
(Constitutionality of Jallikattu), the Supreme court
held that protection of all forms of life, including
animal life, which are necessary for safeguarding
human life, fall within the meaning of Article 21 of
the Constitution.
• Option 2 is correct: Fundamental duty -- Article 51
A (g): to protect and improve the natural
environment including forests, lakes, rivers and
wildlife, and to have compassion for living
creatures.
• Option 3 is correct Article 48 lays down that: The
State shall endeavour to take steps for preserving
and improving the breeds, and prohibiting the
slaughter, of cows and calves and other milch and
draught cattle.
• Option 4 is correct: Entry 15 of the State list (7th
Schedule) reads: Preservation, protection and
improvement of stock and prevention of animal
diseases; veterinary training and practice.
Q.15) Ans: A
Exp:
• Statement 1 is correct: Article 29 provides that
any section of the citizens residing in any part of
India having a distinct language, script or culture
of its own, shall have the right to conserve the
same. The Supreme Court held that the scope of
this article is not necessarily restricted to
minorities only. This is because of the use of words
‘section of citizens’ in the Article that include
minorities as well as majority.
• Statement 2 is incorrect: Further, no citizen shall
be denied admission into any educational
institution maintained by the State or receiving
aid out of State funds on grounds only of religion,
race, caste, or language.
Reference - Laxmikanth
Q.16) Ans: D
Exp:
• Pair 1 is incorrect – The meaning of Habeas Corpus
is ‘to have the body of’. It is an order issued by the
court to a person who has detained another
person. Thus, this writ is a bulwark of individual
liberty against arbitrary detention.
• Pair 2 is correct – Mandamus is a command issued
by the court to a public official asking him to
perform his official duties that he has failed or
refused to perform.
• Pair 3 is incorrect – Certiorari is issued by a higher
court to a lower court or tribunal either to transfer
a case pending with the latter to itself or to squash
the order of the latter in a case.
• Pair 4 is correct - In the literal sense, Quo-warranto
means ‘by what authority or warrant’. It is issued
by the court to enquire into the legality of claim of
a person to a public office.
Reference - Laxmikanth
Q.17) Ans: C
IDMP DAY 13 18
Exp:
• Statement 1 is correct – Article 31A does not
prohibit a state legislature to enact a law to give
effect to this Article. However, such a law requires
the President's consideration and assent to be
immune from judicial review.
• Statement 2 is correct – Article 31A also provides
that if the State acquires the land held by a person
under his personal cultivation and within the
statutory ceiling, the compensation should not be
less than the market value.
Reference - Laxmikanth
Q.18) Ans: C
Exp:
• Statement 1 is incorrect – The right to profess,
practice and propagate are subject to public order,
morality, health and other provisions relating to
fundamental rights.
• Statement 2 is incorrect – The State is permitted
to regulate or restrict any economic, financial,
political or other secular activities associated with
religious practice.
• Statement 3 is correct - In the context of Article 25,
the Hindus include Sikhs, Jains and Buddhists only.
Reference - Laxmikanth
Q.19) Ans: A
Exp:
• Statement 1 is correct – Article 20(3) provides that
No person accused of any offence shall be
compelled to be a witness against himself.
• Statement 2 is correct – Article 20(2) provides that
No person shall be prosecuted and punished for
the same offence more than once.
• Statement 3 is incorrect – Article 22(1) provides
that No person who is arrested shall be detained in
custody without being informed, as soon as may
be, of the grounds for such arrest nor shall he be
denied the right to consult, and to be defended by,
a legal practitioner of his choice.
Reference - Laxmikanth
Q.20) Ans: D
Exp:
• Statement 1 is incorrect – Article 18(3) provides
that a foreigner holding any office of profit or trust
under the State cannot accept any title from any
foreign State without the consent of the
President. There is no role of Governor in this
regard.
• Statement 2 is incorrect- Article 18(1) prohibits
the State from conferring any title on anybody
except a military or academic distinction.
Q.21) Ans: B
Exp:
Instrument of instructions
• The directive principles resemble the instrument
of instructions enumerated in the Government of
India Act of 1935. In the words of BR Ambedkar
“the directive principles are like the instrument of
instructions which were issued to the governor
general and to the Governors of the colonies of
India by the British government.”
• The Directive Principles embody the concept of
welfare state and not that of a police state which
existed during the colonial era. They seek to
establish economic and social democracy in the
country. The framers of the Constitution
borrowed this idea from the Irish constitution.
Q.22) Ans: A
Exp:
• Options 1 and 2 are correct
o Socialistic Directive Principles of State Policy
▪ To promote the welfare of the people by
securing a social order permeated by
justice–social, economic and political and
to minimise inequalities in income, status,
facilities and opportunities (Article 38).
▪ To secure (a) the right to adequate means
of livelihood for all citizens; (b) the
equitable distribution of material
resources of the community for the
common good; (c) prevention of
concentration of wealth and means of
production; (d) equal pay for equal work
for men and women; (e) preservation of
the health and strength of workers and
children against forcible abuse; and (f)
opportunities for healthy development of
children (Article 39).
▪ To promote equal justice and to provide
free legal aid to the poor (Article 39 A).
▪ To secure the right to work, to education
and to public assistance in cases of
unemployment, old age, sickness and
disablement (Article 41).
IDMP DAY 13 19
 ▪ To make provision for just and humane
conditions of work and maternity relief
(Article 42).
▪ To secure a living wage, a decent standard
of life and social and cultural opportunities
for all workers (Article 43).
▪ To take steps to secure the participation of
workers in the management of Indus-tries
(Article 43 A)
• Option 3 is incorrect: Article 48,” The State shall
endeavour to organise agriculture and animal
husbandry on modern and scientific lines” is
Liberal intellectual DPSPs
• Option 4 is incorrect: Article 47,” The state shall
endeavour to prohibit consumption of intoxicating
drinks and drugs which are injurious to health “is
Gandhian principle.
Q.23) Ans: C
Exp:
Salient features of Directive Principles of State Policy:
• The Directive Principles along with the
fundamental rights embody the philosophy of the
constitution. The Directive Principles have been
described as the conscience of the constitution.
• Directive Principles denote ideas that the state
should keep in mind while formulating policies
enacting laws for the welfare of the people. They
aim at realising the ideals of justice, liberty,
equality and fraternity as outlined in the Preamble
of the constitution
• Directive principles are non-justiciable in nature.
They are not legally enforceable by the courts for
their violation. The government cannot be
Compelled to implement them even though they
are fundamental in the Governance of the country
• Despite their non-justiciable nature, the Directive
Principles help the courts in examining and
determining the constitutional validity of law. The
Supreme Court has ruled many times that in
determining the constitutionality of any law if a
court finds that the law in question seeks to give
effect to directive principle, it may consider such
law to be reasonable in relation to Article 14 or
article 19
• They can come in direct conflict with the
Fundamental Rights of the citizen. This problem
arose when the government sought to pass laws to
abolish the zamindari system. These measures
were opposed on the ground that they violated the
right to property (which was a fundamental right
back then)
Q.24) Ans: A
Exp:
• Options 1, 2 and 3 correct
o Liberal intellectual Directive Principles of
State Policy
▪ To secure for all citizens a uniform civil
code throughout the country (Article
44).
▪ To provide early childhood care and
education for all children until they
complete the age of 6 years (Article 45).
▪ To organise agriculture and animal
husbandry on modern and scientific lines
(Article 48).
▪ To protect and improve the environment
and to safeguard forests and wildlife10
(Article 48 A).
