Class:- 9th Foundation

Subject:- Social Studies

1. Who are the producers and consumers of the earth’s resources?
(a) Plants (b) Animals (c) Humans (d) All of these
2. How can one find information regarding the population of a country?
(a) Through census (b) By counting the people (c) Both A and B (d) None of these
3. Which state is the most thickly populated?
(a) Rajasthan (b) Uttar Pradesh (c) Bihar (d) Maharashtra
4. Which country has higher average population densities than India?
(a) Bangladesh (b) Japan (c) Both A and B (d) None of these
5. Which of the following components has been a major component of growth of population in India?
(a) Increase in death rates (b) Decrease in birth rates (c) Both A and B (d) None of these
6. Which component is one of the most basic characteristics of a population?
(a) Migration (b) Age (c) Sex ratio (d) Literacy rates
7. What is the range of the Aged section of an Age composition?
(a) 60+ (b) 59+ (c) 70+ (d) 80+
8. What is sex ratio defined as?
(a) The number of females per 1000 males in the population
(b) The number of females per 10000 males in the population
(c) The number of females per 100 males in the population
(d) The number of females per 10 males in the population
9. To whom has the sex ratio always remained unfavourable?
(a) Males (b) Females (c) Animals (d) Plants
10. Only who can make intelligent choices and undertake research and development projects?
(a) Educated person (b) Children (c) Aged person (d) All of these
11. Which component is an important determinant of population change?
(a) Sex ratio (b) Age (c) Migration (d) Birth rate
12. What are the three types of occupation?
(a) Primary (b) Secondary (c) Tertiary (d) All of the above
13. Which component affects the process of development?
(a) Sex ratio (b) Health (c) Migration (d) Occupation
14. Who are the most important resources for the future?
(a) Adults (b) Children (c) Adolescents (d) Senior citizens
15. The decline in death rates and the increase in life expectancy at birth is due to the development of which
component?
(a) Health (b) Literacy rate (c) Occupational structure (d) Sex ratio
16. Which state/UT has more females than males?
(a) Punjab (b) Haryana (c) Delhi (d) Puducherry
17. What is the starting age of a person who is a literate?
(a) 5 (b) 7 (c) 10 (d) 15
18. How can literacy become a serious obstacle for economic improvement?
(a) If there is no improvement in it
(b) If there is a low level of it
(c) If the government won’t initiate schemes for the poorer section of the society where there are only a
few literates
(d) All of these
19. In which year can India overtake China and become the most populous country in the world?
(a) 2030 (b) 2045 (c) 2055 (d) 2100
20. What is the positive indicator of the efforts of birth control?
(a) The declining trend of the death rate (b) The increasing trend of the birth rate
(c) Both A and B (d) The declining trend of the growth rate
21. Which physical feature is the most densely populated one?
(a) The Peninsular Plateau (b) The Northern Plains (c) The Islands (d) The Himalayas
22. Since which year has the growth rate started declining gradually?
(a) 1981 (b) 1989 (c) 1987 (d) 1980
23. Which component is a major concern for India?
(a) Health (b) Literacy rate (c) Migration (d) Occupational structure
24. What is the percentage of the population engaged in agriculture in India?
(a) 76 percent (b) 89 percent (c) 64 percent (d) 58 percent
25. What is the percentage of the population dependent on the tertiary sector in India?
(a) 18 percent (b) 20 percent (c) 10 percent (d) 26.9 percent
26. What is the most significant feature of the Indian population?
(a) The size of the adolescent population (b) The size of the adult population
(c) The size of the female population (d) The size of the literate population
27. The adolescent girls suffer from which condition?
(a) Anaemia (b) Scurvy (c) Rickets (d) None of these
28. National Population Policy or NPP 2000 is for whom?
(a) People upto 14 years of age (b) Adolescents (c) Girls (d) All of these
29. NPP 2000 puts emphasis on which needs?
(a) Need to fulfill the nutritional requirements
(b) Need to prevent child marriages
(c) Need to educate adolescents abouts the risks of unprotected sex
(d) All of the above
30. Saudi Arabia is ruled by ….?
(a) Democracy (b) Dictatorship (c) Federal Government (d) Monarchy
31. The King selects the …..
(a) Legislature (b) Executive (c) Judiciary (d) All
32. In Saudi Arabia – which is not true?
(a) Country is ruled by a hereditary king (b) The king selects the legislature as well as the executive
(c) Citizens cannot form political parties or any political organisations (d) There is freedom of religion
33. When fellow citizens or the government do not respect these rights we call it violation or ………..of our
rights.
(a) Breach (b) Infringement (c) Infraction (d) Transgression
34. Rights are provided mainly in a….
(a) Democracy (b) Monarchy (c) Dictatorship (d) All
35. Rights ….. Select the correct statement
(a) Rights are guarantees which can be used when things go wrong
(b) Let the citizens do whatever they want
(c) Let us hurt others
(d) Do not protect the citizens
36. What main rights are given in the constitution of India?
(a) Basic rights (b) Fundamental rights (c) Liberty rights (d) Human rights
37. Which is not a Fundamental Right?
(a) Right of equality (b) Right to Freedom (c) Right to Education (d) Right against exploitation
38. What is the foundation of any democracy?
(a) Right to Freedom (b) Rule of Law (c) Right to vote (d) Fundamental rights
39. The government shall not discriminate against any citizen on grounds only of religion, race, caste, sex or
place of birth- which right is this?
(a) Right to Freedom (b) Right to Equality
(c) Cultural and educational rights (d) Right against exploitation
40. What was the reason given by America for imprisoning people at Guantanamo Bay?
(a) They had been caught spying.
(b) They were planning to kill the US President.
(c) They were planning to set up a Communist government in the USA.
(d) America considered them as enemies and linked them to the attack on New York on 11th September,
2001.
41. Which body exposed to the world that prisoners at Guantanamo Bay were being tortured in ways that
violated the US laws?
(a) United Nations (b) International Court of Justice
(c) Amnesty International (d) Supreme Court of USA
42. What is meant by ‘rights’?
(a) One’s demand to get everything without sharing with others
(b) Claims of a person over other fellow beings, society and the government
(c) Not possessing any freedoms
(d) none of the above
43. Which of these statements about the relationship between democracy and rights is more valid?
(a) Every country that is a democracy gives rights to its citizens
(b) Every country that gives rights to its citizens is a democracy
(c) Giving rights is good, but it is not necessary for a democracy
(d) All the above
44. If anyone violates our Fundamental Rights we can directly approach the:
(a) Prime Minister (b) Supreme Court (c) President (d) Vice President
45. Which one of the following is not a Political Right?
(a) Right to contest election (b) Right to vote
(c) Right to seek any political office (d) Right to freedom
46. Which of these is not allowed under the Culture and Educational Right in India?
(a) Every cultural group has the right to protect its language and culture.
(b) Admissions can be denied on the basis of religion and culture in government aided educational
organisations set up by cultural groups.
(c) All minority groups have the right to establish educational institutions of their choice.
(d) None of these
47. Which of the following freedoms is not available to an Indian citizen?
(a) Freedom to criticise the government (b) Freedom to participate in armed rebellion
(c) Freedom to reside in any part of the country (d) All the above
48. Which among the following is correct regarding PIL?
(a) Public Interest Litigation (b) Public Interest
(c) Public information Litigation Legislature (d) Public Information
49. Which of these is not a freedom available under the ‘Right to Freedom’ in India?
(a) Freedom of speech and expression
(b) Freedom to incite people to rebel against the government
(c) Freedom to assemble in a peaceful manner
(d) Freedom to form associations and unions
50. The National Human Right Commission is an independent commission, set up by the law in the year:
(a) 1993 (b) 1995 (c) 1999 (d) 2001
51. Who called the right to constitutional remedies as the heart and soul of the constitution?
(a) J.L. Nehru (b) B. R. Ambedkar (c) Mahatma Gandhi (d) Rajendra Prasad
52. Cultural and Educational Rights are safeguarded mainly for:
(a) Women (b) minorities (c) Children (d) Men
53. Which among the following cannot be challenged in a court?
(a) Directive principles of state policy (b) Fundamental Rights
(c) Freedom to choose any profession or business (d) Right to move freely to any part of the country.
54. Which of the following freedoms is not available to an Indian citizen?
(a) Freedom to start a movement to change the government (b) Freedom to oppose the government
(c) Freedom to participate in armed revolution (d) None of these
55. What is meant by ‘begar’?
(a) Practice of begging
(b) Practice of forcing workers to work without any wages
(c) Practice of encouraging workers to work at normal wages
(d) Both B and C
56. One of the forms of exploitation as mentioned in the constitution is ‘traffic’. What does it mean?
(a) Transport system (b) Buying and selling of human beings
(c) Buying and selling of goods (d) none of the above
57. What does the Constitution say about the practice of untouchability?
(a) It stands abolished (b) Its practice in any form is punishable by law
(c) Since it is an age-old custom, it should be respected (d) Both (a) and (b)
58. Which of these rights is/are provided to a person arrested by the government or police?
(a) To be informed of the reasons of his arrest
(b) To be produced before a magistrate within 24 hrs of his arrest
(c) To engage a lawyer for his defence
(d) All the above
59. Which of these is false regarding the Freedom of Speech and Expression?
(a) Everyone has a right to think differently (b) One may disagree with a policy of the government
(c) One can use it to incite people against the government (d) One is free to criticise the government
60. Food security includes ____________ .
I. Availability of food
II. Accessibility of food
III. Affordability of food
(a) I and II (b) II and III (c) III and I (d) I, II and III
61. Food availability means _____________ .
(a) that food requirement of the country must be met by its own production.
(b) that enough food is available in the country for meeting its needs.
(c) that enough food is available in the granaries that it can be exported to needy countries.
(d) all of these.
62. The most devastating famine in India occurred in the state of ____________ .
(a) Punjab (b) Uttar Pradesh (c) Bengal (d) Bihar
63. The PDS card for below poverty line is ______________ .
(a) red card (b) blue card (c) yellow card (d) white card
64. Chronic hunger ________________ .
(a) is a consequence of diets persistently inadequate in terms of quantity and/or quality
(b) is related to cycles of food growing and harvesting
(c) is a consequence of poor eating habits
(d) affects rich people more than poor people
65. The first stage of the Green Revolution dealt predominantly with ___________________.
(a) wheat (b) rice (c) pulses (d) milk
66. The second stage of the Green Revolution dealt predominantly with ____________ .
(a) wheat (b) rice (c) pulses (d) milk
67. Which of the following statements is true regarding the Green Revolution ?
(a) The country has avoided famines after the Green Revolution.
(b) The Green Revolution has worsened the famine situation in the country
(c) The Green Revolution failed to deal with famines in India.
(d) The Green Revolution increased the occurrence of famines in India.
68. The food distributed by the Public Distribution System is procured through ___________ .
(a) Food Corporation of India (b) Ministry of Agriculture
(c) Ministry of Health and Family Affairs (d) Department of Food Control
69. The shops used for distribution under PDS are also known as _____________ .
(I) ration shops (II) fair price shops
(a) Only I (b) Only II (c) Both I and II (d) Neither I nor II
70. The buffer stock of food grains in India is made up of ________________.
(I) rice (II) wheat (III) pulses
(a) I and II (b) II and III (c) III and I (d) I, II and III
71. The purchase of buffer stock is done at ________________.
(a) market price (b) production cost
(c) minimum support price (d) maximum support price
72. Until ____________, food security was understood as the “availability at all times of adequate supply of basic
foodstuffs”.
(a) 1950s (b) 2000s (c) 1973s (d) 1970s
73. Who added a new dimension to food security and emphasised the “access” to food?
(a) Raghuram Rajan (b) Amartya Sen (c) Abhijit Banerjee (d) Adam Smith
74. “Food security at the individual, household, regional, national and global levels exists when all people, at all
times, have physical and economic access to sufficient, safe and nutritious food to meet their dietary needs
and food preferences for an active and healthy life”
Above is the declaration of______________
(a) 1992, World Food Summit (b) 1992, World Food Security Summit
(c) 1995, World Food Summit (d) 1997, World Food Security Summit
75. The two most successful crops due to the green revolution are–
(a) Wheat and Barley (b) Rice and Pulses (c) Rice and Wheat (d) Dal and Barley
76. According to the 1995 World Food Summit, what is essential to improve access to food?
(a) Sustainable development (b) Wealth (c) Poverty eradication (d) Saving Soil
77. When was the special stamp entitled ‘Wheat Revolution’ launched?
(a) 1975 (b) 1978 (c) 1965 (d) 1968
78. The expanded form of PAP is –
(a) Poverty alleviation programs (b) Poverty alleviation propaganda
(c) Poverty abbreviation programmes (d) Public anti-poverty programs
79. In ration shops, foodgrains are sold at _________
(a) Fair Price (b) Minimum Support Price (c) Issue Price (d) Buffer rates
80. The full form of FFW is –
(a) Family For Food (b) Food For Family (c) Food For Work (d) Food For World
81. When did the green revolution take place?
(a) 1980s (b) 1970s (c) 1990s (d) 2000s
82. Ration shops also known as
(a) Fair price shops (b) Buffer stock (c) Public distribution (d) Issued food shops
83. The farmers are paid __ by the FCI for their surplus produce.
(a) Fair Price (b) Minimum Support Price (c) Issue Price (d) Buffer rates
84. Annapurna Scheme was launched in the year ____________ .
(a) 2000 (b) 2007 (c) 2010 (d) 2012
85. Antyodaya scheme was launched in the year __________ .
(a) 1990 (b) 1995 (c) 1998 (d) 2000
86. Under the Public Distribution System the ‘issue price’ is ___________ .
(a) more than market price (b) less than market price
(c) more than minimum support price (d) both (a) and (c)
87. Integrated Child Development Services (ICDS) was started on an experimental basis in the year ________ .
(a) 1961 (b) 1975 (c) 1980 (d) 1986
88. The grain bank program in maharashtra is managed by
(a) The Government of Maharashtra (b) Academy of Development Science
(c) Amul (d) Mother Dairy
89. Amul is a cooperative established in ____________ .
(a) Punjab (b) Haryana (c) Gujarat (d) Kerala

Answer Key
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
C A B A C B B A B A
11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
C D B C B D B B B D
21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
B A A D D A A D D D
31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
D D B A A B C B B D
41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
C B A B C B B A B A
51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60
B B A C B B D D C D
61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70
B C C A A B A A C A
71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80
C D B C C C D A C C
81 82 83 84 85 86 87 88 89
B A B A D B B B C