Radar 1

NĐ RADAR Edited by AR
NĂNG ĐỊNH 2020 – RADAR
LÝ THUYẾT CHUNG
LAW
Câu 1. Which appropriate authority shall be approved the establishment and
operation of the airways (sourced by VN Civil Aviation Law 2014):
(x) A. Prime minister.
B. Ministry of transport.
C. Ministry of national defense.
D. Ministry of foreign affairs.
Câu 2. When being on duty, which certification shall air traffic controller hold
with ? (sourced by VN Civil Aviation Law 2014):
A. The validated certificate which is issued or admitted by the ministry of
transport.
B. The validated health certificate.
(x) C. Both 1 and 2
D. 1 or 2.
Câu 3. The air traffic service includes:(sourced by VN Civil Aviation Law 2014)
A. Air traffic control service.
B. Flight information service.
C. Air traffic advisory service and alerting service.
(x) D. All of above.
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Câu 4. An aircraft operates in a defined airspace shall be controlled by:

(sourced by VN Civil Aviation Law 2014)
(x) A. An ATC unit.
B. 2 ATC units,
C. 3 ATC units,
D. 4 ATC units
Câu 5. Who shall decide the establishment of an enterprise providing air trafic
service? (sourced by VN Civil Aviation Law 2014)
A. Prime minister.
(x) B. Minister of transport
C. Minister of national defense.
D. ICAO.
Câu 6. Enterprise which provides air traffic service must: (sourced by VN Civil
Aviation Law 2014)
A. Provide adequate and uninterrupted air traffic service.
B. Comply with regulations on the management, utilization and defense of
the airspace, rules of the airand related guidance manuals on air trafic
service.
C. Coordinate with organizations concerned in handling emergency
situations, unlawful interference against civil flight operations and air
defense operation.
Câu 7. What is the title of chapter V in law on civil aviation of Viet

Nam?(Sourced by VN Civil Aviation Law 2014)
A. Aircraft.
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B. Aerodrome and airport.

C. Aviation personal.
(x) D. Air traffic management
Câu 8. Which appropriate authority of viet nam shall grant flight permission to
foreign Vip flights carrying the guests of party and state? (Sourced by VN Civil
Aviation Law 2014)
A. Ministry of national defense.
(x) B. Ministry of foreign affairs
C. Ministry of transport.
D. Civil aviation authority of vietnam.
Câu 9. Which appropriate authority of vietnam shall grant flight permission to

vietnamese and foreign military aircraft? (Sourced by VN Civil Aviation Law
2014)
(x) A. Ministry of national defense .
B. Ministry of foreign affairs.
C. Ministry of transport.
Câu 10. By which appropriate authority of viet nam shall grant flight
permission for civil flights operated in Viet Nam be issued? (Sourced by VN
Civil Aviation Law 2014)
(x) C. Ministry of transport .
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Câu 11. Which flight Shall Ministry of national defense issue permission for?
(Sourced by VN Civil Aviation Law 2014)
A. Vietnamese military flights.
B. Foreign military flights.
C. VIP flights.
(x) D. 1 and 2
Câu 12. Which appropriate authority of Viet Nam shall grant flight permission
to civil flights operated in Viet Nam including those operated by Vietnamese
and foreign aircraft for civil purposes,Vietnamese VIP flights? (Sourced by VN
Civil Aviation Law 2014)
(x) C. Ministry of transport
D. 1 and 2.
Câu 13. Which chapter in law on civil aviation of Viet Nam describe the
requirement of air traffic controller's license?(Sourced by VN Civil Aviation
Law 2014)
A. Chapter 1.
B. Chapter 2.
C. Chapter 3.
(x) D. Chapter 4 .
Câu 14. Shall air traffic controller be issued with certificates only when he or
she has been trained at aviation training organizations which are approved by
ministry of transport? (Sourced by VN Civil Aviation Law 2014)
A. FALSE
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(x) B. TRUE
C.
D.
Câu 15. In case of unforeseen incident and in order to ensure the aviation safety
and security, who shall decide to close an airport temporarily for not more
than 24 hours? (Sourced by VN Civil Aviation Law 2014)
A. Minister of transport.
B. Minister of national defense.
C. Prime minister.
(x) D. Director of airport authority
Câu 16. Who shall determine to close an airport temporarily in case of the
improvement,expansion or upgrade of the airport? (Sourced by VN Civil
Aviation Law 2014)
(x) A. Minister of transport.
B. Minister of national defense,
C. Prime minister;
D. Director of airport authority
Câu 17. Which appropriate authority of Viet Nam shall issue health standards
for aviation personnel? (Sourced by VN Civil Aviation Law 2014)
A. Ministry of health.
B. Ministry of transport.
C. Ministry of national defense.
(x) D. 1 and 2
Câu 18. By which appropriate authority shall the establishment prohibited

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areas and restricted areas in the territory of Vietnambe approved? (Sourced by

VN Civil Aviation Law 2014)
(x) A. Prime minister.
B. Ministry of transport,
C. Ministry of national defense,
D. Ministry of foreign affairs
Câu 19. In Vietnam , the establishment of the air routes is decided by… ?
A. Ministry of Transport of Vietnam.
B. Ministry of Defense.
C. Civil Aviation Administration of Vietnam.
(x) D. Prime Minister
Câu 20. .…………..is responsible for management of organization and

operation of the air routes, the airspace of civil airports in Vietnam.
A. Ministry of Defense.
(x) B. Civil Aviation Administration of Vietnam,
C. Vietnam Air Traffic Management.
D. Ministry of Transport of Vietnam.
Câu 21. On a non-precision approach a so-called "straight-inapproach" is

considered acceptable, if the angle between the final approach track and the
runway centreline is :
(x) A. 30 degrees or less.
B. 40 degrees or less,
C. 20 degrees or less,
D. 10 degrees or less
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Câu 22. The minimum sector altitude provides 300 metres obstacle clearance
within how many miles radius from the navigation facility upon which the
instrument approach procedure is predicated:
A. 20 NM (37 km)
B. 30 NM (55 km)
(x) C. 25 NM (46 km).
D. 15 NM (28 km)
Câu 23. Where State has not established minimum IFR altitudes, the minimum
height of an aircraft above the highest obstacle over high terrain, or in
mountainous areas shall be for an IFR flight :
(x) A. at least 2000 feet within 8 KM of the estimated position.
B. at least 1000 feet within 5KM of the estimated position,
C. at least 1000 feet within 8 KM of the estimated position,
D. at least 2000 feet within 5KM of the estimated position
Câu 24. What is the outbound timing in a holding pattern above FL 140?
A. 2 minutes 30 seconds.
(x) B. 1 minute 30 seconds
C. 1 minute.
D. 2 minutes.
Câu 25. Flight Information Region (FIR) is an airspace within which the
following services are provided:
A. Flight Information Service, Alerting Service and Advisory Service.
B. Flight Information Service only.
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C. Flight Information Service and Advisory Service.

(x) D. Flight Information Service and Alerting Service .
Câu 26. Who establishes the OCA/H (Obstacle Clearance Altitude/Height) for
an approach procedure?
A. the operator.
B. the pilot-in-command.
C. the "flight-operations" of the company.
(x) D. the state
Câu 27. Unless otherwise published or instructed by ATC, all turns after initial
entry into the holding pattern shall be made into which direction?
(x) A. To the right.
B. To the left.
C. First right and then to the left.
D. Teardrop to the left and then to the right.
Câu 28. The position reports shall contain the following elements of information
in the order listed:
A. Aircraft identification, position, time, true air speed, flight level or
altitude, next position and time over.
B. Aircraft identification, position, time, flight level or altitude, next
position and time over.
(x) C. Aircraft identification, position, time, flight level or altitude, next
position and time over and ensuing significant point .
D. Aircraft identification, position, flight level or altitude,time, next
position and time over and ensuing significant point.
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Câu 29. Clearances will be issued by an ATC unit for the purpose of:
A. Providing alerting services
(x) B. Achieving separation between controlled flights.
C. Providing flight Information Service
D. Providing advisory services
Câu 30. Air traffic control service is provided for the purpose of:
(x) A. Preventing collisions between aircraft, between aircraft and obstacles on
the manoeuvring area and expediting and maintaining an orderly flow of air
traffic.
B. Applying separation between aircraft and expediting and maintaining an
orderly flow of air traffic,
C. Preventing collisions between controlled air traffic and expediting and
maintaining an orderly flow of air traffic,
D. Avoiding colisions between all aircraft and maintaining an orderly flow
of air traffic,
Câu 31. The contents of Aeronautical Information Publication (AIP) are :

(x) A. GEN, ENR (en-route) and AD (aerodromes)
B. GEN, AGA, COM, RAC, FAL, SAR, MET, MAP.
C. GEN, ENR, RAC, AD.
D. GEN, AGA, COM, ENR, FAL.
Câu 32. If radio contact with the intercepting aircraft is established but
communication on a common language is not possible, which phrase should be
pronounced by the intercepted aircraft to communicate that he is unable to
comply with the instructions received ?
A. CAN NOT COMPLY.
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B. UNABLE TO COMPLY.
C. NOT POSSIBLE.
(x) D. CAN NOT
Câu 33. When are ATIS broadcasts updated ?

A. Only when weather conditions change enough to require a change in the
active runway or instrument approach in use.
B. Only when the ceiling and/or visibility changes by a reportable value.
(x) C. Upon receipt of any official weather, regardless of content change or
reported values,
D. Every 30 minutes if weather conditions are below those for VFR ;
otherwise hourly.
Câu 34. The SIGMET service, is in the AIP, in the following part :
A. MET.
(x) B. GEN
C. ENR.
D. AGA.
Câu 35. Control Area (CTA) is defined as follows:

A. A controlled airspace extending upwards from a height of 1000 feet
above the earth
(x) B. A controlled airspace extending upwards from a specified limit above
the earth.
C. A controlled airspace extending upwards from a height of 900 feet above
the earth
D. A controlled airspace extending upwards from the surface of the earth to
a specified limit.
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Câu 36. The longitudinal separation minima between aircraft departed from
the same aerodrome and following the same track, and the preceeding aircraft
is maintaining a true airspeed of 20 kt or more faster than the succeeding
aircraft, is:
A. 3 minutes.
B. 10 minutes.
C. 2 minutes.
(x) D. 5 minutes
Câu 37. Except in some special cases the establishment of change-over points
should be limited to route segments of
(x) A. 60 NM or more,
B. 74 NM or more
C. 50 NM or more
D. 100 NM or more
Câu 38. How far beyond the boundary of the holding area extends the buffer
area?
A. 3 km.
(x) B. 5 NM .
C. 3 NM.
D. 5 km.
Câu 39. In a standard holding pattern turns are made :

A. to the left.
B. in a direction depending on the entry.
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C. in a direction depending on the wind direction.

(x) D. to the right
Câu 40. In which chapter of the AIP can you find a list with "location
indicators"?
(x) A. GEN.
B. AGA,
C. ENR
D. AD
Câu 41. In general, during a straight-in approach, the MDH cannot be below:
(x) A. The OCH.
B. 200 ft
C. 350 ft,
D. 400 ft
Câu 42. Air traffic services unit clocks and other time recording devices shall be
checked as necessary to ensure correct time to within plus or minus.
A. 10 seconds of UTC at all times.
B. 1 minute of UTC at all times.
(x) C. 30 seconds of UTC at all times
D. 15 seconds of UTC at all times.
Câu 43. IFR flights shall be carried out in compliance with

A. General rules of the air. .
B. Instrument flight rules.
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C. Visual flight rules and general rules.

(x) D. Instrument flight rules and general rules .
Câu 44. Minimum flight altitude ensures :

A. At least 300m (1000ft) above MSL
B. At least 300m (1000ft) above terrain
(x) C. At least 300m(1000ft ) above highest obstacles in plain area ,
600m(2000ft) above highest obstacles in mountain area .
D. All the above
Câu 45. ICAO Annex 11 defines Area Navigation (RNAV) as a method of

navigation which permits aircraft operation on any desired flight path
(x) A. within the coverage of station-referenced navigation aids or within the
limits of the capability of self-contained aids, or a combination of these.
B. outside the coverage of station-referenced navigation aids provided that
it is equipped wit h a minimum of one serviceable self-contained
navigation aid
C. within the coverage of station-referenced navigation aids provided that
it is equipped with a minimum of one serviceable self-contained navigation
aid
D. outside the coverage of station-referenced navigation aids provided that
it is equipped with a minimum of two serviceable self-contained
navigation aids,
Câu 46. Radar separation is :

A. The separation used when the aircraft eqiupped with airborn radar
B. The separation used when the aircraf operating in radar coverage area
C. The separation used by an air traffic controller having radar control
rating
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(x) D. The separation used when aircraf position information is derived from
radar sources
FACILITES
Câu 47. The ground component of the DME system shall be referred to:
(x) A. As transponder.
B. As transceiver,
C. As interrogator
D.
Câu 48. RNAV is …….which permits aircraft operation on a any desired flight
path within the coverage of station-referenced navigation aids or within the
limits of the capacity of self-contained aids , or a combination of these.
(x) A. A method of navigation
B. A procedure of navigation
C. A system of navigation
D. A rule of air traffic control
Câu 49. Two –way communication between aircraft and stations on the surface
of the earth. That is the definition of:
A. CPDLC ( Controller Pilot Data Link Communication).
(x) B. Air- ground communication
C. Air- to- ground communication.
D. Air- Air Traffic Service communication.
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Câu 50. The number assigned to a particular multiple pulse signals transmitted
by a transponder is:
A. mode
(x) B. code
C. interrogation
D. response
Câu 51. An aircraft system based on secondary surveillance radar (SSR)

transponder signals which operates independently of ground-based equipment
to provide advice to the pilot on potential conflicting aircraft that are equipped
with SSR transponders. That is the definition of:
A. Secondary Surveillance Radar (SSR)
B. Automatic Dependent Surveillance (ADS)
(x) C. Airborne Collision Avoidance System (ACAS)
D. Precision Approach Radar (PAR)
Câu 52. Radar is an acronym of:

A. Radio Detecting and Range.
B. Radio Detection and Range.
(x) C. Radio Detection and Ranging
D.
Câu 53. Ground to air communication is:

(x) A. One –way communication from station or location on the surface of the
earth to aircraft .
B. One –way communication from aircraft to station on the surface of the
earth to aircraft
C. Two –way communication between aeronautical station and the
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aeronautical mobile service.

D.
Câu 54. The ratio of an aircraft’s true air speed to the speed of the sound is:
A. Ground speed.
B. Relative wind.
C. Indicated air speed (IAS).
(x) D. MACH number
Câu 55. The aggregation of the airborne functions and ground - based functions
(air traffic services, airspace management and air traffic flow management)
required to ensure the safe and efficient movement of aircraft during all phases
of operations. That is the definition of:
A. Flow management control.
(x) B. Air traffic management
C. Air traffic flow management.
D. Flow control.
Câu 56. When a pressure type altimeter is set to a QNH altimeter setting, it
shall indicate:
A. Flight level.
(x) B. Altitude .
C. Height.
D. Pressure on runway surface.
Câu 57. The accuracy value is expected to be achieved at least ….. per cent of
the time by the population of aircraft operating within the RNP-10 airspace.
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A. 99
(x) B. 95
C. 90
D. 100
Câu 58. All current civil SSR systems use:

(x) A. The same frequencies i.e. 1030MHz for the ground to air transmission
and 1090MHz for the air to ground transmission.
B. The same frequencies i.e. 1090MHz for the ground to air transmission
and 1030MHz for the air to ground transmission,
C. The same frequency i.e. 1030MHz for transmissions on both directions
D.
Câu 59. An ILS CAT I can guide an arriving aircraft to:

A. Decision height of 30m
B. Outer marker
C. Middle marker
(x) D. Decision height of 60m.
Câu 60. An ILS CAT II can guide an arriving aircraft to:

(x) A. Decision height of 30m.
B. Outer marker,
C. Middle marker
D. Decision height of 60m
Câu 61. Which facility among the following provides aircraft with azimuth and
distance:
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A. NDB
(x) B. VOR/DME
C. ILS
D. DVOR
Câu 62. How many methods do you use for identification by SSR ?
A. 4
B. 5
(x) C. 6
D.
Câu 63. The surveillance radar normally used by ATC does not display altitude
information unless the aircraft is equipped with an altitude encoding
transponder. This is referred to as:
A. DME
B. Mode B
(x) C. Mode C
D. Altimeter
Câu 64. ATIS broadcasts shall be provided at aerodrome where there is a

required …:
(x) A. to reduce the communication load on the ATS VHF air ground
communication channels .
B. to assist the air traffic controllers to know information about weather at
aerodrome.
C. to notice the information about the condition of runway in use.
D. to announce information about departing and arriving aircraft to
passengers.
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Câu 65. In a primary radar system, the energy is:

A. Transmitted continuously and sent out in the form of pulses.
(x) B. Not transmitted continuously but is sent out in the form of pulses
C. Transmitted continuously and sent out in the form of continuous waves.
D.
Câu 66. In the event of a radio failure , an Air Traffic Control Tower may use a
gunlight to signal aircraft and /or vehicles on or near the airport. The light gun
is capable of signaling 3 different colors. They are:
A. red , white, blue
(x) B. red , green , white ,
C. red , yellow , green
D.
Câu 67. Which of the following is a precision approach ?

(x) A. ILS
B. VOR
C. NDB
D. LIZ only
Câu 68. When a pressure type altimeter is set to QFE Altimeter setting , it shall
indicate:
A. Flight level .
B. Altitude.
(x) C. Height
D. pressure on the runway surface.
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Câu 69. The distance between a taxi holding position and the centerline of a non
–precision approach runway of an aerodrome code 3 shall be:
A. 40m.
B. 60m.
(x) C. 75m
D. 90m.
Câu 70. Primary RADAR means:

A. A RADAR system which provides primary information of air traffic to
ATC unit.
(x) B. A RADAR system which uses reflected radio signal
C. A RADAR system which uses primary information from aircraft and
displays them on the RADAR screen.
D. A RADAR system which ATC uses first to determine aircraft position
in distance and azimuth.
Câu 71. Airfield lighting system CAT I consists of:

(x) A. Approach lights, RWY edge lights, RWY threshold lights, RWY end
lights , apron edge lights, PAPI, TWY edge lights, apron edge lights
B. Approach lights, RWY center lights, RWY threshold lights, RWY edge
lights, RWY end lights, touch down zone lights, PAPI, TWY edge lights,
TWY center lights.
C. And apron flood lights.
D. None of the above.
Câu 72. Secondary RADAR can provide:

A. Aircraft position information azimuth and range
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B. Aircraft identification code

C. Aircraft pressure altitude
(x) D. all the above
Câu 73. VASIS is one of the landing aids that we have in our airport. When an
aircraft flies on the correct slope, what color does the pilot see when descending
?
(x) A. Intermittent RED and WHITE.
B. Intermittent BLUE and WHITE ,
C. RED color only,
D. WHITE color only
Câu 74. In an SSR system, the interrogator transmission is made on a

frequency of:
A. 1090MHZ.
(x) B. 1030MHZ.
C. 1003MHz.
D. 1009 MHz.
Câu 75. In an SSR system, the transponder responds an interrogator signal

with a transmission on a frequency of:
(x) A. 1090MHz
B. 1030MHz
C. 1003MHz
D. 1009MHz
Câu 76. Radar separation based upon primary radar shall be the distance
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A. between the edges of the radar blips.

(x) B. between the centers of the radar blips
C. between the edge of one blip and the center of the other.
D. between the nearest edges of the blips.
Câu 77. The objectives of ATFM are to :

A. enhance the safety of the ATM system by ensuring the delivery of a safe
traffic densities and minimizing traffic surges.
B. ensure an optimum flow of air traffic throughout all phase of a flight by
balancing demand and capacity.
C. reconcile ATM system resource constraints with economic and
environmental priorities.
(x) D. all above.
Câu 78. Which are not exempted from ATFM measures :

A. flights experiencing an emergency, including aircraft subjected to
unlawful interference.
B. flights with ‘Head of State’ status.
C. flights specially identified by State authorities.
(x) D. scheduled flights
Câu 79. The frequencies used for survival radio equipment are:
(x) A. 121.5 MHz and 406 MHz.
B. 121.5 MHz and 423 MHz,
C. 120.5 MHz and 243 MHz
D. 120.5 MHz and 423 MHz
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Câu 80. ATC unit may use the following means of communications for co-
ordination purposes:
A. AFTN
B. Direct speech circuits
C. Data - exchange circuits
(x) D. All of the above
Câu 81. ADS-B stands for……

(x) A. Automatic Dependent Surveilance -Broadcast
B. Automated Dependent Surveilance -Broadcast
C. Automatic Direct Surveilance -Broadcast
D.
GENERAL KNOWLEDGE
Câu 82. A departing aircraft may take off in any direction until…before the
arriving is estimated to be over the instrument runway (in case the arriving is
making a straight-in-approach):
A. 10 minutes.
B. 3 minutes.
(x) C. 5 minutes
D. 15 minutes.
Câu 83. Standard phraseology confirmation to ascertain the RVSM approved

status of an aircraft:
A. (Callsign) Do you have RVSM,
(x) B. (Callsign) Confirm RVSM approved.
C. (Callsign) How about your RVSM status?
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D. Non is correct
Câu 84. Class “Heavy” of an aircraft indicates its capable of takeoff weight of:
A. more than 136 tons.
(x) B. 136 tons or more
C. 126 tons.
D. 1 and 2 is correct.
Câu 85. Minimum ceiling for standard operation using Visual Flight Rules in a
control zone is:
(x) A. 1500 ft,
B. 3000 ft.
C. 2000 ft.
D. 2500 ft.
Câu 86. When the aircraft is…miles from the threshold on final approach,speed
control should not be applied:
A. 5
(x) B. 4
C. 3
D. 2
Câu 87. VFR flight shall not be operated…unless authorized by the appropriate
ATS authority:
(x) A. Above FL200,
B. Below FL 200
C. Above minimum altitude
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D. Below minimum altitude
Câu 88. An aircraft known or believed to be subjected to unlawful interference

shall be instructed to…(by ground controller):
(x) A. An isolated parking position.
B. Aircraft parking position
C. Terminal apron,
D. 1 or 3
Câu 89. QNH is likely true as the following statements:

A. Pressure to mean sea level at the same condition.
(x) B. Pressure at mean sea level
C. Pressure level in accordance with ICAO standards.
D. None of these above.
Câu 90. What is maximum speed for holding aircraft at 100- aircraft cat B
A. 210kts.
B. 230kts.
(x) C. 170kts,
D. 200kts.
Câu 91. Aerodrome control service is:

A. Service provided by ground control and tower, as well as APP control
(x) B. ATC service for aerodrome traffic.
C. Service for meteorological and alerting service
D. All are correct
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Câu 92. Definition of transition level:

A. 2000ft below transition altitude
B. Enroute level of an aircraft during it’s flight
(x) C. The lowest FL available for use above the transition altitude.
D. All are wrong
Câu 93. What should we know as heading:

A. The same as bearing
B. The same as track
(x) C. The longitudinal axis of an aircraft pointed and expressed in degrees
from North.
D. 1 and 2
Câu 94. Which shall give the way if 2 aircraft are converging at approximately
the same level:
A. Both of them
B. According to ATC’s instruction
(x) C. The one that the other is on his right.
D. The one that has the other on his left
Câu 95. What’s airway?

A. The way of the aircraft on the ground.
B. The aircraft’s route to destination.
(x) C. A control area or position thereof establishes in the form of a corridor
D.
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Câu 96. What is the definition of controlled flight:

(x) A. Any flight which is subject to an air traffic control clearance.
B. Any flight to uncontrolled air space,
C. All flight in the air
D. None of them
Câu 97. What’s signal area:

(x) A. An area on an aerodrome used for the display of ground signals.
B. Signal for the direction of the runway,
C. Signal of work in progress,
D. 2 and 3
Câu 98. How to know “radiotelephony” in aviation:

A. Conversation between ground staff and the passengers.
(x) B. A form of radio communication primarily intended for the exchange of
information in the form of speech
C. Speech between controllers.
D. 2 or 3.
Câu 99. Can visual flight operate with the visual flight rules only?
A. No
B. Yes,always
(x) C. It shall be in compliance with the general rules as well.
D. None of them is correct
Câu 100. Who has final authority of an aircraft:
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A. The controller.
(x) B. The pilot in command.
C. The operator of the aircraft.
D. 1 and 2.
Câu 101. Can unmanned free balloon operated freely?

A. No
B. Yes
(x) C. Only by appropriate authorization from the State from which the launch
is made.
D. Only by ATC’s acceptance,
Câu 102. Is air traffic advisory service supplied to any flight within advisory
airspace:
A. Yes
B. No
(x) C. Only between aircraft which are operating on IFR flight plans.
D. Between aircraft operating on VFR flight plans
Câu 103. What is VFR flight:

(x) A. A flight conducted in accordance with the visual flight rules .
B. Flight complied with instrument flight rules.
C. Flight operated on advisory airspace.
D. None of them.
Câu 104. What is flight plan:
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A. Any route that the aircraft want to choose.

(x) B. Specified information provided to air traffic services units, relative to an
intended flight or portion of a flight of an aircraft .
C. The flight clearance issued by the controller.
D. None of them.
Câu 105. Changes to a flight plan submitted for an IFR flight, or a VFR flight
operated as a controlled flight shall be reported as soon as practicable to:
A. The reporting office.
B. Appropriate authority at the airport.
(x) C. Appropriate air traffic services unit .
D. 2 or 3.
Câu 106. Whenever time is utilized in the application of data link

communications, it shall be accurate to within:
(x) A. 1 second of UTC.
B. 5 minute of UTC,
C. 10 minute of UTC
D. None of them
Câu 107. VFR flight shall not take off or land at an aerodrome within a control
zone, or enter the aerodrome traffic zone or traffic pattern:
(x) A. When the ceiling is less than 1500ft or when the ground visibility is less
than 5km.
B. When the ceiling is more than 1500ft or when the ground visibility is
more than 5km;
C. Except when a clearance is obtained from an air traffic control unit
D. None of them
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Câu 108. Except when neccesary for take off or landing, or except by
permission from the appropriate authority, IFR flight shall not be flown:
(x) A. at a level less than 600m above the highest obstacle within 8km of the
estimated position from the aircraft.
B. at a level at least 300m above the highest obstacle within 8km of the
estimated position from the aircraft;
C. at a level less than 900m above the highest obstacle within 8km of the
estimated position from the aircraft
D.
Câu 109. The optimum cruise altitude increases:

(x) A. if the aeroplane mass is decreased .
B. if the aeroplane mass is increased.
C. if the temperature (OAT) is increased.
D.
Câu 110. The pilot of a jet aeroplane wants to use a minimum amount of fuel
between two airfields. Which flight procedure should the pilot fly?
A. Maximum endurance.
B. Holding.
C. Long range.
(x) D. Maximum range
Câu 111. An aircraft flying above the sea between 4,500ft MSL and 9000ft MSL
outside controlled airspace under VFR , must remain on principle at least
A. Clear of clouds and sight of surface ; 8km visibility.
B. 2000ft horizontally , 1000ft vertically from clouds ; 5 km visibility.
30
(x) C. 1500m horizontally , 1000ft vertically from clouds ; 5 km visibility

D. 1500m horizontally , 1000ft vertically from clouds ;8 km visibility.
Câu 112. The range of primary radar depends on:

A. Transmitted power , altitude and level of aircraft.
B. Size , level and material of aircraft.
(x) C. Transmitted power , target size , altitude and material of aircraft
D. Transmitted power , altitude and material of aircraft.
Câu 113. For a jet transport aeroplane, which of the following is the reason for
the use of maximum range speed
(x) A. Minimum specific fuel comsumption.
B. Minimum fuel flow
C. Longest flight duration,
D. Minimum drag
Câu 114. An aircraft with 180 minutes ETOPS approval must be:
(x) A. no more than 180 minutes from a suitable alternate, still air at the one
engine inoperative TAS.
B. no more than 60 minutes from a suitable alternate, in the prevailing
conditions and using the one engine inoperative TAS,
C. no more than 90 minutes from a suitable alternate, in the prevailing
conditions and using the one engine inoperative TAS
D.
Câu 115. With increasing altitude, the rate of climb will:

A. decreases because power available increases and power required
31
increases
B. increases because power available decreases and power required
increases,
(x) C. decreases because power available decreases and power required
increases.
D.
Câu 116. An aircraft is considered to overtake another if it approaches the

other aircraft from the rear on a line forming an angle of less than:
A. 60 degrees with the plane of symmetry of the latter.
B. 50 degrees with the plane of symmetry of the latter.
C. 80 degrees with the plane of symmetry of the latter.
(x) D. 70 degrees with the plane of symmetry of the latter
Câu 117. Your aircraft is intercepted by a military aircraft. The signals given
by this aircraft conflict with ATC instructions. You should:
A. follow ATC instructions.
B. select code A7500 on your transponder.
(x) C. follow the instructions of the intercepting aircraft,
D. request ATC for other instructions.
Câu 118. The speed at which sound is transported through the air is dependant
on:
A. Density.
B. Pressure.
C. Density and Temperature.
(x) D. Temperature,
32
Câu 119. In a standard atmosphere and at the sea level, the calibrated airspeed
(CAS) is:
A. higher than the true airspeed (TAS).
B. independent of the true airspeed (TAS).
(x) C. equal to the true airspeed (TAS),
D. lower than the true airspeed (TAS).
Câu 120. ETOPS flight is a twin engine jet aeroplane flight conducted over a
route, where no suitable airport is within an area of:
A. 75 minutes flying time at the approved one engine out cruise speed.
(x) B. 60 minutes flying time in still air at the approved one engine out cruise
speed .
C. 60 minutes flying time in still air at the normal cruising speed.
D. 30 minutes flying time at the normal cruising speed.
Câu 121. What will be the influence on the aeroplane performance if

aerodrome pressure altitude is increased?
(x) A. It will increase the take-off distance .
B. It will decrease the take-off distance.
C. It will increase the take-off distance available.
D. It will increase the accelerate stop distance available.
Câu 122. Which of the following combinations will most likely cause the
greatest increase in the take-off distance?
A. Tailwind.
B. Upslope.
C. High temperature.
33
(x) D. all above.
Câu 123. True airspeed and speed of sound's ratio is:

(x) A. Mach number
B. Indicated airspeed
C. Ground speed
D. Wind speed and diection
HUMAN FACTOR
Câu 124. Human Factors is about:
A. People in their living and working situations
B. People's relationship with machines, procedures and the environment
about them
C. People's relatiponship with other people
(x) D. All of above
Câu 125. The SHEL concept contains:

(x) A. Software, Hardware, Environment, Liveware.
B. Sofware, Hardware, Equipment, Liveware;
C. Software, Human, Environment, Liveware
D. Software, Human, Equipment, Liveware;
Câu 126. Which is the centre of the SHEL concept:

A. Software.
(x) B. Liveware .
C. Environment.
34
D. Hardware.
Câu 127. Which hazard will reduce the quality of communication

A. Failure during the transmitting process
B. Failure during receiving messages
C. Physical problems in listening or speaking
(x) D. All of above
Câu 128. The SHEL concept can be used to:

A. Identify the problem areas
B. Trace the origin of specifc problems
C. Define appropriate data collection tasks
(x) D. All of above
Câu 129. Stress is primarily a ................... issue although any of the SHEL
interfaces may be relevant to it.
(x) A. Liveware.
B. Software,
C. Environment,
D. None of above
Câu 130. The maximum recommended continuous work period without a break
is normally about ............, especially under high traffic demands
A. An hour
(x) B. 2 hours
C. 3 hours
35
D. None of above
Câu 131. TRM stands for:

(x) A. Team Resource Management .
B. Test Resource Management.
C. Total Resouce Manual.
D. Tiredness Recovery Manual.
Câu 132. SMS stands for:

A. Stress Management System.
B. Software Management System.
(x) C. Safety Management System .
D. Security Management System.
Câu 133. The main benefits of TRM are considered to be:

A. enhanced Threat and Error Management capabilities; continuity and
stability of team work, and task efficiency
B. enhanced sense of working as a part of a larger and more efficient team
C. increased job satisfaction and improved use of staff resources
(x) D. All of above
Câu 134. Human errors vary widely depending on the task and many other
factors such as:
A. Fatigue, Sleeploss
B. Lack of skills
C. Misunderstanding; lack of information
36
(x) D. All of above
Câu 135. The safety policy must include a commitment to

A. To achieve the highest safety standard, comply with all apllicable
regulatory requirements
B. Comply with international standards, adopt proven best practises
appropriate to the activities
C. Pvovide all the necessary resources, ensure safety is a primary
responsiblity of all managers
(x) D. All of above
Câu 136. The term "ergonomics":

A. derives from the Greek words “ergon” (work) and “nomos” (natural law)
B. is defined as “the study of the efficiency of persons in their working
environment"
C. is used strictly to refer to the study of human-machine system design
issues
(x) D. All of above
Câu 137. There are ..................methodologies for identifying hazards:

A. 1 (Reactive).
B. 2 (Reactive-Proactive).
(x) C. 3 (Reactive-Proactive-Predictive)
D. 4 (Reactive-Proactive-Predictive-Active).
Câu 138. Liveware-Environment is the interaction between:

A. Humans and machines including equipment,
37
B. Humans and materials, such as documents, procedures, symbols, etc,

(x) C. Humans and the environment, including factors internal an external to
the workplace.
D. Humans and other humans, including colleagues
Câu 139. How many values in the safety risk severity table
A. 2
B. 3
C. 4
(x) D. 5
Câu 140. How many values in the safety risk probability table
A. 2
B. 3
C. 4
(x) D. 5
Câu 141. Which colors are there in the safety risk tolerability matrix ?
(x) A. Red, Yellow, Green - (High risk, Moderate risk, Low risk).
B. Red, Yellow, Blue - (High risk, Moderate risk, Low risk)
C. Pink, Brown, Blue - (High risk, Moderate risk, Low risk)
D. Red, Purple, Green - (High risk, Moderate risk, Low risk)
Câu 142. What is the name of Doc 9859?

A. Safety Management System.
B. Safety Training Manual.
38
(x) C. Safety Management Manual .

D. Human Factors Training Manual.
Câu 143. Doc 9683 is?

A. Safety Management System.
B. Safety Training Manual.
C. Safety Management Manual.
(x) D. Human Factors Training Manual
Câu 144. The capacity of the short-term memory is

A. Very limited – only one item.
B. About 30 items.
C. Unlimited.
(x) D. A few items of information during a few seconds
Câu 145. Which model has some holes on layer of defences, barriers, and
safeguard?
A. SHEL.
(x) B. Swiss Cheese
C. 1 and 2.
D. 1 or 2.
Câu 146. Goals of automation are to

A. Aid efficiency and Improve safety
B. Help to prevent errors
C. Increase reliability
39
(x) D. All of above
Câu 147. Automation’s standardization in ATC includes:

A. Verbal communication safest when everyone adhere to standardization
(language, format, etc)
B. Deviations can lead to errors and misunderstanding – must be
discouraged
C. Recommendation with recent form of automation – apply rigid
standardization, not to introduce any variations or shortcuts
(x) D. All of above
Câu 148. One category of human attributes concerns the effects on ATC such
as:
A. Stress, boredom, complacency, and human error
B. Needs, fatigue, attitudes
(x) C. 1 and 2.
D. 1 or 2
Câu 149. What is the training of controllers objective to

(x) A. ensure that controllers possess the required knowledge, skills and
experience to perform their duties safely and efficiently.
B. make the best use of the human strengths and capabilities and overcome
or circumvent human inadequacies or limitations
C. maintain controller’s proficiency
D. all of above
Câu 150. The quality of learning:

A. Is independent of age.
40
(x) B. Is promoted by feedback on the value of one’s own performance

C. Depends on long-term memory capacity.
D. Is independent of the level of motivation.
Câu 151. Information stays in the short-term memory

A. Around 24 hours.
B. About 20 seconds.
C. Less than 1 second.
(x) D. During a few seconds .
Câu 152. Stress is a response which is prompted by the occurrence of various

stressors. Of these, which can be called physiological?
A. Temperature, hunger, thirst, divorce.
(x) B. Noise, temperature (low or high), humidity, sleep deprivation .
C. Noise, hunger, conflicts, a death.
D. Heat, humidity, fatique, administrative problems.
Câu 153. Which combination of elements guarantee the understanding of a

message without adding new information to it?
A. Synchronization.
B. Encoding.
(x) C. Feedback .
D. Coding.
Câu 154. Stress is above all:

A. A response by man to his problems, which automatically leads to a
reduction in his performance.
41
B. A phenomenon which is specific to modern man.

(x) C. The best adaptation phenomenon that man possesses for responding to
the various situation which he may have to face .
D. A psychosomatic disease that one can learn to control.
METEOLOGY
Câu 155. Which of the following phenomena will reduce the visibility ?
A. Rain.
B. Haze.
C. Fog.
(x) D. All the above
Câu 156. A tornado over water is called a :

(x) A. Waterspout.
B. Washer
C. Mixer
D. All the above
Câu 157. An electrical discharge from a thunderstorm :

(x) A. Lightening .
B. Rain.
C. Thunder.
D. Mist.
Câu 158. The layer of the atmosphere where most of the world’s weather occurs
is ?
A. Stratosphere.
42
B. Hemisphere.
(x) C. Troposphere .
D. Thermosphere.
Câu 159. The gas which comprises most of the atmosphere is ?

A. Oxygen.
(x) B. Nitrogen
C. Carbon.
D. Helium.
Câu 160. Which one of these clouds can produce moderate to heavy
precipitation ?
(x) A. Cumulonimbus.
B. Cirrus
C. Stratocumulus
D. Stratus
Câu 161. Wind shear warning is used when expected existence of wind shear
…………?
(x) A. Between runway level and 500 m above that level.
B. Between runway level and 1500 m above that level
C. At any level
D. In thunderstorm
Câu 162. WMO data type designator used for OPMET data , which of the
following statements is likely true SA ?
(x) A. Aerodrome report.
43
B. Aerodrome forecast
C. Volcanic ash advisories
D. Administrative
Câu 163. The term “ CAVOK “ is used when :

A. Visibility is 10 km or more.
B. No cloud of operational significance.
C. No weather of significance to aviation.
(x) D. All of above conditions occur simultaneously at the time of observation
Câu 164. Which of the following statements is likely true a METAR ?

(x) A. An aviation weather report.
B. An aviation weather forecast
C. An aerodrome warning
D. An AIRMET information
Câu 165. In the METAR/SPECI , when the RVR is unchanged , the tendency is
indicated by :
A. U
B. D
(x) C. N
D. P
Câu 166. TREND forecasts contain specific information presented in a fixed

order . The information and order are as follows :
(x) A. Change indicators; Surface wind ; Visibility ; Weather phenomena ;
Cloud or vertical.
44
B. Surface wind ; Visibility ; Weather phenomena ; Cloud or vertical

visibility
C. Change indicators ; Surface wind ; Visibility ; Weather phenomena
D. Surface wind ; Visibility ; Weather phenomena
Câu 167. Aerodrome forecasts contain specific information presented in a fixed

order . The information and order are as follows :
(x) A. Identification groups ; Surface wind ;Prevailing visibility ; Weather ;
Cloud ( or vertical .
B. Identification groups ; Surface wind ;Prevailing visibility , Weather ;
Cloud.
C. Surface wind ; Prevailing visibility ; Weather ; Cloud.
D. Identification groups ; Surface wind ;Prevailing visibility ; Weather.
Câu 168. When no significant changes to any elements concerned surface wind ,
visibility , weather and cloud are expected within 2 hours , the TREND forecast
is indicated by the abbreviation :
(x) A. NOSIG
B. NO CHANGE
C. SKC
D. CAVOK
Câu 169. The term “ CALM “in the METAR /SPECI reports is encoded as :
(x) A. 00000 followed by the abbreviation for the wind speed units.
B. 00000
C. CALM
D.
45
Câu 170. Which cloud may give thunderstorm and moderate ( MOD) and
severe ( SEV) turbulence and ice :
A. Sc - Stratocumulus.
(x) B. Cb - Cumulonimbus .
C. Cu - Cumulus.
D. St - Stratus.
Câu 171. METAR VVTS 021230Z 13012G26KT 1200 NW +SHRA BKN010

SCT015CB 28/27 Q1012 =
A. The present weather is heavy rain.
B. The present weather is light shower rain.
C. The present weather is heavy thunderstorm with rain.
(x) D. The present weather is heavy shower rain
Câu 172. METAR VVTS 021230Z 13012G26KT 1200 NW +SHRA BKN010

SCT015CB 28/27 Q1012 =
(x) A. The observation time is 1230Z.
B. The observation time is 0212Z
C. The observation time is 1230LT
D. The observation time is 0212LT
Câu 173. A TAF is :

A. An aerodrome routine weather observation.
B. An aerodrome special weather report.
C. An aerodrome amended weather forecast.
(x) D. An aerodrome routine weather forecast .
46
Câu 174. TAF VVTS 200330Z 200624 23010KT 9999 BKN017 TEMPO 0814
1500 +TSRA SCT013 SCT015CB=
A. The prior- of validity of forecast is 1-2 hours.
(x) B. The prior- of validity of forecast is 18 hours
C. The prior- of validity of forecast is 24 hours.
D. The prior- of validity of forecast is 15 hours.
Câu 175. The closest layer of the atmosphere to the earth is called :
(x) A. Troposphere .
B. Stratosphere.
C. Lower.
D. Neither of the above.
Câu 176. The air density generally ……………with height :

A. Increases.
B. remains the same.
(x) C. decreases .
D. rises.
Câu 177. Temperature generally ………as altitude is gained :

A. Stay the same.
(x) B. decreases,
C. rises.
D. increases.
Câu 178. A SPECI is :
47
A. An aerodrome corrected weather report

B. An aerodrome routine weather report
(x) C. An aerodrome special weather report.
D. An aerodrome amended weather report
Câu 179. Atmosphere pressure ………..with height :

A. Does not change
B. Increases
C. Rises
(x) D. Falls.
Câu 180. The smaller the spread between temperature and dew point , the
………will be the relative humidity :
A. Smaller.
B. lower.
(x) C. higher .
D. longer.
Câu 181. The change indicator BECMG in the TAF used when :
(x) A. The MET conditions are expected to reach or pass specified values at a
regular or irregular rate.
B. The probability that a certain change or value occurs
C. Temporary fluctuations in the meteorological conditions , lasting less
than one hour in each instance and covering less than half of the forecast
period
D. All the MET conditions are to pass specified values at a regular rate
48
Câu 182. The change indicator TEMPO in the TAF used when :
A. The probability that a certain change or value occurs
B. The conditions are expected to reach or pass specified values at a regular
or irregular rate;
(x) C. The temporary fluctuations in the meteorological conditions , lasting less
period .
Câu 183. The change indicator PROB in the TAF used when :
(x) A. The probability that a certain change or value occurs .
B. The conditions are expected to reach or pass specified values at a regular
or irregular rate
C. The temporary fluctuations in the meteorological conditions , lasting less
period
Câu 184. Cloud height in a METAR message refers to the height above:
A. Mean sea level
B. The lowest terrain within 8km of the runway
C. The highest terrain within 8km of the runway
(x) D. The aerodrome referent point
NAVIGATION-PRINCIPLE
Câu 185. What is the maximum range at which an a/c should use the ILS glide
path for descent guidance?
49
A. 30NM.
B. 40NM.
(x) C. 25NM .
D. 20NM.
Câu 186. Aerodrome identification sign?

A. The designated geographical location of an aerodrome.
B. The elevation of the highest point of the landing area.
(x) C. A sign placed on the aerodrome to aid in identifying the aerodrome from
the air
D. Aeronautical beacon used to indicate the location of an aerodrome from
the air.
Câu 187. For Facility Performance Category I — ILS glide paths, the angular
displacement sensitivity shall be adjusted and maintained within plus or minus
...... of the nominal value selected.
A. 20 %.
B. 30 %.
(x) C. 0.25
D. 15 %.
Câu 188. The localizer shall provide signals sufficient to allow satisfactory
operation of a typical aircraft installation within the localizer and glide path
coverage sectors. The localizer coverage sector shall extend from the centre of
the localizer antenna system to distances of:
(x) A. 46.3 km (25 NM) within plus or minus 10 degrees from the front course
line .
B. 46.3 km (25 NM) within plus or minus 15 degrees from the front course
line.
50
C. 46.3 km (25 NM) within plus or minus 20 degrees from the front course
line.
D. 46.3 km (25 NM) within plus or minus 25 degrees from the front course
line.
Câu 189. The accuracy of the bearing information conveyed by the horizontally
polarized radiation from the VOR at a distance of approximately four
wavelengths for all elevation angles between 0 and 40 degrees, measured from
the centre of the VOR antenna system, shall be within plus or minus ......
degrees.
(x) A. 2 degrees .
B. 3 degrees.
C. 5 degrees.
D. 10 degrees.
Câu 190. The VOR shall provide signals such as to permit satisfactory
operation of a typical aircraft installation at the levels and distances required
for operational reasons, and up to an elevation angle of .....
A. 30 degrees.
B. 20 degrees.
C. 10 degrees.
(x) D. 40 degrees
Câu 191. ILS Point “A”. A point on the ILS glide path measured along the
extended runway centre line in the approach direction a distance of .....from the
threshold.
A. 25NM (46.3 km).
B. 17NM (31.5 km).
(x) C. 4NM (7.5 km )
51
D. 10NM (18.5 km).
Câu 192. ILS Category II operation: A precision instrument approach and

landing with a decision height lower than 60 m (200 ft) but not lower than 30 m
(100 ft), and a runway visual range not less than.....
A. 250 m.
B. 150 m.
C. 300 m.
(x) D. 350 m
Câu 193. ILS Category II operation: A precision instrument approach and

landing with a decision height lower than 60 m (200 ft) but not lower
than.......and a runway visual range not less than 350 m.
A. 60 m (200 ft).
(x) B. 30 m (100 ft) .
C. 15 m (50 ft).
D. 90 m (300 ft).
Câu 194. shall the wing bar of a PAPI shall be constructed and arranged in
such a maner that a pilot making an approach will?
A. when on or close to the approach slope, see the 2 units nearest the
runway as red and the 2 units farthest from the run way as white.
B. when above the approach slope, see the one unit nearest the runway as
red and the fathest from the run way as white and when further above the
approach slope, see all the units as white.
C. when below the approach slope, see the 3 units nearest the runway as red
and the unit farthest from the runway as white, and when further below the
approach slope, see all units as red.
(x) D. all of above.
52
Câu 195. Facility Performance Category I — ILS. An ILS which provides

guidance information from the coverage limit of the ILS to the point at which
the localizer course line intersects the ILS glide path at a height of:
(x) A. 60 m (200 ft) or less above the horizontal plane containing the threshold
B. 30 m (100 ft) or less above the horizontal plane containing the threshold.
C. 90 m (300 ft) or less above the horizontal plane containing the threshold.
D. none of above.
Câu 196. Shall the basic components of DME system shall comprise?
A. Interrogator.
B. Transponder.
(x) C. all of above .
D. none of above.
Câu 197. Facility performance category III – ILS. An ILS which, with the aid of
ancillary equipment where necessary, providesguidance infomation from the
coverage limit of the facility to:
(x) A. the surface of the runway,
C. 15 m (50 ft) or less above the horizontal plane containing the threshold.
D. none of above.
Câu 198. Facility Performance Category II — ILS. An ILS which provides

guidance information from the coverage limit of the ILS to the point at which
the localizer course line intersects the ILS glide path at a height of:
A. 60 m (200 ft) or less above the horizontal plane containing the threshold.
53
(x) C. 15 m (50 ft) or less above the horizontal plane containing the threshold
D. none of above.
Câu 199. Aerodrome control radio station is a station providing radio

communication between:
A. An Aeronautical station and aircraft or mobile aeronautical stations.
(x) B. An Aerodrome control tower and aircraft or mobile aeronautical stations
.
C. An Aeronautical fixed station and aircraft or mobile aeronautical
stations.
D. An Aeronautical fix station and aircraft or mobile aeronautical stations.
Câu 200. The wing bar of a PAPI shall be constructed and arranged in such a
manner that, a pilot making an approach and being on the approach slope will
see:
A. All 4 units as red
B. All 4 units as white
(x) C. 2 units nearest to the RWY as red and 2 units farthest from the RWY as
white.
D. 2 units nearest to the RWY as white and 2 units farthest from the RWY
as red
Câu 201. Frequency used in SSR - Transponder receiver:

A. 1040 MHz
B. 1050 MHz
(x) C. 1030 MHz
D. 1090 MHz
54
Câu 202. The airborne VOR equipment is referred to:

(x) A. As airborne VOR receiver .
B. As airborne VOR transmitter.
C. As airborne VOR transceiver.
D. non of the above.
Câu 203. Air traffic services unit clocks and other time-recording devices shall
be checked as necessary to ensure correct time to within plus or minus ____ of
UTC at all times:
A. 10 seconds.
B. 20 seconds.
(x) C. 30 seconds
D. 1 minute.
Câu 204. Emergency locator transmetter (ELT) is fitted _____ :

(x) A. On board of the aircraft.
B. At the rescue co-ordination centre
C. At the search and rescue Centre
D. At the rescue sub Centre
Câu 205. Civil Aviation of Viet Nam:

(x) A. Has been using the World Geodetic System (WGS-84) since 1998.
B. Has been using the World Geodetic System (WGS-84) since
January1999.
C. Has not yet used the World Geodetic System (WGS-84).
D. Has not yet decided using World Geodetic System (WGS-84).
55
Câu 206. In Viet Nam the following types of radio aids to air navigation are
available:
A. NDB, VOR, DME, ILS, LORAN.
B. NDB, VOR, DME, ILS, OMEGA.
(x) C. NDB, VOR, DME, ILS
D. NDB, VOR, DME, ILS, OMEGA, LORAN.
Câu 207. Which of following is a pricision approach?

(x) A. ILS
B. VOR
C. NDB
D. LIZ only
Câu 208. ATC unit may use the following means of communication for co-
ordination purposes:
A. AFTN
B. Direct Speed Circuits
C. Data-exchange circuits
(x) D. All of above
Câu 209. Phraseology used to confirm the working of ADS-B on the aircraft:
(x) A. Advise ADS-B capability
B. Do you have ADS-B
C. Confirm ADS-B working
D. Confirm ADS-B on
56
OPERATIONAL PROCEDURE
Câu 210. Visual approach is :
A. An approach made by an IFR flight when either part or all of an
instrument approach procedure is not completed.
B. An approach made by VFR flight.
C. Executed in visual reference to terrain.
(x) D. 1 and 3 .
Câu 211. Estimated time of arrival is :

A. For VFR flights, the time at which it is estimated that the aircraft will
arrive over the aerodrome.
B. For IFR flights, the time at which it is estimated that the aircraft will
arrive over the designated point, defined by reference to navigation aids ,
from which it is intended that an instrument approach procedure will be
concerned.
C. The time at which it is estimated that the aircraft will land on the
runway.
(x) D. 1 and 2
Câu 212. The current flight plan is :

A. The flight plan that the pilot has submitted to the ATS reporting office.
B. The flight plan that the pilot has submitted to the ATS reporting office
and the reporting office has checked and approved.
(x) C. The flight plan, including changes, if any, brought about by subsequent
clearances .
D. The flight plan concerning repetitive flights.
Câu 213. Clearance limit means :
57
(x) A. The point to which an aircraft is granted an air traffic control clearance
B. The destination airport at which an aircraft plans to arrive .
C. The flight level at which an aircraft plans to fly .
D. To point at which an aircraft is going to hold .
Câu 214. Manoeuvring area is:

A. That part of an aerodrome to be used for the take-off , landing and
taxiing of aircraft.
B. That part of an aerodrome to be used for the take-off , landing and
taxiing of aircraft, including aprons.
C. That part of an aerodrome to be used for the landing and taxiing of
aircraft, excluding aprons.
(x) D. That part of an aerodrome to be used for the take-off , landing and
taxing of aircraft , excluding aprons
Câu 215. Touchdown zone is:

(x) A. The portion of a runway, beyond the threshold , where it is intended
landing airplanes first contact the runway.
B. The portion of a runway , at the threshold, where it is intended landing
airplanes first contact the runway .
C. The beginning of a runway where it is intended landing airplanes first
contact the runway .
D. The portion of a runway where it is intended landing airplanes first
contact the runway
Câu 216. Air traffic means :

A. All aircraft in the air .
(x) B. All aircraft in flight or operating on the manoeuvring area of an
aerodrome.
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C. All aircraft and helicopters flying within a FIR.

D. All aircraft in the air , aircraft on apron , and aircraft operating in a
hangar.
Câu 217. Flight visibility means :

A. The horizontal distance at which prominent objects may be seen from
the cockpit
B. The maximum distance at which prominent objects may be seen from
the cockpit.
C. The visibility of an aircraft in flight.
(x) D. The visibility forward from the cockpit of an aircraft in flight.
Câu 218. Holding procedure is :

(x) A. A predetermined manoeuvre which keeps an aircraft within a
specified airspace while awaiting further clearance.
B. A predetermined manoeuvre which keeps an aircraft within a specified
area while awaiting further clearance .
C. A predetermined manoeuvre which keeps an aircraft within a specified
zone while awaiting further clearance .
D. A predetermined manoeuvre which keeps an aircraft within a specified
region while awaiting further clearance .
Câu 219. Near- parallel runways are :

A. Non- intersecting runways whose extended center lines have an
angle of convergence/divergence of 10 degrees or less.
(x) B. Non- intersecting runways whose extended center lines have an
angle of convergence/divergence of 15 degrees or less .
C. Non- intersecting runways whose extended center lines have an
angle of convergence/divergence of 20 degrees or less.
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D. Non- intersecting runways whose extended center lines have an angle of

convergence/divergence of 25 degrees or less.
Câu 220. A designated instrument flight rule ( IFR) arrival route linking a
significant point , normally on an ATS route , with a point from which a
published instrument approach procedure can be commenced .
(x) A. Standard instrument arrival .
B. Standard approach procedure
C. Standard instrument departure
D. Instrument approach procedure
Câu 221. The direction in which the longitudinal axis of an aircraft is pointed
usually expressed in degrees from North (true , magnetic, compass, or grid)
A. Track .
B. Bearing .
(x) C. Heading.
D. Desired Track .
Câu 222. Expected approach time is :

(x) A. The time at which ATC expects that an arriving aircraft , following a
delay will leave the holding point to complete its approach for landing .
B. The time at which the pilot of an arriving aircraft expects to leave the
holding point to complete its approach for landing
C. The time at which it is estimated that an arriving aircraft will
commence its approach for landing
D. All the above
Câu 223. Altitude means:
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A. The vertical distance of a point or an object considered as a point

measured from the ground level.
B. The vertical distance of a point or an object considered as a point
measured from the aerodrome level.
(x) C. The vertical distance of a point or an object considered as an point
measured from the mean sea level
D. The vertical distance of a point or an object considered as a point
measured from the highest obstacle within a radius of 8 km from estimated
position of the aircraft.
Câu 224. Missed approach procedure is :

A. The procedure to be followed if an aircraft cannot land.
B. The procedure which aircraft uses when there are many obstacles on the
Runway-in–use.
C. The procedure to be commenced by aircraft decision height.
(x) D. The procedure to be followed if the approach cannot be continued
Câu 225. Cruising levels at which a flight is to be conducted mean :

A. Flight levels;
B. Altitudes;
(x) C. Flight level for flights at or above the lowest usable flight level or
altitude for flights below the lowest usable flight level.
D. A level maintained during a significant portion of a flight
Câu 226. A transmission from one station to another station in circumstances

where two-way communication cannot be established but where it is believed
that the called station is able to receive the transmission.
A. Broadcast transmission.
B. Announcement transmission.
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(x) C. Blind transmission

D. Station transmission.
Câu 227. The request to change from IFR flight to VFR flight is :
(x) A. Made by the pilot in command .
B. Suggested by ATC when VMC exists.
C. 1 and 2.
D. 1 or 2.
Câu 228. .……. shall be given priority over other aircraft listed below:
A. VIP aircraft
B. Military aircraft
C. Hospital aircraft
(x) D. Emergency aircraft
Câu 229. After departure , an IFR aircraft loses two- way communications.
What should the pilot’s course of action be:
A. Continue to fly to the destination airport , whatever the weather
conditions are .
B. Return to the departure airport immediately , whatever the weather
conditions are .
(x) C. Return to the departure airport immediately if the weather is
VMC or continue the flight to the destination airport if the weather is IMC.
D. Land at the most suitable nearest aerodrome while en-route .
Câu 230. The sequence of emergency phases are:

A. ALERFA, INCERFA, DESTRESFA.
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(x) B. INCERFA , ALERFA , DETRESFA

C. DETRESFA , ALERFA , INCERFA.
D. No difference.
Câu 231. If an arriving aircraft is making a complete instrument approach , a

departing aircraft may take off in any direction until :
(x) A. The arriving aircraft has started its procedure turn or base turn leading to
final approach.
B. The arriving aircraft has commenced initial approach.
C. The arriving aircraft has entered ILS glide path.
D. The pilot of the arriving aircraft has observed the departing aircraft.
Câu 232. If two departing aircraft of the same type propose to follow the same
track and the following aircraft will be flown through the level of the preceding
aircraft . Action must be taken to ensure that the …. separation will be
maintained or increased when cruising levels are crossed .
(x) A. 5 minutes.
B. 3 minutes
C. 2 minutes
D. 10 minutes
Câu 233. A light aircraft is approaching for landing behind a heavy aircraft ,
the time separation minima between them must be :
A. 1 minute.
B. 2 minutes.
(x) C. 3 minutes .
D. 4 minutes.
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Câu 234. Radar controller should give traffic information in the following form
:
(x) A. Relative bearing – distance – direction – level – aircraft type.
B. Relative bearing – distance – heading – altitude – speed
C. Relative bearing – distance – level – speed – aircraft type
D. Relative bearing – aircraft type – heading – level – speed
Câu 235. Whenever a code is assigned to an aircraft , the setting of this code
shall be verified by controller :
A. At the first contact.
B. At the second communication.
C. At the appropriate opportunity.
(x) D. At the earliest opportunity
Câu 236. Time separation minima between holding aircraft in a holding pattern
and en-route aircraft which are on the same flight level is :
A. 10 minutes
(x) B. 5 minutes
C. 3 minutes
D. As long as outbound time is
Câu 237. What type of separation must be maintained at all times between
aircraft holding pattern?
(x) A. Vertical
B. Lateral
C. Longitudinal
D. A combination of lateral and vertical
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Câu 238. An aircraft class of “ Heavy “ indicates the aircraft is capable of

takeoff weights of :
A. 136 tons
B. 126.000 kg or more
C. more than 136.000 kg
(x) D. 1 or 3,
Câu 239. A transferring center shall forward an accepting center :

A. Necessary flight plan
B. Control information
(x) C. 1 and 2 ,
D. 1 or 2
Câu 240. What should a radar controller do if he observes an aircraft under his
control significantly deviating from its intended route?
A. Inform the pilot of the aircraft ‘s position.
(x) B. inform the pilot of the deviation from the intended route .
C. request the pilot to squawk ident.
D. request the pilot ‘s intentions.
Câu 241. Except when necessary for take-off or landing or except when
specifically authorized by the appropriate authority , an IFR flight shall not be
flown at :
(x) A. A level below minimum flight level.
B. A level above minimum flight level .
C. A level above FL 150 .
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D. A level below FL 150 .
Câu 242. Radar position symbol includes:

A. PSR blips
B. SSR respones
C. Combined PSR/SSR/ADS-B symbols
(x) D. all the above
Câu 243. Two- way communication between aircraft and stations or locations
on the surface of the earth:
A. CPDLC
(x) B. Air- Ground communication
C. Air-to-Ground communication
D. Air-Air Traffic Service communication
SURVEILLANCE SYSTEM
Câu 244. Tolerance value used to determine that pressure-altitude- derived
level information displayed to controller is accurate shall be …..out of RVSM
airspace
A. .+/-30m
B. .+/-60m
(x) C. .+/-90m
D. .+/-100m
Câu 245. The tolerance value used to determine that pressure-altitude-derived

level information displayed to the controller is accurate shall be +/-……….. in
RVSM airspace
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A. 30m.
(x) B. 60m .
C. 90m.
D. 100m.
Câu 246. Verification of accuracy of pressure -altitude-derived level

information displayed to the controller shall be effected at least once by suitable
ATC unit ……
(x) A. on innitial contact.
B. before change frequency
C. at reporting point
D. on climb or descent
Câu 247. if the displayed level information is not within the approved tolerance
value subsequent to verification,the pilot shall be requested to….
A. check the pressure setting.
B. cofirm the aircraft’s level.
(x) C. both 1 and 2
D. 1 or 2.
Câu 248. the criterion which shall be used to determine that a specific level is
occupied by an aircraft shall be +/-…… out of RVSM airspace
(x) A. 90m.
B. 60m .
C. 50m .
D. 30m .
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Câu 249. SSR system,especially those utilizing monopulsetechnique or having

mode S cappability ,may be used alone including in the provision of separation
between aircfraft,provide
A. the carriage of SSR transponder is mandatory within the area.
B. identification is established and maintained.
C. 1 or 2.
(x) D. 1 and 2
Câu 250. the provision of ATS surveillance services shall be……..when position
data quality degrades below a level specified by the appropriate ATS
authority.
A. allowed
B. provised
(x) C. limited.
D. not of all
Câu 251. Position indications may be displayed as:

A. individual position symbols, e.g. PSR, SSR and ADS-B symbols, or
combined symbols
B. PSR blips
C. SSR responses
(x) D. all of above
Câu 252. To ensure the safe and efficient use of SSR and ADS-B, pilots and
controllers shall strictly adhere to shall be used
A. published operating procedures.
B. standard radiotelephony phraseology.
(x) C. both 1 and 2
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D.
Câu 253. Except for aircraft in a state of emergency, or during communication

failure or unlawful interference situations, and unless otherwise agreed by
regional air navigation agreement or between a transferring and an accepting
ATC unit, the transferring unit shall assign Code……. to a controlled flight
prior to transfer of communications.
A. 2000
(x) B. A2000.
C. B2000.
D. A2001.
Câu 254. the criterion which shall be used to determine that a specific level is
occupied by an aircraft shall be +-…… in RVSM airspace
A. 90m.
(x) B. 60m .
C. 50m.
D. 30m.
Câu 255. Where ADS-B is used for identification, aircraft may be identified
by………
A. direct recognition of the aircraft identification in an ADS-B label
B. transfer of ADS-B identification
C. observation of compliance with an instruction to TRANSMIT ADS-B
IDENT
(x) D. all of above
Câu 256. Vectoring shall be achieved by issuing to the pilot……..
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(x) A. specific heading.

B. turn right
C. turn left
D. not of above
Câu 257. when an aircraft has reported unreliable directional instruments, the
pilot shall be requested, prior to the issuance of manoeuvring instructions:
……
A. to make all turns at an agreed rate.
B. to carry out the instructions immediately upon receipt.
C. 1 or 2.
(x) D. 1 and 2
Câu 258. aircraft ground proximity warning system refers to…….

A. traffic.
B. weather.
(x) C. terrain .
D. not of above.
Câu 259. In terminating vectoring of an aircraft, the controller shall instruct

the pilot…………….., , if the current instructions had diverted the aircraft
from a previously assigned route.
A. to resume own navigation,
B. giving the pilot the aircraft’s position
C. giving appropriate instructions
(x) D. all of above
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Câu 260. The controller shall at all times be in possession of full and up-to-date
information regarding:
A. established minimum flight altitudes within the area of responsibility
B. the lowest usable flight level or levels
C. established minimum altitudes applicable to procedures based on tactical
vectoring
(x) D. all of above
Câu 261. Separation based on the use of ADS-B position symbols and SSR
responses shall be applied between……….
(x) A. the centre of the ADS-B position symbol and the nearest edge of the
SSR response.
B. the centre of the ADS-B position symbol and the centre of the SSR
response;
C. the nearest edge of the ADS-B position symbol and the nearest edge of
the SSR response
D. the nearest edge of the ADS-B position symbol and the centre of the
SSR response
Câu 262. separation based on the use of SSR responses shall be applied
between……….
(x) A. the closest edges of the SSR responses.
B. between the centre of the SSR responses;
C. none of above
D. both 1 and 2
Câu 263. separation minima based on wake turbulence in the approach and
departure between two heavy aircraft is……….
A. 3 NM.
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(x) B. 4 NM,
C. 5 NM.
D. 6 NM.
departure ,medium aircraft follow s heavy aircraft is…….
A. 3 NM.
B. 4 NM.
(x) C. 5 NM,
D. 6 NM.
departure,light follows heavy aircraft is…………..
A. 3 NM.
B. 4 NM.
C. 5 NM.
(x) D. 6 NM
departure,light follows medium aircraft is…………
A. 3 NM.
B. 4 NM.
(x) C. 5 NM
D. 6 NM.
Câu 267. When an identified controlled flight is observed to be on a conflicting

path with an unknown aircraft deemed to constitute a collision hazard, the pilot
72
of the controlled flight shall, whenever practicable:

A. be informed of the unknown aircraft, and if so requested by the
controlled flight or if, in the opinion of the controller, the situation
warrants, a course of avoiding action should be suggested.
B. be notified when the conflict no longer exists.
C. 1 or 2.
(x) D. 1 and 2
Câu 268. When an identified IFR flight operating outside controlled airspace is
observed to be on a conflicting path with another aircraft, the pilot should:
A. be informed as to the need for collision avoidance action to be initiated,
and if so requested by the pilot or if, in the opinion of the controller, the
situation warrants, a course of avoiding action should be suggested.
B. be notified when the conflict no longer exists.
C. 1 or 2.
(x) D. 1 and 2
Câu 269. Information regarding traffic on a conflicting path should be given,

whenever practicable, in the following form:…..
(x) A. relative bearing of the conflicting traffic in terms of the 12-hour clock;
distance from the conflicting traffic in kilometres (nautical miles); direction
in which the conflicting traffic appears to be proceeding; level and type of
aircraft or, if unknown, relative speed of the conflicting traffic, e.g. slow or
fast.
B. relative bearing of the conflicting traffic in terms of the 12-hour clock;
in which the conflicting traffic appears to be proceeding,
C. distance from the conflicting traffic in kilometres (nautical miles);
direction in which the conflicting traffic appears to be proceeding; level and
type of aircraft or, if unknown, relative speed of the conflicting traffic, e.g.
slow or fast,
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D. relative bearing of the conflicting traffic in terms of the 12-hour clock;

distance from the conflicting traffic in kilometres (nautical miles); level and
type of aircraft or, if unknown, relative speed of the conflicting traffic, e.g.
slow or fast,
Câu 270. In case of a transponder failure which is detected before departure

from an aerodrome where it is not practicable to effect a repair, the aircraft
concerned should be permitted to proceed, as directly as possible, to…….
(x) A. the nearest suitable aerodrome.
B. intended destination
C. alternate aerodrome
D. not of above
Câu 271. As an emergency measure, use of flight levels spaced by …….. the
applicable vertical separation minimum may be resorted to temporarily if
standard procedural separation cannot be provided immediately
(x) A. half.
B. double
C. treble
D. not of all
Câu 272. A means by which the terms of an ADS-C agreement will be

exchanged between the ground system and the aircraft, via a data link,
specifying under what conditions ADS-C reports would be initiated, and what
data would be contained in the reports is the meaning of…………
A. ADS-B.
(x) B. ADS-C .
C. CPDLC.
D. not of all.
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Câu 273. An airspace of defined dimensions within which activities dangerous

to the flight of aircraft may exist at specified times is the meaning of………..
A. prohibited area
B. restricted area
(x) C. danger area
D. not of all
Câu 274. An airspace of defined dimensions, above the land areas or territorial
waters of a State, within which the flight of aircraft is prohibited is the meaning
of……….
(x) A. prohibited area
B. restricted area
C. danger area
D. not of all
Câu 275. An airspace of defined dimensions, above the land areas or territorial
waters of a State, within which the flight of aircraft is restricted in accordance
with certain specified conditions is the meaning of……
A. prohibited area
(x) B. restricted area
C. danger area
D. not of all
Câu 276. Area control service shall be provided by………

A. an area control centre.
B. the unit providing approach control service in a control zone or in a
control area of limited extent which is designated primarily for the
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provision of approach control service and where no area control centre is

established.
(x) C. 1 or 2
D. 1 and 2.
Câu 277. The responsibility for the control of an aircraft shall be transferred
from a unit providing area control service in a control area to the unit
providing area control service…………..
A. in an adjacent control area at the time of crossing the common control
area boundary as estimated by the area control centre having control of the
aircraft
B. at such other point or time as has been agreed between the two units
C. 1 and 2
(x) D. 1 or 2.
Câu 278. Where transfer of control is to be effected using radar or ADS-B data,
the control information pertinent to the transfer shall include information
regarding the position and, if required, the track and speed of the aircraft, as
observed by radar or ADS-B immediately …….. the transfer.
A. after.
(x) B. prior to .
C. request for.
D. both 1 and 2.
Câu 279. A radar shall provide information on:

A. range
B. azimuth
C. elevation of objects
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(x) D. All of above
Câu 280. What is the definitions of radar:

(x) A. A radio detection device which provides information on range, azimuth
and/or elevation of objects
B. A radio detection device which provides information on range, azimuth
C. A radio detection device which provides information on range
D. None of above
Câu 281. ADS-B is:

(x) A. Automatic Dependent Surveillance - Broadcast.
B. Automatically Dependent Surveillance - Broadcast
C. Automatical Depend Surveillance - Broadcast
D. None of above
Câu 282. ADS-C is :

A. Automatic Depend Surveillance - Contract.
(x) B. Automatic Dependent Surveillance - Contract
C. Automatical Depend Surveillance - Communication.
D. None of above.
Câu 283. GNSS is:

(x) A. Global navigation satellite system.
B. Ground navigation satellite system
C. Global navigation system satellite
D. None of above
77
Câu 284. SMR is:

(x) A. Surface movement radar.
B. Surface maneuver radar
C. Surface maneuvering radar
D. None of above
Câu 285. GPWS is:

(x) A. Ground proximity warning system.
B. Global proximity warning system
C. Ground proximate warning system
D. None of above
Câu 286. Glonass is:

(x) A. Global orbiting navigation satellite system.
B. Ground orbiting navigation satellite system
C. Ground observed navigation satellite system
D. None of above
Câu 287. Gbas is:

(x) A. Ground based augmentation system.
B. Global based augmentation system
C. Global based augmentative system
D. None of above
Câu 288. In an SSR system, the interrogator transmissions are made on a

frequency of :
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A. 1090 Mhz.
(x) B. 1030 Mhz
C. 1003 Mhz.
D. 1009 Mhz.
Câu 289. Radar is an acronym of:

A. Radio Detecting And Range.
B. Radio Detection And Range.
C. Radio Detecting And Ranging.
(x) D. Radio Detection And Ranging
Câu 290. The range of the SSR radar station located at Son Tra are:
A. 200 NM.
(x) B. 250 NM
C. 300 NM.
D. 280 NM.
Câu 291. The pilot of an aircraft experiencing hijack shall set his transponder
to code:
(x) A. 7500
B. 7600
C. 7700
D. 5700
Câu 292. The pilot of an aircraft experiencing radiocommunication failure

shall set his transponder to code:
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A. 7500
(x) B. 7600
C. 7700
D. 5700
Câu 293. An aircraft may be identified by track observation by instructing the

pilot to execute one or more changes of heading of…………. degrees or more
and correlating the movement of one particular radar position indication with
the aircraft's acknowledged execution of the instructions given:
A. 10
B. 20
(x) C. 30
D. 40
CHARACTERISTICS OF ATM
Câu 294. When area control service and approach control service are not
provided by the same air traffic control unit, responsibility for controlled
flights shall rest with the unit providing area control service except that a unit
providing approach control service shall be responsible for the control of:
A. arriving aircraft that have been released to it by the ACC.
B. departing aircraft until such aircraft are released to the ACC.
(x) C. Both 1 and 2
D. None of above.
Câu 295. An operator shall, prior to departure:

A. ensure that, where the flight is intended to operate on a route or in an
area where an RNP type is prescribed, the aircraft has an appropriate RNP
approval, and that all conditions applying to that approval will be satisfied.
80
B. ensure that, where operation in reduced vertical separation minimum

(RVSM) airspace is planned, the aircraft has the required RVSM approval;
and.
C. ensure that, where the flight is intended to operate where an RCP type is
prescribed, the aircraft has an appropriate RCP approval, and that all
conditions applying to that approval will be satisfied.
Câu 296. Prior to commencement of a radar approach, the aircraft shall be

informed of:
A. the runway to be used;
B. the applicable obstacle clearance altitude/height;
C. the angle of the nominal glide path and, if so prescribed by the
appropriate ATS authority or requested by the aircraft, the approximate rate
of descent to be maintained;
(x) D. All of above;
Câu 297. An IFR flight may be cleared to execute a visual approach provided
the pilot can maintain visual reference to the terrain and:
A. the reported ceiling is at or above the level of the beginning of the initial
approach segment for the aircraft so cleared; or;
B. the pilot reports at the level of the beginning of the initial approach
segment or;
C. at any time during the instrument approach procedure that the
meteorological conditions are such that with reasonable assurance a visual
approach and landing can be completed;
Câu 298. The initial and intermediate approach phases of an approach executed
under the direction of a controller comprise those parts of the approach from
the time vectoring is initiated for the purpose of positioning the aircraft for a
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final approach, until the aircraft is on final approach and:

A. established on the final approach path of a pilot-interpreted aid; or
B. reports that it is able to complete a visual approach; or
C. ready to commence a surveillance radar approach; or transferred to the
precision radar approach controller
(x) D. All of above
Câu 299. The approach sequence shall be established in a manner which will
facilitate arrival of the maximum number of aircraft with the least average
delay. Priority shall be given to:
A. an aircraft which anticipates being compelled to land because of factors
affecting the safe operation of the aircraft (engine failure, shortage of fuel,
etc.);
B. hospital aircraft or aircraft carrying any sick or seriously injured person
requiring urgent medical attention;
C. aircraft engaged in search and rescue operations; and other aircraft as
may be determined by the appropriate authority;
Câu 300. Priority for landing shall be given to:

A. an aircraft which anticipates being compelled to land because of factors
affecting the safe operation of the aircraft (engine failure,shortage of fuel,
etc.);
B. hospital aircraft or aircraft carrying any sick or seriously injured persons
requiring urgent medical attention;
C. aircraft engaged in search and rescue operations; and other aircraft as
may be determined by the appropriate authority;
Câu 301. Any or all VFR operations on and in the vicinity of an aerodrome may
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be suspended by any of the following units, persons or authorities whenever

safety requires such action:
A. the approach control unit or the appropriate ACC;
B. the aerodrome control tower;
C. the appropriate ATS authority;
Câu 302. Speed control shall not be applicable to aircraft:

A. Entering or established in holding pattern.
B. Encountering the turbulent weather; conducting priority/ emergency
landing.
C. Carrying VIP.
(x) D. All the above.
Câu 303. What information shall the ATC unit coordinate with the flight crew
when an aircraft operating within controlled airspace needs to dump fuel? The
route to be flown (be clear of cities and towns; preferably over water and away
from thunderstorm areas),_______
A. The duration of fuel dumping and at lowest level of 8.000ft if possible.
(x) B. The duration of fuel dumping and at lowest level of 6.000ft if possible .
C. The duration of fuel dumping and at least 2.000ft above the other know
traffic.
D. The duration of fuel dumping and at lowest level of 9000ft if possible.
Câu 304. What shall the controller do when a pilot reports an ACAS resolution
advisory (RA)?
(x) A. Not attempt to modify the aircraft flight path until the pilot reports “clear
of traffic”
B. Do his best to keep separation between aircraft concerned until the pilot
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reports “clear of traffic”.

C. Acknowledge a report to other flight crew that there is an aircraft
affected by RA.
D. Acknowledge a report from the flight crew that waiting until the aircraft
resuming the current clearance.
Câu 305. The responsibility for the control of an aircraft shall be transferred
from one air traffic control unit to another as follows:
A. Between two units providing area control service.
B. Between a unit providing area control service and a unit providing
approach control service and between a unit providing approach control
service and an aerodrome control tower.
C. 1 or 2.
(x) D. Both 1 and 2
Câu 306. The abbreviation OCH means:

(x) A. Obstacle Clearance Height.
B. Obstruction Collision Height
C. Obstruction Clearance Height
D. Obstacle Confirmation Height
Câu 307. Approach control service is:

(x) A. air traffic control service for arriving or departing controlled flights.
B. air traffic control service for controlled flights control areas.
C. air traffic control service for aerodrome traffic.
D. all of the above.
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Câu 308. Area control service is:

A. air traffic control service for arriving or departing controlled flights.
(x) B. air traffic control service for controlled flights control areas.
C. air traffic control service for aerodrome traffic
D. all of the above
Câu 309. Where lateral separation is not provided, how long should vertical
separation be provided for opposite direction traffic?
A. 15 minutes prior to and after the time they are estimated to have passed.
(x) B. 10 minutes prior to and after the time they are estimated to have passed .
C. 05 minutes prior to and after the time they are estimated to have passed.
D. Until they are estimated to have passed.
Câu 310. When an aircraft is being held in flight, when should vertical
separation be provided between holding aircraft and en-route aircraft?
A. When the en-route aircraft is within 5 minutes flying time of the holding
point.
(x) B. When the en-route aircraft is within 5 minutes flying time of the holding
areas .
C. When the en-route aircraft is within 5 miles flying time of the holding
areas.
D. When the en-route aircraft is within 15 minutes flying time of the
holding areas.
Câu 311. What type of separation must be maintained at all times between
aircraft holding in the holding pattern?
(x) A. vertical.
B. lateral
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C. longitudinal
D. a combination of lateral and vertical
Câu 312. The aircraft should be advised to consider executing a missed

approach if the aircraft is not visible on the situation display for any significant
interval during the last...of the approach
A. 1 NM.
(x) B. 2 NM .
C. 3 NM .
D. 4 NM .
Câu 313. Prior to commencement of a radar approach, the aircraft shall be

informed of:
A. the runway to be used.
B. the applicable obstacle clearance altitude/height, the angle of the
nominal glide path and, if so prescribed by the appropriate ATS authority
or requested by the aircraft, the approximate rate of descent to be
maintained.
C. the procedure to be followed in the event of radio communication
failure, unless the procedure has been published in AIPs.
(x) D. all the above are correct.
Câu 314. If the landing clearance is not received, a subsequent notification

should be made at approximately…and landing clearance requested.
A. 4 NM from threshold.
(x) B. 4 NM from touchdown
C. 1 or 2 is correct.
D. 1 and 2 are correct.
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Câu 315. Unless otherwise prescribed by the appropriate ATS authority, the
controller conducting the approach should notify the aerodrome controller or,
when applicable, the procedural controller when an aircraft making a radar
approach is approximately…
(x) A. 8 NM from touchdown.
B. 8 NM from threshold
C. 8 NM from the beginning of the runway
D. 1 & 2 & are correct
Câu 316. Which does ATC Term “Radar contact” signify?

A. Your aircraft has been identified and you will receive separation from all
aircraft while in contact with this radar facility.
B. You will be given traffic advisories until advised that the service has
been terminated or that radar contact has been lost.
C. ATC is receiving your transponder and will furnish vectors and traffic
advisories until you are advised that contact has been lost.
(x) D. Your aircraft has been identified on the radar display and radar flight
instructions will provided until radar identification is terminated .
Câu 317. What does an air traffic controller have to do before providing an
ATS surveillance service to an aircraft?
(x) A. Identify aircraft.
B. Radio contact with aircraft
C. Issue ATC clearance for aircraft
D. Change aircraft flight level
Câu 318. What does mode C show?

A. Identification.
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B. Weather information.
C. Restriction.
(x) D. Level information.
Câu 319. What does mode S show?

(x) A. Identification feature.
B. Weather information
C. Restriction
D. Level information
Câu 320. What does PSR mean?

(x) A. Primary Surveillance Radar.
B. Precision Surveillance Radar.
C. Primary Service Radar.
D. Procedure Surveillance Radar.
Câu 321. Radar controller shall not request the pilot to adjust the speed where
the air craft has passed:
(x) A. 4 NM from the threshold on final approach .
B. 2 NM from the threshold on final approach.
C. 3 NM from the threshold on final approach.
D. 5 NM from the threshold on final approach.
Câu 322. The use of radar for the purpose of providing aircraft with
information and advice relative to significant deviation from nominal flight
path is:
A. Radar vectoring.
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B. Radar identification.
C. Radar separation.
(x) D. Radar Monitoring .
Câu 323. How shall a pilot inform a radar control unit that the aircraft is not
equipped with transponder?
A. Negative squawk.
(x) B. Negative transponder .
C. Transponder not available.
D. No SSR.
Câu 324. The radar control service provided may include:

A. Radar separation of arriving, departing and en-route traffic; radar
monitoring of arriving, departing and en-route traffic to provide
information on any significant deviation from the normal flight path; radar
vectoring when required.
B. Assistance to aircraft in emergency; assistance to aircraft crossing
controlled airspace.
C. Warnings and position information on other aircraft considered to
constitute a hazard; information to assist in the navigation of aircraft.
(x) D. All the above.
Câu 325. The message addressed to an Area Control Center "request radar
vectors to circumnavigate adverse weather" is:
A. An urgency message.
B. A message relating to direction finding.
(x) C. A flight safety message,
D. A meteorological message.
89
Câu 326. Information regarding traffic on a conflicting path should be given,

whenever practicable, in the following form:
(x) A. relative bearing of the conflicting traffic in terms of the 12-hour clock;
in which the conflicting traffic appears to be proceeding; level and type of
aircraft or, if unknown, relative speed of the conflicting traffic, e.g. slow or
fast.
B. relative bearing of the conflicting traffic in terms of the 12-hour clock;
distance from the conflicting traffic in kilometres (nautical miles);
C. relative bearing of the conflicting traffic in terms of the 12-hour clock;
direction in which the conflicting traffic appears to be proceeding;
D. relative bearing of the conflicting traffic in terms of the 12-hour clock;
level and type of aircraft or, if unknown, relative speed of the conflicting
traffic, e.g. slow or fast;
Câu 327. The following types of approaches may be conducted in segregated

parallel operations provided suitable surveillance radar and the appropriate
ground facilities conform to the standard necessary for the specific type of
approach:
A. ILS and/or MLS precision approach.
B. surveillance radar approach (SRA) or precision approach radar (PAR)
approach; and.
C. visual approach.
Câu 328. Aircraft to be provided with a precision radar approach shall have
been transferred to the controller in charge of the precision approach at a
distance of ......... from the point of interception of the glide path, unless
otherwise provided by the appropriate ATS authority.
A. not less than 2 NM.
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B. not less than 3 NM.

C. not less than 5 NM.
(x) D. None of above
Câu 329. Subject to radar system and situation display capabilities, a minimum
of ....... shall be provided between aircraft on the same ILS localizer course or
MLS final approach track unless increased longitudinal separation is required
due to wake turbulence or for other reasons.
(x) A. 5.6 km (3.0 NM) radar separation.
B. 5NM radar separation
C. 10NM radar separation
D. None of above
Câu 330. What is Standard Instrument Arrival (STAR)?

(x) A. A designated instrument flight rule (IFR) arrival route linking a
significant point, normally on an ATS route, with a point from which a
published instrument approach procedure can be commenced.
B. A designated visual flight rule (IFR) arrival route linking a significant
point, normally on an ATS route, with a point from which a published
instrument approach procedure can be commenced
C. A designated instrument flight rule (IFR) arrival route linking a
significant point, normally on an ATS route, with a point from which a
published visual approach procedure can be commenced
D. All the above
Câu 331. Which groud of code should Ha Noi Acc use for HVN611 from Noi
Bai to Bangkok
A. 4100-4177
(x) B. 1700-1777
91
C. 4611-4677
D. 1 and 3
AIS
Câu 332. What ICAO document shows the NOTAM format?
A. DOC 7910.
B. DOC 8126.
(x) C. DOC 8400 .
D. ANNEX 15.
Câu 333. The AIP SUP pages should be preferably?

A. White.
(x) B. Yellow .
C. Green.
D. Blue.
Câu 334. AIRAC stands for:

(x) A. Aeronautical Information regulation and control
B. Aeronautical Information regulation and check.
C. Aeronautical Information rules and control.
D. Aeronautical Information rules and check.
Câu 335. Advantages of AIP Supplements:

A. Wide circulation and more scope for expression
B. Maps and diagrams can be included
C. It provides a permanent record
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(x) D. all of above
Câu 336. The AIP is a document which contains information of:

(x) A. a permanent nature.
B. an administrative nature
C. a temporary nature
D. an advisory nature
Câu 337. How much a check list all AIP Supplement currently in force be
issued?
A. at intervals of not more than one month.
(x) B. not more than six months .
C. three times a year.
D. three months.
Câu 338. In which section of the AIP can you find the lateral limits of restricted
areas?
A. GEN.
B. AD.
(x) C. ENR .
D. GEN and ENR.
Câu 339. What page in AIP Viet Nam is “ATS ROUTE” described?
A. ENR 5.
(x) B. ENR 3.1
C. GEN 4.
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D. ENR 2.
Câu 340. What are the declared distances of the aerodrome indicated in the
AIP Vietnam?
A. RWY
B. SWY
(x) C. TORA/ ASDA/ LDA/ TODA,
D. CWY
Câu 341. How long shall the identification numbers of D, P or R areas be

reused after cancelation of the area to which they refer?
A. at least 3 months.
B. at least 6 months.
C. at least 9 months.
(x) D. at least 1 year
Câu 342. When shall the NOTAM with C) PERM be invalid?

A. After 3 months.
(x) B. After its information is incorporated into the AIP AMDT,
C. both 1 and 2.
D. After 6 months.
Câu 343. …….NOTAM contains information of concern to long or medium

range flights, given selected international distribution.
(x) A. A series.
B. B series
C. C series
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D. none of above
Câu 344. ..… NOTAM contains information of concern to domestic flights.

A. A series.
B. B series.
(x) C. C series .
D. S series.
Câu 345. The NOTAM code is used

A. by AIS officers to communicate with foreign air crews.
(x) B. for the coding of NOTAM information for use in the Q-line
C. for the coding of information for pilot’s usage.
D. for the coding of information for PIB.
Câu 346. On a map, 1 degree and 46 minutes is equal to a distance of_________

A. 146 Km.
B. 146 NM.
C. 106 km.
(x) D. 106 NM
Câu 347. If the Magnetic Track is 146º and variation is 3ºW, the True bearing
is ______
(x) A. 143º.
B. 149º
C. 140º
D. 164º
95
Câu 348. The minimum sector altitude is shown on the _________

A. Aerodrome Chart.
(x) B. Instrument Approach Chart
C. Aircraft parking/docking Chart.
D. En-route Chart.
Câu 349. 1 degree = 60 NM, 60 Minutes = _____NM

A. 58 NM.
B. 62 NM.
(x) C. 60 NM .
D. 1 NM.
Câu 350. In NOTAM format, field PURPOSE in Q item (Q line) containing

letters "NBO" means:
A. NOTAM selected for the immediate attention of aircraft operators
B. NOTAM selected for PIB entry
(x) C. NOTAM concerning flight operation.
D. all the above
Câu 351. In NOTAM format, the LOWER/UPPER limit shall be expressed in ...
(x) A. Flight level.
B. Altitude
C. Height
D. Elevation
Câu 352. Each NOTAM shall be located a series identified by .......... and a four-
96
digit number followed by a stroke and a two-digit number for the year.
(x) A. a letter.
B. a number
C. a letter and number
D. none of the above
Câu 353. What are the series of NOTAM issued in Vietnam?

A. N, R and C.
B. A and B.
C. A, B, C and S.
(x) D. A, C and J .
Câu 354. The authority responsible for the collection, collation, editing and
publishing of aeronautical information used by all types of aircraft operations
is ________
A. the Air Traffic Control Unit.
B. the Airport Management.
(x) C. the Aeronautical Information Service .
D. the airlines concerned.
Câu 355. Which ICAO document provides the standard NOTAM format?
(x) A. Annex 15,
B. Doc 7383.
C. Doc 8126.
D. Doc 8585.
97
Câu 356. In which ICAO document can you find the AIRAC effective dates?
A. Doc 8585.
(x) B. Doc 8126
C. Doc 7910.
D. Doc 4444.
Câu 357. Information of short duration which contains extensive text and/or
graphics shall be published as:
(x) A. AIP supplements .
B. AIP amendments.
C. NOTAM.
D. AIC.
Câu 358. Temporary changes to the AIP which doesn’t contain extensive and/or
graphics and needs to be distributed timely shall be published as :
A. AIP supplements.
(x) B. NOTAM .
C. AIP amendments.
D. AIC.
Câu 359. Who are the users of Aeronautical Information?

A. The pilot , Operators of airlines.
B. The Air traffic services , chart and document producing agencies.
(x) C. both 1 and 2
D. None of all.
98
Câu 360. In which section of the AIP can you find the length of a runway?
A. GEN
(x) B. AD
C. ENR
D. GEN and ENR
Câu 361. . ... is a special series NOTAM notifying the presence or removal of
hazardous conditions due to snow, ice, slush or standing water associated with
snow, slush and ice on the movement area, by means of a specific format.
(x) A. SNOWTAM
B. ASHTAM
C. D-ATIS
D. VOLMET
Câu 362. ......is a special series NOTAM notifying by means of a specific format
change in activity of a volcano, a volcanic eruption and/or volcanic ash cloud
that is of significance to aircraft operations.
A. SNOWTAM
(x) B. ASHTAM
C. D-ATIS
D. VOLMET
LÝ THUYẾT CƠ SỞ
AIRSPACE
Câu 363. The upper limit of VVD32 is:
A. FL250
99
B. FL200
C. FL150
(x) D. Unspecified
Câu 364. The MEA of W1 in the segment between PLK and DAN is:
(x) A. FL120
B. FL110
C. FL100
D. FL090
Câu 365. The MEA of W1 in the segment between AC and BMT is:
A. FL120
B. FL110
C. FL100
(x) D. FL090
Câu 366. The MEA of W1 in the segment between BMT and PLK is:
A. FL120
(x) B. FL090
C. FL100
D. FL110
Câu 367. The MEA of W2 in the segment between DAN and CHULAI (CQ) is:
A. FL110
B. FL100
C. FL090
100
(x) D. FL080
Câu 368. The MEA of W2 in the segment between PCA and CRA is:
A. FL110
(x) B. FL100
C. FL090
D. FL080
Câu 369. The MEA of W2 in the segment between CRA and PTH is:
A. FL110
B. FL100
(x) C. FL090
D. FL080
Câu 370. The MEA of W7 is:

A. FL110
(x) B. FL100
C. FL090
D. FL080
Câu 371. The MEA of G221 in the segment between PCA and BUNTA is:
A. FL110
B. FL100
(x) C. FL290
D. FL280
101
Câu 372. The MEA of L642 in the segment between VEPAM and CN is:
A. FL310
B. FL200
C. FL290
(x) D. FL135
Câu 373. The MEA of W12 in the segment between CUCHI and TRN is:
A. FL110
B. FL120
C. FL090
(x) D. FL040
Câu 374. The upper limit and the lower limit of W9 is:
A. FL240/FL040
B. FL250/FL090
C. FL270/FL080
(x) D. FL190/FL070
Câu 375. The upper limit and the lower limit of L643 is:
A. FL240/FL040
B. FL460/FL090
C. FL370/FL080
(x) D. FL460/FL200
Câu 376. The MEA L625 is:

A. FL110
102
(x) B. FL135
C. FL090
D. FL040
Câu 377. The MEA W18 is:

A. FL110
B. FL200
(x) C. 900M
D. FL040
Câu 378. The MEA M771 is:

A. FL110
(x) B. FL135
C. 900M
D. FL040
Câu 379. The lateral limits of L644 in the segment between CS and DUDIS is:
A. 30Km
(x) B. 92 Km
C. 60NM
D. 50 NM
Câu 380. The lateral limits of M768 in the segment between ELSAS and
LOSON is:
(x) A. 30Km
B. 92 Km
103
C. 60NM
D. 50 NM
Câu 381. The lateral limits of N500 in the segment between PTH and DAMVO
is:
A. 92Km
(x) B. 30 Km
C. 30NM
D. 50 NM
Câu 382. The lateral limits of W1 AT or ABOVE FL290 is:

A. 92Km
(x) B. 30 Km
C. 30NM
D. 50 NM
Câu 383. The MEA N892 is:

A. FL110
(x) B. FL135
C. 900M
D. FL040
REGULATIONS
Câu 384. Chose the correct name of RNAV1 STARS (Trombone) for RWY25R
at VVTS.
(x) A. BAOMY 1G
104
B. BAOMY 1F
C. BAOMY 1E
D. BAOMY 1D
at VVTS.
A. SAPEN 1K
B. SAPEN 1M
C. SAPEN 1L
(x) D. SAPEN 1N
at VVTS.
A. BITIS 1E
B. BITIS 1D
(x) C. BITIS 1G
D. BITIS 1F
Câu 387. Chose the correct name of RNAV1 STARS (Trombone) for RWY07L
at VVTS.
A. BITIS 1E
(x) B. BITIS 1D
C. BITIS 1G
D. BITIS 1F
Câu 388. Chose the correct name of RNAV1 STARS (Trombone) for RWY07L
at VVTS.
105
A. BAOMY 1G
B. BAOMY 1F
C. BAOMY 1E
(x) D. BAOMY 1D
Câu 389. The NO-PDC FLs for traffic Northbound on W1 are:

(x) A. FL270
B. FL290
C. FL310
D. FL330
Câu 390. The NO-PDC FLs for traffic Southbound on W1 are:

A. FL300
B. FL340
C. FL360
(x) D. FL280
Câu 391. The NO-PDC FLs for traffic Eastbound on L628 are:
A. FL270, FL290, FL 370
(x) B. FL330, FL370, FL410
C. FL290, FL330, FL370
D. FL290, FL370, FL410
Câu 392. The NO-PDC FLs for traffic North-Eastbound on M765 are:
(x) A. FL290, FL 370
B. FL370, FL410
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C. FL330, FL370
D. FL290, FL410
Câu 393. The NO-PDC FLs for traffic Northbound on M753 are:
A. FL270, FL290, FL 370
(x) B. FL260, FL300, FL380
C. FL280, FL300, FL360
D. FL290, FL330, FL370
Câu 394. The NO-PDC FLs for traffic South-Eastbound on M768 are:
A. FL270, FL290, FL 370
B. FL290, FL330, FL410
(x) C. FL270, FL330, FL410
D. FL290, FL330, FL370
Câu 395. The NO-PDC FLs for traffic North-Westbound on N891 are:
A. FL260, FL300, FL 360
(x) B. FL260, FL300, FL380
C. FL280, FL300, FL380
D. FL260, FL300, FL340
Câu 396. Under radar surveillance, the minimum longitudinal separation for
traffic same track and same level between HCM ACC and HANOI ACC is:
A. 18,5 Km
(x) B. 37 Km
C. 55 Km
107
D. 74 Km
Câu 397. Under radar surveillance, the minimum longitudinal separation for
traffic same track and same level between HCM ACC and PHNOM PENH
ACC is:
A. 40NM
B. 30 NM
(x) C. 20 NM
D. 10 NM
Câu 398. According to the LOA between HCM ACC and HANOI ACC, under
radar surveillance, the transfer of radar identification of the aircraft shall be
completed at least…………before transfer of control point TCP.
A. 05 NM
(x) B. 10 NM
C. 15 NM
D. 20 NM
Câu 399. According to LOA between HCM ACC and SANYA ACC, the
minimum longitudinal distance-based separation for RNP10-approved aircraft
on L642 is:
A. 10NM
B. 20 NM
C. 30 NM
(x) D. 50 NM
Câu 400. In case non-radar surveillance, the minimum longitudinal separation

for traffic same track and same level between HCM ACC and HANOI ACC is:
108
A. 9 minutes
(x) B. 10 minutes
C. 11 minutes
D. 12 minutes
Câu 401. According to the LOA between HCM ACC and BUON MA THUOT
TWR, the Area of Responsibility of the BUON MA THUOT TWR is:
A. Center point is BMT DVOR/DME, R = 30 KM, GND –
3000m(10000ft).
B. Center point is BU NDB, R = 30 KM, GND – FL090 (2750 m).
C. Center point is BU NDB, R = 30 KM, GND – FL100 (3000 m).
(x) D. Center point is BMT DVOR/DME, R = 30 KM, GND – FL090 (2750
m).
Câu 402. According to the LOA between HCM ACC and TUY HOA TWR, the
Area of Responsibility of the TUY HOA TWR is:
(x) A. Center point is TH NDB, R = 30 KM, GND – 9000FT(2700m).
B. Center point is TH NDB, R = 60 KM, GND – FL100
C. Center point is Reference point, R = 30 KM, GND – 9000FT
D. Center point is Reference point, R = 60 KM, GND – FL100
Câu 403. According to the LOA between HCM ACC and PHU QUOC TWR,
the Area of Responsibility of the PHU QUOC TWR is:
A. Center point is PQ NDB, R = 30 KM, GND – 7000FT (2100m).
B. Center point is ZDG DVOR/DME , R = 30 KM, GND – 7000FT (2100
m).
(x) C. Center point is Reference point, R = 40 KM And… GND –
2590m(8500ft).
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D. Center point is Reference point, R = 60 KM, GND – FL090 (2750 m).
Câu 404. According to the LOA between HCM ACC and PHU CAT TWR, the
Area of Responsibility of the PHU CAT TWR is:
A. Center point is PCA DVOR/DME, R = 30 KM, GND – FL100 (3050
m).
(x) B. Center point is PCA DVOR/DME, R = 60 KM, GND – FL100
C. Center point is Reference point, R = 30 KM, GND – FL100 (3050m).
D. Center point is Reference point, R = 60 KM, GND – FL100 (3050 m).
Câu 405. In the co-ordination between HCM ACC and SANYA ACC, The
receiving ACC shall notify the Transferring ACC in the event that
communication with aircraft is not established within .......... after the estimated
time over the transfer point.
A. 5 minutes
(x) B. 4 minutes
C. 3 minutes
D. 2 minutes
Câu 406. In the co-ordination between HCM ACC and SINGAPORE Acc. The
receiving ACC shall notify the Transferring ACC in the event that
communication with aircraft is not established within .......... after the estimated
time over the transfer point.
(x) A. 5 minutes
B. 4 minutes
C. 3 minutes
D. 2 minutes
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Câu 407. The NO-PDC FLs for traffic on Q2 are:

(x) A. FL310, FL350
B. FL270, FL350
C. FL270, FL310
D. FL290, FL330
Câu 408. The NO-PDC FLs for traffic on Q1 are:

A. FL280,FL360
B. FL280,FL340
C. FL340, FL360
(x) D. FL320,FL360
REGULATIONS
Câu 409. The identification of CONSON NDB is:
A. CS
(x) B. CN
C. CO
D. CC
Câu 410. Frequency 113.0 MHZ /CH 77X is :

A. PCA PHU CAT
(x) B. PQU PHU QUOC
C. BMT BAN ME THUOT
D. TSN TAN SON NHAT
Câu 411. The identification of BUON MA THUOT NDB is:

111
A. BM
B. BT
(x) C. BU
D. BMT
Câu 412. The frequency of CRA (CAM RANH) DVOR/DME is :

(x) A. 116.5 MHz/CH 112X
B. 114.4 MHz/CH91X
C. 112.1 MHz/CH 58X
D. 113.1 MHz/CH78X
Câu 413. Frequency 114.4 MHZ /CH 91X, coverage 300 Km is the parameter of
DVOR/DME:
A. PCA PHU CAT
(x) B. DAN DANANG
C. BMT BAN ME THUOT
D. TSN TAN SON NHAT
Câu 414. The frequency of LKG (LIEN KHUONG) DVOR/DME is:

A. 116.5 MHz/CH 112X
B. 114.4 MHz/CH91X
(x) C. 112.3 MHz/CH 70X
D. 113.1 MHz/CH78X
Câu 415. The frequency of TRN (CAN THO) DVOR/DME is :

A. 116.5 MHz/CH 112X
112
B. 114.4 MHz/CH91X
C. 112.1 MHz/CH 58X
(x) D. 113.2 MHz/CH79X
Câu 416. The frequency of PLK (PLEIKU) DVOR/DME is :

A. 116.5 MHz/CH 112X
B. 114.4 MHz/CH91X
C. 112.1 MHz/CH 58X
(x) D. 113.4 MHz/CH81X
Câu 417. The identification and frequency of CAMAU NDB is:

A. CM 305 KHz
(x) B. QL 305 KHz
C. CM 333 KHz
D. QL 333 KHz
Câu 418. The identification of TRA NOC VOR/DME is:

A. BMT
B. PLKz
(x) C. TRN
D. CRA
Câu 419. Frequency 112.1 MHZ /CH 58X, coverage 300 Km is the parameter of
DVOR/DME:
A. PCA PHU CAT
B. DAN DANANG
113
(x) C. BMT BAN ME THUOT

D. TSN TAN SON NHAT
Câu 420. The frequency of DAN (DANANG). DVOR/DME is:

A. 112.1 MHz/CH 58X
(x) B. 114.4 MHz/CH91X
C. 115.1 MHz/CH98X
D. 115.5 MHz/CH102X
Câu 421. Frequency 114.1 MHz /CH 88X is the parameter of VOR/DME:
(x) A. PTH PHAN THIET
B. PCA PHU CAT
C. HUE PHU BAI
D. TSN TAN SON NHAT
Câu 422. The frequency of TSN (TAN SON NHAT) VOR/DME is :

(x) A. 116.7 MHz/CH 114X
B. 114.4 MHz/CH91X
C. 114.7 MHz
D. 113.1 MHz/CH78X
Câu 423. Frequency 116.3 MHz /CH 110X is the parameter of VOR/DME:
A. DAN DANANG
B. BMT BAN ME THUOT
(x) C. PCA PHU CAT
D. PTH PHAN THIET
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Câu 424. The identification and frequency of DALAT NDB is:

A. LK 330 KHz
B. LK 386 KHz
C. DL 303 KHz
(x) D. DL 330 KHz
Câu 425. The identification and frequency of CONSON NDB is:

A. CN 333 KHz
(x) B. CN 375 KHz
C. CO 333 KHz
D. CC 333 KHz
Câu 426. The identification and frequency of AN LOC NDB is:

A. AC 230 KHz
(x) B. AC 320 KHz
C. AC 330 KHz
D. AC 326 KHz
Câu 427. The identification and frequency of BUON MA THUOT NDB is:
A. BM 212 KHz
B. BT 420 KHz
(x) C. BU 386 KHz
D. BM 386 KHz
Câu 428. The identification and frequency of PHU QUOC NDB is:
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A. PQ 282 KHz
B. PQ 272 KHz
C. PQ 287 KHz
(x) D. PQ 278 KHz
Câu 429. The identification and frequency of RACH GIA NDB is:
A. RG 355 KHz
(x) B. RG 335 KHz
C. RG 305 KHz
D. RG 333 KHz
Câu 430. The frequency of BMT VOR/DME is :

(x) A. 112.1 MHz/CH 58X
B. 114.4 MHz/CH91X
C. 114.7 MHz
D. 113.1 MHz/CH78X
Câu 431. The frequency of PQU VOR/DME is :

(x) A. 113.0 MHz/CH 77X
B. 114.4 MHz/CH91X
C. 114.7 MHz
D. 113.1 MHz/CH78X
Câu 432. The identification and frequency of PLEIKU NDB is:

A. RG 355 KHz
(x) B. PK 282 KHz
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C. RG 305 KHz
D. RG 333 KHz
ATC FACILITIES
Câu 433. In the EUROCAT-X system. Electronic Strips in a strip window can
be sorted by:
A. Strip’s colour
(x) B. Level, Alpha or Time – as selected by the controller
C. Position report
D. Randomize.
Câu 434. In the EUROCAT-X system. The compass rose can be displayed in
which window/s?
A. Both the main screen and the second window
(x) B. The main screen only
C. The second window only
D. The Flight plan window
Câu 435. In the EUROCAT-X system. To create a flight plan route for a FDR
by clicking on reporting points on the ASD, which button in the Flight Plan
window would you use?
A. CRE (Flight Plan Creation)
B. MOD (Modify; Modification)
C. RTE ( Flight Plan Route)
(x) D. CRTE (Create Flight plan Route)
Câu 436. In the EUROCAT-X system. When the HOLDING function has been
117
initiated at current position for a flight plan track?

A. Only flight plan track is frozen
B. Only the holding strip window is displayed
(x) C. The flight plan track is frozen & Holding strip is displayed.
D. Nothing happens to the flight plan track
Câu 437. In the EUROCAT-X system. The responsible controller of an FDR

can initiate holding via the HLD button:
A. Only at current position
B. Only at a future position along the flight plan route
C. Either at a future position along the flight plan route or at a position not
on the flight plan route.
(x) D. Either at current position or a future position along the flight plan route
Câu 438. In the EUROCAT-X system. Which of the following statement is true
about the Warning window:
(x) A. Automatically closed when all messages have been acknowledged
B. Manual closed when all messages have been acknowledged
C. Automatically closed after a offline defined time
D. Non of above
Câu 439. In a CPDLC uplink message, up to how many elements (ELMT) can
you include?
A. 2
B. 3
C. 4
(x) D. 5
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Câu 440. Which of the following levels are NOT displayed in an ADS track?
(x) A. MCL (Mode C Level)
B. PRL (Pilot reported Level)
C. CFL (Cleared Flight Level)
D. ADL (ADS Level Display)
Câu 441. An aircraft can maintain ADS connections (Include Airline’s

Operational Control) and send ADS reports to
A. Only one ground station at a time
(x) B. Up to FIVE ground stations
C. Up to TEN ground stations
D. Any number of ground stations within satellite coverage.
Câu 442. For International flight operating in HCM FIR can expected to be
assigned SSR codes as:
(x) A. 5500 – 5577 / 5600 - 5677
B. 5700 – 5777 / 6000 - 6077
C. 5700 – 5777 / 1700 - 1777
D. 4100 – 4177 / 4600 - 4677
Câu 443. For Domestic flight operating in HCM FIR can expected to be
assigned SSR codes as:
A. 5500 – 5577 / 5600 - 5677
(x) B. 5700 – 5777 / 6000 - 6077
C. 5700 – 5777 / 1700 - 1777
D. 4100 – 4177 / 4600 - 4677
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Câu 444. The minimum horizontal radar separation within HCM FIR is:
A. 18 Km (10 NM) outsides of 148 Km (80 NM) from Tan Son Nhat and
Danang airport
B. 18 Km (10 NM) outsides of 74 Km (40 NM) from Danang airport
C. 18 Km (10 NM) outsides of 74 Km (40 NM) from Tan Son Nhat airport
(x) D. 18 Km (10 NM) outsides of 74 Km (40 NM) from Tan Son Nhat and
Danang airport
Câu 445. The Radar coverage of TSN SSR is:

(x) A. 463 Km (250 NM)
B. 370 Km (200 NM)
C. 474 Km (256 NM)
D. 500 Km (270 NM)
Câu 446. The Radar coverage of TSN PSR is:

A. 463 Km (250 NM)
(x) B. 148 Km (80 NM)
C. 74 Km (40 NM)
D. 75 Km (40 NM)
Câu 447. The Radar coverage of Ca Mau SSR is:

(x) A. 463 Km (250 NM)
B. 370 Km (200 NM)
C. 474 Km (256 NM)
D. 500 Km (270 NM)
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Câu 448. In the EUROCAT-X system.The Air Situation Display can be oriented
to either TRUE or MAGNETIC North. This is:
A. Selected by the supervisor at OPSUP position
B. Selected by the controller (ECs or PLCs)
(x) C. Defined off-line and indicated in the General Information Window
(GIW)
D. At all work stations within the center.
Câu 449. In the EUROCAT-X system. How many electronic strips are there for
each flight?
(x) A. One strip per controller
B. Up to eight strips per controller
C. One strip per turning point
D. Electronic strip are only turning on – off by supervisors.
Câu 450. How many ground stations are able to be the CPDLC controlling
authority for an aircraft?
(x) A. Only one ground station at a time
B. Up to FIVE ground stations
Câu 451. An aircraft can maintain CPDLC Communicate to :

A. As much as the same with ADS connections
(x) B. Only one ATSU active as Current Data Authority (CDA) and one other
inactive as Next Data Authority (NDA).
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Câu 452. What does a “+” in the track label mean?

A. CMA logon (Context management Application logon)
B. Aircraft has CPDLC capability
C. CPDLC connected as Next Data Authority (NDA)
(x) D. CPDLC connected as Current Data Authority.
Câu 453. If an aircraft is in radar coverage, NOT logged on, what type of
track/s will be displayed?
A. A radar track, with a flight plan track and an ADS track (if eqipped)
(x) B. A radar track only
C. A flight plan track only
D. An ADS track only.
Câu 454. The FOM presented on :

A. Label and Electronic strip
B. Flight Plan Window and Electronic strip
C. On Label when IQL (Individual Quik Look) on
(x) D. Generally not presented to the controller position directly.
Câu 455. in ADS_C The “demand contract” is commonly know as :

A. Send free text message as “ Report your position”
B. Send a predefined message “Report over......”
(x) C. “one shot”
D. Extrapolated position display on radar screen.
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Câu 456. The Maximum HMI display size of ATM system in HCM AACC is :
A. ~ 6000 NM
B. ~ 5000 NM
(x) C. ~ 4000 NM
D. ~ 3000 NM
Câu 457. What is the main VHF frequency of Sector 6 HCM ACC ?
A. 120.1MHz
B. 123.3MHz
C. 133.05MHz
(x) D. 132.35MHz
Câu 458. What is the secondary VHF frequency of Sector 6 HCM ACC ?
A. 128.775 MHz
B. 133.85 MHz
C. 119.35 MHz
(x) D. 128.175 MHz
TERRAIN
Câu 459. The MEA W19 is:
A. FL110
B. FL200
(x) C. FL050
D. FL040
Câu 460. The MEA of Q1 in the segment between MUMGA and AC is :

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A. FL110
B. FL100
(x) C. FL090
D. FL080
Câu 461. The MEA of W11 is:

A. FL110
(x) B. FL100
C. FL090
D. FL080
Câu 462. The MEA of W12 in the segment between PCA and BMT is:
A. FL110
B. FL100
C. FL090
(x) D. FL080
Câu 463. The MEA of W12 in the segment between CUCHI and TRN is:
A. FL090
B. FL080
(x) C. FL040
D. FL070
Câu 464. The MEA of W15 in segment between LKH and CRA is:
A. FL100
(x) B. FL110
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C. FL120
D. FL090
Câu 465. The MEA of W15 in segment between AC and LKH is:
(x) A. FL100
B. FL110
C. FL120
D. FL090
Câu 466. The MEA of W16 in segment between TRN and RG is :

(x) A. FL040
B. FL050
C. FL060
D. FL070
Câu 467. The MEA of W17 between TSN and BAVEN is:
(x) A. FL040
B. FL050
C. FL060
D. FL070
Câu 468. The MEA of W 12 in the segment between BMT and DONXO is:
A. FL110
(x) B. FL100
C. FL090
D. FL250
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Câu 469. The name of Prohibited area VVP4 is located over:

A. Cam Ranh Airport
B. Bien Hoa Airbase
(x) C. Ho Chi Minh city
D. May Tao firing area
Câu 470. The name of Danger area VVD32 is the name of:
A. MIG 21 MOA (Military Operation Area)
B. SU22 MOA (Military Operation Area)
C. SU27 MOA (Military Operation Area)
(x) D. Mây Tào firing area
Câu 471. The name of restricted area VVR19 is located over:

A. Phan Rang Airport
(x) B. Bien Hoa Airport
C. Phu Cat Airport
D. Tuy Hoa Airport
Câu 472. The upper limit of the restricted area VVR19 is:
A. 9000 m
B. 8000 m
(x) C. 7000 m
D. 6000 m
Câu 473. The upper limit of the prohibited area VVP4 is:
126
A. 1000 m
(x) B. 3000 m
C. 2000 m
D. 1500 m
Câu 474. The MEA of Q1 in the segment between DAN and MUMGA is:
A. FL040
(x) B. FL120
C. FL060
D. FL070
Câu 475. The MEA of Q2 in the segment between PATMA and PATNO is:
(x) A. FL290
B. FL090
C. FL110
D. FL135
Câu 476. The MEA of Q2 in the segment between TSN and PATMA is:
A. FL 240
B. FL260
C. FL280
(x) D. FL230
Câu 477. The lateral limits of L642 in the segment between PTH and CS is:
(x) A. 30Km
B. 92 Km
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C. 30NM
D. 50 NM
Câu 478. The AMA in the area of water within HCM FIR is ...
A. 450m
(x) B. 300m
C. 540m
D. 600m
AIR TRAFFIC FLOWS

Câu 479. The cancellation of an ATFM message should contain a cancelling
word or phrase. It is:
A. Cancel
B. Release
(x) C. Both a, b are correct
D. Both a ,b are incorrect
Câu 480. The amendment of an ATFM message should contain word such as:
A. Amend
B. Reduce
(x) C. Both a, b are correct
D. Both a ,b are incorrect
Câu 481. Which may be chosen to exempt or prioritize from ATFM measures.
A. Flights experiencing an emergency, including aircraft subjected to
unlawful interference
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B. Flights with ‘Head of State’ status

C. Flights specially identified by State authorities
(x) D. All above
Câu 482. ATC capacity should be expressed as the ………………number of

aircraft can be accepted over a given period of time at an ATM resource
(airspace sector, waypoint, airport….)
(x) A. Maximum
B. Minimum
C. Countable
D. Average
Câu 483. Who assess and declare the ATC capacity for control sectors ( en-
route)?
A. ACC
B. Chief of ACC
(x) C. ATS authority
D. None of them
Câu 484. Who assess and declare the ATC capacity for airports?
A. TWR superviser
B. Chief of TWR unit
(x) C. ATS authority
D. None of them
Câu 485. Airport primary runway configuration: is an airport configuration

which handles …………per cent or more of annual operations.
129
A. 2
(x) B. 3
C. 4
D. 5
Câu 486. When the traffic demand exceeds, or is foreseen to exceed, the
capacity of a particular sector or aerodrome, the responsible ATC unit shall
advise…………….
A. The responsible ATFM unit
B. Other ATC unit concerned
C. The airport authority
(x) D. a and b
Câu 487. TSAT stands for :

(x) A. Target Start-up Approval Time
B. Target Selected Approval Time
C. Target Start-up Actual Time
D. Target Selected Actual Time
Câu 488. AAR stands for :

A. Area Acceptance Rate
(x) B. Airport Acceptance Rate
C. Airspace Acceptance rate
D. ATC Acceptance Rate
Câu 489. The objectives of ATFM are to :

A. Enhance the safety of the ATM system by ensuring the delivery of a safe
130
traffic densities and minimizing traffic surges.

B. Ensure an optimum flow of air traffic throughout all phase of a flight by
balancing demand and capacity
C. Reconcile ATM system resource constraints with economic and
environmental priorities
(x) D. All above
Câu 490. Strategic planning is normally carried out well in advance,

typically…………………ahead
A. 2 to 6 weeks
(x) B. 2 to 6 months
C. 3 weeks
D. 3 months
Câu 491. Strategic planning should be carried out in conjunction with…………

A. ATC
B. Aircraft operators
C. Airport authority
(x) D. a and b
Câu 492. When a TOS (Traffic Orientation Scheme) has been agreed, details
should be …………….by all States concerned
(x) A. Published
B. Cancelled
C. Commited
D. Implemented
131
Câu 493. Which are not exempted from ATFM measures :

A. Flights experiencing an emergency, including aircraft subjected to
unlawful interference
B. Flights with ‘Head of State’ status
C. Flights specially identified by State authorities
(x) D. Scheduled flights
Câu 494. Factor to be considered when defining airspace capacity?

A. ATM factors
B. Weather
C. Traffic complexity
(x) D. All above
Câu 495. Factor to be considered when defining airport capacity?

A. Runways
B. Weather
C. Aerodrome design
(x) D. All above
Câu 496. ATFM measures include :

A. Miles in trail ( MIT)
B. Minutes in trail ( MINIT)
C. Fix balancing
(x) D. All are correct
WEATHER PHENOMENA
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Câu 497. The inclusion of “CB” should be understood to include all weather
phenomena normally associated with …?
(x) A. CB clouds, thunderstorm, moderate or severe icing, moderate or severe
turbulence, and hail
B. Fog , mist
C. Ice crystals , hail
D. Snow , snow grains
Câu 498. In a METAR message, BR mean …?

A. Haze
B. Broken
C. Below
(x) D. Mist
Câu 499. In a METAR message, the wind group is 23010 MPS. This means …?
A. Wind from 230o magnetic at 10 miles per hour
B. Wind from 230o true at 10 miles per hour
C. Wind from 230o magnetic at 20 knots
(x) D. Wind from 230o true at 20 knots
Câu 500. The date-time group consists of six figures, the first two figures
indicating the day of the month and the next four figures indicating: : for
METAR and SPECI :
(x) A. The time of observation in UTC
B. The full hour in UTC (of which the last two figures are always 00)
preceding the transmission time; for other forecasts, the standard time of
observation in UTC on which the forecast is based.
C. The time of origin in UTC of the text of the bulletin(s).
133
D. The standard time of observation in UTC.
Câu 501. What is the meaning of the expression “FEW”?

A. 2-4 oktas cloud cover
(x) B. 1-2 oktas cloud cover
C. 5-7 oktas cloud cover
D. 1-3 oktas cloud cover
Câu 502. What is the meaning of the abbreviation BKN?

A. 6-8 oktas
B. 3-4 oktas
(x) C. 5-7 oktas
D. 8 oktas
Câu 503. Annex 3 stand for :

A. Meteorological office.
(x) B. Meteorological service for international air navigation.
C. MET information service.
D. MET service for aerodrome.
Câu 504. The intensity of turbulence is categorized by the ICAO as follows :

A. Light , Moderate , Severe , Extreme
(x) B. Light , Moderate, Severe
C. Moderate , Severe , Extreme
D. Light , Moderate, Extreme
134
Câu 505. WMO data type designator , what is the meaning of the abbreviation
“ WC “ ?
A. SIGMET for TS
(x) B. SIGMET for TC
C. SIGMET for VA
D. AIREP SPECIAL
Câu 506. WMO data type designator , what is the meaning of the abbreviation
“ UA” ?
A. SIGMET for TC
B. SIGMET for TS
C. SIGMET for VA
(x) D. AIREP SPECIAL
Câu 507. SIGMET information is issued as a warning for significant weather to

:
(x) A. All aircraft
B. Light aircraft only
C. VFR operation only
D. Heavy aircraft only
Câu 508. What is a trend forecast ?

A. A routine forecast valid for 24 hours
(x) B. A landing forecast appended to METAR/SPECI , valid for 2 hours
C. An aerodrome forecast valid for 9 hours
D. A routine report
135
Câu 509. What does the term TREND signify?

A. It is a flight forecast, issued by the meteorological station several times
daily
(x) B. It is a brief landing forecast added to the actual weather report
C. It is the actual weather report at an aerodrome and is generally issued at
half-hourly intervals
D. It is a warning of dangerous meteorological conditions
Câu 510. Which of the following weather reports is a warning of conditions

that could be potentially hazardous to aircraft in flight ?
(x) A. SIGMET.
B. ATIS.
C. SPECI.
D. TAF.
Câu 511. Only … is included in METAR?

A. QFE
B. QFF
C. QNE
(x) D. QNH
Câu 512. On the ground, an altimeter will read ….. if QFE is set and ….. if
QNH is set?
A. airfield elevation; airfield altitude
B. zero ft; airfield altitude
C. zero ft; airfield height
(x) D. zero ft; airfield elevation
136
Câu 513. When a TREND is included at the end of an aviation METAR , the
trend is forecast valid for :
(x) A. 2 hours after the time of observation
B. 1 hour after the time of observation
C. 2 hours after it was issued
D. 1 hour after it was issued
Câu 514. Providing the minimum sector altitude is not a determining factor,
CAVOK in a TAF or METAR means :
(x) A. Visibility 10km or more , and no cloud below 5000ft
B. Visibility 10km or more , and few clouds below 5000ft
C. Visibility 10nm or more , and scattered cloud below 5000ft
D. Visibility 10nm or more , and no scattered cloud below 5000f
Câu 515. Hail is most likely to fall from which type of cloud :
(x) A. CB
B. NS
C. AC
D. AS
Câu 516. WMO data type degsinator used for OPMET data , which of the
following statements is likely true SP ?
A. Tropical cyclone advisory
(x) B. Special report , including trend -type
C. Aerodrome forecasts
D. Administrative
137
Câu 517. WMO data type degsinator used for OPMET data , which of the
following statements is likely true FV ?
A. TAF
(x) B. Volcanic ash advisory message
C. TCA
D. VAA
Câu 518. The first stage of a thunderstorm is the ………………..?

(x) A. Cumulus stage
B. Mature stage
C. Dissipating stage
D. All the above
Câu 519. The most likely stage for large hail and damaging winds is the
………..of a thunderstorm ?
A. Cumulus stage
B. Dissipating stage
(x) C. Mature stage
D. All the above
Câu 520. In the TREND forecast , to indicate the end of the occurrence of
significant weather phenomena , the abbreviation replacing the group w’w’’ is
indicated by :
(x) A. NSW
B. NOSIG
C. NIL
138
D. NSC
Câu 521. BR is a weather phenomenon in a METAR :

A. HAZE
(x) B. MIST
C. DRIZZLE
D. HAIL
following staetements is likele true FK ?
(x) A. Tropical cyclone advisories
B. Air reports
C. Aerodrome forecasts
D. Administrative
following statements is likely true FT ?
(x) A. TAF
B. METAR
C. TCA
D. VAA
EMERGENCY AND SAR

Câu 524. The sequence of emergency phases are:
A. ALERFA, INCERFA, DETRESFA
(x) B. INCERFA, ALERFA, DETRESFA
139
C. DETRESFA, ALERFA, INCERFA

D. No difference
Câu 525. The frequencies used for survival radio equipment are:
(x) A. 121.5 MHZ and 243 MHZ
B. 120.5 MHZ and 243 MHZ
C. 121.5 MHZ and 423 MHZ
D. 120.5 MHZ and 423 MHZ
Câu 526. What is INCERFA?

A. The code word used to designate a distress phase
B. The code word used to designate an alert phase
(x) C. The code word used to designate an uncertainty phase
D. All of the above
Câu 527. An aircraft is considered to be in the phase of ALERFA when:

A. No communication has been established within 30 minutes from the
time there should have communication.
(x) B. Information received reveals that the operation efficiency of aircraft has
been impaired but not to extend that a forced landing is necessary.
C. It is believed that the fuel on board is not enough to fly to the destination
safety.
D. It is believed that a forced landing has been made.
Câu 528. An aircraft is considered to be in the phase of DETRESFA when:

140
B. It is believed that the fuel on board is not enough to fly to the destination
safety.
C. It is believed that a forced landing has been made.
(x) D. 2 & 3 are correct
Câu 529. What action should be taken by HCM ACC if an aircraft operating
outside of the area of responsibility that is considered to be in the phase of
ALERFA ?
(x) B. To inform the information of involved aircraft to SAR coordination
center
C. It is believed that a forced landing has been made.
D. 2 & 3 are correct
Câu 530. What action should be taken by HCM ACC if an aircraft operating
outside of the area of responsibility that is considered to be in the phase of
ALERFA ?
B. To inform the information of involved aircraft to SAR coordination
center
C. To inform the information of involved aircraft to aircraft operator
(x) D. 2 & 3 are correct
Câu 531. What action should be taken by HCM ACC if an aircraft is

considered to be in the phase of INCERFA ?
A. Should immediately declare INCERFA
B. Inform all the information about aircraft to adjacent ACCs.
141
C. None of above
(x) D. 1& 2 are correct
Câu 532. What is alerting service?

(x) A. A service provided to notify appropriate organizations regarding aircraft
in need of search and rescue aid, and assist such organizations as required.
B. A service provided to notify appropriate organizations.
C. A service provided to notify appropriate organizations regarding aircraft
in need of search and rescue aid.
D. b & c are correct
Câu 533. A radiotelephony distress message transmitted by an aircraft should

commence with the word “…” preferably spoken three times.
A. SOS
(x) B. MAYDAY
C. PANPAN
D. EMERGENCY
Câu 534. What is the definition of Distress?

(x) A. An emergency condition where an aircraft is in grave and immediate
danger and requires immediate assistance.
B. Persons on board an aircraft are in imminent danger and the flight cannot
be continued.
C. The aircraft will be unable to land at a suitable aerodrome.
D. The aeroplane has a message to transmit concerning the safety of person
on board or within sight.
Câu 535. Who is responsible for the organization of an efficient SAR service?
142
A. FIC and RCC

(x) B. RCC and rescue sub – centers.
C. RCC and ACC
D. ICAO through regional navigation plans
Câu 536. A radar beacon target is observed on code 7600. This would indicate
that
A. The radar is radar contact and under the control of an approach control
facility
(x) B. The aircraft is experiencing a radio failure
C. The aircraft is being hijacked
D. The pilot is lost and request assistance
Câu 537. An aircraft has been cleared to land and fails to land within five
minutes of the estimated time of landing and communication has not been re-
establisheThe aircraft should be considered in:
A. Uncertainty phase
(x) B. Alert phase
C. Distress phase
D. Emergency phase
Câu 538. An aircraft is considered to be in the phase of INCERFA when:

(x) A. No communication has been established within 30 minutes from the
B. Information received reveals that the operation efficiency of aircraft has
been impaired but not to extend that a forced landing is necessary.
C. It is believed that the fuel on board is not enough to fly to the destination
safety.
143
D. It is believed that a forced landing has been made.
Câu 539. Put the following AFTN message indicators: FF, GG, SS, KK, DD in
correct order of priority:
A. FF, DD, SS, GG, KK
B. DD, FF, GG, KK, SS
C. DD, SS, KK, GG, FF
(x) D. SS, DD, FF, GG, KK
Câu 540. Upon receipt of information that an aircraft is making an emergency

descent through other traffiATC shall immediately:
A. Instruct all aircraft within the specified areas to maintain own navigation
(x) B. Take all possible actions to safeguard all aircraft concerned
C. Issue climb clearance to all aircraft, whose flight level or altitude may be
crossed
D. Inform the ATC unit which shall receive control transfer of the
emergency aircraft
Câu 541. What is the title of Annex 12?

A. Rules of the air
B. Air traffic services
C. Aerodromes
(x) D. Search and Rescue
Câu 542. What is distress phase?

A. A generic term meaning, as the case may be, uncertainty phase, alert
phase or distress phase.
B. A situation wherein apprehension exists as to the safety of an aircraft
144
and its occupants.

(x) C. A situation wherein there is reasonable certainty that an aircraft and its
occupants and threatened by grave and imminent danger or require
immediate assistance.
D. All of the above are correct
Câu 543. What is rescue unit?

(x) A. A unit composed of trained personnel and provided with equipment
suitable for the expeditious conduct of search and rescue.
B. A unit composed of trained personnel for the expeditious conduct of
search and rescue.
C. A unit provided with equipment suitable for the expeditious conduct of
search and rescue.
D. A unit is responsible for search and rescue.
Câu 544. What is rescue coordination centre?

(x) A. A unit is responsible for promoting efficient organization of search and
rescue services and for coordinating the conduct of search rescue operations
within a search and rescue region.
B. A unit is responsible for promoting efficient organization of search and
rescue services.
C. A unit is responsible for search and rescue.
D. A unit is responsible for coordinating the conduct of search rescue
operations within a search and rescue region.
Câu 545. What is the frequency used by emergency locator beacon?

A. 121.000 MHZ
(x) B. 121.500 MHZ
C. 125. 100 MHZ
145
D. 118.500 MHZ
AERODROME
Câu 546. Tan Son Nhat airport is classified as:
A. Civil aviation: 4D; military: I
B. Civil aviation: 4E; military: II
C. Civil aviation: 4F; military: 4D
(x) D. Civil aviation: 4E; military: I
Câu 547. Which is the most correct name of the runways in VVTS?
A. 25L/07L
B. 25R/07R
C. 25L/07L And 25R/07R
(x) D. 25L/07R And 25R/07L
Câu 548. Runway 10/28 in :

(x) A. VVPQ
B. VVTS
C. VVRG
D. VVPK
Câu 549. RWY 09/27 in:

A. VVCM
B. VVDL
C. VVBM
(x) D. VVPK,VVBM,VVDL,VVCM
146
Câu 550. RWY 08/26 in:

A. VVCM
B. VVTS
C. VVCR
(x) D. VVRG
Câu 551. RWY 06/24 in :

A. VVPC
B. VVTH
C. VVCS
(x) D. VVCT
Câu 552. RWY 11/29 in:

A. VVDN
B. VVBM
C. VVPQ
(x) D. VVCS
Câu 553. RWY 02/20 in:

A. VVPB
B. VVTH
C. VVRG
(x) D. VVCR
Câu 554. RWY 03/21 in:
147
A. VVDN
B. VVTS
C. VVCR
(x) D. VVTH
Câu 555. RWY 15/33 in :

A. VVCI
B. VVNB
C. VVVT
(x) D. VVPC
Câu 556. According to the LOA between HCM ACC and LIEN KHUONG
TWR, the Area of Responsibility of the LIEN KHUONG TWR is:
A. Center point is DL NDB, R = 30 KM, GND – 3000m (10000ft).
(x) B. Center point is Reference point R = 30 KM, GND – FL110(3350m).
C. Center point is Reference point, R = 30 KM, GND – 3000m (10000ft).
D. Center point is Reference point, R = 60 KM, GND – 3000m (10000ft).
Câu 557. According to the LOA between HCM ACC and CAM RANH
APP/TWR, the Area of Responsibility of the CAM RANH APP/TWR is:
A. Center point is CRA DVOR/DME, R = 30 KM, GND – 2750m (9000ft).
B. Center point is CRA DVOR/DME, R = 60 KM, GND – 3000m
(10000ft).
C. Center point is Reference point, R = 30 KM, GND – 3000m (10000ft).
(x) D. GND – 4700m (F155).
Câu 558. According to the LOA between HCM ACC and Tan Son Nhat APP,
148
the Area of Responsibility of the Tan Son Nhat APP is:

A. Center point is SG NDB, R = 75 KM, GND –FL135
B. Center point is TD NDB, R = 80 KM, GND – FL100m
C. Center point is Reference point, R = 30 KM, GND – 2100m
(x) D. Center point is TSN DVOR/DME, R =75 KM, GND – 16500ft
(5050m).
Câu 559. According to the LOA between HCM ACC and CA MAU TWR, the
Area of Responsibility of the CA MAU TWR is:
(x) A. Center point is QL NDB, R = 30 KM, GND – 1500m(5000ft).
B. Center point is QL NDB, R = 30 KM, GND – FL070 (2100m).
C. Center point is Reference point, R = 30 KM, GND – FL050 (1500m).
D. Center point is Reference point, R = 30 KM, GND – FL070 (2100m).
Câu 560. According to the LOA between HCM ACC and RACH GIA TWR,
the Area of Responsibility of the RACH GIA TWR is:
A. Center point is RG NDB, R = 30 KM, GND – 2700m (9000ft).
(x) B. Center point is RG NDB, R = 30 KM, GND – 2100m (7000ft).
C. Center point is Reference point, R = 30 KM, GND –2700m (9000ft).
Câu 561. According to the LOA between HCM ACC and CAN THO TWR, the
Area of Responsibility of the CAN THO TWR is:
(x) A. Center point is TRN DVOR/DME, R = 30 KM, GND – 2100m (7000ft).
B. Center point is TRN DVOR/DME, R = 30 KM, GND – 2700m (9000ft).
C. Center point is Reference point, R = 30 KM, GND –2100m (7000ft).
149
Câu 562. There are 6 international Airports in Ho Chi Minh FIR that were
published in the AIP Viet Nam is:
A. VVCR,VVNB,VVDN,VVTA,VVPQ,VVDL
B. VVNB,VVTS,VVPQ,VVCR,VVPB,VVCT
C. VVTS,VVCR,VVCT,VVPQ,VVDL,VVPB
(x) D. VVPQ,VVCT,VVTS,VVCR,VVDN,VVPB
Câu 563. Acording to LOA between HCM ACC and TSN APP/TWR, HCM
ACC can issued a clearance to decend aircraft via STAR DALAP2H/J to ….
Without any prior coordination
A. FL090
(x) B. 9000FT
C. 9000FT or lower
D. 9000FT or above
ACC can issued a clearance to decend aircraft via STAR ELSAS 2H to ….
(x) A. 8000FT
B. FL080
C. 8000FT or lower
D. 8000FT or above
ACC can issued a clearance to decend aircraft via STAR VICAL 2H to ….
A. FL090
150
B. 9000FT or lower
(x) C. 9000FT
D. 9000FT or above
ACC can issued a clearance to decend aircraft via STAR BITIS 2H to ….
A. FL120
(x) B. 12000FT
C. 12000FT or lower
D. 12000FT or above
ACC can issued a clearance to decend aircraft via STAR DALAP2G to ….
A. FL110
B. 11000FT or above
C. 11000FT or lower
(x) D. 11000FT
ACC can issued a clearance to decend aircraft via STAR VICAL 2G to ….
A. FL090
B. 9000FT or lower
(x) C. 9000FT
D. 9000FT or above
151
ACC can issued a clearance to decend aircraft via STAR BITIS 2G to ….
A. FL080
(x) B. 8000FT
C. 8000FT or lower
D. 8000FT or above
ACC should coordinate with Phnompenh ACC to get aircraft at ….. or lower
when using STAR SAPEN 2G
A. FL080
(x) B. 8000FT
C. 8000FT or lower
D. 8000FT or above
Câu 571. HCM ACC should coordinate with Phnompenh ACC to get aircraft at
….. or lower by SAPEN when using STAR SAPEN 2G
A. FL120
B. 12000FT
(x) C. 12000FT or lower
D. 12000FT or above
Câu 572. HCM ACC should coordinate with Phnompenh ACC to get aircraft at
….. or lower by SAPEN when using STAR SAPEN 2H
(x) A. 15000FT-FL200
B. 15000FT-20000FT
C. 16000FT-FL200
152
D. 12000FT-FL200
Câu 573. Way points of RINKU TRANSITION are….

(x) A. DOVIN,TS918,TS916,TS914,TS912,RINKU,DALAP
B. DOVIN,TS918,TS916,TS914,TS912,RINKU,
C. DOVIN,TS918,TS916,TS914,TS912,RINKU,PTH,DALAP
D. DOVIN,TS918,TS916,TS914,TS912
153

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NĐ RADAR Edited by AR

NĂNG ĐỊNH 2020 – RADAR

Câu 4. An aircraft operates in a defined airspace shall be controlled by:

Câu 7. What is the title of chapter V in law on civil aviation of Viet

B. Aerodrome and airport.

Câu 9. Which appropriate authority of vietnam shall grant flight permission to

Câu 18. By which appropriate authority shall the establishment prohibited

areas and restricted areas in the territory of Vietnambe approved? (Sourced by

Câu 20. .…………..is responsible for management of organization and

Câu 21. On a non-precision approach a so-called "straight-inapproach" is

C. Flight Information Service and Advisory Service.

Câu 31. The contents of Aeronautical Information Publication (AIP) are :

Câu 33. When are ATIS broadcasts updated ?

Câu 35. Control Area (CTA) is defined as follows:

Câu 39. In a standard holding pattern turns are made :

C. in a direction depending on the wind direction.

Câu 43. IFR flights shall be carried out in compliance with

C. Visual flight rules and general rules.

Câu 44. Minimum flight altitude ensures :

Câu 45. ICAO Annex 11 defines Area Navigation (RNAV) as a method of

Câu 46. Radar separation is :

Câu 51. An aircraft system based on secondary surveillance radar (SSR)

Câu 52. Radar is an acronym of:

Câu 53. Ground to air communication is:

aeronautical mobile service.

Câu 58. All current civil SSR systems use:

Câu 59. An ILS CAT I can guide an arriving aircraft to:

Câu 60. An ILS CAT II can guide an arriving aircraft to:

Câu 64. ATIS broadcasts shall be provided at aerodrome where there is a

Câu 65. In a primary radar system, the energy is:

Câu 67. Which of the following is a precision approach ?

Câu 70. Primary RADAR means:

Câu 71. Airfield lighting system CAT I consists of:

Câu 72. Secondary RADAR can provide:

B. Aircraft identification code

Câu 74. In an SSR system, the interrogator transmission is made on a

Câu 75. In an SSR system, the transponder responds an interrogator signal

A. between the edges of the radar blips.

Câu 77. The objectives of ATFM are to :

Câu 78. Which are not exempted from ATFM measures :

Câu 81. ADS-B stands for……

Câu 83. Standard phraseology confirmation to ascertain the RVSM approved

D. Below minimum altitude

Câu 88. An aircraft known or believed to be subjected to unlawful interference

Câu 89. QNH is likely true as the following statements:

Câu 91. Aerodrome control service is:

Câu 92. Definition of transition level:

Câu 93. What should we know as heading:

Câu 95. What’s airway?

Câu 96. What is the definition of controlled flight:

Câu 97. What’s signal area:

Câu 98. How to know “radiotelephony” in aviation:

Câu 100. Who has final authority of an aircraft:

Câu 101. Can unmanned free balloon operated freely?

Câu 103. What is VFR flight:

Câu 104. What is flight plan:

A. Any route that the aircraft want to choose.

Câu 106. Whenever time is utilized in the application of data link

Câu 109. The optimum cruise altitude increases:

(x) C. 1500m horizontally , 1000ft vertically from clouds ; 5 km visibility

Câu 112. The range of primary radar depends on:

Câu 115. With increasing altitude, the rate of climb will:

Câu 116. An aircraft is considered to overtake another if it approaches the