▪ To protect monuments, places and
objects of artistic or historic interest
which are declared to be of national
importance (Article 49).
▪ To separate the judiciary from the
executive in the public services of the
State (Article 50).
▪ To promote international peace and
security and maintain just and
honourable relations between nations;
to foster respect for international law
and treaty obligations, and to Encourage
settlement of international disputes by
arbitration (Article 51).
• Option 4 is incorrect
o Article 43B, “To promote voluntary
formation, autonomous functioning,
democratic control and professional
management of cooperative societies” is
Gandhian DPSP.
Q.25) Ans: B
Exp:
• Options 2 and 5 are correct:
o Article 38(2),” Minimise inequalities in
income, status, facilities and
opportunities” was added to the
Constitution via the 44th Amendment
o Article 45,” Provision for early childhood
care and education to children below the
IDMP DAY 13 20
 age of 6 years” was added to the
Constitution via the 86th Amendment.
• Options 1, 3 and 4 are incorrect:
o The 42nd amendment to the Indian
Constitution added the following
provisions/articles:
▪ Article 39(f): To secure opportunities
for healthy development of children.
▪ Article 39A: Equal justice and free
Legal Aid to poor
▪ Article 43A: participation of workers
in management of industries
▪ Article 48A: protection of
environment and safeguarding of
forests and wildlife
Q.26) Ans: A
Exp:
• Statement 1 is correct: They serve as a common
political manifesto. ‘A ruling party, irrespective of
its political ideology, has to recognise the fact that
these principles are intended to be its guide,
philosopher and friend in its legislative and
executive acts. At the same time, they enable the
opposition to exercise influence and control over
the operations of the government. The Opposition
can blame the ruling party on the ground that its
activities are opposed to the Directives
• Statement 2 is correct: They have served as useful
beacon-lights to the courts. They have helped the
courts in exercising their power of judicial review,
that is, the power to determine the constitutional
validity of a law.
• Statement 3 is incorrect: Apart from the directives
included in part IV there are some other directives
contained in the other parts of the constitution:
o Article 335: Claims of scheduled castes and
Scheduled Tribes to services
o Article 350-A: facilities for instructions in
mother tongue at the primary stage of
education to children belonging to minority
linguistic groups.
o Article 351: Development of Hindi language
Q.27) Ans: B
Exp:
• Options 1 2 and 4 are correct
Article 51 of the Constitution:
The State shall endeavour to—
o promote international peace and security;
o maintain just and honourable relations
between nations;
o foster respect for international law and treaty
obligations in the dealings of organised
peoples with one another; and
o encourage settlement of international
disputes by arbitration.
Q.28)Ans: B
Exp:
• Statement 1 is incorrect: While Article 45 states
that it shall be the endeavour to provide early
childhood care and education for all children until
they complete the age of six years; Article 51A (k)
calls upon a parent or guardian to provide
opportunities for education to his child or, as the
case may be, ward between the age of six and
fourteen years.
• Statement 2 is correct:
o Article 48A (Directive Principle) puts the onus
on the state to protect and improve the
environment and to safeguard the forests and
wildlife of the country.
o Article 51A (g) (Fundamental Duty) also calls
upon every citizen of India to protect and
improve the natural environment including
forests, lakes, rivers and wildlife, and to have
compassion for living creatures
• Statement 3 and 4 are Incorrect: To renounce
practices derogatory to the dignity of women and
to develop the scientific temper, humanism and
the spirit of inquiry and reform are both
Fundamental Duties.
Q.29) Ans: C
Exp:
• Statement 1 is incorrect: To protect monuments,
places and objects of artistic or historic interest
which are declared to be of national importance
(Article 49) is Directive Principles for the State.
• Statement 2 is incorrect: To Provide early
childhood care and education for all children until
they complete the age of six years (Article 45) is
Directive Principles for the State. It is added by
86th constitutional amendment act.
• Statement 3 is Correct: To safeguard public
property and to abjure violence is one of the
Fundamental Duty for Citizens of India.
• Statement 4 is incorrect: To Pay taxes and
contribute to the development of the nation was
one of the recommendations of the Swaran Singh
IDMP DAY 13 21
• Statement 2 is incorrect: In the presidential system
the Head of state is also the head of the
government. However, in the parliamentary
system head of state and head of government are
two different personalities. The Head of
Government in India is the Prime Minister who is
the de facto head, while the head of state is the
President who is also called de jure head.
• Statement 3 is incorrect: Complete separation of
power is found in the presidential system. In the
parliamentary system the separation of power is
not rigid. For Instance, Ministers are part of the
Executive as well as legislature.
Q.35)Ans: A
Exp:
• Statement 1 is incorrect: India has a republican
system while Britain has a monarchical system. In
other words, the Head of the State in India, that is
The President, is elected, while the Head of the
State in Britain, that is King or Queen, enjoys a
hereditary position.
• Statement 2 is incorrect: British system is based on
the doctrine of the sovereignty of Parliament,
while the Parliament is not supreme in India and
enjoys limited and restricted powers due to a
written Constitution, federal system, judicial
review and fundamental rights
• Statement 3 is correct: Britain has the system of
legal responsibility of the minister while India has
no such system. Unlike in Britain, the ministers in
India are not required to countersign the official
acts of the Head of the State.
Q.36)Ans: C
Exp:
• Statement 1 is incorrect: 44th constitutional
amendment acts restricted suspension of
fundamental rights by adding provisions that
president cannot suspend the right to move in the
court for enforcement of fundamental rights
guaranteed by article 20 and 21 and six rights
under Article 19 can be suspended only when
emergency is declared on the ground of war or
external aggression and not on the ground of
armed rebellion. Further, the 44th constitutional
amendment also restricts the suspension by
adding a provision that only those laws which are
related with the emergency are protected from
Being challenged and no other laws.
• Statement 2 is Correct: Most of the fundamental
rights are directly enforceable while few of them
can be enforced on the basis of law made for giving
effect to them. laws regarding that can be made
only by the parliament not by the state legislature
so that uniformity can be maintained throughout
the country
• Statement 3 is incorrect: Fundamental rights are
not absolute but qualified. a reasonable restriction
on fundamental rights can be imposed by the state.
However, whether Such Restrictions are
reasonable or not is decided by the courts.
Q.37) Ans: A
Exp:
• Statement 1 is Correct: Article 13 of Indian
Constitution provides that all the laws that are
inconsistent with the fundamental rights shall be
void. It means the expression provides for the
doctrine of Judicial review.
• Statement 2 is incorrect: Definition of law under
article 13 includes law enacted by the Parliament
and state legislature, Ordinance issued by the
president or governor, statutory instruments In the
nature of delegated legislation, non-legislative
sources of law i.e. custom or usage having the
force of law.
• Statement 3 is incorrect: in Kesavananda Bharati
case the Supreme Court held that the
Constitutional Amendment can be challenged on
the ground that violates a fundamental right which
forms the basic structure of the constitution.
Q.38) Ans: B
Exp:
• Statement 1 is incorrect: The concept of equality
before law is of British origin and the concept of
equal protection of law has been taken from the
American constitution
• Statement 2 is Correct: Equality before law Is the
negative concept which deals with the absence of
any special privilege in favour of any person and
equal subjection of all persons to the ordinary law
of land. Further it also emphasizes that no person
is above the law.
• Statement 3 is Correct: Equal protection of law is
the positive concept we deal with the equality of
treatment under equal circumstances which
IDMP DAY 13 23
 means Similar application of laws to all the people
who are in the similar situation.
