GUNEYDOGU AVIATION FLIGHT SCHOOL

PPL(A)
QUESTION BANK
ENGLISH

www.gdhucusokulu.com

Saffet ÖZGÜN
Head Of Theoretical Knowledge Instructor
010 AIRLAW
PPL(A)
QUESTION BANK
1. What is the name of the Convention which is commonly known as 'The Chicago Convention?
A. The Convention on International Civil Aviation
B. The Convention of Civil Commercial Aviation
C. The ICAO Convention of Civil Aviation
D. The Convention on International Civil Transportation

2. According to the Chicago Convention which of the following documents, amongst others, are required to be
carried in the aircraft on an international flight?
A. Crew licences, journey log book and, if applicable, the cargo manifest and a detailed declaration of the cargo
B. Crew licences and log books, journey log book and, if applicable, Radio Station Licence
C. Passports for all crew and passengers, Certificate of Airworthiness (C of A), Certificate of Registration (C of R)
D. Certificate of Airworthiness (C of A), Certificate of Registration (C of R) and crew passports

3. The Certificate of Registration must be:

A. Carried in the aircraft at all times and must be in the original form issued
B. Signed by the Pilot-in-Command
C. Carried in the aircraft at all times and may be a copy of the original
D. Heldin safe-keeping at the aerodrome of departure

4. What is the name of the Convention which is commonly known as “The Chicago Convention” ?
A. The Convention on International Civil Aviation
B. The Convention of Civil Commercial Aviation
C. The Convention on International Civil Transportation
D. The ICAO Convention of Civil Aviation

5. Which air rights are covered by the freedom of flying over the territory without landing of another Member
State?
A. 4th freedom
B. 2th freedom
C. 3th freedom
D. 1th freedom

6. Can a state search a visiting aircraft from anather contracting state without permission?
A. Only if a crime is reasonably suspected
B. No
C. Only if it is reasonably suspected that the aircraft is carrying inadmissible passengers
D. Yes

7. The Chicago Convention recognises that:

A. Every Contracting State has complete and exclusive sovereignty over the airspace above its territorial waters
B. Every State has sovereignty over airspace above its territory up to FL660
C. Every Contracting State has complete and exclusive sovereignty over the airspace above its territory
D. Every Contracting State has complete but not exclusive sovereignty over the airspace above its territory
8. Which states can join EASA as full members?
A. Selected European States.
B. All European Union States.
C. All JAA States.
D. All ICAO Contracting States.

9. An airplane is planning a flight that will require a technical landing in a neighboring state. Which freedom of
the air will be exercised?
A. 4th freedom
B. 2nd freedom
C. 1st freedom
D. 3rd freedom
10. Which of the following correctly describes runway end lights?
A. Fixed; omni-directional; red.
B. Fixed; uni-directional; green.
C. Fixed; uni-directional; red.
D. Fixed; omni-directional; green.

11. All fixed aerodrome signs that are mandatory shall:

A. Be comprised of a red inscription on a black background.
B. Be comprised of a white inscription on a red background.
C. Be comprised of a red inscription on a white background.
D. Be comprised of a yellow inscription on a black background.

12. Civil aerodrome identification beacons normally comprise:

A. A green beacon flashing a two-letter Morse group.
B. A white beacon flashing a two-letter Morse group.
C. A red beacon flashing a two-letter Morse group.
D. A blue beacon flashing a two-letter Morse group.

13. A taxiway marking comprised of a pair of parallel yellow lines together with a pair of parallel broken yellow
lines painted at 90° across a taxiway delineate:
A. A holding position at the end of a taxiway and runway entry point beyond which no part of an aircraft may
project without prior permission from ATC.
B. The entry point of a pre-departure run up area.
C. The exit point of an apron to a taxiway.
D. The intersection of two taxiways.

14. ICAO specify that the element of a paved taxiway surface that should be marked is:
A. Sides.
B. Centre line and sides.
C. Centre line, sides, entry and exit points.
D. Centre line.
15. A PPL holder may:
A. Not operate as either commander or co-pilot on a revenue earning flight.
B. Operate as co-pilot on a revenue earning flight.
C. Operate as commander for remuneration on a private flight.
D. Operate as any crew member for remuneration on a private flight.

16. What are the minimum number of dual instruction hours required to be flown by a JAA PPL candidate?
A. 20 hours.
B. 25 hours.
C. 30 hours.
D. 22 hours.

17. The minimum number of flying hours required for the issue of a JAR FCL Private Pilot License (Aero plane) is:
A. 50.
B. 35.
C. 40.
D. 45.

18. The minimum age at which a student pilot may undertake her/his first solo flight is:
A. 18 years.
B. 17 years.
C. 19 years.
D. 16 years.

19. The holder of a JAA License must hold a current Medical Certificate in order to exercise the privileges of that
license. The prescribed Medical Certificate must be issued in accordance with:
A. JAR FCL - Part 1.
B. JAR OPS - Part 2.
C. JAR OPS - Part 1.
D. JAR FCL- Part 3.

20. A JAA pilot license (A) holder must not act as pilot in command of a single pilot aero plane unless she/he is in
possession of a valid:
A. Valid VFR type rating.
B. Valid JAA FCL type rating.
C. Valid JAA OPS group rating.
D. Medical Certificate together with a valid class or type rating appropriate to the aero plane to be flown.

21.Flight time entered into a pilot's log book is defined as being:

A. The time from when the aero plane first moves under its own power until it next comes to rest after landing.
B. The time from when the engine starts before take-off until it is shut down after landing.
C. The time from when the aero plane first enters the maneuvering area until it next comes to rest after
landing.
D. The time from when the aero plane takes off until it finally lands with the intention of shutting down the
engine.
22. A license holder having been advised that invasive medical surgery has become essential:
A. Should seek the advice of her/ his general practitioner as expeditiously as possible.
B. Should undertake such treatment without reference to the aviation medical authority as such action is
voluntary.
C. Should seek the advice of the aviation medical authority as expeditiously as possible.
D. Should advise the aviation medical authority only if the treatment involves a general anesthetic.

23. If the visibility, distance from cloud and cloud ceiling are equal to or better than the specified minima, ICAO
defines such conditions as:
A. RVR or Runway Visual range.
B. IMC or Instrument Meteorological Conditi
C. CAVOK or Cloud and Visibility OK.
D. VMC or Visual Meteorological Conditions.

24. If, during a daytime flight an aircraft commander noticed that the aircraft's anti-collision light had failed, the
correct course of action would be to:
A. Complete the flight, at which time the aircraft must not be flown again until the light is repaired.
B. Continue with daytime operations provided the light is repaired at the earliest opportunity.
C. Have the light repaired prior to completion of the next day's 'Check A'.
D. Land as soon as possible and have the light repaired.

25. The ICAO definition of radar vectoring is:

A. Collision and adverse meteorological avoidance derived from specified advisory headings based on the use
of radar.
B. Provision of nautical guidance to aircraft in the form of specific headings, based on the use of radar.
C. The directional control of aircraft for the purpose of nautical navigation and collision avoidance.
D. Provision of headings and altitudes based on the use of radar.

26. If the actual or forecast conditions give the visibility and cloud base as equal to or in excess of the specified
minimum weather provisions and the distance from cloud is seen also to be above specified minima, the
prevailing weather conditions are referred to as:
A. VMC.
B. IMC.
C. VFR.
D. SMWP.

27. The vertical extent of a Control Zone is:

A. From the surface up to a specified upper limit.
B. From the surface up to 2000ft AGL.
C. From the surface to an altitude of 2000ft.
D. From 1500ft AGL to the base of the TMA.

28. While taxiing you notice the sign shown in the annex. It is a/an _____ sign and it appears with _____.
A. Information – Yellow inscription on black background.
B. Mandatory – White inscription on red background.
C. Direction – Black inscription on yellow background.
D. Location – Black inscription on yellow background

29. Which of the following can not be used as registration markings?

A. All 3-letter repetitive markings like LLL, SSS, YYY.
B. Emergency signals in Morse Code.
C. 4 letter Q-codes.
D. 3 letter combinations used as code of signals (prescribed by ITU).

30. If the edge lights are ……., centerline lights are ……….. and markings are ……….. you are definitely on a
…………..
A. White, white, yellow, runway.
B. Blue, green, yellow, taxiway.
C. White, white, white, taxiway.
D. White, red, white, runway.

31. What do nationality and registration marks consist of?

A. Numbers or letters or a combination.
B. Numbers only.
C. It must be a combination of numbers and letters.
D. Letters only.

32. Which of the following nationality and registration markings would be permitted?
A. G-YLLL.
B. N-YQNH.
C. AS2PAN.
D. A81TTT.

33. What ground sign do the survivors construct to indicate that they require medical assistance?
A. y
B. i
C. X
D. N

34. What ground sign do the survivors construct to indicate that they require assistance?
A. y
B. N
C. X
D. >

35. You are flying a Turkey registered aircraft over Germany. Whose Rules of the Air must you obey?
A. ICAO's
B. Germany's
C. Turkey’s
D. JAA's

36. When entering into another country's airspace, the licence of the Pilot-inCommand must have been
approved by the authority of:
A. The State of Manifacturer
B. The state of aircraft registration
C. Any JAA member state
D. Any contracting ICAO state

37. Which rules of the air govern the entry and departure of international air traffic into and out of a foreign
state?
A. International Rules and Regulations
B. The foreign state's
C. ICAO's
D. IATA's

38. The C of R (Registration) must be:

A. Signed by the Pilot-in-Command
B. Carried in the aircraft at all times and may be a copy of the original
C. Carried in the aircraft at all times and must be in the original form issued
D. Held in safe-keeping at the aerodrome of departure

39. Which sign indicate a taxiway unfit for the movement of aircraft ?
A. yellow “Y”
B. white ‘’X’’
C. White “Y”
D. yellow ‘’X’’

40. Which aircrafts are permitted to fly at night displaying only a single red light ?
A. a glider or free balloon
B. a glider ,free balloon or airship
C. a helicopter or free balloon
D. a microlight or airship

41. When taxiing on a surface with white markings, you are rolling on a:
A. Runway
B. Parking area
C. Taxiway
D. Movement area

42. The minimum number of flying hours required for the issue of a EASA FCL PPL(A) is:
A. 40
B. 45
C. 50
D. 35

43. A EASA pilot license holder must not act as pilot in command of a single pilot aero plane unless she/he is in
possession of a valid;
A. Valid VFR type rating.
B. Medical Certificate together with a valid class or type rating appropriate to the aero plane to be flown.
C. Valid IFR type rating.
D. Valid EASA type rating.

44. How long are single pilot single engine class ratings valid?
A. 3 years
B. 2 years
C. 1 year
D. 6 months

45. When are navigation lights required to be shown?

A. Whenever the Pilot-ln-Command thinks it is sensible to switch them on
B. From sunset to sunrise or when specified by the Authority
C. At night
D. When moving on the manoeuvring area of an aerodrome

46. If two aircraft are approaching head on:

A. Both aircraft must turn left
B. Both aircraft should turn right regardless of aircraft type
C. A powered aircraft must give way to a glider by turning right
D. The larger aircraft should give way by turning right

47. You see a red and green light of another aircraft straight ahead of you. What must you do?
A. lmmediately descend
B. lmmediately turn left
C. lmmediately climb
D. lmmediately turn right

48. What is the basic presumption about VFR flight?

A. That the flight will not take place above FL 180
B. That the flight will be flown in Visual Meteorological Conditions
C. That the flight will only take place in Class F or G airspace
D. That the pilot holds the correct rating to allow the aeroplane to be flown in VFR

49. What are meteorological conditions of VFR flight?

A. ceiling is more than 1.500 ft or the ground visibility is less than 3 km.
B. when the; ceiling is less than 2.000 ft or the ground visibility is more than 5 km.
C. ceiling is less than 1.500 ft or the ground visibility is more than 5 km
D. ceiling is at or above 1.500 ft and the ground visibility is not less than 5 km.

50. The highest priority for landing has:

A. an aircraft on a diplomatic flight (Head of state),
B. a military aircraft.
C. an aircraft that is emergency landing.
D. an Air Ambulance carrying a very sick person needing immediate medical attention,

51. What does ICAO Annex 2 concern itself with?

A. Facilitation
B. Personnal Licensing
C. Aerodromes
D. Rules of the Air

52. Which State is responsible for issuing the registration mark of an aircraft?
A. The State of Registration
B. The State of Manufacture
C. The State of Design
D. The State of the Operator

53. What ICAO Annex covers the Airworthiness of Aircraft?

A. Annex 12
B. Annex 8
C. Annex 9
D. Annex 14

54. Where is the validity of a C of A specified?

A. In the Certificate of Registration (C of R)
B. In the C of A itself
C. In the national AlP
D. In the Aircraft Flight Manual

55. In which document would you normally find the oil pressure limitations for
A. The Flight Manual or Pilot's Operating Handbook
B. Operation Manual
C. Aircraft Placard
D. Certificate of registration

56. What is the standard width of an airway?

A. 10 NM
B. 8 NM
C. 3 NM
D. 5 NM

57. The controlled airspace, extending from the surface to the specified altitude, is the;
A. Control zone.
B. Control area.
C. Terminal control area.
D. Flight information region.

58. A controlled airspace extending upwards from a specified height above the earth is the;
A. Control area.
B. Control zone.
C. Traffic circuit..
D. flight information region

59. What may be the lowest point of the CTA according to ICAO regulations?
A. There is no such regulation
B. From any specified height above the ground or water
C. At least 1000 feet amsl
D. From a specified height above ground or water being not less than 700 feet

60. What is the lowest level of a CTA permitted by international agreement?

A. Not lower than 1 000 feet above the surface of the ground or water
B. Not lower than 1500 feet above the surface of the ground or water
C. Not lower than 500 feet above the surface of the ground or water
D. Not lower than 700 feet above the surface of the ground or water

61. A service provided by an Air Traffic Control Unit for all controlled flights arriving at or departing from an
aerodrome is called;
A. A Flight Information Service
B. An Approach Control Service
C. An Area Control Service
D. AnAlerting Service

62. What is the Maximum Take-Off Mass of a medium category aircraft in terms of its Wake Turbulence
Category?
A. Below 136 000 kgs and above 7000 kgs
B. Below 130 000 kgs and above 7000 kgs
C. Between 136 000 kgs and 7000 kgs inclusive
D. Below 136 000 kgs and above 8000 kgs

63. What is the minimum wake turbulence separation between a light aircraft taking off behind a heavy aircraft
from the same point on the runway?
A. 5 nautical miles
B. 2 minutes
C. 2 nautical miles
D. 5 minutes

64. In which of the following circumstances is wake turbulence separation applied?

A. Whenever the following aircraft is at the same height as, or less than 1000 feet below the leading aircraft
B. When operating below 700 feet, on finals
C. Whenever the following aircraft is at the same height as, or less than 1000 feet above the leading aircraft
D. Whenever the following aircraft is at the same height as, or less than 500 feet below the leading aircraft

65. What are the functions of radar in air traffic management?

A. identification, vectoring, radar contact
B. identification, vectoring
C. identification, vectoring, seperation
D. vectoring, seperation

66. What is the meaning of a flashing red light signal directed from an aerodrome ATSU towards an aircraft in
the air?
A. Give way to other aircraft and continue circling.
B. Cleared for take-off
C. Aerodrome unsafe, do not land
D. Cleared to land

67. What is the meaning of steadyred light signal directed from an aerodrome ATSU towards an aircraft in the
air?
A. Give way to other aircraft and continue circling.
B. Cleared to land
C. Do not land, the aerodrome is unavailable for landing
D. Cleared for take-off

68. What is the meaning of flashing green light signal directed from an aerodrome ATSU towards an aircraft in
the air?
A. Cleared to land
B. Aerodrome unsafe,do not land
C. Give way to other aircraft and continue circling.
D. Return for landing.

69. What is the meaning of flashing red light signal directed from an aerodrome ATSU towards an aircraft on the
ground?
A. Return starting point on the aerodrome
B. Stop
C. Taxi clear of landing area in use
D. Cleared to taxi
70. What is one of the primary functions of an Air Traffic Clearance?
A. To agree to allow a flight to proceed
B. To acknowledge that the information of the flight details have been logged by ATC
C. To acknowledge that ATC is now responsible for the flight
D. To ensure separation of aircraft

71. Your take-off is delayed for an uncontrolled flight (VFR). At what point must you resubmit your Flight Plan?
A. 90 minutes in excess of EOBT
B. 45 minutes in excess of EOBT
C. 60 minutes in excess of EOBT
D. 30 minutes in excess of Estimated Off-Biocks Time (EOBT)

72. Which of the following Annexes to the Chicago convention contains international standards and
recommended practices for air traffic services (ATS)?
A. Annex 6
B. Annex 11
C. Annex 10
D. Annex 14

73. An aircraft has been declared to land and fails to do so within 5 minutes of the estimated time of landing,
and communications have not been reestablished. What phase of the Alerting Service should be declared?
A. Emergency Phase
B. Distress Phase
C. Uncertainty Phase
D. Alert Phase

74. Which organisation is responsible for the coordination of Search and Rescue efforts within a State?
A. Flight Information Centre
B. Rescue Coordination Centre
C. Air Traffic Control Centre
D. Approach Control Centre

75. Safety and survival equipment must be:

A. Kept under the passenger seats
B. lnspected every week
C. Only kept near aircraft emergency exits
D. Easily identifiable

76. Who is responsible , under Annex 13 of the Chicago convention for the initation of an accident investigation
?
A. Operators of the same aircraft type.
B. The government of the state in which the accident took place.
C. The aircraft manufacturer.
D. The law enforcement authorities of the state in which the aircraft is registered.
77. The sole objective of the investigation of an accident or incident shall be the ;
A. prevention of accidents or incidents and establish the liability.
B. Prevention of accidents or incidents
C. prevention of accidents or incidents and to provide legal evidence for subsequent court cases.
D. prevention of accidents or incidents and provide the manufacturer with investigation data for the
improvement of the design.

78. What does Annex 14 on international civil aviation contain?

A. none of all
B. Aerodromes
C. Facilitation
D. Security

79. Which of the following Annexes to the Chicago convention contains minimum specifications for the design of
aerodromes?
A. Annex 14
B. Annex 10
C. Annex 11
D. Annex 6

80. What colour are the markings on runways?

A. Yellow or white
B. White
C. Yellow
D. Green

81. What is the colour of the markings on taxiways?

A. White
B. Yellow or white
C. Yellow
D. Green

82. A hand-held signalling lamp is to be held in Control Towers. What colours must it be capable of signalling?
A. White, red or green
B. Green or red only
C. White or red only
D. White, red, green or blue

83. What colours indicate location signs?

A. White lettering on a red background
B. Black lettering on a yellow background
C. Yellow lettering on a black background
D. Red lettering on a white background
84. What colours indicate destination signs?
A. White lettering on a red background
B. Yellow lettering on a black background
C. Black lettering on a yellow background
D. Red lettering on a white background

85. What colour are taxiway side lights?

A. Blue
B. Green
C. Red
D. White
86. What colour are taxiway centreline lights?
A. Red
B. Yellow
C. Blue
D. Green

87. How isa closed runway indicated?

A. With the use of barriers
B. The woid "CLOSED" in white
C. White cross
D. Yellow cross

88. An emergency vehicle responding to an emergency will display what colour flashing light?
A. Blue
B. White
C. Green
D. Yellow

89. Runway approach lights are:

A. White and can be adjusted for brightness
B. White and cannot be adjusted for brightness
C. Red and cannot be adjusted
D. Red and can be adjusted

90. Runway side lights are:

A. Green
B. White
C. Blue
D. Red

91. Which of the following Annexes to the Chicago convention contains minimum specifications for the design of
aerodromes?
A. Annex 11
B. Annex 10
C. Annex 6
D. Annex 14

92. What ICAO Annex covers the Security?

A. Annex 2
B. Annex 14
C. Annex 17
D. Annex 11

93. What does ICAO Annex 11 concern itself with?

A. Air Traffic Services
B. Personnel Licensing
C. Aerodromes
D. Rules of the Air

94. Who is responsible for the issue of a Certificate of Airworthiness?

A. The operator
B. ICAO
C. The authority of the state of registration
D. The JAA

95. An aircraft shall display, if so equipped, an anti-collision light:

A. Outside the daylight-period at engine start. During the daylight-period this is not applicable;
B. While taxiing, but not when it’s being towed;
C. On the ground when the engines are running
D. Outside the daylight-period in flight, but not on the ground when it is being towed;

96. A single-engine piston and a turboprop aeroplane are approaching each other opposite at the same altitude.
Which aeroplane has to change its track to avoid a collision?
A. The single-engine piston aircraft has to give way to the turboprop aircraft
B. Both aircraft have to alter their tracks to the right
C. The turboprop aircraft has to give way to the single-engine piston aircraft
D. Both aircraft have to alter their tracks to the left

97. Which of the aircraft listed has always the right-of-way over all other participants in air traffic?
A. A balloon.
B. An aeroplane towing a glider.
C. An aircraft in distress.
D. An aircraft in the final approach for landing.

98. If the edge lights are ……………………, centerline lights ………………………. and markings are …………………. you are
definitely on a …………………………
A. Blue, green, yellow, taxiway.
B. White, white, white, taxiway.
C. White, white, yellow, runway.
D. White, red, white, runway.

99. A marshaller will ask the pilot to apply parking brakes by following signals:
A. Horizontally moving his hands, fingers extended, palms toward ground
B. Crossing arms extended above his head
C. Arms down, palms facing inwards, moving arms from extend position inwards.
D. Raise arm and hand, with fingers extended, horizontally in front of body, then clench fist.

100. What is the meaning of a steady green light from ATC to an aircraft in the air?
A. Clear to land.
B. Return to this airfield and await landing clearance.
C. Land immediately.
D. You have priority to land.

101. In the signals area of an aerodrome, a white dumb-bell means:

A. Land and taxi on hard surfaces only.
B. Land on hard surfaces only.
C. Do not land.
D. Landing direction is parallel with the shaft towards the cross-arm.

102. In the signals area of an aerodrome, a red square with a single yellow diagonal stripe means:
A. Gliders are operating.
B. Helicopters are operating
C. Do not land.
D. Take special care when landing because of the poor state of the manoeuvring area.

103. Which of the following correctly describes the runway end lights?
A. Fixed; omni-directional; red.
B. Fixed; omni-directional; green.
C. Fixed; uni-directional; green.
D. Fixed ; uni-directional; red.

104. All fixed aerodrome signs that are mandatory shall:

A. Be comprised of a red inscription on a white background.
B. Be comprised of a red inscription on a black background.
C. Be comprised of a yellow inscription on a black background.
D. Be comprised of a white inscription on a red background.

105. Which body is responsible for ensuring that an aircraft operating in a state's sovereign airspace
complies with the rules and regulations which prevail in that airspace?
A. The state in whose sovereign airspace the aircraft is operating.
B. The state in which the aircraft is registered.
C. The state which issued the current Certificate of Airworthiness for the aircraft.
D. The state which issued the licence held by the pilot of the aircraft.

106. What colour are paved taxiway markings?

A. Green.
B. White.
C. Yellow.
D. Red.

107. In order to transfer a JAR-FCL pilot's licence from the State of Licence Issue to another JAA member
state the licence holder must:
A. Be normally resident in the new State (for at least 185 years per year) or have taken up full-time
employment within that State
B. Reside in the new State for a minimum of 30 days annually.
C. Must have become a citizen of the new State
D. Have resided in the new State for at least 30 consecutive days.

108. An A/C marshaller with his right arm down and his left arm repeatedly moved upwards and
backwards is indicating to the pilot of an aircraft to:
A. Increase the RPM of the port engine.
B. Proceed under guidance of another marshaller.
C. Open up the starboard engine/s or turn to stbd.
D. Open up the starboard engine/s or turn to port.

109. When located within an aerodrome signals square, the signal used to indicate that owing to the bad
state of the maneuvering area, or for any other reason, special precautions must be observed in approaching
to land or in landing is:
A. A horizontal yellow square with one red diagonal.
B. A horizontal red square with one yellow diagonal.
C. A horizontal yellow square with two red diagonals.
D. A horizontal red square with two yellow diagonals.

110. What is the meaning of a flashing red light signal directed from an aerodrome ATSU towards an
aircraft either in the air or on the ground?
A. Do not land, the aerodrome is unavailable for landing. / Move clear of the Landing Area.
B. Do not land, orbit and await permission to land. / Return to your starting point.
C. Give way to other aircraft and continue circling. / Stop.
D. Proceed to finals upon completion of the current orbit. / Line up after traffic on finals has landed.

111. Which of the following combinations offer the correct meaning of white flashes directed from an
aerodrome to an aircraft?
A. Land at your discretion. / Take-off at your discretion.
B. Return to the aerodrome / Return to the parking bay.
C. Land at this aerodrome after receiving a continuous green light. / Return to the starting point on the
aerodrome and then, after green flashes, proceed to apron.
D. Land immediately. / Clear the runway.

112. A continuous red light directed to an aircraft in flight from an aerodrome means:
A. Proceed to finals after completion of current orbit.
B. Do not land, aerodrome unavailable for landing.
C. Do not land, wait for permission.
D. Give way to other aircraft and continue circling.

113. ICAO specifies that the fixed unidirectional runway threshold lights should be colored:
A. Alternate green and red.
B. White.
C. Green.
D. Red.

114. The definition of Alerting Service is a:

A. Branch of the air traffic service under the jurisdiction of the Ministry of Defense providing a communication
network between all agencies both civil and military providing search and rescue facilities.
B. Service provided to notify appropriate organizations regarding aircraft in need of search and rescue aid, and
assist such organizations as required.
C. A land based search and rescue co-ordination unit.
D. Unit of the air traffic service specifically for the co-ordination of search and rescue.

115. If a situation wherein apprehension exists as to the safety of an aircraft and its occupants (alert
phase); responsibility for alerting the necessary search and rescue units lies with:
A. Any responsible person.
B. The pilot in distress.
C. The air traffic unit who received the distress message albeit 121.5MHz.
D. The Rescue Co-ordination Centre.

116. Alternate aerodrome is:

A. A planned en-route aerodrome where an aircraft may land if necessary to uplift fuel but where passengers
may not be embarked or disembarked.
B. An aerodrome to which a flight may proceed if it becomes impracticable or inadvisable to land at the first
diversion.
C. An aerodrome to which a flight may proceed if it becomes impracticable or inadvisable to land at the
planned destination.
D. Any aerodrome that may be used for a landing in an emergency.

117. The transition layer is defined as:

A. The layer between the transition altitude and the planned operating flight level.
B. The layer between the transition altitude and the transition level.
C. The layer between the transition level and the transition altitude.
D. The layer between 3000ft altitude and the transition altitude.
118. Terminal Control Areas may be defined as:
A. Airspace for specific use of departing traffic.
B. Airspace for specific use of arriving traffic
C. Airspace at the confluence of airways not available to IFR traffic.
D. Airspace at the confluence of airways and other routes adjacent to one or more major aerodromes.

119. No aircraft is allowed to fly over a congested area below 1000ft above the highest fixed obstacle
within 600 meters of the aircraft, except:
A. When orbiting to try and establish position.
B. During a low level navigation exercise.
C. When practicing a forced landing under the direction of a qualified flying instructor.
D. When taking off or landing.

120. What altimeter sub-scale setting should be used when flying underneath a Terminal Control Area
(TMA)?
A. Either the Regional QNH or the QNH of an aerodrome situated beneath the TMA, whichever is the lower.
B. The Regional QNH.
C. The QNH of an aerodrome situated beneath the TMA or CTA
D. The QFE of an aerodrome situated beneath the TMA or CTA.

121. If a flight plan has been filed and the Pilot in Command lands at an aerodrome other than the filed
destination, she/he must notify the ATCU unit at the planned destination:
A. Within 30 minutes of the ETA at the planned destination.
B. Within 30 minutes of the scheduled arrival time at the diversion airfield.
C. Within 45 minutes of the landing time at the diversion airfield.
D. Within 45 minutes of the ETA at the planned destination.

122. For the purpose of submitting a flight plan, if there is not available at the departure aerodrome an air
traffic services unit, the flight plan should be submitted:
A. In person to the nearest ATC unit serving or designated to serve the departure aerodrome.
B. Two days before departure by post to the unit serving or designated to serve the departure aerodrome.
C. At least 24 hours before the planned departure time to the unit serving or designated to serve the departure
aerodrome using the National Aeronautical Telecommunications Service.
D. In person or by telephone or fax or if these services are not available, by radio to the unit serving or
designated to serve the departure aerodrome.

123. An aircraft commander aware that the fuel state has become critical whilst waiting for a landing
clearance within a busy Control Zone should transmit .......(i)...... in order to alert ATC that a priority landing
is required.
A. Land Now, Land Now, Land Now.
B. May Day, May Day, May Day or Pan Pan, Pan Pan, Pan Pan.
C. Minimum Fuel, Minimum Fuel, Minimum Fuel.
D. Fuel Minimum, Fuel Minimum, Fuel Minimum.

124. The air traffic control service provided for all controlled arriving and departing flights is:
A. Precision Approach Radar (PAR).
B. Delivery Service
C. An Approach Control Service.
D. An Area Control Service.

125. If ATC reports the active runway conditions as “wet wet wet”, it is understood that the runway:
A. The runway is covered by at least 2mm of standing water.
B. The runway is covered by patches of standing water at least 2mm in depth.
C. Has visible areas contaminated by standing water.
D. The runway is wet but there is no standing water.

126. When extensive water patches are visible on a runway surface the conditions are reported as:
A. Flooded.
B. Braking action reduced.
C. Damp, damp, damp.
D. Wet, wet, wet.

127. Flight Information Service (FIS) provides:

A. Updated information regarding aerodrome runway status, weather and en-route frequencies within the FIR.
B. Advice and information useful for the safe and efficient conduct of flights.
C. To all aircraft within controlled airspace such information relevant to to the safe conduct of all flights.
D. Safe separation for participating aircraft.

128. A special air report should be made to an air traffic service:

A. If the forecast weather deviates from the pre-flight forecast.
B. Only if the forecast visibility changes to the extent that an aircraft commander must change her/ his
operating conditions to IMC.
C. After encountering and becoming clear of any severe weather phenomena such as icing, wind shear and
turbulence, mountain wave or other phenomena that was not forecast.
D. After encountering and becoming clear of any moderate weather phenomena such as icing, wind shear and
turbulence.

129. If you overtake another aircraft, you must overtake to the:

A. Right of the other aircraft, both in the air and on the ground.
B. Left of the other aircraft, both in the air and on the ground.
C. Left of the other aircraft in the air, but to its right on the ground.
D. Right of the other aircraft in the air, but to its left on the ground.

130. If aero plane 'X' is converging with aero plane 'Y' from the rear and is within 70° of aero plane 'Y's
extended center line, aero plane 'X' is considered to be in an overtaking position and must pass to:
A. The closest side of aero plane 'Y'.
B. The furthest side of aero plane 'Y'.
C. The right of aero plane 'Y'.
D. The left of aero plane 'Y'.
131. When two or more aircraft are on final approach, without overriding instruction from an ATCU or in
an emergency, the aircraft having the right of way is:
A. The one that is closest to the runway threshold, regardless of altitude.
B. The one that has the greatest rate of descent.
C. The one that is at the greater altitude.
D. The one that is at the lower altitude.

132. The aircraft which has the right of way should maintain:
A. Heading and speed.
B. Heading and height.
C. Height and speed.
D. Heading, height and speed.

133. Two aircraft are closing on a constant relative bearing almost head on, both aircraft should avoid
collision by:
A. Turning in the directing that will best facilitate collision avoidance.
B. Turning left.
C. Turning either left or right.
D. Turning right.

134. The PIC of an aircraft during the course of a night flight notices that a navigation light has failed.
She/he should:
A. Establish that an all-round anti-collision light is still functional and if so, select the navigation lights to 'off'
and continue to the planned destination.
B. Land as soon as is practicably possible unless given permission to continue to the planned destination by an
appropriate Air Traffic Control Unit.
C. Transmit an Urgency Message on the RTF frequency in use and continue with the plan flight to the first point
of landing.
D. Continue to the planned destination, enter the defect in the technical log which must be repaired before the
next flight.

135. ICAO recommends that a minimum of.............. shall be applied between a light or medium aircraft
taking off behind a heavy aircraft or a light aircraft taking off behind a medium aircraft when the aircraft are
using the same runway if the projected flight path of the second aircraft will cross the projected flight path
of the first aircraft at the same altitude or less than 300m (1000ft) below. Select the time that correctly
completes this statement.
A. two minutes.
B. three minutes.
C. one minute.
D. four minutes.

136. The term 'Air Traffic' is defined as:

A. Airborne aircraft.
B. Any aircraft maneuvering under its own power.
C. Airborne aircraft and those occupying an active runway.
D. All aircraft in flight or operating on the maneuvering area of an aerodrome.
137. In the context of Search and Rescue, the term “Distress phase” means:
A. There is apprehension concerning the safety of an aero plane and its occupants.
B. A flight requires the assistance of the emergency services.
C. An aircraft and its occupants are threatened by grave and imminent danger and of requiring immediate
assistance.
D. A 'Pan Pan' call has been transmitted.

138. An airspace where flight information and alerting services are given shall be designated as:
A. Controlled airspace.
B. Advisory routes and class F airspace.
C. Flight information regions (FIR).
D. Uncontrolled airspace.

139. A report from an aircraft in flight prepared under requirements for position, and operational and/or
meteorological reporting is ___.
A. A position report.
B. A PIREP.
C. A SIGMET.
D. A NOTAM.

140. Except when a clearance is obtained from an ATC unit, VFR flights shall not take off or land at an
aerodrome within a CTR or enter the aerodrome traffic zone or traffic pattern when the;
A. ceiling is less than 1.000 ft or the ground visibility is less than 8 km.
B. ceiling is less than 2.000 ft or the ground visibility is less than 5 km
C. ceiling is less than 1.500 ft or the ground visibility is less than 5 km.
D. ceiling is less than 1.000 ft or the ground visibility is less than 5 km.

141. The highest priority for landing has:

A. an aircraft on a diplomatic flight (Head of state),
B. an Air Ambulance carrying a very sick person needing immediate medical attention,
C. a military aircraft.
D. an aircraft that is emergency landing.

142. What is a STAR

A. Standard instrument routes
B. Standard Terminal Arrival Routes
C. Supplementary terminal arrival
D. Special terminal arrival

143. The Minimum Sector Altitude (MSA), which must be established around a navigation aids, is in
general valid within a sector of:
A. 10 NM.
B. 30 NM.
C. 25 NM.
D. 15 NM.

144. The Minimum Sector Altitude (MSA), which must be established around:
A. tower
B. navigation aids
C. runway
D. airport reference point (ARP)

145. The transition altitude of an aerodrome should not be below:

A. 1500 ft
B. 2500 ft
C. 3000 ft
D. 1000 ft

146. What word is used to describe the vertical position of an aircraft measured above mean sea level,
when QNH is set on the altimeter subscale?
A. Altitude
B. Height
C. Elevation
D. Flight level

147. What SSR squawk should be set in an emergency?

A. 7700
B. 7777
C. 7600
D. 7000

148. Which SSR Code should be selected to indicate radio failure?

A. 7000
B. 7500
C. 7700
D. 7600

149. What are the names of the three parts of an AlP?

A. ENR, AD and AGA
B. GEN, ENR and AD
C. AGA, AD and GEN
D. ENR, AGA and GEN

150. What is the meaning of an area labeled "LT D 21"?

A. This area is the Turkish dangerous area no. 21
B. A no-fly area was set up from ground up to FL 210
C. A low-level flying area was set up till 210 ft AGL
D. In this area airspace "D" no. 21 has been established
151. Which of below correctly completes the following statement? A Flight Information Service and
Alerting Service is provided in airspace designated as:
A. CTAs
B. Flight Information Regions
C. TMAs
D. Advisory Routes

152. What defines a Control Zone?

A. A danger, prohibited or restricted area.
B. A portion of airspace between ground level and a specified altitude or flight level where an ATC service is
provided to IFR and some VFR traffic.
C. A zone of defined radius centred upon the longest runway of an aerodrome extending up to 2000 ft.
D. An area around one or more aerodromes where a common approach control is applied.

153. Which of the following flight levels should be suitable for an aircraft flying VFR in accordance with
the ICAO Semi-Circular Rule and maintaining a magnetic track of 146 degrees?
A. FL 295
B. FL 75
C. FL 50
D. FL 85

154. VFR Flights shall NOT take of or land at an aerodrome within a Control Zone (CTR), or enter the
Aerodrome Traffic Zone (ATZ) or traffic pattern:
A. When the ceiling is less than 450 m (1500 feet) or when the ground visibility is less than 8 km.
B. When the ceiling is less than 300 m (1000 feet) or when the ground visibility is less than 5 km.
C. When the ceiling is less than 450 m (1500 feet) or when the ground visibility is less than 5 km.
D. When the ceiling is less than 300 m (1000 feet) or when the ground visibility is less than 8 km.

155. You have flight planned to arrive over a Reporting Point at 1500Z. However, due to an unexpected
tailwind, you realize that you will arrive at 1505Z. Do you have to inform the relevant ATCU?
A. Only if you are conducting the flight under VFR
B. Only if you are outside Controlled Air Space
C. No
D. Yes

156. An airborne flight plan must be submitted:

A. 30 minutes before the intended point of entry into a CTA or an airway.
B. 15 minutes before the intended point of entry into a CTA or an airway.
C. 60 minutes before the intended point of entry into a CTA or an airway.
D. 10 minutes before the intended point of entry into a CTA or an airway.

157. During a Controlled Flight, your actual TAS is 150 kts however your flight planned TAS is 140 kts.
Must you inform ATCU?
A. No
 B. Only if requested by ATC
C. Yes
D. Only if you are outside CAS

158. Interception

If radio contact is established during interception but communication in a common language is not possible,
attempts shall be made to convey instructions and essential information by using standard phrases and
pronunciations, transmitting each phrase twice.

The standard phrase with the meaning "Descend for landing" for use by INTERCEPTING aircraft is:

A. YOU LAND YOU-LAAND

B. DESCEND DEE-SEND
C. LET DOWN LET-DAUN
D. DESCEND FOR LAND DEE-SEND FOR LAAND

159. Air traffic control service is conducted by which services?

A. TWR (aerodrome control service) APP (approach control service) ACC (area control service)
B. FIS (flight information service) AIS (aeronautical information service) AFS (aeronautical fixed
telecommunication service)
C. APP (approach control service) ACC (area control service) FIS (flight information service)
D. ALR (alerting service) SAR (search and rescue service) TWR (aerodrome control service)

160. Alerting service is provided.

A. for all aircraft known to ATC.
B. only for aircraft flying according to IFR.
C. only for aircraft flying with a flight plan.
D. only for aircraft with a MTOM of 20000 kg and more.

161. What is the international Aeronautical VHF Distress Frequency?

A. 243.00 MHz
B. 406.00 MHz
C. 123.45 MHz
D. 121.50 MHz

162. What action should a pilot take if he suffers radio communications failure during a VFR flight in VMC?
A. Continue to fly in VMC, land at the nearest suitable aerodrome and report his arrival to his destination
airfield.
B. Fly to the nearest aerodrome, orbit on the dead side of the circuit and await a steady green from the control
tower.
C. Continue to his destination, transmitting blind and attempting to avoid IMC.
D. Carry out the radio failure procedure in the RAF Flight Information Handbook and await the arrival of a
Shepherd aircraft.

163. A light aircraft is taking off behind a Heavy or Medium category aircraft. What period of separation is
required?
A. 3 minutes.
B. 4 minutes.
C. 2 minutes.
D. 5 minutes.

164. Which aircraft speed should be entered into the "Cruising Speed" block of an ICAO Flight Plan?
A. Indicated Air Speed.
B. Ground Speed
C. Calibrated Air Speed.
D. True Air Speed.

165. What is the definition of the term "Controlled Airspace"?

A. Airspace around an airport.
B. Airspace immediately above an airport with more than one runway.
C. Airspace of defined dimensions within which all aircrafts are controlled.
D. An airspace within which air traffic control services are provided.

166. According to JAR-FCL, single pilot single-engine class ratings are valid for
A. five years after licence issue
B. two years
C. one year
D. two years up to age 40 years then one year thereafter

167. According to JAR-FCL 3, Medical certificates classes are

A. 1, 2,3
B. 1,2
C. class 1 only
D. 1, 2, 3, 4

168. Where is the number and composition of the flight crew specified?
A. In JAR-FCL
B. In ICAO Annex 6 part 2
C. On the C of A
D. In JAR-OPS 1

169. The period of validity of a JAR-FCL PPL (A) is:

A. 5 years
B. life time
C. 10 years
D. 3 years

170. The minimum number of dual instructional hours to be completed by a candidate for a JAR-FCL PPL
(A) is:
A. 45 hours
B. 10 hours
C. 25 hours
D. 30 hours

171. What organisation will take over the responsibilities and role of the JAA?
A. ECAC
B. EASA
C. EU
D. IATA

172. What is the ICAO code of Ankara Flight Information Region (FIR) ?
A. LTBB
B. LTAA
C. TCAA
D. LTBA

173. What is the ICAO code of İstanbul Flight Information Region (FIR) ?
A. LTBA
B. LTAA
C. TCAA
D. LTBB

174. How long would you have to spend in a clinic or hospital before you would have to inform the
authorities?
A. Not less than 20 days.
B. 24 hrs or more.
C. 12 days or more.
D. More than 12 hours.

175. Where would a pilot find details of differences between ICAO Standards and Recommended
Practices and National Regulations of a state?
A. Aeronautical Information Publication (AIP) of that state.
B. IATA Airport Handling Manual
C. General Aviation Safety Sense Publications.
D. Aeronautical Information Circulars (AIC) of that state.

176. A PPL holder may:

A. Operate as co-pilot on a revenue earning flight.
B. Not operate as either commander or co-pilot on a revenue earning flight.
C. Operate as any crew member for remuneration on a private flight.
D. Operate as commander for remuneration on a private flight.

177. The holder of a PPL (A) who wishes to carry passengers must have made a minimum of 3 take-offs
and 3 landings within the preceeding:
A. 90 days
B. 31 days
C. 60 days
D. 29 days

178. An applicant for a Private Pilot Licence must be at least:

A. 18 years old.
B. 17 years old.
C. 16 years old.
D. 15 years old.

179. .communication has been received from an aircraft within 30 minutes after the time a
communication should have been received. What phase of the Alerting Service must be declared?
A. Distress Phase
B. Alert Phase
C. Emergency Phase
D. Uncertainty Phase

180. Which sign indicate a runway unfit for he movement of aircraft ?

A. white ‘’X’’
B. White “Y”
C. yellow “Y”
D. yellow ‘’X’’
020 AIRCRAFT GENERAL
KNOWLEDGE
PPL(A)
QUESTION BANK
1. Which of the following design features would not increase the effectiveness of the air-cooling of an aircraft piston
engine?

A. Manufacturing major engine components using low conductivity materials

B. The fitting of baffles and directional air ducts
C. “ Fining” the cylinders
D. Fitting cowl flaps and gills

2. The slip indicator's ball (apparent vertical) has moved to the right during a right turn. By what actions may the ball
led back to middle position?

A. Reduce rate of turn, reduce bank

B. Increase bank, increase rate of turn
C. Reduce speed, increase bank
D. Reduce bank, increase rate of turn

3. Rotation of the aircraft about its longitudinal axis is known as:

A. Side slipping
B. Roll
C. Yaw
D. Pitch

4. What will be the effect on air density of a reduction in air pressure while humidity and temperature remain
constant?

A. The air density will remain unchanged.

B. The density of the air is independent of pressure at constant volume.
C. The air density will increase.
D. The air density will decrease.

5. Buckling is one of the combined loads and occurs at;

A. thin sheet metals when they are subjected to compression forces.

B. thin sheet metals when they are subjected to tension forces.
C. thick metal rods when they are subjected to compression forces.
D. thick metal rods when they are subjected to shear forces.

6. The crank assembly consists of

A. Crankshaft, camshaft, valves, valve springs and push rods.

B. Oil filter, crankshaft, pistons and connecting rods.
C. Crankcase, crankshaft, connecting rods and pistons.
D. Crankshaft, connecting rods and pistons.
7. The purpose of a cockpit mounted compass deviation card is to:

A. show the difference between the aircraft magnetic track and true north.
B. correct the gyro headings for ferrous items that may be added to or removed from the A/C.
C. display the difference between the compass headings and actual magnetic headings.
D. correct the compass headings for ferrous items that may be added to or removed from the A/C.

8. Max. Exhaust Gas Temperature is theoretically associated with:

A. Cruising mixture setting.

B. Mixture ratio very close to idle cut-out.
C. Full rich setting.
D. Mass ratio of 1/15.

9. What error is subjected to the artificial horizon?

A. Hysteresis error
B. Blockage of the Pitot tube
C. Acceleration error
D. Gimbal error

10. If the direction indicator and artificial horizon appear to be functioning correctly but the vacuum gauge indicates
zero, the most probable cause would be:

A. failure of the DC electrical supply from the instrument bus bar.

B. failure of the AC electrical supply from the instrument bus bar.
C. blockage to filter on the inlet side of the engine driven vacuum pump.
D. failure of the vacuum gauge.

11. An accelerator pump is used to prevent a flat spot. A flat spot arises:

A. When the throttle is opened quickly and the mixture becomes temporarily too rich
B. When the throttle is closed quickly and the engine is starved of fuel
C. When the throttle is opened quickly and the mixture becomes temporarily too weak to support combustion
D. When the throttle is closed and the mixture becomes temporarily too rich

12. Which of the following could be a common feature of diesel engines and gasoline engines ?

A. All of above
B. Mixture Adjustment
C. Spark plugs
D. Squence of the strokes
13. On the trailing edge of control surfaces, usually one of the ailerons, of some light aircraft there is a small fixed
metal tab. The purpose of this is;

A. a label for manufacturer's reference number.

B. to allow the pilot to adjust lateral trim on the ground to compensate for a load change.
C. to allow a licensed engineer to adjust trim on the ground.
D. to discharge static electricity.

14. Basic airframe loads are classified as;

A. Tension and Compression Load

B. Torsion and Shear Load
C. Tension and Shear Load
D. Torsion and Compression Load

15. Density:

A. reduces with temperature reduction.

B. reduces with altitude increase.
C. is unaffected by temperature change.
D. increases with altitude increase

16. The crank shaft in a four stroke piston engine:

A. converts linear motion into reciprocating movement.

B. converts reciprocating movement into rotary motion.
C. controls the clearance of the valves.
D. converts rotary motion into reciprocating movement.

17. The compression ratio of a piston engine is defined as the ratio of:

A. the cylinder volume when the piston is at bottom dead centre to the total cylinder volume.
B. total cylinder volume to the volume remaining below the piston when it is at top dead centre.
C. total cylinder volume to the volume remaining above the piston when it is at top dead centre.
D. cylinder volume with the piston at bottom dead centre (BDC) to cylinder volume with the piston at top dead
centre (TDC).

18. Calculate the Compression Ratio of an engine having a Swept Volume of 1800 cc and a Clearance Volume of 300
cc.

A. 5:1
B. 9:1
C. 7:1
D. 6:1
19. To correctly set the fuel/air mixture whilst in flight, the control is moved to the lean position until engine RPM:

A. Decreases by approximately 150 RPM. The mixture control is then moved slightly more towards the lean
position
B. Decreases. The mixture control os then left in that position
C. Drops and then mixture control is then moved slightly to the RICH side of peak RPM
D. Rises and then the mixture control is left in that position

20. What does the octane rating give information about?

A. Influence on ignition temperature

B. Suppression of microorganisms
C. Improvement of storability
D. Degradation of static electricity

21. For internal cooling , reciprocating engines are especially dependent on ;

A. a rich fuel/air mixture.

B. the circulation of lubricating oil.
C. a properly functioning thermostat.
D. a lean fuel/air mixture.

22. A flying control lock:

A. Locks controls on ground to prevent the pilot damaging them while manouevring the aircraft.
B. Locks controls on ground to prevent damage in windy conditions.
C. Locks controls in flight to reduce the effects of turbulence.
D. Locks controls in flight to neutralize aerodynamic loads.

23. Aircraft engine ignition systems incorporate a means of spark augmentation:

A. Because, at high engine speeds, a fat spark is needed to extract maximum power from the air-fuel mixture
B. In order to overcome the problem of spark-retard during starting
C. Because the speed of rotation of the engine, during starting, is too low for the magneto to produce sufficient
energy to ignite the air-fuel mixture
D. All of them.

24. The resistance of a fluid against flowing is called ……………. which is …………….. proportional to the temperature
and that’s why decreasing temperature makes it ……………. for a liquid to flow.

A. Viscosity – directly – easier.

B. Viscosity – indirectly – easier.
C. Viscosity – indirectly – harder.
D. Disflowability – directly – harder.
25. How is the vacuum provided to drive gyroscopic instruments?

A. By a vacuum reservoir charged before flight.

B. By the alternate static source.
C. By the static vent.
D. By an engine driven pump.

26. A Dl or heading indicator is susceptible to apparent drift which is a function of:

A. rotor speed instability

B. inherent rigidity in space.
C. internal friction
D. Earth rotation about its own axis.

27. Equivalent Air Speed (EAS) is obtained from Indicated Air Speed (IAS) by correcting for the:

A. position, instrument and density errors.

B. position, instrument and compressibility errors.
C. compressibility and density error.
D. position and instrument error.

28. When refuelling, to ensure that the correct type of fuel is used, both the fuel itself and tank labels are colour
coded. The primary colour for all labels relating to 1OOLL is …(i)… and the colour of the fuel itself should be …(ii)… .

A. (i)blue (ii)straw

B. (i)red (ii)blue

C. (i)red (ii)straw

D. (i)black (ii)red

29. Which instrument can be affected by the hysteresis error?

A. Tachometer
B. Altimeter
C. Vertical speed indicator
D. Direct reading compass

30. Which one is not an example for combined loadings?

A. Torsion.
B. Compression.
C. Bending.
D. Buckling.
31. What height does the altimeter indicate if set to local QNH?

A. Flight level.
B. Height above airport.
C. Height above terrain.
D. Height above sea level.

32. The primary object of lubrication is to:

A. Reduce vibration and increase efficiency.

B. Reduce friction and help internal cooling.
C. Help cleaning and increase engine life.
D. Increase power output.

33. Types of the wing construction in the Figure is called as:

A. Bi-plane
B. Braced monoplane.
C. Cantilever Monoplane.
D. Braced bi-plane

34. Spark plugs receive their high tension supply from:

A. the alternator.
B. a magneto, independent of the aircraft electrical system.
C. a magneto supplied from the aircraft battery.
D. a magneto distributor supplied from the aircraft electrical system.

35. If the power supply to the pitot heater failed during flight in icing conditions and the aircraft subsequently
descended, the readings on the (i) Altimeter, (ii) the VSI and (iii) the ASI would, if ice had blocked the pitot (total
pressure) tube:

A. (i) Under-read (ii) read correctly (iii) over-read

B. (i) Read correctly (ii) under-read (iii) over-read

C. (i) Read correctly (ii) read correctly (iii) over-read

D. (i) Read correctly (ii) read correctly (iii) under-read

36. In the engine fuel system, what is the relationship between the ambient pressure in the float chamber of a
carburetor and the static pressure in a carburetor’s venturi?

A. The static pressure in the venturi will be lower than the ambient pressure in the float chamber.
B. There is no difference, because the terms ambient and static pressure have the same meaning.
C. The static pressure in the venturi will be greater than the ambient pressure in the float chamber.
 D. The ambient pressure of the float chamber is equal to the dynamic pressure in the venturi.

37. Detonation could be triggered by;

A. Too weak a mixture.

B. Too low a manifold pressure.
C. A higher octane-grade fuel than recommended.
D. Too high an RPM.

38. Serious carburetor icing may become highly potential under the conditions of……

A. a relative humidity of 50% and at outside air temperatures between -7 degree Celcius and 30 degree Celcius.
B. a relative humidity above 80% and at outside air temperatures between -7 degree Celcius and 21 degree
Celcius.
C. a relative humidity below 80% and at outside air temperatures between -7 degree Celcius and 15 degree
Celcius.
D. a relative humidity above 50% and at outside air temperatures between -38 degree Celcius and -7 degree
Celcius.

39. When flying from a sector of warm air into one of colder air, the altimeter will:

A. Be just as correct as before.

B. Overread
C. Show the actual height above ground.
D. Underread.

40. The speed scale of an airspeed indicator is colour coded. The green band is:

A. the normal operating range (Vno)

B. the landing gear retraction range (VIo) where
C. the caution range (Vne)
D. the flap extension range (Vfe)

41. The temperature of the coolant used in a liquid-cooled engine is controlled by;

A. Oil cooler shutters

B. Radiator
C. A thermostat
D. A Cowling

42. Below is a schematic diagram of a light aircraft DC electrical system using a centre-zero reading ammeter. The
most probable cause of the needle of the ammeter being in the centre-zero position would be that:
 A. The battery is fully charged
B. All electrical loads have been switched off
C. The battery is flat
D. The alternator has failed

43. In the aircraft tanks, fuel is most likely to be contaminated by water from:

A. Poorly fitting fuel caps

B. Leaks in the tanks that have let in rain
C. Atmospheric air remaining in partially-filled tanks
D. Contamination during refuelling

44. If an un-pressurized aircraft is fitted with an alternative static source that is within the cockpit, when compared
to the outside static source the alternate static pressure will be:

A. greater.
B. the same.
C. less.
D. variable as it will be susceptible to temperature difference.

45. Detonation could result from using:

A. Too high RPM

B. A higher grade fuel than recommended
C. Too low manifold pressure
D. Too weak mixture

46. The distance between the TDC and the BDC of a piston is:

A. The total volume.

B. Combustion chamber.
C. The length of a stroke.
D. The height of the cylinder.

47. When considering the changes in density of the air with altitude, which of the following four options is correct?

A. The increase in pressure with increasing altitude causes density to reduce.

B. The reduction in pressure with increasing altitude causes density to reduce.
C. The temperature increase with increasing altitude causes density to increase.
D. The temperature reduction with increasing altitude causes density to increase.
48. What behavior is shown by a rotating gyro in space?

A. It moves in accordance with the body surrounding it

B. It swings from east to west like a pendulum
C. It tends to maintain its position in space
D. It moves in circles with a steadily decreasing Radius

49. A flying control lock;

A. must always be used when flying in gusty conditions.

B. is only necessary on the elevators.
C. will constrain the control column to its design limits so as not to overstress the airframe during normal
operations.
D. is used to lock the controls on the ground to prevent damage in high wind conditions.

50. VNE is:

A. maximum speed not to be exceeded except in still air and with caution
B. The speed at which the flight controls can be fully deflected
C. the speed which must be never exceeded
D. Minimum speed with flaps extended in landing position

51. The total pressure entering the the pitot-static system represented by the arrow is:

A. pitot pressure + dynamic pressure.

B. adiabatic + pitot pressure.
C. static pressure + dynamic pressure.
D. pitot + adiabatic pressure.

52. In order to eliminate carburetor ice, carburetor heat should be applied. However, carburetor heat should never
be used in case of……

A. during cruise.
B. during landing.
C. during take off.
D. during approach.

53. The artificial horizon belongs to the...

A. engine monitoring instruments.

B. capsule instruments.
C. gyro instruments.
D. electrical systems.
54. Magnetic compasses suffer from a problem called "dip", which is:

A. the deviation which cannot be eliminated by a compass swing.

B. is caused by the horizontal component of the earth's magnetic field present at all latitudes.
C. is caused by the vertical component of the earth's magnetic field present at high latitudes.
D. the tendency of the needle to tilt during turns.

55. Of the following statements, which relates factually to an Impulse Coupling?

A. All of them.
B. It is a mechanical device which uses a spring to temporarily increase the speed of rotation of the magneto
C. It supplies a stream of high voltage impulses to a trailing brush on the distributor rotor
D. It supplies the primary coil of the magneto with a low voltage during engine start

56. Amongst other things, nose wheel shimmy could be caused by either insufficient pressure in the shimmy damper
or:

A. too low a pressure in the nose wheel tyre.

B. nose wheel tyre flat spots caused by excessive braking.
C. failure of the torque link.
D. excessive tyre creep.

57. Which one describes the structures in a semi-monocoque aircraft?

A. stringers, frames, fittings

B. stringers, frames, skin
C. spars, skin, ribs
D. front spar, rear spar, ribs

58. Which one is not a part of wing structure?

A. Spar
B. Stringer
C. Rib
D. Frame

59. A Dl may be aligned with the magnetic compass by:

A. using the caging knob to rotate the Dl azimuth card when the wings are level.
B. housing the caging knob which will automatically align the azimuth Dl card with the magnetic compass.
C. using the caging knob to rotate the Dl azimuth card when turning onto a heading.
D. by maintaining the wings level, disengaging the caging knob and allowing the gyro to realign with the
magnetic compass.
60. The main advantage of a constant speed propeller over a fixed pitch propeller lies in;

A. A stable efficiency over a wide engine-speed range.

B. A higher maximum efficiency.
C. A higher maximum thrust available.
D. A more blade surface area available.

61. For piston engines, mixture ratio is the ratio between the:

A. Volume of fuel and volume of air entering the carburetor.

B. Mass of fuel and mass of air entering the cylinder.
C. Volume of fuel and volume of air entering the cylinder.
D. Mass of fuel and volume of air entering the carburetor.

62. Which pressure is sensed by the Pitot tube?

A. Cabin air pressure

B. Total air pressure
C. Dynamic air pressure
D. Static air pressure

63. A mixture setting richer than best power has to be used during climb segments. This results in a ;

A. higher torque.
B. increase of power.
C. lower cylinder head temperature.
D. higher efficiency.

64. If an unpressurised aircraft has an alternate static source within the cockpit, the alternate static pressure:

A. Will be unreliable because of ingress of moisture from the pitot head

B. Will be higher than the outside static source
C. Must be selected immediately there is any fluctuations of the Airspeed Indicator
D. Will be lower than the outside static source

65. A vertical speed indicator measures the difference between...

A. instantaneous static pressure and previous static pressure.

B. dynamic pressure and total pressure.
C. total pressure and static pressure.
D. instantaneous total pressure and previous total pressure.
66. When an aircraft has turned 90 degrees with a constant attitude and bank, the pilot observes the following on a
classic artificial horizon:

A. attitude and bank correct

B. too much nose-up and bank correct
C. too much nose-up and bank too low
D. too much nose-up and bank too high

67. Ferrous objects in close proximity to a magnetic compass will:

A. not affect the magnetic compass as its housing is screened from magnetic field distortion.
B. induce some small errors in the magnetic-compass due to changes in flux density.
C. not affect flight operations provided the heading indicator is synchronized with the magnetic compass
before the ferrous items are brought on board.
D. induce significant errors in the magnetic heading indication.

68. The valve that allows oil to by-pass a blocked engine oil cooler is:

A. manually activated.
B. pressure activated.
C. temperature activated.
D. density activated.

69. The definition of a monocoque structure is:

A. an integral stressed skin with no apertures containing a light internal structural framework.
B. a stressed skin containing a light internal structural framework.
C. an integral stressed skin with no apertures and no supporting internal structure.
D. a stressed skin with structurally supported apertures.

70. Which of the following statements are true? I. The four-stroke cycle is a continuous cycle. II. Each valve opens
twice along the 4 strokes of a piston engine. III. The crank assembly includes the connecting rod, the piston and the
cylinder. IV. The four-stroke cycle is dependent on continuous ignition.

A. III and IV.

B. Only III.

C. II and IV.

D. Only IV.
71. Which artificial horizon shows a 40o right bank and nose down attitude?

A. 2
B. 1
C. 4
D. 3

72. The exhaust gas temperature gauge:

A. Requires power from the DC bus-bar

B. Can indicate whether the air-fuel mixture being drawn into the combustion chamber is too lean or too rich
C. Is an engine instrument designed to protect the engine from excessive heat
D. Does the same job as the cylinder head temperature gauge

73. The reading on the oil pressure gauge is the:

A. Difference between the pressure pump pressure and the scavenge pump pressure.
B. Pressure of the oil on the inlet side of the pressure pump.
C. Pressure in the oil tank reservoir.
D. Pressure of the oil on the outlet side of the pressure pump.

74. Powerplant may be classified according to: I. number of strokes in a cycle. II. type of ignition. III. place
where combustion takes place.

A. II and III.
B. I only.
C. I and II.
D. All of them.

75. Which indicator is connected to vacuum system?

A. Artificial horizon
B. Compass
C. Altimeter
D. Vertical Speed indicator

76. An EGT ( Exhaust Gas Temperature ) indicator for a piston engine is used to ;

A. control the carburettor inlet air flow.

B. control the fuel temperature.
C. control the cylinder head temperature.
D. assist the pilot to set the correct mixture.
77. The operation of a mechanically steered nose wheel is normally accomplished by:

A. push-pull control rods and/ or cables operated by the rudder pedals.

B. cables connected to the aileron control wheel.
C. the use of differential braking technique.
D. a single hydraulic actuator and two way sequence valve.

78. On the ground, during a left turn, the turn indicator indicates:

A. needle to the left, ball to the left

B. needle in the middle, ball to the right
C. needle to the left, ball to the right
D. needle in the middle, ball to the left

79. A Bourdon tube is suitable for the measurement of...

A. temperature.
B. weight.
C. speed.
D. pressure.

80. Maximum exhaust Gas Temperature ( EGT ) is theoretically associated with ;

A. cruising mixture setting.

B. mass ratio of 1/15.
C. mixture ratio very close to idle cut-out.
D. full rich setting.

81. As viewed from the cockpit, a clockwise turning propeller, the asymmetric blade effect will cause:

A. A yaw to the left

B. A roll to the left
C. The tail to rise
D. The tail to drop

82. Which instrument(s) is (are) connected to the total pressure?

A. Classic vertical speed indicator and altimeter.

B. Classic vertical speed indicator only.
C. Airspeed indicator only.
D. Airspeed indicator, classic rate-of-climb indicator, and altimeter.
83. Propeller efficiency may be defined as the ratio between:

A. the thermal power of fuel-flow and shaft power

B. the usable power and the maximum power
C. usable power of the propeller and shaft power
D. the thrust and maximum thrust

84. To assist in reducing the temperature of the engine:-

A. The cowl flaps can be closed.

B. The airspeed can be reduced.
C. The air/fuel mixture can be richened.
D. The air/fuel mixture can be weakened.

85. The structure shown in the figure is called as;

A. Semi - Monocoque Construction.

B. Monocoque Construction.
C. Truss Type Construction.
D. Framework Type Construction.

86. A double-pole electrical system:

A. Requires on cable taking the current from the generator or alternator to the component and another to
complete the circuit back to the generator or alternator
B. Is not required in aircraft which are made of non-conductive materials
C. Is fail-safe, and so does not require a battery
D. Has the return current flowing back through the metal of the airframe to complete the circuit

87. In an altimeter, there is….. in the capsule and ……….inside the case.

A. Static pressure / Static pressure

B. Vacuum / Static pressure
C. Static pressure/ Vacuum pressure
D. Vacuum / Dynamic pressure

88. The purposes of the oil and the nitrogen in an oleo-pneumatic strut are:

A. the oil supplies the damping and lubrication function, the nitrogen supplies the heat dissipation function.
B. the oil supplies the damping function and the nitrogen supplies the spring function
C. the oil supplies the spring function and the nitrogen supplies the damping function
D. the oil supplies the sealing and lubrication function, the nitrogen supplies the damping function.

89. What is the main advantage of a magneto ignition system over a battery ignition system for an aircraft
reciprocating engine?

A. Operation safety.
 B. Since the magneto always receives its energy from the aircrafts electrical system, it is more reliable.
C. Easy to manufacture.
D. A magneto has its own source of electrical energy and it is not dependent upon a battery.

90. Two 12 volt 40 ampere hour capacity batteries connected in parallel would result in a total voltage and capacity
of:

A. 12 volts and 80 ampere-hours.

B. 12 volts and 40 ampere-hours.
C. 24 volts and 20 ampere-hours.
D. 24 volts and 40 ampere-hours.

91. As viewed from the cockpit, a clockwise turning propeller, the torque reaction will cause:

A. A roll to the right

B. The tail to drop
C. A roll to the left
D. The tail to rise

92. Which altitudes indicates an aircraft altimeter if set to standard atmospheric pressure?

A. True altitudes above the ground surface.

B. Flight levels.
C. Absolute altitudes.
D. Relative altitudes.

93. Which one of the followings is the correct color label for Avgas 100 LL?

A. Blue
B. Black
C. Green
D. Red

94. Why a mechanical fuel pump may not be required on high wing aircraft?

A. Because of cut off valve

B. Because of fuel strainer
C. Because of gravity
D. Because of priming pump

95. What kind of flaps increase the wing area as well as the camber?

A. Fowler flaps.
B. Slotted flaps.
C. Split flaps.
D. Plain flaps.
96. With increasing altitude, the air/fuel mixture...

A. becomes richer.
B. becomes liquid.
C. stays constant.
D. becomes more lean.

97. Airflow through the venturi of a carburetor causes a;

A. Drop in pressure and a drop in velocity at the narrowest point.

B. Drop in pressure and a rise in velocity at the narrowest point.
C. Rise in pressure and a drop in velocity at the narrowest point.
D. Drop in pressure and a rise in temperature at the narrowest point.

98. By what activation method does the valve which allows oil to either flow through or by-pass a serviceable engine
oil cooler work?

A. Temperature activated
B. Pressure activated
C. Electrically activated
D. Manually activated

99. Below is a schematic diagram of a light aircraft DC electrical system. The most probable cause of the needle of
the loadmeter being in the position shown would be that:

A. All electrical loads have been switched off

B. The battery is fully charged
C. The battery is flat
D. The alternator has failed

100. Of the following, which will increase the angle of attack of a fixed pitch propeller blade?

A. Increased TAS and increased RPM

B. Decreased TAS and decreased RPM
C. Increased TAS and decreased RPM
D. Decreased TAS and increased RPM

101. Asymmetric blade effect is mainly induced by:

A. large angles of climb.

B. high speed.

C. the inclination of the propeller axis to the relative air flow.

D. large angles of yaw.

102. The mechanical tachometer:

A. Uses the friction generated in a drag-cup to rotate a shaft, which is connected to a pointer, against the
pressure of a hairspring
B. Works on the principle of a magnetic field being induced in a drag-cup and creating a torque which rotates a
shaft attached to the pointer on the dial of a tachometer
C. Is driven directly from the prop shaft. Gears reduce the speed of rotation so that a generator can be used to
produce a voltage proportional to shaft speed which is indicated on a gauge calibrated in RPM
D. Is driven directly from the alternator drive

103. A manifold pressure gauge of a piston engine measures ;

A. absolute air pressure entering the carburettor.

B. absolute pressure in intake system near the inlet valve.
C. vacuum in the carburettor.
D. fuel pressure leaving the carburettor.

104. In order to increase the conductivity of the composite skin, some metal meshes are bonded to the outer
surface. These meshes are mainly made of;

A. Aluminum and Copper mesh.

B. Ceramic and Copper mesh.
C. Steel and Ceramic mesh.
D. Steel and Silisium mesh.

105. At low engine RPM and power settings, the:

A. Priming pump should be switched on.

B. Ignition should be more advanced.
C. Mixture should be rich.
D. CHT will be normally very high.

106. A bus-bar is:

A. the stator of a moving coil instrument.

B. a device which may only be used in DC circuits.
C. a distribution point for electrical power.
D. a device permitting operation of two or more switches together.

107. As altitude increases , the mixture ratio of a piston engine should be adjusted to ;

A. reduce the fuel flow in order to compensate for the decreasing air density.
B. reduce the fuel flow in order to compensate for the increasing air density.
C. increase the fuel flow in order to compensate for the decreasing air pressure and density.
D. increase the mixture ratio.
108. An aircraft that has been over stressed:

A. must be inspected by at least two pilots licensed on the type which one of whom must be the pilot in
command.
B. must be inspected by a qualified engineer before the next flight.
C. must be inspected by the pilot in command and if no defect is found she/he will not be required to make an
appropriate entry in the aircraft technical log.
D. must be subjected to a duplicate inspected by two engineers before the next flight.

109. What is the function of a shimmy damper on an aircraft undercarriage?

A. To dampen bouncing.
B. To decrease shocks on direction pedals.
C. To prevent nose wheel vibrations.
D. To decrease main leg piston travel.

110. Below is a schematic diagram of a light aircraft DC electrical system using a centre-zero reading ammeter. The
most probable cause of the needle of the ammeter being in the centre-zero position would be that:

A. The alternator has failed

B. All electrical loads have been switched off
C. The battery is flat
D. The battery is fully charged

111. Which of the following is not a component of a dry vacuum system?

A. A system lubrication device

B. A vacuum generator
C. A filter to clean the air
D. A vacuum controller

112. The highest absorption of humidity in fuel can be observed in which situation?

A. During parking on wet gras areas

B. Almost empty tanks
C. Almost full tanks
D. During parking on cold aprons

113. Excessive oil pressure can be resolved by using:

A. An oil tank overflow

B. A thermal cut-out
C. An oil pressure relief valve
D. A radiator
114. In case of a blockage of the static ports, the following instruments become unusable: 1. Altimeter, 2. Vertical
speed indicator, 3. Airspeed indicator, 4. Artificial horizon

A. 1, 2, 4
B. 2, 3, 4
C. 1, 2, 3
D. 1, 3, 4

115. Detonation is a result of;

A. Carbon deposits on the plugs

B. Blade tip stall
C. Using lower octane grade fuel than recommended
D. Overcooling of engine

116. Detonation of the fuel/ air mixture in a piston engine is usually associated with:

A. rich mixtures and low cylinder head temperatures.

B. a designed interrupted ignition sequence during start-up when backfiring occurs.
C. carbonised sparking plugs due to protracted engine operation using overly rich mixtures.
D. weak mixtures and high cylinder head temperatures.

117. An altimeter contains one or more aneroid capsules. Inside these capsule is ;

A. static pressure and outside a very low residual pressure.

B. static pressure and outside is dynamic pressure.
C. dynamic pressure and outside is static pressure.
D. a very low residual pressure and outside is static pressure

118. The purpose of the compass deviation card fixed next to an aircraft's magnetic compass is to:

A. compensate for the influence of magnetic material carried on the person of the pilot and/or passengers.
B. indicate the discrepancy between the heading shown on the compass and the actual magnetic heading.
C. indicate the discrepancy between the aircraft's track and magnetic north.
D. indicate the discrepancy between the aircraft's track and true north.

119. Within one complete Otto-Cycle, each valve of a four-stroke piston engine will open:

A. Once.
B. During the induction stroke.
C. During the power stroke.
D. Twice.

120. Calibrated air speed is:

A. IAS plus compressibility correction

B. IAS plus the pressure error correction
C. IAS plus density error correction
 D. IAS plus instrument and position error correction

121. What is the purpose of the secondary flight controls?

A. To constitute a backup system for the primary flight controls

B. To improve the turn characteristics of an aircraft in the low speed regime during approach and landing
C. To enable the pilot to control the aircraft's movements about its three axes
D. To improve the performance characteristics of an aircraft and relieve the pilot of excessive control forces

122. The impulse coupling:

A. retards ignition to ensure pre-ignition of an enriched starting mixture does not occur.
B. accelerates capacitor discharge to the secondary winding that in turn generates a shower of sparks sufficient
to ignite a cold fuel air mixture.
C. advances ignition to compensate for slow combustion in a cold engine.
D. provides high voltage at low engine rpm during engine start.

123. Which statement is correct regarding Induction Stroke ;

A. Inlet Valve closes at Top Dead Centre, descending piston draws mixture and finally Inlet Valve opens at
Bottom Dead Centre.
B. Inlet Valve opens at Top Dead Centre, descending piston draws mixture and finally Inlet Valve closes at
Bottom Dead Centre.
C. Inlet Valve closes at Top Dead Centre, ascending piston draws mixture and finally Inlet Valve opens at
Bottom Dead Centre.
D. Inlet Valve opens at Top Dead Centre, ascending piston compresses mixture and finally Inlet Valve closes at
Bottom Dead Centre.

124. Carbon deposits on spark plugs otherwise known as fouling may be prevented by:

A. not running the engine continuously at high RPM with a lean mixture.
B. avoiding prolonged running of the engine at low RPM.
C. running the engine at high RPM with a lean mixture for about 5 minutes.
D. cleaning them daily.

125. Which of the following could be the cause of the drop in oil pressure indication?

A. Relief valve failure

B. Increasing temperature
C. Decreasing temperature
D. Filter blocking

126. Which constructional elements give the wing its profile shape?

A. Spar
B. Tip
C. Ribs
D. Planking
127. A tied gyro, elemental to a direction indicator has its axis in the horizontal or yawing plane of the aircraft. It
suffers from apparent wander (drift) because of:

A. fluctuations in vacuum pressure as engine RPM changes.

B. rotation of the earth about its axis.
C. friction generated by moving parts in the gimbal bearings.
D. its rigidity in space.

128. What is a valid structural safety factor for general aviation aircraft?

A. 1,5
B. 21
C. 1
D. 6

129. Which type of structure does not have "stressed skin" ?

A. truss type.
B. semi-monocoque type.
C. both truss type and monocoque type.
D. Monocoque type.

130. As viewed from the cockpit, a clockwise turning propeller, the slipstream will cause:

A. A roll to the right

B. A yaw to the right
C. The tail to drop
D. A yaw to the left

131. The rate of turn indicator uses a gyroscope: 1 - the spinning wheel axis of which is parallel to the yawing axis. 2 -
the spinning wheel axis of which is parallel to the pitch axis. 3 - the spinning wheel axis of which is parallel to the roll
axis. 4 - with one degree of freedom. 5 - with two degrees of freedom The combination regrouping all the correct
statements is: NB: the degree(s) of freedom of a gyro does not take into account its rotor spin axis.

A. 3, 5.
B. 1, 5.
C. 3, 4.
D. 2, 4.

132. If the variation is west of true north:

A. Add it to the desired true track to get the correct magnetic heading
B. Add it to your aircraft’s magnetic heading to get the desired true track
C. Subtract it from the desired true track to get the correct magnetic heading
D. The angle of dip will be greatest
133. The power output of an internal combustion engine can be increased by

A. Decreasing the area of the cylinder

B. Decreasing the length of the stroke
C. Increasing the engine R.P.M.
D. Increasing the size of the fuel tank

134. A 100 amp/ hour battery will, in theory, supply 20 amps for up to:

A. 6 hours
B. 2 hours.
C. 5 hours
D. 4 hours

135. Fuel Air Mixture Ratios can be classified as rich, ideal or lean. Which ratio can be called as rich mixture?

A. 8:1
B. 15:1
C. 12:1
D. 20:1

136. When a magneto is selected OFF, the switch located in the primary circuit

A. is closed and the circuit is earthed.

B. is opened and the circuit is earthed.
C. is opened, breaking circuit continuity.
D. is closed and the high tension circuit is closed.

137. Which method can be used for engine cooling?

A. Rich mixture setting

B. Lean mixture setting
C. Decreasing TAS
D. Increasing power

138. If a static vent became blocked at cruise level, how would this affect the barometric instruments during a
subsequent descent? I. Altimeter II. ASI

A. I. under-read II. remain static

B. I. remain static II. under-read
C. I. under-read II. over-read
D. I. remain static II. over-read

139. During the four stroke cycle of the piston engines, two revolutions of crankshaft are created. What are the
second revolution strokes?

A. Power and Exhaust.

B. Compression and Power.
 C. Induction and Compression.
D. Induction and Power.

140. When flying in cold air (colder than standard atmosphere), the altimeter will:

A. underestimate.
B. overestimate
C. show the actual height above ground.
D. be just as correct as before.

141. The rigidity in space of a gyro:

A. is minimum at the magnetic equator.

B. is maximum at the magnetic equator.
C. is decreased by manufacturing the rotor from brass.
D. keeps its axis pointing in a fixed direction in space unless it is acted on by an external force.

142. Which of the following employ either an air or electrically driven gyro? 1. Radio Magnetic Indicator 2. Horizon
Indicator 3. Turn Coordinator 4. Rate of Turn Indicator 5. Vertical Speed Indicator 6. Heading Indicator

A. 1,2,3,4 and 6
B. 1,3,4,5 and 6
C. 2,3,4,5 and 6
D. 1,2,3 ,5 and 6

143. During a prolonged climb you notice that the engine oil pressure is reducing and the oil temperature is rising.
You discount any failure of the lubrication system. What then, is the most probable cause and remedy?

A. You are climbing at too high an airspeed causing overcooling of the lubrication system, thus increasing oil
viscosity. You should reduce power and reduce airspeed.
B. The low airspeed and high engine speed combination reduces cooling of the lubrication system, thus
lowering oil viscosity. You should reduce power and increase airspeed.
C. You are climbing at too high an airspeed causing overcooling of the lubrication system, thus lowering oil
viscosity. You should increase power but reduce airspeed.
D. The low airspeed and high engine speed associated with the climb are reducing cooling of the lubrication
system, thus increasing oil viscosity. You should increase power and reduce airspeed.

144. The maximum speed with the flaps extended is:

A. VFE
B. VNE
C. VNO
D. VLO

145. The empennage normally consists of a horizontal surface, a vertical fin,a rudder and an elevator. Which part
provides longitudinal stability?;

A. The rudder
 B. The elevator,
C. The horizontal tailplane,
D. The vertical fin

146. The pressure measured by using a pitot tube is the:

A. dynamic pressure
B. static pressure
C. total pressure - static pressure
D. total pressure

147. Complete the following sentence by choosing the most suitable one of the four options to make an accurate
statement. In a dry sump lubricating system;

A. Oil pressure gauges are unnecessary.

B. A scavenge pump returns the oil to a separate oil storage tank.
C. Since there are scavenge pumps, oil pressure pumps are not used.
D. A separate oil storage tank is not required.

148. You notice that the oil pressure is fluctuating and indicating lower than normal and the oil temp is rising. What
should you do?

A. Apply full power for ten seconds.

B. Continue until the engine fails, then carry out a forced landing.
C. Land as soon as possible.
D. Assume the indications are faulty and continue the flight.

149. At what power setting is serious carburetor icing likely to occur if operating at an ambient temperature of +25°
and a relative humidity 50%?

A. climb power.
B. descent power.
C. cruise power.
D. maximum continuous.

150. The effect of _____ causes the gimbal error of the directional gyro.

A. the aircraft's track over the earth

B. a bank or pitch attitude of the aircraft
C. transport wander
D. too slow precession on the horizontal gimbal ring

151. Find the incorrect statement regarding causes of detonation;

A. extremely high manifold pressure in conjunction with low rpm.

B. use of a lower fuel grade.
C. extremely low manifold pressure in conjunction with low rpm.
D. high power settings with excessively lean mixture.
152. If the engine is burning oil that can be detected by ;

A. blue smoke from exhaust.

B. white smoke from exhaust.
C. black smoke from exhaust.
D. low cylinder head temperatures.

153. The principle of operation of the Vertical Speed Indicator (VSI) is that it:

A. compares static pressure in a capsule, sensed through a direct static vent, with that in the instrument's case,
sensed though a metered vent. The VSI is, thus, able to detect the rate of change of static pressure with
height.
B. compares total pressure from the pitot tube with static pressure from the static vents. The VSI is calibrated
to show the difference between the two as a vertical speed in feet per minute.
C. compares dynamic pressure from the pitot tube with static pressure from the static vents. The VSI is
calibrated to show the difference between the two as a vertical speed in feet per minute or metres per
second.
D. senses total pressure only, from the pitot tube, and converts the change in total pressure with height into a
rate of climb or descent, measured either in feet per minute or metres per second.

154. In which outside air temperature is carburetor icing most likely?

A. Between -5° C and +20° C

B. Between -10° C and +10° C
C. Between -20° C and +5° C
D. Between -15° C and 0° C

155. A piston engine fuel/ air mixture ratio, ideally should be in the region of:

A. 1:7 by weight.
B. C. 1:15 by volume.
C. 1:12 by weight.
D. 1:9 by volume.

156. During a climb, the total pressure probe of the airspeed indicator becomes blocked; if the pilot maintains a
constant indicated airspeed, the true airspeed:

A. decreases until reaching the stall speed.

B. decreases by 1% per 600 FT.
C. increases by 1% per 600 FT.
D. increases until reaching VMO.

157. The crankshaft in a piston engine:

A. Converts reciprocating movement into rotary motion.

B. Controls the clearance of the valves.
C. Converts rotary motion into reciprocating movement.
 D. Rotates at half the camshaft speed.

158. If, during descent, the static sources to the airspeed indicator and altimeter become blocked by ice:

A. Both instruments will under-read.

B. Both instruments will over-read.
C. The airspeed indicator will under-read and the altimeter will over-read.
D. The airspeed indicator will over-read and the altimeter will under-read

159. On a analog airspeed indicator, the upper limit of white arc indicates:

A. VFE speed with the flaps extended in the landing position.

B. VFE speed with the flaps extended in the take-off position.
C. VS speed in the take-off position.
D. VS speed in the landing position.

160. On your instrument panel, the suction gauge is showing system failure. However, the gyro-driven instruments
appear to be functioning normally, and the low vacuum warning light is out. The fault probably lies:

A. In the gyro driven instrument

B. In the suction gauge
C. In the suction system
D. With the low vacuum warning light

161. The gyro of a heading indicator continuously processes during flight operations and should be regularly
realigned with the magnetic compass:

A. when the wings are level during accelerated flight or slowing down.
B. during straight constant speed flight or constant speed climb or descent.
C. when the wings are level with all non-essential electrical loads switched off.
D. when the wings are level in straight and level constant speed flight.

162. In a piston engine, the purpose of an altitude mixture control is to:

A. Enrich the mixture strength due to decreased air density at altitude.

B. Correct for variations in the fuel/air ratio due to decreased air density at altitude.
C. Prevent a weak cut when the throttle is opened rapidly at altitude.
D. Weaken the mixture strength because of reduced exhaust back pressure at altitude.

163. The most probable cause of vacuum driven gyroscopic instruments that are slow to respond to changes in
aircraft attitude would be.

A. engine driven vacuum pump failure.

B. failure of the vacuum pressure relief valve causing excessive system vacuum pressure.
C. a partial system leak or a partial blockage of the vacuum system air filter.
D. high friction in the gyro bearings.
164. When leaning the fuel/air mixture at altitude, to achieve the most efficient mixture, the control is first moved
towards LEAN position until the engine RPM:

A. increases. The mixture control is then left in that position.

B. decreases. The mixture control is then moved slightly to the RICH side of peak RPM.
C. decreases by approximately 50 RPM. The mixture control is then moved slightly more towards the LEAN
position.
D. increases by approximately 50 RPM. The mixture control is then moved slightly more towards the LEAN
position.

165. For an aircraft with a fixed pitch propeller, propeller efficiency will be:

A. Low at low TAS and high at high TAS

B. Constant at all airspeeds
C. High at low TAS and low at high TAS
D. Low at both very low TAS and very high TAS and optimum at cruising TAS

166. What is the purpose of the tank ventilation?

A. To distribute the fuel from one tank segment to the other during flight
B. To prevent underpressure caused by fuel consumption
C. To prevent fuel spillage during refueling on the filler plug
D. To prevent water disposal during parking

167. Which one is not a task of the lubtication system?

A. Reducing the friction

B. Cleaning
C. Cooling
D. Fuel storage

168. The gyro in an artificial horizon is:

A. an earth gyro rotating in a vertical plane about the aircraft's longitudinal axis.
B. an earth gyro rotating in a vertical plane about the aircraft's lateral axis.
C. an earth gyro rotating in a horizontal plane about a vertical axis.
D. a tied gyro rotating in a horizontal plane about the aircraft's longitudinal axis

169. The ribs in a wing have the function of:

A. withstanding all the chemical loads.

B. giving the wing the option to install fuel cells
C. withstanding all the structural loads.
D. giving the wing the desired aerodynamic shape

170. The input and output of a static inverter are respectively:

A. AC and DC.
 B. DC and AC.
C. DC and DC.
D. AC and AC.

171. True Air Speed (TAS) is equal to Equivalent Air Speed (EAS) only if:

A. P = 1013,25 hPa and OAT = 273° K.

B. P = 1013,25 hPa, OAT = 15°C and TAS < 200 kt.
C. P = 1013,25 hPa and OAT = 15°C.
D. P = 1013,25 hPa, OAT = 15°C and TAS > 200 kt.

172. If, during descent, the static sources to the airspeed indicator and altimeter become blocked by ice:

A. both instruments will under-read.

B. the airspeed indicator will over-read and the altimeter will under-read.
C. both instruments will over-read.
D. the airspeed indicator will under-read and the altimeter will over-read.

173. When an aircraft is in flight, the pressure sensed by the forward facing hole in the pitot tube is:

A. Static pressure only

B. Dynamic pressure only
C. Total pressure plus dynamic pressure
D. Dynamic pressure plus static pressure

174. The power of a piston engine decreases during climb with a constant power lever setting, because of the
decreasing:

A. Humidity.
B. Engine temperature.
C. Temperature.
D. Air density.

175. An impulse coupling is prevented from operating at higher speeds by ;

A. a coil spring.
B. centrifugal force.
C. engine oil pressure.
D. electro-magnetic action of operating magneto.

176. Truss Type Structure can be defined as:

A. containing no openings and no internal support structure where all self and imposed loads are carried by the
skin.
B. a stressed skin with supported apertures containing an internal structure framework.
C. containing light steel tubes and covered by aluminium alloy or "fabric" skin.
D. containing some openings which are structurally reinforced to maintain the integrity of the load bearing skin.
177. A magnetic heading:-

A. Is not affected by turning errors.

B. Is always referenced to True North.
C. Is the sum of the compass heading and compass deviation.
D. Is the sum of the compass heading, compass deviation and variation.

178. If the power supply to the pitot heater failed during flight in icing conditions and the aircraft subsequently
climbed, the readings on the Altimeter, the VSI and the ASI would, if ice had blocked the pitot tube:

A. Read correctly, read correctly, under-read

B. Read correctly, read correctly, over-read
C. Under-read, read correctly, over-read
D. Read correctly, under-read, over-read

179. An aircraft in the northern hemisphere accelerates on a magnetic heading of 090°. The indication of the direct
reading compass...

A. indicates a smaller heading.

B. indicates the opposite course.
C. indicates a greater heading.
D. remains constant.

180. An aircraft in the northern hemisphere intends to turn on the shortest way from a heading of 030° to a heading
of 180°. At approximately which indicated magnetic heading should the turn be terminated?

A. 150°.
B. 360°.
C. 210°.
D. 180°.

181. Which of the following methods is a prevention to "Adverse Yaw"?

A. Yaw damper
B. Winglet
C. Rudder coupling
D. Vertical stabiliser

182. It is best to run the engine with the mixture:

A. Chemically correct, as this is most efficient

B. Slightly rich, as the surplus fuel helps cool the engine
C. Slightly rich, as the surplus air helps cool the engine
D. Slightly weak, as the surplus air helps cool the engine

183. It is important to carry out regular checks for water in the fuel system as the presence of water will cause:
 A. fuel system contamination resulting in the loss of engine power.
B. incomplete combustion.
C. intake and carburetor venturi icing.
D. the fuel to freeze..

184. Magnetos are:

A. Used to generate low voltage sparks for the spark plugs

B. Fitted within the distributor, and fire in the same sequence as the spark plugs
C. Self-contained, engine-driven, electrical generators which produce high voltage sparks
D. Generators, driven by the cam-shaft, used to supply electrical equipment

185. Ignition occurs in each cylinder of a four stroke engine (TDC = Top Dead Centre):

A. behind TDC at each second crankshaft revolution.

B. before TDC at each second crankshaft revolution.
C. before TDC at each crankshaft revolution.
D. behind TDC at each crankshaft revolution.

186. One disadvantage of a dry vacuum pump when compared to a wet vacuum pump is that:

A. Dry pumps are tolerant of contamination

B. Dry pumps tend to be less reliable
C. Dry pumps fail catastrophically with no warning
D. Dry pumps require regular lubricating

187. If the engine gets too hot, the mixture may ignite before the spark plug fires.

A. The mixture should be weakened to assist in cooling the engine.

B. This is called detonation.
C. This is called pre-ignition.
D. The throttle should be opened to assist in cooling the engine.

188. A stall warning system is based on a measure of:

A. Aerodynamic incidence (angle of attack).

B. Airspeed.
C. Difference of groundspeed and IAS.
D. Attitude

189. Assume that a 24 V 60 AH Lead Acid battery is connected to a central busbar. The consumption from the
battery is 6A. What is the endurance of battery?

A. 4 minutes
B. 4 hours
C. 10 minutes
D. 10 hours
190. The structure shown in the figure is called as;

A. Bulkhead Type Construction.

B. Truss Type Construction.
C. Monocoque Construction.
D. Semi - Monocoque Construction.

191. What kind of hydraulic oil is used in aeroplane systems today?

A. Bio-oil
B. Synthetic oil
C. Vegetable oil
D. Mineral oil

192. An enriched mixture at high power settings is desirable because:

A. fuel is a cooling agent.

B. insufficient fuel at high power settings could result in excessively hot lubricating oil being washed from the
cylinder walls.
C. the air is denser at high power settings.
D. extra power can be generated particularly with prevailing high pressure systems and higher than normal air
density.

193. The main advantage of an alternator over a generator is that:-

A. The output of a generator fluctuates too much.

B. An alternator will give almost full power at engine idling speed.
C. A generator can only produce alternating current.
D. An alternator produces direct current from its armature.

194. Which value can the pilot derive from the fuel flow gauge?

A. The fuel quantity

B. The volume of fuel used per time
C. The fuel temperature
D. The fuel pressure

195. Detonation:

A. Is harmful to the pistons

B. Is part of normal engine running
C. Cannot be identified externally
D. Is also known as ‘piston slap’

196. In order to get the optimum efficiency of a piston engine , the positions of the intake and exhaust valve at the
end of the power stroke are ;
 A. intake valve closed and exhaust valve open.
B. exhaust valve closed and intake valve open.
C. both valves closed.
D. both valves open.

197. When trimming an aircraft nose up, in which direction does the trim tab move?

A. Depends on CG position
B. In direction of rudder deflection
C. It moves up
D. It moves down

198. The undercarriage legs of many light aircraft, particularly the nose leg, are sprung and damped using
compressed air and oil. This type of structure is known as;

A. a pneumatic strut.
B. a seruodyne.
C. an oleo.
D. a hydraulic jack.

199. With a constant throttle setting and a fixed pitch propeller, during acceleration the engine RPM will:

A. Decrease
B. Initially increase, but then decrease
C. Remain unchanged
D. Increase

200. In respect of an aircraft piston engine ignition system, the high tension supply to the spark plugs originates
from:

A. the magneto and then transformed by the battery

B. the battery and is transformed by the magneto.
C. the battery during start-up and low idle, then the magneto once the engine is running at fast idle.
D. the magneto's primary and secondary self-generation and distribution system.

201. Which are the advantages of sandwich structures?

A. Low weight, high stiffness, high stability, and high strength

B. Good formability and high temperature durability
C. High strength and good formability
D. High temperature durability and low weight

202. Some carburettors are fitted with a diffuser which:

A. Prevents the mixture becoming too rich as the rpm increases

B. Prevents the mixture becoming too lean as the rpm increases
C. Prevents the mixture becoming too rich as the rpm decreases
D. Prevents the mixture becoming too lean as the rpm decreases
203. When the pilot moves the mixture level of a piston engine towards a leaner position, the ...

A. Amount of fuel entering the combustion chamber is reduced.

B. Volume of air entering the carburetor is increased.
C. Volume of air entering the carburetor is reduced.
D. Amount of fuel entering the combustion chamber is increased.

204. If change in length of a rod under tensile load is 10 cm and the original length of the rod is 30 cm then what is
the Strain Ratio?

A. 0.03
B. 3
C. 0.33
D. 1.33

205. What is the best suitable fuel for a general aviation aircraft with a piston gasoline engine?

A. Jet A1
B. Avgas 100LL
C. Kerosene
D. Avtur

206. During deceleration following a landing in a southerly direction, a magnetic compass made for the northern
hemisphere indicates:

A. no apparent turn.
B. no apparent turn only on northern latitudes.
C. an apparent turn to the west.
D. an apparent turn to the east.

207. The most probable cause of the fluctuating needle of the oil pressure gauge while the aircraft is in level flight
with the engine running at cruise RPM, is;

A. The low power setting.

B. A loose electrical connection.
C. The presence of air in the oil tank.
D. A low oil supply.

208. A relay is ;

A. a switch specially designed for AC circuits.

B. an electromagnetically operated switch.
C. an electrical security switch.
D. an electrical energy conversion unit.

209. Tyre creep;

 A. can be prevented with glue.
B. refers to the movement of an aircraft against the brakes.
C. can be prevented by painting lines on the tyre and wheel.
D. can be recognised by the misalignment of markings painted on the tyre and the wheel.

210. The Direction Indicator must be aligned on the runway before take off because:

A. the gyro will only just have reached its correct speed at this point.
B. the magnetic variation may have changed since start up.
C. the runway in use may have been changed.
D. it has no means of detecting magnetic north

211. The principal reason why light training aircraft have fixed undercarriages is that:

A. training aircraft need to ensure that kinetic energy on landing is absorbed.

B. the reduced performance caused by the additional drag of a fixed undercarriage is offset by its simplicity,
low cost and easy maintenance.
C. training aircraft need to be supported at a convenient height.
D. training aircraft need to manoeuvre on the ground.

212. Both starter switch and starter motor draw current from the battery. When activated, the current flow through
a starter switch compared with that flowing through the starter motor:

A. is much higher.
B. initially higher when the starter motor resistance is high, but reduces to become less as the starter motor
winds up.
C. is the same.
D. is much lower.

213. Regarding (1) a fuse and (2) a circuit breaker:

A. (1) is not resettable, (2) is resettable.

B. (1) is suitable for high currents, (2) is not suitable for high currents.
C. (1) and (2) are not resettable.
D. (1) is not suitable for high currents, (2) is suitable for high currents

214. The instruments usually powered by a vacuum pump system are: 1. Direction Indicator 2. Turn Coordinator 3.
Attitude Indicator or Artificial Horizon 4. Altimeter 5. Magnetic Compass

A. 1 and 2
B. 1 and 3
C. 1, 3 and 5
D. 1, 3 and 4

215. The tendency for control surfaces to flutter at high speed can be avoided by:

A. Fitting spring tabs to the trailing edge

B. Adjusting servo tabs on the trailing edge
 C. Using balance tabs on the leading edge
D. Fitting a mass balance forward of the

216. Semi-monocoque can be defined as:

A. An apertureless structure with load bearing formers being supported by stringers and longerons over a
stressed skin.
B. A framework of light-gauge steel tubes welded together to form a space frame of triangular shape.
C. A structure with no apertures at all.
D. A stressed skin with supported apertures containing an internal structure framework.

217. The empennage normally consists of a horizontal surface, a vertical fin,a rudder and an elevator. Which part
provides directional control?

A. The horizontal surface,

B. The vertical fin
C. The elevator,
D. The rudder

218. When the carburetor air intake is fed with “hot air”, the power output of the engine will be reduced because:

A. The mixture will be weaker.

B. The density of the mixture will be increased.
C. The air pressure in the induction manifold will be increased.
D. The mixture will have a lower density.

219. The most common type of modern light aircraft fuselage construction is:

A. Semi monocoque/stressed skin

B. Truss or framework construction
C. Wood and canvass
D. Monocoque

220. The torque effect during the take-off run in respect a right hand propeller,when viewed from behind,will tend
to:

A. pitch the aeroplane nose up

B. roll the aeroplane to the left
C. pitch the aeroplane nose down
D. roll the aeroplane to the right

221. Ignoring any Instrument or Position Errors, in what conditions will the Air Speed Indicator indicate the True
Airspeed of an aircraft?

A. At any altitude, but only when ISA conditions prevail.

B. At any altitude, provided that the temperature lapse rate is in accordance with ISA.
C. In ISA, sea-level conditions only.
D. At any altitude or temperature.
222. An aircraft piston engine designed with a wet sump lubricating system:

A. is gravity fed from a storage tank.

B. employs a pressure pump that tops up the oil in the sump from the storage tank.
C. employs a scavenge pump that returns the oil from the sump to a storage tank.
D. does not employ a storage tank.

223. Tyre creep may be monitored by:

A. alignment marks painted on and across the tyre wall and wheel flange.
B. two diametrically opposed yellow arrows painted on the tyre side wall.
C. stretch marks on the tyre wall and possible tyre deflation.
D. position and condition of the inflation valve.

224. Ruddervator controls the aircraft in;

A. pitching and yawing.

B. rolling and yawing.
C. yawing only.
D. pitching and rolling.

225. When an "open circuit" occurs in an electrical supply system, the :

A. fuse or CB should isolate the circuit due to excess current drawn.

B. component will operate normally, but will not switch off.
C. load as indicated by the ammeter will increase.
D. loss of continuity will prevent its working components from functioning.

226. The function of an engine driven vacuum pump is to create sufficient airflow:

A. through a spiral impeller which drives the gyros.

B. across a turbine that, in turn, drives the gyros.
C. onto the gyro rotor to drive it around.
D. through a helical impulse impeller which drives the gyros.

227. Ruddervator is the mixture of;

A. Elevon and Rudder.

B. Rudder and Stabilator.
C. Aileron and Rudder.
D. Elevator and Rudder.

228. The empennage does not include:

A. Aileron.
B. Elevator.
C. Rudder.
 D. Fin.

229. An increase in which of the following will increase the total power output of a piston engine?

A. Number of cylinders.
B. All of them.
C. Compression ratio.
D. RPM.

230. Which of the following options states all primary flight controls of an aircraft?

A. All movable parts on the aircraft which aid in controlling the aircraft
B. Flaps, slats, speedbrakes
C. Elevator, rudder, aileron
D. Elevator, rudder, aileron, trim tabs, high-lift wing devices, power controls

231. Which one is not among the functions of lubricating oil?

A. Damping.
B. Isolating.
C. Reduce friction.
D. Anti icing.

232. As a result of the bending load on the wings, two basic loads are created on the upper and lower surfaces, these
are known as;

A. Torsion and Shear Load

B. Compression and Tension Load
C. Tension and Shear Load
D. Torsion and Compression Load

233. Increased lift at lower airspeeds is achieved by deploying:

A. The trailing edge flaps

B. The aileron
C. The rudder
D. The elevator

234. In which sections of the carburettor would icing most likely occur ?

A. main air bleed and main discharge nozzle.

B. accelerator pump and main metering jet.
C. venturi and the throttle valve.
D. float chamber and fuel inlet filter.

235. Which part(s) of a semi-mocoque fuselage take(s) bending loads?

A. Spar
B. Stringers
C. Rib
 D. Frames

236. In a wet sump lubrication system, the oil is normally stored in:

A. A separate tank
B. Both the engine sump and a separate tank
C. The engine sump
D. The engine lubricating gallery

237. An altimeter:

A. contains a partially evacuated capsule that expands during a descent.

B. consists of a sealed instrument case connected to a static pressure source. The instrument case contains a
sealed, partially-evacuated aneroid capsule which contracts during a descent.
C. contains a barometric capsule that expands during a descent.
D. contains a barometric capsule, connected to a total pressure source, that contracts during a descent.

238. The empennage normally consists of a horizontal surface, a vertical fin,a rudder and an elevator. Which part
provides directional stability?

A. The elevator
B. The rudder
C. The vertical fin
D. The horizontal surface,

239. The power output of a four-stroke piston engine at sea level:

A. Remains constant as RPM increases.

B. Increases as RPM increases.
C. Is proportional to the volume of mixture induced into the cylinder.
D. Increases initially, and then remains constant as RPM increases.

240. With increased altitude, the fuel mixture entering the combustion chamber becomes …(i)… as air density …(ii)…
. Select one of the four responses below that will correctly complete the above sentence.

A. (i) weaker (ii) reduces.

B. (i)enriched (ii)increases.
C. (i) weaker (ii) increases.
D. (i) enriched (ii) reduces.

241. A monocoque structure may be described as:

A. containing no openings
B. containing no openings and no internal support structure where all self and imposed loads are carried by the
skin.
C. containing a load bearing structure that transmits self and imposed loads proportionately to the integral
load bearing skin.
D. containing some openings which are structurally reinforced to maintain the integrity the load bearing skin.
242. When a fuel priming pump is used before starting an engine, the fuel is normally delivered directly to:

A. the delivery shroud of the fuel injector manifold.

B. the carburetor float chamber.
C. the induction manifold or inlet valve port.
D. the combustion chamber.

243. The bank angle of a 2-minutes circle depends on the...

A. Ground speed.
B. IAS.
C. TAS.
D. CAS.

244. An aircraft in the northern hemisphere intends to turn on the shortest way from a heading of 270° to a heading
of 360°. At approximately which indication of the magnetic compass should the turn be terminated?

A. 030°
B. 330°
C. 270°
D. 360°

245. To calculate Calibrated Air Speed from Indicated Air Speed, account must be taken of:

A. temperature error.
B. instrument and position error.
C. Compression error
D. Density error

246. A modern light aircraft with a cantilever wing the weight is supported by;

A. the metal skin.

B. the ribs.
C. one or more deep spars.
D. internal wire bracing.

247. Fuses are rated to a value by:

A. Their resistance measured in ohms.

B. The number of amperes they will carry.
C. Their wattage.
D. The number of volts they will pass.

248. A pilot wishes to turn right on to North at rate 1 with TAS = 130 kt at latitude of 30 North using a direct reading
compass. In order to achieve this the turn should be stopped on an indicated heading of approximately:
 A. 45
B. 25
C. 335
D. 315

249. The normal location of an electrically driven boost / alternate pump is:

A. forward of the engine fire wall bulkhead.

B. the lowest part of a fuel tank.
C. upstream of the engine driven pump.
D. the tank to tank fuel transfer line.

250. On a light aircraft fitted with a mechanically steered nose wheel, steering on the ground is normally effected by:

A. Control rods/cables operated by the rudder pedals.

B. Use of the differential braking technique, only.
C. Cables operated from the aileron control wheel.
D. Hydraulic jacks which allow self-centring.

251. What happens in a magneto ignition system when the ignition switch is placed in the “Off” position?

A. The contact breaker breaks the low tension circuit.

B. The secondary circuit is fed y the condenser.
C. The fuel supply is shut off.
D. The primary circuit is connected to ground.

252. A propeller blade is twisted along its length in order to;

A. Give a progressively increasing blade angle from root to tip.

B. Maintain the optimal Angle of Attack from root to tip.
C. Compensate for the decreasing linear speed of the blade from root to tip.
D. Give a progressively increasing pitch from root to tip.

253. A Direction Indicator (Dl) may be aligned with the magnetic compass:

A. by using the caging knob to rotate the Dl azimuth card when the aircraft's wings are level and the aircraft is
in un-accelerated flight.
B. when the wings are level and the aircraft is in either accelerated or un-accelerated flight.
C. periodically, to offset the affect of acceleration during a turn.
D. to eliminate the effect of liquid swirl.

254. For a given type of oil, the oil viscosity depends on the:

A. oil temperature.
B. oil pressure.
C. outside pressure.
D. quantity of oil.
255. A turbocharger consists of a ;

A. compressor and turbine on individual shafts.

B. compressor and turbine mounted on a common shaft.
C. compressor driving a turbine via a reduction gear.
D. turbine driving a compressor via a reduction gear.

256. A turn and bank (or turn and slip) coordinator provides information regarding...

A. the rate of turn and bank angle of the aircraft.

B. the pitch and bank angle of the aircraft.
C. the rate of turn and coordination, i.e. slip or skid, of the turn.
D. the coordination of the turn and slip angle.

257. If a fire occurs in a wheel and tyre assembly, and immediate action is required to extinguish it, the safest
extinguishing to use is;

A. bromotrifluoromethane (BTF).
B. Methyl bromide (CH3Br)
C. dry powder.
D. water acid.

258. An excessively rich mixture can be detected by ;

A. white smoke from exhaust.

B. a long purple flame from exhaust.
C. black smoke from exhaust.
D. high cylinder head temperatures.

259. A gyroscope when spinning, is said to have rigidity in space. Rigidity is a function of:

A. RPM and position of its centre of gravity.

B. RPM and rotor mass
C. Centre of gravity position and rotor mass.
D. RPM, rotor mass, and position of its centre of gravity..

260 What is the function of an idle cut off valve in a piston engine airplane?

A. changes fuel flow to the main jet from the idle jet when power is increased.
B. It controls engine slow-running via the carburettor idle jet.
C. it shuts down the engine automatically if the cylinder head temperature rises due to long periods at idle on
the ground.
D. It inhibits fuel flow from a discharge nozzle in the carburettor when selected

261. The 'Ply Rating' of a tyre;

 A. has nothing to do with the strength of the tyre.
B. indicates the number of rayon or nylon cords.
C. shows how many breaker strips are embedded in the tyre.
D. is an index of the strength of the tyre.

262. Tyre creep may be identified by;

A. two white blocks painted on the wheel flange.

B. two yellow diametrically opposed arrows painted on the tyre sidewalls.
C. alignment marks painted on the tyre sidewall and wheel flange.
D. a tyre pressure check.

263. What values are usually marked with a red line on instrument displays?

A. Operational areas
B. Caution areas
C. Operational limits
D. Recommended areas

264.. Which of the options below completes the most accurate statement concerning aircraft instruments powered
by either an electrically-driven or ground-driven gyro? The following aircraft instruments are driven by gyro:

A. Artificial Horizon, Vertical Speed Indicator and ASI.

B. Turn Coordinator and Artificial Horizon only
C. Turn Coordinator, Artificial Horizon, Turn Indicator, Direction Indicator
D. Direction Indicator, Artificial Horizon. Turn Indicator only.

265. As air enters the restriction of a venturi, its velocity _____, static or ambient pressure _____ and temperature
_____.

A. decreases, increases, decreases

B. decreases, decreases, increases
C. increases, increases, increases
D. increases, decreases, decreases

266. The component parts of the wing shown in the diagram are:

A. A-Primary Spar B-Ribs C-Stringer D-Longeron

B. A-Front Spar B-Secondary Spar C-Ribs D-Metal skin
C. A-Front Spar B-Ribs C-Rear Spar D-Stringer
D. A-Stringers B-Secondary Spar C-Ribs D-Below skin

267. If the gyroscope of a turn indicator runs at a lower RPM than its design specification, how will the actual rate of
turn of the aircraft compare to the rate of turn shown on the turn indicator?

A. The actual rate of turn of the aircraft will be less than the rate indicated
 B. The actual rate of turn of the aircraft will be same as the rate indicated
C. The actual rate of turn of the aircraft will be greater than the rate indicated
D. The turn indicator will not indicate a rate of turn

268. At what power setting is serious carburettor icing likely to occur if operating at an ambient temperature of
+30°C and a relative humidity of 50%?

A. Descent power
B. Cruise power
C. Take-off power
D. Climb power

269. The air pressure that acts on anything immersed in it:

A. is also known as Dynamic Pressure.

B. is also known as Static Pressure.
C. is also known as Total Pressure.
D. is greater at altitude than at sea level.

270. From which type of flight control is movement around the vertical axis controlled?

A. The flaps
B. The rudder
C. The elevator
D. The aileron

271. With which of the following can a pilot monitor the power output of a fix pitch propeller?

A. RPM gauge.
B. The fuel consumption gauge.
C. Mixture lever.
D. Oil pressure gauge.

272. What instrument is connected with the Pitot tube?

A. Direct-Reading Compass
B. Altimeter
C. Airspeed indicator
D. Turn coordinator

273. Which one is a disadvantage of dry sump system?

A. Temperature control difficulty

B. Weightiness
C. Storage capacity
D. Oxidation in sump
274. The parts in a composite structural component are:

A. aluminium alloy with a covering layer of pure aluminium.

B. two thin metal sheets and a heavy core material.
C. a matrix and fibres.
D. Two wood sheets bonded together.

275. Engine compression ratio is the ratio of the;

A. Total volume to the clearance volume.

B. Clearance volume to the swept volume.
C. Swept volume to the clearance volume.
D. Swept volume to the total volume.

276. With decreased altitude, the fuel mixture entering the combustion chamber becomes …(i)… as air density …(ii)…
.

Select one of the four responses below that will correctly complete the above sentence;

A. richer / reduces
B. leaner / increases
C. leaner / reduces
D. richer / increases

277. Baffles:

A. Reduce the flow of air around the engine.

B. Are air openings which help to cool the engine oil.
C. Are air guides which direct the airflow fully around the cylinder.
D. Are placed within the lubrication system to slow down the passage of oil into the engine.

278. The function of a flying control stop is to:

A. inhibit excessive deflection of the flying control surface by the pilot

B. inhibit excessive control surface movement and prevent damage during gusty conditions.
C. inhibit the control column during turbulent flight conditions.
D. constrain the control column to its design limits so as not to over stress the airframe during normal
operations.

279. Deviation from the maintenance schedule specified in the Certificate of Airworthiness (C of A):

A. invalidates the C of A but not any subsequent Certificate of Release to Service.

B. will require the issue of a new C of A if the specified maintenance is not completed within 50 flying hours.
C. renders the C of A invalid until the specified maintenance is carried out.
D. will not affect the C of A but invalidates any subsequent Certificate of Release to Service.

280. Diesel engines , compared to petrol engines have ;

A. the same compression ratio.

 B. a variable compression ratio.
C. a higher compression ratio.
D. a lower compression ratio.

281. Fires are classified in accordance with the material that we have to extinguish. Fires involving electricity are …….

A. Class D fires
B. Class A fires
C. Class C fires
D. Class B fires

282. Main load bearing members in the wing against bending stress are;

A. skin.
B. frames.
C. ribs.
D. spars.

283. As altitude is increased, an adjustment has to made to the fuel/ air mixture because atmospheric:

A. density decreases and the fuel/ air mixture becomes leaner.

B. density decreases and the fuel/ air mixture is enriched.
C. density increases and the fuel/ air mixture is enriched.
D. density increases and the fuel/ air mixture becomes leaner.

284. A VSI is a rate instrument that senses …X… pressure which it then converts to a rate of change of …Y… pressure,
to indicate …Z… speed.

A. X. pitot Y. pitot Z. vertical

B. X. static Y. pitot Z. Vectorial
C. X. static Y. static Z. Vertical
D. X. pitot Y. static Z. vertical

285. High cylinder head temperatures can be reduced in flight by:

A. climbing into colder air thus augmenting the cooling airflow over the engine.
B. closing the cowl flaps which will increase the cooling airflow over the engine.
C. enriching the fuel/ air mixture to reduce combustion chamber temperature.
D. increasing power and airspeed to augment the cooling airflow around the engine..

286. As the aircraft climbs, density _____ and the weight of air entering the engine _____. Therefore, the mixture
will become _____.

A. increases, decreases, weaker

B. Decreases, increases, richer
 C. Decreases, decreases, weaker
D. Decreases, decreases, richer

287. Wheel spats that have become heavily contaminated with soil and grass:

A. must be removed, cleaned and freed of all contamination and re-fitted before the next flight.
B. are designed with a specific volume that will not inhibit normal operations if contaminated.
C. must be discarded before the next flight.
D. are designed to be cleared by wheel rotation.

288. What are the several problems of engine overheating?

A. All of them
B. Lubricaion losing risk
C. Pre-ignition
D. Detonation

289. A flight level is a...

A. density altitude.
B. altitude above ground.
C. true altitude.
D. pressure altitude.

290. Which of the following statements is correct about auxiliary spark augmentation methods?

A. High tension booster coil induces a large current in primary winding.

B. Impulse coupling is used when the engine is turning very fast.
C. High tension booster coil induces a large current in secondary winding.
D. Low tension booster coil induces a large current in secondary winding.

291. Semi-monocoque can be defined as;

A. a stressed skin with supported apertures containing an internal structure framework.

B. a framework of light-gauge steel tubes welded together to form a space frame of triangular shape.
C. an apertureless structure with load bearing formers being supported by stringers and longerons over a
stressed skin.
D. a structure with no apertures at all.

292. Most nose wheels on modern light aircraft are:

A. oleo pneumatic shock-absorber struts.

B. spring coil struts.
C. compressed rubber struts.
D. spring steel struts.
293. What does the abbreviation EFIS stand for?

A. Electronic Flight Instrument System

B. Enhanced Flight Instrumentation System
C. Enhanced Flap Indicator System
D. Electric Flight Information System

294. A flying control lock:

A. Is only necessary on the elevators.

B. Must always be used when flying in gusty conditions.
C. Will constrain the control column to its design limits so as not to overstress the airframe during normal
operations.
D. Is used to lock the controls on the ground to prevent damage in high wind conditions

295. A leak in the pitot total pressure line of a non-pressurized aircraft to an airspeed indicator would cause it to:

A. over-read in a climb and under-read in a descent.

B. under-read in a climb and over-read in a descent.
C. under-read.
D. over-read.

296. It is important to carry out regular checks for water in the gasoline fuel system. If water is present, it will mainly
cause ...

A. air intake icing.

B. ice to form in the fuel lines.
C. contamination of the fuel system resulting in loss of engine power.
D. loss of engine power whilst only taxying.

297. Aircraft maintenance carried out that does not concur with the maintenance schedule quoted in the Certificate
of Airworthiness (C of A) will:

A. require a c of A renewal after the required maintenance has been completed and before the aeroplane is
f!ovvn again.
B. invalidate the previous Certificate of Release to Service as the maintenance schedule will not have been
complied with.
C. not affect the validity of the C of A.
D. invalidate the C of A until the required maintenance is completed.

298. When the engine is stopped, the main source of electrical power is the:

A. Generator or alternator.
B. Battery.
 C. Circuit breaker.
D. Magneto.

299. In flight, when a circuit breaker interrupted the circuit;

A. it must be resetted once

B. it should be resetted for every interruption
C. it must be resetted 5 times at the very most
D. it must not be resetted

300. When referring to the magnetic compass in the Northern Hemisphere, pilots must bear in mind that:

A. turning errors are maximum when turning through East and West, and minimum when turning through
North and South.
B. turning errors are maximum when turning through North and South, and minimum when turning through
East and West.
C. turning errors increase, the nearer the aircraft is to the Magnetic Equator, and diminish as the aircraft
approaches the Magnetic Poles.
D. acceleration errors increase the nearer the aircraft is to the Magnetic Poles, and diminish as the aircraft
approaches the Magnetic Equator.

301. The empennage normally consists of a horizontal surface, a vertical fin,a rudder and an elevator. Which part
provides longitudinal control?

A. The rudder
B. The vertical fin
C. The elevator,
D. The horizontal surface,

302. The correct working cycle of a four stroke engine is:

A. induction, power, compression, exhaust

B. exhaust, induction, power, compression
C. induction, compression, power, exhaust
D. exhaust, power, induction, compression

303. The static pressure in a carburettor venturi compared to the ambient pressure in the float chamber will be:

A. lower.
B. higher or lower as it will be dependent upon the density of the fuel air mixture.
C. the same.
D. higher
304. The cylinder head temperature gauge:

A. Obtains its information from a probe which is installed about four inches from the cylinder head on the
exhaust system
B. Is primarily a fuel management instrument
C. Requires alternating current to power the instrument needle
D. Obtains its temperature information from the hottest engine cylinder, by means of a probe consisting of two
dissimilar metals joined together

305. When applying carburettor heating:

A. no change occurs in the mixture ratio.

B. a decrease in RPM results from the lean mixture.
C. the mixture becomes leaner.
D. the mixture becomes richer.

306. If the earth wire on a magneto becomes disconnected from the magneto while the engine is running:

A. The engine will not stop when the magnetos are switched off.
B. The engine will continue to operate but will fire on all but the one cylinder concerned.
C. The primary windings will be damaged.
D. The engine will stop.

307. Apart from flight into known icing conditions, the intake system of a diesel engine ;

A. is never heated because a diesel engine is a injection engine.

B. needs to be heated to prevent ice on the air filter.
C. needs to be heated at low power settings, due to vaporisation heat.
D. is never heated because diesel engines operate at very high temperatures.

308. After starting a cold engine, if the oil pressure gauge does not indicate within approximately 30 seconds:

A. the engine must be stopped immediately.

B. this may be ignored if the oil temperature is still low and the oil level was checked before start-up.
C. refer to the Pilot's Operating Handbook (POH)for the appropriate action.
D. the engine RPM should be increased and the oil pressure re-checked.

309. Which sensor is suitable for oil pressure sensing?

A. Diaphragm
B. Bourdone tube
C. Bellows
D. Aneroid capsule

310. Which is not an obligatory component in each oil system?

 A. Oil lines.
B. Filters.
C. Oil tanks.
D. Oil coolers.

311. Strain is the change in length due to the external force. How is Strain Ratio is defined?

A. The ratio of the change in length to the final length

B. The ratio of the final length to the original length,
C. The ratio of the original length to the final length,
D. The ratio of the change in length to the original length

312. Which of the following is the most accurate definition of the Design Ultimate Load?

A. Maximum take-off load, multiplied by Safety Factor.

B. Design Limit Load divided by Safety Factor.
C. Design Limit Load multiplied by Safety Factor.
D. Minimum take-off load, divided by Safety Factor

313. A magnetic heading:

A. is always referenced to True North.

B. is the sum of the compass heading, compass deviation and variation.
C. is the sum of the compass heading and compass deviation.
D. is not affected by turning errors.

314. What is the purpose of the ball in the Turn and Slip Indicator or Turn Coordinator?

A. The ball indicates rate of turn

B. The ball indicates angle of bank
C. The ball indicates slip and skid
D. The ball indicates rate of descent in a turn

315. In a four-stroke engine, when does the piston go down, increasing the effective volume?

A. Compression, exhaust
B. Induction, exhaust
C. Induction, power
D. Induction, compression

316. The electrically driven auxiliary fuel pump on a piston engine is located:

A. Upstream of the engine driven pump

B. Upstream of the tank selector valve
C. In the tank-to-tank fuel transfer line
D. At the lowest point of the fuel tank
317. In which stroke, the lineer movement of piston is converted into rotational movement of the crankshaft?

