Republic of The Philippine4IUIUYIUYIYIU

Republic of the Philippines
PROFESSIONAL REGULATION COMMISSION

Manila
BOARD OF DENTISTRY
Dentistry Licensure Examination
General and Oral Pathology, General and Oral Microscopic Anatomy

and Microbiology
INSTRUCTION: Select the correct answer for each of the following
questions. Mark only one answer for each item by shading the box
corresponding to the letter of your choice on the answer sheet
provided.
STRICTLY NO ERASURES ALLOWED.

and Microbiology (Odontogenic Cysts and Tumors)
1. Multiple bilateral dentigerous cysts are seen in:

A. Down's syndrome
B. Maroteaux lamy syndrome
C. Teacher collin syndrome
D. Gorlin Goltz syndrome
2. COC is now called as:

A. Odontogenic ghost cell tumor
B. Dentinogenic ghost cell tumor
C. Keratcysticodontogenic tumour
D. A & C
3. Facial nerve paralysis is common with:
A. Pleomorphic adenoma
B. Epidermoid carcinoma
C. Warthin's stumour
D. Lymphoepithelial carcinoma
4. The most aggressive and destructive cyst is:

A. Periapical cyst
B. Dentigerous cyst
C. Globulomaxillary cyst
D. Nasopalatine cyst
5. Standard treatment of ameloblastoma:

A. Segmental resection with 1 cm of normal bone
B. Enbloc resection
C. Enucleation
D. Enucleation with cauterization
6. The most common odontogenic cyst is:

A. Primordial cyst
B. Dentigerous cyst
C. Radicular cyst
D. Mucocele
7. Cyst arising from dental lamina:

A. Radicular cyst
B. Paradental cyst
C. Eruption cyst
D. Glandular odontogenic cyst
8. Adenomatoid odontogenic tumour is characterized histologically
by:
A. Polyhedral epithelial cells
B. Tubular/ duct like cells
C. Stellate shaped cells
D. Stratified squamous epithelial cells
9. The Pathogenesis of Periapical Cyst is:

A. Increased pressure within the cyst
B. Immune mediated bone destruction
C. Proliferation of epithelium
D. None of the above
10. A six-year-old child patient has blue-dome shaped swelling in

posterior mandibular region, what will be the treatment plan?
A. Reassure the patient without any treatment
B. Excise the lesion
C. Marsupialization
D. Surgical Excision
11. Pindborg tumor arises from:

A. Basal layer of cells
B. Stratum intermedium
C. Stratum corneum
D. Dental lamina
E. Both B & D
12. A 36-year-old man with an asymptomatic swelling in the body
of the mandible with radiographic features of radiolucency with
radiopaque flecks in suffering from:
A. Odontogenic keratocyst
B. Calcifying epithelial odontogenic tumor (CEOT)
C. Ameloblastoma
13. Multiple periapical radiolucencies are seen in:

A. Jawcyst basal cell Nevus Syndrome
B. Odontogenic keratocyst
C. Cherubism
D. Thyroid disorders
14. Clear cells are commonly seen in which of the following

lesions?
A. Pleomorphic
B. Warthins tumor
C. Mucoepidermoid
D. Adenomatoid odontogenic tumor
15. The epithelium of a dentigerous cyst is:

A. 15-20 cell thick
B. 6-10 cell thick
C. 2-4 cell thick
D. 1-2 cell thick
16. Dentigerous cyst is associated with the following:

A. Impacted 3rd molar
B. Impacted supernumerary tooth
C. Odontome
D. All of the above
17. A patient with ameloblastoma of the jaw can best be treated

by:
A. Irradiation
B. Excision
C. Enucleation
D. Surgical removal followed by cauterization
18. After entering radiolucent lesion in a 30 years old man

hollow cavity without epithelial lining is seen, the most
probable diagnosis is:
A. Aneurysmal bone cyst
B. Static bone cavity
C. Memorrhagic bone cyst
D. Ameloblastoma
19. Dentigerous cyst is suspected if the follicular space is more

than:
A. 2-3 mm
B. 3-4mm
C. 1-2mm
D. >5mm
20. Compound odontoma shows:

A. Mixed tissue of dental origin with no resemblance to tooth
structure
B. Numerous tooth like structure with denticles commonly found in
maxillary lateral incisors
C. Haphazardly arranged calcified mass
D. All of the above
21. Destructively invasive locally malignant with rare

metastasis, the lesion is:
A. Fibroma
B. Ameloblastoma
C. Papilloma
22. Lesions associated with vital tooth?

A. condensing osteitis
B. cementoma
C. Periapical abscess
23. Treatment for cementoma:

A. No treatment
B. Pulpectomy
C. Resection of jaw
24. A 25-year-old male patient reports with bony expansile

swelling of the right body of the mandible & mild paresthesia of
the right IDN. OPG shows a multilocular radiolucency without root
resorption. What would be your choice for the next investigation?
A. Excision biopsy
B. Aspiration Cytology
C. CT Scan
D. Pet Bone scan
25. Ghost (shadow) cells are seen in:
A. Amebloblastic fibroodontoma
B. Calcifying odontogenic cyst
C. Compound odontoma
D. All of the above
26. Adamantinoma is:

A. A tumour from embrynomal cells of developing teeth
B. Also known as Amebloblastoma
C. is a complication of dentigerou cyst
D. All of the above
27.Adenomatold odontogenic tumour is most commonly found in:

A. Anterior mandible
B. Posterior maxilla
C. Anterior maxilla
D. Ramus of mandible
28. Multiple odontogenic keratocyst are associated with:

A. Gardner's syndrome
B. Gorlin-Goltz syndrome
C. Goldenhar's syndrome
D. Grinspan syndrome
29. Which histopathological type of odontogenic keratocyst is

commoner, more invasive & has a greater tendency for recurrence?
A. Orthokeratinised
B. Parakeratinised
C. Non-Keratinised
D. Diskeratinised
30. A 40-year-old woman has meloblastoma, the histomorphologic

features will be:
A. Peripheral palisading cellular strand with central loose
stellate reticulum
B. Peripheral palisading with central stromal retraction artefact
C. Peripheral palisading cellular strand with peripheral loose
stellate reticulum
D. Central loose stellate reticulum shows marked nuclear atypia
and numerous mitotic
31. Which of the following is wrong about keratocyst:

A. Haw low recurrence rate
B. Has low protein content
C. High recurrence rate
D.B and C
32. Each of the following cyst is associated with an impacted

tooth except:
A. Dentigerous cyst
B. Clacifying epithelial odontogenic cyst
C. Keratocyst
D. Primordial cyst
33. Keratocyst has all of the following features except:

A. It is more common in mandible
B. May be filled with thin straw coloured fluid
C. Low recurrence rate
D. Expansion of bone clinically seen
34. A multilocular cyst of the jaw is more likely:
A. Dental cyst
B. Dentigerous cyst
C. Keratocyst
D. Simple bone cyst
35. The cyst with highest recurrence rate is:

A. Keratocyst
B. Periapical cyst
C. Nasoalveolar cyst
D. Globulamaxilary cyst
36. The most ideal expianation for recurrence of odontogenic

keratocyst is:
A. Increased mitotic activity of the epithelial lining
B. Friability of the epithelial lining
C. Presence of satellite cysts or daughter cysts
D. Continued proliferation of rests of dental lamina
37. Unicentric, non-functional, anatomically benign, clinically

persistent tumor is:
A. CEOT
B. Enameloma
C. Odontoma
D. Ameloblastoma
38. Radiographic finding in pindborg tumour is:

A. Sun-burst appearance
B. Onion-peel appearance
C. Driven-snow appearance
D. Cherry -blossom appearance
39. Robinson's classification of ameloblastoma does not include:

A. Multicentric
B. Non-Functional
C. Anatomically benign
D. clinically persistent
40. Primordial cyst develops:

A. In place of missing teeth
B. In teeth in which crown development is completed
C. In periapical region
D. In mandibular body
41. Odontogenic keratocyst has the following feature:

A. Occurs due to infection periapically
B. Is developmental in origin
C. Can be treated by aspiration
D. Has low recurrence rate
42. Dentigerous cyst is likely to cause which neoplasia:

A. Ameloblastoma
B. Adeno carcinoma
C. Fibrosarcoma
D. All of the above
43. One of them is not a true cyst:

A. Nemorrhagic cyst
B. Median palatal
C. Globulomaxillary
D. Nasolabial
44. Which of the following is the most common lesion of the

mandible?
A. Adamantinoma
B. Osteogenic sarcoma
C. Squamous cell carcinoma
D. Osteoclastoma
45. Basal layer in primordial cyst is arranged in the form of:

A. Tennis racket
B. Picket fence
C. Linear
D. Irregular
46. Nodular growth of alveolus is seen in:

A. Paget's disease
B. Osteomas
C. Cementifying fibroma
D. All of these
47. Which of the following shows the presence of cholesterol

crystals?
A. Keratocyst
B. Periodontal cyst
C. Aneurysmal cyst
D. Hemorrhagic cyst
48. The most common odontogenic tumour which occurs in relation

to an unerupted tooth in the anterior maxilla:
A. Odontogenic adenomatoid tumour
B. Odontoma
C. Myxoma
D. Cementifying fibroma
49. Which of the following is an odontogenic tumor?

A. Arrhenoblastoma
B. Astrocytoma
C. Ameloblastoma
D. Granular cell tumor
50. Leisegang rings are found in:

A. Calcifying epithelial odontogenic cyst
B. Primordial cyst
C. Calcifying epithelial odontogenic tumor
D. Odontoma
51. Eruption cyst:

A. Transforms into dentigerous cyst
B. Regresses after eruption of the tooth
C. Is found in the place of the missing tooth
D. Is a type of dentigerous cyst
52. Botryoid odontogenic cyst is a variant of:

A. Lateral periodontal cyst
B. Apical periodontal cyst
C. Gingival cyst of new born
D. Gingival cysts of adult
53. Which of the following is a true neoplasm of functional

cementoblasts:
A. Periapical cemental dysplasia
B. Familial cemental dysplasia
C. Benign cementoblastoma
D. Hypercementosis
54. Compound odontoma shows on a radiograph as:

A. Supernumerary teeth
B. Radiolucent and radiopaque areas
C. Masses of calcified areas
D. Distinguishable tooth-like structures
55. Ameloblastoma most frequently occurs in:

A. Mandibular moral region
B. Maxillary molar region
C. Mandibular premolar region
D. Maxillary premolar region
56. Bifid ribs, multiple radiolucent lesions of the jaws multiple

basal cell nevi and flax cerebri calcification are found in:
A. Basal cell nevus syndrome
B. Sturge weber syndrome
C. Horner syndrome
D. Hereditary internal polyposis
KEY TO CORRECTION
1. B 11. E 21. B 31. A 41. B 51. B
2. B 12. B 22. B 32. D 42. A 52. A
3. D 13. A 23. A 33. C 43. A 53. C
4. B 14. C 24. B 34. C 44. A 54. D
5. A 15. B 25. D 35. A 45. B 55. A
6. C 16. D 26. D 36. C 46. C 56. A
7. D 17. D 27. C 37. D 47. A
8. B 18. C 28. B 38. C 48. A
9. C 19. D 29. B 39. A 49. C
10. A 20. B 30. A 40. A 50. C

and Microbiology (Diseases of Nerves and Muscles)
1. Severe pain which arise after injury to or sectioning of a
peripheral sensory nerve is called as:
A. Temporal arteritis
B. Neuralgia
C. Neuritis
D. Causalgia
2. Patient suffering form Eagle's syndrome complains of:

A. burning sensations in mouth
B. excessive salivation
C. Glossodynia
D. Dysphagia
3. The latest drug of the choice in the management in trigeminal

neuralgia is:
A. valproic acid
B. carbamazepine
C. Diphen hydantoin
4. Facial paralysis is tested by:

A. Whistling
B. Chewing
C. Protruding the tongue
D. Swallowing
5. Which of the following structures are associated with bells

palsy:
A. sub mandibular gland
B. Seventh cranial nerve
C. Temporomandibular joint
D. Glosso pharyngeal nerve
6. If a patient with Raynaud's disease puts his hand in cold

water, the hand appears:
A. Red
B. Yellow
C. White
D. Blue
7. Geniculate neuralgia is caused in the nerve:

A. VII
B. IX
C. X
D. II
8. All of the following are true about trigeminal neuralgia

EXCEPT:
A. it is unilateral
B. it is of throbbing nature
C. it is triggered by touching cheeks, mucosa etc
D. occurs in bouts
9. Trotter's syndrome involves:

A. Pharynx
B. Oropharynx
C. Larynx
D. Nasopharynx
10. "Fothergill's disease" is one of the synonyms of:
A. Sarcoidosis
B. Multiple sclerosis
C. Trigeminal neuralgia
D. Lupus erythematosus
11. Lesion of facial nerve at level of stylomastoid foramen leads

to:
A. Loss of taste sensation from Ant. 2/3 of tongue
B. Paralysis of orbicularis oculi muscle
C. Loss of innervation to stapedius
D. Loss of lacrimal secretion
12. What is non characteristic of Eagle's syndrome:

A. Excessive lacrimation
B. pain during mandibular movement
C. Stabbing type pain originate in the tonsillar regions
D. When the jaws are closed the pain subsided
13. Which of the following drugs is not effective in case of

Trigeminal Neuralgia?
A. Carbamazipine
B. acetaminophen
C. phenytoin sodium
D. Baclofen
14. Patient comes with pain pharyngeal region and is having

carcinoma of nasopharynx. The diagnosis is:
A. Horner's syndrome
B. Glossopharyngeal neuralgia
C. Trotter's syndrome
D. Eagles syndrome
15. The characteristic alarm clock headache is a feature of:

A. Auriculotemporal Neuralgia
B. Trigeminal Neuralgia
C. Sphenopalatine Neuralgia
D. Glossopharyngeal Neuralgia
16. Anti-convulsants frequently used in management of trigemial

neuralgia are:
A. Phenytoin
B. Gabapentin
C. Baclofen
D. All of the above
17. Which of the following Orofacial pain is ot associated with

vascular origin?
A. Cluster headache
B. Giant cell arteritis
C. Anaesthesia dolorosa
D. Chronic paroxysmal hemicrania
18. An attack of cluster headache can be aborted by:

A. Morphine administration
B. Breathing oxygen
C. Aspirin administration
D. Sublingual nitroglycerine administration
19. Burning Mouth Syndrome describes pain associated with:
A. Oral lichen planus
B. Oral submucous fibrosis
C. Aphthous stomatitis
D. No detectable oral disease
20. In an acute attack of migraine, the during of choice:

A. Ergontamine tortrate
B. Methysergide
C. Propranolol
D. Caffeine
21. Mask-like appearance of face with narrowing of aperture and

rigidity of the mucosa is characteristic of:
A. Progressive systemic sclerosis
B. Tetanus
C. Multiple sclerosis
D. Osteomalacia
22. A patient shows inability to close the right corner of the

mouth is most probably suffering form:
A. Myasthenia gravis
B. Bell's palsy
C. TMJ dysfunction syndrome
D. Multiple sclerosis
23. Bell's palsy is triggered by:

A. Exposure to cold
B. Tooth extraction
C. Local and systemic infection
D. Any of the above
24. The following site is the common involvement in case of

Myositis ossificans:
A. Massetor
B. Hyoglossus
C. Stylohyoid
D. Lateral pterygoid
25. Trigeminal neuralgia:

A. Does not disturb the patient during sleep
B. Can be treated with NSAID's
C. Always bilateral in distribution
D. Is a hereditary condition
26. Carbamazepine has been utilized to successfully diminish

attacks in trigeminal neuralgia. Duringthis therapy which of the
following is indicated:
A. Clinical observation only
B. Clinical observation and complete blood and platelet counts
prior to and at frequent intervals during therapy
C. No monitoring
D. Complete blood investigation only if adverse symptoms arise
27. Which syndrome consists of flushing, warmness and

perspiration over the cheek and pinna of the ear on the side
following the ingestion of highly seasoned food?
A. Fanconi's
B. Auriculotemporal
C. Horner's
D. Cushin's
28. Facial pain due to elongated styloid process is called?

A. Cowden syndrome
B. Tic doulourex
C. Eagle's syndrome
D. Reiter's syndrome
29. A neuralgia with trigger zones in the oropharynx and pain in

the ear pharynx, nasopharynx, tonsils and posterior tongue is
most likely:
A. Trigeminal neuralgia
B. Bell's palsy
C. Glossopharyngeal neuralgia
D. Sphenopalatineneuralgia
30. Easy fatigability of muscles seen in:

A. Epilepsy
B. MPDS
C. Myasthenia gravis
D. Cerebral palsy
31. Frey's syndrome results from surgery of the:

A. Submandibular salivary gland
B. Parotid gland
C. Sublingual salivary gland
D. TMJ
32. Horner's syndrome Does NOT include:
A. Ptosis
B. Anhydrosis
C. Flushing
D. Mydriasis
33. Trigeminal heuralgia (tic doulourex) is characterized by:

A. Paralysis of one side of the face
B. Uncontrollable twitching of muscles
C. Sharp, excruciating pain of short duration
D. Prolonged episodes of plain on one side of the face
34. TENS therapy is useful in:

A. MPDS
B. Trigeminal neuralgia
C. Facial palsy
D. Neurosis
35. Bell's Palsy is characterized by:

A. Bilateral involvement of the side of the face
B. Inability to whistle
C. No loss of muscular control
D. Closing of the eyes
KEY TO CORRECTION (Diseases of Nerves and Muscles)

1. D 11. B 21. A 31. B
2. D 12. A 22. B 32. D
3. B 13. B 23. D 33. C
4. A 14. C 24. A 34. A
5. B 15. C 25. A 35. B
6. C 16. D 26. B
7. A 17. C 27. B
8. B 18. B 28. C
9. D 19. D 29. C
10. C 20. A 30. C

and Microbiology (Oral Aspects of Metabolic Disease)
1. Hyperpigmentation is seen in all except:

A. peutz jeghers syndrome
B. addison's disease
C. cushing's syndrome
D. albright syndrome
2. Increase in height of mandible with increase in interdental

spaces in elderly man:
A. Hyperpituitarism
B. Hyperthyroidism
C. Hypopituitarism
D. Hyperparathyroidism
3. Wernick's encephalopathy is caused by deficiency of:

A. Thiamine
B. Cyanocobalamine
C. Niacin
D. Riboflavin
4.A 9-year-old child has increased horizontal anterior bone loss,

cementum and on test shows excretion of phophoethanolamine in the
urine. The child is suffering from:
A. Hypophosphatasia
B. Vit. D resistant Rickets
C. Juvenile periodontitis
D. Osteomalacia
5. Which of the following vitamin in associated with
manifestations of neurological problem:
A. Vit A
B. Vit K
C. Folic acid
D. Cyanacobalamin
6. Pigmentation occurs in oral cavity and skin in al of the

following except:
A. Peutz-jeghers syndrome
B. Addision's syndrome
C. Cushing syndrome
D. Albright syndrome
7. a 65-year-old man who is anaemic, complaints of back pain

multiple radiolucencies in panaromic view:
A. Multiple myeloma
B. Osteosarcoma
C. Giant cell granuloma
D. Eosinophilic
8. Intestional absorption of calcium is decreased by:

A. proteins
B. lactose
C. phytic Acid
D. Acidity
9. Hypogonadism developmental delay, loss of taste and smell is

due to deficiency of:
A. Cu
B. Zn
C. K
D. Cr
10. Macrodontia is associated with:

A. Acromegaly
B. Pituitary gigantism
C. Hypoparathyroidism
D. Hyperthyroidism
11. Beefy red and painful tongue is characteristic of:

A. Vitamin A deficiency
B. Any periodontal disease
C. Acute nicotinic acid deficiency
D. Ascorbic acid deficiency
12. Consider the following statements giant cells are a

characteristic histopathologic finding in:
A. Apthous ulcers
B. Keratocyst
C. Brown tumor of hyper parathyroidism
D. Dentigerous cyst
13. Which of the following is associated with a low concentration

of ionized calcium in the serum?
A. Hypothyroidism
B. Osteogenesis imperfecta
C. Paget's disease of the bone
D. Tetany
14. An abnormal resorption pattern in primary teeth, delayed
eruption of permanent teeth and a large tongue are the feature
of:
A. Addison's disease
B. Hypothyroidism
C. Hyperthyroidism
D. Von-Recklinghausen disease
15. Acrodermatitis enteropathica is due to deficiency of:

A. Mercury
B. Zinc
C. Lead
D. Bismuth
16. Bone changes in hyperparathyroidism include:

A. Generalized demineralization
B. Brown tumours
C. Cystic changes
D. All of the above
17. A disease which only affects the formation and eruption of

tooth but does not cause hypoplasia is:
A. Hypoparathyroidism
B. Hyperthyroidism
C. Rickets
D. Syphilis
18. The histiocytosis X is a spectrum of disorders which include

the following condition:
A. Eosinophilic granuloma
B. Hand Schuller-Christian disease
C. Letterer-Siwe disease
D. All of the above
19. Magenta tongue and cracks at corner of mouth are seen is

deficiency of:
A. Vitamin B
B. Niacin
C. Riboflavin
D. Pantothenic acid
20. Which of the following may be a feature of acromegaly:

A. Large tongue
B. Micrognathia
C. Hypoglycemia
D. Crowded teeth
21. Oral lesions on the tongue and other mucosal surfaces of the
oral cavity is caused by the deficiency of:
A. Vit-B1
B. Niacin
C. Vit-C
D. Vit-K
22. A progressive increase in mandibular length and in mandibular

interdental spacing in an adult patient is characteristic of?
A. Periodontosis
B. Hypothyroidism
C. Hyperpituitarism
D. Hypoadrenalism
23. Which of the following is least affected in Vit-C deficiency?

A. Gingival Fibres
B. Periodontal ligament
C. Blood Vessels of the gingiva
D. Epithelial lining of the mucosa
24. Which of the following tooth structure during formation is

most effected due to Vit - A deficiency:
A. Enamel
B. Dentin
C. Cementum
D. Periodontal Ligament
25. Osteomalacia is:

A. Defective osteoid+ normal mineralization
B. normal osteoid + defective mineralization
C. abnormal osteoid + abnormal mineralization
D. normal osteoid an demineralization
26. A five-year-old child presents with chronic bed wetting and

bilateral loose deciduous first molars. His mother says that she
want to drink of water several times during each night. Which of
the following is the most likely diagnosis?
A. Hand-Schuller Christian disease
B. Marble bone disease
C. Nieman pick disease
D. Polyostotic fibrous dysplasia
27. Addison's disease typically:

A. Causes hypertension
B. causes hypopigmentation
C. Is an autoimmune disease
D. Steroids are contraindicated
28. A histologic evidence of widespread formation of globular
hypocalcified dentin and pulp horns reaching the dentinoename
junction, absence of lamina dura around the tooth in radiograph
are the characteristic features of?
A. Vitamin -D resistant rickets
B. Hypophosphatasia
C. Hypervitaminosis-A
D. Vitamin-A deficiency
29. Reilly bodies are inclusion bodies seen in hurler's disease

within:
A. Lymphocytes
B. Fibroblast
C. RBC
D. WBC
30. Hepatolenticular degeneration is seen with deposition of:

A. cadmium
B. lead
C. aluminium
D. copper
31. Which of the following may be a feature of acromegaly?

A. Large tongue
B. Micrognathia
C. Hypoglycaemia
D. Crowded teeth
32. All the following affects absorption of calcium EXCEPT:

A. citric acid
B. Retinoic acid
C. phytates
D. Oxalates
33. Hyperparathyroidism radiological features seen are:

A. Loss of laminadura
B. Osteitis fibrosa cystica
C. Erosion below the duramater of skull
D. All of the above
34. Normal serum calcium level is:

A. 5 to 7 mg%
B. 7 to 9 mg%
D. 11 to 13 mg%
35. Brown tumours are seen in:

A. Hyperparathyroidism
B. Pigmented villonodular synovitis
C. Osteomalacia
D. Neurofibromatosis
36. Swollen joint, anemic, loose teeth & dentin dysplasia are
because of deficiency of:
A. Vitamin C
B. Vitamin D
C. Vitamin B
D. Vitamin E & D
37. Red fluorescent fluid is seen in:

A. Pemphigus
B. Erythema multiforme
C. Lichen planus
D. prophyria
38. Letterer siwe disease is a disturbance of:

A. protein metabolism
B. histiocytic disorder
C. Mucopolysaccharide metabolism
D. Carbohydrate metabolism
39. Bone pain, bone, cyst, fractures and renal stones are
characteristics of:
B. Cushing's syndrome
C. Multiple myeloma
D. Marfan's syndrome
40. A 50-year-old obese man complains of several recent abscesses

in the gingiva with loosening of teeth. He also suffers from
itching of skin and polyuria. The most probable etiology is:
A. Scurvy
B. Myxoedema
C. Diabetes mellitus
D. Vitamin A deficiency
41. Lamina Dura is lost of partially lost in:

A. hypothyroidism
B. hyperthyroidism
C. hypoparathyroidism
D. hyperparathyroidism
42. Vitamin "D" deficiency causes all except:

A. Widening of predentin
B. Defective calcification
C. Microdontia
D. Inter globular dentin formation
43. Eosinophilic granuloma results from the proliferation of:

A. Histiocytes
B. Eosinophils
C. Lymphocytes
D. Fibroblast
44. Premature exfoliation of deciduous teeth is seen in:

A. Hypophosphatasia
B. Hypophosphatemia
C. Hyper phosphtasia
D. Hyperparathryroidism
45. An etiological factor for macroglossia is:

A. Atrophic glossitis
B. Oral submucous fibrosis
C. Syphilitic glossitis
D. Hurler's syndrome
46. Diabetes insipidus, bone lesions and exophthalmos is seen in:

A. Sickle cell anemia
B. Niemen pick disease
C. Littere Siewe Disease
D. Hand-Schuller-Christian disease
47. Gingiva is most commonly affected by deficiency of:

A. Vitamin A
B. Vitamin D
C. Vitamin C
D. Vitamin B
48. Deficiency of which of the following will cause enamel

hypoplasia:
A. Vitamin B and C
B. Vitamin A, C and D
C. Calcium
D. Vitamin C
49. Which of the following deficiencies are associated with the

disorders of hyperplasia of salivary gland and keratinization of
the salivary gland:
A. Vit-A
B. Vit-B
C. Vit-C
D. Vit-K
50. Dinesh, a 24-year-old male, complains of loose teeth in a

single quardrant. His radiograph shows irregular bone loss and
histopathology reveals eosinophils and histiocytes. The most
probable diagnosis is:
A. Hand-Schuller-Christian disease
B. Paget's disease
C. Osteoclastoma
D. Albright's syndrome
51. Addison's disease is related to:

A. Adrenal medulla
B. Adrenal cortex
C. Post pituitary
D. Parathyroid gland
52. The deficiency of which of the following vitamins does not

effect on tooth development:
A. Vit-A
B. Vit-D
C. Vit-C
D. Vit-K
53. Which of the following is related to an enzyme deficiency and

involves periodontal destruction around primary teeth:
A. Hypophosphatasia
B. Cyclic neutropenia
C. Juvenile Periodontitis
D. Papillion Lefevre syndrome
54. Delayed eruption of at least part of the dentition is a

recognized feature of all of the following EXCEPT:
A. Rickets
B. Congenital hyperthyroidism
C. Cleidocranial dysplasia
D. Cherubism
KEY TO CORRECTION (Oral Aspects of Metabolic Disease)
1. C 11. C 21. B 31. A 41. D 51. B
2. A 12. C 22. C 32. B 42. C 52. D
3. A 13. D 23. D 33. D 43. A 53. A
4. A 14. B 24. A 34. C 44. A 54. B
5. D 15. B 25. B 35. A 45. D
6. C 16. D 26. A 36. A 46. D
7. A 17. B 27. C 37. D 47. C
8. C 18. D 28. A 38. B 48. A
9. B 19. C 29. A 39. A 49. A
10. B 20. C 30. D 40. C 50. A

and Microbiology (Physical and Chemical Injuries)
1. Internal resorption is characterized by:

A. pain on percussion
B. Slow dull continuous pain
C. No characteristic feature, symptom free
D. Increased pulpal pain when laying down
2. Loss of tooth surface because of chemo mechanical action is
known as:
A. Abrasion
B. Erosion
C. Abraction
D. Attrition
3. Sloughing of necrotic epithelium is characteristic of:

A. Aspirin burn
B. Denture sore mouth
C. Traumatic ulcer
D. Contact dermatitis
4. Perleche is caused by:

A. decreased interdental space
B. increased interdental space
C. Lack of Vit-C
D. Trauma to the corners of the mouth
5. Bismuth intoxication is manifested as:

A. pigmentation is areas of inflammation
B. Burtonian line
C. Gingiva
D. Blackish line in the mucosa
6. Silver tattoo is due to:

A. deposition of Ag Amalgam in Mucosa
B. deposition of Ag Amalgam in Bone
C. deposition of Ag Amalgam in Dentin
D. deposition of Ag Amalgam in Enamel
7. In a 2-year-old child, a bluish dome shaped swelling on the

inner side of the lip is mostly:
A. Hematoma
B. Mucocoele
C. Hemangioma
8. Mucooceles are rarely seen in the:

A. Lower lip
B. Upper lip
C. Buccal mucosa
D. Floor of the mouth
9. Eighty percent of all salivary stones occur in:

A. Parotid
B. Submandibular
C. Sublingual
D. Minor salivary glands
10. Enlargement of lip occurred within seconds to 24 hours is:

A. Angioedema
B. Mucocoele
C. Herpes
D. Fibroma
11. Angular stomatitis:
A. can be a concomitant of any candida infection
B. is seen mainly in adults
C. may be associated with streptococcus
D. may be a sign of anemia
12. Cyst without lining is:

A. Radicular cyst
B. Dentigerous cyst
C. Naso palatine duct cyst
D. Hemorrhagic/ Traumatic bone cyst
13. The etiology of angioedema is:

A. Sensitivity to acrylic resin
B. Using ACE inhibitors
C. Hereditary
D. All of the above
14. A patient with emotional problems, increased salivation;

pallor of oral mucosa and a grayish blue discoloration of the
gingiva. These findings are most consistent with a clinical
impression of:
A. Cherubism
B. Cretinism
C. Pierre Robin Syndrome
D. Lead poisoning
KEY TO CORRECTION (Physical and Chemical Injuries)

1. B 11. A
2. A 12. D
3. A 13. D
4. B 14. D
5. A
6. A
7. B
8. C
9. B
10. A

and Microbiology (Diseases of Bones and Joints)
1. Which of the following are characteristic feature of

cherubism:
A. Premature exfoliation of primary teeth
B. Hypoplastic defects
C. Progressive painless symmetric
D. A + C
2. Precocious puberty is most characteristic of which of the
following:
A. Jaffe's syndrome
B. Monostotic fibrous dysplasia
C. Abright's syndrome
D. Osteogenesi imperfecta
3. Serum alkaline phosphatase levels are increased in:

A. Osteorthritis
B. Dentinogenesis imperfecta
C. Paget's disease
D. Rheumatoid arthritis
4. Which of the following are a triad of the sign and symptoms of

osteogenesis imperfecta:
A. blue sclera, sparse hair, anhidrosis
B. enlarged hand, feet, maxilla, mandible
C. blue sclera, brittle bones opalescent dentin
D. blue sclera, arachnodactyly, brittle bones
5. Generalized thickening of cortical and cancellous bones is

seen in:
A. Osteopetrosis
B. Paget’s disease
C. Osteogenesis imperfecta
D. Infantile hyperostosis
6. Cotton-wool appearance is seen in:

A. Paget's disease
B. Osteosclerosis
C. Periapical cemental dysplasia
D. Ossifying fibroma
7. Generalized hypercementosis is seen in:

A. Hypophosphatasia
B. Paget’s disease
C. Fibrous dysplasia
D. Cherubism
8. Class III malocclusion is seen in all of the following except:

A. Pierre Robinson syndrome
B. Cleft palate
D. Craniofacial dysostosis
9. Delayed eruption of teeth occurs in:

A. Craniofacial dysostosis
B. Hyperthyroidism
C. Cleidocranial dysostosis
D. Osteitis deformans
10. False about cherubism:

A. Unilocular lesion
B. Bilateral
C. Presence of Giant cell
D. Delayed eruption of permanent teeth
11. The histopathology of osteopetrosis shows:

A. Endosteal bone formation and lack of normal bone resorption
B. Periosteal bone formation and lack of normal bone resorption
C. Presence of extra collagen fibres and less calcification
resulting in resistance of bones to fracture
D. Presence of numerous osteoclasts and a few osteoblasts
12. Multiple fractures are seen in:

A. Rickets
C. Osteomyelitis
D. Osteoma
13. In MPDS which muscle is most apt to exhibit tenderness:

A. Temporalis
B. Buccinator
C. Masseter
D. Lateral pterygoid
14. Orange peel and Ground glass radiographic appearance is

observed in case of:
A. Paget’s disease
B. Ewing’s sarcoma
C. Osteosarcoma
D. Fibrous dysplasia
15. Delayed dentition with multiple supernumerary teeth is seen

in:
A. Hypoparathyroidism
B. Cleidocranial dysplasia
C. Pierre Robin Syndrome
D. Mongolism (Down's Syndrome
16. Mosaic pattern of bone is seen in radiographic features of:

A. fibrous dysplasia
B. Paget's disease
C. Osteopetrosis
D. Osteogenesis imperfecta
17. The most common complication following rheumatoid arthritis

of the TMJ is:
A. Ankylosis
B. Synovial chondromatosis
C. Subluxation
D. Osteoarthritis
18. Which of the following statement is false in relation to

myofascial pain dysfunction syndrome:
A. Maily affects young females
B. is caused by muscle fatigue due to chronic oral habits are
grinding and clenching
C. Treatment involves construction of occlusal guard and stress
free emotional condition
D. The perioral musculature becomes hypotonic
19. A child with Down's syndrome has Moon faces, retarded

mentally and which of the facial characteristic:
A. Maxillary prognathism
B. Mandibular retrognathia
C. Mandibular prognathism
D. Maxillary hypoplasia
20. Ground glass appearance in bone is seen in:
B. Fibrous dysplasia
C. Condensing osteitis
D. Osteopetrosis
21. A non-neoplastic hereditary bone lesion, histologically

similar to central giant cell granuloma affects children and
shows, a bilateral involvement of the jaws with eye to heaven
appearance clinically is:
A. Fibrous dysplasia
B. Cherubism
C. Craniofacial dysostosis
D. Chondro-ectodermal dysplasia
22.Treacher Collins syndrome is:

A. Maxillofacial Dysostosis
B. Mandibulofacial Dysostosis
C. Maxillo mandibulofacial Dysostosis
D. Condylar Dysostosis
23. Osteosclerosis of bone occurs due to:

A. Decreased host resistance
B. Increase in the virulence of organisms causes infection
C. Increased host response
D. Occurs in immunocompromised patients
24. Venous malformation involving the leptomeninges of the

cerebral cortex is salient feature of:
A. Rendu-Osler-Weber disease
B. Maffuci's syndrome
C. Angioosteohypertrophy syndrome
D. Sturge weber syndrome
25. Preauricular pain, grating sensation and partial trismus are

the symptoms of:
A. TMJ fibrous ankylosis
B. TMJ bony ankylosis
C. TMJ pain dysfunction syndrome
D. Ear infection
26.Polydactyly, craniosynostosis, late closure of fontanelles is

a feature of:
A. Apert syndrome
B. Crouzon's syndrome
C. Pierre robin syndrome
D. Down syndrome
27.Osteosarcoma characteristically may develop in some causes of:

A. Osteopetrosis
C. Acromegaly
28.Histopathologicall reversal lines are seen in:

A. Cherubism
C. Paget's disease of the bone
D. Craniofacial dysplasia
29.Most common primary malignant bone tumor is:

A. Osteosarcoma
B. Ewing sarcoma
C. Metastatic carcinoma
D. Multiple Myeloma
30. Which of the following is NOT a clinical feature of Pierre-

Robin syndrome?
A. Micrognathia
B. Retrognathia
C. Glossoptosis
D. Coloboma of lower eyelid
31. Eruption fails in this bone disease, as there is no bone

resorption:
A. Primary hyperparathyroidism
B. Phantom bone disease
C. Paget's disease
D. Osteopetrosis
32. Mutation in GNAS 1 gene is associated with:

B. Ossifying fibroma
C. Focal cemento osseous dysplasia
D. Periapical cemento osseous dysplasia
33. The granulomatous tissue that is responsible for destruction

of articular surfaces of TMJ in rheumatoid arthritis is known as:
A. Pannus
B. Pulse granuloma
C. Baker's cyst
D. Immune granuloma
34. A patient aged 50 years presented with a history of jaw

expansion and enlargement of maxilla:
B. Acromegaly
35. Paget's disease of bone is a chronic disease of the:

A. Prepubertal skeleton
B. Pubertal skeleton
C. Infantile skeleton
D. Adult skeleton
36. A 15 years old boy reports with a rapidly growing swelling of

the mandible with intermittent pain patient history is that the
swelling occurred after an episode of trauma Radiographs reveal
formation of new subperiosteal bone producing Onion skin
appearance The patient also has lip paresthesia elevated white
blood cell count Based on the clinical and radiographic picture,
one of the following condition could be considered in the
provisional diagnosis:
A. Fracture of the jaw with cancellous bone formation
B. Chronic suppurative osteomyelitis
C. Burkitt's Lymphoma
D. Ewing's sarcoma
37.Transformation into osteosarcoma is seen with:
A. Paget’s disease and polyostotic fibrous dysplasia
B. Paget’s disease and osteopetrosis
C. Cherubism and Polyostotic fibrous dysplasia
D. Cherubism and Paget’s disease
38. In a 60-year-old adult, which of the following diseases

causes expansile maxillary lesions:
A. Paget's disease
B. Acromegaly
C. Fibrous Dysplasia
D. Rickets
39. A patient with fibrous dysplasia can be treated by:

A. Surgical excision
B. Removal of adjacent teeth
C. Irradiation of the lesion
D. Conservative surgery
40.The most likely diagnosis in a 23 year old, mentally alert,
male dwarf with disproportionate arm and leg to body growth,
prominent forehead and retruded maxilla is:
A. Cretinism
B. Pituitary dwarfism
C. Acromegaly
D. Achondroplasia
41. In Cleidorcranial dysostosis, sometimes the roots of the

permanent teeth are:
A. Thin and long
B. Thin and short
C. Thick and short
D. Fused
42. A patient 18 years of age with sebaceous cysts on the scalp

and back of the neck an osteoma on the right mandible:
Radiographs reveal multiple impacted supernumerary teeth in both
jaws. These findings suggest:
A. Cleidocranial dysostosis
B. Ectodermal dysplasia
C. Gardner's syndrome
43. During a routine checkup a 70-year-old male is found to have