Q.39) Ans: A
Exp:
• Statement 1 is Correct: Equality before law is
provided in article 14 of Indian constitution. The
concept of equality before law is an element of the
concept of Rule of law which includes absence of
arbitrary power i.e. no man can be punished except
for breach of law.
• Statement 2 is Correct: Equality before law means
equal subjection of all citizen to the ordinary law of
land administered by the ordinary law of court
• Statement 3 is incorrect: In India the constitution
is the source of the individual right Rather than the
constitution being the result of the right of the
individual.
Q.40) Ans: C
Exp:
• Statement 1 is incorrect: Article 15 of Indian
Constitution provides that state shall not
discriminate against any citizen on grounds only of
religion, race, caste, sex or place of birth. There is
no mention of descent in this provision. The use of
word only denotes that discrimination on the other
ground is not prohibited
• Statement 2 is incorrect: There are two provisions
in article 15 of Indian Constitution first says that
state shall not discriminate against any citizen on
grounds only of religion, race, caste, sex or place of
birth. This provision prohibits discrimination only
by the state. Further second provision says that no
citizen shall be subjected to any disability, liability,
restriction or condition on grounds only of religion,
race, caste, sex, or place of birth with regard to 1)
access to shops, public restaurants, hotels and
places of public Entertainment 2) the use of wells,
tanks, bathing ghats, roads and places of public
resorts maintained wholly or partly by State funds
or dedicated to the use of the general public. This
provision prohibits discrimination both by the
State and private individuals
• Statement 3 is Correct: There are some exceptions
to the rule of non-descrimination present in the
constitution. One of them permits the state to
make a special provision for women and children.
Q.41) Ans: D
Exp:
• Statement 1 is incorrect: Article 19 of Indian
constitution provides that every citizen has a right
to peaceful assembly and without arms. it also
includes the right to hold public meetings,
demonstrations and take out processions. but this
freedom can be exercise only on public land and
assembly must be peaceful and unarmed
• Statement 2 is incorrect: Under article 19 every
citizen has the right to form associations and
unions. But the supreme court held that trade
unions have no guaranteed right to effective
bargaining or right to strike or the right to declare
lock-out.
• Statement 3 is incorrect: Article 19 of Indian
constitution provides the freedom of movement
inside the country. freedom of movement outside
the country is dealt by the article 21 of Indian
Constitution.
Q.42) Ans: B
Exp:
• Statement 1 is incorrect: Article 20 of Indian
constitution grants protection against the arbitrary
punishment to an accused person. this protection
is available to the citizen, foreigner and legal
person like company or a corporation
• Statement 2 is Correct: Under article 20 of Indian
Constitution no person shall be convicted of any
offence except for violation of a law in force at a
time of the commission of the act and also no
person is subject to penalty greater than that
prescribed by the law in force at the time of the
commission of the act. it means no person can be
punished retrospectively. but this limitation is
imposed only on criminal law, not on civil law. In
other words a civil liability or tax can be imposed
retrospectively
• Statement 3 is incorrect: Protection against
double Jeopardy means no person shall be
prosecuted or punished more than once for the
same offence. This protection is available only in
proceedings before the court of law or a tribunal
and not before the departmental or administrative
authority.
Q.43) Ans: B
Exp:
• Statement 1 is incorrect: Article 22 of Indian
constitution grants protection to the person who is
detained. legislative power with regard to
preventive detention has been divided between
Parliament and state legislatures. Parliament can
IDMP DAY 13 24
 exclusively make a law of preventive detention for
reasons connected with defence, foreign affairs
and the security of India and Both Parliament and
state legislature can make laws of preventive
detention for reasons connected with security of
state, the maintenance of public order and the
maintenance of supplies and services essential to
the community.
• Statement 2 is Correct: No democratic country in
the world has made preventive detention as an
integral part of the constitution as it has been done
in India.It is unknown in the USA.
Q.44)Ans: D
Exp:
• Statement 1 is incorrect: Article 25 of Indian
constitution states that all people have equal right
for the freedom of conscience and the right to
freely professor, practice and propagate the
religion. rights under article 25 are available to
both citizens as well as the foreigner.
• Statement 2 is incorrect: Article 26 of Indian
constitution states that every religious
denomination have right to establish and maintain
institution for religious and charitable purpose,
have right to manage own affairs in the matter of
religion, have right to own and acquire movable
and immovable property and also have right
to administer such property in accordance with
the law.
• Statement 3 is incorrect: Article 28 of Indian
constitution states that no religious instruction
shall be provided in any educational institution
wholly maintained out of state funds
Q.45) Ans: D
Exp:
• Statement 1 is incorrect: Article 29 of Indian
Constitution provides that any section of citizens
residing in India have the right to conserve its
distinct language,script and culture.Article grants
protection to the both linguistic and religious
minorities. However, the Supreme Court held that
scope of this article is not restricted to the minority
only it also includes the majority.
• Statement 2 is Correct: Article 30 of Indian
Constitution States that all religious and linguistic
minorities have the right to establish and
administer educational Institutions of their choice.
• Statement 3 is Correct: Right under article 30 also
includes the right of the minority to impart
education to its children in its own language.
Q.46) Ans: A
Exp:
• Statement 1 is Correct: Article 30 of Indian
Constitution States that all religious and linguistic
minorities have the right to establish and
administer educational Institutions of their
choice.It also states that the compensation
amount fixed by the state for compulsory
acquisition of any property of minority educational
institution shall not restrict or abrogate the right
guaranteed to them.
• Statement 2 is Correct: Article 30 of Indian
constitution states that in granting aid state shall
not discriminate against any educational
institution managed by the minority
• Statement 3 is incorrect: The term of minority has
not been defined anywhere in the constitution.
Q.47) Ans: B
Exp:
• Statement 1 is incorrect: Article 32 of Indian
constitution confirms the right to remedies for the
enforcement of fundamental rights. The power of
the Supreme Court for enforcement of
fundamental rights is original and wide. original
because aggrieved citizen can directly go to the
supreme court for enforcement of fundamental
right and wide because the power of Supreme
Court is not restricted to issuing of order for
directions but also writs of all kinds
• Statement 2 is Correct: Under article 32 of Indian
Constitution Supreme Court cannot determine the
question that does not involve fundamental
right.Further the article 32 cannot invoke simply
to determine the constitutionality of an executive
order unless it directly infringes any of the
fundamental rights.
• Statement 3 is Correct: Remedy to move to the
Supreme Court against the infringement of a
fundamental right in article 32 is itself a
fundamental right and the Supreme Court cannot
refuse to exercise its writ jurisdiction. On the other
hand, remedy under article 226 by which an
aggrieved person can move to the High Court
against infringement of fundamental right is
discretionary and the High Court may refuse to
exercise its writ jurisdiction.
Q.48) Ans: D
Exp:
IDMP DAY 13 25
• Statement 1 is incorrect: Article 33 of Indian
constitution empowers the Parliament to restrict
or abrogate the fundamental rights of the
members of the armed forces, Paramilitary forces,
police forces, intelligence agencies and analogous
forces. The objective behind this is to ensure
proper discharge of their duties and maintenance
of discipline among them.
• Statement 2 is incorrect: Article 34 of Indian
Constitution provide for the protection of
fundamental right while Martial Law is imposed in
any area within territory of India.it empowers
parliament to indemnify any government servant
or any person for act done by him for maintenance
or Restoration of order in any area where Martial
Law was in force.
Q.49) Ans: A
Exp:
• Statement 1 is Correct: When Martial Law is in
force as per article 34 of Indian Constitution the
government and ordinary law of court get
suspended.
• Statement 2 is incorrect: There is no specific for
Express provision in the Constitution that
authorised executives to declare Martial
Law.However it is implicit in article 34 of Indian
Constitution.
• Statement 3 is incorrect: Imposition of Martial Law
affects only on the fundamental rights there is no
effect on centre state relation. Centre state
relations get affected when there is an imposition
of National Emergency.
Q.50) Ans: C
Exp:
• Statement 1 is incorrect: Directive to minimise
inequalities in income, status, facilities and
opportunities is given in article 38 of Indian
constitution not in article 39.Article 38 of Indian
constitution also contain the directive for state to
promote the Welfare of people by securing a social
order permeated by the social, economic and
political justice.
• Statement 2 is Correct and Statement 3 is Correct:
Article 39 of Indian Constitution provides a
directive to the state to secure the equal
distribution of material resources of the
community for the common good. It also directs
the state to secure the prevention of concentration
of wealth and means of production. Other
provision in article 39 of Indian Constitution is to
secure the right to adequate means of livelihood
for all citizen, equal pay for equal work for men and
women, preservation of Health and strength of
worker and children against the forcible abuse and
opportunity for healthy development of children
Q.51) Ans: C
Exp:
• Statement 1 is incorrect: To provide opportunity
for education to child or ward between the age of
six to fourteen years Is part of fundamental duties.
This duty was added by the 86th Constitutional
Amendment Act 2002.
• Statement 2 is incorrect: To value and preserve the
rich heritage of the country’s compost culture is
one of the fundamental duties mentioned in article
51A of Indian Constitution.
• Statement 3 is Correct: Article 49 of Indian
constitution directs the state to protect
monuments, places and objects of artistic or
historic interest which are declared to be of
national importance.It is a part of directive
principle of State Policy.
Q.52) Ans: B
Exp:
• Statement 1 is Correct: The directive principle of
State Policy serves as a crucial test for the
performance of the government. the people of a
country can examine the policies and programmes
of a government in the light of these directives.
• Statement 2 is incorrect: The directive principle of
state policies is intended to fill the vacuum in a
part III of Indian Constitution by providing social
and economic rights.
Statement 3 is Correct: As the directive principles of
state policy are not automatically enforced
they require legislative action for their
implementation.
Q.53) Ans: D
Exp:
• Statement 1 is Correct: Article 51A of Indian
Constitution provides for the fundamental duties.
This article was added by the 42nd Constitutional
Amendment Act 1976. one of the fundamental
duties provided in the constitution is to abide by
the constitution and respect its ideals and
Institution, the national flag and the national
IDMP DAY 13 26
 anthem. Hence it can be said the fundamental
duties serve as a warning against the Anti National
and anti social activities like burning national
flag, destroying public property and so on
• Statement 2 is Correct: Fundamental duties are
enforceable by law. Hence, the Parliament can
provide for imposition of appropriate penalty or
punishment for failure to fulfill any of the
fundamental duties.
• Statement 3 is Correct: Fundamental duties also
serve as a source of inspiration for the citizen and
Promote the sense of discipline and commitment
among them.For example it is the duty of citizen to
strive towards the excellence in all spheres of
individual and collective activity so that the nation
constantly rise to a higher level of endeavour and
achievement.
Q.54) Ans: A
Exp:
• Statement 1 is Correct: To safeguard public
property and to abjure violence is one of the
fundamental duties provided in article 51A of
Indian Constitution.
• Statement 2 is Correct: Article 51A of Indian
constitution also provide that It is the duty of
citizen to uphold and protect the sovereignty, unity
and integrity of India
• Statement 3 is Incorrect: To organise agriculture
and animal husbandry on modern and scientific
lines is one of the directive principle provided
under article 48 of Indian Constitution
Q.55) Ans: D
Exp:
• Statement 1 is incorrect: The Kitchen cabinet is
one of the features of American presidential form
of government.It is only an advisory body and
consists of non-elected departmental
secretaries.They are selected, appointed and
removed by the president and also responsible to
the president only.
• Statement 2 is incorrect: Fusion of the power is
one of the features of a Parliamentary form of
Government as in a parliamentary system
executive and legislature are together and
inseparable. separation of power is the feature of
the Presidential form of government.
• Statement 3 is incorrect: Dissolution of the lower
house is one of the features of a Parliamentary
form of Government.As the lower house i.e. Lok
Sabha can be dissolved by the president on
recommendation of the prime minister.
Q.56) Ans: C
Exp:
• Option 1 is Correct: Dictatorship of the cabinet is
one of the demerits of the parliamentary form of
government as when the ruling party enjoys the
absolute majority in the parliament cabinet can
become Autocratic and exercise nearly unlimited
power.
• Option 2 is Correct: Government by the amature is
one of the demerits of the parliamentary form of
government as the Ministers are not expert in their
fields.
• Option 3 is incorrect: Parliamentary form of
Government is based on fusion of power which
goes against the separation of power.
• Option 4 is Correct: One of the demerits of
Parliamentary form of Government is that it does
not provide a guarantee of a stable government as
there is no guarantee that government can survive
its tenure. A no confidence motion or political
defection can make the government unstable.
Q.57) Ans: B
Exp:
• Statement 1 is incorrect: In unitary form of
Government constitution can be written as in
France or unwritten as in Britain
• Statement 2 is Correct: In unitary form of
Government there is no division of power all the
power vested with the national government
• Statement 3 is incorrect: In unitary form of
Government Judiciary may be independent or
may not be independent
Q.58) Ans: B
Exp:
• Option 1 is Correct: Presence of all India services is
one of the unitary features of the Indian
Constitution.Officers of all india services serve
their respected state cadre but they are recruited
and trained by the centre which also possesses the
ultimate control over them. Hence this services
violate the principle of federalism.
• Option 2 is Correct: In India Election Commission
conducts the election not only of the Central
IDMP DAY 13 27
 legislature but also the state legislature.But this
body is constituted by the president and state has
no control over it.Hence it is one of the unitary
feature of Indian constitution
• Option 3 is Correct: In India the process of
constitutional amendment is less rigid than the
other Federation as the bulk of the Constitution
can be amended by the unilateral action of a
parliament either by the simple majority or by the
special majority. Further state legislature have no
power to initiate the Constitutional Amendment
• Option 4 is incorrect: Supremacy of the
constitution is a federal feature of a constitution
not a unitary feature
Q.59) Ans: C
Exp:
• Statement 1 is incorrect: Indian federation is an
indestructible Union of destructible states. As the
states in India have no right to territorial integrity.
The Parliament can by unilateral action change the
area, boundaries or name of any state which only
requires a simple majority.
• Statement 2 is incorrect: American Federation is
an indestructible Union of indestructible states.
Q.60) Ans: C
Exp:
• Option A is correct: Article 29 provides that any
section of the citizens residing in any part of India
having a distinct language, script or culture of its
own, shall have the right to conserve the same.
The Supreme Court held that the scope of this
article is not necessarily restricted to minorities
only. This is because of the use of the words
‘section of citizens’ in the Article that include
minorities as well as majority.
• Option B is correct: 44th Amendment Act provided
that rights under Article 20 and 21 are enforceable
even during emergency.
• Option C is incorrect: The term ‘untouchability’
has not been defined either in the Constitution or
in the Protection of Civil Rights Act, 1955. The
Mysore High Court held that the subject matter of
Article 17 is not untouchability in its literal or
grammatical sense but the ‘practice as it had
developed historically in the country’.
• Option D is correct: Rights under Article 15, 16,
19, 29 and 30 are available to citizens only and are
denied to non-citizens.
Reference: Laxmikanth
Q.61) Ans: D
Exp:
• Statement 1 is incorrect: Article 21 of the
Constitution provides that no person shall be
deprived of his life or personal liberty except
according to the procedure established by law. The
Supreme Court had introduced the concept of ‘due
process of law’ in the Maneka Gandhi case (1978).
• Statement 2 is incorrect: The Supreme Court has
declared right to privacy (in Puttuswamy Case) and
right to internet (in Anuradha Bhasin v. Union of
India case) as fundamental rights. But the right to
privacy is declared as a fundamental right under
Article 21, whereas the right to the internet is
under Article 19 of the Constitution.
• Statement 3 is correct: Article 21 is the only article
of the Constitution that has received widest
possible interpretation with the Supreme Court
declaring various rights such as right to health,
right to education up to 14 years of age, right to
speedy trial, right to fair trial, right to free legal aid
etc. as fundamental rights under it.
Q.62) Ans: B
Exp:
• Option A is correct – Article 37 provides that
DPSPs are fundamental in governance of the
country.
• Option B is incorrect – To protect and improve the
natural environment including forests, lakes,
rivers and wildlife and to have compassion for
living creatures is a fundamental duty under
Article 51A (g) of the Constitution.
• Option C is correct - Directive Principles, though
non-justiciable in nature, help the courts in
examining and determining the constitutional
validity of a law. The Supreme Court has ruled
many a times that in determining the
constitutional validity of any law, if a court finds
that the law in question seeks to give effect to a
Directive Principle, it may consider such law to be
‘reasonable’ in relation to Article 14 or 19 and thus
save such law from unconstitutionality.
• Option D is correct - Article 50 provides that “The
State shall take steps to separate the judiciary
from the executive in the public services of the
State.”
Reference - Laxmikanth
Q.63) Ans: C
IDMP DAY 13 28
Exp:
• Option A is incorrect: The lower house of the
Parliament can be dissolved by the President on
the recommendations of the Prime Minister.
• Option B is incorrect: The President is the head of
the State, while the Prime Minister is the head of
the government.
• Option C is correct: Article 74 provides for a
Council of Ministers headed by the Prime Minister
to aid and advise the President in the exercise of
his functions. The 42nd and 44th Constitutional
Amendments have made the ministerial advice
binding on the President.
• Option D is incorrect: In case the ruling party loses
its majority in the lower house, the leader of
opposition does not automatically become the
Prime Minister. He/she has to prove his/her
majority in the lower house.
Q.64) Ans: A
Exp:
• Option A is correct: The Preamble provides the
source of authority of the Constitution as the
people of India.
• Option B is incorrect: The Preamble provides
liberty of thought, expression, belief, faith and
worship.
• Option C is incorrect: The Preamble has been
amended only once through 42nd Constitutional
Amendment Act, 1976 which added three new
words—Socialist, Secular and Integrity—to the
Preamble.
• Option D is incorrect: In the Berubari Union case,
the Supreme Court held that the Preamble is not a
part of the Constitution. It is in the Kesavananda
Bharati case that the Supreme Court held that the
Preamble is part of the Constitution.
Q.65) Ans: C
Exp:
• The directive for separation of the judiciary from
the executive has been provided under Article 50,
which was part of the original Constitution.
• The directive to secure opportunities for healthy
development of children has been provided under
Article 39(f), which was added through 42nd
Constitutional Amendment Act, 1976.
• In the Minerva Mills Case (1980), the Supreme
court held that the Indian constitution is founded
on the bedrock of the balance between the
fundamental rights and directive principle.
• Provision for consequential seniority in promotion
in favour of Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes
under Article 16(4A) was added through 85th
Constitutional Amendment Act, 2001.
Q.66) Ans: B
Exp:
• Statement 1 is correct: Article 42 of the
Constitution provides that the State shall make
provision for just and humane conditions of work
and maternity relief
• Statement 2 is incorrect: Article 51A(f) assigns
every citizen a fundamental duty to value and
preserve the rich heritage of the country’s
composite culture.
• Statement 3 is incorrect: Article 51A(c) assigns
every citizen a fundamental duty to uphold and
protect the sovereignty, unity and integrity of India
• Statement 4 is correct: Article 47 of the
Constitution provides “Duty of the State to raise
the level of nutrition and the standard of living and
to improve public health”.
Q.67)Ans: D
Exp:
• Statement 1 is incorrect: The Democratic polity in
India is based on the Doctrine of popular
sovereignty, i.e. the possession of the supreme
power by the people. However, India is not a
direct democracy but an indirect (representative)
democracy where people elect their
representatives to exercise the supreme power
and thus carry on the government and make the
laws.
• Statement 2 is incorrect: Referendum is a
procedure whereby a proposed legislation is
referred to the electorate for settlement by their
direct votes. There is no provision in the
Constitution for holding a referendum. Elections
are held every five years, where everybody
exercises their voting right.
• Statement 3 is correct: The term ‘democratic’ is
used in the Preamble in the broader sense
embracing not only political democracy but also
social and economic democracy.
Reference: Laxmikanth
https://www.hindustantimes.com/delhi/no-provision-
for-referendum-in-india-experts-on-kejriwal-s-call-for-
delhi-vote/story-mMj77ofwAK55aJQlNovxRN.html
Q.68) Ans: D
IDMP DAY 13 29
Exp:
National Coal Index (NCI) - It is a price index which
reflects the change of price level of coal in a particular
month relative to the fixed base year.
• Statement 1 is incorrect: The base year for the NCI
is FY 2017-18.
The prices of coal from all the sales channels of
coal, including import are taken into account for
compiling the NCI.
• Statement 3 is incorrect: It is composed of a set of
five sub-indices: three for Non-Coking Coal and
two for Coking Coal.
The three sub-indices for Non-Coking Coal are
combined to arrive at the Index for Non-Coking
Coal and the two sub-indices for Coking Coal are
combined to arrive at the Index for Coking Coal.
• Statement 2 is incorrect: The NCI does not include
a separate sub-index for the regulated and non-
regulated sector, citing the lack of data and the
future model of commercial mining.
NEWS: Recently, the Ministry of Coal has started
commercial auction of coal mines on a revenue share
basis using the National Coal Index (NCI).
SOURCE: http://coal.nic.in/nominated-
authority/national-coal-index
Q.69) Ans: B
Exp:
• Statement 1 is incorrect: Skill Acquisition and
Knowledge Awareness for Livelihood Promotion
(“SANKALP”) is a programme of the Ministry of Skill
Development with loan assistance from the World
Bank. It aims to improve short term skill training
qualitatively and quantitatively through
strengthening institutions, bringing in better
market connectivity and inclusion of marginalised
sections of the society. SANKALP was launched on
19th January 2018 and has a tenure till March
2023.
Initiatives launched under SANKALP -
• Statement 2 is correct: Mahatma Gandhi National
Fellowship (MGNF) - The fellows under MGNF will
acquire academic expertise and technical
competency in understanding the overall skill
ecosystem along with being attached to District
Skill Committees (DSCs).
Skill training on Gender Sensitisation and Prevention of
Sexual Harassment (POSH) at the workplace -
Implementation Agency - Management and
Entrepreneurship and Professional Skill Council
(MEPSC).
o It is a six-month project.
o It will be implemented in 15 districts across 3
states of Rajasthan, Haryana, and Punjab to
train 1800 trainees and 240 training
professionals.
NEWS: Recently, the Union Minister of Skill
Development and Entrepreneurship has chaired a
function ‘Transforming skilling through strategic
partnerships under SANKALP’.
SOURCE: https://pib.gov.in/
Q.70) Ans: C
Exp:
About NUDM -
• Statement 1 is correct: It has been launched by the
Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs (MoHUA). In
partnership with the Ministry of Electronics and
Information Technology (MEITY).
• Statement 3 is correct: Aim is To build the shared
digital infrastructure that will strengthen the
capacity of the urban ecosystem to solve complex
problems.
• Under this program the digital infrastructure will
be built across three pillars of People, Process and
platform. The infrastructure will provide holistic
support to cities and towns.
• Statement 2 is incorrect: The NUDM aims to
institutionalise a citizen-centric and ecosystem-
driven approach to urban governance and service
delivery. The NUDM will be completed in 2022
cities by 2022. Further, it will be expanded across
all cities and towns in India by 2024.
NEWS: The Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs has
launched the National Urban Digital Mission(NUDM)
and several other initiatives for transforming urban
governance.
SOURCE: https://nudm.mohua.gov.in/
Q.71) Ans: C
Exp:
Production Linked Incentive (PLI) Scheme -
• Statement 1 is incorrect: It is a Central Sector
scheme.
o The scheme was notified in April 2020 for the
Large-Scale Electronics Manufacturing.
o This was notified with the objective of
providing the financial incentives for domestic
manufacturing of goods. The scheme also
seeks to attract large investments.
o It was initially launched for the domestic
manufacturing of Mobile Phones and Specified
Electronic Components.
IDMP DAY 13 30
 o In the later phase, it was rolled out for the
pharmaceutical ingredients and medical
devices.
• Statement 2 is incorrect: Incentive offered under
PLI Scheme - This scheme provides 4% to 6%
incentive on incremental to the eligible companies
who are manufacturing goods for 5 years period.
• Statement 3 is correct: The companies that are
registered in India and involved in the
manufacturing of goods are covered under the
Target Segments of the scheme. These companies
are eligible for the incentives under the scheme.
NEWS: Recently, the Union Finance Minister in her
Budget Speech 2021-22 has announced the Mega
Investment Textiles Parks (MITRA) scheme.
SOURCE: https://www.meity.gov.in/esdm/pli
Q.72) Ans: D
Exp:
Washington Consensus - It refers to a set of free-
market economic policies supported by prominent
financial institutions such as the International
Monetary Fund, the World Bank, and the U.S. Treasury.
A British economist named John Williamson coined the
term Washington Consensus in 1989.
It included the following -
• Tax reform, broadening the tax base and adopting
moderate marginal tax rates
• Market determined interest rates.
• Competitive exchange rates.
• Liberalization of trade.
• Liberalization of inward FDI.
• Privatization of state enterprises.
• Deregulation and
• Legal security for property right
NEWS: Recently, the Union Government through its
Budget 2021-22 has signalled its fiscal deficit at 9.5% of
GDP for FY21 and 6.8% in FY22.
SOURCE:
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Washington_Consens
us
Q.73) Ans: B
Exp:
Atal Bhujal Yojana -
• Statement 1 is incorrect: It is a Central Sector
Scheme for facilitating sustainable groundwater
management with an outlay of INR 6000 crore.
It is a World Bank funded project with 50%
contribution and rest from the Government of
India.
• Statement 3 is correct: The funds under the
scheme shall be provided to the states as grants-
in-aid.
• Statement 2 is correct: Implementing body- The
Department of Water Resources, River
Development & Ganga Rejuvenation, Ministry of
Jal Shakti.
NEWS: Recently, the Minister of State for Jal Shakti &
Social Justice and Empowerment has given the
information regarding the status of Atal Bhujal Yojana
(Atal Jal).
SOURCE: http://mowr.gov.in/schemes/atal-bhujal-
yojana
Q.74) Ans: D
Exp:
• Statement 1 is correct: Employee Provident
Fund(EPF) Scheme - EPF is a social security scheme
under the Employees’ Provident Funds and
Miscellaneous Provisions Act, 1952.
Managed by - The scheme is managed under the
aegis of Employees’ Provident Fund Organization
(EPFO).
• Statement 2 is correct: EPF accounts are
mandatory for employees earning up to ₹15,000 a
month in firms with over 20 workers.
• Statement 3 is correct: Under the scheme, an
employee has to pay a 12% contribution towards
the scheme. An equal contribution is paid by the
employer. The employee gets a lump sum amount
including self and employer’s contribution with
interest on both on retirement.
In Budget 2020, the government had capped the
contributions by employers into funds EPF or the
National Pension Scheme at ₹7.5 lakh a year.
NEWS: The government has proposed to make the
interest earned on EPF contributions beyond ₹2.5 lakh
Taxable.
SOURCE: https://www.epfindia.gov.in
Q.75)Ans: D
Exp:
• Statement 1 is correct: Consumer Welfare Fund -
It was set up under the Central Goods and Services
Tax (CGST) Act, 2017. The consumer welfare fund
rules of 1992 have been subsumed under the CGST
rules, 2017.
• Statement 2 is correct: The Fund has been set up
by the Department of Revenue (Ministry of
Finance) and is being operated by the Department
of Consumer Affairs (Ministry of Consumer Affairs,
Food & Public Distribution).
IDMP DAY 13 31
• Statement 3 is correct: Objective - To promote
and protect the welfare of the consumers.
NEWS: During the ongoing session the Union
Minister of State for Consumer Affairs, Food and
Public Distribution has informed the parliament
about the Consumer Welfare Fund (CWF).
SOURCE: https://consumeraffairs.nic.in
Q.76) Ans: C
Exp:
About Gobardhan scheme -
• Statement 1 is correct: The Galvanizing Organic
Bio-Agro Resources Dhan (GOBAR-DHAN) scheme
is implemented under the Swachh Bharat Mission
Gramin-Phase 2, by the Department of Drinking
Water and Sanitation under the Jal Shakti ministry.
• Statement 2 is incorrect: It was launched in 2018.
• Statement 1 is correct: The scheme aims to
augment income of farmers by converting
biodegradable waste into compressed biogas
(CBG).
The initiative aims at attracting entrepreneurs for
establishing community-based CBG plants in rural
areas.
NEWS: Recently, a Unified Portal of Gobardhan has
been launched to ensure smooth implementation of
Biogas schemes/initiatives and their real time tracking.
SOURCE: https://vikaspedia.in
Q.77) Ans: A
Exp:
Global Climate Litigation Report 2020 - The report was
published by the UNEP in cooperation with the Sabin
Center for Climate Change Law at Columbia University.
The report highlights that the Climate litigation cases
have increased in recent years. The litigation has made
the courtroom increasingly relevant to efforts to
address climate change across the world.
NEWS: The United Nations Environment Programme
(UNEP) has released its “Global Climate Litigation
Report 2021”.
SOURCE: https://www.unep.org/
Q.78) Ans: D
Exp:
Centre for Wetland Conservation and Management -
Coastal And Marine Programmes. CEE is a knowledge
consortium partner of the National Centre for
Sustainable Coastal Management (NCSCM) which has
been established under the provisions of the Coastal
Regulation Zone (CRZ) 2011 Notification.
• Statement 1 is correct: This Centre will be a part of
the National Centre for Sustainable Coastal
Management (NCSCM), Chennai - An institution
under the Ministry of Environment, Forest and
Climate Change.
• Statement 2 is correct: It will help in building
partnerships and networks with relevant national
and international agencies.
WCM would serve as a knowledge hub and enable
exchange between State/ UT Wetland Authorities,
wetland users, researchers, etc.
• Statement 3 is correct: It would assist the national
and State/ UT Governments in the design and
implementation of policy and regulatory
frameworks, management planning, monitoring
and targeted research for its conservation.
NEWS: The Indian government announced the
establishment of the first Centre for Wetland
Conservation and Management (CWCM).
SOURCE: https://pib.gov.in/
Q.79) Ans: C
Exp:
Covering both Kumaon and Garhwal regions, Shivalik
Elephant Reserve is the premier and only elephant
reserve of Uttarakhand.
• Statement 1 is correct: It was notified in 2002
under the ‘Project Elephant’. Shivalik Elephant
Reserve is considered to have one of the highest
densities of elephants found in India.
• Statement 2 is correct: The Kansora-Barkot
Elephant Corridor is located near to it.
NEWS: The Uttarakhand government issued a stay on
its earlier government order (GO) to denotify the
Shivalik Elephant Reserve.
SOURCE: Onlyias
Q.80) Ans: A
Exp:
Brookesia nana - A chameleon discovered in the island
country of Madagascar by scientists from Germany and
Madagascar may be the world’s smallest adult reptile.
• It may be the world’s smallest adult reptile.
• The male has a total length of 21.6 mm. The female
is slightly longer at 28.9 mm.
Previously, the chameleon species Brookesia micra was
thought to be the smallest.
NEWS: A chameleon discovered in the island country
of Madagascar by scientists from Germany and
Madagascar may be the world’s smallest adult reptile.
The discovery has been reported in the journal
Scientific Reports.
IDMP DAY 13 32
SOURCE: Onlyias
Q.81) Ans: B
Exp:
World Sustainable Development Summit 2021 -
• Statement 1 is incorrect: It is the annual flagship
event that is organised by the Energy and
Resources Institute (TERI).
The summit will be organised with the aim to bring
together a wide number of governments,
academicians, business leaders, climate scientists,
civil society and youth to fight against climate
change.
• Statement 2 is correct: The key partners of the
summit are the Ministry of New and Renewable
Energy, Ministry of Environment, Forests & Climate
Change and the Ministry of Earth Sciences.
• Statement 3 is correct: The summit is organised
in accordance with the adoption of the Sustainable
Development Goals and the Paris Agreement.
• Lighting a Billion Lives (LaBL) - It is an initiative of
TERI to provide clean lighting access to the bottom
of the pyramid communities.
NEWS: Prime Minister Narendra Modi will inaugurate
the World Sustainable Development Summit 2021 on
10th February.
SOURCE: https://wsds.teriin.org/
Q.82) Ans: B
Exp:
Wildlife Crime Control Bureau (WCCB) - Wildlife Crime
Control Bureau (WCCB) is a statutory body established
by the Government of India under the Ministry of
Environment, Forest and Climate Change to combat
organised wildlife crime. The Wild Life (Protection)
Amendment Act, 2006 provisions came into force on 4
September 2006. It became operational in the year
2008.
• Statement 1 incorrect: It is a statutory multi-
disciplinary body.
• Statement 2 correct: It functions under the
Ministry of Environment and Forests. Its
responsibilities include combating organized
wildlife crime in the country. Under Section 38 (Z)
of the Wild Life (Protection) Act, 1972, it is
mandated to - Collect intelligence related to
organized wildlife crime activities. And to circulate
it to the States and other enforcement agencies for
immediate actions, to catch the criminals.
• Statement 3 correct: Establish a centralized
wildlife crime data bank.
NEWS: The Wildlife Crime Control Bureau (WCCB) has
received the Asia Environmental Enforcement Award-
2020 awarded by the United Nations Environment
Programme.
SOURCE: http://wccb.gov.in/
Q.83) Ans: A
Exp:
Olive Ridley Turtles -
• Statement 1 is correct: The Olive ridley turtles are
the smallest and most abundant of all sea turtles
found in the world. These turtles are carnivores
and get their name from their olive colored
carapace.
• Statement 2 is correct: Habitat - They are found in
warm waters of the Pacific, Atlantic and Indian
oceans.
The Odisha’s Gahirmatha Marine Sanctuary is
known as the world’s largest rookery (colony of
breeding animals) of sea turtles. An arribada is a
mass-nesting event when thousands of turtles
come ashore at the same time to lay eggs on the
same beach.
Protection Status -
Wildlife Protection Act, 1972: Scheduled 1
• Statement 3 is incorrect: IUCN Red List: Vulnerable
CITES: Appendix I
NEWS: The Orissa High Court has taken suo motu
cognisance of the death of around 800 Olive Ridley sea
turtles due to negligence by Odisha’s forest and
fisheries departments.
SOURCE:
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Olive_ridley_sea_turtl
e
Q.84) Ans: B
Exp:
• Centre for Science and Environment (CSE) is a not-
for-profit public interest research and advocacy
organisation based in New Delhi, India. Established
in 1980, CSE works as a think tank on environment-
development issues in India, poor planning,
climate shifts devastating India's Sundarbans and
advocates for policy changes and better
implementation of the already existing policies.
• Centre for Science and Environment (CSE) has
released the State of Environment Report, 2021.
It is an annual publication by the Centre for Science
and Environment(CSE) along with Down To Earth.
It covers aspects such as forests, wildlife,
agriculture, rural development, water and
sanitation, and climate change. This publication is
IDMP DAY 13 33
Statement 1 is correct: Indian National Centre for
Ocean Information Services (INCOIS) - It is an
autonomous organization. It was established in 1999
under the Ministry of Earth Sciences (MoES).
• Statement 2 is correct: It is a unit of the Earth
System Science Organization(ESSO).
• Statement 3 is correct: Potential Fishing Zone (PFZ)
- This is the first advisory service started by INCOIS.
The backbone of this service is the real-time data
for ocean color and SST provided by the OCEANSAT
and NOAA respectively. This service was started
because there was a need to identify the potential
fishing zones to help the fishermen to get better
catch while they were at the sea. This service was
started by the Ministry of Earth Sciences with the
help of the Department of Space and several
institutions under the Ministry of Agriculture.
NEWS: The Indian National Centre for Ocean
Information Services (INCOIS) is planning to conduct
airline mapping of Andaman and Nicobar Islands and
Lakshadweep to get a better picture of the ocean floor.
SOURCE: https://incois.gov.in/
Q.90) Ans: A
Exp:
• Statement 1 is incorrect: The only limitations are
that members cannot refer to matters which are
not the direct responsibility of the Central
Government and that the name of the President
cannot be brought in during the debate since the
Government and not the President is responsible
for the contents of the Address.
• Statement 2 is incorrect:
The President's Address and Motion of Thanks are
governed by Articles 86 (1) and 87 (1) of the
Constitution and Rules 16 to 24 of the Rules of
Procedure and Conduct of Business in Lok Sabha.
• Statement 3 is correct: A failure to get motion of
thanks passed amounts to defeat of government
and leads to collapse of government. This is why
the Motion of Thanks is deemed to be a no-
confidence motion.
NEWS: As many as 50 speakers from 25 political parties
participated in the debate in Rajya Sabha on the
Motion of Thanks lasting over three days.
SOURCE: OnlyIas
Q.91) Ans: D
Exp:
• Statement 1 is incorrect: Parliamentary Approval
and Duration for State emergency-
A proclamation imposing President’s Rule must be
approved by both the Houses of Parliament within
two months from the date of its issue.
• Statement 2 is incorrect: The approval takes place
through simple majority in either House, that is, a
majority of the members of the House present and
voting.
• Statement 3 is incorrect: Initially valid for six
months, the President’s Rule can be extended for a
maximum period of three years with the approval
of the Parliament, every six months.
NEWS: The Supreme Court has dismissed a PIL that
sought imposition of President’s rule in Uttar Pradesh
for alleged breakdown of constitutional machinery and
rising crime in the state.
SOURCE: OnlyIas
Q.92) Ans: A
Exp:
WhistleBlowers Protection Act, 2014 -
It provides a broad definition of a whistle blower that
goes beyond government officials and includes any
other person or non-governmental organisation.
• Statement 1 is correct: The person may make a
public interest disclosure to a competent authority
even if they are prohibited under the Official
Secrets Act (OSA), 1923.
• Statement 2 is incorrect: It does not apply to the
armed forces of the Union.
• Statement 3 is incorrect: Any person aggrieved by
any order of the Competent Authority may prefer
an appeal to the High Court within a period of sixty
days from the date of the order.
NEWS: Recently, the Vice-President of India has
suggested that all corporations encourage whistle-
blowing mechanisms and provide adequate safeguards
for the protection of whistle-blowers.
SOURCE: https://indianexpress.com/
Q.93) Ans: B
Exp:
International Criminal Court -
It is an intergovernmental international tribunal for
Criminal prosecution of individuals for four main
crimes namely –Genocide, War crimes, Crimes against
humanity and Crime of aggression.
IDMP DAY 13 35
It sits in the Hague, in the Netherlands.
It began functioning on 1st July 2002, the date that the
Rome statute entered into force.
• Statement 2 is correct: It is the first permanent,
treaty based, international court established to
help end impunity for the perpetrators of the most
serious crimes of concern to the international
community.
• Statement 3 is correct: Assembly of State Parties
- It is the court's legislative and oversight body. It
consists of one representative from each member
state. Each state has one vote.
• Statement 1 is incorrect: It is independent from
the UN. However, the Rome Statute grants certain
powers to UNSC, which limits its functional
independence.
NEWS: The International Criminal Court convicted a
former commander (Dominic Ongwen) in the
notorious Ugandan rebel group the Lord’s Resistance
Army of dozens of war crimes and crimes against
humanity ranging from multiple murders to forced
marriages.
SOURCE:
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/International_Crimina
l_Court
Q.94) Ans: A
Exp:
• Statement 1 is incorrect: NATMO is a subordinate
department under the Department of Science &
Technology.
Headquarter - Kolkata.
• Statement 2 is correct: It is a sole national agency
with the responsibility to depict national
framework data in the form of thematic maps and
atlases to cater the various needs of different
sectors.
NEWS: Recently NATMO has organised the 40th Indian
National Cartographic Association (INCA) International
Congress.
SOURCE: http://www.natmo.gov.in/
Q.95) Ans: B
Exp:
About Committee on World Food Security -
• Statement 1 is incorrect: It was established in 1974
as an intergovernmental body.
• Statement 2 is correct: It has a permanent
Secretariat. It is located in the Food and Agriculture
Organization of the United Nations (FAO)
headquarters in Rome, Italy.
• Statement 3 is incorrect: The Committee reports
to the UN General Assembly through the Economic
and Social Council (ECOSOC) and to FAO
Conference.
It receives its core funding equally from The Food
and Agricultural Organization (FAO), The
International Fund for Agricultural Development
(IFAD) and The World Food Programme (WFP).
NEWS: The UN Committee on World Food Security
(CFS) has endorsed the first-ever Voluntary Guidelines
on Food Systems and Nutrition(VGFSyN).
SOURCE:
https://www.who.int/mediacentre/events/2016/co
mmittee-food-security/en/
Q.96) Ans: D
Exp:
About FATF -
• Statement 1 is correct: It is an inter-governmental
body established in 1989 during the G7 Summit in
Paris.
• Its Secretariat is located at the Organisation for
Economic Cooperation and Development (OECD)
headquarters in Paris.
• Statement 2 is correct: The FATF currently has 39
members including two regional organisations —
the European Commission and Gulf Cooperation
Council. India is a member of the FATF.
• The FATF Plenary is the decision-making body of
the FATF. It meets three times per year.
• Statement 3 is correct: The Asia/Pacific Group on
Money Laundering (APG) is a FATF style regional
inter-governmental (international) body, the
members of which are committed to implement
international standards against money laundering
(AML), the financing of terrorism (CTF) and
financing the proliferation of weapons of mass
destruction. APG was founded in 1997 in Bangkok,
Thailand, and currently consists of 41 member
jurisdictions in the Asia-Pacific region and a
number of observer jurisdictions and
international/regional observer organisations. The
APG Secretariat is located in Sydney, Australia.
NEWS: The Financial Action Task Force (FATF) has
decided to retain Pakistan on the “greylist” till the next
review of its performance on its recommendations
during the June Plenary session.
SOURCE: https://www.fatf-gafi.org/
IDMP DAY 13 36

Q.97) Ans: C
Exp:
• Statement 1 is incorrect: Helina is the helicopter-
launched version of the Nag missile system.
• Statement 2 is incorrect: Dhruvastra is an Indian
Air Force variant of Helina.
• Statement 3 is correct: All three anti-tank missile
systems have been indigenously developed by
Defence Research and Development Organisation
(DRDO).
NEWS: Recently, India has successfully test-fired
indigenously-developed anti-tank guided missile
systems ‘Helina’ and ‘Dhruvastra’ in the Pokhran range,
Thar desert (Rajasthan).
SOURCE: Onlyias
Q.98) Ans: A
Exp:
KAPILA campaign - It is an intellectual property literacy
campaign for creating patent awareness and stands for
Kalam Program for Intellectual Property Literacy and
Awareness Campaign (KAPILA).
NEWS: Recently, the Union Minister of Education has
provided information on the Kalam Program for
Intellectual Property Literacy and Awareness Campaign
(KAPILA).
SOURCE: https://pib.gov.in/
• Option A is correct: Both the Parliament and State
Legislature can concurrently make a law of
preventive detention for reasons connected with
the security of a state, the maintenance of public
order and the maintenance of supplies and
services essential to the community.
• Option B is correct: The 44th Constitutional
Amendment Act provided that the President
cannot suspend the right to move the Court for the
enforcement of fundamental rights guaranteed
under Article 20 or 21.
• Option C is correct: Article 19(6) provides that the
State is empowered to carry on by itself any trade,
business, industry or service whether to the
exclusion (complete or partial) of citizens or
otherwise. Thus, no objection can be made if the
State carries on trade, business as monopoly

Q.99) Ans: C
Exp:
• Statement 1 is incorrect: Fundamental rights aim
at establishing political democracy in the country,
whereas DPSP establishes Socio-Economic
democracy in the country.
• Statement 2 is correct: They are not absolute but
qualified i.e. The state can impose reasonable
restrictions on them. However, whether such
restrictions are reasonable or not is to be decided
by the courts.
• Statement 3 is correct: The Fundamental Rights
are meant for promoting the ideal of political
democracy. They operate as limitations on the
tyranny of the executive and arbitrary laws of the
legislature. In short, they aim at establishing ‘a
government of laws and not of men’.

Q.100) Ans: D
Exp:

IDMP DAY 13 37