A. Exhaust
B. Induction.
C. Compression.
D. Power.

318. In which phase of flight must the carburettor heating be switched off although carburettor icing might be
expected?

A. During take-off
B. During taxi
C. During climb
D. During cruise

319. The structure shown in the figure is called as;

A. Framework Type Construction.

B. Semi - Monocoque Construction.
C. Truss Type Construction.
D. Monocoque Construction.

320. It is important to ensure that the priming pump is locked after use because:

A. If it vibrates closed, it will cause the engine to stop

B. It may cause a fuel leak, result in an increased fire risk
C. It may allow fuel to be sucked from the fuel strainer into the inlet manifold, causing an extremely rich
mixture
D. It may cause fuel to be sucked from the fuel tank into the carburettor, causing an extremely rich mixture

321. A turn indicator is an instrument which indicates rate of turn. Rate of turn depends upon ;

1. bank angle.
2. aeroplane speed.
3. aeroplane weight.

The combination regrouping the correct statements is ;

A. Only 1.
B. 1 and 2.
C. 2 and 3.
D. 1 and 3.

322. Theoretically, a 100 Ah battery will supply 25 amps for

A. 100 minutes
B. 25 hours
 C. 4 hours
D. 25 minutes

323. What does red dot on tyre indicate?

A. Awl vent
B. Tyre Creep
C. Ply rating
D. Thermal Plug

324. A pressure relief valve that does not fit on its seat properly would result in ;

A. excessive oil consumption.

B. low oil pressure.
C. low oil temperature.
D. high oil pressure.

325. Cooling air for a reciprocating engine can be obtained by means of ;

A. a turbocharger.
B. ram air.
C. a pneumatic system.
D. a supercharger.

326. In a DGI, the error caused by the gyro movement relative to the earth is called as:

A. latitude error
B. transport wander
C. real wander
D. earth rate

327. Rotation of the aircraft about its lateral axis is called:

A. Yaw
B. Roll
C. Side slipping
D. Pitch

328. The normal method for shutting down an aircraft engine is to:

A. Close the throttle

B. Move the mixture to idle cut-off (ICO)
C. Switch the starter switch to off
D. Close the throttle and move the mixture to ICO
329. The Otto-cycle is often referred as a "continuous cycle". The term continuous comes from the continuous ........
demand of the engine.

A. cooling.
B. ignition
C. lubrication.
D. cleaning

330. Rapid and uncontrolled oscillation of the control surface which occurs as a result of unbalanced surface is
defined as;

A. Flutter.
B. Adverse Yaw.
C. Creep
D. Instability.

331. During the four stroke cycle of the piston engines, two revolutions of crankshaft are created. What are the first
revolution strokes?

A. Power and Exhaust.

B. Compression and Power.
C. Induction and Compression.
D. Induction and Power.

332. The magnetic variation at any point on the Earth's surface is the angle:

A. Made by a compass needle with the local vertical

B. Made by a compass needle during a steady turn.
C. Between the horizontal component of the magnetic field and true north direction.
D. Made by a compass needle with the horizon.

333. Elemental to one complete Otto Cycle is that each piston moves:

A. up once and down once.

B. up four times and down four times.
C. up twice and down once.
D. up twice and down twice.

334. A wet sump engine:

A. scavenges all of the oil to the wet sump where it is filtered and pumped to the storage tank and re-
circulated.
B. employs a small storage tank as it is a legal requirement for a reserve oil quantity to be carried.
C. stores all of the oil in a sump which usually forms part of the crank case.
D. employs a scavenge pump that returns some of the oil from the sump to a storage tank.
335. In a four stroke piston engines, valves individually open in the;

A. Compression and Power strokes.

B. Power and Exhaust strokes.
C. Induction and Exhaust strokes.
D. Induction and Power strokes.

336. To get an accurate directional information, a direction gyro is corrected in accordance with:

A. airspeed indicator
B. turn coordinator
C. direct reading magnetic compass
D. artificial horizon

337. Assuming the initiating cause is removed , which of these statements about resetting are correct or incorrect ?

I. A fuse is not resettable

II. A circuit breaker is resettable.

A. I is incorrect , II is incorrect.
B. I is correct , II is correct.
C. I is incorrect , II is correct.
D. I is correct , II is incorrect.

338. In either a wet or dry sump piston engine, the oil pressure sensor is located:

A. on the inlet side off the scavenge pump.

B. on the outlet side of the scavenge pump.
C. on the outlet side of the pressure pump.
D. on the inlet side of the pressure pump.

339. The temperature of the gasses within the cylinder of a four stroke engine during the power stroke, after
completion of combustion:

A. Remain constant
B. Follow Charles’s Law
C. Decrease
D. Increase

340. A magneto that inadvertently becomes disconnected from its ignition switch will:

A. cause a dead cut when the other magneto is switched off.

B. cause the engine to misfire when the other magneto is switched off.
C. cause the failure of one plug in each cylinder.
D. cause the engine to continue running when both magneto switches are turned off.

341. During one complete Otto-Cycle, the crankshaft revolves

 A. A number of times depending on the number of cylinders.
B. Twice.
C. Once.
D. Four times.

342. When, in flight, the needle and ball of a needle-and-ball indicator are on the left, the aircraft is:

A. turning right with too much bank

B. turning right with not enough bank
C. turning left with too much bank
D. turning left with not enough bank

343. How is the nose or tail wheel usually controlled on small aircraft?

A. By the pedals
B. By the control column
C. By the steering Wheel
D. By weight movement

344. Information transmitted to the cockpit mounted engine oil temperature gauge· is provided by a temperature
sensor located:

A. within the engine sump.

B. upstream of the oil cooler.
C. after passing through the oil cooler but before reaching the hot sections of the engine.
D. within the hot sections of the engine.

345. Complete the following sentence to give the most correct statement. At constant air temperature and volume,
if its pressure is increased:

A. Aits density will increase.

B. its density will be unaffected because the volume remains constant.
C. its density will decrease.
D. its density will be unaffected because the temperature remains constant.

346. On take-off, the throttle should be operated:

A. Smoothly, to avoid a weak cut, allowing the engine to respond as fast as it is able, permitting the mixture,
the mixture-strength and charge quantity to change in line with the engine requirements
B. Smoothly, following a count of three
C. As required by the air traffic situation
D. Smoothly, but it may be opened abruptly if several aircraft are waiting to take off

347. An airspeed indicator includes a capsule , inside this capsule is ;

A. dynamic pressure and outside is static pressure.

B. total pressure and outside is static pressure.
C. a very low residual pressure and outside is static pressure.
 D. static pressure and outside is dynamic pressure.

348. Aircraft piston engines are fitted with two independent ignition systems;

A. One is used and the other remains a back-up.

B. One of the magnetos must start ignition before the other one joins it.
C. The statement above is incorrect.
D. For more efficient combustion and reliability.

349. The purpose of bonding the metallic parts of an aircraft is to :

A. prevent electrolytic corrosion between mating surfaces of similar metals.

B. isolate all components electrically and thus make the static potential constant.
C. provide a double earth for electrical devices.
D. provide safe distribution of electrical charges and currents.

350. A turbocharger system in a reciprocating engine is normally driven by ;

A. an hydraulic motor.
B. the exhaust system.
C. an electric motor.
D. an electrically activated hydraulically powered clutch.

351. Which of the following prevents excessive engine oil pressures?

A. An oil pressure relief valve.

B. A vernier thermometer
C. A filter by-pass valve.
D. A non-return valve (NRV).

352. Two 12 volt 40 ampere-hour capacity batteries connected in series would result in a total capacity of:

A. 40 ampere-hours at 12 volts.
B. 20 ampere-hours at 24 volts.
C. 80 ampere-hours at 12 volts.
D. 40 ampere-hours at 24 volts.

353. Before beginning the refueling operation, which precaution should be taken to protect against an electrical
potential difference between the aircraft and fuel truck?

A. Connect a static bounding wire between the fuelling truck and the ground,
B. Shut down all electrical equipment in the aircraft,
C. Connect a static bounding wire between the fuelling truck and the aircraft,
D. Connect a static bounding wire between the aircraft and the ground,

354. Theoretically, a 100 amp/hr battery will supply 25 amps for:

 A. 25 minutes.
B. 100 minutes.
C. 4 hours.
D. 25 hours.

355. a. Retarding the throttle. b. Switching off the magneto switch. c. Cutting off the mixture. Put the procedures
mentioned above in a correct order so that the engine can be safely shut down.

A. c b a.
B. a c b.
C. b a c.
D. a b c.

356. Types of the wing construction in the Figure is called as;

A. Bi-plane
B. Braced monoplane.
C. Cantilever Monoplane.
D. Braced bi-plane

357. The valve which allows oil to either flow through or by-pass a serviceable engine oil cooler is:

A. pressure activated
B. pneumatically activated.
C. temperature activated
D. manually activated.

358. Select from the following those statements you consider to be characteristic of a direction Indicator (DI). 1.
Mechanical friction in the gyro gimbal bearings although small, produces real drift. 2. The gyro will tilt during
acceleration and wander during any turn greater than rate 1. 3. It is unaffected during acceleration or during a turn.
4. Any precession of the gyro may be corrected by the pilot by using the slaving knob. 5. Earth rotation and motion
through space produces apparent drift from the fixed position in space to which it was aligned.

A. 1,2,4 and 5
B. 1 ,3,4 and 5
C. 1,2,3 and 4.
D. 2,3,4 and 5.

359. What is the risk in flight, if the needle of the zero ammeter is at excessive positive side of the indicator?

A. There is no risk
B. Alternator failure
C. Battery discharging
D. Battery overcharging

360. Which colour does Avgas 100 LL have?

A. Red
 B. Green
C. Blue
D. Yellow

361. What does show that if there is too much decrease in RPM during dead cut check?

A. Battery failure
B. Magneto failure
C. Alternator failure
D. Priming pump failure

362. The restrictive throat of a carburetor Venturi changes the characteristics of the air that passes through it. These
are:

A. a dynamic pressure decrease and a velocity increase.

B. a dynamic pressure increase and a velocity decrease.
C. a drop in ambient pressure and velocity increase.
D. a dynamic pressure increase and ambient pressure increase.

363. If the throttle lever of an aircraft controls the amount of fuel consumed: I. It is an injection type engine.

II.It is a carburated engine. III. It is a diesel engine. Which of the statements listed above is definitely true?

A. I and III.
B. III only.
C. I only.
D. II only.

364. An inverter is a:

A. device for reversing the polarity of the static charge.

B. unit used to convert DC into AC.
C. filter against radio interference.
D. static discharger.

365. A 'monocoque' structure:

A. would have a framework consisting of light gauge steel tubes welded together.
B. is sometimes referred to as 'Strained Skin' construction.
C. would have bulkheads set in place to separate the different sections of the aircraft.
D. would have no apertures at all.

366. A structure in which the skin takes all of the load is ;

A. a semi-braced structure.
B. a semi-monocoque structure.
C. a box structure.
D. a monocoque structure.
367. Which one is a part of diesel engine?

A. Magneto
B. Carburetor heatercapsule
C. Mixture lever
D. Glow plug

368. Pre-ignition:

A. Is usually caused by a hot spot in the combustion chamber.

B. Is the same thing as detonation.
C. Happens because of a giant spark produced at the plugs.
D. Is also known as pinking.

369. What are the major components of an aircraft's tail?

A. Ailerons and elevator

B. Rudder and ailerons
C. Steering wheel and pedals
D. Horizontal tail and vertical tail

370. A control system consisting of four pendulous vanes is used in ;

A. a strap down inertial system.

B. a gyromagnetic indicator.
C. an air driven artificial horizon.
D. a directional gyro indicator.

371. If the starter warning light remains on after the starter button (starter switch) has been released:

A. the engine should be immediately stopped.

B. manually disengage the starter.
C. the alternator output level should be checked.
D. the engine RPM should be increased as it is too low for starter auto disconnect.

372. In icing conditions, if a static vent became blocked during level flight, during a subsequent climb, how would (i)
the ALTIMETER, (ii) the VSI and (iii) the ASI be affected.

A. (i) remain static (ii) under read (iii) over read

B. (i) remain static (ii) remain static (iii) under read
C. (i) over read (ii) under read (iii) under read
D. (i) under read (ii) remain static (iii) over read

373. If, while an aircraft is descending, the static vent leading to the Vertical Speed Indicator becomes blocked, the
indicator will:

A. indicate a climb.
 B. show a zero reading, after a short delay.
C. continue to show the same reading.
D. indicate a descent.

374. On a light aircraft fitted with a mechanically steered nose wheel, steering on the ground is normally effected by;

A. hydraulic jacks which allow self-centring.

B. cables operated from the aileron control wheel.
C. control rods/cables operated by the rudder pedals.
D. use of the differential braking technique, only.

375. An untwisted propeller blade will cause;

A. flutter
B. tip stall on blade
C. increase in stability
D. decrease in stability

376. What major advantage has semi-monocoque structure over monocoque structure?

A. Easier to assemble
B. It is lighter
C. Better strength to weight ratio
D. Withstands greater flight loads

377. Which of the following statements can cause carburettor icing?

1. High dynamic pressure at the carburetor intake

2. Fuel vapourization

3. High static pressure at the venturi throat

4. High dynamic pressure at the venturi throat

A. 2-4
B. 1-4
C. 1-3
D. 2-3

378.Which statement is correct regarding propeller twist angle?

A. The greatest blade twist angle is at the tip while the smallest angle is at the hub.
B. The blade twist angle changes in accordance with relative airflow.
C. The blade twist angle does not change along the blade.
D. The greatest blade twist angle is at the hub while the smallest angle is at the tip.

379. In the Semi - Monocoque structure, all the loads are carried by:

A. Outside Skin only.

 B. Outside Skin, Longitidunal Load Bearing Elements and Frames.
C. Outside Skin and Longitidunal Load Bearing Elements.
D. Outside Skin, Longitidunal Load Bearing Elements and Bulkhead.

380. To achieve the correct valve timing in a piston engine, the valves are opened via a camshaft running at;

A. Twice of the crankshaft speed.

B. The same engine speed.
C. Twice of the engine speed.
D. Half of the crankshaft speed.
030 PERFORMANCE and PLANNING
PPL(A)
QUESTION BANK
1. The centre of gravity of an aeroplane is that point through which the total mass of the
aeroplane is said to act. The weight acts in a direction
A. governed by the distribution of the mass within the aeroplane.
B. always parallel to the aeroplane's vertical axis.
C. parallel to the gravity vector.
D. always at right angles to the flight path.

2. The centre of gravity of an aeroplane:

A. may only be moved if permitted by the regulating authority and endorsed in the aeroplane's
certificate of airworthiness.
B. is in a fixed position and is unaffected by aeroplane loading.
C. can be allowed to move between defined limits.
D. must be maintained in a fixed position by careful distribution of the load.

3. During take-off you notice that, for a given elevator input, the aeroplane rotates much more
rapidly than expected. This is an indication that :
A. the centre of gravity is too far forward.
B. the centre of gravity may be towards the aft limit.
C. the centre of pressure is aft of the centre of gravity.
D. the aeroplane is overloaded.

4. If nose wheel of a light aircraft moves forward during gear retraction, how will this
movement affect the location of the centre of gravity (cg) on the aeroplane?
A. It will cause the cg to move aft.
B. It will cause the cg to move forward.
C. It will not affect the cg location.
D. The cg location will change, but the direction cannot be told the information given.

5. The stalling speed of an aeroplane will be highest when it is loaded with a:

A. low gross mass and forward centre of gravity.
B. low gross mass and aft centre of gravity.
C. high gross mass and forward centre of gravity.
D. high gross mass and aft centre of gravity.

6. With the centre of gravity on the forward limit which of the following is to be expected?
A. A decrease in range.
B. A decrease of the stalling speed.
C. A tendency to yaw to the right on take-off.
D. A decrease in the landing speed.
7. Which is true of the aeroplane empty mass?
A. It is dry operating mass minus traffic load.
B. It is dry operating mass minus fuel load.
C. It is the actual take-off mass, less traffic load.
D. It is a component of dry operating mass.

8. Dry Operating Mass is the mass of the aeroplane less

A. usable fuel, potable water and lavatory chemicals.
B. usable fuel and traffic load.
C. traffic load, potable water and lavatory chemicals.
D. usable fuel.

9. When considering the effects of increased mass on an aeroplane, which of the following is
true?
A. Gradient of climb for a given power setting will be higher.
B. Stalling speeds will be lower.
C. Stalling speeds will be higher.
D. Flight endurance will be increased.

10. Moment (balance) arms are measured from a specific point to the body station at which the
mass is located. That point is known as
A. the centre of gravity of the aeroplane.
B. the datum.
C. the focal point.
D. the axis.

11. Which one of the following is correct?

A. Arm = Moment / Force
B. Arm = Force / Moment
C. Moment = Force / Arm
D. Arm = Force X Moment

12. Given: Total mass: 7500 kg Centre of gravity (cg) location station: 80.5 Aft cg limit station:
79.5 How much cargo must be shifted from the aft cargo compartment at station 150 to the
forward cargo compartment at station 30 in order to move the cg location to the aft limit?
A. 65.8 kg.
B. 62.5 kg.
C. 73.5 kg.
D. 68.9 kg.
13. Assume: Aeroplane gross mass: 4750 kg Centre of gravity at station: 115.8 What will be the
new position of the centre of gravity if 100 kg is moved from the station 30 to station 120?
A. Station 122.23
B. Station 117.69
C. Station 118.25
D. Station 118.33

14. Comparing a forward CG position with an aft one, the forward cg position will cause a
A. decrease of the stalling speed.
B. tendency to yaw to the right on take-off.
C. decrease in the landing speed.
D. decrease in range.

15. Considering only structural limitations, on long distance flights (at the aeroplane's maximum
range), the traffic load is normally limited by:
A. The maximum landing mass.
B. The maximum zero fuel mass plus the take-off mass.
C. The maximum take-off mass.
D. The maximum zero fuel mass.

16. The take-off mass of an aeroplane is 117 000 kg, comprising a traffic load of 18 000 kg and
fuel of 46 000 kg. What is the dry operating mass?
A. 53 000 kg
B. 99 000 kg
C. 71 000 kg
D. 64 000 kg

17. Which is true about the aircraft basic empty mass?

A. It is the actual take-off mass, less traffic load.
B. It is a component of dry operating mass.
C. It is dry operating mass minus traffic load.
D. It is dry operating mass minus fuel load.

18. Loads must be adequately secured in order to:

A. allow steep turns.
B. prevent excessive 'g'-loading during the landing flare.
C. avoid unplanned centre of gravity (cg) movement and aircraft damage.
D. avoid any damage to the freight.

19. What is the main reason for determining a forward and an aft CG limit?
A. To ensure that the aircraft is both stable and controllable
B. To decrease stability and inscrease controllability
C. To ensure that the aircraft is not overloaded
D. To increase aileron effectiveness

20. "Before each flight, we need to check the mass and balance of the aircraft in order: I. To
ensure that the aircraft is not overloaded II. To ensure that the centre of gravity is in limits"
A. I and II
B. I
C. Neither I nor II
D. II

21. If the Maximum Take-Off Mass is exceeded before flight, a pilot should:
A. Decrease the load
B. Pull the control stick harder
C. Take off carefully
D. Plan load shifting between cargo compartments

22. If the Centre of Gravity is in front of the forward limit, a pilot should
A. Take off carefully
B. Pull the control stick harder
C. Push the stick more
D. Plan load shifting to bring the CG in the limits

23. A light aircraft is loaded with 30 litres of AVGAS with a specific gravity of 0.72. How would
you enter the fuel mass in the mass & balance sheet?
A. 21.6 kg
B. 2.16 kg
C. 30 lt
D. 30 kg

24. What is the mass of a 50lt fuel having a specific gravity of 0.72?
A. 36kg
B. 72kg
C. 63kg
D. 69.4kg

25. The position of the centre of gravity can always be determined by:
A. Subtracting the total mass from the total moment.
B. Dividing the total moment by the total mass.
C. Subtracting the total moment from the total mass.
D. Dividing the total mass by the total moment.
26. Select the correct statement for the CG safe range:
A. The safe range falls between the front and rear CG limits but does not include them.
B. The safe range falls between the front and rear CG limits and includes both limits.
C. The safe range falls between the front and rear CG limits but only includes the aft limit.
D. The safe range falls between the front and rear CG limits but only includes the fwd limit.

27. If all the moments are positive when calculating mass (weight) and balance, the position of
the datum would be at the:
A. Trailing edge of the wing.
B. Nose, or forward of the aircraft.
C. Centre line of the nose or tail wheel depending on the aircraft type.
D. Main wheels centreline.

28. The distance from the datum to the Centre of Gravity of a mass is known as
A. the moment arm or balance arm.
B. the force.
C. the index.
D. the moment.

29. The datum for determining the CG has to be along the longitudinal axis:
A. But does not have to be between the nose and the tail.
B. Between the nose and the tail.
C. At the fire wall.
D. Between the leading and trailing edge of the MAC.

30. If the maximum structural landing mass is exceeded:

A. The undercarriage could collapse on landing.
B. No damage will occur providing the aircraft is within the performance limited landing mass.
C. The aircraft will be unable to get airborne.
D. No damage will occur providing the aircraft is within the regulated landing mass.

31. In cruise flight, a centre of gravity moving aft will:

A. not change the manoeuvrability
B. decrease longitudinal static stability
C. have no effect on longitudinal static stability
D. increase longitudinal static stability

32. Who establishes the limits C of G?

A. The insurers
B. The manufacturer
C. The State of Authority
D. The JAA

33. When the centre of gravity is at the forward limit, an aeroplane will be:
A. extremely unstable and require small elevator control to change pitch.
B. extremely unstable and require excessive elevator control to change pitch.
C. extremely stable and require small elevator control to change pitch.
D. extremely stable and will require excessive elevator control to change pitch.

34. If an extra load is loaded into an aircraft the stall speed is likely to:
A. Stay the same.
B. Increase
C. Decrease.
D. Change depending on whether the load was placed FWD or AFT of the C of G.

35. For a given configuration, the stall speed of an aeroplane will be highest when loaded:
A. to a low total mass with the most forward CG.
B. to the maximum allowable mass with the most aft CG.
C. to a low total mass with the most aft CG.
D. to the maximum allowable mass with the most forward CG.

36. If the centre of gravity of an aeroplane moves forward during flight the elevator control will :
A. become heavier making the aeroplane more easy to manouevre in pitch.
B. become heavier making the aeroplane more difficult to manouevre in pitch
C. become lighter making the aeroplane more easy to manouevre in pitch.
D. become lighter making the aeroplane more difficult to manouevre in pitch.

37. The centre of gravity is the … on an aircraft through which the total … is considered to act
vertically …
A. datum; moment; downwards
B. point; moment; upwards
C. point; mass; downwards
D. datum; mass; upwards
38. For the following see-saw to be in balance
A. Fb = B x Fa / A
B. Fb = A + Fa / B
C. Fb = A x Fa / B
D. Fb = A x B / Fa

39. For the following see-saw to be in balance

A. Fc = 3Fa
B. Fc = Fa / 3A
C. Fc = 3 / Fa
D. Fc = Fa / 3

40. For the following see-saw to be in balance

A. A = B + Fb / Fa
B. A = B ( Fa + Fb)
C. A = B x Fb / Fa
D. A = B x Fa / Fb

41. If Center of Gravity (CG) is close to forward limit, what will be its effect?
A. Better climb rate
B. Reduction in specific fuel consumption
C. Reduction at climb rate
D. Reduction in induction drag

42. Dry Operating Mass (DOM) =

A. TOM –OM (Operating mass)
B. Take-Off Mass(TOM) – Useful load
C. Landing Mass(LM) + Trip fuel
D. Useful load – Operating mass

43. What is given name that determined by the manufacturer of the aircraft, specified in Aircraft
Flight Manual (AFM) and allowed to fly an aircraft and the forward and aft positions of center
of gravity ?
A. CG limits
B. Moment arm
C. Moment limits
D. Datum
44. What is the mass of a 2250 lt. fuel having a specific gravity of 0.82?
A. 18450 kg.
B. 1020 kg.
C. 1845 kg.
D. 2743 kg.

45. If the Centre of Gravity is in behind of the aft limit, which one of the following is not one of
its effects?
A. Decrease longitudinal static stability
B. Reduce range and endurance due to the extra drag.
C. It is easier to maintain the glide angle due to aircraft pitching upward trend.
D. Spin recovery becomes more difficult.

46. If trip fuel is subtracted from take-off mass, the result should not exceed:
A. Traffic load
B. Maximum landing mass
C. Maximum take-off mass
D. Zero fuel mass

47. In calculation before flight , if CG moves out of its limits during flight, it should be rearranged
until balancing. How do you make it?
A. All.
B. Adding mass.
C. Load or luggage in aircraft is moved to other location.
D. Removing mass.

48. What is the difference between DOM and ZFM?

A. Traffic load and crew
B. Traffic load
C. Crew only
D. Fuel only

49. C of G limits are set by the manufacturer and:

A. Are a guide only.
B. Have only an aft limit
C. Are mandatory.
D. Have only a forward limit.

50. The location of CG does not directly affect....

A. Lift generation
B. Controllability
C. Maneuverability
D. Stability

51. Which of the following parameter may cause a change in CG location within limits?
A. Pitch
B. Yaw
C. Fuel consumption
D. Roll

52. A wing contaminated by a small amount of ice will produce:

A. An increase in weight and decrease in drag.
B. More weight and more lift.
C. An increase in both lift and drag co-efficient.
D. More drag, more weight and less lift.

53. If a fuel tank is situated behind CG, as the fuel being burned:
A. CG travels backward, which creates nose down moment
B. CG travels forward, which creates nose down moment
C. CG travels forward, which creates nose up moment
D. CG travels forward, which creates nose up moment

54. You are required to fill 151 liters of AVGAS with the specific gravity of 0,72. How many
kilograms is this?
A. 131 kg
B. 289 kg
C. 151 kg
D. 109 kg
55. Dry operating weight plus total traffic load is:
A. zero fuel weight.
B. maximum take-off weight.
C. operating weight.
D. take-off weight.

56. The operating weight is:

A. the sum of dry operating weight and fuel weight.
B. the sum of dry operating weight, fuel weight and useful load.
C. the sum of dry operating weight, fuel weight and traffic load.
D. zero fuel weight.

57. Which weight definition includes crew and their baggage weight?
A. Useful load.
B. Traffic load.
C. Dry operating weight.
D. Empty weight.

58. Traffic load includes:

A. weight of catering devices and portable hygiene equipment and accessories.
B. none of them.
C. crew weight and their baggage weight.
D. crew weight and their baggage weight, weight of catering devices and portable hygiene
equipment

59. Weight measured at the nose wheel is 90 pounds, the measurement point is 40 inches from
the datum. Main gears are 95 inches away from the datum, and weight measures at main
gears is 700 pound on each side. How far will the CoG be from the datum?
A. 90 inches.
B. 88.7 inches.
C. 93.2 inches.
D. 91.6 inches.

60. A four-seater aeroplane reference plane is the plane of the spinner. Empty aircraft weight
and oil filled into the aircraft equal 1521.2 pounds, associated torque is 134855 pound-inch.
Fuel filled into the plane weighs 288 pounds, and its momentum is 95 inches. Planned load of
the first row of seats is 330 pounds, and its arm is 80.5 inches. Planned load of the first row
of seats is 150 pounds, and its arm is 118.1 inches. MTOW is 2300 pounds, maximum forward
CoG position is 82 inches, maximum aft CoG position is 93 inches. Can you takeoff in these
circumstances? How far will the CoG be from the reference plane?
A. No. 93.6 inches.
B. Yes. 90.2 inches.
C. Yes. 87.9 inches.
D. No. 92.4 inches.

61. Which statement is false?

A. Zero fuel weight is the sum of dry operating weight and useful load.
B. Zero fuel weight may incorporate a certain amount of fuel.
C. Zero fuel weight is the weight of the aeroplane minus usable fuel.
D. Zero fuel weight incorporates crew and their luggage weight.

62. Which force compensates the weight in unaccelerated straight and level flight?
A. Resultant from lift and drag
B. Thrust
C. Drag
 D. Lift

63. When considering the effects of increased mass on an aeroplane, which of the following is
true?
A. Stalling speeds will be lower.
B. Gradient of climb for a given power setting will be higher.
C. Stalling speeds will be higher.
D. Flight endurance will be increased.

64. An aircraft which has been grossly overloaded will:

1.require increased take-off and landing distances.

2. Have a higher stalling speed.

3. Have a reduced maximum level flight speed.

4. Have increased range and endurance.

5. Have a reduced rate of climb and operating ceiling.

Which of the above are correct?

A. 2, 4 & 5.
B. 1, 2, 3 & 4
C. 1, 2, 3, & 5.
D. 1, 2, 4 & 5.

65. Maximum Landing Mass (MLM) is best defined as.

A. Maximum permissible total mass on the approach to land.
B. Maximum permissible total mass on taxiing to park.
C. Maximum permissible total mass on landing under normal operating conditions.
D. Maximum permissible total mass on landing.

66. Maximum Zero Fuel Mass (MZFM) is best defined as.

A. Maximum permissible mass of the aircraft without occupants and baggage.
B. Maximum permissible mass of the aircraft with no crew or fuel.
C. Maximum permissible mass of the aircraft with no useable fuel.
D. Maximum permissible mass of the aircraft with no passengers or fuel.

67. Maximum Take Of Mass (MTOM) is defined best as:

A. Maximum permissible total mass at the point of rotation.
B. Maximum permissible total mass prior to taxiing.
C. Maximum permissible total mass at the start of the take off run.
D. Maximum permissible total mass prior to take off.
 68. Which of the following situations may, under certain conditions, result in structural damage
occurring?
A. An aircraft in the utility category being flown at its maximum permissible mass.
B. An aircraft in the normal category being flown at its maximum permissible mass.
C. An aircraft being flown above its maximum all up mass.
D. An aircraft being flown above its maximum landing mass.

69. Certification requirements stipulate that when loading a light aircraft:

A. All seats, baggage compartments and fuel tanks are contained within the C of G limits so that
it is impossible to load the aircraft beyond its limits.
B. That the Maximum Take-off Mass is not exceeded, and the CofG remains at least 5% inside
the C of G limits.
C. The C of G should remain within the defined limits and the Maximum Take-off Mass must not
be exceeded.
D. With maximum traffic load and full fuel the aircraft will not exceed the authorized Maximum
Takeoff Mass.

70. The Maximum Take-off Mass of an aircraft may be limited by:

A. All of the above.
B. Structural design load limits and or runway length, altitude and temperature.
C. The airworthiness condition of the aircraft.
D. The authorised performance category of the aircraft, i.e. Utility / normal / aerobatic.

71. What is used as the aircraft reference for the C of G limit, and upon which axis is that limit
found? Axis Reference
A. Longitudinal Datum
B. Vertical Wheels
C. Lateral Tail
D. Normal Spinner

72. An aircraft is loaded such that its C of G is on the aft limit:

I The stalling speed decreases, which is a negative factor.

II Range and endurance decrease, which are negative factors.

III The stall risk increases, which is a negative factor.

IV Stick forces increase, which is a negative factor.

A. Only II and III are correct.

B. Only I and IV are correct.
C. Only II and IV are correct.
D. All of the above are correct.
73. Which of the following cases will result in a reduced performance and possibly exceed the
structural limitations of the aircraft?
A. An aircraft that is stalled at its maximum all up weight.
B. An aircraft with a higher take-off mass than a landing mass.
C. An aeroplane that is operated above its maximum all up landing weight
D. An aircraft that is operated above its maximum all up weight.

74. A decrease in atmospheric pressure has, among other things, the following Consequences on
take-off performance:
A. an increased take-off distance and degraded initial climb performance
B. a reduced take-off distance and improved initial climb performance
C. an increased take-off distance and improved initial climb performance
D. a reduced take-off distance and degraded initial climb performance

75. Which of the following combinations will give the most limiting weight if identical slope and
wind component values exist?
A. a down-sloping runway with a tailwind component
B. a down-sloping runway with a headwind component
C. an up sloping runway with a headwind component
D. an up-sloping runway with a tailwind component

76. Changing the take-off flap setting from high flap like 20° to low flap like 10° will normally
result in :
A. a shorter take-off distance and a better climb.
B. a shorter take-off distance and an equal climb.
C. a better climb and an equal take-off distance.
D. a longer take-off distance and a better climb.

77. What will be the effect on an aeroplane's performance if aerodrome pressure altitude is
decreased?
A. It will increase the take-off ground run.
B. It will increase the take-off distance required.
C. It will decrease the take-off distance required.
D. It will increase the accelerate stop distance.

78. The length of a clearway may be included in:

A. the take-off run available.
B. the accelerate-stop distance available.
C. the take-off distance available.
D. the distance to reach lift-off speed.

79. How does runway slope affect allowable take-off mass, assuming other factors remain
constant and not limiting?
A. A downhill slope increases allowable take-off mass.
B. An uphill slope increases the allowable take-off mass.
C. Allowable take-off mass is not affected by runway slope.
D. A downhill slope decreases allowable take-off mass.

80. Which of the following parameters will decrease the take off ground run? 1- decreasing take
off mass 2- increasing take off mass 3- increasing density 4- decreasing density 5- increasing
flap setting 6- decreasing flap setting 7- increasing pressure altitude 8- decreasing pressure
altitude
A. 1, 4, 6 and 8
B. 1, 3, 5 and 8
C. 2, 3, 6 and 7
D. 2, 4, 5 and 7

81. In which of the following distances can the length of a stopway be included?
A. In the one-engine failure case, take-off distance.
B. In the all-engine take-off distance.
C. In the accelerate stop distance available.
D. In the take-off run available.

82. What effect will a higher aircraft mass have on the rotate speed and take off safety speed?
A. It will increase both speeds
B. It will decrease both speeds
C. It will increase rotate speed and decrease take off safety speed
D. It will decrease rotate speed and increase take off safety speed

83. That part of a runway surface which is used for normal operations during take off, excluding
any clearway or stopway, is referred to as:
A. the Emergency Distance Available (EMDA)
B. the Take-Off Run Available (TORA)
C. the Take-Off Distance Available (TODA)
D. the Accelerate-Stop Distance Available (ASDA)

84. Considering the take-off decision speed V1, which of the following is correct?
A. V1 is sometimes greater than the rotation speed VR.
B. If an engine failure is recognized before reaching V1, the take-off must be aborted.
C. V1 may not be less than V2min, the minimum take-off safety speed.
D. If an engine failure is recognized after reaching V1, the take-off must be aborted.

85. What will be the influence on the aeroplane performance if aerodrome pressure altitude is
increased?
A. It will decrease the take-off distance.
B. It will increase the take-off distance available.
C. It will increase the take-off distance.
D. It will decrease the take-off run.

86. Which of the following distances will increase if you increase V1, but VR remains unchanged?
A. All Engine Take-off distance
B. Take-off distance
C. Accelerate Stop Distance
D. Take-off run

87. Considering VR, which statement is correct?

A. VR is the lowest speed for directional control in case of engine failure.
B. VR is the speed at which rotation should be initiated.
C. In case of engine failure below VR the take-off should be aborted.
D. VR is the lowest climb speed after engine failure.

88. An airport has a 4000 metres long runway, and a 2500 metres clearway at each end of that
runway. For the calculation of the maximum allowed take-off mass, the take-off distance
available cannot be greater than:
A. 6000 metres.
B. 6500 metres.
C. 5250 metres.
D. 5500 metres.

89. Which of the following is in the correct order?

A. V1 < VR < VLOF < V2
B. V1 < VR < V2 < VLOF
C. VR < V1 < V2 < VLOF
D. V1 < VLOF < VR < V2

90. When making take-off calculations:

A. Wind is not an important factor for these calculations.
B. Runway length of the aerodrome does not affect take-off calculations.
C. Runway slope, surface type and condition must be considered.
D. Standard air temperature and sea level standards must be taken into consideration

91. "Clearway can be used for: "

A. None
B. "Taxiing "
C. "Landing "
D. "Waiting on an abrupt situation "

92. A rectangular area at the end of the runway that can be used during take-off is called ………..
It helps the aircraft to ………….. Pilot candidates often mix it with the ………….. that can be
used in case of an abandoned take-off.
A. Stopway / stop safely / clearway.
B. Clearway / make the initial climb / stopway.
C. Runway End Safety Area / land safely / clearway .
D. Isolated parking area / get checked following a bomb threat / stopway.

93. What would happen if you forget to extend flaps on take off?
A. Take off distance required decreases.
B. Aircraft lifts off ground at a slower speed.
C. Take off distance required increases.
D. Take off distance required stays constant.

94. The runway length which is used for take-off run, issued by the relevant authorities and has
adequate conditions is named:
A. Take-off Run Distance Available (TORA)
B. Landing Distance Available (LDA)
C. Accelarate and Stop Distance Available (ASDA)
D. Take-off Distance Available (TODA)

95. The runway extension which is used for stopping during take-off is:
A. Stopway
B. TODA
C. Clearway
D. TORA

96. When engine failure or any other emergency situation occurs during the takeoff run, the
speed that pilot decides whether to continue or not, is:
A. V2
B. VS
C. V1
D. VLOF

97. Which of the following is not one of the factors that affects lift force?
A. Relative air flow
B. Width, length and shape of the wing profile
C. Angle of attack
D. Width of vertical stabilizer

98. Which is not a factor affecting the angle of the climb?

A. Excess thrust
B. Wind
C. Altitude
D. Weight

99. Increasing temperature,

A. increases climb angle.
B. does not affect climb angle.
C. does not affect TODR.
D. increases TODR.

100. What is the relationship between take off speeds?

A. V2=VR
B. V1≤VR
C. V2≤V1
D. V2≤VR

101. In order to provide highest obstacle clearance, the best climb configuration from the
followings is...
A. Low flap setting at Vx
B. High flap setting at VY
C. High flap setting at Vx
D. Low flap setting at VY

102. What is the effect of a head wind component, compared to still air?
A. Headwind increases ground speed.
B. Headwind increases the clearance of obstacles.
C. Headwind decreases climb angle.
D. Headwind decreases IAS.

103. Which speed provides an aeroplane to reach max height in a short time?
A. V1
B. Vx
C. VMAX
D. VY

104. "Which atmospheric conditions provide best climb performance? "

A. Low pressure, high temperature, high density and low humidity
B. High pressure, low temperature, high density and low humidity
C. High pressure, high temperature, high density and high humidity
D. Low pressure, low temperature, low density and low humidity

105. Why are flaps retracted during climb when the aircraft reach the safety altitude and
speed?
A. It is the most appropriate time for the pilot because of low workload.
B. Extended flaps increase the parasite drag and increase in drag results lower climb angle and
ROC(Rate of climb).
C. Flaps retraction does not affect the climb performance.
D. Extended flaps reduce power available which engine can produce.

106. What is the proper use for the best-rate-of-climb speed (Vy)?
A. When trying to get cruising altitude quickly.
B. When approaching high mountains.
C. When clearing an obstacle.
D. When trying to avoid an excessive pitch attitude during a climb.

107. What effect will a higher aircraft mass have on rotate speed (VR) and take-off safety
speed(V2)?
A. It will decrease both speeds.
B. It will decrease rotate speed and increase take off safety speed.
C. It will increase both speeds.
D. It will increase rotate speed and decrease take off safety speed.

108. How does runway length affect the take-off performance?

A. The length of runway does not affect the takeoff performance.
B. Increase in runway length decreases the airplane’s headwind limit.
C. Decrease in runway length reduces the airplane’s crosswind limit.
D. Increase in runway length increases the field length limited TOM.

109. Flap selection for the take-off is very important, because.....

A. Flap settings other than optimum takeoff flap increase the takeoff distance required.
B. Higher flap settings always allow more traffic load.
C. Higher flap settings provide better climb performance.
D. Higher flap settings such as landing flap decrease the takeoff distance required.

110. How does increasing drag affect aircraft performance?

A. Increase range
B. Increase fuel consumption
C. Increase climb angle
D. Increase endurance flap settings provide better climb performance.

111. Which parameter does not affect V1 calculation?

A. Upslope of runway
B. VR
C. V2
D. Weight of aircraft

112. Which of the following is not correct?

A. Increase in length of stopway results longer LDA
B. Clearway is only used for take-off
C. Clearway does not take into account LDA
D. The length of runway directly affects allowable take-off weight

113. "Which of the following listed below is correct, when an aircraft is extra loaded? 1-
Performance of aircraft increase 2-TORA increase 3-Landing distance required increase 4-
ROC increase 5-endurance increase 6-Vs increase 7-Vmd increase "
A. 2-3-5
B. 1-3-4
C. 3-6-7
D. 1-6-7

114. Which of the performance variations is independent from the runway slope?
A. VR Rotation speed
B. V1 Decision speed
C. Landing distance
D. Take-off distance

115. Which equation is related with the calculation of climb angle?

A. (T-D)/W
B. (P-D)/W x TAS
C. (T-D)/W x TAS
D. (P-D)/L
116. Which speed limits V1?
A. V2
B. VS
C. VR
D. VLOF

117. Takeoff run is the distance between:

A. Brake release to reaching 50 feet
B. Brake release to reaching
C. Brake release to rotation
D. Brake release to unstick

118. With tailwind at take-off run:

A. GS is lower than IAS, so the aircraft needs shorter run than in wind calm conditions
B. GS is higher than IAS, so the aircraft needs shorter run than in wind calm conditions
C. GS is lower than IAS, so the aircraft needs longer run than in wind calm conditions
D. GS is higher than IAS, so the aircraft needs longer run than in wind calm conditions

119. An aircraft can climb 5500 feet in 12 minutes. What is the average rate of climb?
A. 580 fpm
B. 480 fpm
C. 460 fpm
D. 660 fpm

120. If there is no clearway designated on a runway, after the initial climb, the aeroplane
most reach 50 ft in the:
A. TORA section.
B. ASDA section.
C. LDA section.
D. TODA section.

121. When using appropriate flaps setting for take-off (compared with clean wing take-
off), take-off roll ..., and .... ground distance is required to finish the initial climb to 50 ft.
Take-off distance required in general ...
A. decreases - shorter - decreases.
B. increases - shorter - will not change.
C. decreases - longer - decreases.
D. increases - longer - increases.
122. What speed would you maintain if you wish reach the fastest rate of climb while
covering the shortest distance on the ground?
A. Vopt speed.
B. Veco speed.
C. Vx speed.
D. Vy speed.

123. What speed would you maintain if you wish to reach a given altitude in the shortest
possible time?
A. Vy speed.
B. Vopt speed.
C. Veco speed.
D. Vx speed.

124. By increasing aircraft weight:

A. Vx decreases and Vy increases.
B. Vx increases and Vy decreases.
C. Vx increases and Vy does not change.
D. both Vx and Vy increase.

125. While climbing, the climbing angle:

A. becomes lower in head wind, becomes steeper in tail wind.
B. becomes steeper in head wind, becomes lower in tail wind.
C. becomes steeper in tail wind, becomes steeper in head wind.
D. the wind has no effect on climbing angle.

126. How does the thrust of a propeller vary during take-off run, assuming unstalled flow
conditions at the propeller blades? The thrust:
A. has no change during takeoff and climb
B. varies with mass changes only
C. decreases while the aeroplane speed builds up
D. increases while the aeroplane speed builds up

127. When the density of the atmosphere is relatively low, the resulting reduction in:
A. Drag offsets the loss of engine power giving improved acceleration.
B. Drag will permit the use of greater flap angles.
C. Thrust and drag has no apparent effect on the take-off distance required.
D. Both lift and engine power will require a longer take-off distance.

128. The main reason for taking off into wind is to:
A. Decrease the ground speed of the aircraft at lift-off.
B. Increase the ground speed of the aircraft.
C. Decrease the take off distance available (TODA).
D. Increase the take-off distance.

129. Increasing the mass (and, therefore, weight) of the aircraft will:
A. Increase the rate of climb and decrease the angle of climb.
B. Decrease the rate of climb and increase the angle of climb.
C. Increase the rate and angle of climb.
D. Decrease the rate and angle of climb.

130. At takeoff from a short airfield with an airplane or a powered hang glider, which
airspeed should you fly until cleared of obstacles?
A. Best angle-of-climb speed (Vx).
B. Best climb speed (VY).
C. Minimum speed (VS).
D. Maneuvering speed (VA).

131. What is the influence of the wind on an aeroplane's rate of climb?

A. A tailwind will decrease the rate of climb.
B. A headwind will increase the rate of climb.
C. A tailwind will increase the rate of climb.
D. No effect.

132. What is the proper use for the best-rate-of-climb speed (Vy)?
A. When approaching high mountains.
B. When trying to get cruising altitude quickly.
C. When clearing an obstacle.
D. When trying to avoid an excessive pitch attitude during a climb.

133. The lift produced by the wing of an aeroplane that is climbing and maintaining a
constant airspeed will be:
A. Independent of weight.
B. Greater than weight.
C. Less than weight.
D. Equal to weight.

134. The stalling speed or the minimum steady flight speed at which the airplane is
Controllable in landing configuration is abbreviated as
A. VS1
B. VMC
C. VS
D. VSO

135. An increase in atmospheric pressure has, among other things, the following
consequences on landing performance:
A. a reduced landing distance and degraded go around performance
B. a reduced landing distance and improved go-around performance
C. an increased landing distance and improved go-around performance
D. an increased landing distance and degraded go-around performance

136. Stalling speed in landing configuration are certified with:

A. flap in clean configuration and gear down
B. flap in clean configuration and gear up
C. flap in take of position and gear down
D. flap in landing configuration and gear down

137. Why is trailing edge flap used for landing?

A. The approach speed is reduced and a steeper approach path is flown which improves
forward vision
B. The approach speed is increased and a flatter approach path is flown which improves
forward vision
C. The approach speed is reduced and a flatter approach path is flown which improves forward
vision
D. The approach speed is increased and a steeper approach path is flown which improves
forward vision

138. What effect would a 1% down-slope have on the landing distance required?
A. Decrease it by 5%
B. Decrease it by 10%
C. Increase it by 10%
D. Increase it by 5%

139. If the stalling speed in the landing configuration is 50 knots, VREF would be:
A. 71 knots
B. 65 knots
C. 75 knots
D. 69 knots

140. What is the effect of an increase in mass on the stalling speed and landing distance
required?
A. Increased stalling speed and decreased landing distance
B. Increased stalling speed and Increased landing distance
C. decreased stalling speed and Increased landing distance
D. decreased stalling speed and decreased landing distance

141. Which of the followings does not affect landing distance?

A. Landing mass and landing speed effect
B. Wind effect
C. The slope of the runway and hydroplaning effect
D. RPM effect

142. Which one is the correct statement about the landing performance?
A. The ground roll distance is the horizontal distance from touchdown to stop
B. The landing distance is the horizontal distance from brake release to the screen height
C. The ground roll distance is the horizontal distance from brake release to the screen height
D. The landing distance is the horizontal distance from touchdown to stop

143. In the landing configuration, if the speed of the aeroplane at threshold is greater than
Vref;
A. the aeroplane stops at same distance.
B. the aeroplane needs shorter distance to stop.
C. the aeroplane can not stop.
D. the aeroplane needs longer distance to stop.

144. If the actual landing mass is higher than planned,

A. the approach path will be steeper.
B. the approach path will be steeper and threshold speed higher.
C. the landing distance will be longer.
D. the landing distance will be unaffected.

145. In headwind the glide angle ………. and flyable distance ………
A. decreases - increases
B. remains unchanged - decrease
C. remains unchanged - increases
D. increases - decreases

146. With glide ratio of 12, how long we can glide from 4500 feet without engine?
A. 16.5 km
B. 37.5 km
C. 14.4 km
D. 15.7 km
147. GS 120 knots. You have to descend enroute from 8000 feet to 1000 feet. You can
descend 500 feet/min. What is the distance from A point to initiate descend, if you want
level off at 1000 feet over A?
A. 14 NM
B. 28 NM
C. 33 NM
D. 40 NM

148. A runway is contaminated with 0.5 cm of wet snow. The flight manual of a light twin
nevertheless authorises a landing in these conditions. The landing distance will be, in relation
to that for a dry runway:
A. substantially decreased
B. unchanged
C. increased
D. reduced

149. During landing on an airport with high elevation the true air speed (TAS) of an aircraft
is higher than normal. What indicated speed (IAS) should be kept in such cases?
A. Lower than normal.
B. Normal speed.
C. Higher than normal.
D. Increased for 5 kts for each 1,000 ft of airport elevation.

150. In order to maximise the glide range, the aircraft should be flown:
A. At high angles of attack at VMD.
B. At low angles of attack at VMP.
C. At a negative angle of attack at VMD.
D. At low angles of attack at VMD.

151. During gliding, extension of flap results in……

A. Does not affect glide distance
B. Reduce glide distance
C. Increase glide distance
D. Reduce glide angle

152. Compared to landing on a level runway, what would be the effect of landing on a
downward sloping runway?
A. The landing distance will be unaffected.
B. The landing performance will improve.
C. The landing distance will be decreased.
D. The landing distance will be increased.
153. What effect would a 2% downslope have on the landing distance required?
A. Decrease it by 10%.
B. Increase it by 5%.
C. Decrease it by 5%.
D. Increase it by 10%.

154. When landing, if an aircraft's true air speed is significantly less than the true ground
speed then the aircraft is experiencing:
A. A cross wind.
B. A tailwind.
C. A reduced atmospheric density.
D. A headwind.

155. A headwind component increasing with altitude, as compared to zero wind

condition, (assuming IAS is constant)
A. improves angle and rate of climb.
B. does not have any effect on the angle of flight path during climb.
C. decreases angle and rate of climb.
D. has no effect on rate of climb.

156. A constant tailwind

A. decrease the descent distance over ground.
B. increases the angle of descent.
C. increases the rate of descent.
D. decrease the angle of the descent.

157. The Density Altitude

A. is used to calculate the FL above the Transition Altitude.
B. is equal to the pressure altitude.
C. is used to determine the aeroplane performance.
D. is used to establish minimum clearance of 2.000 feet over mountains.

158. How does the best angle of climb and best rate of climb vary with increasing altitude?
A. Best angle of climb decreases while best rate of climb increases.
B. Best angle of climb increases while best rate of climb decreases.
C. Both decrease.
D. Both increase.

159. Assuming that the required lift exists, which forces determine an aeroplane's angle of
climb?
A. Weight and drag only.
B. Weight and thrust only.
C. Weight, drag and thrust.
D. Thrust and drag only.

160. How does the best angle of climb and best rate of climb vary with increasing altitude
for an aeroplane with a normal aspirated piston engine?
A. Both decrease.
B. Best angle of climb increases while best rate of climb decreases.
C. Best angle of climb decreases while best rate of climb increases.
D. Both increase.

161. The angle of climb with flaps extended, compared to that with flaps retracted, wil
normally be:
A. Not change.
B. Smaller.
C. Larger.
D. Increase at moderate flap setting, decrease at large flap setting.

162. Vx and Vy with take-off flaps will be:

A. higher than that for clean configuration.
B. changed so that Vx increases and Vy decreases compared to clean configuration.
C. same as that for clean configuration.
D. lower than that for clean configuration..

163. What speed, from the figure below, should be flown for maximum range?
A. B
B. C
C. A
D. D

164. What is the effect of tail wind on the time to climb to a given altitude?
A. The time to climb decreases.
B. The time to climb does not change.
C. The effect on time to climb will depend on the aeroplane type.
D. The time to climb increases.

165. Other factors remaining constant, how does increasing altitude affect Vx and Vy in
terms of TAS?
A. Both will remain the same.
B. Both will increase.
C. Vx will decrease and Vy will increase.
D. Both will decrease.

166. Considering TAS for maximum range and TAS for maximum endurance, other factors
remaining constant,
A. both will stay constant regardless of altitude.
B. TAS for maximum range will increase with increased altitude while TAS for maximum
endurance will decrease with increased altitude.
C. both will increase with increasing altitude.
D. both will decrease with increasing altitude.

167. Which one of the following is not affected by a tail wind?

A. The field limited take-off mass.
B. The climb limited take-off mass.
C. The take-off run.
D. The obstacle limited take-off mass.

168. Which of the following sets of factors will increase the climb-limited TOM (every
factor considered independently)?
A. Low flap setting, low PA, low OAT.
B. Low flap setting, high PA, low OAT.
C. High flap setting, low PA, low OAT.
D. Low flap setting, high PA, high OAT.

169. An aeroplane is in a power off glide at speed for minimum glide angle. If the pilot
increases pitch attitude the glide distance:
A. remains the same.
B. increases.
C. may increase or decrease depending on the type of aeroplane.
D. decreases.

170. Two identical aeroplanes at different masses are descending at idle thrust. Which of
the following statements correctly describes their descent characteristics ?
A. At a given angle of attack the lighter aeroplane will always glide further than the heavier
aeroplane.
B. At a given angle of attack the heavier aeroplane will always glide further than the lighter
aeroplane.
C. There is no difference between the descent characteristics of the two aeroplanes.
D. At a given angle of attack, both the vertical and the forward speed are greater for the heavier
aeroplane.

171. The maximum speed in horizontal flight occurs when:

A. The thrust is equal to the maximum drag.
B. The thrust is equal to minimum drag.
C. The thrust does not increase further with increasing speed.
D. The maximum thrust is equal to the total drag.

172. Increasing humidity ……… air density, and therefore it ………. the aircraft performance.
A. increases/decreases
B. decreases/increases
C. increases/increases
D. decreases/decreases

173. In which way can the density of the air affect aeroplane performance?
A. If density decreases, air pressure also decreases which affects aircraft performance
negatively.
B. Density does not have a special effect on performance.
C. If there is a decrease in density, it means the air is hotter so the engines can get warmer in a
short time which increases performance.
D. If density increases it means that the aircraft is in a high pressure altitude which decreases
the performance.

174. Which of these speeds is read on the indicator that is uncorrected against factors
such as altitude, air temperature and position errors?
A. EAS (Equivalent Air Speed)
B. CAS (Calibrated Air Speed)
C. IAS (Indicated Air Speed)
D. TAS (True Air Speed)

175. Which of these speeds is obtained from Calibrated Air Speed (CAS) with air density
and altitude corrections?
A. GS (Ground Speed)
B. TAS (True Air Speed)
C. EAS (Equivalent Air Speed)
D. IAS (Indicated Air Speed)

176. Which factor/factors should be considered by pilots relating with gliding

performance:
A. What is the endurance of the aircraft?
B. What will be the sink rate? Is it possible to make a successful landing with stopped engine
with this type of aircraft?
C. All
D. How far can the aircraft glide?
177. Which of the followings does not affect gliding perfomance?
A. Wind
B. Glide rate
C. Number of engines
D. Glide angle

178. Which of the followings does not affect maximum flight range?
A. Altitude
B. Aircraft mass
C. Heading
D. Temperature

179. A headwind component,

A. has no effect on climb angle and increases glide angle.
B. has no effect on climb and glide angles.
C. has no effect on glide angle and increases climb angle.
D. increases climb and glide angles.

180. The flight path angle

A. increases with a headwind .
B. is defined as the angle between longitudinal axis and relative airflow.
C. is defined as the angle between chord and relative airflow.
D. is not affected by headwind.

181. How can the forces acting on an aeroplane be balanced during a glide?
A. If there is no thrust, there is no drag.
B. Lift is equal to drag.
C. Weight is equal to lift.
D. Drag is equal to a component of weight.

182. Which one of these conditions increases the Vmd speed?

A. Decreasing mass only
B. Decreasing mass and down flap configuration
C. Down flap configuration only
D. Increasing mass and up flap configuration

183. The maximum speed in horizontal flight occurs when:

A. the drag is minmum.
B. the thrust is equal to minimum drag.
C. the thrust does not increase further with increasing speed.
D. the maximum thrust is equal to the total drag.
184. Regarding unaccelerated horizontal flight, Minimum Drag is:
A. a function of the pressure altitude.
B. a function of the density altitude.
C. dependent on aircraft mass.
D. independent of the aircraft mass.

185. Which term is used to describe the altitude where the rate of climb reduces to a
specified value higher than zero?
A. Pressurisation ceiling
B. Absolute ceiling
C. Aerodynamic ceiling
D. Service ceiling

186. What will be the effect of larger flap setting on the climb performance?
A. It increases the climb angle because of drag.
B. It decreases the climb angle because of lift.
C. It decreases the climb angle because of drag.
D. It increases the climb angle because of lift.

187. The maximum glide range will be achieved by:

A. A high descent angle.
B. Critical angle of attack being maintained.
C. Optimum angle of attack being maintained.
D. A negative angle of attack being maintained.

188. When a pilot wants to glide longer ground distance,

A. Pilot should fly at Minimum power speed(Vmp).
B. Pilot needs tailwind.
C. Pilot needs to adjust minimum rate of descent.
D. Pilot needs headwind

189. Absolute ceiling is…

A. The altitude at which the rate of climb is theoretically zero.
B. The altitude at which the rate of climb reduces to a specified value which is 100 fpm for
propeller aeroplanes.
C. The altitude at which the rate of climb reduces to a specified value which is 500 fpm for jet
aeroplanes.
D. The highest altitude at which engine can restart during flight
190. The TAS of aeroplane is 80kt. The wind component is -15 kt (headwind). Calculate
ground distance covered in an hour?
A. 95NM
B. 70 NM
C. 80NM
D. 65NM

191. An aeroplane flies at same cruising level in 20 min with a 90 kt TAS. If there is 15 kt
tailwind, calculate the ground distance covered.
A. 25NM
B. 35NM
C. 45NM
D. 30NM

192. What is absolute ceiling?

A. The maximum altitude at which aircraft can fly with one engine inoparative.
B. The maximum altitude at which no more climb is possible
C. The maximum altitude at which aircraft can maintain 500ft/min ROC.
D. The maximum altitude at which aircraft can maintain 100ft/min ROC.

193. What speed must be flown to attain the maximum cruise endurance?
A. Maximum speed.
B. VMP
C. VMD
D. VY.

194. Still air distance is 189 Nm in 30 minutes. What ground distance has been flown in 30
kts headwind?
A. 188 NM
B. 203 NM
C. 193 NM
D. 174 NM

195. In the ICAO flight plan the cruising speed should be filed in:
A. GS
B. TAS
C. IAS
D. CAS

196. In the ICAO flight plan the cruising speed of 90 knots should be entered as:
A. 090KN
B. N90
C. KN090
D. N090

197. QNH is 1013. What is the deviation in temperature according to ISA, If the measured
temperature is 0°C at 6000 feet AMSL?
A. No deviation
B. +3°C
C. -3°C
D. -7°C

198. Flight planning chart states, that it takes 36 minutes a 157 NM travelled in zero wind,
to climb desired level. What will be the distance travelled with an average tailwind of 60
knots?
A. 157 NM
B. 193 NM
C. 228 NM
D. 128 NM

199. As planned, CAS will be 150 knots, TAS will be 180 knots and GS will be 210 knots.
What value should be entered into flight plan?
A. 180 knots
B. an average value of them
C. 150 knots
D. 210 knots

200. Where can we find information about Sunset/Sunrise times?

A. VOLMET
B. NOTAM
C. AIP
D. METAR

201. What is the minimum visibility for VFR departure from an airport?
A. 5 kilometres
B. 8 kilometres
C. 1500 metres
D. 5000 feet

202. In the ATS flight plan item 10 (equipment) should be filled up with which letter to
indicate, that the aircraft has serviceable transponder C mode?
A. X
B. B
C. C
D. S

203. How many feet to be ascended to reach FL 75? (Departure elevation 1500ft,
QNH=1023, temperature is standard, 1 hPa = 30 ft)
A. 5800 ft
B. 6300 ft
C. 7800 ft
D. 5100 ft

204. What is wind velocity in knots if wind speed is 90 km/h?

A. 48 kts
B. 50 kts
C. 20 kts
D. 33 kts

205. Fuel flow is 24 l/h, the usable fuel is 120 l. What is your endurance?
A. 11 hours
B. 5 hours
C. 3 hours
D. 6 hours

206. Total estimated flight time of a leg is 1 hour 27 minutes. We have 45 minutes
navigational reserve. The aeroplane's fuel consumption is 5 US gallon / hour. What is the
total amount of fuel required for this flight?
A. 11 US gallon
B. 12.6 US gallon
C. 3.5 US gallon
D. 10.6 US gallon

207. In the appropriate box of a icao flight plan form, corresponding to estimated time of
departure, the time of which event to be filled in?
A. Go off blocks
B. Take-off
C. Reaching airspace boundary
D. Start-up

208. True heading is 270°. Magnetic Variation is 10°East. What is magnetic heading?
A. cannot be calculated
B. 260°
C. 270°
D. 280°

209. Which phenomena means real threat for low level VFR flights and should be avoided?
A. Thunderstorm
B. Jet streams
C. Convection
D. Advection
040 HUMAN FACTORS
PPL(A)
QUESTION BANK
1. Complete the following statement. In the ICAO Standard Atmosphere (ISA), as altitude
increases in the Troposphere, pressure:
A. stays the same.
B. also increases.
C. will not be affected as pressure is independent of altitude.
D. decreases.

2. Complete the following statement. At altitude the pressure of oxygen in the atmosphere is:
A. higher than at MSL
B. the same as at mean sea level (MSL).
C. lower than at MSL
D. unaffected, as partial pressure is independent of altitude.

3. At what altitude will atmospheric pressure be approximately half that at sea-level?

A. 10,000 ft.
B. 8,000 ft.
C. 18,000 ft.
D. 36,000 ft.

4. As an unpressurised aircraft climbs the amount of oxygen available to the pilot decreases
because of:
A. an increase in the proportion of nitrogen in the atmosphere.
B. a decrease in the proportion of oxygen in the atmosphere.
C. a decrease in atmospheric pressure.
D. a decrease in atmospheric temperature.

5. In which layer or layers of the atmosphere do conventional aircraft fly? i. The Troposphere ii.
The Stratosphere iii. The Ionosphere
A. i only.
B. ii and iii.
C. i and ii.
D. i and iii.

6. In the Earth's Atmosphere, how does the proportion of Oxygen in the air change with
altitude?
A. As altitude increases, the proportion of Oxygen in the air increases.
B. As altitude increases, the proportion of Oxygen in the air decreases.
C. In the Troposphere, the proportion of Oxygen in the air decreases with increasing altitude,
but remains constant throughout the Stratosphere.
D. There is no change in the proportion of Oxygen in the air with changing altitude. It remains
constant throughout the Atmosphere.
7. Complete the following statement. If the atmospheric pressure decreases, the partial
pressure of the oxygen in the atmosphere will:
A. decrease.
B. increase.
C. not be affected as it is independent of atmospheric pressure.
D. stay the same.

8. Which body system is responsible for distributing oxygen around the body?
A. The Respiratory System.
B. The Oxidation System.
C. The Nervous System.
D. The Circulatory System.

9. What is the composition of gas in the troposphere?

A. %21 O2 %78 Nitrogen % 1 Other gases
B. %78 O2 %21 Nitrogen % 1 Hydrogen
C. %21 O2 %78 Nitrogen % 1 Helium
D. %78 O2 %21 Nitrogen % 1 Other gases

10. That part of atmospheric pressure caused by the presence of Oxygen in the air is known as:
A. Liquid Oxygen.
B. Vacuum.
C. The Partial Pressure of Oxygen.
D. Air Pressure.

11. The percentage of all accidents caused by human factors is:

A. 20%-40%
B. 70%-80%
C. 90%-100%
D. 40%-50%

12. The percentage of Oxygen in the atmosphere remains at 21%, by volume:

A. Throughout the majority of the atmosphere
B. Up to 10 000 feet
C. Up to 18 000 feet
D. Up to 8 000 feet

13. The mechanism that maintains a constant flow of blood around the body is called:
A. The Reproduction System
B. The Nervous System
C. The Respiratory System
D. The Circulatory System

14. The main function of the red blood cell is to:

A. Assist in the clotting process
B. Deliver digested food products to the tissues
C. Produce antibodies to fight infections
D. Carry Oxygen to the tissues

15. The effects of Dalton's law can cause:

A. Hypoxia
B. Bends
C. Evolved gas disorders
D. Trapped gas disorders

16. What is the effect of increasing altitude on the total pressure and partial pressure of the
main gases in the atmosphere?
A. The total pressure will decrease and the partial pressures will decrease
B. The total pressure will decrease and the partial pressures will increase
C. The total pressure will decrease and the partial pressures will remain constant
D. The total pressure remains constant and the partial pressures will decrease

17. At an altitude where the pressure is half of that at sea level a person will have to
A. breathe pressurized oxygen
B. breathe pure oxygen
C. use supplementary oxygen
D. breathe slow to avoid hypoxia

18. Breathing pure oxygen (without pressure) will be sufficient up to an altitude of

A. 60000 FT
B. 40000 FT
C. 45000 FT
D. 80000 FT

19. What is a normal blood pressure?

A. Diastolic 80 mm Hg Systolic 120 mm Hg
B. Diastolic 80 mm Hg Systolic 140 mm Hg
C. Diastolic 140 mm Hg Systolic 80 mm Hg
D. Diastolic 120 mm Hg Systolic 80 mm Hg
20. The main function of haemoglobin is to :
A. To transport oxygen carbondioxide around the body
B. To expel unwanted carbolic acid
C. To transport carbon monoxide around the body
D. To prevention of decompression

21. Which statement about partial pressure is correct?

A. Partial pressure decreases approximately 2% per 1000 feet.
B. The sum of the partial pressure of individual gases, in a mixture of gases, is equal to the total
pressure.
C. Partial pressure of oxygen in air is always approximately 20%.
D. One can calculate the partial pressure of a gas in a mixture by using Boyles law.

22. Where in the lungs does gas exchange occur?

A. Bronchioles
B. Trachioles
C. Alveoli
D. Bronchi

23. Tidal volume is

A. The volume of air breathed when diving
B. The volume of air inhaled and exhaled with each normal breath
C. The volume of air inhaled with each normal breath
D. The volume of air exhaled with each normal breath

24. Henry’s Law has application in Human Performance to:

A. Hypoxia
B. Oxygen and carbon dioxide exchange in alveoli
C. Decompression Sickness (DCS)
D. Otic Barotrauma

25. How are oxygen and carbon dioxide transported throughout the body?
A. Oxidisation
B. Circulation
C. Metabolism
D. Diffusion

26. Which one of the following statements is false about pressure with altitude?
A. At 12 000 ft. the pressure is 2/4 of its sea-level value.
B. By 36 000 ft. the pressure is 1/4 of its sea-level value.
C. At 8 000 ft. the pressure is 3/4 of its sea-level value.
D. At 18 000 ft. the pressure is 1/2 of its sea-level value.

27. The International Standard Atmosphere (ISA) sea-level pressure is equal to:
A. 1014.00 mb.
B. 1013.25 mb.
C. 1014.25 Hpa.
D. 50 inches of mercury.

28. If a pilot's body is short of oxygen, he will suffer from:

A. Anoxia.
B. Hyperventilation.
C. Hypsigiena.
D. Hypoxia.

29. Suffering from the "bends" is a result of which gas coming out of solution from the blood?
A. Carbon monoxide.
B. Oxygen.
C. Nitrogen.
D. Carbon dioxide..

30. Which gas, which is absorbed by the body during normal breathing, plays an important role
in decompression sickness?
A. Carbon monoxide.
B. Carbon dioxide.
C. Oxygen.
D. Nitrogen.

31. hich of the following gases, causes to hyperventilations semptoms?

A. Nitrogen.
B. Carbon monoxide.
C. Carbon dioxide.
D. Hydrogen.

32.Hyperventilation is a problem which:

A. pilots should be familiar with and know how to control.
B. does not affect healthy people.
C. only occurs at altitudes higher than those at which normal light aircraft operations take
place.
D. only affects the elderly.
33. Following a deep dive, a scuba diver ascending too rapidly to the surface may suffer from a
condition known as "decompression sickness" or the "bends". The same condition may occur
in a pilot who flies too high very soon after scuba diving. Decompression sickness is caused
by the release of bubbles of which gas from the blood?
A. Carbon dioxide.
B. Water Vapour.
C. Nitrogen.
D. Oxygen.

34. At low altitudes if your passenger started to breathe abnormally and display some of the
signs of hypoxia, he is probably suffering from:
A. Hypothermia.
B. Hyperventilation.
C. Motion sickness.
D. Carbon monoxide poisoning.
35. Compared to a non-smoker, someone who smokes is likely to experience the effects of
hypoxia at…
A. the same altitude.
B. a lower altitude.
C. any altitude.
D. a higher altitude.

36. A likely symptom, or likely symptoms, of Hypoxia might be….

A. formication.
B. all of them.
C. cyanosis.
D. increased heart rate.

37. Why do aircrew and passengers suffer from lack of Oxygen at high altitude?
A. Because of the rapid decrease in temperature with altitude.
B. Because the air at altitude is thin.
C. Because of the decrease in the proportion of Oxygen in the air with increasing altitude,
D. Because of the lower atmospheric pressure at altitude.

38. The condition whereby the body does not receive enough oxygen to function correctly is
known as…
A. Hypoxia
B. Hypotension.
C. Hyperventilation.
D. Hyperglycaemia.

39. What would be the most likely initial symptoms of lack of oxygen?
A. Poor muscular control.
B. Nausea and a light-headed sensation.
C. Memory loss.
D. Difficulty in carrying out mental tasks, and loss of inhibitions.

40. A healthy pilot should be able to operate without suffering the effects of hypoxia up to
altitudes of:
A. 16 000 feet
B. 20 000 feet
C. 10 000 feet
D. 18 000 feet

41. Pilots need to breathe supplementary Oxygen when flying at high altitude because of:
A. The decreased temperature
B. A decrease in the proportion of Oxygen by volume
C. The upper limit of the Troposphere
D. Decreased atmospheric pressure, and a decrease in the partial pressure of Oxygen

42. Hypoxia is defined as:

A. The condition where there is insufficient Oxygen to meet the body’s needs
B. The altitude at which a person begins to show symptoms of decompression sickness
C. The condition where Carbon Monoxide replaces Oxygen in the white cells
D. The condition where Carbon Dioxide will not bind to hemoglobin

43. At low altitude, the most common symptoms of hyperventilation include:

A. Dizziness, visual disorder, anxiety, tingling around feet, hands and lips
B. Motion sickness, poor visual acuity, heat and scuba diving
C. Feeling of well-being, shock, heat and poor visual acuity
D. Anxiety, scuba diving, vibration and poor visual acuity

44. What is the most correct regarding hypoxia?

A. It is an abnormal reduction of the haemoglobin content of the red blood cell
B. It causes chest pain
C. It is the result of insufficient oxygen in the blood stream
D. It is caused by too much CO2 in the air

45. What is hyperventilation?

A. A condition which prevents the diffusion of O2 from the lungs to the bloodstream.
B. Excessive rate and depth of respiration leading to abnormal loss of CO2 from the blood.
C. A reduction in the O2 carrying abilities of the blood.
D. Elevated arterial blood pressures, both systolic and diastolic.

46. The most dangerous symptoms of hypoxia at altitude are

A. Hyperventilation.
B. Sensation of heat and blurred vision
C. Euphoria and impairment of judgement
D. Breathlessness and reduced night vision

47. “Time of Useful Consciousness” after a decompression at 35.000 Ft is

A. between 30 and 60 seconds
B. less than 20 seconds
C. approximately 5 minutes
D. approximately 3 minutes

48. Where does the exchange of oxygen and carbondioxide+water vapour take place?
A. The arteries
B. The capillaries
C. The pulmonary veins and arteries
D. The veins

49. At what height is the partial pressure of oxygen in the lungs approximately half that at sea
level?
A. 34.000 feet
B. 18.000 feet
C. 8.000 feet
D. 10.000 feet

50. What increases the risk of decompression sickness occurring in flight?

A. Alcohol
B. Smoking
C. Snorkel diving shortly before flight
D. Scuba diving shortly before flight

51. What is the other name of “Anemic hypoxia”?

A. Histotoxic hypoxia
B. Stagnant hypoxia
C. Hypoxic hypoxia
D. Hypemic hypoxia

52. Approximately how long can the human brain survive without severe damage after being
totally deprived of oxygen?
A. 14 minutes
B. 8 minutes
C. 4 minutes
D. 1 minute

53. TUC following loss of pressurisation at 35.000 ft is:

A. 5 minutes upwards.
B. 10 - 15 seconds.
C. 30 - 60 seconds.
D. 3 - 4 minutes.

54. Anxiety and fear can cause:

A. hypoxia.
B. hyperventilation.
C. spatial disorientation.
D. hypoglycaemia.

55. A pilot, climbing in a non-pressurised aircraft and without using supplemental oxygen will
pass the critical threshold at approximately:
A. 5000 ft.
B. 38 000 ft.
C. 25 000 ft.
D. 22 000 ft.

56. Which one of the following statement is incorrect about thresholds of oxygen requirements?
A. 10 000 ft to 33 700 ft - oxygen/air mixture under pressure
B. Up to 10 000 ft. - air only
C. 33 700 ft to 40 000 ft - 100% oxygen
D. Above 40 000 ft - 100% oxygen under pressure

57. Which one of the following statements is true for hyperventilation?

A. The reduction of oxygen in the blood causes hyperventilation
B. The reduction of carbon dioxide in the blood causes hyperventilation.
C. Hyperventilation caused by insufficient oxygen in body tissues.
D. Paper bag usage does not influence the effects of hyperventilation.

58. Which one of the following statements is incorrect in terms of susceptibility to

decompression sickness following scuba diving?
A. Single diving up to 10 meters (30 feet): 12 hours refrain from flying.
B. Multiple diving up to 10 meters (30 feet): 12 hours refrain from flying.
C. Single or multiple diving over 10 meters (30 feet): 24 hours refrain from flying.
D. Multiple diving up to 10 meters (30 feet): 24 hours refrain from flying.
59. Which gas law is responsible for the decompression sickness (DCS)?
A. Henry's gas law
B. Dalton's gas law
C. Bohr's gas law
D. Boyle-Mariotte's gas law

60. If the atmospheric pressure decreases, the partial pressure of the oxygen in the atmosphere
will:
A. Not be affected as it is independent of atmospheric pressure.
B. Decrease.
C. Stay the same.
D. Increase.

61. Which of the following is NOT a symptom of hyperventilaton?

A. Disturbance of consciousness
B. Tingling
C. Spasm
D. Cyanose

62. Which gas, which is absorbed by the body during normal breathing, plays an important role
in decompression sickness?
A. Carbon Monoxide.
B. Oxygen.
C. Nitrogen.
D. Carbon Dioxide.

63. Which of the following symptoms may indicate hypoxia?

A. Blue marks all over the body
B. Joint pain in knees and feet
C. Blue discolouration of lips and fingernails
D. Muscle cramps in the upper body area

64. Which altitude marks the lower limit where the the body is unable to completely
compensate the effects of the low atmospheric pressure?
A. 22000 feet
B. 7000 feet
C. 5000 feet
D. 12000 feet

65. Which body system is responsible for distributing oxygen around the body?
A. The Circulatory System.
B. The Nervous System.
C. The Respiratory System.
D. The Oxidation System

66. Which part of the nervous system usually controls breathing?

A. The Central Nervous System.
B. The Autonomic Nervous System.
C. Primary Nervous System.
D. The Peripheral Nervous System.

67. Which of the following gases regulate the rate and depth of breathing, depending on the
levels at which the gas is present in the blood?
A. Nitrogen.
B. Oxygen.
C. Carbon Dioxide.
D. Carbon Monoxide.

68. What is the function of the red blood cells (erythrocytes)?

A. Blood sugar regulation
B. Oxygen transport
C. Blood coagulation
D. Immune defense

69. What is the function of the white blood cells (leukocytes)?

A. Blood sugar regulation
B. Blood coagulation
C. Immune defense
D. Oxygen transport

70. Anemic hypoxia can be caused by...

A. alcohol.
B. high altitudes.
C. low pressure.
D. carbon monoxide poisoning.

71. The condition whereby the body does not have enough oxygen to function correctly is known
as:
A. Hypoxia.
B. Hypotension.
C. Hyperventilation.
D. Hyperglycemia.
72. Above what altitude do pilots need to breath supplementary oxygen?
A. 2,000 ft.
B. 20,000 ft.
C. 8,000 ft.
D. 10,000 ft.

73. Which type of hypoxia can be caused by high altitude?

A. Hypoxic hypoxia
B. Stagnating hypoxia
C. Anemic hypoxia
D. Histotoxic hypoxia

74. You are taking a friend flying and are cruising at 6,000 ft. Your passenger begins suffering
from a tingling sensation, dizziness and visual disorders and then becomes unconscious. Your
passenger is probably suffering from:
A. Hyperventilation.
B. Angina.
C. Food poisoning.
D. Hypoxia.

75. A risk factor for decompression sickness is...

A. scuba diving prior to flight.
B. smoking.
C. sports.
D. 100 % oxygen after decompression.

76. What part of the eye is responsible for the greatest part of the focusing?
A. Iris
B. Cornea
C. Pupil
D. Lens

77. What is the name of the part of the retina on which best acuity is achieved?
A. Optic nerve
B. Fovea
C. Optic centre
D. Optic chiasma

78. The iris is responsible for controlling:

A. The amount of light entering the eye
B. The rate of light adaption
C. The amount of accommodation
D. The rate of dark adaption

79. In order to see an object best, at night, a pilot should:

A. Look directly and intensely at the object
B. Look directly at the object, blinking several times
C. Look away from the object and then repeatedly look back at it
D. Look slightly to one side of the object

80. The ability of the lens to change shape to focus an image on the retina is called:
A. Acclimatization
B. Acuity
C. Auto-kinesis
D. Accommodation

81. The sensors called ‘Rods’:

A. Are concentrated on the optic nerve
B. Are highly sensitive to colour changes
C. Are sensitive to lower light levels than the ‘Cones’
D. Are used primarily by day

82. A person who has ‘Myopia’:

A. Has a shorter than normal eyeball and vision is corrected with a Convex lens
B. Has a longer than normal eyeball and vision is corrected with a Concave lens
C. Has a longer than normal eyeball and vision is corrected with a Convex lens
D. Has a shorter than normal eyeball and vision is corrected with a Concave lens

83. Astigmatism is the name for:

A. An eyeball which is too short
B. Colour blindness
C. The ability of the lens to change shape
D. A mis-shapen cornea

84. The light-sensitive tissue lining the rear of the eyeball which contains rods and cones is
known as:
A. Iris
B. The retina
C. Cornea
D. Pupil
85. To maintain spatial orientation in the absence of visual references, the pilot should
A. Believe the aircraft instruments
B. Immediately climb to get above cloud
C. Believe the “seat of the pants” sensation from the somatosensory system
D. Believe the sensation of his vestibular apparatus

86. An illusion is:

A. When perception is not the same as the real world
B. A deliberate modification of the truth to catch out the unwary pilot
C. The difference between divided and selective attention
D. A condition arising when deprived of visual or auditory stimuli

87. If a pilot flies a visual approach to a runway which has a pronounced upward slope of which
he is unaware, what will be the likely result?
A. The pilot will fly an approach which is steeper than intended, leading to the possibility of
overshooting.
B. The pilot will fly an approach which is steeper than intended, leading to the possibility of
undershooting.
C. The pilot will fly an approach which is shallower than intended, leading to the possibility of
undershooting.
D. The pilot will fly an approach which is shallower than intended, leading to the possibility of
overshooting.

88. If a pilot flies a visual approach to a runway which has a pronounced downward slope which
he is unaware, what will be the likely result?
A. The pilot will fly an approach which is shallower than intended, leading to the possibility of
overshooting.
B. The pilot will fly an approach which is shallower than intended, leading to the possibility of
undershooting.
C. The pilot will fly an approach which is steeper than intended, leading to the possibility of
overshooting.
D. The pilot will fly an approach which is steeper than intended, leading to the possibility of
undershooting.

89. If a pilot is flying above a layer of stratus cloud with a sloping upper surface, how is the pilot
most likely to misperceive the visual image?
A. The pilot may feel that he is descending and initiate a climb.
B. The pilot may mistake the upper surface of the cloud layer as the “true” horizon and apply
bank as he selects an attitude which puts the aircraft’s wings parallel to the cloud surface.
C. The pilot may mistake the slope as a lowering cloud base, and divert to an alternate airfield.
D. The pilot may feel that he is climbing and initiate a descent.
90. Hazy conditions may lead a pilot to perceive:
A. Objects outside the aircraft as being more numerous than they actually are
B. Objects outside the aircraft in exactly the same way as in conditions of good visibility
C. Objects outside the aircraft as being closer than they actually are
D. Objects outside the aircraft as being further away than they actually are

91. How will a pilot perceive a runway to which he is flying an approach, but which is smaller
than the runways he is used to?
A. The pilot will get the impression that he is low and close
B. The runway will appear further away than it is in reality
C. The runway will appear nearer than it is in reality
D. The pilot will perceive no difference between this runway and the ones he is used to

92. How will a pilot perceive a runway to which he is flying an approach, but which is bigger than
the runways he is used to?
A. The pilot will perceive no difference between this runway and the ones he is used to
B. The pilot will get the impression that he is high and distant
C. The runway will appear nearer than it is in reality
D. The runway will appear further away than it is in reality

93. Sitting below the eye datum point:

A. Means that part of the undershoot may be obscured, on the approach
B. Prevents the pilot’s head from coming into contact with the cockpit roof
C. Means that part of the overshoot may be obscured, on the approach
D. Allows faster egress from the cockpit in an emergency

94. Which of the following occur(s) when a pilot is sitting too high in a cockpit? i) Good
downward outside view ii) Poor view of instruments iii) Upwards outside view obstructed
A. i and ii only
B. i, ii and iii
C. ii and iii only
D. i only

95. Hypermetropia is commonly called

A. Colour blindness.
B. Farsightedness.
C. Near-sightedness.
D. Nutritional deficiency.

96. A sloping cloud formation, an obscured horizon and a dark scene spread with ground lights
and stars can create an illusion known as:
A. Coriolis illusion
B. False horizon
C. Elevator illusion
D. Autokinesis

97. When on the approach to a runway with an upward slope, the visual illusion created by this
might cause you to:
A. make a higher and shallower approach than normal
B. overshoot the runway
C. make a quicker and steeper approach than normal
D. make a lower and shallower approach than normal

98. If a runway is wider than expected, then a pilot will tend to...
A. fly a higher approach than normal, with the possibility of over shooting the runway.
B. fly a higher approach than normal, with the possibility of landing short of the runway.
C. fly a higher approach than normal, with the possibility of under shooting the runway.
D. fly a lower approach than normal, with the possibility of over shooting the runway.

99. Which of the following will give the illusion that the aircraft is too low during an approach?
A. A brightly lit aerodrome in an otherwise dark area
B. A down-sloping runway
C. A narrower than normal runway
D. An up-sloping runway

100. The eye adapts to differing light levels by:

A. The lens becomes progressively opaque
B. Chemical changes in the pupil.
C. Chemical changes in the retina
D. A misshapen of cornea

101. The part of the eye where we have the best visual acuity is:
A. The fovea.
B. The peripheral retina.
C. The iris.
D. The pupil.

102. Adaptation is ;
A. the adjustment of the crystalline lens to focus light on the retina.
B. the change of the diameter of the pupil.
C. the adjustment of the eyes to high or low levels of illumination.
D. the reflection of the light at the cornea.
103. Hypermetropia and Myopia are normally caused by:
A. A misshapened eye ball.
B. Stress.
C. Badly fitting spectacles.
D. Eye strain.

104. Color-blindness or, more accurately, color-defective vision, is caused by:

A. A defect in the structure of the color-sensitive cones in the retina.
B. Defective functioning of the ciliary muscles.
C. A foreshortened eyeball.
D. A defect in the lens tissue of the eye.

105. Hypermetropia and Myopia are normally caused by:

A. Eye strain.
B. Stress.
C. A misshapened eye ball.
D. Badly fitting spectacles.

106. Which part of the visual system is responsible for colour vision?
A. Macula
B. Blind spot
C. Rods
D. Cones

107. What is the component of the eye responsible for peripheral vision and sensitive to
low light levels?
A. The Retina.
B. The Fovea.
C. The Rods.
D. The Cones.

108. Accommodation is the power of the lens to focus rays of light from near objects onto
the Fovea. Accommodation is controlled by:
A. The Iris.
B. The Ciliary muscles.
C. The Rods and Cones.
D. The Retina.

109. An acceleration during a straight horizontal flight can lead to the illusion of...
A. an inverted flight.
B. a climb.
C. a descent.
D. a bank.

110. A deceleration during a straight horizontal flight can lead to the illusion of...
A. an inverted flight.
B. a climb.
C. a descent.
D. a bank.

111. What is the most important sense for spatial orientation?

A. Sight
B. All senses play their part in situation awareness.
C. "Seat of the pants".
D. Hearing and balance.

112. What impression may be caused when approaching a runway with an upslope?
A. A landing beside the centerline
B. An overshoot
C. A hard landing
D. An undershoot

113. A Grey-out is the result of...

A. hyperventilation.
B. tiredness.
C. hypoxia.
D. positive g-forces.

114. What time is required approximately for the eyes to adapt to brightness?
A. 1 minute
B. 10 minutes
C. 1 second
D. 10 seconds

115. Motion sickness arises when there is:

A. Disorientation caused by loss of visual references
B. Vertical displacement from the horizontal axis
C. Vertical displacement from the longitudinal axis
D. A mismatch between visual and vestibular signals
116. One of the main contributory factors to the onset of motion sickness is:
A. The mismatch between visual and vestibular sensory inputs.
B. Stalling.
C. Performing high g maneuvers.
D. Rolling quickly into turns.

117. Motion sickness is caused by

A. Instability in the brain cells which affect balance and will generally be overcome with
experience.
B. The movement of an aircraft causing the stomachache
C. Continued stimulation of the tiny portion of the inner ear which controls sense of balance.
D. Create an acid substance which causes the stomach lining to contract.

118. After donating blood, what is the minimum time a pilot should wait before flying?
A. 2 hours.
B. 48 hours.
C. 24 hours.
D. 12 hours.

119. Complete the following statement. When a person is experiencing stress or fear,
adrenaline is released into the blood stream causing immediate:
A. decrease in the pulse-rate.
B. fatigue.
C. increase in the pulse-rate.
D. loss of consciousness.

120. What are the two biological functions for sleep?

A. Sleep reduces homeostasis in the bodies’ internal and external environment
B. Sleep refreshes short term memory
C. Sleep reduces the body functions and increases the long term memory store
D. Sleep refreshes the body and the brain

121. Complete the following statement. After SCUBA diving to a depth of just over 30 ft,
using compressed air, it is recommended that a person does not fly for:
A. 48 hours.
B. 6 hours.
C. 24 hours.
D. 12 hours.

122. The condition of Gastroenteritis makes a pilot:

A. Fit to fly if no attack has been experienced for an hour
B. Fit to fly
C. Fit to fly provided appropriate medication is being taken
D. Unfit to fly

123. If a pilot is suffering from a cold or flu, he:

A. Is fit to fly if he can clear his ears
B. Is fit to fly if taking appropriate medication
C. Is unfit to fly
D. Is fit to fly if no sneezing has being experienced for one hour

124. For what period of time must a pilot refrain from flying after being given an
anesthetic?
A. 24 hours following both local anesthetic and a general anesthetic
B. 12 hours following a local anesthetic and 48 hours following a general anesthetic
C. 12 hours following a local anesthetic and 24 hours following a general anesthetic
D. 24 hours following a local anesthetic and 48 hours following a general anesthetic

125. Where can you find medical fitness requirements for pilots?
A. JAR-FCL 4
B. JAR-FCL 1
C. JAR-FCL 2
D. JAR-FCL 3

126. When Trapped intestinal gases can cause severe pain?

A. At lower altitudes
B. During descent as well as during climb, when the cabin pressure altitude is exceeding 2.000
FT
C. Only in pressurized aircraft when flying at higher flight levels
D. More frequent when flying above 18.000 FT in a non pressurized aircraft

127. Blood pressure may be increased due to:

A. all of them
B. Age
C. Stress
D. Smoking

128. The ability of a pilot to withstand even moderate forces can be affected by:
A. The maximum load limits of the aircraft
B. Fatigue in the pilot
C. Presbycusis
D. all of them.
129. Which of the following conditions is the most common form of sudden pilot
incapacitation?
A. Gastroenteritis.
B. Stroke.
C. Collapsed lung.
D. Heart attack.

130. Why is it important that a pilot should not fly when he/she has a cold?
A. The pressure between the inner ear and the middle ear may not be equalised.
B. The pressure between the lungs and the atmospheric air may not be equalised.
C. The pressure between the inner ear and the atmospheric air may not be equalised.
D. The pressure between the middle ear and the atmospheric air may not be equalised.

131. A pilot suffering from gastro-enteritis is...

A. fit to fly unless he is taking medication.
B. not fit to fly.
C. probably ok to fly.
D. fit to fly as long as the pilot feels fit enough.

132. In-flight incapacitation of a pilot is most frequently caused by ;

A. chronic pulmonary disorders.
B. cardio-vascular disorders.
C. acute gastrointestinal disorders.
D. behavioural disorders.

133. The chemical substance responsible for addiction to tobacco is:

A. tar
B. the combination of nicotine, tar and carbon monoxide
C. carbon monoxide
D. nicotine

134. Which of the following options does NOT require an immendiate consultation of an
aeromedical examiner?
A. First prescription of glasses
B. Pregnancy
C. Preventive dental screening
D. Regular intake of medication

135. Which of the following may cause fainting?

A. Altitude change.
B. A sudden shock.
C. A too rapid eye scan.
D. Over meticulous flight planning.

136. Carbon monoxide is dangerous because:

A. Its smell and taste are not easily recognizable to the inexperienced pilot
B. Hemoglobin has 10 times the affinity for it than it has for Oxygen
C. Hemoglobin has 110 times the affinity for it than it has for Oxygen
D. Hemoglobin has 210 times the affinity for it than it has for Oxygen

137. Smoking reduces red blood cell ability to carry oxygen because:
A. CO takes a larger lung volume.
B. haemoglobin has a greater affinity for CO.
C. CO gets trapped in the alveoli and restricts internal respiration.
D. the inspiratory tract becomes obstructed.

138. Hemoglobin has a preference to carbon monoxide over oxygen by a factor of

A. 210-250
B. 150-180
C. 120-80
D. 100-120

139. Compared to a non-smoker, someone who smokes is likely to experience the effects
of hypoxia at:
A. A lower altitude.
B. A higher altitude.
C. Any altitude.
D. The same altitude.

140. Perception is one of the most important aspects of information processing because:
A. It incorporates selective, divided and focused attention
B. Sensory information is modelled into a meaningful structure
C. Good judgements and decisions are made at this stage
D. Corrective actions and responses are carried out at this stage

141. Waiting for take-off on the runway, a pilot is informed by the tower that the tail wind
component is 12 kt. According to the manual, the limitation is 10 kt max. The pilot makes a
decision to take-off anyway, as the runway is long. What type of error is?
A. A violation
B. Hazardas behaviour
C. An error of reasoning
D. A decision error

142. A selective attentional mechanism is required:

A. because of the limited capacity of the central decision maker and working memory
B. because the capacity of the long term memory is limited
C. because of limitations in our store of motor programmes
D. because of the limitations of the sense organs

143. The quality of learning:

A. is promoted by feedback on the value of one's own performance
B. depends on long-term memory capacity
C. is independent of age
D. is independent of the level of motivation

144. The first stage in the information process is:

A. perception
B. selective attention
C. sensory stimulation
D. the recognition of information

145. What is the main adverse effect of expectations in the perception mechanism?
A. The unconscious mechanism of attention leads to focus on all relevant information
B. They always lead to routine errors
C. Expectations often guide the focus of attention towards a particular aspect, while possible
alternates are neglected
D. The attention area is enlarged, thus it will lead to an uncertainty in regard to necessary
decisions

146. Cognitive and physical rehearsal of actions during training ;

A. is more effective than practical training.
B. leads to an increased error rate.
C. is most important for self-control.
D. is most important for the acquisition of complex perceptual motor skills.

147. Which one of the following stages is not the stage of information processing?
A. Perception
B. Detection
C. Action
D. Cognition
148. Which one of the following is not included in the learning types?
A. Scanning
B. Insight
C. Imitation
D. Operant conditioning

149. “Chunking” is:

A. The associative phase of learning a skill
B. The grouping of check list items to reduce turn round time
C. A method of increasing the number of unrelated items held in working memory
D. A bizarre method of word association technique

150. The three parts of long-term memory are classified as:

A. Ultra short, short and working
B. Selective, divided and focused
C. Semantic, episodic and procedural
D. Static, dynamic and motor

151. Mental Overload usually…

A. Has no effect on performance
B. Causes changes in the speed and accuracy of performance which vary from individual to
individual
C. Leads to better performance
D. Leads to degraded performance

152. Hypovigilance:
A. may occur at any moment of the flight.
B. tends to occur at the end of the mission as a result of a relaxation in the operators attention.
C. essentially occurs several minutes after the intense take-off phase.
D. only affects certain personality types.

153. A selective attention mechanism is required:

A. because of limitations in our store of motor programmes.
B. because of the limited capacity of the central decision maker and working memory.
C. because of the limitations of the sense organs.
D. because the capacity of the long term memory is limited.

154. Highest workload demand normally occurs at

A. Take-off
B. Climb
C. Approach and landing
D. Cruise

155. Our central decision making channel can time-share between a number of task. it
would appear that he/she is working on a number of tasks at the same time. Which one of
the following respons is true?
A. Time Sharring
B. Devided attention
C. Selective attention
D. Vigilance

156. Communication efficiency is most sensitive to ;

A. packaging of phrases.
B. packaging of words.
C. workload and interruptions.
D. packaging of sentences.

157. Where on the arousal/performance graph is a pilot best placed to cope with a
difficult task without performance degrading?
A. Below the breakpoint
B. At the breakpoint
C. At any point on the graph
D. Beyond the breakpoint

158. The first cockpit tool that tends to suffer as a result of stress:
A. Cockpit effectiveness
B. Cockpit synergy
C. Cockpit communications
D. Cockpit cohesion

159. In short term memory, a person can approximately store:

A. 9 items for 1-5 minutes
B. 7 items for 1-5 minutes
C. 9 items for 10-20 seconds
D. 7 items for 10-20 seconds

160. Mental Overload usually:

A. Leads to better performance.
B. Has no effect on performance.
C. Not affected.
D. Leads to degraded performance.
161. Which one of the following is not part of the nervous system?
A. Systemic system
B. Central nervous system
C. Autonomous nervous system.
D. Peripheral nervous system.

162. Which organ controls all other bodily functions?

A. The spinal cord.
B. The lungs.
C. The brain.
D. The heart.

163. What is the correct term for the system which, among others, controls breathing,
digestion, and heart frequency?
A. Critical nervous system
B. Automatical nervous system
C. Compliant nervous system
D. Autonomic nervous system

164. The human circadian cycle is based on a cycle of approximately...

A. 13 hours.
B. 22 hours.
C. 10 hours.
D. 25 hours.

165. A false perception characterised by a distortion of real sensory stimuli is known as:
A. Boredom response.
B. Mirage.
C. Hallucination.
D. Day-dreaming.

166. What are the categories into which stress is divided?

A. Mental and physical
B. Severe and chronic
C. Acute and severe
D. Acute and chronic
167. Select from the following list environmental stressors? 1-Heat 2-Humidity 3-Divorce
4-Lack of rest 5-Loss of job 6-Noise
A. 1, 2, 4, 6
B. 1, 2, 3, 6
C. 1, 2, 3, 5, 6
D. 1, 2, 6

168. A moderate level of arousal will:

A. Lead to a breakdown in health over a period of time
B. Lead to slow processing of sensory information
C. Produce interest in external events and performing tasks
D. Lead to deterioration of performance due to narrowing of attention

169. Having successfully overcome a stressful situation once, how will the person react if
placed in the same or similar situation a second time?
A. There will be a little difference
B. Experience can not affect reaction to stress
C. Stress will increase because he will be afraid of what he knows lies ahead
D. Stress will reduce because, having already successfully overcome the stressful situation, he
will be confident he can do so again

170. The relationship between arousal and performance means:

A. Performance is degraded by under-arousal and improved by over-arousal
B. Performance is degraded by both under and over-arousal
C. Performance is improved by both under and over-arousal
D. Performance is improved by under-arousal and degraded by over-arousal

171. Fatigue and stress ;

A. do not affect hypoxia at all.
B. increase the tolerance to hypoxia.
C. lower the tolerance to hypoxia.
D. will increase the tolerance to hypoxia when flying below 15.000 feet.

172. Cognitive Coping is associated with ;

A. a deliberate removal of the stressor.
B. taking medicine to relieve the effects of stress.
C. eliminating the source of the stressor.
D. ignoring or rationalising the stress factor.

173. Give an example of vigilance:

A. An example of vigilance would be to continuously scan for other aircraft during long flight
B. Dividing your attention between technical and non-technical duties
C. An example of vigilance would be when a crew member plans ahead and is anticipating what
will or could happen
D. A vigilant crew member notifies the entire crew of a problem

174. In a complex task high levels of arousal:

A. reduce failures
B. lead to better decision-making
C. narrow the span of attention
D. improve performance

175. The individual's perception of stress depends:

A. the conditions of the current situation only
B. the pilot's increasing level of arousal
C. the subjective evaluation of the situation and one's abilities to cope with it
D. the objective evaluation of the situation and one's abilities to cope with it

176. When a person is experiencing stress or fear, adrenaline is released into the blood
stream causing immediate:
A. Loss of consciousness.
B. Decrease in the pulse-rate.
C. Increase in the pulse-rate.
D. Fatigue.

177. What is the current approach to human error?

A. Realization that humans are infallible and that systems/procedures should be designed to
minimize human error
B. Realization that humans are fallible and that systems and procedures should be brought into
line to prevent system and procedural errors
C. Realization that humans are infallible and that systems and procedures should be brought
into line to prevent system/procedural errors
D. Realization that humans are fallible and that systems and procedures should be designed to
minimize human error

178. What are the three cognitive elements necessary to create and adequate situational
awareness?
A. Where is the aircraft, where is it going, how is the fuel doing
B. Where is the aircraft, where could the aircraft be, what is the safe endurance
C. Where is the aircraft, how is the weather, how is the fuel doing
D. Where is the aircraft, where has it been, where is it going

179. As captain of an aircraft you will need to show good leadership skills. Which one of
the following is not one such skill?
A. Maintaining good situational awareness
B. Aggressive assertiveness
C. Being aware of one’s limitations and capabilities
D. Forward planning

180. Which is an example of an error caused by liveware – hardware interface problems?

A. Switches, controls or displays with poor design.
B. Noise interference.
C. Mental pressure.
D. A procedure that is not used friendly.

181. What is "Situation Awareness"?

A. Being secure & confident at all times
B. Know where you are, what you're doing, and what its outcome will be
C. Being in a situation where you're "out of control"
D. As a pilot, flying as precise as possible

182. A pilot using a checklist is an example of the interaction within the SHELL Concept of ;
A. L and L.
B. L and E.
C. L and S.
D. L and H.
183. Discussing private matters in the cockpit ;
A. decreases the captains role of leadership.
B. can improve team spirit.
C. is appropriate in any phase of flight.
D. should be avoided by all means in the cockpit.

184. Which behaviour does most likely promote a constructive solution of interpersonal
conflicts?
A. Responding with counter-arguments
B. Active listening
C. Giving up their own point of view
D. Staying to their own point of view
185. Good briefings are very important. Which of the following could be the result of a
bad briefing?
A. Decreased uncertainty.
B. Good transfer of knowledge.
C. Good understanding of information.
D. Increased uncertainty.

186. Conventional analogue standart "T" display does not include following:
A. Turn co-ordinator
B. Altimeter
C. Artificial horizon
D. Direction indicator

187. What is a latent error?

A. An error which only has consequences after landing
B. An error which has an immediate effect on the controls
C. An error which is made by the pilot actively and consciously
D. An error which remains undetected in the system for a long time

188. The ongoing process to monitor the current flight situation is called...
A. situational awareness.
B. situational thinking.
C. anticipatory check procedure.
D. constant flight check.

189. Which of the following attitudes are not hazardous when piloting an aircraft?
A. Synergetic
B. Macho
C. Infallibility
D. Impulsivity

190. As captain of an aircraft you will need to show good leadership skills. Which of the
following is not one such skill?
A. The art of delegation.
B. Forward planning.
C. Aggressive assertiveness.
D. Maintaining good situational awareness.

191. Which of the following is not a part of the human ear?

A. Tympanum.
B. Semi-circular canal.
C. Otoliths.
D. Cornea.

192. What are two functions of the ear?

A. Hearing and filtering noise
B. Hearing noise and filtering balance
C. Balance and filtering noise.
D. Hearing and balance

193. If, while piloting an aircraft, you suspect that you are suffering from spatial disorders
(e.g. a feeling of tumbling backwards after a rapid transition from a climb to straight and
level flight), the correct action to take would be….
A. to close your eyes for a few seconds to regain your orientation.
B. to trust your senses, because instruments can give false information.
C. to concentrate on looking out.
D. to trust your aircraft's instruments.

194. The parts of the ear are the:

A. Ear lobe, ear canal and ear drum
B. Cochlea, otoliths and tympanum
C. Incus, malleus and the stapes
D. Outer, middle and inner

195. The bones in the middle ear are known collectively as:
A. The otoliths
B. The monoliths
C. The ossicles
D. The saccules

196. A fit young person can detect a range of sounds between:

A. 20 and 20 000 Hertz
B. 700 and 5 000 Hertz
C. 50 and 10 000 Hertz
D. 500 and 3 000 Hertz

197. The function of the Eustachian tube is to:

A. Equalise pressure between the middle and inner ear
B. Equalise pressure between the outer and middle ear
C. Connect the inner ear to the back of the throat
D. Allow circulation of fluid in the semi-circular canals

198. Permanent hearing loss may result from continuous exposure to:
A. Excessive heat which boils the fluid in the semi-circular canals
B. Noise in excess of 90 decibels
C. Noise in excess of 60 decibels
D. Dusty conditions, allowing a build-up in ear wax

199. The main function of the vestibular apparatus is to:

A. Prevent excessive sounds from damaging the otoliths
B. Prevent excessive sounds from damaging the ear drum
C. Detect angular and linear accelerations
D. Mechanically transmit sound to the cochlea

200. What is the cause of conductive deafness?

A. Damage to the Ossicles and/or the Ear-Drum
B. Blockage of the Eustachian Tube
C. Damage to the Pinna
D. Low ambient pressure

201. Which part of the ear senses linear accelerations?

A. The Eustachian Tube
B. The Otoliths in the Vestibular Apparatus
C. The Ossicles
D. The Auditory Nerve

202. Where are the ossicles ( the group of tiny bones (the hammer/malleus, anvil/incus
and stirrup/stapes)?
A. In the middle ear.
B. In the semicircular canals.
C. In the inner ear.
D. In the vestibule.

203. Which part of the ear could be affected due to air pressure changes during climb
and/ or descent?
A. The cochlea
B. The sacculus and utriculus
C. The eustachian tube and the tympanic membrane (ear drum)
D. The semicircular canals
204. The intensity of a sound is measured in:
A. Curies
B. Cycles per second
C. Hertz
D. Decibels

205. A pilot in straight and level flight but accelerating may experience the perception of...
A. pitching nose up.
B. pitching nose down.
C. descending
D. turning.

206. What does the middle ear contain?

A. The outer ear canal and vestibular apparatus.
B. Air, and the three ossicles that transmit sound.
C. Fluid, the cochlea and semicircular canals.
D. Fluid, and the three ossicles that transmit sound.

207. What causes conductive deafness?

A. Damage to the outer ear
B. Damage to the ossicles or the eardrum
C. Damage to the middle ear
D. Damage to the pinna

208. The Otoliths (Utricles and Succules) detect:

A. Angular acceleration.
B. Linear Acceleration.
C. Linear and angular acceleration.
D. G forces.

209. Excessive exposure to noise can damage ;

A. the semi circular canals.
B. the ossicles.
C. the sensitive membrane in the cochlea.
D. the eardrum.

210. Barotrauma of the middle ear is usually accompanied by ;

A. a reduction in hearing ability and the feeling of increasing pressure.
B. dizziness.
C. pain in the joints.
D. noises in the ear.

211. The Seat-of-the-Pants Sense is including receptors in the:

A. semi-circular canals
B. skin of the breech only
C. muscles, tendons and joints sensitive to the position and movement of body parts
D. utriculus and sacculus

212. The vestibular organ:

A. reacts to vibrations of the cochlea
B. reacts to pressure changes in the middle ear
C. reacts to linear/angular acceleration and gravity
D. gives the impression of hearing

213. When stopping the rotation of a spin we have the sensation

A. of the sharp dipping of the nose of the aircraft
B. of the immediate stabilization of the aircraft
C. of turning in the same direction
D. that we are starting a spin into the opposite direction

214. Boyle’s law is directly applicable in case of ;

A. the expansion of trapped gasses in the human body with increasing altitude.
B. hyperventilation with increasing altitude.
C. the occurrence of hypoxia with increasing altitude.
D. the occurrence of decompression sickness at high altitude

215. Which one of the following statements is correct about balance?

A. Semicircular canals are responsible from the detection of linear movements.
B. Otoliths are responsible from the detection of angular movements.
C. Vestibular apparatus is responsible from balance and located in the middle ear.
D. Semicircular canals are responsible from the detection of angular movements.

216. Which one of the following statements is incorrect about linear movements?
A. Linear deceleration can cause a perception as pitch down.
B. Illusions based on linear acceleration or deceleration are the somatogravic illusions.
C. Linear acceleration can cause a perception as pitch down.
D. Linear acceleration can cause a perception as pitch up.

217. The Vestibular Apparatus detects

A. Angular and linear.
B. Linear.
C. Positive "g".
D. Angular.

218. Loudness is measured in:

A. Pascal’s.
B. Decibels.
C. Hertz.
D. Cycles per second.

219. The connection between middle ear and nose and throat region is called...
A. Eustachian tube.
B. inner ear.
C. eardrum.
D. cochlea.

220. In which situation is it NOT possible to achieve a pressure compensation between the
middle ear and the environment?
A. The Eustachian tube is blocked
B. All windows are completely closed
C. During a light and slow climb
D. Breathing takes place using the mouth only

221. What is noise induced hearing loss?

A. Loss of hearing due to damage to the ossicles.
B. Loss of hearing due to damage to the cochlea.
C. Loss of hearing due to damage to the vestibular apparatus.
D. Loss of hearing due to damage to the middle ear.

222. What is the purpose of the Eustachian tube?

A. To allow ambient pressure to equalise on both sides of the ear drum.
B. To allow ambient pressure to equalise on both sides of the vestibular apparatus.
C. To allow ambient pressure to equalise on the middle ear side of the ear drum.
D. To pass sound waves across the middle ear to the auditory nerve.

223. What is a Coriolis illusion?

A. Heavy vertigo due to head movements during turns
B. False perception of colour due to strong accelerations
C. Wrong interpretation of altitude during approach
D. Apparent movement of static objects at night
050 METEOROLOGY
PPL(A)
QUESTION BANK
1. What is meteorology?
A. The science of weather–related phenomena
B. the study of clouds
C. The science of relative humidity
D. the science of meteroids

2. What are the proportions of gases in the atmosphere?

A. Oxygen 21%, Hydrogen 78%, other gasses 1%.
B. Nitrogen 78%, Argon 21%, Oxygen 1%.
C. Nitrogen 78%, Oxygen 21%, Hydrogen 1%.
D. Oxygen 21%, Nitrogen 78%, other gasses 1%.

3. The total depth of the atmosphere is approximately

A. 120 kilometers (400 000 feet).
B. 500 KM
C. 20 KM
D. more than 1000 KM.

4. The layer closest to the earth's surface where the most of weather phenomena occurs:
A. Stratosphere.
B. Tropopause.
C. Mesosphere.
D. Troposphere.

5. The atmospheric layer within which the greatest majority of weather occurs and within
which light aircraft operate is the:
A. Atmosphere.
B. Stratosphere.
C. Troposphere.
D. Tropopause.

6. One of the defining characteristics of the Troposphere is;

A. the mass of the atmosphere is the same in all layers of the atmosphere.
B. containing over 70% of the total mass of the atmosphere.
C. the height of the Tropopause does not change
D. the average height of the Tropopause is araund 8 km, or 26 250 feet.

7. Where is most of the water vapor in the atmosphere contained?

A. Tropopause.
B. Stratopause.
C. Troposphere.
D. Stratosphere.

8. What is a characteristic of the troposphere?

A. There is an overall decrease of temperature with an increase of altitude
B. It contains all the moisture of the atmosphere
C. There is an overall increase of temperature with an increase of altitude
D. The average altitude of the top of the troposphere is about 8 kilometres

9. Tropopause is between:
A. Troposphere - Mesosphere
B. Stratosphere - Mesosphere
C. Troposphere - Thermospere
D. Troposphere - Stratosphere

10. Tropopause pauses _______.

A. the pressure.
B. the temperature and the horizontal motion of air.
C. the stratus clouds.
D. the temperature and the vertical motion of air.

11. In the mid-latitudes the stratosphere extends on an average from

A. 0 to 11 km
B. 50 to 85 km
C. 85 to more than 200 km
D. 11 to 50 km

12. The thickness of the troposphere varies with

A. latitude
B. the wind
C. longitude
D. rotation of the earth

13. What, apprroximately is the average height of the tropopause over the equator?
A. 8 km
B. 40 km
C. 11 km
D. 16 km

14. What is the average height of the Tropopause above Poles?

A. 11 km
B. 8 km
C. 16 km
D. 20 km

15. Going from the equator to the north pole, the altitude of the tropopause
A. decreases and its temperature increases
B. decreases and its temperature decreases
C. increases and its temperature increases
D. increases and its temperature decreases

16. Which statement is true concerning the tropopause from the equator to the poles?
A. The tropopause increases, the tropopause temperature increases
B. The tropopause increases, the tropopause temperature decreases
C. The tropopause decreases, the tropopause temperature decreases
D. The tropopause decreases, the tropopause temperature increases

17. What causes the highest percentage of the atmosphere lies under the 50% of lower
Troposphere?
A. Low level winds.
B. Corriollis force.
C. Gravity.
D. Radiated energy from the Sun.

18. What is the reason of tropopause has the highest level over equatorial area?
A. The horizontal air flow over on equatorial area.
B. The gravitational force of the earth.
C. Equatorial region is the warmest area of the world.
D. Slack pressure gradient causes the high level tropopause.

19. What is the atmospheric layer above the Tropopause?

A. Stratosphere
B. Thermosphere
C. Tratosphere
D. Exosphere

20. The ozone layer is the cause of ____.

A. jetstreams
B. inversion in the stratosphere.
C. thunderstorms.
D. polar fronts
21. One of the reasons for International Standard Atmospheric (ISA) conditions are created is;
A. for lowering the production costs.
B. for maximizing the safety.
C. for lowering the flight costs.
D. for extending the flight time in the air.

22. The actual change of the temperature in the air mass with height is known as:
A. The adiabatic lapse rate (ALR)
B. The environmental lapse rate (ELR)
C. The temperature curve
D. The actual lapse rate (LR)

23. The International Standard Atmosphere assumes a lapse rate of:

A. 4°C/1000 ft.
B. 1.98°C/1000ft.
C. 3°C/1000ft.
D. 1.5°C/1000ft.

24. The lowest assumed temperature in the International Standard Atmosphere (ISA) is :
A. -100°C
B. -56.5°C
C. -273°C
D. -44.7°C

25. You are at FL120 with an outside air temperature is -2°C. Where would you find the freezing
level?
A. FL140
B. FL110
C. FL090
D. FL100

26. The 0°C isotherm is forecast to be at FL 50. At what FL would you expect a temperature of -
6°C?
A. FL 80
B. FL 100
C. FL 110
D. FL 20
27. At an altitude of 1650 feet AMSL, a temperature of +15°C is measured. What will the
temperature be at an altitude of 8200 feet, if you consider the temperature gradient of the
Standard Atmosphere?
A. 0°C
B. -2°C
C. +2°C
D. +4°C

28. The temperature at 2000ft AMSL is forecast to be +5°C: compared to the International
Standard Atmosphere (ISA) this is:
A. ISA -4.
B. lSA +6.
C. ISA -6.
D. ISA +5.

29. An outside air temperature of -35°C is measured while cruising at FL 200. What is the
temperature deviation from the ISA at this level
A. 5°C warmer than ISA.
B. 10°C colder than ISA.
C. 5°C colder than ISA.
D. 10°C warmer than ISA.

30. The temperature at 3000 ft. above mean sea level is forecast to be 3°C. What is the deviation
from ICAO Standard Atmosphere?
A. ISA +5
B. ISA -7
C. ISA +6
D. ISA -6

31. The sun gives out ……………... amounts of energy with ……………... wavelengths. The earth gives
out relatively ……………… amounts of energy with relatively ……………... wavelengths. Complete
the sentence above using the correct words:
A. large, long, small, long.
B. large, long, small, short.
C. large, short, small, long.
D. small, short, large, long.

32. The surface of the earth is heated by:

A. long wave solar radiation.
B. short wave solar radiation.
C. convection.
D. conduction.
33. The atmosphere is heated mainly by:
A. Heat re-radiated from the Earth's surface.
B. Warm air from high equatorial regions spreading out and descending into more northerly
and southerly latitudes.
C. Exchanges of latent heat during the process of moisture in the atmosphere changing state.
D. Direct solar energy not filtered by the ozone layer absorbed by the lower atmosphere.

34. The method by which energy is transferred from one body to another with which it is in
contact is called:
A. latent heat.
B. convection.
C. radiation.
D. conduction.

35. Which one is not the way of heat transfer in the atmosphere?
A. Conduction
B. Inversion
C. Advection
D. Convection

36. When cold air moves over a warmer surface, __________.

A. it produces frontal fog.
B. it becomes unstable.
C. it becomes stable.
D. it sinks.

37. When cold moist air moves over a warmer surface, __________.
A. it may produce convective clouds and turbulence.
B. it may produce stratified clouds
C. it sinks.
D. it may produce frontal fog.

38. When warm air moves over a colder surface, __________.

A. it becomes unstable.
B. it becomes stable.
C. it produces thunderstorms.
D. it rises.

39. When warm moist air moves over a colder surface, __________.
A. it may produce convective clouds and turbulence.
B. it may produce fog and visibility may reduce.
C. it becomes unstable.
D. it rises.

40. The diurnal variation in temperature is largest when the sky is,
A. overcast and winds are strong
B. overcast and winds are weak
C. clear and winds are strong
D. clear and winds are weak

41. Daily variation of the surface temperature will:

A. Be at a minimum in calm conditions
B. Increase as the wind speed increases.
C. Decrease as wind speed increases
D. Be unaffected by a change of wind speed

42. Temperature variation during 24 hours is least over:

A. Grass
B. Forest
C. Sea
D. Mountain

43. The diurnal variation of temperature is:

A. greater over the sea than over land.
B. increased anywhere as wind speed increases.
C. reduced anywhere by the presence of cloud.
D. less over desert areas than over temperate grassland,

44. An inversion is when:

A. there is an increase of temperature as height increases,
B. there is no change of temperature with height.
C. there is no horizontal gradient of temperature.
D. there is a decrease of temperature as height increases,

45. An inversion is characterized by:

A. Parts of the air mass at each level is warmer than surrounding air.
B. Increasing temperature with increasing altitude.
C. Constant temperature with increasing altitude
D. The tendency to increase relative humidity with increasing altitude.
46. An inversion is a layer of air which is
A. absolutely unstable
B. conditionally unstable
C. absolutely stable
D. conditionally stable

47. What feature is associated with a temperature inversion?

A. A stable layer of air
B. An unstable layer of air
C. Cold front
D. Air mass thunderstorms

48. Adiabatic process is;

A. decrease in temperature in a parcel of air.
B. increase in temperature in a parcel of air.
C. formation of cloud in a parcel of air.
D. change in temperature because of pressure change.

49. Rising air cools because

A. Surrounding air is cooler at higher levels
B. It expands
C. It contracts
D. It becomes more moist

50. During the adiabatic processes, temperature ...

A. always decreases
B. increases or decreases
C. always increases
D. Doesn’t change

51. The dry adiabatic lapse rate has a value of

A. 2°C/1000ft
B. 3°C/1000ft
C. 0.5°C/100m
D. 0.65°C/100m

52. "Pressure decreases with altitude." Is this statement correct?

A. There is insufficient information.
B. No, it stays constant above tropopause.
C. No, it depends on the temperature.
D. Yes
53. The pressure change with height of the atmosphere:
A. decreases at an increasing rate as height increases.
B. decreases at a decreasing rate as height increases.
C. decreases at a constant rate as height increases.
D. decreases at a constant rate up to the tropopause and then remains constant.

54. Lines connecting points of equal pressure are called:

A. Isotach
B. Isostar
C. Isotherm
D. Isobar

55. A line drawn on a chart joining places having the same barometric pressures at the same
level and time is?
A. An isotherm.
B. A contour.
C. An isobar.
D. An isallobar.

56. What is density defined as?

A. Weight of air per unit area.
B. Volume divided by mass.
C. Mass per unit area.
D. Mass per unit volume.

57. What is the density at sea level in the International Standard Atmosphere?
A. 1.225g/m3
B. 1225g/m3
C. 122.5g/m3
D. 12.25g/m3

58. As altitude increases in troposphere

A. temperature and pressure increase and density decreases.
B. temperature decreases and density increases.
C. temperature, pressure and density decrease.
D. temperature decreases whilst pressure and density increase.

59. Temperature decreases with altitude in standard atmosphere. Regarding this change in
temperature, density should increase with altitude but it decreases. What is the reason?
A. Scientist continue their research on this subject
B. The decrease in pressure being more dominant than the decrease in temperature, causes the
density to decrease.
C. The increase in pressure with altitude decreases the density.
D. The temperature has no effect on air density.

60. Which of the following combinations contain the greatest air density?
A. High pressure and low temperature.
B. Low pressure and high temperature.
C. High pressure and high temperature.
D. Low pressure and low temperature.

61. In relation to 'air density' which of the following responses are correct:
A. Cold air is less dense than warm air.
B. Air density is not influenced of air humidity.
C. If the temperature is decreasing the air density will decrease
D. Dry warm air is less dense than cold air.

62. Density at the surface will be low when:

A. pressure is low and temperature is high.
B. pressure is low and temperature is low.
C. pressure is high and temperature is high.
D. pressure is high and temperature is low.

63. Under what conditions would density be the minimum value at any given place?
A. Low altitude, high temperature and high humidity.
B. Low altitude, low temperature and low humidity.
C. High altitude, high temperature and low humidity.
D. High altitude, high temperature and high humidity.

64. At FL 180, the air temperature is -35°C. The air density at this level is:
A. Less than the density of the ISA atmosphere at FL 180.
B. Equal to the density of the ISA atmosphere at FL 180.
C. Unable to be determined without knowing the QNH.
D. Greater than the density of the ISA atmosphere at FL 180.

65. If an Environment Lapse Rate (ELR) has steep value...

A. unstable conditions exist.
B. conditionally stable conditions exist.
C. stable conditions exist.
D. neutral conditions exist.
66. The reason for the cooling of the parcel of air during the adiabatic process is…
A. pressure decrease.
B. temperature decrease.
C. getting away from the earth.
D. pressure increase.

67. THE ICAO STANDARD ATMOSPHERE (ISA) assumes that, at mean sea-level,
A. temperature is 10°C, air pressure is 1225 hectopascals (millibars), and air density is 1000
gm/m3.
B. air temperature is 15°C and air pressure is 1000 hectopascals (millibars)
C. air temperature is 15°C, air pressure is 1013.25 hectopascals (millibars), and air density is
1.225 kg/m3.
D. air temperature is 0°C, air pressure is 1000 hectopascals (millibars), and air density is 1225
gm/m3.

68. What is the line joining locations of equal barometric pressure drawn on a chart at a given
level:
A. A cantour
B. An isogonal
C. An isotherm
D. An isobar

69. The pressure of the atmosphere:

A. decreases at a constant rate as height increases
B. decreases at an increasing rate as height increases
C. decreases at a constant rate till Tropopause.
D. decreases at a decreasing rate as height increases

70. How does the temperature effect of on vertical pressure variation.

A. Cold air causes pressure to fall more slowly with height.
B. Warm air causes pressure to fall more rapidly with height.
C. In cold air, the rate of pressure decrease with altitude is greater than in warm air.
D. In warm air, the rate of pressure decrease with altitude is greater than in cold air.

71. Atmospherıc densıty is defined as:

A. the volume of a substance
B. mass per unit volume.
C. the weight of a substance
D. the couler of a substance
72. The Variation of Air Density with Temperature:
A. The lower the temperature of air, the lower is its density.
B. The higher the air temperature, the greater is its density.
C. The higher the temperature of air, the greater is its density.
D. The lower the temperature of air, the greater is its density.

73. The Variation of Air Density with Altitude:

A. altitude does not effect.
B. as altitude increases, air density decreases
C. as altitude increases, air density increases
D. as altitude increases, air density stays constant

74. The pressure altitude is 12 000 ft. The ISA deviation is -5°C. What is the density altitude?
A. 12240 ft.
B. 12 600 ft.
C. 11 400 ft.
D. 11760 ft.

75. When Air density will be lowest at the Earth's surface:

A. pressure is low and temperature is high
B. pressure is high and temperature is high
C. pressure is high and temperature is low
D. pressure is low and temperature is low

76. To convert degrees Fahrenheit into degrees Celsius,

A. subtract 273°.
B. multiply the Fahrenheit value by 1.8 and add 32° to find the answer.
C. add 273°.
D. subtract 32° from the Fahrenheit value and then divide the answer by 1.8.

77. The most significant raising of the temperature of the atmosphere is

A. radiation of short wavelength from the Sun
B. radiation encounters the Earth's surface and is re-radiated into the atmosphere
C. from reflective surfaces, such as areas of ice or snow
D. radiation of long wavelength from the Sun

78. The temperature remains constant through a given depth of atmosphere, it is described as
A. advection
B. the Environmental Lapse Rate
C. temperature inversion
D. being isothermal,

79. The temperature at 10000ft in the ICAO Standard Atmosphere

A. -20 C
B. 0C
C. -5 C
D. -35 C

80. What is the atmosphering pressure at sea level in the International Standard Atmosphere?
A. 29.29 inch hg
B. 1013.25hpa
C. 101.25 hpa
D. 1012.35 hpa

81. The isobars drawn on a surface weather chart represent lines of equal pressure
A. at a determined density altitude
B. at flight level
C. reduced to sea level
D. at height of observatory

82. The rate of fall of pressure with height is:

A. Constant
B. Inversely proportional to temperature
C. Greater in cold air than in warm air
D. Greater in warm air than in cold air

83. The isohypse 5.000 feet can be expected at the constant pressure chart for the following
pressure level:
A. 850 hPa
B. 300 hPa
C. 500 hPa
D. 700 hPa

84. One of the reasons why land surfaces heat and cool more quickly than water is because:
A. Land has a lower conductivity than water
B. Land has a higher specific heat than water
C. Water has a higher specific heat than land
D. Water has a lower relative density than land

85. Convective activity over land in mid-latitudes is greatest in:

A. Winter in the afternoon.
B. Summer in the afternoon.
C. Winter during the night and early morning.
D. Summer during the night and early morning.

86. The rate of fall of pressure with height is?

A. Greater in cold air than in warm air.
B. Constant
C. Inversely proportional to temperature.
D. Greater in warm air than cold air.

87. Which process causes adiabatic cooling?

A. Expansion of air as it rises
B. Movement of air over a colder surface
C. Release of latent heat during the vaporization process
D. Expansion of air as it descends

88. During an adiabatic process heat is ;

A. added but the result is an overall loss.
B. added
C. neither added nor lost.
D. lost

89. The decrease in temperature, per 100 metres, in a saturated rising parcel of air at lower level
of the atmosphere is approximately
A. 0.35°C
B. 1°C
C. 0.6°C
D. 1.5°C

90. In a layer of air the decrease in temperature per 100 metres increase in height is more than
1°C. This layer can be described as being
A. conditionally stable
B. conditionally unstable
C. absolutely unstable
D. absolutely stable

91. The stability in a layer is increasing if

A. warm air is advected in the upper part and cold air in the lower part
B. cold and dry air is advected in the upper part
C. warm air is advected in the lower part and cold air in the upper part
D. warm and moist air is advected in the lower part

92. What is the common height of radiation inversion?

A. 3000 ft
B. 2000 ft
C. A few hundred ft
D. 2000-4000 ft

93. What is the lowest temperature in standard atmosphere?

A. (-50,5 C)
B. (-54,5 C)
C. (-63,5 C)
D. (-56,5 C)

94. In standard atmosphere, 500 hPa level corresponds to:

A. 12000 ft
B. 10000 ft
C. 18000 ft
D. 15000 ft

95. Relative humidity:

A. does not change when water is added.
B. is not affected by temperature.
C. is not affected by air expanding and contracting.
D. changes when water is added, even if the temperature is the same.

96. The process of change of state from a liquid to a gas is known as:
A. evaporation in which latent heat is absorbed.
B. condensation in which latent heat is released.
C. evaporation in which latent heat is released.
D. condensation in which latent heat is absorbed.

97. A change of state directly from a solid to a vapor is:

A. evaporation.
B. sublimation.
C. condensation.
D. insolation.

98. The process of change of state from a gas to a liquid is known as:
A. condensation in which latent heat is absorbed.
B. condensation in which latent heat is released.
C. evaporation in which latent heat is absorbed.
D. evaporation in which latent heat is released.

99. As air rises and cools, its relative humidity will:

A. increase
B. decrease
C. decrease until the dew point is reached
D. stay the same

100. As a parcel of air warms, its ability to hold water vapor:

A. Increases
B. Decreases
C. Remains unaltered
D. Depends, whether the parcel is rising or not

101. Moist air is:

A. Colder than dry air
B. Denser than dry air
C. Warmer than dry air
D. Less dense than dry air

102. The difference between temperature and dew point is greater in

A. dry air
B. air with low temperature
C. moist air
D. air with high temperature

103. The amount of water vapor which air can hold largely depends on:
A. Relative humidity.
B. Dew point.
C. Air temperature.
D. Stability of air.

104. A parcel of air is said to be saturated if it has a relative humidity of:

A. 100%
B. Greater than 90 %
C. 50%
D. Greater than 80 %
105. Evaporation is the change of:
A. Water vapor to ice.
B. Ice directly to water vapor.
C. Liquid water to water vapor.
D. Invisible water vapor to liquid water.

106. Which of the processes listed below can cause air to become saturated?
A. Melting
B. Evaporation.
C. Condensation.
D. Heating

107. If there was no water vapour in the atmosphere, _____.

A. There would not be any surface winds.
B. There would not be any jetstreams.
C. There would not be any turbulence.
D. there would not be any clouds and precipitation.

108. Regarding humidity which one is correct? (all other factors being constant)
A. Humid air is more dense than dry air.
B. Humid air is less dense than dry air.
C. Humid air and dry air have the same density.
D. It is not possible to compare humid air and dry air.

109. All other factors being the same, which one is better for take-off performance?
A. Warm dry air
B. Cold moist air
C. Warm moist air
D. Cold dry air

110. It is raining and the outside air temperature is -5°C. What would you decide if you
have a propeller to operate in non-icing conditions only?
A. I would fly because freezing rain improves aircraft performance.
B. I would decide to fly.
C. I would not fly because I know that freezing rain causes rime ice.
D. I would not fly because I know that freezing rain causes clear ice.

111. All other factors being constant, an aircraft with the same mass has a better take of
performance: in a hot humid summer day in Antalya or in a cold winter day in Russia?
A. Both are the same.
B. Antalya
C. There is insufficient information to answer this question.
D. Russia

112. In summer, Antalya is generally very hot during both day and night. What might be
the reason for this?
A. Land breeze is blowing during night.
B. Dry air absorbs heat, thus diurnal variation decreases and it stays hot during night also.
C. Sea breeze is blowing from the sea during night.
D. Water vapour absorbs heat, thus diurnal variation decreases and it stays hot during night
also.

113. What is sublimation?

A. The change of state from ice to water
B. The change of state from water to water vapor
C. The change of state from water vapor to water
D. The change of state from ice to water vapor or from water vapor to ice

114. What is evaporation?

A. The change of state from water vapor to water
B. The change of state from ice to water
C. The change of state from ice to water vapor or from water vapor to ice
D. The change of state from water to water vapor

115. What is condensation?

A. The change of state from ice to water
B. The change of state from water vapor to water
C. The change of state from ice to water vapor or from water vapor to ice
D. The change of state from water to water vapor

116. What is the reason for decreasing in the density when the water vapor added to the
given volume of air?
A. Water vapor molecules are less than the air molecules.
B. Water vapor molecules have less weight than the air molecules.
C. Water vapor molecules are bigger than the air molecules.
D. Water vapor molecules have more weight the air molecules.

117. When ...... in a parcel of air, relative humidity increases.

A. density increases
B. water vapor added
C. reduced humidity
D. temperature increases
118. The dewpoint temperature:
A. Can be reached by cooling the air whilst keeping the pressure constant
B. Can be reached by lowering the pressure whilst keeping temperature constant
C. Cannot be equal to the air temperature
D. Cannot be lower than the air temperature

119. Relative humidity depends on

A. moisture content of the air only
B. moisture content and pressure of the air
C. moisture content and temperature of the air
D. temperature of the air only

120. The maximum amount of water vapour that the air can contain depends on the
A. stability of the air
B. air temperature
C. dewpoint
D. relative humidity

121. In which of the following changes of state is latent heat absorbed?

A. Liquid to solid
B. Liquid to gas.
C. Gas to liquid.
D. Gas to solid.

122. Fog and cloud formation takes place by:

A. Evaporation
B. Sublimation
C. None of the above
D. Condensation

123. What is the relationship between relative humidity and temperature?

A. They are directly proportional.
B. The relative humidity does not change with temperature.
C. They are inversely proportional.
D. The relative humidity depends on moisture content only.

124. Which change of state is observed during frost formation?

A. Melting
B. Sublimation
C. Condenstation
D. Freezing

125. During the winter months, which of the following weather conditions would most
likely be produced by an anticyclone?
A. Subsidence due to surface cooling creating extensive cloud.
B. General subsidence with adiabatic warming, clear skies, and an inversion.
C. During the night, as the land cools, there would be an increase in the vertical cloud
development.
D. During the day, the surface warming would create an unstable atmosphere with extensive
convective cloud.

126. Lack of cloud at low level in a stationary high is due to:

A. rising air.
B. divergence at high level.
C. instability.
D. sinking air.

127. A trough of low pressure at the surface is generally associated with:

A. subsidence causing increased cloud and precipitation.
B. convergence causing increased cloud and precipitation.
C. divergence causing increased cloud and precipitation.
D. subsidence causing decreased cloud and precipitation.

128. Coriolis force in the Northern Hemisphere will cause moving air to be apparently
deflected to:
A. the left and cause the wind to blow slightly across the isobars at about 2000 ft. agl.
B. the right and cause the geostrophic wind to blow parallel to the isobars at about 2000 ft. agl.
C. the left and cause the wind to blow parallel to the isobars at about 2000 ft. agl.
D. the right and cause the wind to blow slightly across the isobars at about 2000 ft. agl.

129. What prevents air from flowing directly from a high to a low pressure area:
A. coriolis force.
B. centripetal force.
C. centrifugal force.
D. pressure force.

130. Wind is caused by?

A. Earth rotation.
B. Mixing of fronts.
C. Horizontal pressure difference.
D. Surface friction.
131. Which force, in the Northern Hemisphere, acts at a right angle to the wind and
deflects it to the right until parallel to the isobars ?
A. Pressure gradient.
B. Coriolis.
C. Advection.
D. Centrifugal.

132. In the Northern Hemisphere the surface wind is blowing around a low pressure:
A. Anti-clockwise, oblique to the isobars towards the low pressure center.
B. Anti-clockwise, oblique to the isobars outwards the low pressure center.
C. Clockwise, oblique to the isobars outwards the low pressure center.
D. Clockwise, oblique to the isobars towards the low pressure center.

133. Due to the diurnal variations of temperature the following types of wind arise:
A. Trade-winds.
B. Sea and land breeze.
C. Anabatic winds.
D. Monsoon winds.

134. If you stand with your back to the wind in the northern hemisphere, the low pressure
will be:
A. On your right
B. Ahead of you
C. On your left
D. Behind you

135. How is wind measured?

A. 8-10 m above the ground on a mast with a pluviometer
B. 2 m above the ground on a mast with an anemometer
C. 8-10 m above the ground on a mast with an anemometer
D. 2 m above the ground in a weather shelter

136. An aircraft is approaching under visual flight rules an airfield whose runway is parallel
to the coast. When downwind over the sea, the airfield is on the left. What wind effect
should be anticipated on final approach and landing during a sunny afternoon ?
A. Headwind
B. Crosswind from the left
C. Crosswind from the right
D. Tailwind
137. You arrive at a south coast aerodrome three hours after sunrise during a summer
morning and the weather report indicates CAVOK. As the coast line is predominantly east/
west and a sea breeze is beginning to establish, which of the following would you expect to
be an into wind runway?
A. 21.
B. 18.
C. 27.
D. 36.

138. Select the statement that is most representative of land and sea breezes.
A. The surface wind is likely to be from sea to land during the day.
B. The surface wind is likely to be sea to land during the night.
C. By day the 1000ft wind is likely to flow parallel to the coast line.
D. By night the 1000ft wind is likely to flow parallel to the coast line

139. What is convergence?

A. Descending air.
B. Air moving out
C. Air moving in
D. Ascending air

140. What is divergence?

A. Descending air.
B. Ascending air
C. Air moving out
D. Air moving in

141. What would you most likely expect when you are taking off after a long clear night in
winter?
A. Inversion and windshear
B. Sea breeze
C. Instability and turbulence
D. Showers

142. Advection is :
A. vertical motion of air
B. the same as subsidence
C. horizontal motion of air
D. the same as convection
143. A wind which has changed anti-clockwise in direction can be said to have:
A. Reduced
B. Calm
C. Backed
D. Veered

144. If you stand with your back to the wind in the northern hemisphere, the low pressure
will be:
A. Behind you
B. On your right
C. On your left
D. On your right

145. If a plane flies to west over the 0⁰ latitude line, the Corriolis effect
A. forces the plane to move towards north..
B. forces the plane to move slower..
C. doesn’t effect.
D. forces the plane to move towards south.

146. What is the cause of wind?

A. jetstreams
B. environmental lapse rate
C. horizontal pressure differences
D. decrease in pressure with altitude

147. You depart from an airport with 5 knots of headwind. While passing 500 ft, the wind
suddenly changes to 30 knots of tailwind. What would you most likely expect?
A. Climb rate decreases.
B. Climb rate increases.
C. Nothing would change.
D. Indicated Air Speed increases.

148. You depart from an airport with 5 knots of tailwind. While passing 500 ft, the wind
suddenly changes to 30 knots of headwind What would you most likely expect?
A. Climb rate decreases.
B. Nothing would change.
C. Indicated Air Speed decreases.
D. Climb rate increases.

149. A foehn wind is blowing from the north over the Beşparmak Mountains in Turkish
Republic of Northern Cyprus. What would you expect south of the mountains?
A. Warm and dry air
B. hail
C. Rain showers
D. towering cumulus.

150. In summer, Antalya is generally very hot during both day and night. What might be
the reason for this?
A. Land breeze
B. A hurricane approaching from the south.
C. Sea breeze
D. Foehn wind

151. What do widely-spaced isobars indicate?

A. A steep pressure gradient and strong winds
B. A steep pressure gradient and light winds
C. A weak pressure gradient and strong winds
D. A weak pressure gradient and light winds

152. What kind of force effecting to the air for floating from high pressure towards low
pressure?
A. Horizontal Pressure Gradient.
B. Sun radiated energy.
C. Centrifugal force.
D. Corriollis force.

153. Subsiding air creates ......... conditions,

A. good visibility
B. cumuliform cloud formation
C. poor visibility
D. Increase in wind

154. What is the significance of closely spaced isobars?

A. They indicate a large pressure gradient and strong winds.
B. They indicate a large pressure gradient and light winds.
C. They indicate a weak pressure gradient and strong winds.
D. They indicate a weak pressure gradient and light winds.

155. What does show closely spaced isobars a large change in the pressure over a short
distance?
A. low wind speed
B. a small pressure gradient force and low wind speed
C. the presence of a large pressure gradient force
D. a small pressure gradient force

156. The basic cause of weather is

A. Precipitations
B. Local winds
C. Environmental Lapse Rate
D. variations in pressure, both horizontally and vertically.

157. In low pressure areas weather moves toward

A. Inside
B. Upward
C. Outside
D. Downward

158. What is dynamic pressure?

A. Centrifugal force
B. Acceleration force.
C. Turbulence.
D. Pressure caused by movement.

159. Define low pressure:

A. None of the above.
B. A trough.
C. An area of convergence.
D. An area with lower pressure than that of the environments.

160. Define high pressure:

A. An area of divergence.
B. None of the above.
C. A high pressure ridge.
D. An area with higher pressure than that of the environments.

161. What is ICAO qualifying term for the described intesity of turbulence: "Conditions in
which abrupt changes in aircraft attitude and/or altitude occur; aircraft may be out of control
for short periods?
A. Noticeable
B. Light
C. Moderate
D. Severe
162. The most dangerous low level wind shears are encountered
A. when strong ground inversions are present and near thunderstorms
B. during any period when wind speed is greater than 35kt and near valleys
C. in areas with layered clouds and wind speeds higher than 35kt
D. near vallys and at the windward side of mountains

163. Vertical wind shear is

A. horizontal variation in the vertical wind
B. horizontal variation in the horizontal wind
C. vertical variation in the horizontal wind
D. vertical variation in the vertical wind

164. When would a rotor cloud be If you are flying into an area of low pressure, what drift
would you expect to experience in the northern hemisphere?
A. Left drift
B. None
C. Right drift
D. up drift

165. The wind which results from air cooling on the side of a valley is known as:
A. A valley wind
B. An anabatic wind
C. A katabatic wind
D. An antitrptic wind

166. At which location does Coriolis force have the least effect on wind direction?
A. At the Equator
B. Middle latitudes (30° to 60°)
C. At the Tropics
D. At the poles

167. Which one of the areas you can have windshear? I) Friction Layer II) ın clouds III) Fair
weather
A. II
B. I, II, III
C. I
D. I, II

168. Where you can have the most severe turbulence? I) Thurnderstorm II) Cirru Clouds
III) mountain region
A. II, III
B. I, II
C. I, II, III
D. III

169. What is the formation differences of sea breeze and land breeZe?
A. Seasonal differences
B. Effect of wind
C. Regional temperatures
D. Heating difference between land and sea

170. Which pressure system characteristic does a trough have?

A. Cyclone (Low)
B. Anticyclone (High)
C. Col
D. Cold front

171. Which one of the following is not the lifting force of parcel of air?
A. Convection
B. Convergence
C. Frontal uplift.
D. Conduction

172. For aviation perspective we can name the Cumulonimbus (CB) cloud as;
A. Significant weather
B. Thunderstorm
C. Severe weather
D. All the answers correct

173. What weather condition occurs at the altitude where the dewpoint lapse rate and
the dry adiabatic lapse rate converge?
A. Cloud reaches to the top
B. Precipitation starts
C. Cloud bases form
D. Stable air changes to unstable air

174. What is the main composition of clouds classified as "high level clouds"?
A. Ice crystals.
B. Water droplets.
C. Supercooled water droplets.
D. Water vapour.
175. Fair weather cumulus clouds often indicate:
A. Turbulence at and below the cloud level.
B. Rain and strong winds.
C. Smooth flying conditions.
D. Fog.

176. Which cloud type is related to halo phenomenon?

A. St
B. CB
C. CS
D. Ac

177. Which of the following is not a stage about cloud formation?

A. Frontal lifting
B. Adiabatic process
C. Convection
D. Orographic uplift

178. Which hazards do altocumulus lenticularis clouds cause?

A. Turbulence and icing
B. Drizzle and low visibility
C. Showery precipitation
D. Hail formation

179. What is the main difference between a Stratus and a Cumulus clouds in terms of
shape?
A. cloud top
B. cloud base
C. thickness
D. density

180. Which of the following clouds should a pilot prefer to penetrate if he/she had no
other chance?
A. Cumulonimbus
B. Altocumulus Lenticularis
C. Towering Cumulus
D. Stratus

181. Which of the following cloud types is least likely to produce precipitation ?
A. AS
B. CI
C. CB
D. NS

182. What would you expect in a Cumulonimbus cloud?

A. Snow grains
B. Severe turbulence only
C. Moderate/severe icing, severe/extreme turbulence
D. Light icing, light turbulence

183. What would you expect if you see a Altocumulus Lenticularis in the sky?
A. Severe turbulence due to mountain waves
B. Light turbulence
C. Halo around sun
D. Showers

184. What cloud type is prone to +RA?

A. AS
B. CC
C. ST
D. NS

185. The precipitation form +TSRA is most probably related to the following cloud type:
A. CB
B. CU
C. TCU
D. NS

186. Which of the following processes within a layer of air may lead to the building of CU
and CB clouds?
A. Radiation
B. Convection
C. Subsidence
D. Advection

187. What is the main composition of clouds classified as "high level clouds"?
A. Supercooled water droplets.
B. Water droplets.
C. Ice crystals.
D. Water vapour.
188. Which clouds have the greatest turbulence ?
A. Towering cumulus
B. Altocumulus castellanus.
C. Nimbostratus
D. Cumulonimbus

189. Which cloud is not formed by convection?

A. Cumulonimbus
B. Towering Cumulus
C. Cumulus
D. Altocumulus Lenticularis

190. Which cloud would most likely produce SHGR(hail showers)?

A. Altocumulus
B. Stratus
C. Cumulonimbus
D. Nimbostratus

191. Which one of the displayed cloud forms is representative of a cumulus?

A. 3
B. 2
C. 4
D. 1

192. Where would you expect Cumulonimbus clouds?

A. in High pressure areas
B. CB formation is independent of pressure systems.
C. over subtropical areas
D. in Low pressure areas

193. Which cloud type produces the most continuous precipitation?

A. Altocumulus Lenticularis
B. Towering Cumulus.
C. Stratus
D. Nimbostratus

194. You are flying north and the anvil of a CB directly ahead of you extends to the east.
Which of the below is a better decision?
A. To penetrate inside the cloud.
B. To circumnavigate through the west of the cloud.
C. to fly directly below the cloud
D. To circumnavigate through the east of the cloud.

195. Which of the following is correct regarding the difference between a CB near the
equator and a CB near Europe?
A. A CB near Europe has a greater vertical extent.
B. A CB near Europe is called a typhoon, while a CB near the equator is called a hurricane.
C. There is no difference.
D. A CB near the equator has a greater vertical extent.

196. Which one of the displayed cloud forms is representative of altocumulus castellanus?
A. 4
B. 1
C. 3
D. 2

197. Cloud is…

A. very tiny water droplets
B. water in the air
C. all of them
D. condensated water vapor

198. CU is an indication of:

A. the approach of a warm front.
B. stability.
C. instability.
D. the approach of a cold front.

199. Which cloud type may extend from low to high level (vertical development)?
A. AC
B. CI
C. CB
D. NS

200. Which clouds have the greatest turbulence ?

A. Altocumulus castellanus.
B. Cumulus.
C. Cumulunimbus.
D. Nimbostratus.
201. Which one of the displayed cloud forms is representative of a cumulonimbus
capillatus?
A. 4
B. 2
C. 3
D. 1

202. Which one of the displayed cloud forms is representative of altocumulus lenticularis?
A. 4
B. 1
C. 3
D. 2

203. Which of the following cloud is classified as low level cloud ?

A. ST
B. CC
C. AS
D. CS

204. Which types of clouds are typical evidence of stable air conditions?
A. NS, CU
B. ST, AS
C. CU, CB
D. CB, CC

205. From which cloud do you get hail?

A. NS
B. TS
C. CB
D. SC.

206. The correct name for heaped type cloud is;

A. cumuliform
B. stratiform
C. cirriform
D. virga

207. Precipitation produced by stratus is normally?

A. Heavy rain.
B. Drizzle.
C. Heavy showers.
D. Light showers.

208. The use of the suffix "nimbus" or the prefix "nimbo" in cloud names means?
A. Medium cloud.
B. Dark and threatening.
C. Wispy, detached orfiberous.
D. Rain bearing.

209. Which of the following cloud types can stretch across all three cloud levels (low,
medium and high level)?
A. AC
B. CB
C. ST
D. CI

210. Convective clouds are formed

A. In unstable atmosphere
B. In mid-latitudes only
C. In summer during the day only
D. In stable atmosphere

211. Which of the following types of clouds are evidence of unstable air conditions?
A. CU, CB.
B. ST, CS.
C. CI, SC.
D. SC, NS.

212. Which of the following clouds are classified as medium level clouds in temperate?
A. CS, ST.
B. SC, NS
C. AS, AC.
D. CI, CC.

213. Which of the following clouds may extend into more than one layer?
A. Stratus.
B. Nimbostratus.
C. Cirrus.
D. Altocumulus.
214. The family of medium clouds include altostratus, altocumulus and nimbostratus. In
moderate latitudes their height of base ranges from:
A. 2000 to 12000 feet.
B. 6500 to 23000 feet.
C. 2000 to 10000 feet.
D. 3000 to 5000 feet.

215. What will be the classification of high level clouds and where will the base be?
A. above 16500ft, Cumuliform
B. above 7000 ft., Cumuliform
C. above 16500ft, Cirriform
D. above 14000ft, Nimbus

216. For cumulonimbus cloud to develop, there needs to exist:

A. From the surface upwards, a shallow layer of very unstable moist air.
B. A deep layer of very stable moist air with a shallow lapse rate.
C. From the surface upwards, a deep layer of very unstable moist air.
D. From the surface up, a deep layer of very unstable moist air with a shallow lapse rate.

217. Which of the following cloud types can stretch across at least two cloud levels?
A. SC
B. ST
C. CI
D. NS

218. What type of cloud can produce hail showers?

A. NS
B. CB
C. AC
D. CS

219. In unstable air, surface visibility is most likely to be restricted by

A. drizzle
B. showers of rain or snow
C. haze
D. low stratus

220. When fog is reported, the visibility is below?

A. 0.8 km
B. 1.5 km
C. 3 km
D. 1 km

221. In which conditions is fog reported?

A. When visibility decreases below 5000 m
B. When visibility decreases below 1000 m
C. When visibility decreases below 500 m
D. When visibility decreases below 1500 m

222. Which of the following is not observed in unstable atmosphere?

A. Fog and mist
B. 3-4 oktas clouds
C. Showery precipitation
D. Strong winds

223. What meteorological conditions most favor the formation of radiation fog?
A. High relative humidity, moderate wind and cloudy sky.
B. High relative humidity, light wind and clear sky.
C. Low relative humidity, no wind and clear sky.
D. Low relative humidity, cold air and a warm surface under clear sky.

224. The type of fog that develops rapidly both by day and by night is:
A. Radiation.
B. Sea smoke.
C. Hoar.
D. Advection.

225. Which one is correct regarding fog and haze?

A. There is no difference between them, only the abbreviations used in METAR are different.
B. Fog is made up of water droplets while haze is made up of solid particles.
C. Fog forms in low pressure areas while haze forms in high pressure areas.
D. They are formed when air reaches 100% relative humidity.

226. Visibility may reduce below inversion layer because

A. The layer is unstable
B. It is a low pressure area
C. There is no wind at all
D. There is no vertical exchange

227. Fog which reaches only 2 metres above ground is:

A. Drifting fog.
B. Smog
C. Shallow fog.
D. Mist

228. A cold airmass is coming from Siberia to Turkey over Karadeniz. What would you
most likely expect at the north of Turkey?
A. drizzle
B. snow showers
C. clear skies
D. stratus clouds

229. Which one is the coldest?

A. Tropical Air
B. Polar air
C. Equatorial air
D. Arctic air

230. Cold front creates cumuliform type of clouds, because of;

A. Cold air.
B. High density.
C. High wind speed.
D. Steep front angle.

231. Cold front undercuts the warm air because of;

A. High wind speed.
B. Warm air.
C. High density.
D. Steep front angle.

232. Select the correct item.

A. Cold front always catches the warm front because it is always faster.
B. Occluded front always catches the warm front because it is always faster.
C. Occluded front always catches the cold front because it is always faster.
D. Warm front always catches the cold front because it is always faster.

233. Which type of precipitation is the most dangerous at the time of warm front?
A. Drizzle
B. Snow
C. Freezing rain
D. Hail
234. Where is the cold air in an occlusion that has the characteristics of a cold front?
A. After the occlusion
B. Behind the front
C. At the front
D. Ahead of the front

235. At which front system is freezing rain oberved?

A. Stationary front
B. Occluded front
C. Cold front
D. Warm front

236. Where would you expect polar front depressions?

A. When flying over tropopause
B. When flying over Kenya
C. When flying over Europe
D. When flying over ITCZ (Intertropical convergence zone)

237. A cold front is approaching from the Balkans to Istanbul. What would you most likely
expect?
A. Rain showers
B. virga
C. Lenticularis clouds
D. subsidence

238. From the list below, select the Low, Medium and High clouds in ascending order.
A. Cirrus, Cumulonimbus, Stratus
B. Stratus, Altocumulus, Cirrus
C. Nimbostratus, Cumulonimbus, Cirrus
D. Altostratus, Altocumulus, Cirrus

239. Seen from the surface, the passage of a warm front is characterized by which of the
following cloud types?
A. Cirrostratus, Cirrocumulus, Altostratus, Nimbocumulus, Stratus.
B. Cirrostratus, Cirrocumulus, Cumulus, Nimbostratus, Fractostratus.
C. Cirrus, Cirrostratus, Altostratus, Nimbostratus, Stratus.
D. Cirrus, Cirrocumulus, Altocumulus, Altostratus Cumulus, Cumulus Fractus

240. Which of the following frontal systems is more likely to produce thunderstorm
activity?
A. A ridge of high pressure
B. An occluded front.
C. A cold front.
D. A warm front.

241. Frontal fog may exist:

A. ahead of a warm or warm occluded front.
B. at the surface interface of a cold front.
C. behind a cold front.
D. ahead of a cold front.

242. You observe the passage of the following cloud sequence: Cirrus, cirrostratus,
altostratus, nimbostratus, which would suggest the passage of:
A. a quasi stationary front
B. a cold front.
C. an occluded front.
D. a warm front.

243. Your planned route lies within a warm sector of a depression which would suggest:
A. Good visibility above and below extensive stratiform cloud.
B. Good visibility below scattered cumuliform cloud.
C. Poor visibility both above and below extensive stratus cloud.
D. Poor visibility above stratus cloud but moderate to good visibility below.

244. For a VFR flight severe airframe icing may occur when flying
A. into supercooled rain, resulting in rime ice formation
B. between two cloud layers, without precipitation, resulting in clear ice formation
C. into freezing rain, resulting in clear ice formation
D. into an area outside of clouds where the temperature is below 0° C, resulting in rime ice
formation

245. Which of the following conditions is most likely to cause airframe icing ?
A. GR
B. +FZRA
C. SHSN
D. BR

246. In which of the following situations is an aircraft most susceptible to icing ?

A. Flying in dense cirrus clouds
B. Level flight in snowfall below a nimbostratus layer
C. Flying in heavy drizzle
D. Level flight below a rain producing cloud when OAT is below zero degrees °C

247. Which of the following is not an effect of icing?

A. Weight increases.
B. Drag increases.
C. Fuel consumption increases.
D. Visibility is not affected.

248. Which temperature band causes the most dangerous icing?

A. (-15 C)-(-20 C)
B. (-20 C)-(-40 C)
C. (-10 C)-(-20 C)
D. (0 C)-(-15 C)

249. You are approaching to an airmass with a temperature of 6 C at 10000ft. Which

altitude should you be in order to avoid clear icing?
A. 9000 ft
B. 6000 ft
C. 14000 ft
D. 12000 ft

250. What is the most common freezing precipitation?

A. Freezing hail and freezing snow.
B. Freezing graupel.
C. Freezing pellets.
D. Freezing rain and freezing drizzle.

251. Clear ice forms as a result of:

A. ice pellets splattering on the aircraft.
B. water vapor freezing to the aircraft.
C. small supercooled water droplets splashing over the aircraft.
D. large supercooled water droplets spreading as they freeze.

252. A piston engine aircraft with carburator flying in clear air may be subjected to the
accretion of:
A. Rime ice.
B. Carburetor ice.
C. Clear ice.
D. Precipitation icing.
253. Gust Front forms up to 20 NM. long and ....
A. relative to the movement direction on the back side of the thunderstorm (CB).
B. relative to the movement direction happens on any side of the thunderstorm (CB).
C. relative to the movement direction on either side of the thunderstorm (CB).
D. relative to the movement direction in front of the thunderstorm (CB).

254. Which one of the following is not always the necessary condition for CB?
A. Instability
B. Uplift
C. Inversion
D. Moisture

255. Lightning is not the reason for;

A. Unreliable ADF reading
B. Unreliable compass reading
C. Unreliable airspeed reading
D. Temporary blindness

256. Thunderstorms reach their greatest intensity during the

A. cumulus stage
B. Mature stage
C. dissipating stage
D. Period in which precipitation is not falling

257. During the cycle of a thunderstorm, which stage is characterized predominantly by

downdrafts?
A. Initial stage
B. Mature stage
C. Tornado stage
D. Dissipating stage

258. Frontal thunderstorms are mainly associated with:

A. warm front
B. ridges of high pressure
C. cold front
D. cols

259. When would a rotor cloud be ahead of a Cb?

A. Cumulus stage
B. Mature stage
C. Initial stage
D. Dissipating stage

260. At which stage of CB you can see onset of precipitatıon?

A. Dissipating stage
B. Cumulus stage
C. Mature stage
D. Final stage

261. Which of the following are necessary for thunderstorm formation? I) Steep ELR II)
High Relative Humidity III) Convection
A. I,II
B. II,III
C. I,II,III
D. III

262. Isolated thunderstorms (TS) in summer are caused by:

A. convection.
B. cold fronts.
C. warm front occlusions.
D. cold front occlusions.

263. Amongst others, which of the following conditions are most likely to produce
thunderstorm activity:
A. A front formed by an advancing tropical continental air mass.
B. A shallow environmental lapse rate together with a low relative humidity.
C. A shallow environmental lapse rate together with a high moisture content.
D. A high moisture content together with a steep environmental lapse rate.

264. What would you most likely expect in a microburst?

A. Updraft
B. Inversion
C. Upgust
D. Windshear

265. While you are approaching to a runway you see a thunderstorm directly ahead, you
would most likely expect _______.
A. windshear
B. inversion at the airport
C. drizzle
D. Altocumulus Lenticularis
266. Potential hazards in a Thunderstorm are:
A. Drizzle, icing, turbulence
B. Downburst, icing, turbulence, hail
C. Ice pellets, stability, turbulence
D. Inversion, instability, showers

267. If a cap cloud covered the mountain peak, this may be the indication of;
A. High level winds.
B. Stable air
C. Precipitation
D. Calm windy area

268. The most severe turbulent part of the mountain waves is;
A. Lenticular cloud
B. Roll cloud
C. Windward side of the mountain
D. Cap cloud

269. "An aircraft flying at low level in the vicinity of a range of hills across which a strong
wind is blowing may experience: 1- Severe turbulence below any rotor zone. 2-
Downdraughts which may completely overcome the rate of climb of some low powered light
aircraft. 3- A greater than normal risk of icing in cloud over the crest of the hills."
A. only 1 and 3 are correct.
B. only 2 and 3 are correct.
C. 1, 2 and 3 are correct.
D. only 1 and 2 are correct.

270. When flying in the vicinity of a range of hills lying north/ south across which the wind
is blowing west to east, exposure to hazardous downdraughts is most likely to occur:
A. When flying south to north parallel to the range.
B. When flying north to south parallel to the range.
C. When flying west towards the hills from the east.
D. When flying east towards the range from the west.

271. An unstable air mass when forced to rise due to orographic lifting will produce:
A. None, as the air will subside and warm adiabatically after the summit is passed.
B. Cloud of extensive vertical development.
C. Lenticular cloud.
D. Thick stratiform cloud, probably nimbostratus.
272. In a mountain wave situation, the worst of the turbulence is most likely to be found
when flying:
A. at about mid-height between the lenticular and roll cloud.
B. in or just below the roll cloud,
C. in the cap cloud.
D. in the lenticular cloud

273. An active low pressure system is approaching. What difference would you notice in
the altimeter reading of an aircraft parked in the ground, over a 30 minute period?
A. The reading would show an increase in height.
B. The reading would fluctuate rapidly.
C. It is impossible to determine how the altimeter would react.
D. The reading would remain the same.

274. The altimeter will always read:

A. The altitude above MSL with 1013 set to sub scale.
B. The altitude above airfield with QNH set to sub scale.
C. The temperature corrected flight level with regional QFE set
D. The vertical distance above the pressure level reffer to set in sub scale.

275. Which one of them is being actually measured in the periodically by the
meteorological stations?
A. QNH
B. QFE
C. QFF
D. QNE

276. With which setting on the altimeter subscale will the altimeter read zero at
aerodrome level?
A. QNE
B. QFF
C. QFE
D. QNH

277. QNH is defined as

A. QFE reduced to MSL using the values of the standard atmosphere
B. pressure at MSL in the standard atmosphere
C. pressure at MSL in the actual atmosphere
D. QFE reduced to MSL using the values of the actual atmosphere

278. In order to calculate QFE from QNH, which of the following must be known ?
A. Elevation and the temperature at the airfield.
B. Elevation of the airfield.
C. Temperature at the airfield.
D. Elevation of the airfield and the temperature at MSL.

279. You are landing to an airfield. The altimeter reads the elevation of the aerodrome
when … is set.
A. QFE
B. QNE
C. QFF
D. QNH

280. Which of the following statements is true ?

A. QNH is always lower than QFE
B. QNH is always higher than QFE
C. QNH is always equal to QFE
D. QNH can be equal to QFE

281. If the QFE at ÇORLU (660 feet above sea level) is 980 hPa, what is the approximate
QNH ? (1 mb= 30 feet)
A. 1015 hPa
B. 1002 hPa
C. 1010 hPa
D. 998 hPa

282. QNH 1025 hPa at an altitude of 660 feet AMSL: What will the approximate QFE be?
(Assume 1 mb=30 ft)
A. 990 hPa
B. 1003 hPa
C. 1010 hPa
D. 1050 hPa

283. If an airfield is 240ft above mean sea level (AMSL) and the airfield QNH is 1024hPa
calculate the airfield QFE given that 1 hPa =30ft.
A. 1021hPa
B. 1016hPa
C. 1011hPa
D. 1032hPa
284. You are setting your altimeter at an aerodrome, where the elevation is 54 ft. above
MSL. The QNH you have been given is 1031 hPa. What would you expect the aerodrome QFE
to be?
A. 1032 hPa
B. 1009 hPa
C. 1029 hPa
D. 1001 hPa

285. If the QFE at an airport (200 metres above sea level) is 1000 hPa, what is the
approximate QNH? (1 mb = 27 feet)
A. 985 hPa
B. 1035 hPa
C. 1025 hPa
D. 990 hPa

286. What is the relationship between QFE and QNH at an airport 54 ft. below MSL?
A. QFE is equal to QNH
B. QFE is less than QNH
C. QFE is greater than QNH
D. There is no clear relationship.

287. Altimeter reads 10000ft when set to 1003 hPa QNH. What does it read when you
reset the altimeter to standard pressure setting? (1hPa : 27 ft)
A. 10330 ft
B. 9730 ft
C. 10270 ft
D. 9670 ft

288. Under which condition does pressure altitude have the same value as density altitude
?
A. At standard temperature.
B. When the altimeter setting is 1013,2 hPa.
C. At sea level when the temperature is 0°C.
D. When the altimeter has no position error.

289. You are flying at a constant indicated altitude with the QNH of 1015 set within the
subscale and you notice the outside air temperature has been falling constantly. What can
you expect to have happened to your true altitude?
A. The true altitude will have increased then decreased.
B. The true altitude will have decreased.
C. The true altitude will have remained the same.
D. The true altitude will have increased.
290. When flying towards a low pressure system at a constant indicated altitude, the true
altitude will be;
A. lower than indicated.
B. the same as indicated,
C. lower than indicated at first then the same as indicated later.
D. higher than indicated.

291. An aircraft flies at a constant indicated altitude from airfield A (QNH= 1009 hPA) to
airfield B (QNH= 1019 hPA) . If the subscale is not reset from 1009, what would be expected
when over airfield B?
A. The indicated altitude may be greater or less depending on the airfield elevation.
B. The indicated altitude would be more than actual altitude.
C. The indicated altitude would be the same as actual altitude.
D. The indicated altitude would be less than actual altitude.

292. An aircraft with 1020hPa set on the altimeter sub-scale departs aerodrome 'A' which
is 800ft above mean sea level (AMSL). The flight is made to the planned destination
aerodrome 'B' which is in an area of low pressure, but the altimeter sub-scale is not updated
en route. If the QNH at aerodrome 'B' is 999hPa, and the highest point on the landing area is
500ft AMSL, what should the altimeter read? Assume 1hPa = 30ft.
A. 1130ft
B. -180ft
C. 830ft
D. -130ft

293. An aircraft flies from aerodrome "A", (QNH= 1020 hPA) , to aerodrome "B", (QNH=
999 hPA) . Aerodrome "A" is 800 ft. above mean sea level and aerodrome "B" is 540 ft. above
mean sea level. If the altimeter sub scale is not changed from 1020, what is the altimeter
indication on landing.
A. -170 ft.
B. 1170 ft.
C. 1470 ft.
D. 170 ft.

294. All aneroid altimeters are calibrated with the;

A. Company flight regulations.
B. National flight regulation rules.
C. International Standard Atmospheric (ISA) Conditions
D. Regional flight regulation rules.

295. Which one is the elevation?

A. The vertical distance between the airfield and the Mean Sea Level.
B. The vertical distance between the aircraft and the airfield.
C. The vertical distance between the aircraft and the Mean Sea Level.
D. The vertical distance between the aircraft and the ISA MSL (1013,25 hPa).

296. In the ICAO Standard Atmosphere (ISA), the fall in pressura with height, close to
sealevel, is approximately 1 millibar for every
A. 27 feet.
B. 36 feet
C. 60 feet.
D. 45 feet.

297. You are flying FL100 in an airmass which is 15°C colder than ISA, local QNH 983. What
would the true altitude be?
A. 10.210 ft
B. 10.000 ft
C. 11.410 ft
D. 8.590 ft

298. State the definition for QNH:

A. QNE reduced to MSL, using standard temperature gradient
B. QFE reduced to MSL, using standard temperature gradient
C. QFF reduced to MSL, using standard temperature gradient
D. QFE reduced to MSL, using actual temperature gradient

299. While mountain flying on a cold winter day, under fair weather conditions (QNH1013
hPa), you circle a mountain of known height at peak elevation. Comparing to the elevation of
the mountain, the aneroid altimeter of your aircraft will therefore indicate... .
A. a higher altitude
B. peak elevation
C. a lower altitude
D. cannot be determined

300. Your aircraft's altimeter is set to 975 mbar at an aerodrome with an elevation of 650
ft. What does your altimeter read if the QNH = 985 mbar?
A. 400 ft
B. 360 ft
C. 390 ft
D. 380 ft

301. Meteorological visibility is measured by:

A. anemometer.
B. transmissometer.
C. an observer as an eye sight of known objects in a distance.
D. ceilometer.

302. Select the correct item.

A. Drizzle is not preventing the CAVOK conditions because it is not significant weather only by
itself.
B. Drizzle is not preventing the CAVOK conditions because visibility will not be blocked by slight
rain
C. Drizzle is preventing the CAVOK conditions because visibility will be blocked by slight rain
D. Drizzle is preventing the CAVOK conditions because it is significant weather by itself.

303. What is the difference between BECOMING and TEMPO ?

A. BECOMING is permanent,TEMPO is temporary.
B. TEMPO lasts 3 hours.
C. BECOMING is valid for 1 hour,TEMPO is valid for 2 hours.
D. BECOMING is certain, TEMPO is a forecast.

304. What is the meaning of PROB30?

A. At 3000 ft
B. with a probablity of 30%
C. 30 kt
D. visibility is 30m

305. Which report has the information of PROB30/PROB40?

A. AIRMET
B. SIGMET
C. METAR
D. TAF

306. What does RERA indicate?

A. A previous weather phenomena: moderate rain at the aerodrome
B. A currect weather phenomena: rain given in the METAR at that time
C. Rain
D. Freezing rain

307. What is the direction and speed of the wind shown in the annex?
A. 65 kt from 270 degrees
B. 70 kt from 90 degrees
C. 60 kt from 270 degrees
D. 50 kt from 90 degrees

308. Few 200 ft, Scattered 1200 ft, Broken 3500 ft, Overcast 10000 ft. How would that be
reported in a METAR?
A. FEW020 SCT120 BKN350 OVC100
B. FEW002 SCT012 BKN035 OVC100
C. FEW002 SCT012 BKN035 OVC1000
D. FEW002 SCT012 BKN035 OVC010

309. Which of the following phenomena should be described as precipitation at the time
they are observed?
A. HZ
B. FZFG
C. SN
D. BCFG

310. Which of the following statements is an interpretation of the METAR? LTXX 010120Z
00000KT 0200 R14/0800 R16/P1500 FZFG VV001 M03/M03 Q1022 BECMG 0800 =
A. Meteorological visibility for runway 14 800 metres, fog with hoar frost, RVR for runway 16
more than1500 metres
B. Meteorological visibility 200 feet, RVR for runway 16 more than 1500 metres, vertical
visibility 100 feet, fog with hoar frost
C. RVR for runway 14 is 800 metres, vertical visibility 100 feet, calm, meteorological visibility
improving to 800 metres in the next 2 hours
D. Meteorological visibility 200 metres, RVR for runway 16 1500 metres, temperature -3°C,
vertical visibility 100 metres

311. In which of the following METAR is the probability the biggest for the formation of
fog the following night?
A. 1850Z 25010KT 4000 RA BKN012 OBC030 12/10 Q1006 TEMPO 1500 =
B. 1850Z 06018G30KT 5000 OVC010 04/01 Q1024 NOSIG =
C. 1850Z 21003KT 8000 SCT250 12/M08 Q1028 NOSIG =
D. 1850Z 15003KT 6000 SCT120 05/04 Q1032 BECMG 1600 =

312. What is the meaning of the abbreviation "BKN"?

A. 6 - 8 octas.
B. 3 - 4 octas.
C. 5 - 7 octas.
D. 1 - 2 octas.

313. When will the surface wind in a METAR record a gust factor ?
A. When gusts are at least 15 knots above the mean wind speed
B. When gusts are at least 10 knots above the mean wind speed
C. With gusts of at least 25 knots
D. With gusts of at least 35 knots

314. What would you expect when you see FZRA in a METAR?
A. Rain showers
B. Formation of ice due to supercooled precipitation
C. Freezing fog
D. Ice pellets

315. In METARs and TAFs, wind is reported with reference to:

A. Magnetic North
B. Geographic North
C. True North
D. Equator

316. Meteorological textual information defines the height of cloud bases as follows:
A. METAR - AGL TAF - AMSL
B. METAR - AGL TAF - AGL
C. METAR - AMSL TAF - AGL
D. METAR - AMSL TAF - AMSL

317. In the METAR shown below, the cloud base has been omitted. At what height might
you expect the cloud base to be if cumulus cloud was present? 28005KT 9999 SCT??? 12/05
Q1020 NOSIG =
A. SCT082
B. SCT280
C. SCT095
D. SCT028

318. The abbreviation BKN, with respect to cloud cover means:

A. 3 - 4 oktas
B. 5 - 7 oktas
C. half cover
D. 1 - 4 oktas

319. In a METAR a gust is reported when:

A. it is 15 kt greater than the mean wind speed.
B. it is 5 kt greater than the mean wind speed.
C. it is 20 kt greater than the mean wind speed.
D. it is 10 kt greater than the mean wind speed.
320. A METAR may be defined as being?
A. A routine weather report concerning a specific aerodrome.
B. A routine weather report for a large area.
C. An aerodrome forecast containing a TREND for the next two hours.
D. A forecast weather report concerning a specific aerodrome.

321. The visibility group R20/0050 in a METAR means:

A. on Runway 20, the current visibility is less than 5000 meters.
B. as measured by runway measuring equipment for Runway 20, a current runway visibility of
50 meters.
C. the runway visibility reported is 50 meters as measured by the runway visual range
equipment within the last 20 minutes.
D. for Runway 20, a current visibility of 500 meters measured by runway visual range
equipment.

322. BECMG 1820 BKN030 in a TAF means:

A. becoming from 1820 UTC 5-7 oktas of cloud at 3000 ft. agl.
B. becoming between 1800 UTC and 2000 UTC 5-7 oktas of cloud at 3000 ft. agl.
C. becoming between 1800 UTC and 2000 UTC 3-4 oktas of cloud at 300 ft. agl.
D. becoming from 1820 UTC 3-4 oktas of cloud at 300 ft. agl.

323. A temperature group of 28/24 in a METAR means that:

A. the dew point is 28°C and the temperature is 24°C.
B. the temperature is 28°C at the time of the reporting, but is expected to become 24°C by the
end of the TREND report.
C. the dry bulb temperature is 28°C and the wet bulb temperature is 24°C.
D. the temperature is 28°C and the dew point is 24°C.

324. TEMPO in a TAF means:

A. a temporary variation to the main forecast that will last for less than one hour, or, if
recurring, for less than half the period indicated.
B. the development of unpredictable temporary conditions that may be a hazard to aviation.
C. a variation to the base line conditions laid down in the main forecast that will continue to
prevail until the end of the main forecast.
D. a temporary variation to the main forecast lasting less than three hour.

325. When a TREND is included at the end of a METAR, the trend is a forecast valid for:
A. 2 hours after it was issued.
B. 2 hours after the time of observation
C. 1 hour after it was issued.
D. 1 hour after the time of observation.
326. How would a forecast easterly wind of 22 knots, gusting to 32 knots be represented
in a TAF?
A. 09022-32KT
B. 09022G32KT
C. 09022KTG32
D. 090/22 G32 KT

327. Decode the cloud bases being described in this METAR for an aerodrome: 261450Z
07007KT 9999 FEW035 SCT043 BKN240 21/12 Q1016 NOSIG =
A. 1-2 oktas at 350 ft., 3-4 oktas at 430 ft., 5-7 oktas at 2400 ft.
B. 1-2 oktas at 3500 ft., 3-4 oktas at 4300 ft., 5-7 oktas at 24000 ft.
C. 1-2 oktas at 3500 ft., 2-3 oktas at 4300 ft., 5-8 oktas at 24000 ft.
D. 2-3 oktas at 3500 ft., 4-5 oktas at 4300 ft., 6-7 oktas at 24000 ft.

328. With what type of cloud is "GR" precipitation most commonly associated?
A. ST
B. AS
C. CB
D. CC

329. With what type of cloud is "+TSRA" precipitation most commonly associated?
A. AS
B. CB
C. NS
D. SC

330. What is the meaning of the abbreviation "SCT"?

A. 5 - 7 octas.
B. 8 octas
C. 3 - 4 octas.
D. 6 - 8 octas.

331. When is the RVR reported regarding ICAO standards?

A. When the meteorological visibility decreases below 1500 m.
B. When the RVR decreases below 2000 m.
C. When the meteorological visibility decreases below 800 m.
D. When the RVR decreases below 800 m.

332. What does a Transmissiometer measure ?

A. Visibility.
B. Wind speed.
C. Cloud base.
D. Breaking action

333. What does RVR stand for ?

A. Runway visual range.
B. Radio VHF and range
C. Reduced visibility range.
D. Reduced vertical range.

334. When last 10 minutes wind velocity deviates more than 10 kts from mean value
during the same period of time, this will be indicated as:
A. A squall
B. A gust
C. Geostrophic wind.
D. Tempo 10 kts

335. What does the abbreviation "NOSIG" mean?

A. No report received
B. No weather related problems
C. Not signed by the meteorologist
D. No significant changes

336. In which weather report would you expect to find information about icing conditions
on the runway?
A. TAF
B. SIGMET
C. METAR
D. GAFOR

337. According to the following 1850 UTC METAR reports, which has the highest
probability of fog formation?
A. 00000KT 9999 SCT300 21/01 Q1032 NOSIG =
B. VRB01KT 8000 SCT025 11/10 Q1028 BECMG 3000 =
C. VRB02KT 2500 SCT120 14/M08 Q1035 NOSIG =
D. 22004KT 6000 -RA SCT012 OVC030 17/14 Q1009 NOSIG =

338. Which of the following weather reports could be, in accordance with the regulations,
abbreviated to "CAVOK"? (MSA above ground: LSZB 10000 FT, LSZH 8000 FT, LSGG 12000 FT,
LFSB 6000 FT)
A. LSZB 30004KT 9999 SCT090 10/09 Q1006 NOSIG =
B. LSGG 22003KT 9999 SCT120 BKN200 09/08 Q1026 NOSIG =
C. LFSB 00000KT 9000 SCT080 22/15 Q1022 NOSIG =
D. LSZH 26024G52KT 9999 BKN060 17/14 Q1012 RETS TEMPO 5000 TSRA =

339. Which of the following weather reports could be, in accordance with the regulations,
abbreviated to "CAVOK"? (MSA above ground : LSZB 10000 FT, LSZH 8000 FT, LSGG 12000 FT,
LFSB 6000 FT)
A. LSGG 22006KT 9999 BKN090 17/15 Q1008 RERA NOSIG =
B. LSZB 28012KT 9999 OVC100 16/12 Q1012 NOSIG =
C. LFSB 24008KT 9999 SCT050 18/11 Q1017 RERA NOSIG =
D. LSZH VRB02KT 9000 BKN080 21/14 Q1022 NOSIG =

340. Refer to the TAF for Etimesgut airport. TAF LTAD 281340 281524 26015KT 9999
+SHRA = Flight Antalya to Etimesgut, ETA 1800 UTC. What type of precipitation is forecast on
the approach to Etimesgut ?
A. Heavy rain showers
B. Light drizzle and fog
C. Moderate snow showers
D. Continuous moderate rain

341. Refer to the TAF for Isparta airport. TAF LTFC 281340 281524 26015KT 9999 SHRA
BKN020 TEMPO 1620 26020G30KT 8000 +SHRA BKN015CB PROB30 TSRA = Flight Antalya to
Isparta, ETA 1800 UTC. At ETA Isparta what is the lowest quoted visibility forecast ?
A. 8 NM
B. 10 or more KM
C. 10 NM
D. 8 KM

342. Refer to the TAF for Etimesgut airport. LTAD 281040 281221 14010KT 6000 -RA
SCT025 BECMG 1416 12015G25KT SCT008 BKN013 TEMPO 1619 3000 RA BKN005 OVC010
BECMG 1921 25020KT 8000 NSW BKN020 = Flight from Antalya to Etimesgut, ETA 1800 UTC.
At ETA Etimesgut what surface wind is forecast ?
A. 140° / 10 kt
B. 250° / 20 kt
C. 300° / 15 kt maximum wind 25 kt
D. 120° / 15 kt gusts 25 kt

343. Refer to the TAF for Etimesgut airport. LTAD 281040 281221 14010KT 6000 -RA
SCT025 BECMG 1416 12015G25KT SCT008 BKN013 TEMPO 1619 3000 RA BKN005 OVC010
BECMG 1921 25020KT 8000 NSW BKN020 = Flight from Antalya to Etimesgut, ETA 1800 UTC.
At ETA Etimesgut what visibility is forecast ?
A. 5 km
B. 5 NM
C. 3 km
D. 6 km

344. Refer to the following TAF extract: BECMG 1821 2000 BKN004 PROB30 BECMG 2124
0500 FG VV001 What visibility is forecast for 2400 UTC?
A. Between 500 m and 2000 m.
B. 2000 m.
C. Between 0 m and 1000 m.
D. 500 m.

345. Refer to the following TAF extract: BECMG 1821 2000 BKN004 PROB30 BECMG 2124
0500 FG VV001 What does the abbreviation "VV001" mean?
A. Vertical visibility 100 ft.
B. Vertical visibility 100 m.
C. RVR less than 100 m.
D. RVR greater than 100 m.

346. How long from the time of observation is a TREND in a METAR valid?
A. 30 minutes.
B. 9 hours.
C. 2 hours.
D. 1 hour.

347. Providing the minimum sector altitude is not a determining factor, CAVOK in a TAF or
METAR:
A. Means visibility 10 nm or more.
B. Means visibility 10 nm or more and no cloud below 5000ft.
C. Means visibility 10 km or more with only few cloud below 5000ft.
D. Means visibility 10 km or more and no cloud below 5000ft.

348. NOSIG appearing at the end of the METAR below means: EGAC SA1720 161720Z
22009KT CAVOK 16111 Q1010 NOSIG=
A. Nothing significant in general for that day.
B. No expected significant variation to the observed weather during the two hour forecast
period following the time of observation.
C. No significant weather at the time of observation.
D. No significant changes to the forecast conditions during the period of validity of the forecast.

349. The weather group +SHSNRA contained in Terminal Aerodrome Forecast (TAF)
means:
A. Heavy showers of snow becoming rain.
B. Heavy showers of snow and rain.
C. Slight showers of snow and rain.
D. Slight showers of snow becoming rain.

350. A METAR- EGZZ 130350Z 32005kt 0400N DZ 10/10 BCFG VV002- in plain language
means:
A. Reported on the 13th day of the month at 0350Z, surface wind 320°/05kt, minimum visibility
400metres to the north, drizzle, temperature +10°C dew point above 10 oc with fog patches,
vertical visibility 200metres.
B. Observed on the 13th day of the month and valid between 0300 and 0500Z, surface wind
320°/05kt, minimum visibility 4000 meters to the north, drizzle temperature+10°C, dew point
+ 10°C, becoming fog patches, vertical visibility 200ft.
C. Observed on the 13th day of the month at 0350Z, surface wind 320°T/05kt, minimum
visibility 400 meters to the north, moderate drizzle, temperature +10°C, dew point + 10 °C
with fog patches, vertical visibility 200ft.
D. Reported on the 13th day of the month and valid between 0300 and 0500Z, surface wind
320°/05kt, minimum visibility 400 meters to the north, drizzle temperature +10°C, becoming
fog patches, vertical visibility 200ft.

351. The code: BECMG FM 1100 -SHRA when used in a METAR means:
A. From 1100 UTC the prevailing rain showers becoming slight.
B. From 1100 UTC the cessation of rain showers.
C. Becoming from 1100 UTC slight rain showers.
D. Becoming fairly moderate weather from 1100 UTC.

352. With what type of cloud is "DZ" precipitation most commonly associated?
A. CC
B. CB
C. ST
D. CU

353. When you contact ATC or ATIS, wind is reported with reference to:
A. Magnetic North
B. Geographic North
C. Equator
D. True North

354. Which of the following weather reports is a warning of conditions that could be
potentially hazardous to aircraft in flight ?
A. SIGMET
B. NAMET
C. TAF
D. METAR

355. When ATIS broadcasts update?

A. Every hour
B. Every 30 minutes
C. Any time the aerodrome or weather information change
D. Only when the aerodrome information changes
060 NAVIGATION
PPL(A)
QUESTION BANK
1. What is the inclination of the Earth’s axis to its orbital plane?
A. 90°
B. 66,5°
C. 23,5°
D. 33,5°

2. What type of line will always be the shortest distance between two points on the Earth?
A. A small circle.
B. A rhumb line.
C. A paralel of latitude.
D. A great circle.

3. An aircraft is following the 45°N parallel of latitude. The track followed is a:

A. Rhumb line.
B. Constant-drift track.
C. Great circle.
D. Constant-heading track.

4. Which of these statements about a small circle is false?

A. All lines of lattitude are small circles.
B. A radio wave never follows a small circle.
C. Its plane doesn’t pass through the centre of the Earth.
D. The smaller arc of it does not represent the shortest distance on Earth.

5. The direction of the Earth's rotation on its axis is such that:

A. An observer on the surface of the Earth always will face West when observing sunrise.
B. Any point on the surface of the Earth will move westward.
C. Any point on the surface of the Earth will move eastward.
D. Observed from the point above the North Pole, the rotation is counterclockwise.

6. The diameter of the Earth is approximately:

A. 40 000 km.
B. 18 500 km.
C. 12 700 km.
D. 6 350 km.

7. What is the angular distance in degrees for latitudes?

A. N / S of the Equator to a maximum of 180 degrees N / S.
B. N / S of the Equator to a maximum of 90 degrees N / S.
C. E / W of the Equator to a maximum of 90 degrees E / W.
D. E / W of the Equator to a maximum of 180 degrees E / W.

8. Which of these statements about a rhumb line is false?

A. All meridians are both rhumb lines and semi great circles.
B. All lines of lattitude are rhumb lines but not great circles.
C. If the rhumb line bearing of A from B is 090 (T), the rhumb line bearing of B from A is 270 (T).
D. It is a line of constant direction on the Earth’s surface.

9. Which of the following statements on the shape of the Earth is correct?

A. It is slightly flattened at the poles.
B. The longest diameter is between the poles.
C. The equatorial diameter is about 60 NM longer than the polar diameter.
D. The diameter of the Earth is the same at all latitudes.

10. Which one of the following statements on longitudes is correct?

A. The largest value of change of longitude is 90.
B. The value of longitude will never exceed 90 degrees.
C. The largest value of longitude is 180°.
D. Longitude is stated in degrees up to 360°.

11. Which one is true?

A. Maximum deviation can be 180 degrees.
B. All of these.
C. The angle between magnetic and compass north is called deviation.
D. The circumference of the Equator is approximately 40000 km.

12. Which one is true?

A. 0° meridian is longer than 30° W meridian.
B. 0° paralel of latitude is shorter than 0° meridian.
C. 0° paralel of latitude is longer than 30° N paralel of latitude.
D. Equinox is the 23° 27' latitude.

13. The angle between the plane of the ecliptic and the plane of Equator is approximately :
A. 27.5°.
B. 66.5°.
C. 23.5°.
D. 25.3°.
14. At what approximate date is the Earth furthest from the Sun (Aphelion)?
A. Beginning of July.
B. End of December.
C. End of September.
D. Beginning of January.

15. Seasons are due to the:

A. Earth's elliptical orbit around the Sun.
B. Earth's rotation on its polar axis.
C. Inclination of the polar axis with the Ecliptic plane.
D. Variable distance between the Earth and Sun.

16. The planets move around the Sun:

A. At constant angular speed.
B. In elliptical orbits.
C. In circular orbits.
D. At constant velocity.

17. 5 HR 20 MIN 20 SEC corresponds to a longitude difference of:

A. 75°00'.
B. 78°45'.
C. 81°10'.
D. 80°05'.

18. To define a position on Earth, it is enough to give;

A. Both latitude and longitude.
B. Longitude only.
C. Latitude only.
D. Either latitude or longitude.

19. The total length of which of the following flight routes is shorter?
A. 10° N parallel circle.
B. 45° S parallel circle.
C. They are all the same.
D. 010° W meridian.

20. Point A(Southern Hemisphere, 078°W), and Point B which is the antipodal(=diametrically
opposite) of point A lies definitely in the …… Hemisphere, ……… of the Prime Meridian and
has longitude of …….. degrees!
A. Northern – East - 112.
B. Northern – East - 102.
C. Northern – East - 078.
D. Southern – West - 078.

21. An Aircraft at latitude 02°30’N tracks 180°(T) for 666 km. The final latitude will be:
A. 03°30’S.
B. 04°30’S.
C. 08°30’N.
D. 04°30’N.

22. An aircraft travels north along the same meridian from latitude 30 15’ south to 14 00’ south.
What is the distance flown in kilometres?
A. 1806 km
B. 1170km
C. 6018 km
D. 1890 km

23. 5 HR 20 MIN 20 SEC corresponds to a longitude difference of ;

A. 81°10'
B. 80°05'
C. 75°00'
D. 78°45'

24. A flight is to be made from “A” 49°S 180'E/W to “B” 58°S 180'E/W. The distance in NM from
“A” to “B” is approximately ;
A. 1200
B. 1000
C. 540
D. 804

25. Parallels of latitude , except the equator , are ;

A. Great circles.
B. are neither Rhumb lines nor Great circles.
C. both Rhumb lines and Great circles.
D. Rhumb lines.

26. The circumference of the earth is approximately ;

A. 21600 NM.
B. 43200 NM.
C. 5400 NM.
D. 10800 NM.
27. A straight line on a chart 4.89 cm long represents 185 NM. The scale of this chart is
approximately ;
A. 1 : 5 000 000
B. 1 : 3 500 000
C. 1 : 7 000 000
D. 1 : 6 000 000

28. "Given a chart scale of 1:1,000, 000 what is represented by a chart distance of 11 inches? (1
inch=2,54 cm) "
A. 150 nm
B. 169 nm
C. 220 nm
D. 110 nm

29. Contour lines on aeronautical maps and charts connect points:

A. Having the same longitude.
B. Of equal latitude.
C. Having the same elevation above sea level.
D. With the same variation.

30. A straight line drawn on a chart measures 4.63 cm and represents 150 NM. The chart scale is:
A. 1: 6 000 000.
B. 1: 5 000 000.
C. 1: 1 000 000.
D. 1 : 3 000 000.

31. The distance measured between two points on a navigation map is 42 mm (millimetres). The
scale of the chart is 1 : 1 600 000. The actual distance between these two point is
approximately:
A. 370.00 NM.
B. 67.20 NM.
C. 3.69 NM.
D. 36.30 NM.

32. Consider the following statements on the properties of a great circle:

A. The great circle running through two positions on the surface of the Earth is the shortest
distance between these two positions.
B. All 3 answers are correct.
C. The parallels of latitudes are all great circles.
D. The great circle will maintain the initial true direction.
33. A Rhumb line is:
A. The shortest distance between two points on a Polyconic projection.
B. Any straight line on a Lambert projection
C. A line convex to the nearest pole on a Mercator projection.
D. A line on the surface of the Earth cutting all meridians at the same angle.

34. Parallels of latitude, except the Equator, are:

A. Great circles.
B. Neither Rhumb lines nor Great circles.
C. Both Rhumb lines and Great circles.
D. Rhumb lines.

35. On a Mercator Projection, rhumb line is represented as;

A. Curve convex to the poles
B. Curve convex to the equator
C. Straight line
D. Curve concave to the poles

36. Which sentence is correct about the Lambert Conformal Projection?

A. The scale out of the standard parallels is smaller than the scale between the standard
parallels.
B. The scale is minimum at standard parallels.
C. The scale out of the standard parallels is bigger than the scale between the standard
parallels.
D. The scale is constant whole the chart.

37. Which one is false about parallels and meridians?

A. Distance between two meridians is constant.
B. Distance between two parallels is constant.
C. All meridians are great circle with their anti-meridian.
D. All parallels are rhumb line but only the equator is a great circle.

38. Which one is false about great circle and rhumb line?
A. Great circle route between two points is always closer to the pole compared with rhumb line
route between the same points.
B. Great Circle route maintains its initial true direction.
C. Rhumb line route can never be shorter than the great circle distance between 2 points.
D. Rhumb line route maintains its initial true direction.

39. Polar stereographic chart is represented by;

A. None of them
B. Cylindrical projection
C. Azimuthal (Plane projection)
D. Conical projection

40. If an aircraft flies along a VOR radial it will follow a;

A. line of constant bearing.
B. great circle track.
C. constant magnetic track.
D. Rhumb line track.

41. The highest value of longitude is found:

A. along equator.
B. at Greenwich anti meridian.
C. close to the prime meridian.
D. close to the poles.

42. A direct Mercator graticule is based on a projection that is:

A. spherical
B. concentric
C. cylindrical
D. conical

43. Which of the following statement is incorrect about Mercator Cylindrical Projection?
A. Rhumb lines are straight lines.
B. All great circles curve concave to the equator.
C. Distortions are observed towards to the poles.
D. The scale is accurate only around the equator.

44. Which of the following circles on the Earth's globe does not have the center at the Earth's
center?
A. Equator.
B. Longitudes.
C. Great Circle.
D. Small Circle.

45. The distance of 1 NM is equivalent to

A. The distance of one arc minute on a Meridian.
B. Exactly the 40-thousandth part of the Earth's perimeter.
C. The distance between a Meridian and the pole.
D. The perimeter of a Polar Circle.
46. On a chart, 6 cm represents the distance 15 km. What is the scale of the chart?
A. 1:300 000.
B. 1:500 000.
C. 1:400 000.
D. 1:250 000.

47. The distance measured between two points on the Earth is 96 NM. This distance is
represented on a navigation map with a scale 1:1.200.000 as;
A. 139 mm
B. 128 mm
C. 148 mm
D. 120 mm

48. An arc of 1 minute of a meridian equals

A. 1 statute mile.
B. 10 kilometres.
C. 1 kilometre.
D. 1 nautical mile.

49. One Nautical Mile equals to

A. 6076 feet.
B. 1852 km.
C. 3281 Yards.
D. 0.869 Statute Miles.

50. On a chart we read the obstacle altitude 540 meters. Regarding the rule of height clearance
1,000 feet over obstacles, what is the lowest altitude for overflying the obstacle?
A. 2,800 ft.
B. 1,782 ft.
C. 2,230 ft.
D. 1,540 ft.

51. If a pilot changes the altimeter setting from 1000hPa to 1023hPa, the altitude indication will:
A. Increase for 1,000 ft.
B. Increase for 690 ft
C. Decrease for 690 ft
D. Decrease for 1,000 ft.
52. An aircraft follows a radial to a VOR/DME station. At 10:20 the DME reads 100 NM. At 10:25
the DME reads 90 NM. The estimated time overhead the VOR/DME station is:
A. 10:50
B. 11.00.
C. 11:32
D. 11:10

53. The distance between the points ALFA and BRAVO is 104 NM. If an aircraft covers first 8 NM
in 5 minutes, what time does it take to travel the entire route ALFA-BRAVO with the same
groundspeed?
A. 1 hour.
B. 1 hour and 5 minutes.
C. 1 hour and 10 minutes.
D. 59 minutes.

54. A useful method of a pilot resolving , during a visual flight , any uncertainty in the aircraft’s
position is to maintain visual contact with the ground and ;
A. fly reverse headings and associated timings until the point of departure is regained.
B. set heading towards a line feature such as a coastline , motorway , river or railway.
C. fly expanding circles until a pinpoint is obtained.
D. fly the reverse of the heading being flown prior to becoming uncertain until a pinpoint is
obtained.

55. The calibrated air speed (CAS) is obtained by applying to the indicated airspeed (IAS):
A. A compressibility and density correction.
B. An instrument and position/pressure error correction.
C. A compressibility correction.
D. An instrument and density correction.

56. Having travelled 30 NM, you discover you are 2 NM off track. What is your track error?
A. 3°.
B. 4°.
C. 6°.
D. 8°.

57. Given the following: True track: 192° Magnetic variation: 7°E Drift angle: 5° left What is the
magnetic heading required to maintain the given track?
A. 194°.
B. 190°.
C. 180°.
D. 204°.
58. An aircraft travels 100 statute miles in 20 MIN, how long does it take to travel 215 NM?
A. 100 MIN.
B. 50 MIN.
C. 90 MIN.
D. 80 MIN.

59. Fuel flow per HR is 31 US-GAL, total fuel on board is 260 Liter. What is the endurance?
A. 8 HR 39 MIN.
B. 2 HR 13 MIN.
C. 2 HR 22 MIN.
D. 8 HR 23 MIN.

60. For landing on a runway with the magnetic direction of 225°, the W/V reported by voice ATIS
is 180°/30 kt. The local magnetic variation is given as 15° E. Calculate the approximate
crosswind component.
A. 21 kt.
B. 26 kt.
C. None of them.
D. 15 kt.

61. The true heading for a flight between two points of a route is 200° and the drift angle is
10°Right. What will be the true heading for a return flight between the same points, if the
wind condition remains unaffected?
A. 20°.
B. 40°.
C. 50°.
D. 30°.

62. The distance of the route from the point X to the point Y via the control point Z is 84 km. If an
aircraft covers the first segment X-Z (35 km) in 50 minutes, what will be the total time of
flight between the points X and Y?
A. 2 hours.
B. 50 minutes.
C. 45 minutes.
D. 1 hour and 10 minutes.

63. During a cruise with a constant track, while inbound to the 316 radial at 14:17, DME indicates
24 NM. At 14:27 DME still indicates 24 NM while being outbound to the 136 radial. Find the
approximate Groundspeed.
A. 300 knots.
B. 288 knots.
C. 144 knots.
D. 330 km/h.

64. Flight planning chart for an aircraft states that the time to reach the cruising level at a given
gross mass is 36 minutes and the distance travelled is 157 NM (zero-wind). What will be the
distance travelled with an average tailwind component of 60 kt?
A. 128 NM
B. 228 NM
C. 157 NM
D. 193 NM

65. After flying for 16 min at 100 kt TAS with a 20 kt tail wind component, you have to return to
the airfield of departure. The return leg will last:
A. 24 min
B. 20 min
C. 16 min
D. 10 min 40 sec

66. Is it possible for a desired true track, true heading and actual true track to have the same
value?
A. Yes, because these values are always equal.
B. This is possible only when flying in north or south direction.
C. No, in no case.
D. Yes, in case of still air condition.

67. An aircraft turns to right from a true heading of 081° to a true track of 227° under a drfit of
10°L. Calculate the degree of rotation.
A. 136°
B. 146°
C. 214°
D. 156°

68. An aircraft turns to right from a true heading of 082° to a true track of 099° under a drift of
6°R. Calculate the degree of rotation.
A. 23°
B. 11°
C. 203°
D. 17°

69. An aircraft turns to left from a true heading of 112° to a magnetic track of 085°. The drift is
4°Left and the local variation is 6°E. Calculate the degree of rotation.
A. 25°
B. 37°
C. 17°
D. 29°

70. An aircraft flies for half an hour in still wind condition. Calculate the additional distance it
could have flown with a tailwind of 20 kt during the same amount of time.
A. 10 NM
B. 20 NM
C. 40 NM
D. Cannot be calculated

71. The PIC of an aircraft with a crosswind limitation of 14kt for both T/O and landing has the
option of three operational runways. Given a surface wind of 250/18kt, which of the
following runways give a crosswind that is within the aircraft’s limitations?
A. 29 and 33
B. 22 and 29
C. 22, 29 and 33
D. 29 only

72. An aircraft sets heading overhead A at 11:00 UTC to fly to B which is 87nm away on a track of
160 degress true, the forecast met wind is 040 degress at 30kts and the planned TAS is 96kts.
What is the ETA overhead B?
A. 11:45 UTC
B. 11:04 UTC
C. 11:57 UTC
D. 11:49 UTC

73. You are flying at 1200ft. What rate of climb is required to reach 4000 ft in 10 nm if your
groundspeed is 125 kts?
A. Approximately 240 ft / min
B. Approximately 780 ft / min
C. Approximately 1080 ft / min
D. Approximately 580 ft / min

74. An aircraft is planned to fly from position “A” to position “B” , distance 320 NM , at an
average GS of 180 kt. It departs “A” at 1200 UTC. After flying 70 NM along track from “A” ,
the aircraft is 3 MIN ahead of planned time. Using the actual GS experienced , what is the
revised ETA at “B” ?
A. 1347 UTC
B. 1401 UTC
C. 1333 UTC
D. 1340 UTC

75. Assuming zero wind , what distance will be covered by an aircraft descending 10 000 FT with
a TAS of 100 kt and maintaining a rate of descent of 500 FT/MIN ?
A. 19.2 NM
B. 16.0 NM
C. 33.3 NM
D. 38.4 NM

76. "Consider the following factors that determine the accuracy of a DR position ; 1. The flight
time since the last position update. 2. The accuracy of the forecasted wind. 3. The accuracy
of the TAS. 4. The accuracy of the corrected heading Using the list above which of the
following contains the most complete answer ?"
A. 1 , 2 and 3.
B. 1 , 2 and 4.
C. 1 and 2.
D. 1 , 2 , 3 and 4.

77. Given; true track 070° variation 30°W deviation +1° drift 10°R Calculate the compass heading.
A. 100°
B. 089°
C. 101°
D. 091°

78. Given; TAS = 190 kt HDG ( T ) = 355° W/V = 165 / 25kt. Calculate the drift and GS.
A. 1L - 215 kt
B. 1R - 175 kt
C. 1R - 165 kt
D. 1L - 225 kt

79. Given: Runway direction 083°(M) Surface W/V 023° / 35 kt Calculate the effective headwind
component.
A. 17.5 kt
B. 42.6 kt
C. 32.2 kt
D. 30.3 kt

80. How many NM would an aircraft travel in 1 MIN 45 SEC if GS is 135 kt?
A. 3.94 NM
B. 3.54 NM
C. 2.36 NM
D. 39.0 NM

81. Given; Distance “A” to “B” is 90 NM. Fix obtained 60 NM along and 4 NM to the right of
course. What heading alteration must be made to reach “B” ?
A. 4° Left
B. 8° Left
C. 12° Left
D. 16° Left

82. Given; Distance “A” to “B” is 100 NM. Fix obtained 40 NM along and 6 NM to the LEFT of
course. What heading alteration must be made to reach “B” ?
A. 9° Right
B. 18° Right
C. 15° Right
D. 6° Right

83. An aircraft flying over an area that has 5 deg East variation, assume that the compass
deviastion 3 deg West. To obtain 80 deg Magnetic Heading, what must be the aircraft
compass reading?
A. 85
B. 83
C. 78
D. 75

84. An aircraft has 72 Gallons fuel capacity. What is the endurance of aircraft if the fuel
consumption is 15 Gal/hour?
A. 4 hours 54 minutes
B. 4 hours 32 minutes
C. 4 hours 48 minutes
D. 3 hours 58 minutes

85. How long will it take to fly 16 NM with a Ground Speed of 145 kt?
A. 5 minutes 25 seconds
B. 7 minutes 05 seconds
C. 7 minutes 55 seconds
D. 6 minutes 37 seconds

86. If you fly 180 NM in 27 minutes, what is your ground speed?

A. 360 kt
B. 400 kt
C. 480 kt
D. 420 kt

87. Consider that you are flying with a ground speed of 120 kt. After 15 minutes, you recognized
you are 5 NM out of the track. What is the track error?
A. 8°
B. 10°
C. 4°
D. 6°

88. Consider that you have a destination 160 NM away. Your ground speed is 120 kt. After 20
minutes, you recognize you are 6 NM left of the route. What is the heading correction
needed to reach directly to the destination?
A. 12°R
B. 6°L
C. 9°R
D. 9°L
89. What is the Rate of Descent required to descent to 6500 feet from 12500 feet in 16 NM
horizontal distance with ground speed of 240 kt?
A. 1100 fpm
B. 1300 fpm
C. 1500 fpm
D. 1700 fpm

90. The equivalent of 70 m/sec is approximately:

A. 145 kt
B. 210 kt
C. 136 kt
D. 35 kt

91. An aircraft is flying between A and B. The distance is 600 NM between these two points. Fuel
consumption is 10 US-gal/hr. Groundspeed is 200 knots and total fuel is 90 US-gal. What is
the remaining amount of fuel on board?
A. 60 US-gal.
B. 70 US-gal.
C. 40 US-gal.
D. 50 US-gal.

92. An aircraft, flying at 088° TC at a speed of 100 kts TAS, is affected by the wind blowing from
060 degrees at a speed of 30 kts (060/30). Calculate the drift and the ground speed.
A. Right 13°, GS 128 kts.
 B. Right 8°, GS 117 kts.
C. Right 8°, GS 74 kts.
D. Left 13°, GS 64 kts.

93. An airplane is flying at a speed of 74 kts. What is the estimated en-route time (ETE) for a
distance of 68 nautical miles?
A. 0h 45 Minutes.
B. 1h 45 Minutes.
C. 0h 35 Minutes.
D. 0h 55 Minutes.

94. Pressure altitude= 10 000 feet; Temperature= -30°C. IAS: 180. Determine True Air Speed.
A. 162 kt.
B. 186 kt.
C. 210 kt.
D. 200 kt.

95. True Course= 124°; TAS= 110 kt; W/V= 340°/15 kt; Variation 3°E; Deviation between 120 and
150 degrees Heading= – 2°.

What is the Compass Heading?

A. 118°.
B. 122°.
C. 128°.
D. 125°.

96. True Course= 124°; TAS= 110 kt; W/V= 340°/15 kt; Variation 3°E; Deviation between 120 and
150 degrees Heading= – 2°.

What is the Ground Speed (GS)?

A. 115 kt.
B. 98 kt.
C. 127 kt.
D. 121 kt.

97. Calculate your true airspeed (TAS) for an indicated airspeed (IAS) of 100 knots, if you are
flying at an altitude of 5000 ft where the temperature is zero degrees Celsius.
A. 105 kt.
B. 104 kt.
C. 108 kt.
D. 106.5 kt.
98. Your true air speed is 106 kt, and the wind is 325°/10 kt. If the variation is 1 degree West,
what magnetic heading would you need to steer in order to maintain a desired true track of
068°?
A. 066°.
B. 064°.
C. 060°.
D. 062°.

99. If it takes you 41 minutes to cover a distance of 58 nautical miles, what is your ground
speed?
A. 87 kt.
B. 77 kt.
C. 85 kt.
D. 93 kt.

100. True track= 350°, Variation= 10° East, Deviation= 5° East. What is the compass track?
A. 355°.
B. 005°.
C. 335°.
D. 345°.

101. True Track= 225°, TAS= 150 kt, W/V = 130°/25 kt. Ground Speed= ?
A. 179 kt.
B. 150 kt.
C. 140 kt.
D. 160 kt.

102. True Track= 225°, TAS= 150 kt, W/V = 130°/25 kt. True Heading= ?
A. 225°.
B. 235°.
C. 245°.
D. 215°.

103. An aircraft flies with an IAS of 240 kts. Its FL is 150 and the OAT is - 20° C. There is a
tailwind of 20 kts. How long does it take to fly 450 NM?
A. 1,4 minutes.
B. 68 minutes.
C. 84 minutes.
D. 100 minutes.
104. Magnetic heading= 015°, Variation= +6°, TAS= 140 kt, W/V = 320°(T)/30 kt. What is
the true track?
A. 009°.
B. 033°.
C. 023°.
D. 017°.

105. Assuming no instrument and position errors, 150 kt of IAS, FL 100 under ISA
conditions, what is the TAS?
A. 181 kt.
B. 165 kt.
C. 175 kt.
D. 170 kt.

106. TAS= 160 kt, GS= 140 kt, Heading= 150°, Track= 144°. W/V = ?
A. 186°/36 kt.
B. 114°/26 kt.
C. 114°/36 kt.
D. 186°/26 kt.

107. Track= 300°, GS= 170 kt, W/V= 150°/30 kt. TAS = ?
A. 300 kt.
B. 120 kt.
C. 145 kt.
D. 195 kt.

108. Track= 300°, GS= 170 kt, W/V= 150°/30kt. Heading = ?

A. 306°.
B. 145°.
C. 294°.
D. 180°.

109. True Heading= 290°, VAR= - 12°, DEV= 8° E, drift is 5° L. True Track= ?
A. 288°.
B. 273°.
C. 285°.
D. 302°.

110. True Heading= 290°, VAR= - 12°, DEV= 8° E, drift is 5° L. Magnetic Track= ?
A. 293°.
B. 297°.
C. 302°.
D. 295°.

111. True Heading= 290°, VAR= -12°, DEV= 8° E, drift is 5° L. Compass Track= ?
A. 289°.
B. 287°.
C. 299°.
D. 296°.

112. If you fly a ground distance of 82 NM in 46 minutes, then your ground speed is;
A. 95 kt.
B. 126 kt.
C. 107 kt.
D. 63 kt.

113. After flying for 16 min at 100 kt TAS with a 20 kt tail wind component, you have to
return to the airfield of departure. You will arrive after:
A. 16 min.
B. 24 min.
C. 20 min.
D. 10 min 40 sec.

114. Given: IAS 120 kt, FL 80, OAT +20°C. What is the TAS?
A. 102 kt.
B. 141 kt.
C. 120 kt.
D. 132 kt.

115. 265 US-GAL equals? (Specific gravity 0.80)

A. 803 kg.
B. 940 kg.
C. 862 kg.
D. 895 kg.
116. Given: TAS 140 kt, FL 80, OAT +20°C. What is the CAS?
A. 163 kt.
B. 129 kt.
C. 151 kt.
D. 120 kt.

117. Given: True Heading = 090° TAS = 180 kt GS = 180 kt Drift 5° right Calculate theW/V?
A. 010° / 15 kt.
B. 190° / 15 kt.
C. 180° / 15 kt.
D. 360° / 15 kt.

118. If a vertical speed indicator of an aircraft shows 400 ft/min, the approximate rate of-
climb in meters-per-second is:
A. 2 m/sec.
B. 1 m/sec.
C. 4 m/sec.
D. 13 m/sec.

119. A Wind Correction Angle is the angle difference between:

A. True heading and desired true course.
B. True and magnetic heading.
C. Magnetic and compass heading in no wind condition.
D. Desired true and desired magnetic course.

120. If your true course = 017°, wind 340°/15 kt and True Air Speed = 210 kt for a VFR
flight, what are drift correction and ground speed?
A. 3°R, 198 kt
B. 3°L, 198 kt
C. 3°R, 208 kt
D. 3°L, 208 kt

121. If your departure aerodrome elevation = 1500 ft and QNH = 1023 hPa, how many feet
you have to climb to reach FL 75? (Temperature = ISA , 1 hPa = 30 ft)
A. 5700 ft
B. 6000 ft
C. 6600 ft
D. 6300 ft

122. If an aircraft descends with a rate of 1200 feet/minute, calculate the vertical distance
travelled in 20 seconds.
A. 500 feet
B. 400 feet
C. 240 feet
D. 300 feet

123. Given; Required course 045°( M ) Variation is 15°E. W/V is 190°( T ) / 30 kt. CAS is 120
kt at FL 55 in standard atmosphere. What are the heading ( °M ) and GS ?
A. 052° and 154 kt
B. 056° and 137 kt
C. 055° and 147 kt
D. 036° and 151 kt

124. Given; AD = Air distance GD = Ground distance TAS = True AirspeeD GS =

Groundspeed. Which of the following is the correct formula to calculate ground distance ( GD
) gone ?
A. GD = AD x ( GS – TAS ) / GS
B. GD = ( AD x GS ) / TAS
C. GD = ( AD – TAS ) / TAS
D. GD = TAS / ( GS x AD )

125. What is the ratio between the litre and the US-GAL?
A. 1 US-GAL equals 4.55 litres.
B. 1 US-GAL equals 3.7853 litres.
C. 1 litre equals 3.7853 US-GAL.
D. 1 litre equals 4.55 USGAL.

126. Given, True Track = 258°, wind direction and velocity is 180/20. What is the ground
speed and true heading Required if TAS = 110 kt?
A. 115 kt, 248°
B. 110 kt, 258°
C. 105 kt, 248°
D. 100 kt, 258°

127. Given, True Track = 047°, wind direction and velocity is 130/15. What is the drift
angle and ground speed if TAS = 130 kt?
A. 7°L, 132 kt
B. 7°R, 128 kt
C. 7°L, 128 kt
D. 7°R, 132 kt

128. An aircraft is flying at 028° True Track. TAS = 140 kt and distance to destination is 220
NM. What is the flight time if wind direction and velocity is 060/30 kt?
A. 1 hours 49 minutes
B. 1 hours 42 minutes
C. 2 hours 06 minutes
D. 1 hours 57 minutes

129. An aircraft flies at FL 220 with IAS = 220 kt. If OAT = ISA-10°C, what is TAS?
A. 350 kt
B. 330 kt
C. 320 kt
D. 305 kt

130. What is the definition of night according to Turkish AIP ?

A. From one hour after sunset to one hour before sunrise.
B. From half an hour after sunset to half an hour before sunrise.
C. From sunset to sunrise.
D. From half an hour before sunset to half an hour after sunrise.

131. What is the ICAO definition of night?

A. From half an hour after sunset to half an hour before sunrise.
B. From sunset to sunrise.
C. The period between the end of evening civil twilight and the beginning of morning civil
twilight, or such other period between sunset and sunrise as may be described by the
appropriate authority.
D. Any period decided upon by a aviation authority.

132. The International Date Line is located:

A. At the 180°E/W meridian, or in the vicinity of this meridian.
B. At all latitudes on the 180°E/W meridian.
C. At the apparent sun's anti meridian.
D. At the Greenwich meridian.

133. How many degrees has the mean sun moved along the celestial equator in 8 hours
and 8 minutes ?
A. 18º
B. 56º
C. 122º
D. 148º

134. The Local Mean Time at longitude 095°20'W , at 0000 UTC , is ;

A. 0621:20 previous day.
B. 0621:20 same day.
C. 1738:40 previous day.
D. 1738:40 same day.
135. What is the meaning of the term “standard time” ?
A. It is the time set by the legal authorities for a country or part of a country.
B. It is another term for UTC.
C. It is the time zone system applicable only in the USA.
D. It is an expression for local mean time.

136. The main reason that day and night , throughout the year , have different duration ,
is due to the ;
A. inclination of the ecliptic to the equator.
B. relative speed of the sun along the ecliptic.
C. gravitational effect of the sun and moon on the speed of rotation of the earth.
D. earth’s rotation.

137. The time interval between sunrise and sunset is dependent on ;

A. The declination of the sun and the latitude of the observer.
B. The date and the longitude of the observer.
C. The inclination of the axis of the earth and the longitude of the observer.
D. The latitude and the longitude of the observer.

138. The time interval between sunrise and sunset is dependent on ;

A. The longitude of the observer.
B. The declination of the sun and the latitude of the observer.
C. The latitude and the longitude of the observer.
D. The inclination of the axis of the earth and the longitude of the observer.

139. What is the meaning of the term “standard time”?

A. It is another term for UTC.
B. It is the time set by the legal authorities for a country or part of a country.
C. It is the time zone system applicable only in the USA.
D. It is an expression for local mean time.

140. What rate of descent is required to descend from 2500 ft to 1000 ft in 5 NM if your
groundspeed is 80 kts?
A. 300 ft/min.
B. 350 ft/min.
C. 450 ft/min.
D. 400 ft/min.

141. The ICAO definition of ETA is the:

A. Estimated time en route.
B. Actual time of arrival at a point or fix.
C. Estimated time of arrival at an en-route point or fix.
D. Estimated time of arrival at destination.

142. For a VFR flight by a single engine aeroplane, if empty mass = 1764 lbs, equipment =
35 lbs, pilot + front seat passenger = 300 lbs, cargo = 350 lbs, block fuel = 360 lbs, trip fuel =
210 lbs and taxy fuel 10 lbs, what is the take-off mass?
A. 2764 lbs
B. 2659 lbs
C. 2809 lbs
D. 2799 lbs

143. From which of the following would you expect to find details of the Search and
Rescue organisation and procedures?
A. AIP
B. SIGMET
C. NOTAM
D. ATCC broadcasts

144. From which of the following would you expect to find information regarding known
short unserviceability of the approach lights?
A. SIGMET
B. AIP
C. NOTAM
D. ATCC broadcasts

145. From which of the following would you expect to find facilitation information
regarding customs and health formalities?
A. NOTAM
B. NAV/RAD charts
C. AIP
D. ATCC

146. From which of the following would you expect to find the dates and times when
temporary danger areas are active?
A. RAD/NAV charts
B. SIGMET
C. NOTAM
D. Only AIP
147. A METAR includes “SA1430 35002KT 7000 SKC 21/03 Q1024”. Which of the following
information is contained in this METAR?
A. period of validity
B. temperature/dewpoint
C. runway in use
D. day/month

148. When completing an ATS flight plan, clock times are to be expressed in :
A. Central European Time.
B. UTC.
C. Local standard time.
D. Local mean time.

149. In the ATS flight plan, for a non-scheduled flight which of the following letters should
be entered in Item 8 (Type of Flight) :
A. "N/S".
B. "X".
C. "G".
D. "N".

150. When completing an ATS flight plan for a flight commencing under IFR but possibly
changing to VFR, the letters entered in Item 8 (FLIGHT RULES) would be:
A. "N/S".
B. "X".
C. "G".
D. "Y".

151. In the ATS flight plan Item 15, a cruising speed of 100 knots will be entered as:
A. 0100K.
B. N0100.
C. N100.
D. KN100.

152. In the ATS flight plan Item 15 (Cruising speed), when not expressed as a Mach
number, cruising speed is expressed as :
A. TAS.
B. IAS.
C. CAS.
D. Groundspeed.
153. If your destination airport has no ICAO indicator, in the appropriate box of your flight
plan, you write:
A. "////".
B. "AAAA".
C. "XXXX".
D. "ZZZZ".

154. When a pilot fills in a flight plan, he must indicate the wake turbulence category. This
category is a function of which mass?
A. Estimated take-off mass.
B. Maximum certified take-off mass.
C. Maximum certified landing mass.
D. Actual take-off mass.

155. For an aircraft travelling with a groundspeed of 120 kt, find the approximate off-track
distance in nautical miles, if the aircraft flies 10 min with a track error of 3°.
A. 2 NM.
B. 1 NM.
C. 3 NM.
D. 4 NM.

156. For an aircraft travelling with a groundspeed of 90 kt, find the approximate off-track
distance in nautical miles, if the aircraft flies 1 hour with a track error of 2°.
A. 2 NM.
B. 3 NM.
C. 4 NM.
D. 6 NM.

157. An aircraft is travelling with a groundspeed of 120 kt for half an hour where the off-
track distance from the intended route is 4 NM. Calculate the approximate track error.
A. 6°
B. 4°
C. 8°
D. 2°

158. After travelling 50 nm, you discover you are 2.5 nm off track. What is your track
error?
A. 5 degrees
B. 2.5 degrees
C. 3 degrees
D. 1 degree
159. A VDF may be used ;
A. to provide the ATC controller with bearings of aircraft in the absence of radar.
B. in combination with radar to solve the 180º ambiguity.
C. in emergency type situations when the aircraft is unable to transmit on VHF.
D. in lieu of ILS for precision approach purposes.

160. What is the “Q” code for a magnetic bearing from a VDF station ?
A. “Request QNH”.
B. “Request QDR”.
C. “Request QDM”.
D. “Request QTE”.

161. The accuracy of VHF Direction Finding (VDF) could be affected by:
A. Night effect
B. Airframe quadrantal errors
C. Coastal refraction
D. Propagation and site errors

162. Which of the following statements is wrong?

A. QDR - true bearing TO the station
B. QTE - true bearing FROM the station
C. QDR - magnetic bearing FROM the station
D. QDM - magnetic heading TO the station

163. ………….. originate from refraction and the main propagation path for radio waves in
the VHF and UHF bands is………..:
A. sky waves /space waves.
B. sky waves/ ground waves
C. ground waves /sky waves.
D. surface waves/ sky waves.

164. the "Q" code for a true bearing to a VDF station is………. ; the "Q" code for a magnetic
bearing to a VDF station is…….:
A. QUJ / QDM
B. QDM/QUJ
C. QDR/QDM
D. QTE/QUJ

165. The minimum airborne equipment required for operation of a VHF direction finder is
a:
A. VHF compass operating in the 200 kHz to 1750 kHz range.
B. cathode-ray tube.
C. VHF receiver operating in the 118 MHz to 136 MHz range.
D. VHF transmitter-receiver operating in the 118 MHz to 136 MHz range.

166. What airborne equipment, if any, is required to be fitted in order that a VDF let-down
may be flown?
A. VHF radio
B. VOR
C. none
D. VOR/DME

167. A cumulonimbus cloud in the vicinity of an aeroplane can cause certain navigation
systems to give false indications. This is particularly true of the:
A. weather radar
B. ADF
C. VOR
D. DME

168. On the QDR of 075° (in the vicinity of the station) with a magnetic heading of 295°,
the relative bearing on the ADF indicator is:
A. 320°
B. 140°
C. 040°
D. 220°

169. Which of the following statements best describes a Non-Directional Beacon (NDB)?
A. A surface based transmitter which transmits radio signals in all directions
B. A special aerial providing a controller with VDF information
C. A combination of aerials which provides a VOR display with information concerning NDB
signals
D. A relative bearing indicator and ADF needle

170. Which of the following phenomena does not affect the accuracy of the ADF?
A. CB
B. High ground
C. Thunderstorms
D. Precipitation

171. How would a pilot positively identify an NDB to which his ADF equipment is tuned?
A. By the NDB's morse code indication
B. By the accuracy of the QDM
C. By the direction in which the ADF needle swings
D. By the movement of the Radio Magnetic Indicator

172. Allocated frequencies for NDB are ;

A. 1900 kHz to 17500 kHz.
B. 19 Hz to 17500 Hz.
C. 1.90 kHz to 17.50 kHz.
D. 190 kHz to 1750 kHz.

173. Concerning ADF and NDB ;

A. ADF is a ground equipment and NDB can be a ground equipment or an airborne equipment.
B. NDB is a locator and ADF is an enroute nav-aid.
C. ADF is a civilian equipment whereas NDB is a military equipment used by civilians too.
D. NDB is a ground equipment , and ADF is an airborne equipment.

174. For a conventional DME facility “Beacon Saturation” will occur whenever the number
of aircraft interrogations exceeds ;
A. 60
B. 100
C. 80
D. 200

175. The DME (Distance Measuring Equipment) operates within the following frequencies:
A. 962 to 1213 MHz
B. 962 to 1213 kHz.
C. 108 to 118 MHz
D. 329 to 335 MHz

176. If an aircraft flies along a VOR radial it will follow a;

A. constant magnetic track.
B. great circle track.
C. rhumbline track.
D. line of constant bearing.

177. What is the approximate theoretical maximum range that a pilot would obtain from a
VOR situated at 400 feet above mean sea level, in an aircraft flying at 2 500 feet?
A. 88 nm
B. 70 nm.
C. 3750 feet
D. 100 nm
178. In which of the radio frequency bands does VOR operate?
A. Ultra High Frequency
B. Micro Frequency
C. Low Frequency
D. Very High Frequency

179. Which of the following phenomena does not affect VOR reception?
A. Coastal Refraction
B. The terrain surrounding the VOR beacon
C. Transmitter elevation and receiver altitude
D. The cone of ambiguity overhead a VOR beacon

180. In a time interval of one minute, your DME instrument shows that your aircraft has
travelled 1.7 nautical miles directly towards a VOR/DME beacon, what is the groundspeed of
the aircraft?
A. 102 knots
B. 110 knots
C. 96 knots
D. 100 knots

181. Give an approximate value for the theoretical maximum range of a DME beacon at
sea level in respect of an aircraft flying at 3000 feet?
A. 3000 nautical miles
B. 60 nautical miles
C. 70 nautical miles
D. 55 nautical miles

182. Which of the following does not affect the operations range of a VOR?
A. Night operations.
B. Intervening high ground or manmade structures
C. Transmitter power.
D. Height of transmitter and receiver.

183. Which of the following does not affect the accuracy of a VOR?
A. Site error.
B. Propagation error.
C. Quadrantal error.
D. VOR scalloping.

184. What is the full scale deflection of the VOR-CDI needle when a VOR frequency is set?
A. 2.5°
B. 1.25°
C. 10°
D. 5°

185. Which of the following is a VOR frequency?

A. 110.60 MHz
B. 111.10 MHz
C. 108.35 MHz
D. 109.15 MHz

186. The DME instrument in the aircraft gives the distance read out from the beacon.
A. Return
B. Slant
C. Horizontal
D. Oblique

187. The measured range from a DME station is:

A. Approximately zero when passing overhead the station.
B. slant range.
C. Plan range
D. ground range.

188. An aircraft, on a heading of 180°M is on a bearing of 280°M from a VOR. The bearing
you should select on the OMNI bearing selector to centralise the VOR/ILS left/right deviation
needle with a TO indication is:
A. 180°
B. 45°
C. 360°
D. 100°

189. An aircraft is required to approach a VOR station via the 264° radial. In order to
obtain correct sense indications the deviation indicator should be set to:
A. 084° with the FROM flag showing
B. 084° with the TO flag showing
C. 264° with the FROM flag showing
D. 264° with the TO flag showing
190. An aircraft passes overhead a DME station at 12000 feet above the station. At that
time, the DME reading will be:
A. 0 NM.
B. FLAG/OFF, the aircraft is within the cone of silence.
C. approximately 2 NM.
D. fluctuating and not significant.

191. A DME is located at MSL. An aircraft passing vertically above the station at flight level
FL 360 will obtain a DME range of approximately:
A. 11 NM
B. 8 NM
C. 7 NM
D. 6 NM

192. In what frequency range does VOR operate?

A. 190 to 1750 kHz
B. 1000 to 2000 MHz
C. 108 MHz to 117.95 MHz
D. 118 MHz to137 MHz

193. What is the minimum number of satellites required by a GPS in order to obtain a
three dimensional fix?
A. 6
B. 4
C. 3
D. 5

194. Which of the following lists all the parameters that can be determined by a GPS
receiver tracking signals from 4 different satellites?
A. Latitude and longitude
B. Latitude, longitude and altitude
C. Latitude and longitude
D. Latitude, longitude, altitude and time

195. The orbital planes of the satellite navigation system NAVSTAR/GPS are:
A. inclined 90° to the equatorial plane
B. inclined 55° to the earth axis
C. inclined 55° to the equatorial plane
D. parallel to the equatorial plane

196. What are the three main GPS segments?

A. Control, Space, User
B. Earth, Space, Moon
C. Ground, Airborne, Space
D. Monitor, Uplink, Control

197. Which of the following lists all the parameters that can be determined by a GPS
receiver tracking signals from 4 different satellites?
A. Latitude, longitude and altitude
B. Latitude and longitude
C. Latitude, longitude, altitude and time
D. Latitude, longitude and time

198. How many satellites form the nominal NAVSTAR GPS constellation ?
A. 21
B. 18
C. 36
D. 24

199. A transponder fitted to an aircraft is essential equipment to provide a controller with

what type of information?
A. Primary radar returns
B. Secondary Surveillance Radar returns
C. Precision Approach Radar returns
D. Area Radar returns

200. What is the significance of the expression of 'Mode Charlie' when applied to the
capability of an aircraft-mounted transponder?
A. The transponder provides QDM information only
B. The transponder provides positional information only
C. The transponder provides information on both identification and altitude
D. The transponder provides QDM and QDR information only

201. What is the result of a pilot pressing a transponder's IDENT button?

A. It selects the transponder's Mode Alpha capability
B. It selects the transponder's Mode Charlie capability
C. It confirms to the controller that the pilot has the correct transponder code selected
D. It causes a special symbol to appear briefly on the controller's radar screen, around the
aircraft's transponder return, allowing positive identification of the aircraft.

202. How is a transponder's Mode Charlie position selected?

A. The pilot presses the IDENT button
B. The pilot moves the transponder selector knob to the SBY position
C. The pilot moves the transponder selector knob to the ALT position
D. The pilot moves the transponder selector knob to the TST position

203. If a controller asks you to "SQUAWK IDENT", you should:

A. Confirm to him what code you have set on your transponder
B. Enter 7600 on your transponder and press the IDENT button
C. Press the IDENT button once, briefly
D. Enter onto the transponder the code he has given to you

204. Principle of operation of primary radar is:

A. phase difference.
B. difference of dept of modulation.
C. differential range.
D. pulse technique.

205. The special SSR codes are as follows: emergency______, radio failure______,
unlawful interference with the conduct of the flight_______.
A. 7700; 7600; 7500.
B. 7600; 7500; 7700.
C. 7700; 7600; 2000.
D. 7500; 7600; 7700.

206. When Mode C is selected on the aircraft SSR transponder the additional information
transmitted is:
A. aircraft height based on sub-scale setting
B. altitude based on regional QNH
C. flight level based on 1013.25 hPa
D. height based on QFE

207. When an aircraft is operating its Secondary Surveillance Radar in Mode C an air traffic
controller's presentation gives information regarding the aircraft's indicated flight level in
increments of:
A. 100 FT
B. 150 FT
C. 200 FT
D. 250 FT
208. The angle between the horizontal and vertical components of the Earth’s magnetic
field is defined as:
A. Magnetic Angle.
B. Angle of inclination.
C. Angle of Dip.
D. Angle of Incidence.

209. Magnetic Variation is the angle between:

A. Magnetic North and the aircraft’s true heading.
B. True North and the nearest line of longitude.
C. Magnetic North and the aircraft’s magnetic heading.
D. True North and Magnetic North.

210. An Isogonal is a line joining points of:

A. Zero magnetic deviation.
B. Zero magnetic variation.
C. Equal magnetic variation.
D. Equal magnetic deviation.

211. An Agonic line joins points of:

A. Equal magnetic deviation.
B. Zero magnetic variation.
C. Zero magnetic deviation.
D. Equal magnetic variation.

212. With a calculated heading of 246° true, a local magnetic variation of 5°W and a
compass deviation of 1°E, the compass heading is:
A. 242°.
B. 241°.
C. 252°.
D. 250°.

213. Compass Heading = 233° True Track = 256° Drift Angle = 10°R Deviation = -3° What is
the variation?
A. 36° E.
B. 16° E.
C. 10° W.
D. 20° W.

214. Variation is 6°W. Isogonic lines Jan 2002. Average annual increase 10'. What is
variation in 2005.
A. 6,3° W.
B. 5,5° W.
C. 6,5° W.
D. 5.5°E.

215. Magnetic heading: 060°, Magnetic variation: 8°W, Drift angle: 4° right, What is the
true track?
A. 056°.
B. 064°.
C. 048°.
D. 072°.

216. True track is 348°, drift 17° left, variation 32° W, deviation 4°E. What is the compass
heading?
A. 359°.
B. 033°.
C. 337°.
D. 007°.

217. The angular difference between the Magnetic North and the True North is;
A. Variation.
B. Magnetic correction.
C. Deviation.
D. Inclination.

218. Given, variation 6° E, deviation (-4°), True Heading 136 degrees. What is the compass
heading?
A. 126°.
B. 130°.
C. 138°.
D. 134°.

219. Variation in a position is 13 W and true course is 136 degrees. Consider the following
statements:
A. The compass heading is 149°.
B. The position most likely is located at Northern latitudes and on Eastern longitudes.
C. Looking north from this position the Magnetic North pole seems to be located to the East of
the North pole.
D. Magnetic course is 149°.
220. True heading is 355 degrees (T), variation is 12 degrees W and compass heading is
002 degrees. The magnetic heading of the aircraft is …. and the deviation is…..?
A. 343° (M); +19°.
B. 343° (M); -7°.
C. 007° (M); -5°.
D. 007° (M); +5°.

221. "True North" is

A. The direction along any meridian toward the true north pole.
B. Is in any direction out from the true north pole.
C. The direction along a meridian.
D. The direction along the meridian, toward the north pole when on the northern hemisphere
and toward the south pole when on the southern hemisphere.

222. When calculating magnetic direction from a given true direction, westerly variation
should be:
A. Subtracted.
B. Added or subtracted depending on the location.
C. Multiplicated.
D. Added.

223. The angular difference between the geographical meridian and the magnetic
meridian running through the same position is _____. However students often mix it with
_____ which is actually the angle between _____ and _____.
A. Deviation – Variation – Magnetic North – Compass North.
B. Variation – Deviation – Compass North – Magnetic North.
C. Magnetic correction – Variation – Compass North – True North.
D. Deviation – Drift – Heading – Track.

224. An Agonic line is a line that connects ;

A. points of equal magnetic horizontal field strength.
B. positions that have the same variation.
C. positions that have 0° variation.
D. points of equal magnetic dip.

225. At a specific location , the value of magnetic variation ;

A. depends on the type of compass installed.
B. varies slowly over time.
C. depends on the true heading.
D. depends on the magnetic heading.
226. The lines on the earth’s surface that join points of equal magnetic variation are called
;
A. isoclines.
B. isogrives.
C. isogonals.
D. isotachs.

227. The definition of True North for any observer is ;

A. the direction of the observer’s Magnetic North corrected for local variation.
B. the direction of the Greenwich meridia to the North Pole.
C. the direction of the observer’s meridian to the North Pole.
D. the reading of the observer’s compass corrected for deviation and local variation.

228. The angle between a direction toward geographic north and a direction toward
magnetic north is called
A. Inclination.
B. Compass deviation.
C. Convergency of meridians.
D. Variation.

229. When calculating magnetic direction from a given true direction, easterly variation
should be
A. Added.
B. Divided.
C. Multiplicated.
D. Subtracted.

230. True Track is 344°, Compass Heading is 011°, Deviation is 3°E and Variation is 19°W.
What is the drift angle?
A. 5°R
B. 11°R
C. 11°L
D. 5°L

231. True Track is 028°, Compass Heading is 005°, Drift Angle is 7°R and Variation is 12°E.
What is the deviation?
A. 4°E
B. 4°W
C. 18°W
D. 18°E
232. True Track is 117°, Compass Heading is 139°, Drift Angle is 13°L and deviation is 4°E.
What is the variation?
A. 5°W
B. 5°E
C. 13°E
D. 13°W

233. True heading, magnetic heading, and deviation are given as 136°, 140° and +3° ,
respectively. What are the values of variation and compass heading?
A. 4°E, 143°
B. 4°E, 137°
C. 4°W, 143°
D. 4°W, 137°

234. How does magnetic variation change?

A. Magnetic variation stays constant.
B. Magnetic poles rotate and this decreases the numeric value of variation.
C. Magnetic poles rotate and this increases the numeric value of variation.
D. Magnetic poles rotate and this increases or decreases the numeric value of variation.

235. What is the great circle distance between A(28°00’N, 045°00’E) and B(12°00’S,
045°00’E)?
A. 1960 NM
B. 1440 NM
C. 2400 NM
D. 960 NM

236. Approximately how many kilometres are in 70 nautical miles?

A. 130 km.
B. 140 km.
C. 145 km.
D. 135 km.

237. An altitude 1,500 meters is approximately

A. 4,900 ft.
B. 4,100 ft.
C. 3,600 ft.
D. 4,000 ft.

238. What does a measuring unit knot used in aviation mean?

A. m/h.
B. NM/h.
C. SM/h.
D. Km/h.

239. A velocity 120 km/h, expressed in knots, is

A. 60 kts.
B. 65 kts.
C. 50 kts.
D. 58 kts.

240. Which of the following statements is incorrect?

A. Rhumb lines are the lines cutting all the meridians at the same angle.
B. Circumference of the Earth is 40 000 km.
C. 1 minute of arc from the center of the earth represents 1nm distance on the Earth surface.
D. 1 statute mile equals to 6076 ft. according to royal statute.

241. If the groundspeed of an aircraft is 90 knots, how far will it fly in 20 minutes?
A. 1800 nautical miles.
B. 4.5 nautical miles.
C. 30 nautical miles.
D. 45 nautical miles.

242. What is the groundspeed of an aircraft which has taken 10 minutes to cover 20
nautical miles?
A. 200 kilometres per hour.
B. 120 knots.
C. 180 knots.
D. 200 nautical miles per hour.

243. How long will it take to fly 5 NM at a groundspeed of 269 Kt ?

A. 2 MIN 30 SEC.
B. 1 MIN 07 SEC.
C. 0 MIN 34 SEC.
D. 1 MIN 55 SEC.

244. GS = 122 kt. Distance from A to B = 985 NM. What is the time from A to B?
A. 7 HR 29 MIN.
B. 8 HR 10 MIN.
C. 7 HR 48 MIN.
D. 8 HR 04 MIN.
245. Approximately how many feet are there in a nautical mile?
A. 1112
B. 8060
C. 5060
D. 6080

246. 730 ft/min equals ;

A. 1.6 m/sec
B. 2.2 m/sec
C. 3.7 m/sec
D. 5.2 m/sec

247. In producing chart projections, the following projection surfaces may be used:
A. Plane, Sphere, Cone.
B. Plane, Cylinder, Cone.
C. Parabola, Cone, Plane, Cylinder.
D. Cylinder, Sphere, Plane.

248. Deviation applied to magnetic heading gives:

A. Compass heading.
B. True heading.
C. Magnetic course.
D. Magnetic track.

249. What is the Compass Deviation angle?

A. The difference between True North and the heading indicated by the compass needle.
B. The difference between the heading indicated by the compass needle and the Earth’s
magnetic field.
C. The difference between the Magnetic heading and the compass heading.
D. The indications of the aircraft’s main and standby compasses.

250. A direct-reading compass in an aircraft executing a level turn, at a constant rate, in

the Northern Hemisphere, will be subject to the largest turning error as the aircraft turns
through:
A. Northeast and Northwest.
B. East and West.
C. North and South.
D. Southeast and Southwest.
070 OPERATIONAL PROCEDURES
PPL(A)
QUESTION BANK
1. Which one of the following documents contains the procedures, instructions and guidance
for use by operational personnel in the execution of their duties?
A. flight manual.
B. Technical Log
C. Operational Manual
D. Journey Log

2. Information concerning evacuation procedures can be found in the :

A. operation manual.
B. journey logbook.
C. operational flight plan.
D. flight manual.

3. The minimum equipment list of an airplane is to be found in the :

A. operation manual.
B. JAR OPS.
C. flight record.
D. flight manual.

4. Information about evacuation procedures from an aeroplane can be found in the:

A. Journey Logbook
B. Flight Manual
C. Operations Manual
D. Operational Flight Plan

5. Information concerning emergency evacuation procedures shall be found in the:

A. flight manual.
B. journey logbook.
C. operational flight plan.
D. operations manual.

6. Information about evacuation procedures from an aeroplane can be found in the:

A. Operations Manual.
B. Flight Manual.
C. Journey Logbook.
D. Operational Flight Plan.

7. Official data regarding operating limitations and allowed mass of your aircraft could be found
in:
A. Official Gazette of Civil Aviation Authority.
B. Aircraft's Flight Manual.
C. Certificate of Airworthiness and in Certificate of Registration.
D. Maintenance Log.

8. Which one of the following documents contains the limitations, instructions and information
necessary to the flight crew members for the safe operation of the aircraft?
A. Operational Manual
B. flight manual.
C. Technical Log
D. Journey Log

9. "The owner of an aeroplane shall ensure that the following records are kept for: I - the total
time in service of the aeroplane and all life limited components II - the current status of
compliance with all applicable mandatory continuing airworthiness information III -
appropriate details of modifications and repairs IV - the time in service since the last
overhaul of the aeroplane or its components subject to a mandatory overhaul life"
A. I, III and IV
B. I, II and III
C. I, II, III and IV
D. I, II and IV

10. An operator shall use Air Traffic Services:

A. At his/her discretion
B. Need not use if the weather is VFR
C. Always whenever available
D. Only if required by the AOC

11. Who is responsible for ensuring that all passengers are briefed before take-off?
A. The State of the Operator
B. The Commander
C. The Senior Flight Attendant
D. The Operator

12. An aircraft entering another contracting state's airspace and proposing to land must:
A. Confirm to the C of A of the airspace of the state into which it is flying
B. Be registered, airworthy and carry all the relative documents required including the C of A
C. Carry the C of A and the International lnterception Table of Signals
D. Ensure it carries an original copy of the flight plan only

13. Which of the following documents is not required to be carried in an aircraft of an ICAO
member state?
A. Certificate of Registration
B. Certificate of Costumers
C. Certificate of Airworthiness
D. Flight crew licences

14. The PIC is required by the authority to present the aircraft documents. He…
A. shall do so if authorised by the operator.
B. can request a delay of 48 hours.
C. can refuse to present them
D. shall do so. within a reasonable period of time.

15. "A flight shall not be commenced until the pilot-in-command is satisfied that: I - any
necessary maintenance has been performed. II - any load carried is properly distributed and
safely secured. III - the aeroplane operating limitations will not be exceeded. "
A. I, II and III
B. II and III
C. I and III
D. I and II

16. Flight crew members on the flight deck shall keep their safety belt fastened:
A. from take off to landing.
B. only during take off and landing and whenever necessary by the commander in the interest
of safety.
C. while at their station.
D. only during take off and landing.

17. Who checks, before flight, that the aircraft's weight is such that flight can be safelymade, and
that any transported cargo is properly distributed and secured? (Annex 6, Part I)
A. The mechanic on board, or in his absence the co-pilot.
B. The company's cargo technicians.
C. The operator.
D. Pilot in command

18. A pilot in command of a flight during which an aircraft enters the sovereign airspace of a
foreign state with the intentions of landing.
A. Must be satisfied that the aircraft’s Certificated of Airworthiness is current and that the holds
a type rating for the aircraft
B. Must ensure before departure that his pilot’s licence has been validated by the foreign state
C. Must have ensured that all necessary and relevant documentations is carried on board the
aircraft, including the Certificated of Airworthiness, that the aircraft is in an airworthy
condition and that it is correctly registered
D. Must be satisfied that the aircraft’s Certificated of Airworthiness is current, that he holds a
type rating for the aircraft, and that he has passed an Air Law examination set by the foreign
state

19. Which of the following documents is not required to be carried in an aircraft of an ICAO
member state?
A. Flight crew licences
B. Flight crew driving license
C. Certificate of Registration
D. Certificate of Airworthiness

20. The person responsible for planning flight and ensuring that the weather is suitable is;
A. The pilot in command
B. The Operations Manager
C. The duty instructor
D. The CFI

21. A pilot in command of a flight during which an aircraft enters the sovereign airspace of a
foreign state with the intentions of landing must have ensured that all necessary and
relevant documentations is carried on board the aircraft, including; I - The Certificate of
Registration II - The Certificate of Airworthiness III - The Crew Licenses IV - The Maintenance
Records
A. I, III and IV
B. I, II and III
C. I, II and IV
D. I, II, III and IV

22. The final authority as to the disposition of the aircraft has the
A. Pilot-in-command.
B. aircraft owner.
C. Operator.
D. ATC controller whenever the aircraft is flying in controlled airspace

23. The pilot of an aircraft taking-off from an airfield where the altimeter setting Is not readily
available, shall set the aircraft altimeter to:
A. 1013.2 hPa.
B. The altitude zero.
C. The elevation of the airfield.
D. The altimeter setting of the nearest controlled airport.

24. A flight operations officer (or flight dispatcher) when on duty, is responsible for:
A. loading the aeroplane
B. passenger assistance during disembarking
C. compiling the operational flight plan
D. assisting the pilot in command in flight preparation, and provide required information

25. The pilot-in-command shall ensure that breathing oxygen is available to …………………. in
sufficient quantities for all flights at such altitudes where a lack of oxygen might result in
impairment of the faculties of crew members or harmfully affect passengers.
A. passengers
B. cabin crew members and passengers
C. crew members
D. crew members and passengers

26. During a night flight, a pilot, seeing an aircraft coming from front left on approximate
opposite parallel track, will first see the;
A. green and white flashing light
B. red steady light
C. white steady light
D. green steady light

27. All aircraft on the aircraft movement area of an aerodrome with engines running are display
lights to indicate this. Which one of the following is used for this purpose?
A. Navigation lights.
B. Red anti-collision light
C. Tail light.
D. Landing light.

28. Airplanes must be equipped with the following lights:

A. Left wing tip: white light, right wing tip: white light, tail: orange light.
B. Left wing tip: white light, right wing tip: white light, tail: red light.
C. Right wing tip: green light, left wing tip: red light, tail: white light.
D. Left wing tip: green light, right wing tip: red light, tail: white light.

29. In the course of a flight during daylight hours, a pilot notices that the aircraft's anti-collision
light has failed. What course of action should he take?
A. Return to his base airfield and declare the aircraft unserviceable until the light has been
repaired.
B. Continue with the flight, as long as it can be completed in daylight, and get the light repaired
at the earliest opportunity.
C. Land as soon as practically possible at the nearest suitable airfield.
D. Land immediately at the nearest aerodrome.
30. When must the anti-collision beacon on an aircraft be operating (if installed)?
A. Must be switched on shortly before takeoff and switched off when the aircraft vacates the
runway.
B. Must be switched on after engine start-up and switched off before engine shut-down.
C. All the time the aircraft is flying.
D. Must be on all the time the engine of an aircraft is running.

31. The coverage angle of the red navigation / position light is:
A. 110°
B. 220°
C. 70°
D. 140°

32. Annexes to the Chicago Convention contain:

A. Standards and Recommended Practices.
B. Search and Rescue Procedures.
C. Standards and Regulatory Procedures.
D. Recommendations and Means of Compliance.

33. The Chicago Convention Annex which is applicable to the operation of aeroplanes in
commercial air transport is:
A. Annex 1
B. Annex 9
C. Annex 2
D. Annex 6

34. The Chicago Convention Annex which is applicable to the operation of aeroplanes in
commercial air transport is:
A. Annex 6
B. Annex 9
C. Annex 1
D. Annex 2

35. What is the ICAO annex 6 definition of "flight time" for an aeroplane:
A. The total time from take off until the engine is stopped
B. The total time from the moment the engine starts until it is shut down
C. The total time from the moment an aeroplane first moves for the purpose of taking off until
the moment it finally comes to rest at the end of the flight
D. The total time from brakes release until the aircraft comes to rest on the runway after
landing

36. A flight shall not be commenced unless the aeroplane carries sufficient fuel. The amount of
fuel to be carried must permit, when the flight is conducted in accordance with the visual
flight rules by day, flight to the aerodrome of intended landing, and after that, for at least
……. minutes at normal cruising altitude.
A. 90
B. 30
C. 45
D. 60

37. A flight shall not be commenced unless the aeroplane carries sufficient fuel. The amount of
fuel to be carried must permit, when the flight is conducted in accordance with the visual
flight rules by night, flight to the aerodrome of intended landing and thereafter for at least
……. minutes at normal cruising altitude.
A. 30
B. 45
C. 60
D. 90

38. "Aeroplanes when operated as VFR flights shall be equipped with a means of measuring and
displaying: I - magnetic heading II - the time in hours, minutes and seconds III - pressure
altitude IV - indicated airspeed V - aircraft attitude"
A. I, II, IV and V
B. I, II and III
C. I, II, III and IV
D. I, II, III, IV and V

39. The master minimum equipment list (MMEL) is established by:

A. the operator of the aircraft, and accepted by the manufacturer
B. the operator of the aircraft, and accepted by the authority
C. the manufacturer of the aircraft, but need not to be accepted by the authority
D. the manufacturer of the aircraft, and accepted by the authority

40. In which manual is the Minimum Equipment List (MEL) included?

A. In the Maintenance Documents.
B. The Aeroplane Flight Manual.
C. In the Operations Officer's documents.
D. The Operations Manual.
41. It's the pilot's responsibility to ensure that the aircraft is properly equipped for the planned
flight. If there is any doubt the pilot should consult:
A. Certificate of Maintenance Review.
B. Pilot's Operating Handbook.
C. Minimum Equipment List.
D. Certificate of Airworthiness.

42. The M.E.L. (Minimum Equipment List) is drawn up by :

A. the aircraft manufacturer's list
B. the aircraft state of registry
C. the operator
D. the manufacturer

43. The M.M.E.L. (Master Minimum Equipment List) is drawn up by :

A. the aircraft state of registry
B. the aircraft manufacturer's list
C. the operator.
D. the manufacturer.

44. Where would a pilot find the MEL for his aeroplane?
A. AFM
B. Company Procedures Manual
C. POH
D. Ops Manual

45. According to JAR-OPS, a life jacket is mandatory for each person on board a land aeroplane,
when flying over water at a distance from the shore of more than:
A. 400 NM
B. 200 NM
C. 50 NM
D. 100 NM

46. On any flight the minimum safety equipment that must be carried is:
A. first aid kit, life jackets for all on board and a fire extinguisher
B. first aid kit, fire axe, portabla oxygen for all on board and a fire extinguisher
C. first aid kit, spare electrical fuses and a portabla fire extinguisher
D. first aid kit, smoke hoods and a fire extinguisher

47. For an aeroplane equipped with any radio communication equipment, this equipment shall
provide for communication on the aeronautical emergency frequency …………….
A. 121.5 MHz.
B. 212.5 MHz.
C. 125 MHz.
D. 121.5 kHz.

48. "An aeroplane shall be equipped with: I - first-aid kits II - portable fire extinguishers III - a seat
for each person "
A. I and II
B. I, II and III
C. I and III
D. II and III

49. You intend to operate a public transport aeroplane (land aeroplane) with 60 persons on
board. The track will overfly water at 80 nautical miles from the shore. The minimum number
of approved life jackets to be on board is;
A. 0
B. 66
C. None if equipped with life rafts
D. 60

50. During the winter an aircraft is parked overnight prior to an early morning departure. The
crew notice a slight glistening ice deposit on top of the wings or blades which appears
translucent. Under these conditions;
A. the take off performance of the aircraft will not be affected
B. there is no risk of ice accretion
C. the aircraft should be sprayed with de-icing fluid of the correct type
D. a longer starting procedure will be necessary to warm up the aircraft

51. The commander shall not commence take-off in icing conditions;

A. even if the ice contamination does not lead to an excedence of mass and balance limits
B. unless the external surfaces are still covered with anti-icing fluid and the aircraft is not to be
operated in forecasted icing conditions greater than moderate icing
C. unless the external surfaces are clear of any contamination
D. unless the external surfaces are free from any ice contamination greater than 5 mm.

52. An operator shall not operate an aircraft in expected or actual icing conditions unless;
A. the aircraft is sprayed with anti-icing fluid before flight
B. the flight is planned so that a change of cruising level can be initiated rapidly
C. the aircraft is certificated and equipped to operate in icing conditions
D. the aircraft is sprayed with de-icing fluid before flight
 53. When taking-off, in winter conditions, the wing contamination by ice, snow or frost will cause
the following effects;

I - an increase in the take-off distance

II - a diminution of the take-off run

III - an increase in the stalling speed

IV - a diminution of the stalling speed

V - a diminution of the climb gradient

The combination regrouping all the correct statements is;

A. II, IV and V
B. I, II and III
C. II, III and V
D. I, III and V

54. If an aeroplane is certificated for 6 passengers, how many hand-held fire extinguishers are
required to be carried in the aeroplane?
A. It depends upon the max take-off mass permitted.
B. Nil.
C. 1.
D. 3.

55. If smoke appears in the air conditioning, the first action to take is to:
A. Put on the mask and goggles
B. Determine which system is causing the smoke
C. Begin an emergency descent.
D. Cut off all air conditioning units.

56. A class A fire is a fire of;

A. solid material, generally of organic nature
B. metal or gas or chemical (special fires)
C. electrical origin
D. liquid or liquefiable solid.

57. A class B fire is a fire of;

A. special fire; metal, gas, chemical product
B. solid material usually of organic nature
C. electrical source fire
D. liquid or liquefiable solid
 58. A fire occurs in a wheel and immediate action is required to extinguish it. The safest
extinguishant to use is;
A. water
B. dry powder
C. foam
D. carbon dioxide

59. At least one of the following hand fire extinguishers must be conveniently located on the
flight deck;
A. a powder fire-extinguisher.
B. a foam fire-extinguisher
C. a water fire-extinguisher
D. a halon fire-extinguisher or equivalent

60. The correct statement about extinguishing agents on board aeroplanes is;
A. Water may only be used for minor fires
B. Halon is an effective extinguishing agent for use in aeroplanes
C. Burning cargo in a cargo-aeroplane is usually extinguished by using carbon dioxide
D. A powder extinguisher is suitable for extinguishing a cockpit fire

61. A halon fire-extinguisher should be used on a fire of ;

1.paper , fabric , plastic.

2.flammable liquids.

3.flammable gases.

4.metals.

The combination regrouping all the correct statements is ;

A. 1 , 2 , 4.
B. 1 , 2 , 3.
C. 2 , 3 , 4.
D. 1 , 2 , 3 , 4.

62. CO2 type extinguishers are suitable to fight ;

1. class A fires.

2. class B fires.

3. class C fires.

4. class D fires.

Which of the following combinations contains all the correct statements ;

 A. 1 , 2 , 4.
B. 2 , 3 , 4.
C. 1 , 3 , 4.
D. 1 , 2 , 3.

63. From the following list ;

1. Fire extinguishers.

2. Portable oxygen supplies.

3. First-aid kits.

4. Passenger meals.

5.Alcoholic beverages.

Which are classed as Dangerous Goods that are required to be on the aircraft in accordance with
relevant SHT-OPS’s for operating reasons ;

A. 1 , 2 and 5
B. 3 , 4 and 5
C. 1 , 2 and 3
D. 2 , 3 and 4

64. A fire occurs in a wheel and immediate action is required to extinguish it. The safest
extinguishant to use is ;
A. water.
B. CO2 ( carbon dioxide ).
C. dry powder.
D. foam.

65. H2O extinguishers are fit to fight ;

A. metals , flammable gases , chemical products.
B. electrical equipment.
C. seating fabric , wood.
D. flammable liquids.

66. In case of an carburettor fire while on ground you ;

A. carry out a damp cranking.
B. carry out a dry cranking.
C. fight the nozzle fire with a water fire-extinguisher.
D. pull the fire shut off handle

67. "A water fire-extinguisher can be used on a fire of: "

A. liquids (ether, gasoline,...)
 B. solids (fabric, carpet,...)
C. metals (sodium,...)
D. gas

68. A halon fire-extinguisher should be used on a fire of: 1. paper, fabric, plastic 2. flammable
liquids 3. flammable gases 4. metals (sodium,...) The combination regrouping all the correct
statements is:
A. 2, 3, 4
B. 1, 2, 3
C. 1, 2, 3, 4
D. 1, 2, 4

69. While approaching the runway, the tower informs you about the presence of a “microburst”.
You will expect to encounter ;
A. wake turbulence .
B. supercooled water.
C. windshears (vertical and horizontal)
D. convection motion of air mass.

70. Which parameter will change first , when penetrating an horizontal windshear ?
A. Pitch angle.
B. Vertical speed.
C. Groundspeed.(GS)
D. Indicated airspeed.(IAS)

71. One of the main characteristics of windshear is that it ;

A. occurs only at a low altitude ( 2000 ft ) and never in the horizontal plane.
B. can occur at any altitude in both the vertical and horizontal planes.
C. can occur at any altitude and only in the horizontal plane.
D. occurs only at a low altitude ( 2000 ft ) and never in the vertical plane.

72. An aircraft which experiences a headwind of 40 kt while making its way towards the centre
of a microburst may expect , when crossing the microburst , to face a windshear of ;
A. 20 kt.
B. 60 kt.
C. 40 kt.
D. 80 kt.

73. In case of an unexpected encounter with windshear , you will ;

1. set the maximum take-off thrust.

2. increase the pitch-up attitude up to the limit of stall warning

3. retract gear and flaps , if they are extended.

4. keep gear and flaps in current configuration

5. try to reach the maximum lift-to-drag ratio.

The combination regrouping all the correct statements is ;

A. 2,3
B. 1,2,4
C. 1,3,5
D. 3,5

74. The wake turbulence ;

A. starts when pulling out the drag devices and stops when retracting the drag devices.
B. starts as soon as the aeroplane is running for take-off and stops as soon as it has come to a
stop at landing.
C. starts when the aeroplane reaches a height of 300 ft above the ground and stops when it
crosses this height
D. starts during rotation and stops as soon as the aeroplane’s wheel touch the ground.

75. The greatest wake turbulence occurs when the generating aircraft is ;
A. Small , light , at low speed in clean configuration.
B. Small , light , at maximum speed in full flaps configuration.
C. Large , heavy , at low speed in clean configuration.
D. Large , heavy , at maximum speed in full flaps configuration.

76. Wake turbulence category HEAVY refers to aircraft which have a maximum certificated take-
off mass of ;
A. 136.000 kg or more.
B. between 136.000 kg and 186.000 kg.
C. 186.000 kg or more.
D. 146.000 kg or more.

77. Regarding wake turbulence , what is the ICAO minimum non-radar separation time for a
LIGHT aircraft behind a MEDIUM or HEAVY aeroplane on approach to the same runway ?
A. 2 minutes.
B. 3 minutes.
C. 5 minutes.
D. 4 minutes.

78. At a given configuration, the wake turbulence of an aeroplane is greater when the aeroplane
is;
A. heavy at low airspeed
B. heavy at high airspeed
C. light at high airspeed
D. light at low airspeed

79. DOC 4444 ( ICAO ) establishes, that wake turbulence separation minima shall be based on a
grouping of aircraft types into three categories according to the maximum certificated take-
off mass. Heavy (H) Category, are all aircraft types of;
A. less than 136 000 kg but more than 126 000 kg
B. 136 000 kg or more
C. 135 000 kg or more
D. 146 000 kg or more

80. For purpose of wake turbulence separation, what is the ICAO minimum separation time if a
light aeroplane (7000 kg or less) is following a medium aeroplane (less than 136000 kg but
more than 7000 kg) on the approach to landing?
A. 4 minutes
B. 2 minutes
C. 5 minutes
D. 3 minutes

81. For the purpose of wake turbulence separation, what is the minimum separation time that is
permitted when a light aircraft is taking off behind a heavy aircraft from an intermediate part
of the same runway?
A. 2 minutes
B. 4 minutes
C. 5 minutes
D. 3 minutes

82. In a light crosswind (approximately 5 kt) from the right behind an aeroplane taking off;
A. the runway will be clear of any wake turbulence
B. the right wake vortex remains aproximately on the runway
C. the left wake vortex remains approximately on the runway
D. the right and left wake vortices remain approximately on the runway

83. In accordance with ICAO and PANS RAC procedures, which letter should be entered into a
flight plan to denote an aeroplane which has a weight of less than 136000 kg but greater
than 7000 kg;
A. H
B. S
C. M
D. L
 84. Regarding wake turbulence, what are the ICAO minimum radar separation distance and the
minimum non-radar separation time for a MEDIUM aircraft behind a HEAVY aeroplane on
approach to the same runway?
A. 11.1 km (6 NM) and 3 minutes
B. 9.3 km (5 NM) and 2 minutes
C. 9.3 km (5 NM) and 3 minutes
D. 7.4 km (4 NM) and 2 minutes

85. Regarding wake turbulence, what is the ICAO minimum non-radar separation time for a
LIGHT aircraft behind a MEDIUM or HEAVY aeroplane on approach to the same runway?
A. 5 minutes
B. 2 minutes
C. 3 minutes
D. 4 minutes

86. The greatest wake turbulence occurs when the generating aircraft is;
A. Small, light, at low speed in clean configuration
B. Small, light, at maximum speed in full flaps configuration
C. Large, heavy, at maximum speed in full flaps configuration
D. Large, heavy, at low speed in clean configuration

87. The main cause of wake turbulence is the result of;

I - An aerodynamic effect (wing tip vortices)

II - The engines power setting

III - The position of the high lift devices (of the flaps, etc.)

The combination regrouping all the correct statements is;

A. I, II and III
B. II and III
C. I
D. III

88. The time needed for the dissipation of a turbulent wake created by a wide-body aircraft
during take-off is about;
A. 30 seconds
B. 10 minutes
C. 1 minute
D. 3 minutes
89. The wake turbulence;
A. starts as soon as the aeroplane is running for take-off and stops as soon as it has come to a
stop at landing
B. starts when the aeroplane reaches a height of 300 ft above the ground and stops when it
crosses this height before landing
C. starts during rotation and stops as soon as the aeroplane’s wheel touch the ground
D. starts when pulling out the drag devices and stops when retracting the drag device

90. Tip vortices which are responsible for wake turbulence appear as soon as the following is
established;
A. spin up
B. lift
C. lift destruction
D. drag

91. To avoid wake turbulence, when departing behind a larger aircraft, the pilot should
manoeuvre;
A. above and downwind from the larger aircraft
B. below and downwind from the larger aircraft
C. below and upwind from the larger aircraft
D. above and upwind from the larger aircraft

92. Wake turbulence should be taken into account when;

A. a much heavier aeroplane has landed just previously on the same runway, a light crosswind
condition exist and all high-lift devices are being used
B. when just before the landing a much lighter aeroplane has landed with a strong crosswind on
a long runway
C. a preceding aeroplane has performed low altitude high roll rate rolling manoeuvres over the
runway
D. during cruise the vertical separation is reduced to 1000 ft

93.Before departure the commander of an aircraft must brief all passengers on the:
A. the operation of the seat belts and life jackets
B. the weather en-route and at the destination
C. location of all exits and the procedure to be followed in the event of ditching or forced
landing
D. location of all exits and the operation of any safety equipment that is carried

94. According to SHT-OPS , a life jacket is mandatory for each person on board a land aeroplane ,
when flying over water at a distance from the shore of more than ;
A. 200 NM.
B. 400 NM.
 C. 50 NM.
D. 100 NM.

95. In case of a ditching , the cabin attendants should ;

1. evacuate women and children first.

2. have the passengers embark directly in the life rafts.

3. prevent passenger movements which may impede the airplane’s flotation ability.

4. ensure the complete evacuation of the airplane.

The combination regrouping all the correct statements is ;

A. 2 , 3 , 4.
B. 1 , 4.
C. 2 , 3.
D. 1 , 2 , 3 , 4.

96. A runway covered with more than 3 mm thick water , is said to be ;

A. flooded.
B. damp.
C. wet.
D. contaminated.

97. A runway is considered to be contaminated when its surface is covered more than ;
A. 20% with melted snow.
B. 10% with ice.
C. 25% with compacted snow.
D. 15% with melted snow.

98. In the SHT-OPS , a runway is considered damp when ;

A. it is covered with a film of water of less than 1 mm.
B. its surface is not dry , and when surface moisture does not give it a shiny appearance.
C. it is covered with a film of water of less than 3 mm.
D. surface moisture gives it a shiny appearance.

99. One of the primary factors causing dynamic hydroplaning is ;

A. the depth of the standing water on the runway.
B. the strength of the headwind.
C. the aircraft’s weight.
D. the strength of the crosswind.
 100. A braking action of 0.25 and below reported on a SNOWTAM is ;
A. unreliable.
B. medium.
C. good.
D. poor.

101. A runway is considered wet when;

I - it is covered with a quantity of water or loose or slushy snow less than or equal to the equivalent
of 3 mm of water

II - the amount of surface moisture is sufficient to modify its colour but does not give it a shiny
appearance

III - the amount of surface moisture is sufficient to make it reflective, but does not create large
stagnant sheets of water

IV - it bears stagnant sheets of water

The combination regrouping all the correct statements is;

A. I and III
B. I, II and III
C. IV
D. I and II

102. A runway is referred to as contaminated when more than 25% of the required
runway surface is covered with the one of the following elements;

I - a water film sufficiently thick to give a shiny appearance to the runway

II - a water film or loose or slushy snow equivalent to more than 3 mm of water

III - compacted snow (a solid mass which may not be compacted further)

IV - ice, including wet ice

V - moist grass

The combination regrouping all the correct statements is;

A. II, III and IV

B. I, III and IV
C. I, II, III and IV
D. I, III, IV and V

103. When there is a risk of hydroplaning the pilot of an aeroplane;

A. should use normal landing, braking and reverse technique
B. must wait for landing until the risk for hydroplaning is no longer existing
C. should make a positive landing and apply maximum reverse thrust
D. should use maximum reverse thrust, however should start to brake below the hydroplaning
speed

104. An operator must ensure that, for the duration of each flight, be kept on the ground
a copy of the:
A. ATC flight plan
B. operation flight plan
C. flight route sheet
D. flight plan processing

105. Crew Resource Management (CRM) Training deals principally with:

A. Situational Awareness
B. Technical expertise and interaction
C. Accident statistics and review
D. Human Factors and behaviour

106. For VFR flight ; what is the minimum horizontal visibility below 10.000 ft?
A. 5 km
B. 1500 m
C. 8 km
D. 300 m

107. What is the common name of those operations in which an aircraft is used for
specialized services such as agriculture, construction, photography, surveying, observation
and patrol, search and rescue, aerial advertisement, etc.?
A. Charter
B. Schedule
C. Aerial work
D. Private

108. Following an act of unlawful interference on board an aircraft, the pilot-in-command

should submit a report to;
A. the local authority only
B. both the local authority and the Authority of the State of the operator
C. the Authority of the State within which the aircraft is operating at the time of the unlawful
interference
D. the Authority of the State of the operator only

109. Operator may be ……………. engaged in or offering to engage in an aircraft operation.

A. an enterprise
B. a person or enterprise
C. an organization or enterprise
D. a person, organization or enterprise

110. Which equipment broadcasts distinctive signals on designated frequencies when it

has been manually or automatically activated (by impact) for determining the location?
A. Mode C Transponder
B. Cockpit Voice Recorder
C. Flight Data Recorder
D. Emergency Locator Transmitter

111. A situation wherein uncertainty exists as to the safety of an aircraft and its occupants
is :
A. Uncertainty phase
B. Alert phase
C. Distress phase
D. Emergency phase

112. If an emergency situation which endangers the safety or security of the aeroplane or
persons necessitates the taking of action which involves a violation of local regulations or
procedures, the pilot-in-command;
A. shall take all precautions but notify the appropriate local authority without delay.
B. shall take all precautions without notification to any authority
C. shall take all precautions which does not involve a violation of local regulations or
procedures
D. shall never take any precaution which involves a violation of local regulations or procedures

113. As defined for search and rescue purposes, the word ‘distress’ means specifically
that:
A. An aircraft and its occupants are threatened by grave and imminent danger.
B. There is apprehension concerning the safety of an aircraft and its occupants.
C. An aircraft has lost contact with ATC and is late arriving at its destination.
D. An aircraft is subject to any level of emergency.

114. Which of the following is a Search & Rescue Alerting phases?

A. Uncertainty phase, Alert phase, Distress phase
B. Urgency phase, Uncertainty phase, Alert phase
C. Distress phase, Urgency phase, Alert phase
D. Alert phase, Distress phase, Urgency phase

115. Which of the following is not a Search & Rescue Alerting phase?
A. Distress phase.
B. Uncertainty phase.
C. Urgency phase.
D. Alert Phase.

116. Which of the followings is a situation wherein apprehension exists as to the safety of
an aircraft or marine vessel, and of the persons on board.
A. Emergency Phase
B. Distress Phase
C. Uncertainty Phase
D. Alert Phase

117. Which of the followings is a situation wherein there is a reasonable certainty that a
vessel or other craft, including an aircraft or a person, is threatened by grave and imminent
danger and requires immediate assistance.
A. Alert Phase
B. Uncertainty Phase
C. Distress Phase
D. Emergency Phase

118. Which of the followings is a situation wherein doubt exists as to the safety of an
aircraft or a marine vessel, and of the persons on board.
A. Emergency Phase
B. Uncertainty Phase
C. Alert Phase
D. Distress Phase

119. "Whenever a distress transmission is intercepted by a pilot-in-command of an

aircraft, the pilot shall: I - acknowledge the distress transmission II - record the position of
the craft in distress if given III - if possible take a bearing on the transmission"
A. I and III
B. II and III
C. I and II
D. I, II and III

120. If a component becomes detached from an aircraft in flight, Nobody injuring on the
ground, but not affecting the continuation of the aircraft’s flight, how would ICAO define this
occurrence ?
A. A fortuitous occurrence
B. An occurrence to be reported
C. An aircraft incident
D. An aircraft accident
121. At the scene of an aircraft accident, a survivor has made a ground signal showing a
large cross with angles of 90° between the arms of the cross. What does this mean?
A. This is our position.
B. All survivors are uninjured.
C. Require assistance.
D. Require medical assistance.

122. Who is responsible, under Annex 13 of the Chicago convention for the initation of an
accident investigation?
A. The government of the state in which the accident took place
B. The aircraft manufacturer
C. The law enforcement authorities of the state in which the aircraft is registered
D. Operators of the same aircraft type

123. The objective of the investigation of an accident or incident shall be the:

A. prevention of accidents or incidents and apportion blame or liability
B. prevention of accidents or incidents and to help the judges
C. prevention of accidents or incidents and to help the manufacturers in design
D. prevention of accidents or incidents

124. If an aircraft has an accident, involving injury to persons or damage to the aircraft,
who is responsible for reporting the accident to the appropriate authority?
A. The pilot in command
B. The police
C. The ATC supervisor
D. The ATC watch officer

125. If a component becomes detached from an aircraft in flight, seriously injuring

someone on the ground, but not affecting the continuation of the aircraft’s flight, how would
ICAO define this occurrence ?
A. A fortuitous occurrence
B. An aircraft incident
C. An occurrence to be reported
D. An aircraft accident

126. Which of the following is correct with reference to which aircraft required a noise
certificate and which are exempt?
A. Non-public transport aircraft are exempt.
B. All aircraft which can take off from hard dry runway is less than 610 metres are exempt.
C. All aeroplanes except certain STOL aircraft require a noise certificate.
D. Training aircraft are exempt.
127. The noise abatement procedures specified by the operator should be;
A. for an aeroplane type, the same for all aerodromes.
B. for all aeroplane types, the same for all aerodromes.
C. different according to aerodromes and aeroplane types.
D. for all aeroplane types, the same for a specific aerodrome.

128. In VMC, a runway should not be chosen as preferential for noise abatement
procedures when;
A. Cross-wind component, including gusts, is 10 kt or less
B. Tail wind component, including gusts, is less than 4 kt
C. It has a tail wind regardless its magnitude
D. It has no ILS or visual approach slope guidance

129. "Noise attenuation shall not be the determining factor in the designation of a
runway, under the following circumstances; I - when cross wind component, including gust,
exceeds 15 knots. II - when the tail wind component, including gust, exceeds 5 knots. III -
when the runway is not clear or dry. The combination regrouping all the correct statements
is; "
A. I and II
B. I and III
C. I, II and III
D. II and III

130. Noise attenuation shall not be the determining factor in the designation of a runway,
under the following circumstances : 1. when cross wind component, including gust, exceeds
15 knots. 2. when the tail wind component, including gust, exceeds 5 knots. 3. when the
runway is not clear or dry. The combination regrouping all the correct statements is :
A. 1, 3
B. 1,2,3.
C. 2, 3
D. 1, 2

131. According to ICAO noise abatement procedures during landing:

A. shall not prohibit the use of reverse thrust.
B. apply in case of instrument approaches only.
C. apply in case of visual approaches only.
D. prohibit the use of reverse thrust.

132. Who has the responsibility for establishing operating procedures for noise abatement
purposes during instrument flight in compliance with ICAO PANS OPS 8168 the:
A. state of the operator
B. operator
C. state in which the aeroplane is operating
D. commander

133. In VMC, a runway should not be chosen as preferential for noise abatement
procedures when:
A. It has no ILS or visual approach slope guidance
B. Cross-wind component, including gusts, is 10 kt or less
C. Tail wind component, including gusts, is less than 4 kt
D. It has a tail wind regardless its magnitude

134. In accordance with OPS 1, the noise abatement procedures specified by the operator
should be:
A. for all aeroplane types, the same for all aerodromes.
B. different according to aerodromes and aeroplane types.
C. "for all aeroplane types, the same for a specific aerodrome. "
D. an aeroplane type, the same for all aerodromes.
080 FLIGHT PLANNING
PPL(A)
QUESTION BANK
1. Air pressure:
A. Acts only vertically downwards.
B. ls measured in Pascals per square inch.
C. Acts in all directions.
D. Increases with altitude.

2. Assuming that the pressure at sea level is lSA, but the temperature is 10°C higher than lSA,
the density will be:
A. Greater than lSA.
B. As per ISA
C. Less than ISA.
D. Unaffected.

3. The presence of water vapour:

A. In air will increase its density.
B. In the atmosphere will increase the amount of lift generated by an aircraft.
C. In the atmosphere will increase the power output of a piston engine.
D. In air will reduce its density.

4. When considering air: 1-Air has mass 2- Air is not compressible 3- Air is able to flow or
change its shape when subject to even small pressures 4-The viscosity of air is very high 5-
Moving air has kinetic energy The correct combination of all true statements is:
A. 1 and 4.
B. 2, 3 and 4.
C. 1, 3, and 5.
D. 1, 2, 3 and 5.

5. If the velocity of an air mass in a Venturi tube is increased:

A. The mass flow will stay constant, the dynamic pressure will decrease and the static pressure
will increase.
B. The static pressure will remain constant and the kinetic energy will increase.
C. The kinetic energy will increase, the dynamic pressure will increase and the static pressure
will decrease.
D. The dynamic pressure will decrease and the static pressure will increase.

6. Density:
A. Reduces with altitude increase.
B. Reduces with temperature reduction.
C. Is unaffected by temperature change.
D. Increases with altitude increase.
7. The International Standard Atmosphere specifies:
A. ambient conditions of atmospheric temperature, pressure and density for all altitudes.
B. sea level conditions of atmospheric temperature, pressure and density.
C. standardized atmospheric values of temperature, pressure and density for all altitudes.
D. values of actual conditions of temperature, pressure and density that exist at all levels of the
atmosphere.

8. The International Standard Atmosphere assumes that the ambient temperature:

A. increases with increase in height above the earth.
B. decreases with increase in height above the earth.
C. will decrease with height only if an inversion layer is present.
D. stays the same with decrease in height above the earth.

9. Air density reduces with altitude because:

A. the pressure falls.
B. the temperature falls.
C. of the fall in water vapour content.
D. of adiabatic cooling.

10. If air is maintained at a constant temperature and volume while its pressure is increased, its
density will:
A. increase.
B. decrease.
C. vary only with changes in the environmental temperature.
D. remain constant because the volume is constant.

11. When considering the changes in density of the air with altitude, which of the following is
correct?
A. The reduction in pressure with increasing altitude causes density to reduce.
B. The temperature reduction with increasing altitude causes density to increase.
C. The temperature increase with increasing altitude causes density to increase.
D. The increase in pressure with increasing altitude causes density to reduce.

12. The static pressure is acting:

A. Only perpendicular to the direction of the flow.
B. In all directions.
C. Only in the direction of the total pressure.
D. Only in direction of the flow.

13. The air pressure that acts on anything immersed in it:

A. Is also known as Dynamic Pressure.
B. Is also known as Total Pressure.
C. Is also known as Static Pressure.
D. Is greater at altitude than at sea level.

14. When considering the changes in density of the air with altitude, which of the following four
options is correct?
A. The increase in pressure with increasing altitude causes density to reduce.
B. The temperature increase with increasing altitude causes density to increase.
C. The temperature reduction with increasing altitude causes density to increase.
D. The reduction in pressure with increasing altitude causes density to reduce.

15. The respective percentages of the four most abundant gases that make up the atmosphere
are?
A. Nitrogen 78% Oxygen 21% Argon 0.95% Carbon Monoxide 0.05%
B. Oxygen 78% Nitrogen 21% Argon 0.95% Carbon Monoxide 0.05%
C. Oxygen 78% Nitrogen 21% Argon 0.95% Carbon Dioxide 0.05%
D. Nitrogen 78% Oxygen 21% Argon 0.95% Carbon Dioxide 0.05%

16. A piston engine aircraft flies in that layer of the atmosphere called:
A. The Troposphere.
B. The Stratosphere.
C. The Tropopause.
D. The Mesosphere.

17. If, on a given day, the actual outside air temperature at 4000 ft is 23°C, what is the
approximate difference between the actual and ISA temperature?
A. 8°C.
B. 15°C.
C. 16°C.
D. 7°C.

18. The properties of the Earth’s atmosphere which influence the performance of aircraft are:
A. Its water vapour content, temperature, pressure and density.
B. Its oxygen content pressure, and water vapour content
C. Its temperature, pressure and humidity.
D. Its nitrogen content, oxygen content, temperature and pressure.
19. The unit of force is the:
A. Mass-kilogram.
B. Joule.
C. Newton.
D. Newton-metre.

20. The dynamic pressure exerted on an aircraft's frontal surface is equal to:
A. Half the density times the indicated airspeed squared.
B. Half the density times the true airspeed squared.
C. Density time’s speed squared.
D. Half the true airspeed times the density squared.

21. In low speed regimes, if the velocity of an air mass is increased:

A. The dynamic pressure will decrease and the static pressure will increase.
B. The mass flow will stay constant, the dynamic pressure will decrease and the static pressure
will increase.
C. The static pressure will remain constant and the kinetic energy will increase.
D. The kinetic energy will increase, the dynamic pressure will increase and the static pressure
will decrease.

22. The boundary layer consists of:

A. Turbulent flow.
B. Laminar and Turbulent flow.
C. Laminar flow.
D. Turbulent flow at low speeds only.

23. In sub-sonic airflow, as air passes through a venturi, the mass flow … , the velocity … and the
static pressure … .
A. Remains constant / increases then decreases / decreases then increases.
B. Remains constant / increases then decreases / increases then decreases.
C. Decreases then increases / increases then decreases / increases then decreases.
D. Decreases then increases / remains constant / increases then decreases.

24. Bernoulli's equation for frictionless, incompressible gases states that...

A. dynamic pressure = total pressure + static pressure.
B. total pressure = dynamic pressure - static pressure.
C. total pressure = dynamic pressure + static pressure.
D. static pressure = total pressure + dynamic pressure.

25. An aircraft's mass is a resuit of:

A. Its volume.
B. How big it is.
C. How much matter it contains.
D. Its weight

26. If the velocity of an air mass is increased:

A. The kinetic energy will increase, the dynamic pressure will increase and the static pressure
will decrease.
B. The mass flow will stay constant, the dynamic pressure will decrease and the static pressure
will increase.
C. The dynamic pressure will decrease and the static pressure will increase.
D. The static pressure will remain constant and the kinetic energy will increase.

27. Dynamic Pressure may be expressed by the formula:

A. Q =PV
B. Q=1/3PV2
C. Q=1/2pV2
D. Q = 2PV

28. For [pt = total pressure; ps = static pressure; q = dynamic pressure] Bernoulli's equation can
be written as:
A. pt + ps = q
B. pt = q - ps
C. pt - q = ps
D. pt = ps - q

29. The (subsonic) static pressure:

A. is the total pressure plus the dynamic pressure.
B. decreases in a flow in a tube when the diameter decreases.
C. is the pressure in a point at which the velocity has become zero.
D. increases in a flow in a tube when the diameter decreases.

30. If the cross sectional area of an airflow is reduced:

A. The velocity of the airflow remains constant and the kinetic energy increases.
B. The mass flow remains constant and the static pressure increases.
C. The velocity of the airflow remains constant and the mass flow increases.
D. The mass flow remains constant and the velocity of the airflow increases.

31. The SI units of mass flow (I) and power (II) are ;
A. .(I) kg/m² , (II) kg.m/s
B. .(I) kg/s , (II) N.m/s
C. .(I) kg/s , (II) kg.m/s
D. .(I) kg/m² , (II) N.m/s

32. If the continuity equation is assumed,what will happen to the total pressure (Pt) if the cross
sectional area of a tube changes?(subsonic and incompressible flow)
A. Pt(1)
B. Ps(1)+q(1)
C. Pt(1)>Pt(2)
D. Pt(1)=Pt(2)

33. With increasing from zero to critical angle of attack,CL(lift coefficient) will (I).......and the
stagnation point will move(II)....... Respectively (I) and (II) are:
A. (I)-remain constant, (II)-up
B. (I)-increase, (II)-up
C. (I)-increase, (II)-down
D. (I)-decrease, (II)-up

34. The lift to drag ratio determines the ;

A. endurance speed.
B. horizontal distance in the climb up to a given altitude
C. maximum rate of climb
D. horizontal glide distance from a given altitude at zero wind and zero thrust

35. A positively cambered aerofoil starts to produce lift at an angle of attack of approximately:
A. Negative angle of attack.
B. 0 degrees.
C. 4 to 6 degrees.
D. 16 degrees.

36. The air flow over the wing’s upper surface in straight and level flight, when compared with
the air flow that is unaffected by the wing, will have:
A. The same velocity.
B. A higher density.
C. A reduced velocity.
D. A higher velocity.

37. If the indicated Air Speed of an aircraft is increased from 50 kts to 100 kts, parasite drag will
be:
A. One quarter as much.
B. Six times greater.
C. Two times greater.
D. Four times greater.

38. If the Angle of Attack and other factors remain constant, and the airspeed is doubled, lift will
be:
A. Quadrupled(Four times).
B. Doubled(two times).
C. The same.
D. One quarter of what it was.

39. As airspeed increases induced drag _____ , parasite drag _____ and total drag _____ .
A. Decreases, Increases, Decreases then increases
B. Decreases, Decreases, Decreases
C. Increases, Decreases, Increases then decreases
D. Increases, Increases, Increases

40. Which of the answer options most correctly completes the sentence? The amount of lift a
wing produces is directly proportional to:
A. The air density.
B. The square root of the velocity of the air flowing over it.
C. The air temperature.
D. The dynamic pressure minus the static pressure.

41. By changing the Angle of Attack of a wing, the pilot can control the aeroplane’s:
A. Lift, airspeed, and drag.
B. Lift and airspeed, but not drag.
C. Lift and drag, but not airspeed.
D. Lift, gross weight, and drag.

42. As Indicated Air Speed (IAS) is reduced, in order to maintain altitude, the pilot must:
A. Decrease the angle of attack to reduce the drag.
B. Deploy the speed brakes to increase drag.
C. Increase the angle of attack to maintain the correct lift force.
D. Reduce the thrust.

43. The maximum value of the Coefficient of Lift is found:

A. During steep turns.
B. At negative angles of attack.
C. At the stalling angle of attack.
D. When lift equals drag.
44. An aerofoil section is designed to produce lift resulting from a difference in the:
A. Higher air pressure below the surface and lower air pressure above the surface.
B. Higher air pressure at the leading edge than at the trailing edge.
C. Vacuum below the surface and greater air pressure above the surface.
D. Negative air pressure below and a vacuum above the surface.

45. An imaginary straight line running from the leading edge of an aerofoil to its trailing edge, is
called the:
A. Aerofoil thickness.
B. Maximum camber.
C. Mean camber.
D. Chord line

46. If the angle of attack is increased above the stalling angle:

A. Lift will decrease and drag will increase.
B. Lift will increase and drag will decrease.
C. Lift and drag will both increase.
D. Lift and drag will both decrease.

47. The angle of attack is the angle between the:

A. Chord line and the relative airflow.
B. Chord line and the Longitudinal axis of the aeroplane.
C. Camber line and free stream flow.
D. Chord line and the horizontal plane.

48. A positively cambered aerofoil starts to produce lift at an angle of attack of approximately:
A. 16 degrees.
B. 0 degrees.
C. Minus 4 degrees.
D. 4 to 6 degrees.

49. If surrounded by airflow (v>0), any arbitrarily shaped body produces...

A. constant drag at any speed.
B. drag and lift.
C. lift without drag.
D. drag.

50. A moving mass of air possesses kinetic energy. An object placed in the path of such a moving
mass of air will be subject to:
A. Static Pressure.
B. Dynamic pressure minus static pressure.
C. Static pressure and dynamic pressure.
D. Dynamic pressure.

51. Relative airflow is _____ and _____ the movement of the aircraft.
A. Parallel to - Opposite to
B. Perpendicular to - Opposite to
C. Parallel to - In the same direction as
D. Perpendicular to - In the same direction as

52. All aerodynamic forces can be considered to act on a single point. This point is called...
A. lift point.
B. center of gravity.
C. transition point.
D. center of pressure.

53. The angle of attack is the angle between...

A. the undisturbed airflow and the longitudinal axis of an aeroplane.
B. the chord line and the longitudinal axis of an aeroplane.
C. the wing and the fuselage of an aeroplane.
D. the chord line and the oncoming airflow.

54. A coefficient of lift reaches its maximum value:

A. at or just prior to the stall.
B. at the minimum drag speed in the clean configuration.
C. at the normal operating speed (Vno) in clean configuration.
D. between 4° and 6° angle of attack in straight and level flight.

55. If an aircraft is maintaining a constant angle of attack but increases its airspeed this will
cause:
A. an increase of both lift and drag.
B. an increase in lift but a decrease in drag.
C. a decrease in lift but an increase in drag.
D. no change in lift generated by the wing/ but an increase in airframe drag.

56. What pattern can be found at the stagnation point of the leading edge?
A. The laminar boundary layer changes into a turbulent boundary layer
B. The boundary layer starts separating on the upper surface of the profile
C. Streamlines are divided into airflow above and below the profile
D. All aerodynamic forces can be considered as attacking at this single point
57. What pressure pattern can be observed at a lift-generating wing profile at positive angle of
attack?
A. Low pressure is created above, higher pressure below the profile
B. High pressure is created above, lower pressure below the profile
C. Pressure below remains unchanged, lower pressure is created above the profile
D. Pressure above remains unchanged, higher pressure is created below the profile

58. The angle of attack of an aerofoil may be defined as:

A. the angle subtended by the aerofoil mean chord line and the rigging angle.
B. the angle subtended by the aerofoil mean chord line and the horizontal.
C. the angle subtended by the aerofoil chord line and the longitudinal axis.
D. the angle subtended by the aerofoil chord line and the relative airflow.

59. In straight and level flight, the air flow over the wing's upper surface compared with the air
flow unaffected by the wing will have:
A. a reduced velocity.
B. the same velocity.
C. a relative velocity.
D. a greater velocity.

60. In which way does the position of the center of pressure move at a positively shaped profile
with increasing angle of attack?
A. It moves forward until reaching the critical angle of attack
B. It moves backward
C. It moves backward until reaching the critical angle of attack
D. It moves to the wing tips

61. Which statement about the airflow around an aerofoil is correct if the angle of attack
increases?
A. The stagnation point moves up
B. The center of pressure moves up
C. The stagnation point moves down
D. The center of pressure moves down

62. An aeroplane maintains straight and level flight while the TAS is doubled. The change in lift
coefficient will be:
A. x 2.0
B. x 0.5
C. x 0.25
D. x 4.0
63. Lift is perpendicular to the…………..:
A. longitudinal axis.
B. chord line.
C. horizon.
D. relative airflow.

64. Which statement about the airflow around an aerofoil is correct if the angle of attack
decreases?
A. The stagnation point remains constant
B. The center of pressure moves forward
C. The stagnation point moves down
D. The center of pressure moves aft

65. The smooth flow of air, where each molecule follows the path of the preceding molecule, is a
definition of:
A. Turbulent flow.
B. Wind.
C. Laminar flow.
D. Free stream flow.

66. The point, where the aerodynamic lift acts on a wing is:
A. the centre of pressure.
B. the point of maximum thickness of the wing.
C. the c.g. location.
D. the suction point of the wing.

67. Lift formula is composed of:

A. Dynamic Pressure x lift coefficient x wing area
B. Static pressure x lift coefficient x wing area
C. Dynamic pressure x drag coefficient x wing area
D. Total pressure x lift coefficient x wing area

68. The relative thickness of an aerofoil is expressed in:

A. % chord.
B. Inches.
C. Camber.
D. Meters.

69. The “CL – alpha” curve of a positive cambered aerofoil intersects with the vertical axis:
A. In the origin (0/0).
B. Above the origin (0/0).
C. Below the origin (0/0).
D. Nowhere.

70. With reference to the figure below, how do the speeds (V1) and (V2) relate to the relative
wind/airflow (V)?
A. V1 = 0 and V2 > V
B. V1 > V2 and V2 < V
C. V1 = 0 and V2 = V
D. V1 < V2 and V2 < V

71. In straight and level flight, if airspeed ... the angle of attack ... and the incidence angle...
A. decreases; decreases; decreases.
B. increases; decreases; decreases.
C. decreases; increases; remains constant.
D. increases; increases; decreases.

72. As the angle of attack of a wing is increased, the center of pressure will reach its most
forward position on the wing...
A. at the optimum angle of attack.
B. just before the wing stalls.
C. when the aircraft is stalling.
D. after stall recovery.

73. A wing which is inclined downwards from root to tip is said to have:
A. Sweep
B. Washout
C. Taper
D. Anhedral

74. The ratio of span and mean chord length is referred to as...
A. aspect ratio.
B. trapezium shape.
C. tapering.
D. wing sweep.

75. Wing tip vortex development begins during which phase of flight?
A. While setting take-off power during take-off run
B. As soon as the aircraft starts moving
C. While setting flaps to lower position
D. When lift is being generated during rotation
76. Which curve represents the induced drag?
A. 4
B. 2
C. 3
D. 1

77. When increasing the airflow speed by a factor of 2 while keeping all other parameters
constant, how does the parasite drag change approximately?
A. It decreases by a factor of 2
B. It increases by a factor of 4
C. It decreases by a factor of 4
D. It increases by a factor of 2

78. Which of the following options is likely to produce large induced drag?
A. Large aspect ratio
B. Tapered wings
C. Small aspect ratio
D. Low lift coefficients

79. Resistance, or skin friction, due to the viscosity of the air as it passes along the surface of a
wing, is a type of:
A. Parasite drag.
B. Interference drag.
C. Form drag.
D. Induced drag.

80. If in level flight the airspeed decreases below that for maximum Lift/Drag, the effect will be
that:
A. Drag decreases because of lower parasite drag.
B. Drag increases because of increased induced drag.
C. Drag increases because of increased parasite drag.
D. Drag decreases because of lower induced drag.

81. Which parts of an aircraft mainly affect the generation of induced drag?
A. the front part of the fuselage.
B. the outer part of the ailerons.
C. the lower part of the gear.
D. the wing tips.

82. Pressure drag, interference drag and friction drag belong to the group of the...
A. total drag.
B. parasite drag.
C. main resistance.
D. induced drag.

83. Which of the listed wing shapes has the lowest induced drag?
A. Trapezoidal shape
B. Rectangular shape
C. Elliptical shape
D. Double trapezoidal shape

84. In which mentioned situation is the total drag at its minimum?

A. Induced drag is smaller than parasite drag
B. Induced drag is twice as much as parasite drag
C. Parasite drag is equal to induced drag
D. Parasite drag is twice as much as induced drag

85. Ground effect has the following influence on the landing distance:
A. increases the landing distance , only if the landing flaps are fully extended.
B. Decreases the landing distance
C. does not change the landing distance
D. increases the landing distance

86. Induced drag at constant IAS is affected by:

A. Engine thrust.
B. Aircraft weight.
C. Angle between wing chord and fuselage center line.
D. Aircraft wing location.

87. The aeroplane drag in straight and level flight is lowest when the:
A. parasite drag is equal to the induced drag.
B. induced drag is lowest.
C. parasite drag equals twice the induced drag.
D. induced drag is equal to zero.

88. Increasing speed in straight and level flight (1)……….… induced drag and (2) …………parasite
drag.
A. .(1) increases and (2) decreases.
B. .(1) decreases and (2) decreases.
C. .(1) increases and (2) increases.
D. .(1) decreases and (2) increases.

89. On an aerofoil section, the force of Iift acts perpendicular to, and the force of drag acts
A. Longitudinal axis.
B. Aerofoil section upper surface.
C. Flightpath.
D. Chord line.

90. That portion of the aircraft's total drag created by the production of lift is called:
A. Induced drag, which is greatly affected by changes in airspeed.
B. Parasite drag, which is inversely proportional to the square of the airspeed.
C. Induced drag, which is not affected by changes in airspeed.
D. Parasite drag, which is greatly affected by changes in airspeed.

91. The maximum gliding distance from 6000 feet, for an aircraft in clean configuration, with a
lift/drag ratio of 8:1, is approximately 8 nautical miles. If flaps are deployed:
A. Lift/Drag ratio will be unaffected but will be achieved at a lower airspeed.
B. The maximum gliding distance will increase.
C. The maximum gliding distance will be unaffected.
D. The maximum gliding distance will be less.

92. An aircraft rotates about:

A. Its rudder.
B. Its main undercarriage.
C. Its centre of gravity (CG)
D. Its wings.

93. As airspeed increases, induced drag:

A. Remains unchanged.
B. Is dependant on the weight of the aircraft.
C. Increases.
D. Decreases.

94. The reason for geometric washout being designed into an aeroplane wing is to:
A. prevent progressive wing stall and loss of control.
B. cause the outboard section of the wing to stall first.
C. cause the inboard section of the wing to stall first.
D. decrease the effectiveness of the ailerons.

95. As an aeroplane's True Air Speed (TAS) increases:

A. induced drag decreases and parasite drag increases.
B. induced drag increases and parasite drag increases.
C. parasite drag decreases and induced drag increases.
D. induced drag decreases and parasite drag decreases.

96. When the aircraft is climbing will have the following effect on the total drag of a body in an
airstream(AoA and TAS are constant);
A. total drag increases
B. the total drag decreases
C. first increasing after that decreasing
D. has no effect

97. When an aeroplane enters ground effect:

A. the induced angle of attack is increased.
B. the effective angle of attack is decreased
C. the lift is increased and the drag is decreased
D. drag and lift are reduced

98. Which part of an aeroplane has the largest effect on induced drag?
A. landing gear
B. wing root junction
C. engine cowling
D. wing tip

99. When wing lift is zero,its induced drag is:

A. LOW
B. high
C. ZERO
D. maximum

100. Complete the following statement.The .....X..... wake turbulence is generated by a

.....Y..... aircraft flying at .....Z..... airspeed.
A. greatest, heavy, slow
B. least, heavy, slow
C. greatest, light, high
D. least, light, high

101. An aircraft has a nose down pitching moment due to the lift/weight couple and a
nose up pitching moment due to the thrust/drag couple. When power is increased:
A. The couples both increase in magnitude but remain balanced.
B. It will pitch nose up.
C. The couples both decrease in magnitude but remain balanced.
D. It will pitch nose down.

102. During a straight and steady climb, which force acts additionally, and in the same
direction as the drag force, resulting in more power required for climb than for horizontal
flight?
A. The vertical component of the weight force.
B. A component of the weight force along the rearward flight path.
C. A component of the lift force along the forward flight path.
D. A component of the thrust along the rearward flight path.

103. In straight and level powered flight the following principal forces act on an aircraft:
A. Lift, drag, weight.
B. Thrust lift. drag, weight
C. Thrust lift, drag.
D. Thrust lift, weight

104. Considering the forces acting upon an aeroplane, at constant airspeed, which
statement is correct?
A. Thrust acts parallel to the relative air flow and is greater than drag.
B. The lift force generated by the wings always acts in the opposite direction to the aircraft’s
weight.
C. Weight always acts vertically downwards towards the centre of the Earth.
D. Lift acts perpendicular to the chord line and must always be greater than weight.

105. What force makes an airplane coordinated turn ?

A. Drag force.
B. Thrust.
C. The horizontal component of lift.
D. The vertical component of lift.

106. ln a climb at a constant speed, the thrust is:

A. Equal to the weight component along the flight path.
B. Greater than the aerodynamic drag.
C. Less than the aerodynamic drag.
D. Equal to the aerodynamic drag.

107. The angle of climb is proportional to:

A. The amount by which the lift exceeds the weight.
B. The amount by which the thrust exceeds the weight.
C. The amount by which the thrust exceeds the drag.
D. The angle of attack of the wing.

108. What must be the relationship between the forces acting on an aircraft in flight, for
that aircraft to be in a state of equilibrium?
A. Lift must equal drag, and thrust must equal weight.
B. Lift must equal thrust plus drag.
C. Lift must equal thrust, and weight must equal drag.
D. Lift must equal weight, and thrust must equal drag.

109. The bending of an aeroplane's wing spar in flight is the product of opposing force lift
which bends the wing .........(a) ... and weight which acts in .......(b)........... Select the answer
which correctly completes this statement.
A. downwards - downwards
B. upwards - downwards
C. downwards - upwards
D. upwards - upwards

110. An aircraft in straight and level flight is in equilibrium when:

A. the weight equals the drag and the lift equals the thrust.
B. the lift equals the drag and the thrust equals the weight.
C. the weight equals lift and the drag equals the thrust.
D. the weight equals the lift couple and the drag equals the thrust couple.

111. The centre of pressure by design is behind the aircraft centre of gravity which is
balanced in straight and level flight by:
A. the tailplane producing a downward force.
B. neither an upward nor downward tailplane force as the aircraft will be in equilibrium.
C. neither an upward or downward tailplane force as the aircraft will not be in equilibrium.
D. the tailplane producing an upward force.

112. The unit of force is the:

A. Newton-metre.
B. Newton.
C. Joule.
D. Mass-kilogram.

113. The terms 'q' and 'S' in the lift formula

A. static pressure and dynamic pressure
B. mass flow and wing area
C. dynamic pressure and wing area
D. dynamic pressure and wing loading
114. Which of these statements about weight or mass is correct?
A. Mass=weight x volume
B. In the SI system the unit of measurement for weight is the kilogram.
C. The weight of an object is independent of the acceleration due to gravity.
D. The mass of an object is independent of the acceleration due to gravity.

115. Air density affects on ;

A. Drag,Lift,Weight
B. Thrust,Lift,Drag,Weight
C. Thrust,Drag,Weight
D. Thrust,Lift,Drag

116. A control surface may have a mass balance fitted to it, in order to:
A. Help prevent a rapid and uncontrolled oscillation which is called "flutter".
B. Provide the pilot with "feel".
C. Lighten the forces needed to control the surface.
D. Keep the control surface level.

117. 'Differential Ailerons' are a design feature that helps to counteract:

A. Stability about the longitudinal axis.
B. Adverse roll.
C. Adverse yaw.
D. Positive aircraft stability.

118. Taper ratio of a wing is the ratio between:

A. tip chord and root chord
B. root chord and tip chord
C. mean geometric chord and wing span
D. wing span squared and wing area

119. Control surface flutter can be eliminated by:

A. aerodynamic balancing of the control surface
B. mass balancing of the control surface.
C. reducing structural stiffness of the control surface attachment structure
D. increasing airspeed.

120. What increases the critical angle of attack? Use of:

A. slats
B. trailing edge flaps
C. fuselage mounted speed brakes
D. spoilers

121. Why the vertical tail design is symmetrical aerofoil ?

A. to prevent friction drag about the normal axis
B. to prevent pitching about the lateral axis
C. to prevent rolling about the vertical axis
D. to prevent yawing about the normal axis

122. In straight and level flight the center of pressure is behind the center of gravity. What
is the direction of action of the resultant force from the elevators and tailplane to maintain
straight and level flight?
A. upward
B. horizontally
C. in a direction depending on the thrust/drag couple.
D. downward.

123. Differential aileron deflection:

A. Decreases the difference in drag between the right and left wings.
B. increases the CLmax.
C. is required to achieve the required roll-rate.
D. is required to keep the total lift constant when ailerons are deflected.

124. One method to compensate adverse aileron yaw is:

A. a balance tab
B. an anti-balance tab
C. a balance panel
D. a differential aileron

125. The movement of an airplane about its normal (vertical) axis is known as:
A. side slipping.
B. roll.
C. yaw.
D. pitch.

126. Rotation around the longitudinal axis is called:

A. rolling
B. slipping
C. pitching
D. yawing
127. The normal axis of an aircraft is always vertical to the ground. II. The normal axis is
perpendicular to the other two axes of the aircraft. Select the correct statements.
A. None
B. Only II
C. I and II
D. Only I

128. "Match the relevant axis and motions around them: I. Pitching II. Rolling III. Yawing
IV. Longitudinal axis V. Lateral axis VI. Normal axis "
A. I-IV, II-VI, III-V
B. I-V, II-VI, III-IV
C. I-VI, II-V, III-IV
D. I-V, II-IV, III-VI

129. What happens when you pull the control stick?

A. Flaps are lowered
B. Elevator moves up and creates a nose-up moment
C. Elevator moves down and creates a nose-up moment
D. Elevator moves up and creates a nose-down moment

130. What happens when you push the control stick?

A. Elevator moves down and creates a nose-down moment
B. Flaps are lowered
C. Elevator moves up and creates a nose-down moment
D. Elevator moves up and creates a nose-up moment

131. What happens when you move the control stick to the right?
A. Left aileron moves up, right aileron moves down
B. Both ailerons move down
C. Right aileron moves up, left aileron moves down
D. Both ailerons move up

132. What happens when you move the control stick to the left?
A. Left aileron moves up, right aileron moves down
B. Both ailerons move down
C. Right aileron moves up, left aileron moves down
D. Both ailerons move up

133. Ailerons give:

A. Longitudinal control about the lateral axis.
B. Directional control about the normal axis.
C. Lateral control about the lateral axis.
D. Lateral control about the longitudinal axis

134. If the nose of an aeroplane yaws left, this causes:

A. a decrease in relative airspeed on the right wing.
B. a roll to the right.
C. a roll to the left.
D. an increase in lift on the left wing.

135. Which phenomenon is counteracted with differential aileron deflection?

A. Aileron reversal.
B. Sensitivity for spiral dive.
C. Turn co-ordination.
D. Adverse yaw.

136. The pitch angle is defined as the angle between the:

A. speed vector axis and the longitudinal axis.
B. chord line and the horizontal plane.
C. longitudinal axis and the horizontal plane.
D. longitudinal axis and the chord line.

137. The primary and secondary effects of applying the left rudder alone are:
A. Right yaw and left roll.
B. Left yaw and left roll.
C. Right yaw and right roll.
D. Left yaw and right roll.

138. When the control column is pushed forward, a balance tab on the elevator:
A. Moves to the neutral position.
B. Will only move if the trim wheel is operated.
C. Will move up relative to the control surface.
D. Will move down relative to the control surface.

139. Movement of the aircraft about its normal (vertical) axis is known as:
A. Side slipping.
B. Pitching.
C. Rolling.
D. Yawing.

140. The lateral axis of an aircraft is a line which:

A. Passes through the Centre of Gravity, parallel to a line through the wing tips.
B. Passes through the wing tips.
C. Passes through the Centre of Pressure, at right angles to the direction of the airflow.
D. Passes through the quarter-chord point of the wing root, at right angles to the longitudinal
axis.

141. If the control column is moved to the left and forward:

A. The left aileron moves up, right aileron moves down, elevator moves down.
B. The left aileron moves down, right aileron moves up, elevator moves up.
C. The left aileron moves down, right aileron moves up, elevator moves down.
D. The left aileron moves up, right aileron moves down, elevator moves up.

142. Ailerons give:

A. Directional control about the normal axis.
B. Longitudinal control about the lateral axis.
C. Lateral control about the longitudinal axis
D. Lateral control about the lateral axis.

143. The primary and secondary effects of the aileron control are:
A. Roll and pitch.
B. Pitch and yaw
C. Roll and yaw.
D. Yaw and roll.

144. Differential aileron where the up-going aileron moves further than the down-going
aileron is a design feature that helps to counteract:
A. lateral positive stability.
B. adverse aileron drag to prevent adverse yaw
C. lateral instability.
D. aircraft inertia.

145. The purpose of an anti-balance tab is to:

A. Reduce the load required to move the controls at high speeds only.
B. Reduce the load required to move the controls at all speeds.
C. Ensure that the pilot's physical control load increases with increase of control surface
deflection.
D. Trim the aircraft.

146. To trim an aircraft which tends to fly nose heavy with hands off, the top of the
elevator trim wheel should be:
A. Moved backwards to raise the nose, and this would cause the elevator trim tab to move
down, and the elevator to move up.
B. Moved backwards to raise the nose, and this would cause the elevator trim tab to move up,
and cause the nose to rise.
C. Moved forward to raise the nose, and this would cause the elevator trim tab to move down,
and the elevator to move up.
D. Moved backwards to raise the nose, and this would cause the elevator trim tab to move up,
and the elevator to move up.

147. The purpose of an anti-balance tab is to:

A. Reduce the load required to move the controls at high speeds only.
B. Reduce the load required to move the controls at all speeds.
C. Prevent overdeflection of the control surfaces by increasing the load applied by the pilot.
D. Trim the aircraft.

148. The purpose of a trim tab is:

A. To zero the load on the pilots controls in the flight attitude required.
B. To assist the pilot in initiating movement of the controls.
C. To increase the effectiveness of the controls.
D. To provide feel to the controls at high speed.

149. A fixed trim tab such as those commonly found on ailerons should:
A. only be adjusted after receipt of written approval from the Authority.
B. be adjusted on the ground after a test flight to achieve longitudinally level flight (pitch)
C. be adjusted on the ground after a flight test to achieve laterally level flight (roll)
D. not be adjusted once set by the manufacturer.

150. A flying control surface is fitted with a simple trim tab. Once the trim tab is set in
flight, any movement of the flying control surface will result in the:
A. trim tab moving in the opposite direction to the main flying control surface.
B. trim tab position remaining constant relative to the airflow.
C. trim tab position remaining constant relative to the control surface
D. trim tab moving to a new position and will have to be re-set.

151. An aircraft is fitted with a balance tab controlled rudder, when viewed from the rear,
forward movement of the rudder bar to the left to yaw the aircraft to the left will move the
balance tab to the:
A. tab to the right and the rudder to the left.
B. tab to the left and the rudder to the right.
C. tab to the left and rudder to the left.
D. tab to the right and rudder to the right.
152. How would the exterior appearance of an aircraft change, when trimming for speed
increase aiming constant altitude?
A. The exterior appearance of the aircraft will not change
B. The elevator is deflected further up by a downward deflected trim tab
C. Elevator deflection is increased further downward by an upward deflected trim tab
D. The elevator is deflected further downward by means of a movable horizontal stabilizer

153. Full flaps should be selected when:

A. Landing into a strong headwind.
B. Committed to land.
C. Above VFE.
D. On go-around.

154. What is the principle of a Fowler flap?

A. A flap from the rear bottom side of the wing is folded down
B. The rear part of the wing is folded down
C. A profile-like flap is extended from the trailing edge of the wing
D. At high angles of attack a part of the leading edge lifts

155. How do lift and drag change when setting flaps to a lower position?
A. Lift increases, drag decreases
B. Lift decreases, drag decreases
C. Lift decreases, drag increases
D. Lift increases, drag increases

156. During the retraction of the flaps (to clean configuration) at a constant angle of
attack the aircraft starts to … , when all other factors of importance are constant.
A. Sink
B. Yaw
C. Climb
D. Bank

157. A slotted flap will increase the CLmax by:

A. increasing only the camber of the aerofoil.
B. increasing the critical angle of attack.
C. decreasing the skin friction.
D. increasing the camber of the aerofoil and improving the boundary layer.

158. A slat will

A. increase the camber of the aerofoil and divert the flow around the sharp leading edge.
B. increase the lift by increasing the wing area and the camber of the aft portion of the wing.
C. provide a boundary layer suction on the upper surface of the wing.
D. prolongs the stall to a higher angle of attack.

159. What is the effect of flap extension on glide distance?

A. Glide distance increases because flaps provide more lift.
B. Flap extension does not affect glide distance.
C. Glide distance decreases because of increased drag.
D. Glide distance decreases because of decreased drag.

160. Flaps and slats

A. increase the lift coefficient so the aircraft can be flown at a lower speed
B. Decrease the lift coefficient to slow the aircraft.
C. Decrease drag
D. Create a nose-up pitching moment during take-off

161. To maintain straight and level flight at constant IAS, AOA should be ….. when flaps
are extended.
A. at the critical angle of attack
B. increased
C. Be kept constant
D. Decreased

162. To maintain straight and level flight, AOA should be ….. when flaps are retracted
A. at the critical angle of attack
B. Decreased
C. increased
D. Be kept constant

163. One of the main functions of flaps during approach and landing is to:
A. permit a touchdown at a higher indicated airspeed.
B. increase the angle of descent without increasing the airspeed.
C. increase the angle of attack.
D. decrease the angle of descent without increasing the airspeed.

164. If a landing is to be made without flaps the landing speed must be:
A. The same as for a landing with flaps.
B. Increased.
C. The same as for a landing with flaps but with a steeper approach.
D. Reduced.
165. With the flaps Iowered, the stalling speed will:
A. Remain the same.
B. Increase.
C. Decrease.
D. Increase, but occur at a higher angle of attack.

166. A pilot lowers the flaps while keeping the airspeed constant. In order to maintain
level flight, the angle of attack:
A. Must be kept constant but power must be increased.
B. Must be kept constant and power required will be constant.
C. Must be increased.
D. Must be reduced.

167. The maximum allowable airspeed with flaps extended (VFE) is lower than cruising
speed because:
A. Flaps are used only when preparing to land.
B. At speeds higher than VFE, the aerodynamic forces would overload the flap and wing
structures.
C. Flaps will stall if they are deployed at too high an airspeed.
D. Too much drag is induced.

168. When flaps are lowered the stalling angle of attack of the wing:
A. Remains the same, but CLMAX increases.
B. Increases and CLMAX increases.
C. Decreases, but CLMAx remains the same.
D. Decreases, but CLMAx increases.

169. A stalling angle of attack is increased by slots because:

A. They dump positive pressure airflow from under the wing
B. They decease the ineffective wing area at the leading edge
C. They increase the effective wing area at the leading edge
D. They delay the break-up of the smooth airflow over the wing

170. Which statement about lift and angle of attack is correct?

A. Increasing the angle of attack results in less lift being generated by the aerofoil
B. Increasing the angle of attack too far may result in a loss of lift and an airflow separation
C. Too large angles of attack can lead to an exponential increase in lift
D. Decreasing the angle of attack results in more lift being generated by the aerofoil

171. In order to improve the stall characteristics of an aircraft, the wing is twisted
outwards (the angle of incidence varies spanwise). This is known as...
A. arrow shape.
B. aerodynamic washout.
C. V-form.
D. geometric washout.

172. Which option states a benefit of aerodynamic washout?

A. At high angles of attack the effectiveness of the aileron is retained as long as possible
B. Greater hardness because the wing can withstand more torsion forces
C. Structurally the wing is made more rigid against rotation
D. With the washout the form drag reduces at high speeds

173. Which statement concerning the angle of attack is correct?

A. A too large angle of attack may result in a loss of lift
B. The angle of attack is constant throughout the flight
C. The angle of attack cannot be negative
D. Increasing the angle of attack results in decreasing lift

174. What leads to a decrease stall speed Vs (IAS)?

A. Lower altitude
B. Higher load factor
C. Decreasing weight
D. Lower density

175. The stall warning will be activated just before reaching which speed?
A. VR
B. VX
C. VNE
D. VS

176. What effects typically result from propeller icing?

A. Reduced power output, decreasing RPM.
B. Increased power output, increasing RPM.
C. Increased power output, decreasing RPM.
D. Reduced power output, increasing RPM.

177. An aeroplane wing stalls when:

A. It is subjected to unusually high “G” forces.
B. The critical angle of attack is exceeded.
C. The laminar airflow becomes turbulent.
D. The indicated airspeed is too low.
178. A typical stalling angle of attack for an training aircraft wing is about:
A. 45°
B. 4°
C. 30°
D. 16°

179. An aeroplane wing will stall at a given:

A. dihedral angle
B. angle of lift
C. angle of incidence
D. angle of attack

180. The stalling speed of an aircraft in straight and level flight is 60 kt, IAS. What is its
stalling speed in a level 60º banked turn?
A. 60 kt
B. 120 kt
C. 85 kt
D. 43 kt

181. The angle of attack at which an airplane stalls will:

A. change with an increase in gross weight.
B. increase with the increasing load factor
C. increase if the CG is moved forward.
D. remain the same regardless of gross weight.

182. If the aircraft weight is increased, without change of C of G position, the stalling angle
of attack will:
A. The position of the C of G does not affect the stall speed.
B. Decrease.
C. Remain the same.
D. Increase.

183. Stall angle varies with:

A. horizontal tailplane
B. slats and flaps
C. density and pressure
D. temperature and altitude

184. When the aircraft is in a spin, the direction of spin is most reliably found by reference
to which of the following indications?
A. Turn coordinator
B. Direction indicator.
C. Slip indicator.
D. Artificial horizon.

185. In a light training aircraft a smooth stall is characterized by:

A. airspeed increase and wing drop.
B. a nose pitch down and aircraft sink.
C. airspeed stagnation and incipient spin.
D. a nose pitch up and aircraft sink.

186. An increase in aircraft weight amongst other things will:

A. cause a decrease in the stalling speed.
B. cause an increase in the flapless stalling speed but decrease in the clean stalling speed.
C. cause an increase in the stalling speed.
D. not affect the stalling speed.

187. Which of the following is not an indication of stall?

A. Stall horn activation
B. Decrease in the primary control effects
C. Lack of engine control response
D. Unintended nose drop of the aircraft

188. The critical angle of attack:

A. remains constant regardless of weight
B. changes with an increase in gross weight
C. decreases if the CG is moved aft
D. increases if the CG is moved forward

189. The sensor of a stall warning system can be activated by a change in the location of
the:
A. centre of lift.
B. stagnation point.
C. transition region.
D. centre of gravity.

190. The stalling speed in IAS will change according to the following factors:
A. Increase with increased load factor, icing conditions and an aft C.G. location
B. Increase with increased load factor, more flaps but will not increase due to the bank angle in
a turn
C. Decrease in a forward C.G. location, higher altitude and due to the slip stream from a
propeller on an engine located forward of the wing
D. Increase during turn, increased mass and forward C.G. location

191. The stalling angle of attack for the flaps down configuration is … … the stalling angle
of attack for the flaps up configuration.
A. greater than.
B. smaller than.
C. same as.
D. smaller than or greater than, depending on CG position.

192. An aircraft has a stalling speed of 100 kt in a steady level flight. When the aircraft is
flying a level turn with a load factor of 4.0, the stalling speed is:
A. 400 kt
B. 100 kt
C. 40 kt
D. 200 kt

193. Which of the following conditions will cause increased stall airspeed?
A. Angle of bank reduced, flap setting increased
B. Load factor increased, heavy icing of the wing
C. Power increased, flap setting increased
D. Aircraft weight increased, power increased

194. How do you recover from stall?

A. Apply opposite rudder-aileron inputs
B. Push the control stick and decrease throttle
C. Push the control stick and increase throttle
D. Pull the control stick and reduce throttle

195. (Washout) Wing twist (geometric and aerodynamic) is used to:

A. increase VMO
B. improve stall characteristics.
C. reduce VR
D. reduce interference drag

196. When a pilot makes a turn in horizontal flight, the stall speed:
A. Decreases with increasing bank angle
B. increases with flap extension
C. increases with the load factor squared
D. increases with the square root of load factor
197. Which of the following doesn't affect the angle of stall for an airplane?
A. Momenterally control column movements.
B. Higher airspeed than the normal stall speed.
C. Airspeed or pitch attitude.
D. The pitch attitude with respect to the natural horizon.

198. Which of the following statements about the spin is correct?

A. Stall recovery is made using reverse aileron control
B. During spin recovery the ailerons should be kept in the neutral position and only rudder is
used.
C. Every aeroplane should be designed such that it can never enter a spin
D. In a spin, IAS continuously increases.

199. When the C of G is close to the forward limit:

A. Very small forces are required on the control column to produce pitch.
B. Very high stick forces are required to pitch because the aircraft is very stable.
C. Stick forces are the same as for an aft C of G.
D. Longitudinal stability is reduced.

200. lf a disturbing force causes an aircraft to roll:

A. Wing dihedral will cause a nose up pitching moment.
B. Wing dihedral will cause a rolling moment which tends to correct the sideslip.
C. Wing dihedral will cause a yawing moment which tends to correct the sideslip.
D. The fin will cause a yawing moment which reduces the sideslip.

201. After a disturbance in pitch, an aircraft oscillates in lateral axis with increasing
amplitude. It is:
A. Statically and dynamically stable.
B. Statically unstable but dynamically stable.
C. Statically and dynamically unstable.
D. Statically stable but dynamically unstable.

202. lf a disturbing force causes an aircraft to roll:

A. Wing dihedral will destabilize the aircraft
B. Wing dihedral will increase yawing moment
C. Wing dihedral will stabilize the aircraft
D. Wing dihedral has no effect on stability

203. An aircraft is disturbed from its flight path by a gust of wind. If it tends to return to its
original flight path without pilot intervention, the aircraft is said to possess:
A. Negative Static Stability.
B. Positive Static Stability.
C. Neutral Static Stability.
D. Instability.

204. A stable aeroplane will:

A. Have a built-in tendency to return to its original state following the removal of any disturbing
force.
B. Require less effort to control.
C. Be difficuIt to stall.
D. Not spin.

205. When an aircraft is disturbed from its established flight path by, for example,
turbulence, it is said to have positive stability if it subsequently:
A. Continues to pitch in the disturbed direction until the displacement is resisted by opposing
control forces.
B. Re-establishes its original flight path without any input from the pilot.
C. Remains on the new flight path.
D. Becomes further displaced from its original flight path.

206. The surface that gives an aircraft directional stability is:

A. The fin.
B. The horizontal tailplane.
C. The rudder.
D. The rudder trim tab.

207. An aircraft wing is constructed with dihedral in order to give:

A. Directional stability about the normal axis.
B. Lateral stability about the normal axis.
C. Longitudinal stability about the lateral axis.
D. Lateral stability about the longitudinal axis.

208. The tendency of an aircraft to develop forces which restore it to its original flight
situation, when disturbed from a condition of steady flight, is known as:
A. Controllability.
B. Instability.
C. Stability.
D. Manoeuvrability.

209. When an aeroplane is disturbed from its trimmed attitude, for instance when
entering turbulent air, it is said to have neutral stability if it consequently:
A. osscillates about its original attitude before eventually settling in its original attitude.
B. immediately re-establishes its original attitude.
C. departs further from its original attitude.
D. remains in the new attitude.

210. One effect of the centre of gravity being at or close to its permitted forward limit will
be:
A. high elevator forces being required during the flare prior to touch-down.
B. a reduction in the basic stalling speed.
C. dangerously low elevator forces being required during the flare prior to touch-down.
D. a significant increase in the basic stalling speed with possible loss of control close to the stall.

211. A statically unstable aircraft is:

A. Sometimes dynamically stable.
B. Always dynamically stable.
C. Never dynamically stable.
D. Sometimes dynamically unstable.

212. The main surface providing directional stability is:

A. Vertical stabilizer
B. Aileron
C. Rudder
D. Horizontal stabilizer

213. The main surface providing longitudinal stability is:

A. Horizontal stabilizer
B. Elevator
C. Aileron
D. Vertical stabilizer

214. For a normal stable aeroplane, the centre of gravity is located:

A. with a sufficient minimum margin ahead of the neutral point of the aeroplane.
B. at the neutral point of the aeroplane.
C. aft of the neutral point of the aeroplane.
D. between the aft limit and the neutral point of the aeroplane.

215. Why do some aircraft have dihedral wings?

A. To increase longitudinal stability.
B. To reduce directional stability.
C. To increase directional stability.
D. To increase lateral stability.
216. Static lateral stability will be decreased by:
A. increasing wing sweepback
B. the use of a high, rather than low,wing mounting.
C. increasing the size of the vertical tail.
D. increasing wing anhedral.

217. One of the requirements for positive dynamic stability is:

A. neutral static stability
B. a small CG range
C. positive static stability
D. negative static stability

218. Which part of an aeroplane provides the greatest positive contribution to the static
longitudinal stability?
A. The fuselage
B. The engine
C. The horizontal tailplane
D. The wing

219. What is the heading change after 80 seconds of an aeroplane performing (standard) a
rate one turn ?
A. 160 degrees
B. 120 degrees
C. 320 degrees
D. 240 degrees

220. The load factor is greater than 1 (one)

A. during a wings level stall before recovery
B. during a steady co-ordinated horizontal turn.
C. when lift is greater than weight.
D. in steady wings level horizontal flight

221. Study the vector diagram below representing the forces in a turn. Which of the
following represents the total lift?
A. B
B. W
C. A
D. C
222. Which of the following loads can not be considered as a ground load?
A. Shock loads during landing
B. Crosswind related sideloads
C. Towing load
D. Ground effect hovering load

223. Two identical aircrafts A and B are flying horizontal steady turns. Further data are: A:
W=1500 kg Bank= 20° TAS= 130 kt B: W= 1500 kg Bank= 20° TAS= 200 kt Which of the
following statements is correct?
A. The lift coefficient A is smaller than the lift coefficient B
B. The rate of turn A is larger than the rate of turn B.
C. The turn radius A is larger than the turn radius B.
D. The load factor A is larger than the load factor B.

224. A factor that determines an aeroplane's stalling speed for a given weight is:
A. the square root of the airspeed.
B. the square root of the load factor.
C. the square root of the weight.
D. the square of the wing area.

225. The load factor is smaller than 1 (one)

A. during steady climb,gliding,descent,and landing
B. during cruise,glide position
C. during steady cruise level
D. during a wings level stall before recovery

226. Increase of wing loading will:

A. Decrease the minimum gliding angle
B. Decrease take off speed
C. Increase the stall speed
D. Increase CLmax

227. The maximum speed at which the aircraft can be flown with flaps extended is called:
A. VYSE.
B. VFE.
C. VNE.
D. VN0

228. In a straight steady climb, which of the following statements is correct?

A. Lift is less than weight, load factor is equal to 1.
B. Lift is equal to weight, load factor is equal to 1.
C. Lift is equal to weight, load factor is less than 1.
D. Lift is less than weight,load factor is less than 1.

229. During a coordinate turn in stagnant air, load factor of the aircraft depends on:
A. Turn rate
B. Roll angle
C. Density altitude
D. Weight

230. Load factor (n) :

A. n= 1/Bank angle
B. n= Lift/Weight
C. n= Wing loading
D. n= Weight/Lift

231. VNE is:

A. The airspeed which must not be exceeded except in a dive.
B. The maximum speed, above which flaps should not be extended.
C. The maximum airspeed at which the aircraft may be flown.
D. The maximum airspeed at which manoeuvres approaching the stall may be carried out.
090 COMMUNICATION
PPL(A)
QUESTION BANK
1. When can you omit the callsign of an aeronautical station?
A. Only when the station does so first.
B. Only when given permission.
C. When there would be no confusion.
D. Never.

2. Which of the following statements is correct?

A. Having established communications with an ATSU, When you start the transmission put the
callsign in front of the transmission.when you readback you should put your callsign at the
end of transmissions
B. When replying to a ground station you put your callsign at the beginning of the message.
C. The position of the callsign depends on the type of air traffic service you are receiving.
D. When speaking to a ground station you put your callsign at the beginning of the message
until the controller tells you to put it at the end.

3. Your radio check is reported as 'Readability 3', your transmission is:

A. perfectly readable.
B. reading only half the time.
C. readable but with difficulty.
D. unreadable.

4. A pilot may abbreviate his aircraft callsign only;

A. when changing frequency.
B. if it has first been abbreviated by the ground station on the frequency in use.
C. after establishing communication with a ground station.
D. when he considers that no confusion is likely to occur.

5. Callsign of ATC for control of aircraft and vehicles on maneuvering area?

A. APRON
B. GROUND
C. DISPATCH
D. TOWER

6. In order to make messages effective you should:

A. speak slower
B. speak at a constant volume
C. use words twice
D. repeat the message

7. If you wish to say "Wait and I will call you" the correct phrase to use is:
A. STANDBY
B. I SAY AGAIN
C. HOLD
D. GO AHEAD

8. When asking for a repeat of a message, you should say:

A. WORDS TWICE
B. SAY AGAIN
C. REPEAT MESSAGE
D. SPEAK SLOWER

9. The minimum content of a readback of the message from ATC "T-CD CHANGE FREQUENCY
TO Yeşilköy TOWER 118.1" is:
A. 118.1 T-CD
B. TO Yeşilköy T-CD
C. 118.1
D. CHANGING FREQUENCY X-CD

10. The name or suffix on the callsign of an aeronautical station may be omitted:
A. only when first used by the ground station
B. provided that the aircraft is in visual contact with the aerodrome
C. once satisfactory comm’s have been established and providing there will be no confusion
D. never

11. A time of 1300 UTC is transmitted as:

A. thirteen hundred UTC.
B. one three zero zero.
C. one three hundred UTC.
D. one thousand three hundred.

12. The correct abbreviation for the callsign TC-ABC is;

A. Tango Charlie Alfa.
B. Tango Bravo Charlie
C. Alfa Bravo Charlie
D. Charlie Bravo Charlie

13. A pilot is required to read back;

A. route clearances, speed instructions, weather reports, taxy clearances, runway state
information. ATC route clearances, runway clearances, conditional clearances, actual
weather reports.
B. altimeter settings, taxy information, terminal weather, runway clearances, approach aid.
C. serviceability
D. SSR operating instructions, take off clearances, altimeter settings, VDF information,
frequency changes.

14. The meaning of WILCO is;

A. I have understood your message and will comply.
B. I will try to comply with your instructions.
C. I only heard part of your message.
D. I heard your message.

15. The time 1020 hours, transmitted at 0910 hours, would be transmitted as:
A. ten twenty hours.
B. ten two zero.
C. 'one zero two zero'.
D. 'two zero'.

16.Which of the following lists are all ATC messages that must read back in full;
A. level instructions, altimeter settings, surface wind, runway information.
B. ATC route clearances, runway clearances, actual weather reports.
C. clearance to enter, land on, take off on, backtrack, cross or hold short of an active runway;
speed instructions, SSR instructions.
D. VDF information, frequency changes, type of radar service, serviceability of approach aid.

17. An altitude of 1500 feet is transmitted as;

A. one fife hundred feet.
B. fifteen hundred feet.
C. one tousand fife hundred feet.
D. one fife zero zero feet.

18. VERIFY' means:

A. check and confirm your last message.
B. read back VDF bearing.
C. confirm your last message.
D. repeat your last transmission.

19. You call an ATSU and receive the reply "T BC Stand-By" you should:
A. change frequency.
B. acknowledge immediately; "Stand-by T BC".
C. call the ATSU again after 5 min to obtain a clearance.
D. say nothing, assuming no onward clearance and wait until called.
20. The Q code for altitude is:
A. QDM
B. QFE
C. QDR
D. QNH

21. The phrase to use when you want to say "yes" is:
A. AFFIRMATIVE
B. ROGER
C. WILCO
D. AFFIRM

22. The abbreviation of an aircraft callsign TC-ABC is:

A. ABC
B. T-BC
C. BC
D. TC-BC

23. If a pilot receives an instruction from ATC which he cannot carry out, he should use the
phrase:
A. UNABLE TO COMPLY
B. NEGATIVE INSTRUCTION.
C. NO CAN DO.
D. CANCEL INSTRUCTİON.

24. If any person transmitting a message makes an error, that person should:
A. use the phrase 'I say again', repeat the last incorrect word or phrase and then the corrected
version of the message.
B. stop speaking, then transmit 'I say again', followed by the correct message.
C. Transmit “correction” then saying the right instruction or request
D. use the phrase 'repeat', then repeat the last correct word or phrase and then continue with
the corrected message.

25. The meaning of the ATC instruction 'GO AROUND' is:

A. go around the aircraft ahead on the manoeuvring area provided wing tip clearance is
adequate.
B. execute a missed approach.
C. make a 360° standard turn to allow traffic ahead to clear the runway.
D. do not descend below 50ft agl.
26. The meaning of the word 'CORRECT' is:
A. read back my last instruction correctly.
B. you will correct your last instruction.
C. That's right
D. the phrase or message following the last correct part of my transmission is correct.

27. 'DISREGARD' means:

A. consider that transmission as not sent.
B. disregard the last part of my last message.
C. disregard unverified information.
D. the last message was inappropriate and will be replaced.

28. When an error has been made during transmission, the way to correct is to say:
A. “disregard”
B. “reclear” then saying the right instruction or request
C. “correction” then saying the right instruction or request.
D. “Cancel”

29. What is the correct way of transmitting the number 13500 ?

A. one three thousand five hundred
B. one three five zero zero
C. thirteen thousand five hundred
D. one three five hundred

30. During the transmission of numbers containing a decimal point :

A. The term DECIMAL can be omitted if no chance of misunderstanding exists.
B. The term DECIMAL must be spoken only if followed by three digits.
C. The term DECIMAL can be omitted with friendly ATS units only.
D. The term DECIMAL must always be transmitted.

31. The time is 4:15 P.M. What is the correct way of transmitting this time if there is any
possibility of confusion about the hour ?
A. Four fifteen in the afternoon
B. One six one five
C. Four fifteen P.M.
D. Sixteen fifteen

32. My message will be more effective and understandable if I :

A. Maintain the speaking volume at a constant level
B. Stress the end of message
C. Stress every beginning of message
D. Use the words twice method

33. What does the phrase "Go ahead" mean:

A. Taxi on
B. Pass me the following information...
C. Proceed with your message
D. Yes

34. Which of these statements best describes the meaning of the phrase "Standby" ?
A. Permission granted for action proposed
B. Select STANDBY on the SSR transponder
C. Wait and I will call you
D. Continue on present heading and listen out

35. What does the phrase "Read back" mean:

A. Repeat all, or the specified part, of this message back to me exactly as received
B. Check and confirm with originator
C. Did you correctly receive this message?
D. Let me know that you have received and understood this message

36. Which phrase shall be used if you want to say: "I should like to know..." or "I wish to
obtain..."?
A. Report
B. Request
C. Acknowledge
D. Confirm
37. Which phrase shall be used if you want to say: "An error has been made in this transmission
(or message indicated). The correct version is ...":
A. QNH 1017, negative QNH 1016
B. QNH 1017, correction QNH 1016
C. QNH 1017, negative 1016
D. QNH 1017, negative I say again 1016

38.A pilot may abbreviate his call-sign only:

A. If it has first been abbreviated by the aeronautical ground station on the frequency in use.
B. When communicating with the departure and destination airfields.
C. After having established communication with an aeronautical ground station on the
frequency in use.
D. When he considers no confusion with another similar coll-sign is likely to occur on the
frequency in use.
39. How is the time 9.20 am reported on RT if there is no possibility of confusion about the hour?
A. TWO ZERO
B. NINE TWO ZERO
C. DECIMAL TWO ZERO
D. ZERO NINE TWO ZERO

40. The callsign of a station controlling surface vehicles in the manoeuvring area would be:
A. TOWER
B. GROUND
C. CLEARANCE
D. APRON

41. What does the abbreviation "HJ" mean?

A. Continuous day and night service.
B. Sunset to sunrise.
C. Sunrise to sunset.
D. No specific working hours.

42. What does the abbreviation "HX" mean

A. Sunrise to sunset.
B. Continuous day and night service.
C. No specific working hours.
D. Sunset to sunrise.

43. What is the correct way of spelling out TC-JYC in a radio message?
A. Tango Charlie India Victor Charlie
B. Tango Charlie Juliett India Kilo
C. Tango Charlie Juliett Yankee Charlie
D. Tango Charlie India Yankee Charlie

44. What is the correct way of transmitting 1001 as a QNH ?

A. QNH one double zero one
B. QNH one zero zero one
C. QNH one double "O" one
D. QNH one thousand and one

45. What is the correct way of transmitting the number 118.1 to indicate a frequency ?
A. one eighteen one
B. one one eight point one
C. one one eight decimal one
D. one one eight one

46.Which of the following lists are all ATC messages that must read back in full;
A. frequency changes, type of radar service, serviceability of approach aid.
B. level instructions, altimeter settings, surface wind, runway information.
C. clearance to enter, land and departure clearance , backtrack, cross or hold short of an active
runway; altitudes, headings, reporting points, transponder codes, frequencies.
D. ATC route clearances, runway clearances, actual weather reports.

47. How would you correctly reply to the ATC instruction "TC-AYE, Change to Corlu Tower,
120.375?
A. G-CD, 120.375.
B. Change to Stephenuille Tower 120.375, G-CD.
C. 120.375 TC-AYE.
D. Wilco, G-CD.

48. If you hear from ATC "STAND BY’’ " the correct meaning is:
A. HOLD
B. GO AHEAD
C. Wait and I will call you
D. I SAY AGAIN

49. If an ‘’ALL STATIONS’’ call is made:

A. No reply is ever to be made
B. It must be repeated after an acknowledgement of receipt is made
C. Acknowledgement of an ALL STATIONS call is mandatory
D. No reply is expected unless individual stations are asked to acknowledge receipt

50. When the pilot or controller misses the one of items of the instructions or requests what is
the most appropriate call?
A. Speak slower
B. Say again …….(altitude, QNH,etc.)
C. Say twice
D. Say one more

51. When instructed to “cleared to taxi to apron via backtrack” during landing roll by the tower
control, the pilot should;
A. Turn 180 degree back and taxi on the runway opposite to the landing direction for vacating
runway.
B. Leave the runway from the first taxiway ahead
C. Continue taxi and vacate the runway from the end
D. Leave the runway from the first taxiway behind

52. What is the reaction expected from an aircraft when received “GO AROUND” instruction
from Tower?
A. overtake the aircraft head
B. carry out a missed approach from the present position without hesitation.
C. proceed with your message
D. make a 360 degree turn

53. The instruction from the tower “TC- AYB Expedite Taxi and Vacate Runway via C” means,
A. Increase taxi speed or vacate runway from taxiway C.
B. Turn 180 degree back and vacate runway via taxiway C.
C. Increase taxi speed and vacate runway via taxiway C as soon as possible
D. Be alert for the traffic leaving runway from taxiway C

54. What is the phrase response to ‘AFFIRM’?

A. AFFIRMATIVE
B. YES
C. WILCO
D. ROGER

55. On the readability scale what does "Readability 5" mean:

A. Perfectly readable.
B. Unreadable.
C. Readable but with difficulty.
D. Problem to understand.

56. How would you correctly reply to the ATC instruction "TC-AYB, Change to Hezarfen Tower,
118.025?
A. 118.025TC-AYB.
B. Change to HezarfenTower 118.025, TC- AYE.
C. G-CD, 118.025.
D. Wilco, TC- AYE.

57. If you hear from ATC "WILCO’’ " the correct meaning is:
A. I SAY AGAIN
B. roger.
C. HOLD
D. Iunderstand your message and will comply with it.
58. Under what runway conditions is the braking action reported to be "Unreliable"
A. Runway covered with wet snow and slush
B. Runway covered with ice.
C. Runway conditions normal.
D. Runway covered with dry snow.

59. The distress signal and the distress message to be sent by an aircraft in distress be on
A. The regional guard frequency.
B. The emergency frequency in any case.
C. The FIS frequency designated for the airspace concerned.
D. The air-ground frequency in use at the time.

60. What is the radiotelephony call sign for the aeronautical station providing Surface movement
control ?
A. GROUND
B. APPROACH
C. ARRIVAL
D. RADAR.

61. You are the lost and need radar vectoring to the destination. What categorty message is it?
A. Distress message
B. flight safety message
C. Communications relating to direction finding
D. Urgency message

62. The instruction from the tower Vacate Runway left means,
A. Vacate runway from the left side
B. Increase taxi speed or vacate runway from taxiway C.
C. Turn 180 degree back and vacate runway via taxiway C.
D. Be alert for the traffic leaving runway from taxiway C

63. How should you read back the Ankara Regional Pressure Setting of 1015 mbs?
A. 'Regional Pressure wun zero wun fife'
B. 'Ankara wun tousand wun fife millibars'
C. 'Regional Pressure Setting wun zero wun fife'
D. 'Ankara wun zero wun fife'

64. What is the phrase response to ‘Confirm’.

A. ROGER
B. WILCO
C. AFFIRMATIVE
D. AFFIRM

65. If a controller passes an instruction and you understand it and will comply, the standard reply
is:
A. Verify
B. Wilco
C. Roger
D. Confirm

66. 'SQUAWK IDENT' means:

A. operate the SSR transponder 'Special Position identification' feature.
B. say again your call-sign.
C. select the SSR transponder mode to 'ALT'.
D. select the SSR transponder code to 7000.

67. The phrase "Squawk Charlie" means

A. confirm the transpander is selected ON.
B. select 'ALT' on the transponder.
C. Select OFF position on the transponder.
D. select 7700 on the transponder.

68. Which of the following is correct?

A. WILCO means I have received and understood the message.
B. ROGER means I have received all of your last transmission.
C. Runway 18 is passed as "Runway Eighteen".
D. "With you" means that you are on frequency.

69. Which of the following lists are all ATC messages that must read back in full
A. level instructions, altimeter settings, surface wind , runway information.
B. VDF information, frequency changes, type of radar service, serviceability of approach aid.
C. ATC route clearances, runway clearances, actual weather reports.
D. clearance to enter, land on, take off on, backtrack, cross or hold short of an active runway;
speed instructions, SSR instructions.

70. 'STANDBY' means:

A. select STANDBY on the SSR Transponder.
B. hold your present position.
C. continue on present heading and listen out.
D. wait and I will call you again.
71. Certain words may be omitted from transmissions provided no confusion will result. Which
of the following underlined words must not be omitted?
A. FEET in relation to altitude or height.
B. SURFACE in relation to surface wind and direction.
C. CLOUD in meteorological reports.
D. DEGREES in relation to radar headings.

72. A pilot transmits his ETA as 'zero seven'. At what time is he estimating his arrival?
A. At seven minutes past the hour.
B. In seventy minutes.
C. At seven o'clock am.
D. In seven minutes.

73. Which of the following items are NOT required to be read back?
A. Runway in use
B. Any item if the ATSU requests it
C. Conflicting traffic information
D. Speed instructions

74. If ATC passed you an instruction which you thought was 'G-LO squawk 7043', what should
your reply be?
A. 'squawk 7043, Golf Lima Oscar'
B. 'squawk 7043'
C. 'say again squawk, Golf Lima Oscar'
D. 'Golf Lima Oscar, squawk 7043'

75. The correct abbreviation for call-sign Kartal BAHT is...

A. Kartal B-HT.
B. Kartal HT.
C. Kartal B -T.
D. B-HT.

76. How should the time 1500 be transmitted?

A. Minute Zero Zero
B. Fifteen Hundred
C. Wun Fife Zero Zero
D. Wun Fife Hundred

77. You are squawking 3671, mode charlie. You receive the following request: 'Golf Bravo Zulu,
confirm squawk'. How should you reply?
A. '3671, Golf Bravo Zulu'
B. '3671 with Charlie, Golf Bravo Zulu'
C. 'Confirm squawking 3671, Golf Bravo Zulu'
D. 'Affirm squawk 3671 with mode charlie, Golf Bravo Zulu'

78. What is the Q code for a magnetic heading to a station?

A. QFE
B. QTE
C. QDR
D. QDM

79. What is the Q code for a magnetic bearing from a station?

A. QTE
B. QFE
C. QDR
D. QDM

80. What does the phrase "Read Back" mean:

A. Let me know that you have received and understood this message
B. Proceed with your message
C. Pass me the following information
D. Repeat all, or the specified part, of this message back to me exactly as received

81. QNH,
A. Q code
B. Atmospheric pressure at aerodrome elevation.
C. Altimeter sub-scale setting to obtain elevation when on ground.
D. QNH not hektopascal.

82. OFE is,

A. Sudden change in wind speed and direction.
B. Ceiling and visibility O.K.
C. Altimeter setting to give vertical distance above the surface of an aerodrome.
D. Altimeter setting to give vertical distance above sea level.

83. When an aircraft with QFE set on the altimeter is on the ground at the airfield, the altimeter
indicates……………… .
A. Zero
B. 200’
C. QFE
D. Airfield Elevation
84. With QFE set on the altimeter, an aircraft if flight, reports its vertical separation from the
airfield pressure datum as ………….. .
A. airfield
B. altimeter
C. altitude
D. height

85. VHF Frequencies,

A. 3-30 Mhz
B. 30-300 MHz
C. 30-300 GHz
D. 30-300 KHz

86. VHF uses,

A. HR RT
B. NDB, Decca, Loran-C
C. VHF RT, VDF, VOR, ILS, Marker Beacons
D. ILS Glidepath, DME

87. The ICAO Manual of Radiotelephony stipulates that the following clearances, instructions and
information must always be read back by the pilot.
A. ATC Route Clearances.
B. Transponder (SSR) Codes,
C. All
D. Altimeter Settings.

88. STANDBY means,

A. I cannot comply with your request.
B. Reduce your rate of speech.
C. I understand your message.
D. Wait and I will call you.

89. Coventry Tower. “G-ABCD take next right, return to apron contact ground 118.350.” choose
correct one.
A. G-CD next right 118.350
B. Coventry Tower G-ABCD take next right 118.350
C. Next right 118.350 G-ABCD
D. Next right 118.350 G-CD
90. The ATC messages listed below are to be read back in full. If pilots fail to read back any
messages, the controller will ask them to do so. If a message is not received in full, or is not
understood, the pilot must ask the controller to clarify the situation.
A. Runway in use, Airways or route clearances.
B. All.
C. Heading and speed instructions.
D. Level instructions.

91. The correct order and content of an aircraft Position Report is as follows:
A. Call sign / Position / Time / Level or Altitude / Next position with ETA
B. Position / Time / Level or Altitude / Next position with ETA
C. Call sign / Distance from the conflicting traffic / Level Time
D. Call sign / Back-track on a runway / Transition Levels

92. There are 3 categories of aeronautical communications service:

A. Tower / FIS / FIR
B. Full Air Traffic Control / Flight Information Service / Air-Ground Communications Service
C. Tower / Full Air Traffic Control / FIS
D. Approach / Tower / FIS

93. The readability of a transmission is 5 means:

A. Unreadable
B. Readable but with difficulty
C. Perfectly readable
D. Readable

94. CTR,
A. Control Region.
B. Control Zone
C. Central Traffic Zone.
D. Centre Zone.

95. Taxy instructions issued by the controller will include a clearance limit which will normally be:
A. the threshold of the runway in use.
B. the holding point of an intermediate runway.
C. the entrance to the parking area.
D. the holding point of the runway in use.

96. The phrase 'take off' is used by a pilot:

A. only to request immediate clearance.
B. only to acknowledge take off clearance.
C. after the aircraft is airborne.
D. never. It is used only by a ground station.
97. A pilot receives the following message from ATC. "TC-ABC, After departure cleared to zone
boundary via Route Bravo, Climb to Altitude 2 500 feet, QNH 1005, Squawk 6521." What type
of clearance is this?
A. A Route Clearance.
B. A Take-off Clearance.
C. A Conditional Clearance.
D. A Departure Clearance.

98. From which aeronautical communications service would you obtain automated broadcasts
on aerodrome and weather information?
A. AGCS
B. RIS
C. ATIS
D. FIS

99. Taxi instructions issued by the controller will include a clearance limit which will normally be:
A. the holding point of the runway in use.
B. the holding point of an intermediate runway.
C. the threshold of the runway in use.
D. the entrance to the parking area.

100. READABILITY 5 means:

A. unreadable
B. perfectly readable
C. readable
D. readable now and then

101. 'Readability 4 means:

A. your message is perfectly readable and understood.
B. your message is readable but with background interference.
C. your message is readable.
D. your message is readable but with difficulty.

102. Upon the instruction by the tower as “take-off immidiately or vacate runway”, which
course of action should be taken by the pilot?
A. Take-off immidiately disregarding departure preparation
B. Go back to the holding point immidiately
C. Take-off immidiately without reading back
D. Take-off immidiately if he/she can or vacate runway from the first taxiway (or as instructed
by tower)
103. The correct call to make asking for radio check on the ground is:
A. Esenboğa Tower TC-ABC RADIO CHECK 118.
B. Esenboğa Tower TC-ABC HOW DO YOU READ 118.1
C. TC-ABC RADIO CHECK
D. Esenboğa Tower TC-ABC READABILITY CHECK 118.1

104. The correct RTF call when you are ready to take off is:
A. Roger take off.
B. Request departure clearance.
C. Ready for departure.
D. Request take off.

105. A conditional clearance should contain:

A. callsign, airfield weather, the clearance,
B. callsign, QNH, the clearance.
C. callsign, runway in use, the clearance.
D. callsign, the condition, the clearance.

106. Your action in response to the instruction from ATC to "RECYCLE SQUAWK" is to:
A. switch to standby and back to ON
B. reselect the numbers on the control unit
C. set the numbers to 7000
D. press the IDENT button

107. SQUAWK IDENT means:

A. say again your callsign.
B. select the SSR transponder code to 7000.
C. press the IDENT button on the control unit.
D. select the SSR transponder mode to 'ALT.

108. Which of the options below gives a correct order and content for a Position Report?
A. Position, Level or Altitude, Time, ETA at Next Position, Call Sign.
B. Route, Position, Time, Level or Altitude, ETA at Next Position, Call Sign.
C. Call Sign, Route, Position, Level, ETA next Position, Heading , Request.
D. Call Sign, Position, Time, Level or Altitude, Next Position with ETA.

109. With the SSR transponder selected ON, the ATC message TC-ABC verify your level'
would be made to:
A. check and confirm the accuracy of the Mode C level information displayed to the controller.
B. identify aircraft position.
C. check with the pilot that Mode C is selected ON.
D. check your altimeter setting.

110. Information regarding traffic on a conflicting path will be given in a particular

sequence. Which of the following sequences is correct:
A. distance from conflicting traffic; level and speed of conflicting traffic; relative bearing in
relation to magnetic north.
B. relative bearing of conflicting traffic in terms of 12 hour clock; distance from and direction of
flight of conflicting traffic; level and type of aircraft of conflicting traffic.
C. direction and relative speed of conflicting traffic; relative bearing of conflicting traffic in
relation to true north; relative distance from conflicting traffic.
D. relative speed of conflicting traffic; relative bearing of conflicting traffic in terms of 12 hour
clock; distance from and direction of flight of conflicting traffic; level and type of aircraft of
conflicting traffic.

111. Which transponder mode gives an altitude readout:

A. Mode Delta.
B. Mode Alpha.
C. Mode Charlie.
D. Mode Bravo.

112. The phrase "Squawk Charlie" means:

A. confirm the transponder is selected ON.
B. select 7700 on the transponder.
C. transponder.
D. select 'ALT' on the transponder.

113. In a radar environment heading information given by the pilot and heading
instructions given by controllers are in:
A. degrees Celsius.
B. degrees Absolute.
C. degrees magnetic heading.
D. degrees true heading.

114. You receive the message "TC-ABC Squawk Ident". You should:
A. operate the special position identification on the SSR transponder.
B. select STANDBY on the SSR transponder.
C. select ALT- altitude reporting facility (Mode C) on the SSR transponder.
D. reply giving your callsign.
115. When the term "Overcast" is used in an aviation routine weather report (METAR),
the amount of clouds covering the sky is:
A. No clouds but poor ground visibility
B. 5/8 or more
C. 5/8 or less
D. 8/8

116. How is the visibility in an aviation routine weather report (METAR) expressed in plain
language:
A. In feet and nautical miles
B. Up to 1500 m in metres, above in kilometres
C. In nautical miles only
D. Up to 5000 m in metres, above in kilometres

117. What is the correct way of expressing visibility ?

A. Visibility 1.2 nautical miles
B. Visibility 1200 metres
C. Visibility 1.2 kilometres
D. Visibility 1200 feet

118. 'SQUAWK 1244' means:

A. go to Squawk on 124.4 MHz, they have your details.
B. select 1244 MHz on your SSR transponder.
C. select Com 124.4 MHz and Squawk for ident.
D. select the code 1244 on your SSR transponder.

119. The purpose of a request by ATC to the commander of an aircraft whose transponder
is selected to ALT to 'confirm your level' would be:
A. to verify the aircraft's position.
B. verify the altimeter sub-scale setting.
C. verify the transponder is working.
D. check the accuracy of the Mode 'C' Flight Level displayed on the controller's radar plot.

120. The transponder is selected to IDENT position:

A. When an emergency happened
B. When crossing to another Control area
C. Upon the request of the controller
D. Whenever the pilot needs to do that
121. Aircraft TC-ABC has been instructed on frequency 120.5 What is the correct response
to indicate that it will follow this instruction?
A. checking 120.5 TC-ABC
B. willco TC-ABC
C. monitoring 120.5 TC-ABC
D. 120.5 TC-ABC

122. Which of the following is NOT a means of establishing radar identification of an

aircraft:
A. radar vectors.
B. altitude information.
C. use of SSR.
D. bearing and distance information.

123. On taxi, when the pilot gets a call from the controller as “remain this frequency”. The
pilot should;
A. Call back the tower at every 2 minutes
B. Monitor and when arrives to parking area changes to Ground Control.
C. Monitor and when arrives to holding point changes to Tower
D. Monitor the frequency until further instruction

124. CAVOK means as abb. Ceiling and visibility OK, so what are the limits of it?
A. No cloud below 5000 feet or above the minimum sector altitude, whichever is greater; no CB,
thunderstorms or precipitation; visibility 5 kms or more, no shallow fog, or low drifting snow
B. No departure airfield diversion is available
C. The runway is dry
D. No cloud below 5000 feet or below the minimum sector altitude, whichever is greater; no
CB, thunderstorms or precipitation; visibility 10 kms or more, no shallow fog, or low drifting
snow

125. How shall a pilot inform the control tower that he has to abandon the take-off
manoeuvre.
A. Abandoning take-off.
B. Cancelling take-off.
C. Stopping
D. Aborting take-off.

126. A position report shall contain the following information:

A. Aircraft Identification, position, level, time, next position and ETA.
B. Aircraft Identification, position, level, time, next position and ETA, IFR or VFR.
C. Aircraft Identification, position, level, time, next position and ETA, POB.
D. Position, level, time, next position and ETA.

127. Which of the options below gives a correct order and content for a Position Report?
A. Position, Level or Altitude, Time, ETA at Next Position, Call-sign.
B. Call-sign, Route, Position, Level, ETA next Position, Heading, Request.
C. Call-sign, Position, Time, Level or Altitude, Next Position with ETA.
D. Route, Position, Time, Level or Altitude, ETA at Next Position, Callsign.

128. When the term "SCATTERED" is used in an aviation routine weather report (METAR),
the amount of clouds covering the sky is:
A. 2/8 – 3/8
B. 8/8
C. 5/8
D. 3/8 - 4/8

129. When the term "FEW" is used in an aviation routine weather report (METAR), the
amount of clouds covering the sky is:
A. 1/8 – 2/8
B. 2/8 – 3/8
C. 8/8
D. 3/8 - 4/8

130. If you wish to backtrack then your transmission should be:

A. REQUEST VACATE RUNWAY
B. BACKTRACKING
C. REQUEST BACKTRACK
D. REPORTING BACKTRACK

131. Where ATIS is provided an arriving aircraft will acknowledge receipt of the broadcast:
A. in the initial call to the airfield.
B. when making the overhead call.
C. when downwind.
D. any time that is convenient.

132. VACATE RIGHT' means:

A. clear the runway immediately.
B. turn right after take off.
C. turn right to leave the runway.
D. the next runway exit is on the right.
133. What does the instruction "Orbit right" mean ?
A. Right-hand circuits are in use
B. Make 360° turns to the right
C. Leave the runway to the right
D. Turn right to avoid other traffic

134. From which aeronautical communications service would you obtain automated
broadcasts on aerodrome and weather information?
A. ATIS
B. AGCS
C. RIS
D. FIS

135. The instruction 'ORBIT LEFT' means:

A. standard left hand circuit.
B. expedite a collision avoidance turn to the left utilising at least 45° angle of bank
C. make a 360° turn to the left.
D. turn left to avoid conflicting traffic.

136. What are the main four legs in traffic pattern?

A. Take-off, Crosswind, downwind, base,
B. Take-off, Crosswind, downwind, final
C. Crosswind, downwind, final, over runway
D. Crosswind, downwind, base, final

137. What is the instruction given by tower to an aircraft for delaying purposes or to
achieve required spacing behind/preceding in traffic pattern?
A. Make right/left orbit
B. Maintain heading
C. Turn 180 degree back
D. Hold your position

138. Unless otherwise advised pilots should ………..

A. remain on tower frequency until the runway is vacated
B. Swıtch to ground frequency after turning from the runway
C. Change to ground frequency during landing roll
D. Swıtch-off radio after runway is vacated

139. What is the Q code for a true bearing from a station?

A. QNH
B. QTE
C. QFE
D. QDR

140. If making a straight-in approach, the FINAL call should be made at about
A. 25 nm
B. 10 nm
C. 4 nm
D. 8 nm

141. If no …………… is available, acknowledge receipt of the latest broadcast in the initial
call to the aerodrome.
A. ATIS
B. RVR
C. ONH
D. Frequencies

142. The FINAL call is made when an aircraft turns onto final within ……… NM from
touchdown.
A. 6
B. 2
C. 4
D. None

143. ATIS,
A. Air Traffic Service.
B. Automatic Terminal Information Service.
C. Aeronautical Information Service.
D. Aerodrome Flight Information Service.

144. A Blind Transmission is:

A. a transmission from an aircraft to obtain VDF guidance to descend from the initial approach
altitude to a position from which an approach can be completed visually.
B. a transmission from an aeronautical station to all aircraft on its frequency.
C. a transmission of information relating to the safety of air navigation that is not addressed to
a specific station or stations.
D. a transmission made in circumstances where two-way communications cannot be
established but it is believed that the called station is able to receive the transmission.

145. In the event of a radio failure the SSR transponder should be set to:
A. 7500
B. 7600
C. 7000
D. 7700

146. When flying in VMC an aircraft with communications failure shall continue to fly VMC
and:
A. land at the nearest airfield.
B. land as soon as possible and report arrival to ATC by the most expeditious means.
C. land as soon as possible and report arrival to ATC.
D. set transponder 7600, land at the nearest suitable airfield and report arrival to ATC by the
most expeditious means.

147. If you suspect you have radio failure which of the following series of checks would
you do first?
A. Correct frequency; correct volume; microphone plug; within radio range; check ground
station is open.
B. Correct frequency; correct volume; headset plugs; within radio range; check ground station is
open.
C. Correct frequency; correct volume; headset plugs; radio fuse; check ground station is open.
D. Correct frequency, correct squelch setting; headset plugs, radio fuse; check ground station is
open.

148. Which of the following calls is a "general call" ?

A. TC-EFG, TC-FGH over.
B. TC-ABC, TC-BCD, TC-CDE Ankara CONTROL.
C. ALL STATIONS Ankara CONTROL.
D. TC-DEF Ankara CONTROL.

149. A message preceded by the phrase "Transmitting blind due receiver failure" shall be
transmitted:
A. On the international emergency frequency
B. On the regional guard frequency
C. On all available aeronautical stations
D. On the frequency presently in use

150. ……………… is the international aeronautical emergency frequency.

A. 119.5 MHz
B. 118.1 MHz
C. 121.5 KHz
D. 121.5 MHz
151. In a distress call, immediately following the MAYDAY prefix,what information should
an aircraft next transmit, if circumstances permit:
A. The position of the aircraft.
B. The call-sign of the station addressed.
C. Aircraft type.
D. The nature of the emergency.

152. What should be the full content of a Distress call?

A. Station Addressed, MAYDAY, MAYDAY, MAYDAY Call-sign, Position, Intention of Person in
command.
B. MAYDAY, MAYDAY, MAYDAY, Call- sign of Station Addressed, Call sing of aircraft,Type of
Aircraft, Nature of Emergency, Intention of Person in command, Position , Level and Heading,
Pilot Qualification ( wherever possible ) Any other useful information .
C. MAYDAY, MAYDAY, MAYDAY , Nature of Emergency, Intention of Person in command,
Endurance.
D. PAN PAN, PAN PAN, PAN PAN , Position , Heading, Nature of Emergency, Intention of Person
in command, Pilot Qualification, Any Other Useful Information.

153. When transmitting an emergency message, a pilot is required to give his aircraft’s
position as:
A. The present or last known position, together with altitude or level, and heading.
B. A position relative to the nearest airfield or aerodrome.
C. A DME range from the station being addressed.
D. A GPS position

154. What should be the most correct content and order of a pilot’s reply to the ATC
instruction, “Pass Your Message”?
A. Aircraft Type, Route Information, Position, Heading, Level, Additional Details and Intentions,
Aircraft Call-sign.
B. Aircraft Call-sign, Aircraft Type, Departure Point and Destination, Present Position,Altitude or
Level, Additional Details and Intention (e.g. Flight Rules, Next Point on Route.)
C. Aircraft Call-sign, Aircraft Type, Position, Heading, Level, Request.
D. Aircraf Call-sign, Aircraft Type, Departure Point and Destination, Present Positions, Request.

155. Emergency is indicated by which transponder code?

A. 7500
B. 7400
C. 7600
D. 7700

156. Hijack is indicated by which transponder code?

A. 7700
B. 7600
C. 7400
D. 7500

157. What should be the content of an Urgency call?

A. PAN PAN, PAN PAN, PAN PAN, Call-sign of Station Addressed ( time and circumstances
permitting ) , Call sing of aircraft ,Type of Aircraft, Nature of Emergency, Intention of Person
in command, Position, Level and Heading, Pilot Qualification ( wherever possible ) , Any other
useful information.
B. Station Addressed, PAN PAN, PAN PAN, PAN PAN, Call-sign, Position, Pilot Qualification
Intention of Person in command.
C. MAYDAY, MAYDAY, MAYDAY, Position, Heading, Nature of Emergency Intention of Person in
command, Any Other Useful Information.
D. PAN ,PAN,PAN, Call-sign of Station Addressed, Position , Nature of Emergency, Intention of
Person in command, Endurance.

158. A Pilot hearing the transmission 'ALL STATIONS':

A. should acknowledge receipt of the broadcast by transmitting 'ROGER'.
B. should not reply unless subsequently asked to acknowledge receipt.
C. should transmit 'ROGER AND OUT' when acknowledging a broadcast.
D. should transmit her/ his call-sign in reply.

159. When a pilot hears a distress messages/ he should:

A. maintain radio silence but monitor that frequency to ensure assistance is provided.
B. request another frequency from ATC due to the emergency RT traffic on that frequency.
C. change to another frequency as radio silence will be imposed on that frequency.
D. immediately acknowledge the message and offer to relay messages if required.

160. The emergency frequency 121.5:

A. may be used to practise distress situations but not urgency procedures.
B. may not be used to practise emergency procedures.
C. may be used to practise emergency procedures including simulated urgency or distress
situations.
D. may be used to practise emergency procedures including simulated urgency but not distress
situations.

161. The two categories of emergency message are:

A. Urgent and Emergency
B. Urgency and Distress.
C. PAN and MAYDAY.
D. Emergency and distress.
162. The correct prefix of an emergency transmission is either 'May Day' or 'Pan' which
should be transmitted
A. twice.
B. three times.
C. once.
D. twice when using 'Pan' and three times when using 'May Day'

163. Following the May Day prefix of a distress message the next transmitted element
should be:
A. the nature of the emergency.
B. if known air craft position..
C. the call-sign of the station being addressed
D. number of persons on board.

164. One element of a distress message is that the pilot should transmit the aircraft
position in the context of:
A. a direction finding heading and range to the direction finding
B. present or last known position, level and heading.
C. time and course followed from the last positive position fix.
D. the last position passed by the secondary surveillance radar operator.

165. In a distress call immediately following the MAYDAY prefix, what information should
an aircraft next transmit, if circumstances permit
A. The call-sign of the station addressed.
B. The nature of the emergency.
C. Aircraft type.
D. The position of the aircraft.

166. What should be the full content of a Distress call?

A. MAYDAY, MAYDAY, MAYDAY, Nature of Emergency, lntention of Pilot in command,
Endurance.
B. Position, Heading, Nature of Emergency, lntention of Pilot in command, Pilot Qualification,
Any Other Useful Information.
C. Station Addressed, MAYDAY, MAYDAY, MAYDAY, Call-sign, Position, lntention of Pilot in
command.
D. MAYDAY, MAYDAY, MAYDAY, Call-sign of Station Addressed , Type of Aircraft, Nature of
Emergency, lntention of Pilot in command, Position , Level and Heading, Pilot Qualification
(wherever possible), Any other useful information.

167. When transmitting an emergency message, a pilot is required to give his aircraft's
position as:
A. The present or last known position, together with altitude or level, and heading.
B. A GPS position.
C. A DME range from the station being addressed.
D. A position relative to the nearest airfield or aerodrome.

168. The frequency used for the initial transmission of a MAYDAY call should be:
A. the distress frequency 121.5 MHz.
B. any international distress frequency.
C. the frequency on which the pilot is currently receiving a service.
D. the approach frequency of the nearest airfield.

169. A condition ofyw being threatened by serious and/or imminent danger and of
requiring immediate assistance describes what category of message?
A. Flight Safety.
B. Emergency.
C. Distress
D. Urgency.