Serum Alkaline Phosphatase three time the upper limit of normal.
Serum Calcium, Serum Phosphorous and liver function tests are
normal. The most likely diagnosis is:
A. Primary hyperparathyroidism
B. Paget's disease of the bone
C. Osteomalacia
D. Metastatic bone disease
44. Immature bony trabeculae are found in:
B. Paget's disease
C. Rickets
D. Cleidocranial Dysplasia
45. Albera-Schonberg's disease is:

A. steomyelitis
B. Osteopetrosis
C. condensing osteitis
D. Osteomalacia
46. Pain, muscle tenderness, clicking or popping noise in T.M
joint and limitation of jaw motion are the four cardinal signs
and symptoms of:
A. Costen's syndrome
B. Traumatic arthritis of T.M J
C. Osteoarthritis
D. Myofacial pain dysfunction syndrome
47. A 10-year-old child presents with anemia and recurrent

fractures. The X-ray shows diffuse hyper density of bone The
diagnosis is most likely to be:
A. Osteogenesis imperfecta
B. Osteopetrosis
C. Osteochondroma
48. Corticosteroids are useful in treatment of TMJ arthritis

because they have:
A. An analgesic effects
B. An anti-inflammatory effect
C. Inhibitory effect on synovial membrane
D. Analgesic and anti-inflammatory effect
49. A patient with multiple impacted supernumerary teeth and can

bring his shoulders together is suffering from:
A. Klinefelter's syndrome
B. Trisomy 21
C. Down's syndrome
D. Cleidocranial dysostosis
50. Amber coloured tooth translucency, blue sclerae and bone
fragility and a history of pervious bone fractures are
characteristic findings in:
A. Osteoporosis
C. Osteitis deformans
D. Osteitis fibrosa cystic
51. A patient complains of loss of visual acuity, deafness and

enlargement of maxilla:
A. Paget's disease
B. Osteomalacia
52. The treatment for a child with cherubism is:

A. surgical excision
B. cosmetic surgery after puberty
C. radiation
D. En bloc dissection
53. Biochemical abnormality associated with osteogenesis

imperfecta is increase in:
A. Alkaline phosphatase
B. Acid phosphatase
C. Bicarbonate ion
D. Phosphorylase enzyme
54. Of the following which is most common disorder causing pain
about the masticatory apparatus including the TMJ:
A. Traumatic arthritis
B. Trigeminal neuralgia
C. Myofacial pain dysfunction syndrome
D. Degenerative arthritis
55. Complication of Rheumatoid arthritis of condyle is:

A. Fibrous ankylosis
B. Subluxation
C. Dislocation
56. Alkaline phosphatase increases in:

B. Osteopetrosis
C. Cherubism
D. Fibrous dysplasia
E. A and D
57. The most common cause of TMJ ankylosis is:

A. Trauma
B. Osteoarthritis
C. Childhood illness
D. Rheumatoid arthritis
58. Down's syndrome is associated with all except:

A. Retrognathia
B. Periodontal disease
C. Premature loss off deciduous teeth
D. Delayed eruption of deciduous teeth
59. The primary causative factor for myofacial pain dysfunction

syndrome of the TMJ is:
A. Infratemporal space infection
B. Auriculotemporal neuritis
C. Muscular overextension and over contraction
D. Otitis media
60. A 3-year-old patient reports of painless progressive

bilateral facial swellings. The tentative diagnosis is:
A. Cherubism
B. Monostotic fibrous dysplasia
C. Polyostotic fibrous dysplasia
D. Central giant cell granuloma
61. Clavicle is absent is:
A. Osteogenesis imperfecta
B. Cleidocranial dysostosis
D. Osteopetrosis
62. In a middle-aged man, the radiograph shows cotton-wool

appearance, and blood investigation reveal an elevated alkaline
phosphate level. The tentative diagnosis is:
B. Cherubism
63. Which of the following has the potential of undergoing
spontaneous malignant transformation?
A. Osteomalacia
B. Albright’s syndrome
C. Paget’s disease of bone
64. Which of the following diseases of the bone

characteristically exhibits (in contrast to the other three
conditions) a single lesion in a single bone?
A. Central giant cell granuloma
B. Osteopetrosis
C. Paget’s disease of the bone
D. Polyostotic fibrous dysplasia
65. Osteogenesis imperfect:

A. In a sex-linked disorder of bones that develop in cartilage.
B. Manifests with blue sclera which are pathognomonic of this
disease.
C. May be associated with deafness.
D. Has associations with amelogenesis imperfecta
KEY TO CORRECTION (Diseases of Bones and Joints)

1. D 11. A 21. B 31. D 41. B 51. A 61. B
2. C 12. B 22. B 32. A 42. C 52. B 62. A
3. C 13. D 23. C 33. A 43. B 53. D 63. C
4. C 14. D 24. D 34. A 44. A 54. C 64. A
5. D 15. B 25. C 35. D 45. B 55. A 65. B
6. A 16. B 26. A 36. D 46. D 56. E
7. B 17. A 27. D 37. A 47. B 57. A
8. A 18. D 28. C 38. A 48. B 58. A
9. C 19. D 29. D 39. D 49. D 59. C
10. A 20. A 30. D 40. D 50. B 60. A
and Microbiology (Blood Diseases)
1.Chediak-Higashi syndrome is inherited as

A. X-linked dominant trait
B. Autosomal dominant
C. Autosomal recessive
D. X-linked recessive
2. Which of the following blood disease has a racial

predilection?
A. Purpura
B. Hemophilia
C. Polycythemia
D. Thalassemia
3. In Radionuclide imaging the most useful radio pharmaceutical

for skeletal imaging is:
A. Gallium 67 (67 Ga)
B. Technetium-99m(99m Tc-Sc)
C. Technetium-99m(99m Tc)
D. Technetium-99m linked to Methylene diphosphonate (99m Tc-MDP)
4. The most striking hematological finding in agranulocytosis is:

A. Decreased absolute neutrophil count
B. Increased absolute eosinophil count
C. Decreased absolute basophil count
D. Increased absolute monocyte count
5. Deficiency of all the three components of coagulation factor

VIII result in:
A. Von Willebrand’s disease
B. Hemophilia-A
C. Parahemophilia
D. Hemophilia-B
6. Which of the following is not true about thalassemia:

A. Increased in number of globulin chain
B. There is erythrocyte fragility and hemolysis
C. Hypochromic microcytic anemia is present
D. There is severe anemia and thrombocytopenia
7. A hair on end appearance of the skull is seen in all of the
following except
A. Thalassemia
B. Sickle anemia
C. Cooley's anemia
D. Paget’s disease
8. Hemophilia is associated with:

A. Normal bleeding time normal clotting time
B. Normal bleeding time prolonged clotting time
C. Prolonged bleeding time normal clotting time
D. Prolonged bleeding time prolonged clotting time
9. One of the following syndrome is characterized by an

esophageal web with resulting dysphagia, atrophic changes in the
mucous membranes of the mouth and a hypochromic microcytic
anemia:
A. Marfan's syndrome
B. Plummer-Vinson
C. Meckel’s syndrome
D. Sjogren’s syndrome
10. Oral manifestations of infectious mononucleosis is most

commonly:
A. Bluish red spots opposite maxillary molar
B. Pseudo membrane on gingiva
C. Pinpoint petechiae on the palate
D. Gingival hyperplasia
11. Chemotherapy can be successful during treatment of:

A. Ameloblastoma
B. Leukemia
C. Fibrosarcoma
D. Basal cell carcinoma
12. Precancerous potential in Plummer Vinson’s syndrome may be

due to change in the epithelium like:
A. Atrophy
B. Hypertrophy
C. Acanthosis
D. All of the above
13. Which of the following is the most serious and life-

threatening blood dyscrasias caused with a drug:
A. Aplastic anemia
B. Megaloblastic anemia
C. Thrombocytopenia
D. Hemolytic anemia
14. For extraction in a leukemic patient:
A. Consult physician
B. Obtain WBC count
C. Obtain platelet count
D. All of the above.
15. Plummer-Vinson syndrome:

A. Is due to folic acid deficiency
B. common in males
C. Not associated with oral premalignancy
D. Strong association with post-cricoid carcinoma
16. Chronic granulocytic leukemia is due to:
A. Chromosomal deletion
B. Chromosomal mutation
C. Chromosomal translocation
17. Common oral change seen with nutritional anemia is:

A. Enlarged tongue
B. Atrophic glossitis
C. Generalized osteolysis
D. Focal marrow expansion
18. Christmas disease is due to deficiency of:

A. Hageman Factor
B. Platelets
C. Plasma thromboplastin antecedent
D. Plasma thromboplastin component
19. Clinical features of infectious mononucleosis:

A. Glandular involvement
B. Febrile
C. Palatine Petechiae
D. All of the above
20. Leucocytopenia is seen in:

A. influenza
B. agranulocytosis
C. liver cirrhosis
D. All of the above
21. Which of the following is not associated with hemorrhage:

A. Ecchymosis
B. Petechiae
C. Melanosis
D. Purpura
22. Which of the following agents is of value in the

postoperative care of the hemophilic patient?
A. Vitamin K
B. Monsel's solution
C. Aminocaproic acid
D. Factor 8 cryoprecipitate
23. Hemophilia B is due to:

A. Factor VII deficiency
B. Factor IX deficiency
C. Platelet deficiency
D. Vit C deficiency
24. Which of the following disease is known as the Kissing

disease:
A. Acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS)
B. Infection mononucleosis
C. Primary syphilis
D. Recurrent aphthous stomatitis
25. Neurological symptoms and premature graying of hair is

associated with:
A. Folic acid deficiency
B. Pernicious anemia
C. Plummer-Vinson syndrome
D. Paterson-Kelly syndrome
26. Hair-on-end appearance in a skull roentgenogram is seen in:

B. Thalassemia
C. Garre's Osteomyelitis
D. Paget’s disease
27. The oral findings in erythroblastosis fetalis include:

A. Dentinal dysplasia
B. Hypoplastic teeth
C. Pigmented teeth
D. All of the above
28.Commonest mode of inheritance of Von Willebrand's disease is:

A. Codominant
C. Autosomal recessive
D.X-Linked recessive
29. All the following are TRUE in Immune thrombocytopenic Purpura

(ITP) EXCEPT:
A. Chronic ITP commonly occur in adult women
B. Associated with normal bleeding time
C. Prothrombin Time (PT) & Partial Thromboplastin Time (PTT) are
normal
D. Increased megakaryocytes in bone marrow
30. The most reliable criteria in Gustafson's method of

identification is:
A. Cementum apposition
B. Transparency of root
C. Attrition
D. Root resorption
31. The most common coagulation disorders hemophilia A and von

Willebrand's disease are due to:
A. Factor IX deficiency
B. Vitamin K deficiency
C. Factor X deficiency
D. Factor VIII deficiency
32. Cooley's anemia is also known as:

A. Erythroblastosis fetalis
B. Aplastic anemia
C. Thalassemia
D. Pernicious anemia
33. Erythroblastosis fetalis can be prevented if the mother is

injected at parturition, with an antibody called:
A. Blocking antibody
B. Rh(D) immunoglobulin
C. Antilymphocyte globulin
D. Antithymocyte serum
34. A patient on warfarin sodium following myocardial infarction
reports for an oral surgical procedure which one of the following
laboratory tests should be preferred to ascertain the fitness:
A. Prothrombin time
B. Tourniquet time
C. Clotting time
D. Bleeding time
35. Aplastic anemia is common with:

A. Chloramphenicol
B. Cephalosporin
C. Tetracycline
D. Penicillin
36. Megaloblastic anemia occurs due to:

A. Iron deficiency
B. Folate deficiency
C. Vitamin C deficiency
D. Protein deficiency
37. Virus responsible for infectious mononucleosis is:
A. RNA paramyxovirus
B. Varicella zoster virus
C. Epstein Barr virus
D. Coxsackie virus A 16
38. Infectious mononucleosis has:

A. Multiple draining sinuses
B. Ulcers which bruise easily
C. Palatal perforation
D. Alveolar bone loss
39. Monospot test is used to diagnose:

A. Pernicious anemia
B. Sickle cell anemia
C. Infectious mononucleosis
D. Leukemia
40. All of the following statements about acute leukemia in

children are true except:
A. It characteristically causes gross gingival swelling
B. It may be manifested by mucosal pallor
C. It can cause obvious purpura
D. It is usually of the lymphoblastic variety
41. Bleeding joints is a characteristic feature of:

A. Vit-C deficiency
B. Hemophilia
C. Vit-K deficiency
D. Thrombocytopenia
42. Hypopigmentation, gray streaks of hair, degranulation defect

of neutrophils and neuropathy are seen in:
A. alukemic leukemia
B. chronic granulocytic leukemia
C. lazy leukocyte syndrome
D. Chediak higashi syndrome
43. A boy complains of bleeding gums, swollen, joints with
hemorrhage into joints His paternal and maternal uncle complains
of same problem It is due to deficiency of factor:
A. VIII
B. IX
C. X
D. VI
44. Petechial hemorrhage is seen in:

A. cyclic neutropenia
B. agranulocytosis
C. pernicious anemia
D. thrombocytopenic purpura
45. Bleeding time is prolonged in:

A. Hemophilia
B. Von Willebrand's disease
C. Henoch Schenolein purpura
D. Telangiectasia
46. Necrotizing ragged ulceration with no apparent inflammatory

response is indicative of:
A. Leucocytosis
B. Polycythemia vera
C. Sickle cell anemia
D. Agranulocytosis
47. Pernicious anemia is:

A. insufficient production of red cells
B. Improper maturation of red cells
C. can be correct by tablets of folic acid alone
D. can be correct by iron supplement
48. Pinpoint hemorrhages of < 1cm diameter are known as:

A. Petechiae
B. Ecchymoses
C. Purpura
D. Pustules
49. Paul Bunnell test is positive in:

A. Infectious mononucleosis
B. Multiple myeloma
C. Malignant nerves
D. Rubella
50. To prevent excessive bleeding during surgery a patient with

hemophilia A may be given:
A. Whole blood
B. Fresh frozen plasma
C. Factor VIII concentrate
D. Factor IX concentrate
51. Which of the following is seen in idiopathic thrombocytopenic

purpura:
A. Thrombocytosis
B. Increased prothrombin time
C. Increased bleeding time
D. Increased clotting time
52. Which of the following is not a finding in classical
hemophilia (hemophilia A):
A. Bleeding into soft tissues, muscles and joints
B. Decreased factor VIII
C. Increase prothrombin Time
D. Increase Partial thromboplastin Time
53. The red blood cells in beta thalassemia are typically:

A. Macrocytic and normochromic
B. Microcytic and Hypochromic
C. Normocytic and hypochromic
D. Normocytic and normochromic
54. Which of the following statements about idiopathic

thrombocytopenic purpura are true EXCEPT:
A. It is associated with platelet-specific auto-antibodies
B. It caused a prolonged bleeding time
C. It is often controlled by immunosuppressive treatment
D. It causes more prolonged hemorrhage than hemophilia
KEY TO CORRECTION (Blood Diseases)

1. C 11. B 21. C 31. D 41. B 51. C
2. D 12. A 22. C 32. C 42. D 52. C
3. D 13. A 23. B 33. B 43. A 53. B
4. A 14. D 24. B 34. A 44. D 54. D
5. A 15. B 25. B 35. A 45. B
6. A 16. C 26. B 36. B 46. D
7. D 17. B 27. C 37. C 47. B
8. B 18. D 28. B 38. B 48. A
9. B 19. D 29. B 39. C 49. A
10. C 20. D 30. B 40. A 50. C
and Microbiology (Miscellaneous of Oral Pathology and Medicine)
1.A 9-year-old child's mother comes to dental clinic with the

complaint of oral ulceration, fever and shedding of skin of palms
and soles: she is giving history of premature shedding of teeth
and increased sweating she is also giving one month history of
using any new teething gel available in market. The child is
suffering form:
A. Acrodynia
B. Pemphigus vulgaris
C. Epidermolysis Bullosa
D. Erosive lichen planus
2. Characteristic Tram-line calcifications in skull radiographs

is observed in:
A. Cleidocranial dysostoses
B. Sturge-weber syndrome
C. Paget's disease
D. Mc Cline-Albright syndrome
3. Perception of taste even in absence of stimuli is known as:

A. Ageusia
B. Dysgeusia
C. Cacogeusia
D. Phantogeusia
4. Enzymes which play an important role in calcification are:

A. Enolase & calcitonin
B. Alkaline phosphatase & catalase
C. Alkaline phosphatase & pyrophosphatase
D. Pyrophosphatase & carbonic anhydrase
5. Strength of collagen is due to:

A. Hydroxy glycine
B. Glycine
C. Proline
D. Hydroxyproline
6. Bruxism is characterized by:

A. Increased mobility of the teeth
B. Radiographic widening of the pdl
C. Morning pain in muscles
D. All of the above
7. Strawberry gingivitis is seen in:

A. Wegener's Granulomatosis
B. Scorbutic Gingivitis
C. Plasma cell Gingivitis
D. Leukemic Gingivitis
8. What is the term for the radio opaque area found at the root
apex of young permanent teeth involved with chronic pulpitis?
A. Apical cyst
B. Apical condensing osteitis
C. Chronic apical periodontitis
D. Stage one apical osteofibroses
9. Anitschkow cells are present in all of the following

conditions except:
A. Sickle cell anemia
B. Iron deficiency anemia
C. Aphthous ulcer
D. Herpes simplex
10. Difference between epithelium of oral cavity and cavity

lining of cyst is:
A. Stratum corneum
B. Stratum lucidum
C. Stratum germinativum
D. Stratum spinosum
11. Which is the most preferred route for drug administration in

the management of chronic pain?
A. Intrathecal
B. Oral
C. Subdermal
D. Intravenous
12. The Sensitive period for tetracycline induced discoloration

in the permanent maxillary mandibular incisors and canines is?
A. 3 months postpartum to 7th year of life
B. 4 months in utero to 3 months postpartum
C. 5 months in utero to 9 months postpartum
D. Birth to 7th year
13. Which is T cell tumor?

A. Burkitt's lymphoma
B. Mycosis fungoides
C. Mantel cell leukemia
D. Hairy cell leukemia
14. The disorder characterized by craniosynostoses, craniofacial

anomalies, severe symmetrical syndactyly (cutaneous and bony
fusion) of hands and feet along with preaxial syndactyly and
variable soft form syndactyly:
A. Carpenter syndrome
B. Crouzon Syndrome
C. Apert Syndrome
D. Down's syndrome
15. HLA-B27 histocompatibility antigen is seen in:
A. Sjogren's disease
B. Ankylosing spondylitis
C. Felty's syndrome
D. Scleroderma
16. For primary herpes simplex, the diagnosis is made by which

gene:
A. Culture with Giemsa stain:
B. Culture with wright strain
C. Routing cytology
D. Fluorescent stain for cytology
17. Burning tongue might not be associated with:

A. Ranula
B. Diabetes mellitus
C. Pernicious anaemia
D. Local irritation
18. Which of the following is a non-destructive method of age

estimation in adults?
A. Assessment of root dentin translucency
B. Amino acid racemization
C. Evaluation of tooth cementum annulations
D. Pulp to tooth ratio of canines
19. Tooth discoloration due to high bilirubin secretion is seen

in the:
A. Pink tooth of mummery
B. Ochronosis
C. Chlorodontia
D. Leong teeth
20. Out of syphilitic glossitis, Plummer Vinson syndrome

Mikulicz's syndrome and hepatitis A; which of these predispose to
squamous cell carcinoma?
A. Syphilitic glossitis and Plummer Vinson syndrome
B. Syphilitic glossitis and Mikulicz's syndrome
C. Plummer Vinson disease and hepatitis A
D. Hepatitis A and Mikulicz's Syndrome
21. Perimolysis is:

A. Tooth wear due to gastric secretion
B. Tooth wear due to bruxism
C. Tooth wear due to dentifrices
D. Peripheral blood cell destruction
22. Differential diagnosis of hypercementosis includes all of
these EXCEPT:
A. Cemental dysplasia
B. Cemental aplasia
C. Condensing osteitis
D. Focal periapical osteopetrosis
23. Which of the following is a virus induced epithelial

hyperplasia?
A. Molluscum contagiosum
B. Focal epithelial hyperplasia
C. Squamous papilloma
D. All of the above
24. Cardiac condition requiring Antibiotic prophylaxis for
Infective Endocarditis?
A. Coronary Heart Disease
B. Rheumatic Heart Disease
C. Cardiac Pacemakers
D. Hypertensive Heart Disease
25. Biopsy of a clinically suspicious lesion is negative. The

most appropriate treatment is:
A. Tell patient no malignancy
B. Repeat the biopsy
C. Observe the patient for twelve months
D. Observe the patient for three months
26. Disease characterized by insidious onset and by an absolute

increased in number of circulating RBCs and in total blood
volume?
A. Leukopenia
B. Osler's disease
C. Mediterranean disease
D. Aplastic anemia
27. Tubular (Canalicular) adenoma occurs on:

A. Upper lip
B. Palate
C. Lower lip
D. Gingiva
28. Alveolitis sicca dolorosa is otherwise known as:
A. Trigeminal neuralgia
B. Sicca syndrome
C. Dry socket
D. Myospherulosis
29. A radiograph of the mandibular anterior teeth in a patient

reveals radiolucencies above the apices of right lateral and
central incisors. No restorations or cavities are present. There
is no pain or swelling and the pulps are vital. The diagnosis is:
A. Periapical granuloma
B. Cementoblastoma
C. Radicular cyst
D. Chronic abscess
30. Endocarditis prophylaxis is recommended during following

dental procedures except:
A. Dental extractions
B. Initial placement of orthodontic brackets
C. Intracanal endodontic treatment
D. Periodontal procedures
31.Forensic Identification utilizes:

A. Lip prints
B. Lip Schutz bodies
C. Lip pits
D. Lip reading
32. Radiographs of a 40 years old female revealed radiolucent
areas around several of her mandibular teeth, all which tested
vital on the electric pulp tester, These area represent?
A. Multiple granulomas
B. Periapical osteofibroses
C. Chronic periapical abscesses
D. Bone hypoplasia’s associated with opalescent teeth
33. Feature of acanthosis nigricans is?

A. Insulinoma, obesity & cutaneous hypopigmentation
B. Insulin resistance, obesity, cutaneous hyperpigmentation
C. Thickening of spinous layer, insulin resistance, obesity
D. Thickening of spinous layer insulin resistance, lean
KEY TO CORRECTION (Miscellaneous of Oral Pathology and

Medicine)
1. A 11. B 21. A 31. A
2. B 12. A 22. B 32. B
3. D 13. B 23. D 33. B
4. C 14. A 24. B
5. D 15. B 25. B
6. D 16. D 26. B
7. A 17. A 27. A
8. B 18. D 28. C
9. D 19. A 29. B
10. C 20. A 30. B
and Microbiology (Oral Pigmentation)
1. Acquired, symmetric hyper pigmentation of the sun exposed skin

of the face & neck which is strongly associated with pregnancy &
use of oral contraceptives is called as:
A. Melanoma
B. Cafe-au-lait-spots
C. Freckle
D. Melasma
2. Pink's disease is due to:

A. Toxicity of silver
B. Toxicity of Mercury
C. Toxicity of lead
D. Toxicity of Tetracycline
3. Cafe-au-lait spots on the skin are characteristic of:

A. Addison’s disease
B. Peutz-Jeghers syndrome
C. Von recklinghausen disease
D. Hyper pituitarism
4. Green discoloration of teeth is seen in:

A. Tetracycline therapy Fluorosis
B. Fluorosis
C. Erythroblastosis fetalis
5.In Peutz-Jeghers syndrome, the oral lesions are:

A. Ulcerations of oral mucosa
B. Sebaceous glands of oral mucosa
C. Silver pigmentation of oral mucosa
6. A patient showing brownish pigmentation and with normal

laboratory findings may be suffering from:
A. Addison's disease
C. Neuro fibromatosis
7. Green stains which occur frequently in children are due to:

A. Enamel deficiency
B. Dentin deficiency
C. Material alba
D. Chromogenic bacteria
8. Disease which increase oral melanin pigmentation:

A. Addison’s disease
B. Hyperthyroidism
C. Nephritis
D. All of the above
9. The most common intraoral location for a pigmented nevi is

the:
A. Hard palate
B. Soft palate
C. Buccal mucosa
D. Floor of mouth
10. Melanin pigmentation in pregnancy is known as:

A. Melasma
B. Melanoma
C. Epulis
D. Melanosis
11. The common site of melanoma on the orofacial skin is:

A. Lower lip
B. Malar region
C. Forehead
D. Upper lip
12. Yellowish discoloration of oral mucous membrane, skin and
sclera of eye is:
B. Sickle cell anemia
C. Chloromycin therapy
D. Carotenemia
13. All of the following are seen in lead poisoning except:

A. Hallucinations
B. GIT disturbances
C. Peripheral neuritis
D. Encephalitis
14. Mucocutaneous circumoral pigmentation is found in:

A. Peutz-Jeghers syndrome
B. Plummer-Vinson syndrome
C. Lead poisoning
D. Bechet's syndrome
15. Tetracycline stains appear as:

A. Yellow and brown stains in enamel and dentin
B. Yellow and brown stains only in enamel
C. Yellow and brown stains only in dentin
D. Only yellow stain in enamel
16. Port wine stains are seen in:

A. Nevus
B. Hemangioma
C. Melanoma
D. All of the above
17. Patient reports with discolored teeth bearing brown stains.

The teeth glow fluorescent in UV light. The most likely diagnosis
is:
A. Porphyria
B. Amelogenesis imperfecta
C. Hutchinson's teeth
D. Tetracycline staining of teeth
18. Yellowish discoloration of teeth is seen in children fed on:

A. High-protein diet
B. Tetracyclines
C. Penicillin
D. Erythromycin
19. The pigment associated with hemochromatosis is:
A. Bilirubin
B. Hemosiderin
C. Methemoglobin
D. Myoglobin
KEY TO CORRECTION (Oral Pigmentation)

1. D 11. B
2. B 12. D
3. C 13. A
4. C 14. A
5. D 15. A
6. C 16. B
7. D 17. D
8. A 18. B
9. A 19. B
10. A
and Microbiology (Development Disturbances)
1. Static bone cyst is a cyst developing from:

A. Infection of Salivary gland in the mandible
B. Tissue of the odontogenic apparatus
C. Tissue of the oral mucosa
2. A 6-year-old patient with extra cusp on maxillary central

incisor is associated with all except:
A. Mohr's syndrome
B. Sturge-Weber Syndrome
C. Rubinstein Taybi Syndrome
D. Proteus Syndrome
3. A 4-year-old child with one tooth less than the normal

dentition shows large tooth with two crowns and two root canals,
the anomaly is:
A. Dilaceration
B. Fusion
C. Gemination
D. Concrescence
4. The cyst which is found within the bone at the junction of the
globular process, the lateral nasal process & maxillary process
is:
A. Naso-alveolar cyst
B. Globulomaxillary cyst
C. Naso palatine cyst
D. Mid palatine cyst
5. The cyst located at the junction of medial nasal process,
lateral nasal process and maxillary process is:
A. Globulomaxillary cyst
B. Median palatine cyst
C. Nasopalatine cyst
D Nasoalveolar cyst
6. The torus mandibular is most commonly seen in the region of:

A. Incisor region
B. Canine region
C. Molar region
D. Premolar region
7.Dentinal union of two embryologically developing teeth is
referred as:
A. Gemination
B. Twinning
C. Concrescence
D. Fusion
8.Which one of the following is the cause of dilacerations?

A. Trauma to the tooth germ during root development
B. Abnormal displacement of tooth germ during root development
C. Abnormal proliferation of enamel epithelium during tooth
development
D. Abnormal displacement of ameloblasts during tooth formation
9. Taurodontism is usually seen in:

A. Mesiodens
B. Incisor with talon/cusp
C. Mandibular first molar
D. Maxillary premolars
10. Large pulp chambers are characteristic of all the following

conditions except:
A. Shell teeth
B. Tauradontisam
C. Dentin Dysplasia
D. Dentinogenesis imperfecta
11. The inheritance pattern of dentinogensis imperfecta is:

A. Homozygous
C. Recessive
12. Which of the following teeth is most likely to be

congenitally missing:
A. Maxillary central incisor
B. Mandibular canine
C. Mandibular second premolar
D. Maxillary first premolar
13. In Treacher Collin’s syndrome there is:

A. Upward sloping of the palpebral fissure
B. Poorly developed or absence of malar bones
C. Progenia and mandibular prognathism
D. No loss of hearing
14. A bony hard asymptomatic swelling found on the midline of the
hard palate that appears radiopaque on a radiograph is most
likely a:
A. Odontoma
B. Myxoma
C. Boney cyst
D. Torus palatinus
15. Talon's cusp is characteristic of which syndrome:

A. Edward's syndrome
B. Klinefelter's syndrome
C. Rubinstein Taybi syndrome
D. Down's syndrome
16. Which of the following is unlikely to cause enamel
hypoplasia?
A. Rickets
B. Fluoride
C. Congenital syphilis
D. Cleidocranial dysostosis
17. Shell teeth are more common in this variant of dentinogenesis

imperfect:
A. Type I
B. Type Ill
C. Type II
D. Type III and I
18. The 2nd common most supernumerary teeth is:

A. Mesiodens
B. Distal to 3rd molar in maxilla
C. Distal to mandibular 3rd molar
D. Para molars
19. Epstein Pearls are:

A. Gingival cyst of newborn
B. Gingival cyst of adult
C. Enamel pearls
D. Epithelial rests
20. A 15-year-old boy shows an inverted pear-shaped radiolucency

between the upper central incisors. The teeth are normal in all
aspects The most likely diagnosis is:
A. Globulomaxillary cyst
B. Nasopalatine cyst
C. Aneurysmal cyst
D. Dentigerous cyst
21. In children the most frequently missing permanent teeth are?

A. First premolars
B. Second Premolars
C. Max. lateral incisors
D. Mandibular lateral incisors
22. Epstein pearls are cysts that arise from:

A. Squamous tissue of the mucosa
B. Connective tissue of the mucosa
C. Rests of malassez
D. Dental lamina
23. Median rhomboid glossitis is associated is associated with:

A. Oral cancer
B. fungal infection
C. Leukoplakia
D. Burning sensation of tongue
24. A 4-year-old child has a normal complemented of primary teeth

but they are gray and exhibit extensive occlusal and incisal
wear. Radiographic examination indicates extensive deposits of
secondary dentin in these teeth. Most likely this condition is:
A. Neonatal hypoplasia
B. Amelogenesis imperfecta
25. Geographical tongue, all are true except:
A. Lesions may be Bilaterally symmetrical on tongue
B. No treatment is required
C. Is a precancerous condition
D. Mav he related to emotional stress.
26. Anodontia affects the growth of:

A. Maxilla
B. Mandible
C. Alveolar bone
D. Cranium
27. Which of the following is Fissural cyst?

A. Dentigerous cyst
B. Primordial cyst
C. Nasopalatine cyst
D. Radicular cyst
28. Taurodontism is characterized by:

A. Hypercementosis
B. Elongated wide pulp canals and short roots
C. Obliterated pulp chambers with secondary dentine deposition
D. Rootless teeth with thin shell of enamel
29. Naso-Labial cyst is thought to arise from?

A. Remnants of cell rests of serrae
B. Remnants of cell rests of malassez
C. Remnants of cell rests of embryonic lacrimal duct
D. Maxillary sinus lining epithelium
30. Hairy tongue is characterized by:

A. Hypertrophy of fungiform papilae
B. Hypertrophy of foliate papillae
C. Hypertrophy of filiform papillae
D. Hypertrophy of circumvallate papillae
31. Multiple osteomas, multiple polyposis, supernumerary teeth

are found in:
A. Reiter's syndrome
B. Peutz-jeghers syndrome
C. Gardner's syndrome
D. Behcet's syndrome
32. Dental anomaly of teeth associated with defective bone

formation is seen in:
A. amelogenesis imperfecta
B. dentinogenesis imperfecta
C. Odontodysplasia
33. Turners tooth is seen in:

A. enamel hypoplasia due to hypocalcemia
B. enamel hypoplasia due to birth injuries
C. enamel hypoplasia due to congenital syphilis
D. enamel hypoplasia due to local infection or local trauma
34. Bohn's nodules are:

A. Cystic swellings in neonates
B. Cysts associated with soft palate
C. Cysts of gingiva in growing children
D. Warts on the tongue
35. Dentinogenesis imperfecta is:

A. Autosomal dominant
B. Autosomal recessive
C. Sex linked recessive
D. Not a inheritable trait
36. Gardner syndrome does not include:

A. Osteomas
B. Epidermoid cysts
C. Osteosarcoma
D. Impacted permanent teeth
37. Hypoplastic defects in permanent central and lateral incisors

are likely to result due to severe illness or other factors
during:
A. First nine month of life
B. First two years of life
C. First month of life
D. Two or three years of life
38. Fordyce's spots are:

A. Fat tissue embedded in buccal mucosa
B. Red spots
C. Present on the cheek mucosa lateral to angle of the mouth
D. All of the above
39. The most common supernumerary tooth form is:

A. Tuberculated
B. Conical
C. Screw shaped
D. Incisor shaped
40. Absence of pulp chambers is seen in:

A. Craniofacial dysostosis
C. Amelogenesis imperfecta
41. Which of the following lesions does not give blood on

aspiration:
A. Hemangioma
B. Static bone cyst
C. Central giant cell granuloma
D. Aneurysmal bone cyst
42. A deep pit lined by enamel seen in the lingual surface of

Maxillary lateral incisor is most likely to be:
A. Dens in dente
B. Enamel Hypoplasia
C. Talon's cusp
D. Enamel Pearl
43. True generalized microdontia is characterized by:
A. Small teeth with large jaws
B. Small teeth with small jaws
C. Smaller teeth than the normal
D. Large teeth with small jaws
44. A permanent tooth with a local hypoplastic deformity in a

crown is called:
A. Turner's tooth
B. Taurodontism
C. Enameloma
D. Ghost teeth
45. Developing Ameloblasts are effected by the ingestion of high

fluoride content water resulting in:
A. Turners tooth
B. Hutchinson's teeth
C. Mottled enamel
D. Moon's molars
46. Which of the following is a soft tissue cyst which do not

produce any radiographic changes:
A. Nasolabial cyst
C. Mid alveolar cyst
D. Palatine cyst
47. Which of the following features are of nasoalveolar cyst:

A. An avoid shaped radiolucency above the lateral incisor and
canine teeth
B. Erosion of base above lateral incisor and canine teeth
C. An inverted funnel shaped radiolucent lesion above the roots
of lateral incisor and canine teeth
D. A pear shaped radiolucent lesion between roots of lateral
incisor and canine teeth
48. The term dilacerations refers to:

A. A deformity of a tooth consisting of a sharp bend bend in the
root
B. Abrasions on two surfaces of single tooth
C.A root or tooth that is split into two
D.A tooth that is fractured at two or more places
49. A girl suffering from browning of teeth, wearing of enamel

but not cavitory, OPG shows obliteration of pulp with narrowing
of canal & deposition of secondary dentin, she gave the history
that out of her 4 brothers 2 are suffering from the same disease,
She is suffering from:
A. amelogenesis imperfecta
C. Fluorosis
D. Odontodysplasia
50. Failure of descent of thyroid anlage can be seen in the

tongue:
A. In anterior 2/3 of dorsal aspect
B. In posterior 1/3 of dorsal aspect
C. Near the base of tongue close to foramen caecum
D. In anterior 2/3 of inferior surface
51. Geographic tongue is of red colour because of:

A. Infiltration of eosinophils
B. Infiltration of neutrophils
C. Both of the above
52. Developmental enamel defects are most commonly seen in:

A. Primary incisors
B. Primary 2nd molar
C. Permanent incisors
D. Permanent 1st molar
53. Fordyce granules mostly occurs in all of the following area

EXCEPT:
A. Vermilion of the lip
B. Posterior tonsillar pillar
C. Alveolar ridge
D. Palate
54. A 7-year-old child having yellowish discolored spot of

maxillary central incisor. His mother presents a history of
injury to deciduous tooth 3 years back with recurrent infection &
swelling. The diagnosis is:
A. Turners hypoplasia
B. Generalized dental fluorosis
C. Syphilitic hypoplasia
D. Rickets hypomineralization
55. Amelogenesis imperfecta is a disorder of:
A. Ectoderm
B. Mesoderm
C. Endoderm
D. Ecto and Mesoderm
56. Hypodontia is mainly found in all except:

A. Papillion Lefevre syndrome
B. Osteopetrosis
C. Cleidocranial dysostosis
D. Ectodermal dysplasia
57. A child has marked difference of crown, root size, eruption

pattern of left & right side of jaw. The condition is:
A. Crouzan syndrome
B. Hemifacial hypertrophy
C. Cherubism
D. Achondroplasia
58. Marked reduction in amount of dentin, widening of predentin

layer, presence of large area of interglobular dentin and
irregular pattern of dentin is seen in:
A. Hypocalcified dentin
B. Odontodysplasia
C. Dentin dysplasia
59. Brittle bone syndrome is caused by:

A. Improper synthesis of procollagen
B. Polymerisation of collagen
C. Increase osteoclastic activity
D. Increase fibroblastic activity
60. Based on the degree to which apical displacement of the

pulpal floor is seen, Cynodont is the name given to:
A. Hypotaurodont
B. Mesotaurodont
C. Hypertaurodont
D. Normal tooth
61. According to Veau's classification of cleft lip & palate,

isolated cleft palate falls under:
A. Group I
B. Group II
C. Group Ill
D. Group IV
62. Premaxilla-premaxillary cyst:

A. Nasoalveolar cyst
C. Incisive canal
D. Globulomaxillary cyst
63. Cysts associated with vital teeth are:

A. Dentigerous cyst, Globulomaxillary cyst, lateral periodontal
cyst, OKC
B. Dentigerous cyst, Globulomaxillary cyst, radicular cyst
C. Dentigerous cyst OKC, radicular cyst
D. 'B' & 'C'
64. Most common site for meanoticneuroectodermal tumour of

infancy is (MNTI):
A. Maxilla
B. Mandible
C. Ethmoid bone
D. Cervical spine
65. Taurodontism is seen in:

A. Klinefelter's syndrome
B. Sturge weber syndrome
C. Down syndrome
D. Turner syndrome
66. Which of the following is most common development cyst:

A. Nasopalatine cyst
B. Naso-alveolar cyst
C. Globulomaxillary cyst
D. Median palatal cyst
67. The histological appearance of "lava following around

boulders in dentin dysplasia suggests:
A. Attempt to repair the defective dentin
B. Abrupt arrest to dentin formation in crown
C. Abnormal dentin formation in a disorganized fashion
D. Cascades of dentin to form root
68. The most common congenital defect of the face and jaws is:
A. Macrostomia
B. Fetal alcohol syndrome
C. Cleft lip and palate
D. Ectodermal dysplasia
69. Submerged teeth are:

A. Ankylosed teeth
B. Unerupted teeth
C. Impacted teeth
D. Intruded teeth
70. In Hypodontia, the most commonly affected tooth is:

A. Permanent third molar
B. Permanent second premolar
C. Permanent lateral incisor
D. Permanent Canine
71. PARULIS is an inflammatory enlargement seen in:

A. End of sinus tract
B. Extraction Socket
C. Due to irritation from calculus / over hanging restoration
72. Puetz-Jegher syndrome is characterized by:

A. Deafness
B. Multiple supernumerary teeth
C. Multiple intestinal polyps
D. Scleroderma
73. Dense in dente is most commonly seen in:

A. Paramolars
B. Paramolars
C. Lateral incisors
D. Maxillary canine
74. Heck's disease is another name for:

A. Focal epithelial hyperplasia
B. Fibromatosis gingiva
C. Oral melanotic macule
D. Hereditary intestinal polyposis syndrome
75. Which of the following dentitions shows the highest frequency

of occurrence of supernumerary teeth?
A. Maxillary deciduous dentition
B. Maxillary permanent dentition
C. Mandibular deciduous dentition
D. Mandibular permanent dentition
76. Pierre Robin syndrome is associated with:

A. Micrognathia
B. Cleft of the lip and plate
C. Tetrology of fallot
D. Syndactally
77. Which of the following conditions is characterized by

abnormally large pulp chambers?
A. Amelogenesis imperfecta
B. Regional odontodysplasia
C. Dentinogenesis imperfecta
D. Dentinal dysplasia type I
78. Thistle-tube appearance of pulp chamber is a feature of?

A. Coronal dentin dysplasia
B. Regional odontodysplasia
C. Dentinogenesis imperfecta
D. Amelogenesis imperfecta
79. Mulberry molars are characteristic features of?

A. Severe fluorosis
B. Trauma at the time of birth
C. Congenital syphilis
D. Due to chronic suppurative abscess in over lying gingival
tissue
80. Complete obliteration of pulp is seen in all except?

A. Type I dentinogenesis imperfecta
B. Type II dentinogenesis imperfecta
C. Type III dentinogenesis imperfecta
D. Dentin dysplasia
81. Turner's hypoplasia most commonly affects?

A. Deciduous maxillary anteriors
B. Deciduous mandibular anteriors
C. Permanent maxillary anteriors
D. Permanent mandibular anteriors
82. Which of the following is not hereditary?

A. Amelogenesis imperfecta
B. Cleidocranial dysostosis
C. Regional odontodysplasia
83. Odontodysplasia is most common in?

A. Mandibular premolar
B. Mandibular canine
C. Mandibular third molar
D. Maxillary central incisor
84. Hutchinson's incisors are present in:

A. Congenital syphilis
B. Tertiary syphilis
C. Secondary syphilis
D. Acquired syphilis
85. A dens in dente is usually caused by?

A. An abnormal proliferation of pulp tissue
B. Denticle formation within the pulp tissue
C. A deep invagination of the enamel organ during formation
D. A supernumerary tooth bud enclaved within a normal tooth
86. Most commonly submerged tooth is?

A. Mand. Primary 1st moral
B. Mand. Primary 2nd moral
C. Maxi. Primary 1st moral
D. Maxi. Primary 2nd moral
87. A developmental abnormality characterized by the presence of

fewer than the usual number of teeth is:
A. Anodontia
B. Oligodontia
C. Microdontia
D. Dens is dente
88. Which of the following dental sequel is likely in child with

a history of generalized growth failure (failure to thrive) in
the first 6 month of life?
A. Retrusive maxilla
B. Enamel hypoplasia
C. Retrusive Mandible
89. Delayed eruption of at least part of dentition is a

recognized feature of all of the following except?
A. Rickets
B. Congenital hyperthyroidism
D. Cherubism
90. Bifid tongue a congenital anomaly occurs due to non-fusion

of?
A. Tuberculum impar and lateral lingual swellings
B. Hypobranhiral eminence and tuberculum impar
C. The two lateral lingual swellings
D. Some of the above
91. Mottled enamel is due to:

A. Vitamin A deficiency
B. Excess of fluoride
C. Vitamin D deficiency
D. Teratogens
92. Microdontia is most commonly seen affecting:

A. Max. lateral incisor
B. Mand. Second premolar
C. Mand. Central incisor
D. Mand. First premolar
93. A 4-year-old child has less number of teeth and lateral

incisors with bifurcated roots with two root canals is called?
A. Dilaceration
B. Concrescence
C. Fusion
D. Gemination
94. Prolonged administrator of broad spectrum antibiotics results

in the formation of:
A. Black hairy tongue
B. Median rhomboid glossitis
C. Geographic tongue
D. Fissured tongue
95. Fusion of teeth is more common in:
A. Primary dentition
B. Permanent dentition
C. Mixed dentition
96. All are true about supernumerary tooth except?

A. May have resemblance to normal teeth
B. Disto molars doesn't resemble any other tooth
C. Mesiodens is the most common supernumerary tooth
D. More common in mandible
97. False about anodontia?

A. May involve both the deciduous and the permanent dentition
B. In false anodontia tooth doesn't undergo full development
C. May involve a single tooth
D. In total anodontia all teeth are missing
98. Clinical evidence of dentinogenesis imperfecta is?

A. Defective enamel and dentine
B. Defective dentine and obliterated pulp chamber
C. Increased rate of caries
D. Oligodontia
99. Lingual tonsils arise?

A. As developmental anomalies
B. From carcinomatous transformation
C. As a result of hyperplasia
D. Due to repeated trauma in the area
100.Ectopic sebaceous glands in the mouth are called?
A. Linea alba buccalis
B. Heck's disease
C. Lingual verices
D. Fordyce spots
101. Most common missing tooth in the permanent dentition is?

A. Maxillary canine
B. Maxillary first molar
C. Mandibular second premolar
D. Mandibular first molar
102. A patient notices a well demarcated area of depapillation on

his tongue which has been there for as long as he can remember,
The most probable diagnosis?
A. Median rhomboid glossitis
B. Geographic tongue
C. Black hairy tongue
D. Moeller's glossitis
103. Dentinogenesis imperfecta differs from amelogenesis

imperfecta in that, the former is:
A. A hereditary disturbance
B. The result of excessive fluoride ingestion
C. The result of faulty enamel matrix formation
D. Characterized by calcification of pulp chambers and the root
canals of the teeth
104. Ghost teeth is seen in which of the following:

A. Dens is dent
B. RegionaI odontodysplasia
C. Dentin dysplasia
105. Gemination of teeth occur due to:

A. Division of a single tooth bud after calcification
B. Division of a single tooth bud before calcification
C. Fusion of two teeth before calcification
D. Fusion of two teeth after calcification
106. True ankyloglossia occurs as a result of:

A. Union between tongue and floor of mouth
B. Absence of lingual frenum
C. Lingual frenum attached to the tip of tongue
D. Short lingual frenum
107. Teeth that erupt within 30 days of birth are called:

A. Natal teeth
B. Neonatal teeth
C. Primary teeth
D. Prenatal teeth
108. The syndrome which consists of cleft palate micrognathia and

Glossoptosis is known as:
A. Marfan's syndrome
B. Crouzon's syndrome
C. Paget's disease
D. Pierre Robin syndrome
109. Facial edema, cheilitis granulomatosa and a fissured tongue
characterize which of the following syndromes?
A. Frey
B. Melkerson-Rosenthal
C. Teacher Collins
110. Globulomaxillary cyst is:

A. Soft tissue cyst present often between maxillary Lateral
incisor and cuspid teeth
B. Often present between incisor and cuspid teeth but is a bone
cyst
C. A cyst present between the midline of the palate
D. A cyst present in the incisive canal
111. Peg-shaped incisors which taper towards the incisal edge are
typically seen in all of the following conditions EXCEPT:
A. Congenital syphilis
B. Rickets
C. Anhidrotic ectodermal dysplasia
D. Supernumerary teeth
112. A union of the roots of adjacent teeth through the cementum

is referred to as:
A. Concrescence
B. Fusion
C. Gemination
KEY TO CORRECTION (Development Disturbances)
1. D 21. C 41. B 61. B 81. C 101. C
2. D 22. D 42. A 62. D 82. B 102. A
3. B 23. B 43. C 63. A 83. D 103. D
4. B 24. D 44. A 64. A 84. A 104. B
5. D 25. C 45. B 65. A 85. C 105. B
6. D 26. C 46. A 66. A 86. B 106. A
7. D 27. C 47. B 67. D 87. B 107. B
8. A 28. B 48. A 68. C 88. B 108. D
9. C 29. C 49. C 69. A 89. B 109. B
10. D 30. C 50. C 70. A 90. C 110. B
11. B 31. C 51. D 71. A 91. B 111. B
12. C 32. B 52. C 72. C 92. A 112. A
13. B 33. D 53. C 73. C 93. C
14. D 34. A 54. A 74. A 94. A
15. C 35. A 55. A 75. B 95. A
16. D 36. C 56. B 76. A 96. D
17. C 37. A 57. B 77. B 97. B
18. B 38. C 58. B 78. A 98. B
19. B 39. B 59. A 79. C 99. A
20. B 40. B 60. D 80. B 100. B
and Microbiology (Skin and Vesiculobullous Lesions)
1. All of the following lesions may be classified as Odontogenic

Tumors EXCEPT
A. Acanthomatous ameloblastoma
B. Branchial cleft cyst
C. Myxoma
D. Simple ameloblastoma
2. Fish Net pattern is pemphigus vulgaris is seen in which of the

following tests?
A. Direct immunofluorescence
B. Tzanck smear
C. FNAC
D. Histopathology
3. All of the following are inherited disorders of connective

tissue EXCEPT:
A. Alport syndrome
B. Ehlers-Danlos syndrome
C. Marfan syndrome
D. McArdle's disease
4. Xeroderma pigmentosum is characterized by:

A. Autosomal dominant inheritance
B. Inability to repair sunlight induced damage to DNA
C. Irregular accumulation of melanin in the basal cell layer
D. Acanthosis of epithelium with elongation of rete ridges
5. Oral lesion associated with ulcerative colitis?

A. Lichen planus
B. pyostomatitis vegentanus
C. sarcoidosis
D. Dermatitis herpetiformis
6. Ehlers Danlos syndrome is:

A. Autosomal Dominant
B. Autosomal recessive
C. X-linked Dominant
D. X-Linked recessive
7. Cafe au lait macules are seen in:

A. Von Recklinghausen’s neurofibromatosis
B. Albright's syndrome and Bloom's syndrome
C. All of the above
8. Butterfly rash is typically seen in:

A. Herpes simplex
B. Systemic lupus erythematosus
C. Scleroderma
9. Hydropic degeneration of the basal cell of the stratum

germinativum is a feature of:
A.Leukoplakia
B. Lichen planus
C. Syphilis
D. Pemphigus
10. All are diseases of skin except:

A. Erythema multiforme
B. Keratosis follicularis
C. Erythema migrans
D. Psoriasis form lesion
11. Subepithelial vesicles are characteristic all of the

following EXCEPT:
A. Bullous pemphigoid
B. Cicatricial pemphigoid
C. Pemphigus
D. Epidermolysis bullosa acquisita
12. In Cicatricial pemphigold, which antigen is bound by lgG on

the epidermal side of the salt split skin technique:
A. XVII collagen
B. Epiligrin
C. Laminin 5
D. BP antigen 1 & 2
13. Psoralen Ultraviolet A (PUVA) therapy is advised in:

A. Pemphigus vulgaris
B. Aphthous ulcers
C. Carcinoma in situ
D. ANUG
14. Grinspan syndrome is associated with:

A. Leukoplakia
B. Lichen planus
C. Aphthous ulcer
D. Oral submucous fibrosis
15. Multiple pulp stone are seen in:

A. Down's syndrome
B. Ehler's Danlos syndrome
C. Marfan syndrome
D. Apert syndrome
16. Joint erosions are not a feature of:
A. Rheumatoid arthritis
B. Psoriasis
C. Multicentric reticulohistiocytosis
D. Systemic lupus erythematosus
17. Pathologic calcification is seen in:

A. Scleroderma
B. Lichen planus
C. Dystrophic epidermolysis bullosa
18. Ectodermal dysplasia is:

A. Autosomal recessive
C. X-linked dominant
19. The swollen degenerating epithelial cell due to acantholysis
is:
A. Anitschkow cell
B. Tzanck cell
C. Ghost cell
D. Prickle cell
20. Histological clefts in lichen planus are:

A. Civatte bodies
B. Wickham's Striae
C. Max-Joseph spaces
D. Auspitz's sign
21. Which sites are characteristically affected in Stevens-

Johnson syndrome?
A. Liver, spleen, pancreas
B. Conjunctive, genitalia, oral mucosa
C. Oral mucosa, lacrimal apparatus, ears
D. Parotid gland, palate, conjunctive
22. The primary cause of acantholysis in pemphigus vulgaris is:
A. auto immunity
B. Intercellular oedema
C. intra epithelial oedema
D. chronic alcoholism
23. A 3-year-old patient has extensive vesicles on lip, tongue,

oral mucous membrane. After 2-4 days vesicles rupture at followed
by pseudo membrane formation and also some dermal lesions seen
what will be the diagnosis?
A. Herpetic stomatitis
B. EM
C. ANUG
D. Steven-Johnson syndrome
24. Which is a degeneration disorder characterized by atrophic

changes of the deeper structures (e.g. fat, muscle, cartilage &
bone) Involving one side of the face:
A. Scleroderma
B. Parry Romberg syndrome
C. Miescher's syndrome
D. Peutz-Jeghers syndrome
25. Steven-Johnson syndrome involves:

A. Type I hypersensitivity reactions
B. Type II hypersensitivity reactions
C. Type III hypersensitivity reactions
D. Type IV hypersensitivity reactions
26. Mucocutaneous lesions associated with neoplasia:

A. pemphigus vegentans
B. Para pemphigus
C. Paraneoplastic pemphigus
D. familial benign pemphigus
27. Formation of multiple pinpoint bleeding spots on scratching

the skin is characteristic of:
A. pemphigus vulgaris
B. Lupus erythematosus
C. Psoriasis
D. Herpangina
28. Psoriasis is associated with:
A. Geographic tongue
B. Benign median rhomboid glossitis
C. Lupus erythematosus
D. lupus vulgaris
29. Lupus erythematosus is:

A. Reactive lesion
B. Degenerative condition
C. Autoimmune disorder
D. Neoplastic condition
30. Bullae formation after striking an intact skin/mucosal

surface is known as:
A. Tinel's sign
B. Babinski’s sign
C. Nikolsky's sign
D. Chvostek’s sign
31. Primary lesion in lichen planus is:

A. Macule
B. Papule
C. Vesicle
D. Bulla
32. Oral diagnostic features of scleroderma include all of the

following, except:
A. A hard and a rigid tongue
B. Widening of the oral aperture
C. Pseudo ankylosis of the T.M joint
D. Difficulty in swallowing
33. White radiating lines can be observed in case of lesions of:

A. Lichen planus
B. Erythema multiforme
C. Pemphigus
D. Leukoplakia
34. In which of the following disorders a circulating antibody

directed to intercellular cementing substance of stratified
squamous epithelium is observed:
A. Lichen planus
B. Verrucous vulgaris
C. Bullous pemphigoid
D. Pemphigus vulgari
35. Wickham's striae are seen in:

A. Lichen planus
B. Leukoplakia
C. Leukoedema
D. Frythema multiformae
36. Oral ocular and genital lesions are seen in:

A. Erythema multiforma
B. Steven Johnson syndrome
C. SLE
37. Oral lesions are not seen in:

A. Psoriasis
B. Pemphigoid
C. Stevens Johnson syndrome
D. Candidiasis
38. Lichen planus:

A. Can undergo malignant change
B. Treated only by medication
C. Must be excised
D. Is a idiosyncrasy reaction
39. Intra-epithelial bulla are found in:

A. pemphigus
B. Bullous pemphigoid
C. Bullous lichen planus
D. Pemphigoid
40. Which of the following are seen in ectodermal dysplasia?

A. Hyperpyrexia
B. Protuberant lips and frontal bossing
C. Defective or absence of sweat glands
D. Any of the above
41. Fine Needle aspiration biopsy is indicated to diagnose:

A. Traumatic ulcer
B. Pemphigus
C. Necrotic pulp
D. Chronic gingivitis
42. Target lesions are observed in case of:

B. Lichenplanus
C. Pemphigus vulgaris
D. Psoriasis
43. A 60-year-old has got severe bulla and target lesion Which
erythema around halo and genital lesions:
A. Stevens Jhonson syndrome
B. Herpes zoster
C. Herpes simplex
D. Herpangina
44. Erosive lichen planus resembles which of the following:

A. Monilial gingivitis
B. Desquamative gingivitis
C. Herpetic gingivitis
D. Acute ulcerative gingivitis
45. Immunofluorescence is seen at basement membrane as patchy
distribution in:
A. Lichen planus
B. Pemphigus
C. Pemphigoid
46. Immunofluorescence test is positive in:

A. Psoriasis
B. pemphigus vulgaris
C. Lupus erythematosus
D. Scleroderma
E. Both B & C
47. A 40 year old woman report with the complaint of burning

sensation in the mouth. Clinical examination reveals lesions
consisting of radiating white striations in a retiform
arrangement affecting buccal mucosa, tongue, lips & gingiva
bilaterally. An incisional biopsy is suggestive of lichen planus.
The following are different clinical forms of lichen planus
except:
A. Atrophic lichen planus
B. Hypertrophic lichen planus
C. bullous lichen planus
D. Verrucous lichen planus
48. Intraepithelial vacuolation with formation of vesicle or bula

intraepithelially above the basal layer is characteristically
seen in:
A. Candida albicans
C. Pemphigus
D. Lichen planus
49. Lichenoid reactions are mainly due to:

A. intake of certain drugs
B. betel nut chewing
C. cigarette smoking
D. intake of alcohol
50. L.E Cell phenomenon in peripheral blood is seen in:
A. Rheumatic heart disease
B. Infective endocarditis
C. Ischemic heart disease
D. Systemic Lupus Erythematosus
51. Which of the following is inherited as a autosomal dominant

trait?
A. Lichen planus
C. Pemphigus vulgaris
D. White sponge nevus
52. Histopathological study of lichen planus shows:

A. Mixed cellular inflammatory infiltrate
B. Presence of T-lymphocytes predominantly
C. Antiepithelial antibodies
D. Scattered infiltrate with ill-defined lower border
53. Pemphigus is characterized by:

A. Acanthosis
B. Acantholysis
C. Hyperorthokeratosis
D. Hyperparakeratosis
54. In ectodermal dysplasia all of the following structures are

affected except:
A. Hair
B. Nails
C. Teeth
D. Salivary glands
55. Scleroderma involves:

A. Tightening of oral mucosa and periodontal involvement
B. Multiple palmar keratosis
C. Raynaud's phenomenon
D. All of the above
56. Erythema multiforme is:

A. An acute self-limiting disease, of skin and oral mucous
membrane
B. painless vesicular self-limiting disease
C. A viral disease
D. Bacterial infection
57. Darier's disease is associated with:

B. Rickets with involvement of teeth and bones
C. Vitamin A deficiency and involvement of oral epithelium and
skin
D. Diffuse tender ulceration on the palate predominantly
58. Koebner's phenomenon is seen with:
B. Pemphigoid
C. Psoriasis
D. Impetigo
59. Tzanck smear test is used In the diagnosis of:

A. pemphigus
B. ANUG
C. Aphthous disease
D. Lichen planus
60. Unusual extensibility of the tongue is a characteristic

feature of:
A. Epidermolysis bullose
B. Syphilis
C. Darier-White disease
D. Ehlers-Danlos syndrome
61. Which of the following is not a type of lichen planus?

A. Atrophic
B. Hypertrophic
C. Verrucous
D. Erosive
62. A fluid filled elevated lesion of skin is called:

A. Bulla
B. Macule
C. Papule
D. Nodule
63. Grinspan syndrome is associated with:

A. Hypertension, diabetes, lichen planus
B. Oral, ocular, genital lesions
C. Hypertension with oral lesions
D. lemphigus, CHF, diabetes
64. In lichen planus the basal cells which are shrunken with an
eosinophilic cytoplasm and with a pyknotic and fragmented nuclei
are called:
A. Tzanck cells
B. Civatte bodies
C. Donovan bodies
D. Rushton bodies
65. MONRO's abscess are seen in:

A. Pemphigus
B. Lichen planus
C. Leukoplakia
D. Psoriasis
66. Nikolsky's sign in positive in:

A. bullous pemphigus
B. epidermolysis bullosa
C. herpes simplex
D. erythema multiforme
67. Which of the following is absent in Crest syndrome:
A. calcinosis cutis
B. Raynaud's phenomenon
C. Telangiectasis
D. Endocrine disorders
68. Which of the following diseases of the skin is the most

likely to be associated with partial anodontia?
A. erythema multiforme
B. hereditary ectodermal dysplasia
C. Keratosis follicularis
D. lichen planus
69. Antinuclear antibodies are seen in:

A. SLE
B. Systemic sclerosis
C. Morphea
D. All of the above
70. Which of the following is an oral manifestation of lichen

planus?
A. Dentinogenesis imperfecta
B. Fordyce spots
C. White, chalky enamel surface
D. White radiation lines on the buccal mucosa
KEY TO CORRECTION (Skin and Vesiculobullous Lesions)

1. B 11. C 21. B 31. B 41. B 51. D 61. C
2. A 12. A 22. A 32. B 42. A 52. B 62. A
3. D 13. A 23. B 33. A 43. A 53. B 63. A
4. B 14. B 24. B 34. D 44. B 54. B 64. B
5. B 15. B 25. C 35. A 45. C 55. D 65. D
6. A 16. D 26. C 36. B 46. E 56. A 66. A
7. C 17. A 27. C 37. A 47. D 57. C 67. D
8. B 18. D 28. A 38. A 48. C 58. C 68. B
9. B 19. B 29. C 39. A 49. A 59. A 69. A
10. C 20. C 30. C 40. D 50. D 60. D 70. D

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PROFESSIONAL REGULATION COMMISSION

Dentistry Licensure Examination

General and Oral Pathology, General and Oral Microscopic Anatomy

General and Oral Pathology, General and Oral Microscopic Anatomy

1. Multiple bilateral dentigerous cysts are seen in:

2. COC is now called as:

4. The most aggressive and destructive cyst is:

5. Standard treatment of ameloblastoma:

6. The most common odontogenic cyst is:

7. Cyst arising from dental lamina:

9. The Pathogenesis of Periapical Cyst is:

10. A six-year-old child patient has blue-dome shaped swelling in

11. Pindborg tumor arises from:

13. Multiple periapical radiolucencies are seen in:

14. Clear cells are commonly seen in which of the following

15. The epithelium of a dentigerous cyst is:

16. Dentigerous cyst is associated with the following:

17. A patient with ameloblastoma of the jaw can best be treated

18. After entering radiolucent lesion in a 30 years old man

19. Dentigerous cyst is suspected if the follicular space is more

20. Compound odontoma shows:

21. Destructively invasive locally malignant with rare

22. Lesions associated with vital tooth?

23. Treatment for cementoma:

24. A 25-year-old male patient reports with bony expansile

26. Adamantinoma is:

27.Adenomatold odontogenic tumour is most commonly found in:

28. Multiple odontogenic keratocyst are associated with:

29. Which histopathological type of odontogenic keratocyst is

30. A 40-year-old woman has meloblastoma, the histomorphologic

31. Which of the following is wrong about keratocyst:

32. Each of the following cyst is associated with an impacted

33. Keratocyst has all of the following features except:

35. The cyst with highest recurrence rate is:

36. The most ideal expianation for recurrence of odontogenic

37. Unicentric, non-functional, anatomically benign, clinically

38. Radiographic finding in pindborg tumour is:

39. Robinson's classification of ameloblastoma does not include:

40. Primordial cyst develops:

41. Odontogenic keratocyst has the following feature:

42. Dentigerous cyst is likely to cause which neoplasia:

43. One of them is not a true cyst:

44. Which of the following is the most common lesion of the

45. Basal layer in primordial cyst is arranged in the form of:

46. Nodular growth of alveolus is seen in:

47. Which of the following shows the presence of cholesterol

48. The most common odontogenic tumour which occurs in relation

49. Which of the following is an odontogenic tumor?

50. Leisegang rings are found in:

51. Eruption cyst:

52. Botryoid odontogenic cyst is a variant of:

53. Which of the following is a true neoplasm of functional

54. Compound odontoma shows on a radiograph as:

55. Ameloblastoma most frequently occurs in:

56. Bifid ribs, multiple radiolucent lesions of the jaws multiple

General and Oral Pathology, General and Oral Microscopic Anatomy

2. Patient suffering form Eagle's syndrome complains of:

3. The latest drug of the choice in the management in trigeminal

4. Facial paralysis is tested by:

5. Which of the following structures are associated with bells

6. If a patient with Raynaud's disease puts his hand in cold

7. Geniculate neuralgia is caused in the nerve: