ETO Entrance Exam (New)

WELCOME TO MERCHANT NAVY
This book Contains:-
ETO exam Syllabus

Important topics for examination
Interview questions
Psychometric test questions
Electrical engineering sample questions
English
Aptitude (All types)
Sample paper
Engineering study materials
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Electro-Technical Officer (ETO) Entrance Exam
SYLLABUS & IMPORTANT TOPICS
 Principle of Direct and Alternating current and circuits

Production of DC & AC
Concept of frequency and wave form,
Instantaneous maximum and average values
Form factor for sinusoidal wave.
Concept of phase and phase difference.
Concept of resistance, inductance, capacitance.
Power and power factor.
Alternating voltage applied to resistance and inductance in series and RLC
series/parallel circuits.
Practical importance of power factor
Concept of three phase system
Star delta connection, voltage and current relationship.
Sinusoidal steady-state analysis, resonance, basic filter concepts
Thevenin’s, Norton’s, Superposition and Maximum Power Transfer theorems,
 Electronics
 Semi conductors theory
 Pn Junction diodes
 Forward and Reversed Bias
 Principle of working of electronic rectifier
 Full wave and half wave rectifiers
 Zener Diode
 voltage stabilization by Zener diode.
 Amplifiers biasing
 Oscillators and feedback amplifiers
 Transistors
 Thyristors
 Triacs
 Triggering circuits
 Phase control rectifiers
 Bridge converters fully controlled and half controlled
 SCR
 PLC
 Batteries
 Construction of lead acid batteries and S.M.F. batteries
 Battery charging and necessary precautions.
 Electric Fields
 Gauss Theorem
 Electric field and potential due to point, line, plane and spherical charge
distributions
 Ampere’s and Biot-Savart’s laws
 Inductance
 Dielectrics
 Capacitance.
 Electrical Machines
 Synchronous Motor
 Single Phase transformer & three phase transformers
 Armature reaction and commutation
 Starting and speed control of motors
 Starters : Star Delta, DOL, Auto transformer
 Three phase induction motors principles
 Single phase induction motors

 Parallel operation of generators
 Protection and switchgear
 Principles of over-current
 Differential and distance protection
 Solid state relays and digital protection
 Circuit breakers : ACB, VCB, MCB, OCB, SF6,
 Electrical and Electronic Measurements

 Use of multi-meter, ohm meter, megger, earth tester etc.
 Bridges and potentiometers

 Measurement of voltage, current, power, energy and power factor
 Digital voltmeters and multimeters
 ENGLISH
 Sentence Completion
 Grammar
 Vocabulary
 Comprehension
 Verbal Ability
 APTITUDE
 Qualitative reasoning
 Quantitative reasoning
 Abstract reasoning
 Spatial reasoning
 Logical reasoning
 Psychometric Tes

ETO Interview questions
At first they will ask only the Basics… Your introduction and why you
want to join Merchant navy
Hobbies, Family introduction and Basic geography (canals, straits,

name of seas and oceans etc.)
Be prepare with your Final year Project topic. They can ask question
from your project topic.
1. Motors : types, construction, principle of working, application

depending on type, marine application, motor starters (DOL / star
delta / auto-transformer), maintenance (insulation testing / winding
resistance / overhaul).
2. Generator / Alternator : principle, construction, safeties. Brushless
alternator.
3. Marine electrical distribution : basic single line diagram.
4. High voltage (on ships) : Advantages, safeties, PPE.
5. Propulsion. Electric propulsion (basic).
6. Ship’s grounding : insulated neutral, earthed neutral.
7. Various electrical faults : short circuit, open circuit, earth fault.
8. Various measuring instruments: Multimeter, insulation tester,
leakage clamp meters etc.
9. Cables : construction, type, rating. How do you determine which
cable to choose (type / thickness / rating / length) , if you know the
wattage of equipment to be installed, fuse rating and voltage ?
High voltage cables.
10. Semiconductor electronic components : various types, method of
testing of diode / transistor etc.
11. Other topics : PCB, PLC, control tech (PID), frequency control :
VFD, soft starter, transformers, sensors (pressure / temperature /
level)
ETO Entrance exam Book

12. What is a phase? ...
13. What is the difference between shock received due to DC and
that due to AC? ...
14. How will you check a diode with multi meter? ...
15. Why does a motor rotate?
16. What are the functions of choke in the tube light circuit ? ...
17. What is an electric shock? ...
18. What are the conditions that affect the electric shock?

PSYCHOMETRIC TEST
GUIDANCE
AND QUESTIONS

Psychometric Test for Merchant Navy
Merchant navy exam guidance
Psychometric tests are a standard and scientific method used to measure individuals'
mental capabilities and behavioural style. Psychometric tests are designed to
measure candidates' suitability for a role based on the required personality
characteristics and aptitude (or cognitive abilities).
Types of Psychometric Tests

Broadly Psychometric Assessments can be demarcated into the following sub-groups :-
Aptitude and Ability Tests:
They aim to measure an individual’s competence and intellectual capabilities as well as
logical and analytical reasoning abilities. A recruiter might try to predict your future job
performance using these tests. These are further of two types:
Verbal Reasoning
Numerical Reasoning
Personality and Occupational Questionnaires
Psychometric test questionnaires may be divided as follows:
 Personality Tests: Personality-focused psychometric tests evaluate aptitude areas

such as teamwork, decision making, problem-solving, managing stakeholders,
coping with stress and other soft skills to help recruiters gauge the candidate’s
suitability.
 Behavioral Tests: Behavioural psychometric tests evaluate workplace thinking
style, willingness to learn, leadership qualities and other generic personality traits.
Appropriate behavioural tests as per the job role such as sales situational personality
and customer service orientation help select suitable candidates who are more likely
to succeed in the position.
 Leadership Tests: Leadership-based questionnaire is useful during lateral hiring
and evaluates the leadership skills, competencies and other soft skills.
Advantages of using a Psychometric Personality Tests:-

Creating an efficient workforce with employees who can balance the idea of
getting ahead and getting along is ideal for every company. A psychometric test
can reveal candidates who can:
Be a team player

Be punctual and dedicated to work
Show compassion to team members
Contribute towards teamwork
Be open to training requirements
Be honest coupled with a positive attitude
Communicate well with peers and clients
Have strong ambition and career plans
Have good reasoning abilities
The personality assessment of a person is provided based on the Five type of

personality.
Extroversion – Person who is extroverted, talkative, socially confident.
Conscientiousness: Person who is well organized, responsible, hardworking and

achievement-oriented.
Openness To experience: A broad-minded, unconventional, imaginative person

with rich artistic sensitivity.
Agreeableness: A kind, sympathetic, cooperative and warm person.
Emotional Stability: A calm, happy, undisturbed and confident person .
Personality test sample

Sometimes, it is important to shout to make a point
a. a) Strongly agree
b. b) Agree
c. c) Neither agree nor disagree
d. d) Disagree
e. e) Strongly disagree
Answer: e)
Explanation: While shouting may seem like a solution for many, it may not be the right
professional approach in the workplace. Also, a candidate who prefers shouting may not be

the right match for the office culture.
Numeracy test sample

What is the arithmetic mean of the following set of numbers: -5, 12, 24, 46, 60.
a. a) 28
b. b) 30
c. c) 46
d. d) 27.4
Answer: d)
Explanation: (-5 + 12 + 24 + 46 + 60) / 5 = 27.4
Verbal critical reasoning test sample

In the early days, homes were heated using electricity, kerosene or wood. But these
sources are more expensive when compared to solar energy. Though solar energy is an
economical alternative, it can only be used with a restricted number of appliances. Also,
there is the difficulty of obtaining solar energy for heating during winter when it is most
required.
We cannot use solar energy with all appliances
1. True
2. False
3. Cannot say
Answer: True
Explanation: Solar energy can’t be used with all appliances as per the text.
Question : For each statement, choose the response that best

represents your opinion.

Question 1. I prefer to work alone than in a group.
a) True
b) False
Question 2. I enjoy repairing/fixing things.

a) Strongly disagree
b) Disagree
c) Neutral
d) Agree
e) Strongly agree
Question 3. I like managing other people.

a) Strongly disagree
b) Disagree
c) Neutral
d) Agree
e) Strongly agree

Question 4. Which of the following tasks you would most like to do
and which you would least like to do?
a) Design the look of a product
b) Manage someone’s (or a company’s) finances
c) Provide guidelines to other people on how to do things
d) Organise paperwork and make sure everything works in order
The statement you choose to put on top describes the task that you enjoy
doing the most. This works according to preference, meaning that the last
statement describes an activity that you would prefer not to do as compared to
the others. The accurancy of personality and interests tests depends on your
ability to answer honesty as well as thinking about what you like and don't like.
Question 2. Which cube cannot be made based on the unfolded

cube?
Question 3. Which image can be made from the three shapes shown?

WikiJob
The correct answer is C. To find the solution, think about the relative lengths
and widths of the different shapes. Consider the angles and which might fit
together well. Look for any extra or different shapes in answers.
Question :- Rating Statements

You may be asked to rate yourself on a number of phrases or statements. After reading each statement, you would
mark your answer as follows:
Select circle 1 If you strongly disagree with the statement

Select circle 2 If you disagree with the statement
Select circle 3 If you are unsure
Select circle 4 If you agree with the statement
Select circle 5 If you strongly agree with the statement
In the example below, the first statement has been completed; the person has agreed that "I enjoy meeting new
people" is an accurate description of himself or herself. Try rating yourself on the other example questions.
Remember there are no right or wrong answers.
1 I enjoy
meeting new
people.
2 I like helping

people.
3 I sometimes
make
mistakes.
4 I'm easily
disappointed.
5 I enjoy
repairing
things.
Personality Test Sample Questions
Question 1 . Select the option with which you agree the most.
Option a. I get a lot of invitations from friends.
Option b. I have an open mind towards what other people might say.
Question 2. Select the option with which you agree the most.
Option a. I smile at everyone I see.
Option b. I always ask for a bill (cash memo) when I buy stuff.
Option a. I often regret my decisions.
Option b. Doing multiple things at one time can be fun.
Option a. I make a schedule to study for my exams.
Option b. I am uncomfortable interacting with the opposite sex.
Option a. I like to decorate my room.
Option b. I am very polite and respectful to everyone I meet.
Option a. I often regret the decisions made by me.

Option b. Doing multiple things at one time can be pretty stressful.
Question 7. I don’t mind asking questions if I don’t understand what the other person is saying.
a. Very Inaccurate
b. Somewhat Inaccurate
c. Neither accurate nor inaccurate
d. Somewhat Accurate
e. Very Accurate
Question 8. I look for proof before believing in anything.
a. Very Inaccurate
b. Somewhat Inaccurate
c. Neither accurate nor Inaccurate
d. Somewhat Accurate
e. Very Accurate
Question 9. Please, read the statement and indicate whether you agree or disagree with it: I am the
kind of person who sees the big picture, focusing less on the small details
● Agree ● Disagree
Question 10. I do not fear taking risk in any situation. ● Very inaccurate ● somewhat inaccurate ●
Neither inaccurate nor accurate ● Somewhat accurate ● very accurate
Question 11. I consider myself to be a deep thinker ● Very inaccurate ● somewhat inaccurate
● Neither inaccurate nor accurate ● Somewhat accurate ● very accurate
Question 12. I have no problem in giving attention to know about the others mental state. ● Very
inaccurate ● somewhat inaccurate ● Neither inaccurate nor accurate ● Somewhat accurate ● very
accurate
Question 13. I make a proper plant my task and try to work through it ● Very inaccurate ● somewhat
inaccurate ● Neither inaccurate nor accurate ● Somewhat accurate ● very accurate
Question 14. Select the option with which you agree the most ● I lack the energy to initiate any new
activity ● I believe people may not feel comfortable in my company

Question 15. Select the option with which you agree the most ● I prefer to pay my bills on time ● I have
to face the audience, I do not lose my confidence
Question 16. Select the option with which you agree the most
● People nowadays cannot be trusted ● I am someone who is hard to be amused
Question 17. Select the option with which you agree the most ● I believe in making judgements based
solely on reasons ● I enjoy solving riddles and puzzles
Question 18. Select the option with which you agree the most ● What others think of me bothers me a
lot ● I do not find working with abstract ideas interesting
Question 19. Select the option with which you agree the most ● Given a chance I would definitely like to
be centre of attraction ● I prefer to take time before reaching a conclusion
Question 20. Select the option with which you agree the most ● I do not feel comfortable in loud music
● It is very easy to satisfy me
Question 21. Select the option with which you agree the most ● I think twice before I utter something
before people ● I seek answers which are straight forward and not complex
Question 23. Select the option with which you agree the most ● I keep myself out of philosophical talks
● I like to live every moment in excitement
● I have a huge tendency to rush into things ● I panic very easily
Question 25. Select the option with which you agree the most ● I love attending large parties ● I am a
kind of person who is not very easy to satisfy
Question 26. Select the option with which you agree the most ● I like keeping my social circle small ● I
eat a bit too much even when I am not hungry
Question 27. Select the option with which you agree the most ● I am comfortable with the way I am ● I
would like to work following every single rule.
Question 28. Select the option with which you agree the most ● I never behave unpredictable ● I do not
let take others advantage of my being polite to them
Question 29. Select the option with which you agree the most ● I do not care about neatness and
cleanliness ● I find myself busy in more than one activity at a time
Question 30. I keep taking major decisions on hold ● Very inaccurate ● somewhat inaccurate ● Neither
inaccurate nor accurate ● Somewhat accurate
● very accurate
Question 31. I sometimes tend to think impractically ● Very inaccurate ● somewhat inaccurate ●

Question 32. I take decisions based on accurate knowledge for other than guessing ● Very inaccurate ●
somewhat inaccurate ● Neither inaccurate nor accurate ● Somewhat accurate ● very accurate
Question 33. I find it very difficult to adjust myself in changing environment ● Very inaccurate ●
Question 34. I like doing only routine work ● Very inaccurate ● somewhat inaccurate ● Neither
inaccurate nor accurate
● Somewhat accurate ● very accurate
Question 35. I blame myself when things don't go in the planned way ● Very inaccurate ● somewhat
Question 36. Select the option with which you agree the most ● I find myself to be inventive ● I get
concerned thinking about well being of other people
Question 37. Select the option with which you agree the most ● I set goals which are realistic ● I make
efforts to maintain associations with people
Question 38. Select the option with which you agree the most ● I would like to be in a leadership
position ● I have sufficient resources to cope with stress
Question 39. Select the option with which you agree the most ● I am not too conscious about the way I
look ● I tried to get my work done efficiently
Question 40. Select the option with which you agree the most ● I do not Envy successful people
● I tend to indulge in thorough processing of information
Question 41. Select the option with which you agree the most ● I am good in expressing myself
gesturally ● I do not complain to things not given to me immediately
Question 42. Select the option with which you agree the most ● I do not fine visiting museums
interesting ● I look out for ways of finding faults in others
Question 43. Select the option with which you agree the most ● I lose my important documents ● I can
be sometimes unsympathetic and remain aloof from others
Question 44. Select the option with which you agree the most ● I end up being kind and considerate to
almost every people ● I do not like to pass a smile every time I meet a known person
Question 45. Select the option with which you agree the most ● I have very few artistic interests ● I can
sometimes be quite disorganised
Question 46. I can sometimes be careless ● Very inaccurate ● somewhat inaccurate ● Neither
inaccurate nor accurate ● Somewhat accurate ● very accurate
Question 47. I See myself as someone who does not get upset easily ● Very inaccurate ● somewhat

Question 48. Select option which you agree the most ● I tend to think highly of myself ● People have an
opinion about me of being distracted
Question 49. Select option which you agree the most ● I think too much about an embarrassing incident
● I would not like to go very deep in any work
Question 50. Select option which you agree the most ● I show interest in new and innovative things ● I
can make others work according to me
Question 51. Select option which you agree the most ● I feel lonely very often ● I do not like doing tasks
which require a lot of concentration
Question 52. I tend to become very anxious when my exams are nearby ● Very inaccurate ● somewhat
inaccurate ● Neither inaccurate nor accurate
Question 53. Making plans in the last moment is always very successful ● Very inaccurate ● somewhat
Question 54. I am a kind of person who readily changes opinion ● Very inaccurate ● somewhat
Question 55. Select the option which you agree the most ● I hardly feel guilty ● When angry I drive very
fast
Question 56. Select the option which you agree the most ● I do not apologize easily ● I enjoy making fun
of others
Question 57. Select the option which you agree the most ● I see myself as a complaint person ● I see
myself as a mild mannered and forgiving person
Question 58. I tried to keep cool in every situation ● Very inaccurate ● somewhat inaccurate ● Neither
inaccurate nor accurate ● Somewhat accurate ● very accurate
Question 59. I am bad in striking conversation with others ● Very inaccurate ● somewhat inaccurate ●
Question 60. I generally avoid making detailed plans and programs ● Very inaccurate ● somewhat
Question 61. Given an option I would choose to live in my comfort zone ● Very inaccurate ● somewhat
Question 62. Select the option which you agree the most ● I always worry that I make commit mistake
in my work ● I let things work at their own speed

Question 63. Select the option which you agree the most ● I see myself as organised and disciplined ● I
see myself as curious and innovative
Question 64. Select the option which you agree the most ● Taking blame for others deed is not my trait
● I lack the urge to visit new places
Question 65. Select the option which you agree the most ● Whenever I can I seek to avoid conflicts ●
My interest are a wide variety
Question 66. I preferred to be unnoticed and out of line light ● Very inaccurate ● somewhat inaccurate
Question 67. I find it difficult to adjust to a new situation ● Very inaccurate ● somewhat inaccurate ●
Neither inaccurate nor accurate
Question 68. Mostly after doing a work I regret it later ● Very inaccurate ● somewhat inaccurate ●
Question 69. Select the option with which you agree the most ● I cannot always think about the
consequences of my work ● I don't mind putting pressure on people to get the work done
Question 70. Select the option with which you agree the most ● I never fail to show keen concerns for
others ● I always Excel in things I take up for work
Question 71. I see myself as someone who values the nature's beauty ● Very inaccurate ● somewhat
Question 72. Select option with which you agree the most ● I usually hold back myself song expressing
my view points ● I make efforts to understand myself
Question 73. Select the option with which you agree the most ● I see myself as someone who is
assertive and does not fear to take charge ● I do not get easily bothered about things
Question 74. Select the option with which you agree the most ● Others regard me as a very modest
person ● I will prefer quietly over reading a book over going to party
Question 75. I easily become interested for thrilling activities ● Very inaccurate ● somewhat inaccurate
Question 76. I am unable to sleep without having sleeping pills ● Very inaccurate ● somewhat
Question 77. I feel no shame in washing and ironing clothes to help my mother ● Very inaccurate ●
somewhat inaccurate ● Neither inaccurate nor accurate
Question 78. While helping others I believe that others will also be equally helpful ● Very inaccurate ●

Question 79. Select the option with which you agree the most ● I find it difficult to mix in groups ● I
easily get upset
Question 80. Select the option with which you agree the most ● I leave my belongings here and there ● I
am not easily disturbed
Question 81. Select the option with which you agree the most ● As soon as I get a task, I complete it
right away ● I do not consider switching over jobs
Question 82. Select the option with which you agree the most ● I do not think much before taking an
action ● I find it easy to adapt in any environment
● My belief can be deceptive ● I consider myself to be lazy while doing work
Question 84. Select the option with which you agree the most ● I make use of various techniques to
improve my performance ● Achieving high standards is my goal
Question 85. Select the option with which you agree the most ● I am able to tolerate any amount of
stress ● I do not like getting attention
Question 86. Select the option with which you agree the most ● I want to have control over situations ●
I work very hard for my exams
Question 87. Select the option with which you agree the most ● Others see me as a person of full
curiosity ● I usually plan my every activity
Question 88. Select the option with which you agree the most ● Learning good manners serves as an
integral component to me ● I see myself as a trustworthy person
Question 89. Select the option with which you agree the most ● I share a comfortable relationship with
almost every person ● I do not mind cooperating with others
● I hardly can be rude to others ● I work following only my inner self
Question 91. Select the option with which you agree the most ● I want to experience a lot of adventure
in my life ● I am a dutiful person
Question 92. Select the option with which you agree the most ● I prefer to be led by others than to lead
myself ● Solving very complex problems is fun for me
Question 93. Select the option with which you agree the most ● I very rarely get irritated ● I want to
spread joy and happiness
Question 94. Select the option with which you agree the most ● I have a habit of eating too much at a

time ● I do not have problem working under pressure
Question 95. Select the option with which you agree the most ● I am always full of energy ● I like to
work on familiar things than on novel ones
Question 96. Select the option with which you agree the most ● I always find myself busy ● I show a
high preference to be alone
● I am a person who doesn't need much time to make friends ● I like to take things easy
Question 98. Select the option with which you agree the most ● Friends share their problems with me ●
I am very attached to norms and rules of ancestors
Question 99. I always look for ways to question authority ● Very inaccurate ● somewhat inaccurate ●
Question 100. I am confident in my own capabilities ● Strongly disagree ● Disagree ● Neither ● Agree ●
Strongly agree
Question 101. I prefer working in a harmonious team ● Strongly disagree ● Disagree ● Neither ● Agree
● Strongly agree
Question 102. I like to think of myself as being supportive and helpful ● Strongly disagree ● Disagree ●
Neither ● Agree ● Strongly agree
Question 103. I don't tend to lose my temper easily ● Strongly disagree ● Disagree ● Neither ● Agree ●
Strongly agree
Question 104. I think it is valuable to recognise my own shortcomings ● Strongly disagree ● Disagree ●
Question 105. Building friendships at work is important to me ● Strongly disagree ● Disagree ● Neither
● Agree ● Strongly agree
Question 106. I can cope with high level of stress easily ● Strongly disagree ● Disagree ● Neither ●
Agree ● Strongly agree
Question 107. I often put the needs of others about my own ● Strongly disagree ● Disagree ● Neither ●
Question 108. I am most effective when I am working in a team ● Strongly disagree ● Disagree ● Neither
Question 109. It takes a lot to make me angry ● Strongly disagree ● Disagree ● Neither ● Agree ●
Strongly agree
Question 110. Hi welcome difficult and stretching assignments ● Strongly disagree ● Disagree ● Neither

Question 111. Understanding my own strength is important to me ● Strongly disagree ● Disagree ●

Question 112. I enjoy meeting people from backgrounds very different to my own ● Strongly disagree ●
Disagree ● Neither ● Agree ● Strongly agree
Question 113. I thrive on juggling multiple demands ● Strongly disagree ● Disagree ● Neither ● Agree ●
Strongly agree
Question 114. Creating Team Spirit comes naturally to me ● Strongly disagree ● Disagree ● Neither ●
Question 115. Taking other people's feeling in consideration is important to me ● Strongly disagree ●
Question 116. I am comfortable when faced with uncertainty ● Strongly disagree ● Disagree ● Neither ●
Question 117. I feel positive about myself and my capabilities ● Strongly disagree ● Disagree ● Neither ●
Agree
● Strongly agree
Question 118. I enjoy influencing people to my way of thinking ● Strongly disagree ● Disagree ● Neither
Question 119. Empathizing with others comes easily to me ● Strongly disagree ● Disagree ● Neither ●
Question 120. I remain calm even in tense situations ● Strongly disagree ● Disagree ● Neither ● Agree ●
Strongly agree
Question 121. I don't like constructive criticism bother me ● Strongly disagree ● Disagree ● Neither ●
Agree
● Strongly agree
Question 122. I very much enjoy working in a team ● Strongly disagree ● Disagree ● Neither ● Agree ●
Strongly agree Question 123. I will adjust my thinking when faced with new information ● Strongly
disagree ● Disagree ● Neither ● Agree ● Strongly agree
Question 124. If I see someone needs help I try to do all I can for them ● Strongly disagree ● Disagree ●
Question 125. I believe I deserve the success I have ● Strongly disagree ● Disagree ● Neither ● Agree ●
Strongly agree
● Question 126. I quickly pick up on others feelings and emotions ● Strongly disagree ● Disagree ●

Question 127. I am usually successful defending my own view point ● Strongly disagree ● Disagree ●
Question 128. I am quick to adapt to new circumstances ● Strongly disagree ● Disagree ● Neither ●
Question 129. I see the funny side when people laugh at my expense ● Strongly disagree ● Disagree ●
Question 130. I feel happiest when I know that I have to I get good service to others ● Strongly disagree
● Disagree ● Neither ● Agree ● Strongly agree
Question 131. I feel assured that I can do what is expected to me ● Strongly disagree ● Disagree ●
Question 132. I tend to be quite a relaxed person ● Strongly disagree ● Disagree ● Neither ● Agree ●
Strongly agree
Question 133. I enjoy convincing others to change their view point ● Strongly disagree ● Disagree ●
Question 134. I adapt easily to change ● Strongly disagree ● Disagree ● Neither ● Agree ● Strongly
agree
Question 135. I love hearing people talk about themselves ● Strongly disagree ● Disagree ● Neither ●
Question 136. I find it easy to get my own point of view across to others ● Strongly disagree ● Disagree
● Neither ● Agree ● Strongly agree
Question 137. I welcome feedback on my performance from others ● Strongly disagree ● Disagree ●
Question 138. I enjoy competitive situations ● Strongly disagree ● Disagree ● Neither ● Agree ●
Strongly agree
Question 139. I Enjoy having variety in my work ● Strongly disagree ● Disagree ● Neither ● Agree ●
Strongly agree
Question 140. I don't feel anxious or tense very often ● Strongly disagree ● Disagree ● Neither ● Agree
● Strongly agree
Question 141. I love hearing about new ideas and innovations ● Strongly disagree ● Disagree ● Neither
Question 142. hitting deadlines is very important to me ● Strongly disagree ● Disagree ● Neither ●

Question 143. I often put the needs of others above my own ● Strongly disagree ● Disagree ● Neither ●
Question 144. I have a wide circle of contacts and friends ● Strongly disagree ● Disagree ● Neither ●
Question 145. I try not to let things get me down ● Strongly disagree ● Disagree ● Neither ● Agree ●
Strongly agree
Question 146. I like to plan my work in advance ● Strongly disagree ● Disagree ● Neither ● Agree ●
Strongly agree
Question 147. I get excited by new theories and abstract ideas ● Strongly disagree ● Disagree ● Neither
Question 148. I enjoy building relationships with all sorts of people ● Strongly disagree ● Disagree ●
Question 149. I tend to get over setbacks very easily ● Strongly disagree ● Disagree ● Neither ● Agree ●
Strongly agree
Question 150. I try to get along with the people I meet ● Strongly disagree ● Disagree ● Neither ● Agree
● Strongly agree
Question 151. I would describe myself as being very curious ● Strongly disagree ● Disagree ● Neither ●
Question 152. I very much enjoy working in a team ● Strongly disagree ● Disagree ● Neither ● Agree ●
Strongly agree
Question 153. It takes a lot to make me angry ● Strongly disagree ● Disagree ● Neither ● Agree ●
Strongly agree
Question 154. I prefer having very challenging goals and tasks ● Strongly disagree ● Disagree ● Neither
Question 155. I have a strong sense of adventure ● Strongly disagree ● Disagree ● Neither ● Agree ●
Strongly agree
Question 156. I like my life to happen at a very fast pace ● Strongly disagree ● Disagree ● Neither ●
Question 157. I remain calm even in tense situations ● Strongly disagree ● Disagree ● Neither ● Agree ●
Strongly agree
Question 158. I am ambitious in all that I do ● Strongly disagree ● Disagree ● Neither ● Agree ● Strongly
agree

Question 159. Empathizing with others comes to me ● Strongly disagree ● Disagree ● Neither ● Agree
● Strongly agree
Question 160. Taking risks comes relatively easily to me ● Strongly disagree ● Disagree ● Neither ●
Question 161. I don't tend to lose my temper easily ● Strongly disagree ● Disagree ● Neither ● Agree ●
Strongly agree
Question 162. I believe that taking care of details is very important ● Strongly disagree ● Disagree ●
Question 163. I like to think of myself as being supportive and helpful ● Strongly disagree ● Disagree ●
Question 164. I'd like to get involved in intellectual debates ● Strongly disagree ● Disagree ● Neither ●
Question 165. I believe the rules are there to be followed ● Strongly disagree ● Disagree ● Neither ●
Question 166. Taking other people's feelings in consideration is important to me ● Strongly disagree ●
Question 167. I tend to be centre of attraction quite often ● Strongly disagree ● Disagree ● Neither ●
Question 168. I value the opinions of others ● Strongly disagree ● Disagree ● Neither ● Agree ● Strongly
agree
Question 169. I am happy to take lead in a group ● Strongly disagree ● Disagree ● Neither ● Agree ●
Strongly agree
Question 170. When I am working from home, I plan our schedule and adhere to it ● Strongly disagree
● Disagree ● Neither ● Agree ● Strongly agree
Question 171. I like to do things I am not supposed to and break the rules ● Strongly disagree ● Disagree
Question 172. I don't hesitate when making decisions ● Strongly disagree ● Disagree ● Neither ● Agree
● Strongly agree
Question 173. After finishing a task I review it in my mind, double checking the quality of work ●
Strongly disagree ● Disagree ● Neither
Question 174. I make a grocery list before going to the store ● Strongly disagree ● Disagree ● Neither ●

Question 175. It takes me some time before I actually get down to work ● Strongly disagree ● Disagree
Question 176. I almost always complete what I started ● Strongly disagree ● Disagree ● Neither ● Agree
● Strongly agree
Question 177. I am good in making sure that small details are not overlooked ● Strongly disagree ●
Disagree ● Neither
Question 178. I work at a pace that allows me to finish work on time ● Strongly disagree ● Disagree ●
Question 179. Sometimes it is hard for me to make a decision ● Strongly disagree ● Disagree ● Neither
Question 180. It's better to be polite and rule obedient rather than being carefree ● Strongly disagree ●
Question 181. I usually keep my feelings to myself ● Strongly disagree ● Disagree

Question 182. Rules are made to be broken ● Strongly disagree ● Disagree ● Neither ● Agree ● Strongly
agree
Question 183. Once I make decision, I feel fairly confident that it's correct. ● Strongly disagree ●
Question 184. I always double check my work to be sure there are no mistakes ● Strongly disagree ●
Question 185. I use a filing system for important documents. ● Strongly disagree ● Disagree
Question 186. I have to be very sick to miss a day of work ● Strongly disagree ● Disagree ● Neither ●
Question 187. I lose my temper quickly but regain composure too quickly. ● Strongly disagree ●
Question 188. I am a rule obedient person ● Strongly disagree ● Disagree ● Neither ● Agree ● Strongly
agree
Question 189. I always keep a lid on my feelings ● Strongly disagree ● Disagree


Electrical engineering
Questions

Contents:
 Current Electricity (Generation, Transmission, Distribution & Utilization)

 Capacitors
 Electromagnetic Induction
 Electrolysis and Storage of Batteries
 Principle of DC and AC current
 DC Generators and DC Motors
 Transformers & Induction Motors
 Alternators
 Semi‐conductors & Electronics
 Measuring Equipment
 Protection and switch gear
 Air conditioning

 

Current Electricity:
Ques 1. The flow of current in solids is due to

a. Electrons
b. Electrons & Ions
c. Atoms
d. Nucleus
Answer: a
Ques 2. Electric current in a wire is the flow of… ................. electrons?

a. Free
b. Valence
c. Bound
d. Loose
Answer: a
Ques 3. Electromotive force in a circuit

a. Causes free electrons to flow
b. Increases the circuit resistance
c. Maintains circuit resistance
d. Is needed to make the circuit complete
Answer: a
Ques 4. The resistance of a material is… ......................... its area of cross section.
a. Directly proportional
b. Independent of
c. Inversely proportional to
d. Equal to
Answer: c
Ques 5. If the length and area of cross section of a wire are doubled, then its resiatnce
a. Becomes 4 times
b. Becomes 6 times
c. Remains same
d. Becomes 2 times
Answer: c
Ques 6. What is the SI unit of specific resistance or resistivity?

a. Ohm – circular per inch

b. Ohm circular per foot
c. Ohm – meter
d. Ohm – centimeter
Answer: c
Ques 7. The temperature coefficient of resistance of conductors is

a. Positive
b. Zero
c. Negative
d. Infinite
Answer: a
Ques 8. The temperature coefficient of resistance of semi‐conductors is

a. Positive
b. Zero
c. Negative
d. Infinite
Answer: c
Ques 9. One commercial unit of energy equals

a. 500 watts – seconds
b. One‐watt hour
c. One Kilo watt hour
d. Ten Kilo watt hour
Answer: c
Ques 10. In gases flow of current is due to

a. Electrons only
b. Positive Ions only
c. Electrons & Positive ions
d. Electrons, Positive ions and negative ions
Answer: d
Ques 11. A 200 w lamp working for 24 hours will consume approximately… ....... units
a. 50
b. 5
c. 24
d. 0.5
Answer: b

Ques 12. A positive charged body has
a. Deficit of electrons
b. Excess of neutrons
c. Excess of electrons
d. Deficit of protons
Answer: a
Ques 13. A negative charged body has

a. Deficit of electrons
b. Excess of neutrons
c. Excess of electrons
d. Deficit of protons
Answer: c
Ques 14. The maximum current rating for a 10 kΩ, 0.5W resistor is
a. 0.707 mA
b. 7.07 mA
c. 14.14 mA
d. 28.28 mA
Answer: b
Ques 15. An electrical lamp consumes 100W power. If the supply voltage is 220V, the energy consumed in
30 minutes is
a. 0.005 kWh
b. 0.05 kWh
c. 0.5 kWh
d. 5 kWh
Answer: b
Ques 16. Out of the following which is an insulating material

a. Copper
b. Gold
c. Silver
d. Paper
Answer: d
Ques 17. The property of a conductor due to which it passes current is called
a. Resistance
b. Reluctance
c. Conductance

d. Inductance
Answer: c
Ques 18. Conductance is reciprocal of

a. Resistance
b. Inductance
c. Reluctance
d. Capacitance
Answer: a
Ques 19. The resistance of a conductor varies inversely as

a. Length
b. Area of cross section
c. Temperature
d. Resistivity
Answer: b
Ques 20. With rise in temperature the resistance of pure metals

a. Increases
b. Decreases
c. First increases then decreases
d. Remains constant
Answer: a
Ques 21. When the temperature of copper wire is increased its resistance is
a. Increased
b. Decreased
c. Constant
d. Zero
Answer: a
Ques 22. An instrument which detects electric current is known as

a. Voltmeter
b. Rheostat
c. Wattmeter
d. Galvanometer
Answer: d
Ques 23. In a circuit, a 33Ω resistor carries a current of 2A. The voltage across the resistor is
a. 33v

b. 66v
c. 80v
d. 132v
Answer: b
Ques 24. Two resistors are said to be connected in series when

a. Same current passes in turns through both
b. Both carry the same value of current
c. Total current equals the sum of branch currents
d. Sum of IR drops equals the applied EMF
Answer: a
Ques 25. Ohm’s law is not applicable to

a. Vacuum tubes
b. Carbon resistors
c. High voltage circuits
d. Circuit with low current densities
Answer: a
Ques 26. Whenever a conductor cuts magnetic flux, an EMF is induced in it. This is known as
a. Coulomb’s law
b. Joule’s law
c. Faraday’s law
d. Ohm’s law
Answer: c
Ques 27. A law that states that the polarity of induced voltage will oppose the change in magnetic flux
causing the induction
a. Joule’s law
b. Faraday’s law
c. Coulomb’s law
d. Lenz’s law
Answer: d
Ques 28. The net electrical charge in an isolated system remains constant. This is known as
a. Law of conservation of charge
b. Coulomb’s first law
c. Coulomb’s 2nd law
d. Law of conservation of energy

Answer: a
Ques 29. Varistors are

a. Insulators
b. Nonlinear resistors
c. Carbon resistors
d. Resistors with zero temperature co‐efficient
Answer: b
Ques 30. Insulating materials have the function of

a. Preventing a short circuit between conducting wire
b. Preventing an open circuit between the voltage source and the load
c. Conducting very large currents
d. Storing very high currents
Answer: a
Ques 31. The rating of a fuse wire is always expressed in

a. Ampere‐hours
b. Ampere‐volts
c. kWh
d. Amperes
Answer: d
Ques 32. The filament of an electrical bulb is made of

a. Carbon
b. Aluminum
c. Tungsten
d. Nickle
Answer: c
Ques 33. A 3Ω resistor having 2A current will dissipate the power of

a. 2 watts
b. 4 watts
c. 6 watts
d. 8 watts
Answer: c
Ques 34. Which of the following statement is true?

a. A galvanometer with low resistance in parallel is a voltmeter
b. A galvanometer with high resistance in parallel is a voltmeter

c. A galvanometer with low resistance in series is an ammeter
d. A galvanometer with high resistance in series is an ammeter
Answer: c
Ques 35. If a parallel circuit is opened in the main line, the current
a. Increases in the branch of the lowest resistance
b. Increases in each branch
c. Is zero in all branches
d. Is zero in the highest resistance branch
Answer: c
Ques 36. If one resistance in a series connection opens, then

a. The current is zero in all other resistances
b. The current is maximum in all other resistances
c. The voltage is zero across the open resistance
d. The voltage is infinite across the open resistance
Answer: a
Ques 37. When resistances are connected in parallel, the total resistance is
a. Less than the smallest resistance in the connection
b. Greater than the smallest resistance in the connection
c. Between the smallest and greatest resistance in the connection
d. Increasing and decreasing depending on the supply voltage
Answer: a
Ques 38. Which factor does not affect resistance?

a. Length
b. Resistivity
c. Cross sectional area
d. Mass
Answer: d
Ques 39. Three 60W bulbs are in parallel across the 60V power line. If one bulb burns open
a. There will be heavy current in the main line
b. Rest of the two bulbs will not light
c. All three bulbs will light
d. The other two bulbs will light
Answer: d

Ques 40. The four bulbs of 40W each are connected in series with a battery across them, which of the
following statement is true
a. The current through each bulb is same
b. The voltage across each bulb is not same
c. The power dissipation in each bulb is not same
d. None of the above
Answer: a
Ques 41. Heat in a conductor is produced on the passage of electric current is due to
a. Reactance
b. Capacitance
c. Impedance
d. Resistance
Answer: d
Ques 42. The insulation on a current carrying conductor is provided

a. To prevent leakage of current
b. To prevent shock
c. Both of above
Answer: c
Ques 43. The thickness of insulation provided on the conductor depends on

a. The magnitude of voltage on the conductor
b. The magnitude of current through the conductor
c. Both of above
Answer: a
Ques 44. Which of the following quantities remain the same in all parts of a series circuit
a. Voltage
b. Current
c. Power
d. Resistance
Answer: b
Ques 45. A 40W bulb is connected in series with a room heater. If now 40W bulb is replaced by 100W bulb,
the heater output will
a. Decrease
b. Increase

c. Remain same
d. Heater will burn
Answer: b
Ques 46. Electric current passing through the circuit produces

a. Magnetic effect
b. Luminous effect
c. Thermal effect
d. Chemical effect
e. All of the above
Answer: e
Ques 47. Resistance of material always decreases if

a. Temperature of material is decreased
b. Temperature of material is increased
c. Number of free electrons becomes more
Answer: c
Ques 48. When electric current passes through a conductor, its temperature rises. This is due to
a. Collision between conduction electrons and atoms
b. The release of conduction electrons from parent atoms
c. Mutual collision between metal atoms
d. Mutual collision between conducting electrons
Answer: a
Ques 49. Two bulbs of 500W and 200W rated at 250V will have resistance ratios as
a. 4:25
b. 25:4
c. 2:5
d. 5:2
Answer: c
Ques 50. A glass rod when rubbed with silk cloth is charged because
a. It takes in proton
b. Its atoms are removed
c. It gives away electrons
d. It gives away positive charge
Answer: c

Ques 51. Two lamps 100W and 40W are connected in series across 230V AC. Which of the following
statement is correct?
a. 100W lamp will glow brighter
b. 40W lamp will glow brighter
c. Both lamps will glow equally bright
d. 40W lamp will fuse
Answer: b
Ques 52. When electric current passes through a bucket full of water, lots of bubbling appears. This
suggests that the type of supply is
a. AC
b. DC
c. Any of above
Answer: b
Ques 53. Bulbs in street lighting are all connected in

a. Parallel
b. Series
c. Series‐parallel
d. End to end
Answer: a
Ques 54. Sparking occurs when a load is switched off because the circuit has high
a. Resistance
b. Inductance
c. Capacitance
d. Impedance
Answer: b
Ques 55. Copper wire of certain lengths and resistance is drawn out to 3 times its length without change in
volume. The new resistance of wire becomes
a. 1/9 times
b. 3 times
c. 9 times
d. Unchanged.
Answer: c
Ques 56. Three identical resistors are first connected in parallel and then in series. The resultant resistance
of the first combination to the second will be

a. 9 times
b. 1/9 times
c. 1/3 times
d. 3 times
Answer: b
Ques 57. Three 6 ohm resistors are connected to form a triangle. What is the resistance between any two
corners?
a. 3/2 Ohm
b. 6 Ohm
c. 4 Ohm
d. 8/3 Ohm
Answer: c

a. Semi‐conductors
b. DC circuits
c. Small resistors
d. High currents
Answer: a
Ques 59. Two copper conductors have equal lengths. The cross sectional area one conductor is four times
that of the other. If the conductor having smaller cross sectional area has a resistance of 40 Ohms
the resistance of the other conductor is
a. 160 Ohms
b. 80 Ohms
c. 20 Ohms
d. 10 Ohms
Answer: d
Ques 60. When current flows through heater coil, it glows. But the supply wire doesn’t glow. Why?
a. Current through supply line flows at lower speed.
b. Supply wire is covered with insulation layer
c. Resistance of heater is more than the supply wire
d. Supply wire is made of superior metal
Answer: c
Ques 61. An open resistor when checked with an Ohm‐meter reads

a. Zero
b. Infinite

c. High but within tolerance
d. Low but not zero
Answer: b
Ques 62. All good conductors have high

a. Conductance
b. Resistance
c. Reluctance
d. Thermal conductivity
Answer: a
Ques 63. A thermistor has

a. Positive temperature coefficient
b. Negative temperature coefficient
c. Zero temperature coefficient
d. Variable temperature coefficient
Answer: b
Ques 64. Conductance : mho ::

a. Resistance : ohm
b. Capacitance : Henry
c. Inductance : farad
d. Lumen : Steradian
Answer: a
Ques 65. The substances which have a large number of free electrons and offer a low resistance are called
(a) insulators
(b) inductors
(c) semi‐conductors
(d) conductors
Answer: d
Ques 66. The property of a conductor due to which it passes current is called
(a) resistance
(b) reluctance
(c) conductance
(d) inductance

Answer: c
Ques 67. With rise in temperature the resistance of pure metals

(a) increases
(b) decreases
(c) first increases and then decreases
(d) remains constant
Answer: a
Ques 68. With rise in temperature the resistance of semi‐conductors

(a) decreases
(b) increases
(c) first increases and then decreases
(d) remains constant
Answer: a
Ques 69. An instrument which detects electric current is known as

(a) voltmeter
(b) rheostat
(c) wattmeter
(d) galvanometer
Answer: d
Ques 70. You have to replace 1500 Q resistor in radio. You have no 1500 Q resistor but have several 1000 Q
ones which you would connect
(a) two in parallel
(b) two in parallel and one in series
(c) three in parallel
(d) three in series
Answer: b
Ques 71. Two resistors are said to be connected in series when

(a) same current passes in turn through both
(b) both carry the same value of current
(c) total current equals the sum of branch currents
(d) sum of IR drops equals the applied e.m.f.

Answer: a
Ques 72. Which of the following statement is true both for a series and a parallel D.C. circuit?
(a) Elements have individual currents
(b) Currents are additive
(c) Voltages are additive
(d) Power are additive
Answer: d
Ques 73. Which is the best conductor of electricity ?

(a) Iron
(b) Silver
(c) Copper
(d) Carbon
Answer: a
Ques 74. The minimum charge on an ion is

(a) equal to the atomic number of the atom
(b) equal to the charge of an electron
(c) equal to the charge of the number of electrons in an atom (#) zero
Answer: b
Ques 75. In a series circuit with unequal resistances

(a) the highest resistance has the most of the current through it
(b) the lowest resistance has the highest voltage drop
(c) the lowest resistance has the highest current
(d) the highest resistance has the highest voltage drop
Answer: d
Ques 76. If a wire conductor of 0.2 ohm resistance is doubled in length, its resistance becomes
(a) 0.4 ohm
(b) 0.6 ohm
(c) 0.8 ohm
(d) 1.0 ohm
Answer: a

Ques 77. A 40 W bulb is connected in series with a room heater. If now 40 W bulb is replaced by 100 W
bulb, the heater output will
(a) decrease
(b) increase
(c) remain same
(d) heater will burn out
Answer: d
Ques 78. In an electric kettle water boils in 10 m minutes. It is required to boil the boiler in 15 minutes,
using same supply mains
(a) length of heating element should be decreased
(b) length of heating element should be increased
(c) length of heating element has no effect on heating if water
(d) none of the above
Answer: a
Ques 79. An electric filament bulb can be worked from

(a) D.C. supply only
(b) A.C. supply only
(c) Battery supply only
(d) All above
Answer: d
Ques 80. If the efficiency of a machine is to be high, what should be low ?

(a) Input power
(b) Losses
(c) True component of power
(d) kWh consumed
(e) Ratio of output to input
Answer: b
Ques 81. When electric current passes through a metallic conductor, its temperature rises. This is due to
(a) collisions between conduction electrons and atoms
(b) the release of conduction electrons from parent atoms
(c) mutual collisions between metal atoms

(d) mutual collisions between conducting electrons
Answer: a
Ques 82. Two bulbs of 500 W and 200 W rated at 250 V will have resistance ratio as
(a) 4 : 25
(b) 25 : 4
(c) 2 : 5
(d) 5 : 2
Answer: c
Ques 83. Whether circuit may be AC. or D.C. one, following is most effective in reducing the magnitude of
the current.
(a) Reactor
(b) Capacitor
(c) Inductor
(d) Resistor
Answer: d
Ques 84. Two lamps 100 W and 40 W are connected in series across 230 V (alternating).
Which of the following statement is correct ?
(a) 100 W lamp will glow brighter
(b) 40 W lamp will glow brighter
(c) Both lamps will glow equally bright
(d) 40 W lamp will fuse
Answer: b
Ques 85. In the case of direct current

(a) magnitude and direction of current remains constant
(b) magnitude and direction of current changes with time
(c) magnitude of current changes with time
(d) magnitude of current remains constant
Answer: b
Ques 86. When electric current passes through a bucket full of water, lot of bubbling is observed. This
suggests that the type of supply is

(a) A.C.
(b) D.C.
(c) any of above two
Answer: b
Ques 87. Which method can be used for absolute measurement of resistances ?
(a) Lorentz method
(b) Releigh method
(c) Ohm’s law method
(d) Wheatstone bridge method
Answer: d

(a) semi‐conductors
(b) D.C. circuits
(c) small resistors
(d) high currents
Answer: a
Ques 89. Which of the following statement is correct?

(a) A semi‐conductor is a material whose conductivity is same as between that of a conductor and
an insulator
(b) A semi‐conductor is a material which has conductivity having average value of conductivity of
metal and insulator
(c) A semi‐conductor is one which con¬ducts only half of the applied voltage
(d) A semi‐conductor is a material made of alternate layers of conducting material and insulator
Answer: a
Ques 90. A rheostat differs from potentiometer in the respect that it

(a) has lower wattage rating
(b) has higher wattage rating
(c) has large number of turns
(d) offers large number of tapping
Answer: b

Ques 91. A thermistor has
(a) positive temperature coefficient
(b) negative temperature coefficient
(c) zero temperature coefficient
(d) variable temperature coefficient
Answer: c
Ques 92. For maximum transfer of power, internal resistance of the source should be
(a) equal to load resistance
(b) less than the load resistance
(c) greater than the load resistance
Answer: a
Ques 93. The circuit has resistors, capacitors and semi‐conductor diodes. The circuit will be known as
(a) non‐linear circuit
(b) linear circuit
(c) bilateral circuit
Answer: a
Ques 94. Application of Norton’s theorem to a circuit yields

(a) equivalent current source and impedance in series
(6) equivalent current source and impedance in parallel
(c) equivalent impedance
(d) equivalent current source
Answer: a
Ques 95. Choose the incorrect statement.

(a) A branch formed by the parallel connection of any resistor R and open circuit has the
characteristic of an open circuit.
(b) A branch formed by the parallel connection of any resistor R and a short circuit has the
characteristic of a short circuit.
(c) A branch formed by the series connection of any resistor R and an open circuit has the
characteristic of an open circuit.

(d) A branch formed by the series connection of any resistor R and a short circuit has the
characteristic of resistor R.
Answer: a
Capacitors:
Ques 1. The charge in the capacitor is stored at the

a. Terminals
b. Plates
c. Dielectric
d. Air
Answer: b
Ques 2. A capacitor is basically constructed of

a. Two conductors separated by a dielectric
b. Two dielectric separated by a conductor
c. Conductors and dielectric
d. Conductors and semi‐conductors
Answer: a
Ques 3. Which component opposes voltage change?

a. Resistor
b. Inductor
c. Capacitor
d. Transistor
Answer: c
Ques 4. Which of the following describes the action of a capacitor?

a. Stores electrical energy
b. Opposes changes in current flow
c. Creates a de‐resistance
d. Converts ac to dc
Answer: a
Ques 5. For parallel capacitors, total charge is

a. The sum of individual charges

b. Equal to the charge of either capacitors
c. Equal to the product of the charges
d. The quotient of the charges
Answer: a
Ques 6. A capacitor is used to

a. Block the current
b. Pass the current
c. Open voltage source
d. Short the voltage source
Answer: a
Ques 7. The distance between the capacitor plates increases two times, then its capacitance
a. Increases two times
b. Increases 4 times
c. Decreases 2 times
d. Decreases 4 times
Answer: c
Ques 8. The area of capacitor plates increases two times, then its capacitance
a. Increases two times
b. Increases 4 times
c. Decreases 2 times
d. Decreases 4 times
Answer: a
Ques 9. The force between two charges is 120 N. If the distance between the charges is doubled, the force
will be
(a) 60 N
(b) 30 N
(c) 40 N
(d) 15 N
Answer: b
Ques 10. The lines of force due to charged particles are

(a) always straight
(b) always curved
(c) sometimes curved

Answer: b
Ques 11. The direction of electric field due +0 positive charge is .

(a) away from the charge
(b) towards the charge
(c) both (a) and (6)
Answer: a
Ques 12. If the sheet of a bakelite is inserted between the plates of an air capacitor, the capacitance will
(a) decrease
(b) increase
(c) remains unchanged
(d) become zero
Answer: b
Ques 13. Which of the following does not generally affect the value of a capacitor?
a. The dielectric material used
b. The surface area of the plates
c. The thickness of the dielectric
d. The voltage applied to the plate
Answer: d
Ques 14. If voltage across the plates of 2F capacitor is increased by 4V, then charge on the plates will
a. Decreases by 2C
b. Increases by 2C
c. Decreases by 4C
d. Increases by 4C
Answer: d
Ques 15. What does a capacitor store?

a. Voltage
b. Charge
c. Circuit
d. Power

Answer: b
Ques 16. For making a capacitor, it is better to select a dielectric having

(a) low permittivity
(b) high permittivity
(c) permittivity same as that of air
(d) permittivity slightly more than that of air
Answer: b
Ques 17. If three 15 uF capacitors are connected in series, the net capacitance is
(a) 5 uF
(6) 30 uF
(c) 45 uF
(d) 50 uF
Answer: a
Ques 18. If three 10 uF capacitors are connected in parallel, the net capacitance is
(a) 20 uF
(b) 30 uE
(c) 40 uF
(d) 50 uF
Answer: b
Ques 19. An electrolytic capacitor can be used for

(a) D.C. only
(b) AC. only
(c) both D.C. as well as A.C.
Answer: a
Ques 20. If A.C. voltage is applied to capacitive circuit, the alternating current can flow in the circuit because
(a) varying voltage produces the charging and dicharging currents
(b) of high peak value
(c) charging current can flow
(d) discharge current can flow
Answer: a

Ques 21. Which of the following statements is correct ?
(a) Air capacitors have a black band to indicate the outside foil
(6) Electrolytic capacitor must be connected in the correct polarity
(c) Ceramic capacitors must be connected in the correct polarity
(d) Mica capacitors are available in capacitance value of 1 to 10 pF
Answer: b
Ques 22. “The total electric flux through any closed surface surrounding charges is equal to the amount
oflcharge enclosed”.
The above statement is associated with
(a) Coulomb’s square law
(b) Gauss’s law
(c) Maxwell’s first law
(d) Maxwell’s second law
Answer: b
Ques 23. Three capacitors each of the capacity C are given. The resultant capacity 2/3 C
can be obtained by using them
(a) all in series
(b) all in parallel
(c) two in parallel and third in series with this combination
(d) two in series and third in parallel across this combination
Answer: c
Ques 1. When capacitors are connected in parallel, the total capacitance is

a. Greater than the largest capacitor
b. Smaller than the largest capacitor
c. Smaller than the smallest capacitor
d. Greater than the smallest capacitor
Answer: a
Ques 24. Which of the following statement is true ?

(a) The current in the discharging capacitor grows linearly
(b) The current in the dicharging capacitor grows exponentially
(c) The current in the discharging capacitor decays exponentially
(d) The current in the discharging capacitor decreases constantly

Answer: b
Ques 25. In a capacitor the electric charge is stored in

(a) metal plates
(b) dielectric
(c) both (a) and (6)
Answer: b
Ques 26. Which of the following statements is incorrect ?

(a) The leakage resistance of ceramic capacitors is generally high
(b) The stored energy in a capacitor decreases with reduction in value of capacitance
(c) The stored energy in a capacitor increases with applied voltage
(d) A wire cable has distributed capacitance between the conductors
Answer: b
Ques 27. The sparking between two electrical contacts can be reduced by inserting a
(a) capacitor in parallel with contacts
(6) capacitor in series with each contact
(c) resistance in line
Answer: a
Ques 28. The power dissipated in a pure capacitor is

(a) zero
(6) proportional to applied voltage
(c) proportional to value of capacitance
(d) both (b) and (c) above
Answer: a
Ques 29. In a capacitive circuit

(a) a steady value of applied voltage causes discharge
(b) an increase in applied voltage makes a capacitor charge
(c) decrease in applied voltage makes a capacitor charge

Answer: b
Ques 30. Capacitance increases with

(a) increase in plate area and decrease in distance between the plates
(b) increase in plate area and distance between the plates
(c) decrease in plate area and value of applied voltage
(d) reduction in plate area and distance between the plates
Answer: a
Ques 31. A capacitor consists of

(a) two insulators separated by a conductor
(b) two conductors separated by an insulator
(c) two insulators only
(d) two conductors only
Answer: b
Ques 32. A capacitor in a circuit became hot and ultimately exploded due to wrong connections, which type
of capacitor it could be ?
(a) Paper capacitor
(b) Ceramic capacitor
(c) Electrolytic capacitor
(d) Any‐of the above
Answer: c
Ques 33. Energy stored in the electric field of a capacitor C when charged from a D.C source of voltage V is
equal to joules
(a) CV2
(b) C2V
(c) CV2
(d) CV
Answer: a
Ques 34. When 4 volts e.m.f. is applied across a 1 farad capacitor, it will store energy of
(a) 2 joules
(b) 4 joules
(c) 6 joules

(d) 8 joules
Answer: d
Ques 35. The capacitor preferred for high frequency circuits is

(a) air capacitor
(b) mica capacitor
(c) electrolytic capacitor
Answer: b
Ques 36. While testing a capacitor with ohm meter, if the capacitor shows charging, but the final resistance
reading is appreciably less than normal, it can be concluded that the capacitor is
(a) short‐circuited
(b) open circuited
(c) alright
(d) leaky
Answer: d
Ques 37. Which of the following capacitors will have the least value of breakdown voltage ?
(a) Mica
(b) Paper
(c) Ceramic
(d) Electrolytic
Answer: d
Ques 38. The value of dielectric constant for vacuum is taken as

(a) zero
(b) 1
(c) 4
(d) 10
Answer: b
Ques 39. Which of the following statements is incorrect ?

(a) The thinner the dielectric, the more the capacitance and the lower the voltage breakdown
rating for a capacitor .

(b) A six dot mica capacitor colour coded white, green, black, red and yellow has the capacitance
value of 500 pF
(c) Capacitors in series provide less capacitance but a higher voltage breakdown rating for the
combination
(d) A capacitor can store charge because it has a dielectric between two conductors
Answer: b
Ques 40. Capacitors are mainly used for radio frequency tuning.
(a) Paper
(b) Air
(c) Mica
(d) Electrolytic
Answer: b
Ques 41. Capacitors are used in transistor circuits.

(a) Ceramic
(b) Paper
(c) Air
(d) Electrolytic
Answer: a
Electromagnetic Induction
Ques 1. The process by which an EMF and hence current is generated in a conductor when there is a
change in the magnetic flux linking the conductor is called?
a. Electromagnetic induction
b. Mutual induction
c. Faraday’s law
d. Electromagnetic interference
Answer: a
Ques 2. The property of coil by which a counter EMF is induced in it when the current through the coil
changes is known as
a. Self‐Inductance

b. Mutual Inductance
c. Series aiding inductance
d. Capacitance
Answer: a
Ques 3. The EMF induced in a coil due to the changing current of another neighboring coil is called
a. Mutually induced EMF
b. Self‐induced EMF
c. Statically induced EMF
d. Dynamically induced EMF
Answer: a
Ques 4. As per Faraday’s laws of electromagnetic induction and EMF is induced in a conductor whenever it
a. Lies perpendicular to the magnetic field
b. Lies in a magnetic field
c. Cuts magnetic flux
d. Moves parallel to the direction of the magnetic field
Answer: c
Ques 5. If current in a conductor increases then according to Lenz’s law, self‐induced voltage will
a. Aid the increasing current
b. Tend to decrease the amount of current
c. Produce current opposite to the increasing current
d. Aid the applied voltage
Answer: c
Ques 6. The direction of Induced EMF can be found by

a. Laplace’s law
b. Lenz’s law
c. Fleming’s right hand rule
d. Kirchhoff’s law
Answer: b
Ques 7. The magnitude of the induced EMF in a conductor depends on the

a. Flux density of the magnetic field
b. Amount of flux cut
c. Amount of flux linkages
d. Rate of change of flux linkages
Answer: d

Ques 8. Which of the following is unit of inductance?
a. Ohm
b. Henry
c. Ampere turns
d. Weber / meter
Answer: b
Ques 9. A coil with negligible resistance has 50V across it with 10 mA. The inductive reactance is
a. 50 ohms
b. 500 ohm
c. 1000 ohm
d. 5000 ohm
Answer: d
Ques 10. Lenz’s law is a consequence of the law of conservation of

a. Induced current
b. Charge
c. Energy
d. Induced EMF
Answer: c
Ques 11. Which circuit element will oppose the change in circuit current?
a. Resistance only
b. Inductance only
c. Capacitance only
d. Inductance and capacitance
Answer: b
Ques 12. The phenomenon of an uncharged body getting charged merely by the nearness of a charged body
is known as
(a) pholoelectric effect
(b) chemical effect
(c) magnetic effect
(d) induction
Answer: d

Electrolysis and Storage of Batteries
Ques 1. During the charging of a lead‐acid cell

(a) its voltage increases
(b) it gives out energy
(c) its cathode becomes dark chocolate brown in colour
(d) specific gravity of H2SO4 decreases
Answer: a
Ques 2. During charging the specific gravity of the electrolyte of a lead‐acid battery
(a) increases
(b) decreases
(c) remains the same
(d) becomes zero
Answer: a
Ques 3. The best indication about the state of charge on a lead‐acid battery is given by
(a) output voltage
(b) temperature of electrolyte
(c) specific gravity of electrolyte
Answer: c
Ques 4. The output voltage of a charger is

(a) less than the battery voltage
(b) higher than the battery voltage
(c) the same as the battery voltage
Answer: b
Ques 5. As compared to constant‐current system, the constant‐voltage system of charging a lead acid cell
has the advantage of
(a) reducing time of charging

(b) increasing cell capacity
(c) both (a) and (b)
(d) avoiding excessive gassing
Answer: c
Ques 6. A dead storage battery can be revived by

(a) adding distilled water
(6) adding so‐called battery restorer
(c) a dose of H2SO4
Answer: d
Ques 7. Trickle charging of a storage battery helps to

(a) maintain proper electrolyte level
(b) increase its reserve capacity
(c) prevent sulphation
(d) keep it fresh and fully charged
Answer: d
Ques 8. In a lead‐acid cell dilute sulfuric acid (electrolyte) approximately comprises the following
(a) one part H2O, three parts H2SO4
(b) two parts H2O, two parts H2SO4
(c) three parts H2O, one part H2SO4
(d) all H2S04
Answer: c
Ques 9. The ampere‐hour efficiency of a leadacid cell is normally between

(a) 20 to 30%
(b) 40 to 50%
(c) 60 to 70%
(d) 90 to 95%
Answer: d
Ques 10. The average charging voltage for alkali cell is about
(a) 1 V

(b) 1.2 V
(c) 1.7 V
(d) 2.1 V
Answer: c
Ques 11. Lead‐acid cell has a life of nearly charges and discharges
(a) 500
(b) 700
(c) 1000
(d) 1250
Answer: d
Ques 12. The internal resistance of a lead‐acid cell is that of Edison cell
(a) less than
(b) more than
(c) equal to
Answer: a
Ques 13. Electrolyte used in a lead‐acid cell is

(a) NaOH
(b) onlyH2S04
(c) only water
(d) dilute H2SO4
Answer: d
Ques 14. The specific gravity of electrolyte is measured by

(a) manometer
(6) a mechanical gauge
(c) hydrometer
(d) psychrometer
Answer: c

Ques 15. When the specific gravity of the electrolyte of a lead‐acid cell is reduced to 1.1 to 1.15 the cell is in
(a) charged state
(b) discharged state
(d) active state
Answer: b
Ques 16. Over charging

(a) produces excessive gassing
(b) loosens the active material
(e) increases the temperature resulting in buckling of plates
(d) all above
Answer: d
Ques 17. Undercharging

(a) reduces specific gravity of the electrolyte
(b) increases specific gravity of the electrolyte
(c) produces excessive gassing
(d) increases the temperature
Answer: a
Ques 18. Internal short circuits are caused by

(a) breakdown of one or more separators
(b) excess accumulation of sediment at the bottom of the cell
Answer: c
Ques 19. On overcharging a battery

(a) it will bring about chemical change in active materials
(b) it will increase the capacity of the battery
(c) it will raise the specific gravity of the electrolyte
(d) none of the above will occur
Answer: d

Ques 20. Each cell has a vent cap
(a) to allow gases out when the cell is on charge
(b) to add water to the cell if needed
(c) to check the level of electrolyte
(d) to do all above functions
Answer: d
Ques 21. Following will occur if level of electrolyte falls below plates
(a) capacity of the cell is reduced
(b) life of the cell is reduced
(c) open plates are converted to lead sulphate
(d) all above
Answer: d
Ques 22. 48 ampere‐hour capacity would deliver a current of

(a) 48 amperes for 1 hour
(b) 24 amperes for 2 hours
(c) 8 amperes for 6 hours
(d) 6 amperes for 8 hours
Answer: d
Ques 23. A 12V battery is rated at 48 AH. If it must deliver an average of 2 A, how long will the battery last
before it needs recharging?
a. 48 Hours
b. 4 Hours
c. 96 Hours
d. 24 Hours
Answer: d
Ques 24. To increase the voltage output, cells are connected in

a. Parallel
b. Series parallel
c. Parallel series
d. Series
Answer: d
Ques 25. Connecting batteries of equal voltage in parallel

a. Multiplies the voltage available
b. Increases the internal resistance
c. Reduces the power available
d. Multiplies the current available
Answer: d
Ques 26. In constant‐current charging method, the supply voltage from discharged to fully charged
condition
(a) decreases
(b) increases
(c) remains constant
Answer: b
Ques 27. In constant voltage charging method, the charging current from discharged to fully charged
condition
(a) decreases
(b) increases
(c) remains constant
Answer: a
Ques 28. Battery charging equipment is generally installed

(a) in well ventilated location
(b) in clean and dry place
(c) as near as practical to the battery being charged
(d) in location having all above features
Answer: d
Ques 29. Following will happen if the specific gravity of electrolyte becomes more than 1.23.
(a) Loss of capacity
(b) Loss of life
(c) Corrosion of the grids of the plate
(d) All above
Answer: d

Ques 30. Cell short circuit results in
(a) low sp. gravity electrolyte
(b) abnormal high temperature
(c) reduced gassing on charge
(d) all above
Answer: d
Ques 31. Internal resistance of a cell is reduced by

(a) using vent plug to permit gas formed during discharge
(b) increasing the plate area
(c) putting plates very close together
(d) all above methods
Answer: d
Ques 32. Capacity of dry cells is

(a) more when it is supplying current for intermittent periods
(b) more when it is supplying current for continuous periods
(c) unaffected by the type of discharge
Answer: a
Ques 33. In a lead‐acid cell, if the specific gravity of sulphuric acid is 1.8, it will require following ratio of acid
to water to get mixture of specific gravity of 1.3
(a) 6 parts of acid to 4 parts of water
(b) 4 parts of acid to 4 parts of water
(c) 4 parts of acid to 6 parts of water
(d) 4 parts of acid to 8 parts of water
Answer: c
Ques 34. Following will happen if battery charging rate is too high
(a) excessive gassing will occur
(b) temperature rise will occur
(c) bulging and buckling of plates will occur
(d) all above will occur

Answer: d
Ques 35. What refers to a method in which the charger and the battery are always connected to each other
for supplying current to the load?
a. Continuous charging
b. Float charging
c. Infinite charging
d. On line charging
Answer: b
Ques 36. If a battery is wrongly connected on charge following will happen

(a) current delivered by the battery will be high
(b) current drawing will be nil
(c) current drawing will be very small
(d) current drawing will be very high
Answer: d
Ques 37. of electrolyte indicates the state of charge of the battery

(a) colour
(b) mass
(c) viscosity
(d) specific gravity
Answer: d
Ques 38. The following indicate that battery on charge has attained full charge
(a) colour of electrode
(b) gassing
(c) specific gravity
(d) all above
Answer: d
Ques 39. Capacity of a battery.is expressed in

(a) Ah
(b) Vh
(c) Wh
(d) kWh

Answer: a
Ques 40. A battery of 6 cells will show a drop of volts from fully charged state to fully discharged
state.
(a) 1.0
(b) 1.5
(c) 2.4
(d) 2.9
Answer: c
Ques 41. Hydrogen evolved during charging produces explosive mixture when it is more than
(a) 2%
(b) 4%
(c) 6%
(d) 8%
Answer: d
Ques 42. While preparing electrolyte for a lead‐acid battery

(a) water is poured into acid
(b) acid is poured into water
(c) anyone of the two can be added to other chemical
Answer: b
Ques 43. Which of the following is incorrect ?

(a) A storage cell has a reversible chemical reaction
(b) A lead‐acid cell can be recharged
(c) A carbon‐zinc cell has unlimited shelf life
(d) A primary cell has an irreversible chemical reaction
Answer: c
Ques 44. When two batteries are connected in parallel, it should be ensured that
(a) they have same e.m.f.
(b) they have same make
(c) they have same ampere‐hour capacity
(d) they have identical internal resistance

Answer: a
Ques 45. Petroleum jelly is applied to the electrical connections to the lead‐acid battery
(a) prevent local heating
(b) prevent short‐circuiting
(c) reduce path resistance
(d) prevent corrosion
Answer: d
Ques 46. Which of the following factors adversely affects the capacity of the lead acid battery?
(a) Temperature of surroundings
(b) Specific gravity of electrolyte
(c) Rate of discharge
(d) All of the above
Answer: d
Principle of AC and DC Current:
Ques 1. According to Kirchhoffs voltage law, the algebraic sum of all IR drops and e.m.fs. in any closed loop
of a network is always
(a) negative
(b) positive
(c) determined by battery e.m.fs.
(d) zero
Answer: d
Ques 2. The concept on which Superposition theorem is based is

(a) reciprocity
(b) duality
(c) non‐linearity
(d) linearity
Answer: d

Ques 3. To determine the polarity of the voltage drop across a resistor, it is necessary to know
(a) value of current through the resistor
(b) direction of current through the resistor
(c) value of resistor
(d) e.m.fs. in the circuit
Answer: b
Ques 4. “Maximum power output is obtained from a network when the load resistance is equal to the
output resistance of the network as seen from the terminals of the load”. The above statement is
associated with
(a) Millman’s theorem
(b) Thevenin’s theorem
(c) Superposition theorem
(d) Maximum power transfer theorem
Answer: d
Ques 5. A star circuit has element of resistance R/2. The equivalent delta elements will be
(a) R/6
(b) fi?
(c) 2R
(d) 4R
Answer: b
Ques 6. The time constant of an R‐C circuit is defined as the time during which capacitor charging voltage
actually rises to percent of its value.
(a) 37, initial
(b) 62, initial
(c) 62, final
(d) 37, final
Answer: c
Ques 7. What will happen to an insulating medium if voltage more than the breakdown voltage is applied
on it ?
(a) It will become magnetic
(b) It will melt
(c) It will get punctured or cracked

(d) Its molecular structure will get changed
Answer: c
Ques 8. The bridge used for the measurement of the value of the capacitance is
(a) Wien’s bridge
(b) Wheatstone bridge
(c) Schering bridge
(d) Hay’s bridge
Answer: c
Ques 9. An uncharged conductor is placed near a charged conductor, then

(a) the uncharged conductor gets charged by conduction
(6) the uncharged conductor gets charged by induction and then attracted towards the charging
body
(c) the uncharged conductor is attracted first and then charged by induction
(d) it remains as such
Answer: b
Ques 10. The reactance offered by a capacitor to alternating current of frequency 50 Hz is 20 Q. If frequency
is increased to 100 Hz, reactance becomes ohms.
(a) 2.5
(b) 5
(c) 10
(d) 15
Answer: c
Ques 11. The form factor is the ratio of

(a) peak value to r.m.s. value
(6) r.m.s. value to average value
(c) average value to r.m.s. value
Answer: b
Ques 12. A heater is rated as 230 V, 10 kW, A.C. The value 230 V refers to
(a) average voltage

(b) r.m.s. voltage
(c) peak voltage
Answer: b
Ques 13. The voltage of domestic supply is 220V. This figure represents
(a) mean value
(b) r.m.s. value
(c) peak value
(d) average value
Answer: a
Ques 14. The power consumed in a circuit element will be least when the phase difference between the
current and voltage is
(a) 180″
(b) 90°
(c) 60°
(d) 0°
Answer: b
Ques 15. The r.m.s. value and mean value is the same in the case of
(a) triangular wave
(6) sine wave
(c) square wave
(d) half wave rectified sine wave
Answer: c
Ques 16. For the same peak value which of the following wave will ‘have the highest r.m.s. value ?
(a) square wave
(b) half wave rectified sine wave
(c) triangular wave
(d) sine wave
Answer: a

Ques 17. Capacitive reactance is more when
(a) capacitance is less and frequency of supply is less
(b) capacitance is less and frequency of supply is more
(c) capacitance is more and frequency of supply is less
(d) capacitance is more and frequency of supply is more
Answer: a
Ques 18. The best place to install a capacitor is

(a) very near to inductive load
(b) across the terminals of the inductive load
(c) far away from the inductive load
(d) any where
Answer: b
Ques 19. The ratio between the active power and apparent power of a load in an AC circuit is called
a. Quality factor
b. Power factor
c. Power ratio
d. Power reactive
Answer: b
Ques 20. When the power factor of a circuit is zero

a. Power absorbed is maximum
b. Power absorbed is minimum
c. Power absorbed is zero
d. The impedance is minimum
Answer: c
Ques 21. Poor power factor

(a) reduces load handling capability of electrical system
(b) results in more power losses in the electrical system
(c) overloads alternators, transformers and distribution lines
(d) results in more voltage drop in the line
(e) results in all above
Answer: e

Ques 22. In series resonant circuit, increasing inductance to its twice value and reducing capacitance to its
half value
(a) will change the maximum value of current at resonance
(6) will change the resonance frequency
(c) will change the impedance at resonance frequency
(d) will increase the selectivity of the circuit
Answer: d
Ques 23. Pure inductive circuit

(a) consumes some power on average
(b) does not take power at all from a line
(c) takes power from the line during some part of the cycle and then returns back to it during other
part of the cycle
Answer: c
Ques 24. Inductance of a coil Varies

(a) directly as the cross‐sectional area of magnetic core
(b) directly as square of number of turns
(c) directly as the permeability of the core
(d) inversely as the length of the iron path
(e) as (a) to (d)
Answer: e
Ques 25. Power factor of an inductive circuit is usually improved by connecting capacitor to it in
(a) parallel
(b) series
(c) either (a) or (b)
Answer: a
Ques 26. Power factor of the following circuit will be zero

(a) resistance
(b) inductance
(c) capacitance

(d) both (b) and (c)
Answer: d
Ques 27. Power factor of the following circuit will be unity

(a) inductance
(b) capacitance
(c) resistance
(d) both (a) and (b)
Answer: c
Ques 28. Power factor of the system is kept high

(a) to reduce line losses
(b) to maximise the utilization of the capacities of generators, lines and transformers
(c) to reduce voltage regulation of the line
(d) due to all above reasons
Answer: d
Ques 29. In a loss‐free R‐L‐C circuit the transient current is

(a) oscillating
(b) square wave
(c) sinusoidal
(d) non‐oscillating
Answer: c
Ques 30. The double energy transient occur in the

(a) purely inductive circuit
(b) R‐L circuit
(c) R‐C circuit
(d) R‐L‐C circuit
Answer: d
Ques 31. The power factor at resonance in R‐L‐ C parallel circuit is

(a) zero
(b) 0.08 lagging
(c) 0.8 leading

(d) unity
Answer: d
Ques 32. In a pure resistive circuit

(a) current lags behind the voltage by 90°
(b) current leads the voltage by 90°
(c) current can lead or lag the voltage by 90°
(d) current is in phase with the voltage
Answer: d
Ques 33. In a pure inductive circuit

(a) the current is in phase with the voltage
(b) the current lags behind the voltage by 90°
(c) the current leads the voltage by 90°
(d) the current can lead or lag by 90°
Answer: b
Ques 34. In a circuit containing R, L and C, power loss can take place in
(a) C only
(b) L only
(c) R only
(d) all above
Answer: c
Ques 35. Inductance of coil

(a) is unaffected by the supply frequency
(b) decreases with the increase in supply frequency
(c) increases with the increase in supply frequency
(d) becomes zero with the increase in supply frequency
Answer: c
Ques 36. Time constant of an inductive circuit

(a) increases with increase of inductance and decrease of resistance
(b) increases with the increase of inductance and the increase of resistance
(c) increases with the decrease of inductance and decrease of resistance

(d) increases with decrease of inductance and increase of resistance
Answer: a
Ques 37. Time constant of a capacitive circuit

(a) increases with the decrease of capacitance and decrease of resistance
(b) increases with the decrease of capacitance and increase of resistance
(c) increases with the increase of capacitance and decrease of resistance
(d) increase with increase of capacitance and increase of resistance
Answer: d
Ques 38. Magnitude of current at resonance in R‐L‐C circuit

(a) depends upon the magnitude of R
(b) depends upon the magnitude of L
(c) depends upon the magnitude of C
(d) depends upon the magnitude of R, Land C
Answer: a
Ques 39. In a R‐L‐C circuit

(a) power is consumed in resistance and is equal to I R
(b) exchange of power takes place between inductor and supply line
(c) exchange of power takes place between capacitor and supply line
(d) exchange of power does not take place between resistance and the supply line
(e) all above are correct
Answer: e
Ques 40. Which of the following coil will have large resonant frequency ?
(a) A coil with large resistance
(b) A coil with low resistance
(c) A coil with large distributed capacitance
(d) A coil with low distributed capacitance
Answer: c
Ques 41. In an AC. circuit, a low value of kVAR compared with kW indicates
(a) low efficiency
(b) high power factor

(c) unity power factor
(d) maximum load current
Answer: b
Ques 42. All definitions of power factor of a series R‐L‐C circuit are correct except
(a) ratio of net reactance and impedance
(b) ratio of kW and kVA
(c) ratio of J and Z
(d) ratio of W and VA
Answer: a
Ques 43. The apparent power drawn by an A.C. circuit is 10 kVA and active power is 8 kW. The reactive
power in the circuit is
(a) 4 kVAR
(b) 6 kVAR
(c) 8 kVAR
(d) 16 kVAR
Answer: b
Ques 44. What will be the phase angle between two alternating waves of equal frequency, when one wave
attains maximum value the other is at zero value ?
(a) 0°
(b) 45°
(c) 90°
(d) 180°
Answer: c
Ques 45. In an A.C. circuit power is dissipated in

(a) resistance only
(b) inductance only
(c) capacitance only
Answer: a

Ques 46. In a parallel R‐C circuit, the current always the applied voltage
(a) lags
(b) leads
(c) remains in phase with
Answer: b
Ques 47. The power is measured in terms of decibles in case of

(a) electronic equipment
(b) transformers
(c) current transformers
(d) auto transformers
Answer: a
Ques 48. Capacitive susceptance is a measure of

(a) reactive power in a circuit
(b) the extent of neutralisation of reactive power in a circuit
(c) a purely capacitive circuit’s ability to pass current
(d) a purely capacitive circuit’s ability to resist the flow of current
Answer: c
Ques 49. A parallel AC. circuit in resonance will

(a) have a high voltage developed across each inductive and capacitive section
(b) have a high impedance
(c) act like a resistor of low value
(d) have current in each section equal to the line current
Answer: b
Ques 50. The inductance of a coil can be increased by

(a) increasing core length
(b) decreasing the number of turns
(c) decreasing the diameter of the former
(d) choosing core material having high relative permeability
Answer: d

Ques 51. In a three‐phase supply floating neutral is undesirable because it way give rise to
(a) high voltage across the load
(b) low voltage across the load
(c) unequal line voltages across the load
Answer: c
Ques 52. The r.m.s. value of half wave rectified sine wave is 200 V. The r.m.s. value of full wave rectified AC.
will be
(a) 282.8 V
(b) 141.4 V
(c) 111 V
(d) 100 V
Answer: a
Ques 53. The frequency of an alternating current is

(a) the speed with which the alternator runs
(b) the number of cycles generated in one minute
(c) the number of waves passing through a point in one second
(d) the number of electrons passing through a point in one second
Answer: c
Ques 54. An A.C. voltage is impressed across a pure resistance of 3.5 ohms in parallel with a pure
inductance of impedance of 3.5 ohms,
(a) the current through the resistance is more
(b) the current through the resistance is less
(c) both resistance and inductance carry equal currents
Answer: c
Ques 55. In a pure inductive circuit if the supply frequency is reduced to 1/2, the current will
(a) be reduced by half
(b) be doubled
(c) be four times as high
(d) be reduced to one fourth
Answer: b

Ques 56. In a pure capacitive circuit if the supply frequency is reduced to 1/2, the current will
(a) be reduced by half
(b) be doubled
(c) be four times at high
(d) be reduced to one fourth
Answer: a
Ques 57. In each of the three coils of a three phase generator, an alternating voltage having an r.m.s. value
of 220 V is induced. Which of the following values is indicated by the voltmeters ?
(a) 220 V
(b) 220V3V
(c) 220/V3 V
Answer: a
DC Generators and DC Motors:
Ques 1. According to Fleming’s right‐hand rule for finding the direction of induced e.m.f., when middle
finger points in the direction of induced e.m.f., forefinger will point in the direction of
(a) motion of conductor
(b) lines of force
(c) either of the above
Answer: b
Ques 2. In D.C. generators, the cause of rapid brush wear may be

(a) severe sparking
(b) rough commutator surface
(c) imperfect contact
(d) any of the above
Answer: d

Ques 3. For a D.C. generator when the number of poles and the number of armature conductors is fixed,
then which winding will give the higher e.m.f. ?
(a) Lap winding
(b) Wave winding
(c) Either of (a) and (b) above
(d) Depends on other features of design
Answer: b
Ques 4. In a four‐pole D.C. machine

(a) all the four poles are north poles
(b) alternate poles are north and south
(c) all the four poles are south poles
(d) two north poles follow two south poles
Answer: b
Ques 5. In case of D.C. machines, mechanical losses are primary function of

(a) current
(b) voltage
(c) speed
(d) none of above
Answer: c
Ques 6. In D.C. generators, current to the external circuit from armature is given through
(a) commutator
(b) solid connection
(c) slip rings
(d) none of above
Answer: a
Ques 7. Brushes of D.C. machines are made of

(a) carbon
(b) soft copper
(c) hard copper
(d) all of above
Answer: a

Ques 8. In case of a 4‐pole D.C. generator provided with a two layer lap winding with sixteen coils, the pole
pitch will be
(a) 4
(b) 8
(c) 16
(d) 32
Answer: b
Ques 9. D.C. generators are connected to the busbars or disconnected from them only under the floating
condition
(a) to avoid sudden loading of the primemover
(b) to avoid mechanicaljerk to the shaft
(c) to avoid burning of switch contacts
(d) all above
Answer: d
Ques 10. Eddy currents are induced in the pole shoes of a D.C. machine due to
(a) oscillating magnetic field
(b) pulsating magnetic flux
(c) relative rotation between field and armature
(d) all above
Answer: c
Ques 11. The function of pole shoes in the case of D.C. machine is
(a) to reduce the reluctance of the mag¬netic path
(b) to spread out the flux to achieve uniform flux density
(c) to support the field coil
(d) to discharge all the above functions
Answer: d
Ques 12. Which of the following statement about D.C. generators is false ?
(a) Compensating winding in a D.C. machine helps in commutation
(b) In a D. C. generator interpoles winding is connected in series with the armature winding
(c) Back pitch and front pitch are both odd and approximately equal to the pole pitch
(d) Equilizing bus bars are used with parallel running of D.C. shunt gen¬erators

Answer: d
Ques 13. The demagnetising component of armature reaction in a D.C. generator

(a) reduces generator e.m.f.
(b) increases armature speed
(c) reduces interpoles flux density
(d) results in sparking trouble
Answer: a
Ques 14. Compensating windings are used in D.C. generators

(a) mainly to reduce the eddy currents by providing local short‐circuits
(b) to provide path for the circulation of cooling air
(c) to neutralise the cross‐magnetising effect of the armature reaction
Answer: c
Ques 15. In a D.C. generator the ripples in the direct e.m.f. generated are reduced by
(a) using conductor of annealed copper
(b) using commutator with large number of segments
(c) using carbon brushes of superior quality
(d) using equiliser rings
Answer: c
Ques 16. The e.m.f. generated by a shunt wound D.C. generator isE. Now while pole flux remains constant,
if the speed of the generator is doubled, the e.m.f. generated will be
(a) E/2
(b) 2E
(c) slightly less than E
(d) E
Answer: b
Ques 17. For the parallel operation of two or more D.C. compound generators, we should ensure that
(a) voltage of the incoming generator should be same as that of bus bar
(b) polarity of incoming generator should be same as that of bus bar
(c) all the series fields should be run in parallel by means of equilizer connection
(d) series fields of all generators should be either on positive side or negative side of the armature

(e) all conditions mentioned above should be satisfied
Answer: d
Ques 18. In a D.C. generator the number of mechanical degrees and electrical degrees will be the same
when
(a) r.p.m. is more than 300
(b) r.p.m. is less than 300
(c) number of poles is 4
(d) number of poles is 2
Answer: d
Ques 19. The e.m.f. generated in a D.C. generator is directly proportional to

(a) flux/pole
(b) speed of armature
(c) number of poles
(d) all of the above
Answer: b
Ques 20. In a D.C. generator in order to reduce sparking at brushes, the self‐induced e.m.f. in the coil is
neutralised by all of the following except
(a) interpoles
(b) dummy coils
(c) compensating winding
(d) shifting of axis of brushes
Answer: b
Ques 21. The following constitute short‐circuit in the armature winding.

(a) Insulation failure between two commutator bars
(6) Insulation failure between two turns of a coil
(c) Two of more turns of the same coil getting grounded
(d) All of the above
Answer: d
Ques 22. If residual magnetism is present in a D.C. generator, the induced e.m.f. at zero speed will be
(a) zero

(b) small
(c) the same as rated voltage
(d) high
Answer: a
Ques 23. Armature reaction in a generator results in

(a) demagnetisation of leading pole tip and magnetisation of trailing pole tip
(b) demagnetisation of trailing pole tip and magnetisation of leading pole tip
(c) damagnetising the center of all poles
(d) magnetising the center of all poles
Answer: a
Ques 24. The critical resistance of the D.C. generator is the resistance of
(a) field
(b) brushes
(c) armature
(d) load
Answer: a
Ques 25. The terminal voltage of a series generator is 150 V when the load current is 5 A. If the load current
is increased to 10 A, the terminal voltage will be
(a) 150 V
(b) less than 150 V
(c) greater than 150 V
Answer: c
Ques 26. The open circuit voltage of a compound generator is 250 V. At full load the terminal voltage
(a) will be less than 250 V
(b) will always be 250 V
(c) may be greater or less than 250 V
Answer: c

Ques 27. In a D.C. generator the critical resistance can be increased by
(a) increasing its field resistance
(b) decreasing its field resistance
(c) increasing its speed
(d) decreasing its speed
Answer: c
Ques 28. The direction of rotation of a D.C. series motor can be changed by
(a) interchanging supply terminals
(b) interchanging field terminals
(c) either of (a) and (b) above
(d) None of the above
Answer: b
Ques 29. Which D.C. motor will be preferred for machine tools ?
(a) Series motor
(b) Shunt motor
(c) Cumulative compound motor
(d) Differential compound motor
Answer: b
Ques 30. Starters are used with D.C. motors because

(a) these motors have high starting torque
(b) these motors are not self‐starting
(c) back e.m.f. of these motors is zero initially
(d) to restrict armature current as there is no back e.m.f. while starting
Answer: d
Ques 31. Main advantage of DC motor is

a. It is cheap
b. It provides fine speed control
c. It is simple in construction
d. It has no replacement
Answer: b

Ques 32. In D.C. shunt motors as load is reduced
(a) the speed will increase abruptly
(b) the speed will increase in proportion to reduction in load
(c) the speed will remain almost/constant
(d) the speed will reduce
Answer: c
Ques 33. If a D.C. motor is connected across the A.C. supply it will
(a) run at normal speed
(b) not run
(c) run at lower speed
(d) burn due to heat produced in the field winding by .eddy currents
Answer: d
Ques 34. The back EMF in a DC motor

a. Opposes the applied voltage
b. Aids the armature current
c. Aids the supplied voltage
d. Opposes the armature current
Answer: a
Ques 35. Back EMF in a DC motor is maximum at

a. No load
b. Half full load
c. Full load
d. ¾ full load
Answer: a
Ques 36. A motor takes a large current at starting because

a. The armature resistance is high
b. Beck EMF is low
c. Back EMF is high
d. Shunt filed is producing weak field
Answer: b
Ques 37. When the speed of a DC motor increases, its armature current
a. Increases
b. Remains same
c. Decreases
d. Becomes infinite

Answer: c
Ques 38. The armature of a DC machine is made of

a. Silicon steel
b. Cast steel
c. Wrought iron
d. Soft iron
Answer: c
Ques 39. The armature of a DC machine is laminated in order to reduce

a. Eddy current loss
b. Copper loss
c. Hysteresis loss
d. Frictional loss
Answer: a
Ques 40. A series motor will over speed when

a. The load is increased
b. The armature circuit is open
c. The field is opened
d. Load is removed
Answer: d
Ques 41. What will happen if the back e.m.f. of a D.C. motor vanishes suddenly?
(a) The motor will stop
(b) The motor will continue to run
(c) The armature may burn
(d) The motor will run noisy
Answer: c
Ques 42. In case of D.C. shunt motors the speed is dependent on back e.m.f. only because
(a) back e.m.f. is equal to armature drop
(b) armature drop is negligible
(c) flux is proportional to armature current
(d) flux is practically constant in D:C. shunt motors
Answer: d

Ques 43. By looking at which part of the motor, it can be easily confirmed that a particular motor is D.C.
motor?
(a) Frame
(b) Shaft
(c) Commutator
(d) Stator
Answer: c
Ques 44. The starting resistance of a D.C. motor is generally

(a) low
(b) around 500 Q
(c) 1000 Q
(d) infinitely large
Answer: a
Ques 45. The speed of a D.C. series motor is

(a) proportional to the armature current
(b) proportional to the square of the armature current
(c) proportional to field current
(d) inversely proportional to the armature current
Answer: d
Transformers and Induction Motors:
Ques 1. A transformer will work on

a. AC only
b. AC as well as DC
c. DC only
d. Pulsating DC
Answer: a
Ques 2. When the primary of a transformer is connected to a DC supply

a. The primary draws small current

b. Primary reactance is increased
c. Core losses are increased
d. Primary may burn out
Answer: d
Ques 3. A transformer will have zero efficiency at

a. Full load
b. Half load
c. No load
d. Twice the full load
Answer: c
Ques 4. The voltage per turn of the primary of a transformer is… ........... the voltage per turn of the
secondary
a. More than
b. Same as
c. Less than
d. Twice
Answer: b
Ques 5. The winding of the transformer with greater number of turns will be
a. High voltage winding
b. Low voltage winding
c. Either high or low voltage winding
d. High power
Answer: a
Ques 6. The number of parallel paths in a simplex lap winding is equal to

a. 2
b. Number of poles
c. Number of pair poles
d. 1
Answer: b
Ques 7. In a simplex wave winding the number of parallel paths is equal to

a. Number of poles
b. 2
c. Number of pair poles
d. 1

Answer: b
Ques 8. In a lap winding, the number of brushes required are equal to

a. Number of poles
b. Commutator pitch
c. Number of pair of poles
d. Number of coils
Answer: a
Ques 9. For the same rating, a DC machine has….............. an AC machine

a. The same as
b. Less weight than
c. More weight than
d. Half the weight than
Answer: c
Ques 10. If the capacitor of a single‐phase motor is short‐circuited

(a) the motor will not start
(b) the motor will run
(c) the motor will run in reverse direction
(d) the motor will run in the same direction at reduced r.p.m.
Answer: a
Ques 11. The running winding of a single phase motor on testing with meggar is found to be ground. Most
probable location of the ground will be
(a) at the end connections
(b) at the end terminals
(c) anywhere on the winding inside a slot
(d) at the slot edge where coil enters or comes out of the slot
Answer: d
Ques 12. Direction of rotation of a split phase motor can be reversed by reversing the connection of
(a) running winding only
(b) starting winding only
(c) either (a) or (b)
(d) both (a) and (b)
Answer: c

Ques 13. In squirrel cage induction motors, the rotor slots are usually given slight skew in order to
(a) reduce windage losses
(b) reduce eddy currents
(c) reduce accumulation of dirt and dust
(d) reduce magnetic hum
Answer: d
Ques 14. In case the air gap in an induction motor is increased

(a) the magnetising current of the rotor will decrease
(b) the power factor will decrease
(c) speed of motor will increase
(d) the windage losses will increase
Answer: b
Ques 15. Slip rings are usually made of

(a) copper
(b) carbon
(c) phospor bronze
(d) aluminium
Answer: c
Ques 16. A 3‐phase 440 V, 50 Hz induction motor has 4% slip. The frequency of rotor e.m.f. will be
(a) 200 Hz
(b) 50 Hz
(c) 2 Hz
(d) 0.2 Hz
Answer: c
Ques 17. In Ns is the synchronous speed and s the slip, then actual running speed of an induction motor will
be
(a) Ns
(b) s.N,
(c) (l‐s)Ns
(d) (Ns‐l)s
Answer: c

Ques 18. The starting torque of a squirrel‐cage induction motor is
(a) low
(b) negligible
(c) same as full‐load torque
(d) slightly more than full‐load torque
Answer: a
Ques 19. Star‐delta starting of motors is not possible in case of

(a) single phase motors
(b) variable speed motors
(c) low horse power motors
(d) high speed motors
Answer: a
Ques 20. An induction motor with 1000 r.p.m. speed will have
(a) 8 poles
(b) 6 poles
(c) 4 poles
(d) 2 poles
Answer: b
Ques 21. Which of the following methods is easily applicable to control the speed of the squirrel‐cage
induction motor ?
(a) By changing the number of stator poles
(b) Rotor rheostat control
(c) By operating two motors in cascade
(d) By injecting e.m.f. in the rotor circuit
Answer: a
Ques 22. It is advisable to avoid line‐starting of induction motor and use starter because
(a) motor takes five to seven times its full load current
(b) it will pick‐up very high speed and may go out of step
(c) it will run in reverse direction
(d) starting torque is very high
Answer: a

Ques 23. In a three‐phase induction motor, the number of poles in the rotor winding is always
(a) zero
(b) more than the number of poles in stator
(c) less than number of poles in stator
(d) equal to number of poles in stator
Answer: d
Ques 24. DOL starting of induction motors is usually restricted to

(a) low horsepower motors
(b) variable speed motors
(c) high horsepower motors
(d) high speed motors
Answer: a
Ques 25. The speed of a squirrel‐cage induction motor can be controlled by all of the following except
(a) changing supply frequency
(b) changing number of poles
(c) changing winding resistance
(d) reducing supply voltage
Answer: c
Ques 26. Slip of an induction motor is negative when

(a) magnetic field and rotor rotate in opposite direction
(b) rotor speed is less than the synchronous speed of the field and are in the same direction
(c) rotor speed is more than the synchronous speed of the field and are in the same direction
Answer: c
Ques 27. A 3‐phase induction motor stator delta connected, is carrying full load and one of its fuses blows
out. Then the motor
(a) will continue running burning its one phase
(b) will continue running burning its two phases
(c) will stop and carry heavy current causing permanent damage to its winding
(d) will continue running without any harm to the winding
Answer: a

Ques 28. A 3‐phase induction motor delta connected is carrying too heavy load and one of its fuses blows
out. Then the motor
(a) will continue running burning its one phase
(b) will continue running burning its two phase
(c) will stop and carry heavy current causing permanent damage to its winding
(d) will continue running without any harm to the winding
Answer: c
Ques 29. A change of 4% of supply voltage to an induction motor will produce a change of appromimately
(a) 4% in the rotor torque
(b) 8% in the rotor torque
(c) 12% in the rotor torque
(d) 16% in the rotor torque
Answer: d
Ques 30. An induction motor can run at synchronous speed when

(a) it is run on load
(b) it is run in reverse direction
(c) it is run on voltage higher than the rated voltage
(d) e.m.f. is injected in the rotor circuit
Answer: d
Ques 31. In an induction motor if air‐gap is increased

(a) the power factor will be low
(b) windage losses will be more
(c) bearing friction will reduce
(d) copper loss will reduce In an induction motor
Answer: a
Ques 32. The torque of an induction motor is

(a) directly proportional to slip
(b) inversely proportional to slip
(c) proportional to the square of the slip
Answer: a

Ques 33. Synchronous motors are generally not self‐starting because
(a) the direction of rotation is not fixed
(b) the direction of instantaneous torque reverses after half cycle
(c) startes cannot be used on these machines
(d) starting winding is not provided on the machines
Answer: b
Ques 34. In case one phase of a three‐phase synchronous motor is short‐circuited the motor will
(a) not start
(b) run at 2/3 of synchronous speed
(c) run with excessive vibrations
(d) take less than the rated load
Answer: a
Ques 35. A three‐phase synchronous motor will have

(a) no slip‐rings
(b) one slip‐ring
(c) two slip‐rings
(d) three slip‐rings
Answer: c
Ques 36. Under which of the following conditions hunting of synchronous motor is likely to occur ?
(a) Periodic variation of load
(b) Over‐excitation
(c) Over‐loading for long periods
(d) Small and constant load
Answer: a
Ques 37. The power developed by a synchronous motor will be maximum when the load angle is
(a) zero
(b) 45°
(c) 90°
(d) 120°
Answer: c

Ques 38. The synchronous motor is not inherently self‐starting because
(a) the force required to accelerate the rotor to the synchronous speed in an instant is absent
(b) the starting device to accelerate the rotor to near synchronous speed is absent
(c) a rotating magnetic field does not have enough poles
(d) the rotating magnetic field is produced by only 50 Hz frequency currents
Answer: a
Ques 39. Synchronous motor always runs at

(a) the synchronous speed
(b) less than synchronous speed
(c) more than synchronous speed
Answer: a
Ques 40. The back e.m.f. of a synchronous motor depends on

(a) speed
(b) load
(c) load angle
Answer: c
Ques 41. A synchronous motor has better power factor as compared to that of an equivalent induction
motor. This is mainly because
(a) synchronous motor has no slip
(b) stator supply is not required to produce magnetic field
(c) mechanical load on the rotor remains constant
(d) synchronous motor has large airgap
Answer: b
Ques 42. When the voltage applied to a synchronous motor is increased, which of the following will reduce
?
(a) Stator flux
(b) Pull in torque
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) None of the above

Answer: d
Ques 43. A synchronous machine with large air gap has

(a) a higher value of stability limit
(6) a small value of inherent regulation
(c) a higher synchronizing power which makes the machine less sensitive to load variations
Answer: d
Ques 44. The angle between the rotating stator flux and rotor poles is called angle.
(a) torque
(b) obtuse
(c) synchronizing
(d) power factor
Answer: a
Ques 45. Which of the following methods is used to start a synchronous motor ?
(a) Damper winding
(b) Star‐delta starter
(c) Damper winding in conjunction with star‐delta starter
(d) Resistance starter in the armature circuit
Answer: c
Ques 46. An important advantage of a synchronous motor over wound round induction motor is that
(a) its power factor may be varied at will
(b) its speed is independent of supply frequency
(c) its speed may be controlled more easily
Answer: a
Ques 47. Power factor of a synchronous motor is unity when

(a) the armature current is maximum
(b) the armature current is minimum
(c) the armature current is zero
Answer: b

Ques 48. If one‐phase of a 3‐phase synchronous motor is short‐circuited, motor
(a) will refuse to start
(b) will overheat in spots
(c) will not come upto speed
(d) will fail to pull into step
Answer: a
Ques 49. The speed of a synchronous motor

(a) increases as the load increases
(b) decreases as the load decreases
(c) always remains constant
Answer: c
Alternators:
Ques 1. The speed of a 4 ples 60 Hz synchronous machine will be

a. 1800 rpm
b. 2400 rpm
c. 3000 rpm
d. 3600 rpm
Answer: a
Ques 2. The formula for speed of synchronous machine in rpm is given by

a. 120f/p
b. 120p/f
c. p/120fp
d. 120fp
Answer: a
Ques 3. In an alternator the voltage generated per phase is proportional to

a. Number of turns in coil
b. Flux per pole
c. Frequency of wave form
d. All of the above
Answer: d

Ques 4. In huge alternators, the moving part is
a. Brushes
b. Poles
c. Armature
Answer: b
Ques 5. Alternators are usually designed to generate

a. Definite currents
b. Definite power factor
c. Variable frequencies
d. Definite frequencies
Answer: d
Ques 6. The dark and bright lamp method is used for

a. Transfer of load
b. Synchronizing
c. Balancing of load
d. Phase sequence
Answer: b
Ques 7. When the speed of an alternator increases

a. The frequency decreases
b. The frequency increases
c. The frequency remains same
d. The frequency changes
Answer: b
Ques 8. If an alternator is operating at leading power factor, then it can be said

a. The alternator is under excited
b. The alternator is over excited
c. The torque angle of the alternator has negative value
d. The residual magnetism of the poles is zero
Answer: b
Ques 9. The speed of an alternator is changed from 3000 to 1500 rpm. The generated EMF will become
a. ¼
b. Half
c. Double
d. Unchanged

Answer: b
Ques 10. Zero power factor method for an alternator is generally used to determine
a. Synchronous impedance of alternator
b. Efficiency of alternator
c. Voltage regulation of alternator
Answer: c
Ques 11. 4 pole, 1500 rpm alternator will generate EMF at

a. 2o Hz
b. 40 Hz
c. 50 Hz
d. 60 Hz
Answer: c
Ques 12. Generated EMF for same field current and double speed will be
a. Same
b. Double
c. Less than double
d. More than double
Answer: b
Ques 13. The power factor of an alternator is determined by its

a. Prime mover
b. Excitation
c. Speed
d. Load
Answer: d
Ques 14. If the input to the prime mover of an alternator is kept constant but the excitation is changed then
a. The power of the load remains constant
b. The reactive component of the output is changed
c. The active component of the output is changed
Answer: b
Ques 15. For parallel operation of 3 phase AC alternators must have the same
a. kVA rating
b. excitation

c. speed
d. voltage rating
Answer: d
Ques 16. Alternators are rated in

a. MW
b. kVAR
c. kWh
d. kVA
Answer: d
Ques 17. Two alternators are t be put in parallel operation. Which of the following factors should be
identical for both?
a. Frequency
b. Phase sequence
c. Voltage
d. All of the above
Answer: d
Ques 18. An exciter for a generator is

a. Shunt motor
b. Series motor
c. Shunt generator
Answer: c
Ques 19. In an alternator the armature reaction influences

a. Generated voltage per phase
b. Wave form of voltage generated
c. Operating speed
d. Windage losses
Answer: a
Ques 20. When the load on an alternator is increased the terminal voltage increses if the load power factor
is
a. Unity
b. Leading
c. Lagging
d. Zero

Answer: b
Ques 21. In an alternator the frequency of voltage generated depends on

a. Rotating speed
b. Number of poles
c. Above both
Answer: c
Ques 22. A lower voltage alternator, for the same power rating, will be
a. More costly
b. Larger in size
c. More efficient
d. Higher rpm
Answer: b
Ques 23. Which of the following relays come into operation in the event of the failure of prime mover
connected to the generator?
a. Buchholz relay
b. Reverse power relay
c. Differential relay
d. Overload relay
Answer: b
Semi‐conductors & Electronics:
Ques 1. A semiconductor is formed by ……… bonds.
A. Covalent
B. Electrovalent
C. Co‐ordinate
D. None of the above
Answer: a
Ques 2. A semiconductor has ........... temperature coefficient of resistance.

a. Positive
b. Zero
c. Negative
Answer: c
Ques 3. The most commonly used semiconductor is ………..
a. Germanium
b. Silicon
c. Carbon
d. Sulphur
Answer: b
Ques 4. A semiconductor has generally ................. valence electrons.
a. 2
b. 3
c. 6
d. 4
Answer: d
Ques 5. A semi‐conductor in its purest form is called

a. Pure semi‐conductor
b. Doped semi‐conductor
c. Intrinsic semi‐conductor
d. Extrinsic semi‐conductor
Answer: c
Ques 6. An extrinsic semiconductor is a

a. Doped semi‐conductor
b. Pure semi‐conductor
c. Good insulator
d. Good conductor
Answer: a
Ques 7. Silicon that has been doped with a trivalent impurity is called
a. P type semi‐conductor
b. N type semi‐conductor
c. Intrinsic semi‐conductor
d. Extrinsic semi‐conductor

Answer: a
Ques 8. In an n type semi‐conductor, free electrons are called

a. Minority carrier
b. Valence electrons
c. Majority carriers
d. Charge carriers
Answer: c
Ques 9. In an n type semi‐conductor, holes are called

a. Minority carriers
b. Majority carriers
c. Protons
d. Charge carriers
Answer: a
Ques 10. When temperature increases, barrier potential

a. Remains same
b. Decreases
c. Increases
d. Depends on semi‐conductor material
Answer: b
Ques 11. When temperature of a pure semi‐conductor is increased, its resistance

a. Decreases
b. Remains the same
c. Increases
d. Cannot be estimated
Answer: a
Ques 12. As a general rule… ............... are found only in semi‐conductors

a. Electrons
b. Resistance
c. Holes
Answer: c
Ques 13. Pure semi‐conductor atoms contain how many valence electrons?
a. 1
b. 2
c. 4
d. 8
Answer: c
Ques 14. When a pentavalent impurity is added to a pure semiconductor, it becomes ………
a. An insulator
b. An intrinsic semiconductor

c. p‐type semiconductor
d. n‐type semiconductor
Answer: d
Ques 15. An n‐type semiconductor is ………
a. Positively charged
b. Negatively charged
c. Electrically neutral
Answer: c
Ques 16. A trivalent impurity has ….. valence electrons
a. 4
b. 5
c. 6
d. 3
Answer: d
Ques 17. Addition of trivalent impurity to a semiconductor creates many ……..
a. Holes
b. Free electrons
c. Valence electrons
d. Bound electrons
Answer: a
Ques 18. A hole in a semiconductor is defined as …………….
a. A free electron
b. The incomplete part of an electron pair bond
c. A free proton
d. A free neutron
Answer: b

Ques 19. In a semiconductor, current conduction is due to ……..
a. Only holes
b. Only free electrons
c. Holes and free electrons
Answer: c
Ques 20. The battery connections required to forward bias a pn junction are ……
a. +ve terminal to p and –ve terminal to n

b. ‐ve terminal to p and +ve terminal to n
c. ‐ve terminal to p and –ve terminal to n
Answer: a
Ques 21. In the depletion region of a pn junction, there is a shortage of ……..

a. Acceptor ions
b. Holes and electrons
c. Donor ions
Answer: b
Ques 22. A reverse bias pn junction has …………
a. Very narrow depletion layer

b. Almost no current
c. Very low resistance
d. Large current flow
Answer: b
Ques 23. Avalanche effect occurs at

a. Higher reverse voltage
b. Lower reverse voltage
c. Higher forward voltage
d. Lower forward voltage
Answer: a

Ques 24. Avalanche breakdown in a semi‐conductor takes place
a. When forward current exceeds a certain value
b. When potential barrier is reduced to zero
c. When reverse bias exceeds a certain value
d. When forward bias exceeds a certain value
Answer: c
Ques 25. The leakage current across a p‐n junction is due to …………..
a. Minority carriers
b. Majority carriers
c. Junction capacitance
Answer: b
Ques 26. With forward bias to a pn junction , the width of depletion layer ………
a. Decreases
b.Increases
c. Remains the same
Answer: a
Ques 27. A zener diode has ………..
a. one pn junction
b. two pn junctions
c. three pn junctions
d. none of the above
Answer: a
Ques 28. A zener diode is used as …………….
a. an amplifier
b. a voltage regulator
c. a rectifier
d. a multivibrator
Answer: b
Ques 29. A zener diode is always............ connected.

a. reverse
b. forward
c. either reverse or forward
Answer: a
Ques 30. A zener diode utilizes........... characteristics for its operation.
a. forward
b. reverse
c. both forward and reverse
Answer: b
Ques 31. In the breakdown region, a zener didoe behaves like a .............. source.
a. constant voltage
b. constant current
c. constant resistance
Answer: a
Ques 32. There is a need of transformer for ………………..
a. half‐wave rectifier
b. centre‐tap full‐wave rectifier
c. bridge full‐wave rectifier
Answer: b
Ques 33. The most widely used rectifier is ……………….
a. half‐wave rectifier
b. centre‐tap full‐wave rectifier
c. bridge full‐wave rectifier

Answer: c
Ques 34. For a full wave rectifier, the output frequency

a. Equals one half the input frequency
b. Equals the line frequency
c. Equals two times the input
d. Is 3 times the line frequency
Answer: c
Ques 35. The frequency of the half wave rectifier signal is

a. Twice the line frequency
b. Equal to the line frequency
c. One half of the line frequency
d. One fourth of the line frequency
Answer: b
Ques 36. The temperature coefficient of resistance of a semi‐conductor is

a. Positive
b. Negative
c. Zero
d. Infinity
Answer: b
Ques 37. At absolute zero temperature a semi‐conductor behaves a

a. Good conductor
b. Super conductor
c. Insulator
d. Variable resistor
Answer: c
Ques 38. A transistor has …………………
a. one pn junction
b. two pn junctions
c. three pn junctions
d. four pn junctions
Answer: b
Ques 39. The number of depletion layers in a transistor is …………
a. four
b. three
c. one
d. two

Answer: d
Ques 40. The element that has the biggest size in a transistor is ………………..
a. collector
b. base
c. emitter
d. collector‐base‐junction
Answer: a
Ques 41. In a pnp transistor, the current carriers are ………….
a. acceptor ions
b. donor ions
c. free electrons
d. holes
Answer: d
Ques 42. In a npn transistor, ............... are the minority carriers
a. free electrons
b. holes
c. donor ions
d. acceptor ions
Answer: b
Ques 43. In a transistor ………………..
a. IC = IE + IB
b. IB = IC + IE
c. IE = IC – IB
d. IE = IC + IB
Answer: d
Ques 44. The most commonly used transistor arrangement is...............arrangement

a. common emitter
b. common base
c. common collector
Answer: a
Ques 45. A transistor is connected in CB mode. If it is not connected in CE mode with same bias voltages,
the values of IE, IB and IC will …………..
a. remain the same

b. increase
c. decrease
Answer: a
Ques 46. The most commonly used semiconductor in the manufacture of a transistor is ………….
a. germanium
b. silicon
c. carbon
Answer: b
Ques 47. The collector‐base junction in a transistor has ……………..
a. forward bias at all times

b. reverse bias at all times
c. low resistance
Answer: b
Ques 48. For proper operation of the transistor, its collector should have …………
a. Proper forward bias

b. Proper reverse bias
c. Very small size

Answer: b
Ques 49. If the value of collector current IC increases, then the value of VCE …………
a. Remains the same

b. Decreases
c. Increases
Answer: b
Ques 50. An SCR has ................pn junctions
a) Two
b) Three
c) Four
d) None of the above
Answer: b
Ques 51. An SCR has ............. semiconductor layers
a) Two
b) Three
c) Four
Answer: c
Ques 52. An SCR has three terminals viz ……………
a) Cathode, anode, gate

b) Anode, cathode, grid
c) Anode, cathode, drain
Answer: a
Ques 53. An SCR behaves as a ............... Switch
a) Unidirectional
b) Bidirectional
c) Mechanical
Answer: a

Ques 54. An SCR is sometimes called …………
a) Triac
b) Diac
c) Unijunction transistor
d) Thyristor
Answer: d
Ques 55. In the normal operation of an SCR, anode is .............. w.r.t. cathode
a) At zero potential
b) Negative
c) Positive
Answer: c
Ques 56. In normal operation of an SCR, gate is .......... w.r.t. cathode

a) Positive
b) Negative
c) At zero potential
Answer: a
Ques 57. The control element of an SCR is ………….
a) Cathode
b) Anode
c) Anode supply
d) Gate
Answer: d
Ques 58. An SCR is turned off by …………….
a) Reducing anode voltage to zero

b) Reducing gate voltage to zero
c) Reverse biasing the gate
Answer: a
Ques 59. An SCR is a ................... triggered device
a) Voltage
b) Current

c) Voltage as well as current
Answer: b
Ques 60. An SCR is turned off when …………..
a) Anode current is reduced to zero

b) Gate voltage is reduced to zero
c) Gate is reverse biased
Answer: a
Ques 61. If firing angle in an SCR circuit is increased, the output …………
a) Remains the same

b) Is increased
c) Is decreased
Answer: c
Ques 62. If gate current is increased, then anode‐cathode voltage at which SCR closes …………….
a) Is decreased
b) Is increased
c) Remains the same
Answer: a
Ques 63. When SCR is OFF, the current in the circuit is …………….
a) Exactly zero
b) Small leakage current
c) Large leakage current
Answer: b
Ques 64. An SCR can exercise control over .......... of a.c. supply
a) Positive half‐cycles only

b) Negative half‐cycles only
c) Both positive and negative half‐cycles
d) Positive or negative half‐cycles

Answer: d
Ques 65. When SCR starts conducting, then ............... loses all control
a) Gate
b) Cathode
c) Anode
Answer: a
Ques 66. A… ..............is considered a current controlled device

a. Diode
b. Conductor
c. Transistor
d. Resistor
Answer: c
Ques 67. A… ........... is considered as voltage controlled device

a. FET
b. Diode
c. Transistor
d. Capacitor
Answer: a
Ques 68. What semi‐conductor material is used in the construction of LED?

a. Silicon
b. Germanium
c. Gallium
d. Gallium arsenide
Answer: d
Ques 69. In an amplifier the emitter junction is

a. Forward biased
b. Reverse biased
c. Grounded
d. Shorted
Answer: a
Ques 70. What diode gives off light when energized?

a. Photodiode
b. LED

c. Photo conductive cell
d. Tunnel diode
Answer: b
Ques 71. The arrow in semi‐conductor symbol

a. Always points to P region and away from N region
b. Always points towards N region and away from P region
c. Is not a significant symbol
d. Always points towards the PN junction
Answer: b
Ques 72. What are three terminals of a FET?

a. Gate, source and drain
b. Plate, cathode and grid
c. Gate, source and battery
d. Input, output and ground
Answer: a
Ques 73. What is the input control parameter of a FET?

a. Gate voltage
b. Source voltage
c. Drain voltage
d. Gate current
Answer: a
Ques 74. What is the time taken by the electrons or holes to pass from the emitter to the collector?
a. Transit time
b. Recombination
c. Transient time
d. Duty cycle
Answer: a
Ques 75. Which configuration has the lowest current gain?

a. Common base
b. Common collector
c. Common emitter
d. Emitter follower
Answer: a
Ques 76. What is a three terminal device used to control large current to a load?

a. SCR
b. SCS
c. GTO
d. Thyristor
Answer: a
Ques 77. The three terminals of an SCR are

a. Anode, cathode and grid
b. Anode, cathode, gate
c. Anode, cathode, drain
d. Drain, source, gate
Answer: b
Ques 78. How many semi‐conductor layers does an SCR have?

a. 4
b. 2
c. 3
d. 5
Answer: a
Ques 79. A Diac has how many terminals?

a. 2
b. 3
c. 4
d. 5
Answer: a
Ques 80. An SCR combines the feature of

a. A rectifier and resistance
b. A rectifier and capacitor
c. A rectifier and transistor
d. A rectifier and inductor
Answer: c
Ques 81. Which is the control element in SCR?

a. Anode
b. Cathode
c. Gate
d. Cathode supply

Answer: c
Ques 82. A Diac has

a. 1 pn junction
b. 3 pn junctions
c. 2 pn junctions
d. 4 pn junctions
Answer: c
Ques 83. A Diac is… ............... switch

a. An AC
b. A mechanical
c. A dc
d. Both ac and dc
Answer: a
Ques 84. Which device does not have gate terminal?

a. Triac
b. SCR
c. FET
d. Diac
Answer: d
Ques 85. The supply voltage is generally… ............ that of break over voltage in an SCR
a. Equal to
b. Less than
c. Greater than
d. Twice
Answer: b
Ques 86. When the supply voltage exceeds the break over voltage of an SCR, it
a. Starts conducting
b. Stops conducting
c. Conducts leakage current
d. Conducts terminal current
Answer: a
Ques 87. What is that voltage above the SCR enters the conduction region?
a. Reverse break over voltage
b. Forward break over voltage

c. Holding voltage
d. Trigger voltage
Answer: b
Ques 88. What is that value of current below which the SCR switches from the conduction state to the
forward blocking region?
a. Holding current
b. Forward current
c. Reverse current
d. Trigger current
Answer: a
Ques 89. When SCR starts conducting then… ............ losses all control.
a. Gate
b. Anode
c. Cathode
d. Anode supply
Answer: a
Ques 90. SCR is made of what material?

a. Silicon
b. Carbon
c. Germanium
d. Gallium
Answer: a
Ques 91. When the SCR is off, the current in the circuit is
a. Exactly zero
b. Large leakage current
c. Small leakage current
d. Thermal current
Answer: c
Ques 92. Which transistor conducts current in both directions when turned on?
a. Diac
b. SCR
c. Quadrac
d. SCS
Answer: a

Measuring Equipments:
Ques 1. A moving‐coil permanent‐magnet instrument can be used as by using a low resistance shunt.
(a) ammeter
(b) voltmeter
(c) flux‐meter
(d) ballistic galvanometer
Answer: a
Ques 2. A moving‐coil permanent‐magnet instrument can be used as flux‐meter

(a) by using a low resistance shunt
(b) by using a high series resistance
(c) by eliminating the control springs
(d) by making control springs of large moment of inertia
Answer: c
Ques 3. A potentiometer may be used for

(a) measurement of resistance
(b) measurement of current
(c) calibration of ammeter
(d) calibration of voltmeter
(e) all of the above
Answer: e
Ques 4. An ammeter’s ideal resistance should be

a. Zero
b. Unity
c. Infinite
d. Same as circuit resistance
Answer: a
Ques 5. The electrical power to a meggar is provided by

(a) battery
(b) permanent magnet D.C. generator
(c) AC. generator

(d) any of the above
Answer: b
Ques 6. The operating voltage of a meggar is about

(a) 6 V
(b) 12 V
(c) 40 V
(d) 100 V
Answer: d
Ques 7. Alternating current is measured by

(a) induction ammeter
(b) permanent magnet type ammeter
(c) electrostatic ammeter
(d) moving iron repulsion type voltmeter
Answer: a
Ques 8. An ammeter is connected in ................ with the circuit element whose current we wish to measure
a) Series
b) Parallel
c) Series or parallel
Answer: a
Ques 9. A galvanometer in series with a high resistance is called ……………
a) An ammeter
b) A voltmeter
c) A wattmeter
Answer: b
Ques 10. An ammeter should have.............. resistance
a) Infinite
b) Very large
c) Very low
Answer: c

Ques 11. A voltmeter should have.......... Resistance
a) Zero
b) Very high
c) Very low
Answer: b
Protection and Switch Gears:
Ques 1. The main function of a fuse is to

(a) protect the line
(b) open the circuit
(c) protect the appliance
(d) prevent excessive currents
(e) none of the above
Answer: d
Ques 2. The arcing contacts in a circuit breaker are made of

(a) copper tungsten alloy
(b) porcelain
(c) electrolytic copper
(d) aluminum alloy
Answer: a
Ques 3. Which of the following medium is employed for extinction of arc in air circuit breaker ?
(a) Water
(b) Oil
(c) Air
(d) SF6
Answer: c

Ques 4. Overload relays are of…… type.
(a) induction
(b) solid state
(c) thermal
(d) electromagnetic
(e) all above
Answer: e
Ques 5. Thermal overload relays are used to protect the motor against over current due to
(a) short‐circuits
(b) heavy loads
(c) grounds
Answer: b
Ques 6. Circuit breakers are essentially

(a) current carrying contacts called electrodes
(b) arc extinguishers
(c) circuits to break the system
(d) transformers to isolate the two systems
(e) any of the above
Answer: a
Ques 7. The voltage appearing across the contacts after opening of the circuit breaker is called voltage.
(a) recovery
(b) surge
(c) operating
(d) arc
Answer: a
Ques 8. Which of the following is the least expensive protection for overcurrent is low voltage system ?
(a) Rewireable fuse
(b) Isolator
(c) Oil circuit breaker
(d) Air break circuit breaker

(e) None of the above
Answer: a
Ques 9. Short‐circuit currents are due to

(a) single phase to ground faults
(b) phase to phase faults
(c) two phase to ground faults
(d) three phase faults
(e) any of these
Answer: e
Ques 10. The single phasing relays are used for the protection of
(a) single phase motors only
(b) two phase motors only
(c) two single phase motors running in parallel
(d) three phase motors
Answer: d
Ques 11. The material used for fuse must have

(a) low melting point and high specific resistance
(b) low melting point and ‐low specific resistance
(c) high melting point and low specific resistance
(d) low melting point and any specific resistance
Answer: a
Ques 12. A fuse is connected

(a) in series with circuit
(b) in parallel with circuit
(c) either in series or in parallel with circuit
Answer: a
Ques 13. To limit short‐circuit current in a power system are used.

(a) earth wires
(b) isolators

(c) H.R.C. fuses
(d) reactors
Answer: d
Ques 14. The insulating material for cables should

(a) be acid proof
(b) be non‐inflammable
(c) be non‐hygroscopic
(d) have all above properties
Answer: d
Ques 15. In a cable immediately above metallic sheath is provided.

(a) earthing connection
(b) bedding
(c) armouring
Answer: b
Ques 16. The current carrying capacity of cables in D.C. is more thanthat in A.C. mainly due to
(a) absence of harmonics
(b) non‐existence of any stability limit
(c) smaller dielectric loss
(d) absence of ripples
Answer: c
Ques 17. In case of three core flexible cable the colour of the neutral is
(a) blue
(b) black
(c) brown
Answer: a
Ques 18. In the cables, the location of fault is usually found out by comparing
(a) the resistance of the conductor

(b) the inductance of conductors
(c) the capacitances of insulated conductors
(d) all above parameters
Answer: c
Ques 19. If the length of a cable is doubled, its capacitance

(a) becomes one‐fourth
(b) becomes one‐half
(c) becomes double
(d) remains unchanged
Answer: c
Ques 20. In the cables, sheaths are used to

(a) prevent the moisture from entering the cable
(b) provide enough strength
(e) provide proper insulation
Answer: a
Ques 21. The cable insulating material should have

(a) low permittivity
(b) high resistivity
(c) high dielectric strength
Answer: d
Ques 22. The breakdown voltage of a cable depends on

(a) presence of moisture
(b) working temperature
(c) time of application of the voltage
Answer: d

Air Conditioning:
Ques 1. In a refrigeration cycle the heat is rejected by refrigerant at….
A. Condenser
B. Evaporator
C. Compressor
D. Expansion valve
Answer: Option A
Ques 2. In a refrigeration cycle the flow of refrigerant is controlled by…
A. Compressor
B. Evaporator
C. Expansion valve
D. Condenser
Answer: Option C
Ques 3. Which part of the vapor compression refrigeration cycle produces refrigeration effect?
A. Compressor
B. Condenser
C. Evaporator
D. None of these
Answer: Option C
Ques 4. In a refrigeration cycle oil separator is installed between …….
A. Condenser and TEV

B. Compressor and condenser
C. Condenser and evaporator
D. None of these
Answer: Option B
Ques 5. What removes moisture from a refrigerant?
A. Dehumidifier
B. Solenoid
C. TEV
D. Drier
Answer: Option D
Ques 6. In VCRS the condition of refrigerant before entering the compressor is……
A. Wet vapor
B. Saturated liquid
C. Dry saturated liquid
D. Superheated vapor
Answer: Option D
Ques 7. The highest temperature during the VCRS cycle occurs after……
A. Condensation
B. Expansion
C. Evaporation
D. Compression
Answer: Option D

Ques 8. The formation of frost on cooling coils in a refrigerator
A. increases heat transfer
B. improves C.O.P. of the system
C. increases power consumption
D. reduces power consumption
Answer: Option C
Ques 9. The difference between dry bulb temperature and wet bulb temperature, is called
A. dry bulb depression
B. wet bulb depression
C. dew point depression
D. degree of saturation
Answer: Option B
Ques 10. Defrosting of a refrigerator may be done by stopping the compressor for a short period.
A. Correct
B. Incorrect
Answer: Option A
Ques 11. The optimum effective temperature for human comfort is

A. higher in winter than in summer
B. lower in winter than in summer
C. same in winter and summer
D. not dependent on season
Answer: Option B
Ques 12. During a refrigeration cycle, heat is rejected by the refrigerant in a

A. compressor
B. condenser
C. evaporator
D. expansion valve

Answer: Option B
Ques 13. A refrigeration system

A. removes heat from a low temperature body and delivers it to a high temperature body
B. removes heat from a high temperature body and delivers it to a low temperature body
C. rejects energy to a low temperature body
D. none of the above
Answer: Option A
Ques 14. A pressure gauge on the discharge side of a refrigerant compressor reads too high. The reasons
will be
A. lack of cooling water
B. water temperature being high
C. dirty condenser surface
D. all of these
Answer: Option D
Ques 15. The freon group of refrigerants are

A. halo‐carbon refrigerants
B. azeotrope refrigerants
C. inorganic refrigerants
D. hydro‐carbon refrigerants
Answer: Option A
Ques 16. Which of the following refrigerant has the highest freezing point.
A. Ammonia
B. Carbon dioxide
C. Sulphur dioxide
D. R‐12
Answer: Option B

Ques 17. Air conditioning means
A. cooling
B. heating
C. dehumidifying
D. all of these
Answer: Option D
Ques 18. Which of the following refrigerant has the maximum ozone depletion potential in the
stratophere?
A. Ammonia
B. Carbon dioxide
C. Sulphur dioxide
D. Flourine
Answer: Option D
Ques 19. One tonne of refrigeration (1TR) means that the heat removing capacity is
A. 21 kJ/min
B. 210 kJ/min
C. 420 kJ/min
D. 620 kJ/min
Answer: Option B
Ques 20. The thermostatic expansion valve is used in type of evaporators.

A. flooded
B. DX coil
C. dry
Answer: Option C
Ques 21. A good refrigerant should have

A. high latent heat of vaporisation and low freezing point
B. high operating pressures and low freezing point

C. high specific volume and high latent heat of vaporisation
D. low C.O.P. and low freezing point
Answer: Option A
Ques 22. The capillary tube is not used in large capacity refrigeration systems because
A. cost is too high
B. capacity control is not possible
C. it is made of copper
D. required pressure drop can not be achieved
Answer: Option B
Ques 23. The thermostatic expansion valve operates on the changes in the
A. degree of superheat at exit from the evaporator
B. temperature of the evaporator
C. pressure in the evaporator
Answer: Option A
Ques 24. In a vapour compression system, the condition of refrigerant before entering the expansion or
throttle valve is
A. high pressure saturated liquid
B. wet vapour
C. very wet vapour
D. dry vapour
Answer: Option A
Ques 25. The pressure at the outlet of a refrigerant compressor is called

A. suction pressure
B. discharge pressure
C. critical pressure
D. back pressure

Answer: Option B
Ques 26. A one tonne refrigerating machine means that

A. one tonne is the total mass of machine
B. one tonne refrigerant is used
C. one tonne of water can be converted into ice
D. one tonne of ice when melts from and at 0° C in 24 hours, the refrigeration effect is equivalent
to 210 kJ/min
Answer: Option D
Ques 27. The expansion valve in a refrigerator controls the flow of refrigerant.
A. Correct
B. Incorrect
Answer: Option A
Ques 28. A thermostatic expansion valve in a refrigeration system

A. ensures the evaporator completely filled with refrigerant of the load
B. is suitable only for constant load systems
C. maintains different temperatures in evaporator in proportion to load
Answer: Option A
Ques 29. R‐12 is generally preferred over R‐22 in deep freezers since
A. it has low operating pressures
B. it gives higher coefficient of performance
C. it is miscible with oil over large range of temperatures
D. all of the above
Answer: Option C
Ques 30. The colour of the flame of halide torch, in case of leakage of freon refrigerant, will change to
A. bright green

B. yellow
C. red
D. orange
Answer: Option A
Ques 31. For comfort air conditioning the conditions maintained are
A. 15 deg dbt to 20 deg Wbt
B. 25 deg dbt to 60 % RH
C. 40 deg dbt and 40 deg Wbt
D. 25 deg dbt and 80 % RH
Answer: Option B
Ques 32. In a mechanical refrigeration system, the highest temperature of refrigerant occurs
A. Between condenser and evaporator
B. In evaporator
C. Before expansion value
D. Between compressor and condenser
Answer: Option D
Ques 33. The evaporator changes the low pressure liquid refrigerant from the expansion valve into
A. high pressure liquid refrigerant
B. low pressure liquid and vapour refrigerant
C. low pressure vapour refrigerant
D. none of these
Answer: Option C

Interview Questions for Electro Technical Officer (ETO) Course
A.C. Motors & A.C. Generators
1. What is Induction motor and how it works?

2. How is the construction of Induction motor?
3. What is synchronous motor?
4. What is slip in an induction motor?
5. Why starters are used to start Induction Motors?
6. Why starting current is high for Induction motors?
7. What are different methods of starting Induction Motors?
8. Why star delta starter is preferred with induction motor?
9. What is called single Phasing?
10. What is called crawling of Induction motor?
11. What is called cogging?
12. What are different losses in Induction Motor?
13. How the short circuit protection is provided to the motor?
14. What are the different methods for the starting of a synchronous motor?
15. What is the use of servomotor?
16. What is plugging of an Induction motor?
17. Which motor has high Starting Torque and Staring current – DC motor, Induction motor
or Synchronous motor?
18. What is 2 Phase motor?
19. Enumerate the possible reasons if a 3‐phase motor fails to start?
20. A motor stops after starting i.e., it fails to carry load. What could be the reasons?
21. Which is the usual cause of blow‐outs in Induction motors?
22. Can a 3‐phase motor be run on a Single‐Phase Line?
23. What is meant by a Phase‐Splitter?
24. What is the standard direction of rotation of an Induction motor?
25. How would you reverse the direction of rotation of a capacitor start‐induction‐run
motor?
26. What could be the reasons if a split‐phase motor fails to start and hums loudly?
27. What could be the reasons if a split‐phase motor runs too slow?
28. For what service are synchronous motors especially suited? Which has more efficiency;
synchronous or induction motor?
29. Mention some specific applications of synchronous motors
30. What could be the reasons if a synchronous motor fails to start?

31. Under which conditions a synchronous motor will fail to pull into step?
32. How do changes in supply voltage and frequency affect the performance of an induction
motor?
33. What is, in brief, the basis of operation of a 3‐phase induction motor?
34. Why induction motors are called asynchronous?
35. What are Dummy coils?
36. Draw a simple diagram of alternators (AC generators)?
37. How AC is generated through these alternators?
38. What is insulated neutral and what is earthed neutral?
39. What do u understand by excitation system?
40. What is the importance of air gap in Alternators?
41. How much should be the air gap in alternators?
42. What happens if this Air gap becomes more or less?
43. What are Brushless Alternators?
44. What is Bus Bar?
45. What is paralleling of alternators?
46. What is hunting of alternators and what are the probable reasons?
47. What factors are checked before paralleling of generators?
48. What is synchro scope and what is its use?
49. What is voltage regulation?
50. What is Automatic Voltage Regulator (AVR)?
51. What is called prime mover?
52. What is a Runaway speed of prime mover?
53. What is reverse power protection?
54. What are the faults in a three phase line?
55. What is Power Factor?
56. What is voltage droop? How it is controlled?
57. Why AC systems are preferred over DC systems?
58. What is RMS value of Alternating current?
59. What is peak factor?
60. What is Form Factor?
61. Why is alternating current used for transmission?
62. Why is voltage stepped up before transmission?
63. What is a Universal Motor?
64. What is Voltage Regulation?
65. Explain the terms real power, apparent power and reactive power for ac circuits and
also the units used.
66. What is the difference between earth and neutral?

D.C. Motors & D.C. Generators
1. Which is the motor used in fan?

2. Why do we use starter for a DC motor?
3. What is the main advantage of DC Motors over AC Motors?
4. What is ward‐Leonard system?
5. What happens if the direction of current at the terminals of a series motor is reversed?
6. A DC motor fails to start when switched on. What could be the possible reasons and
remedies?
7. State the difference between generator and alternator?
8. What is Lap winding and wave winding?
9. Write the EMF equation of a generator?
10. What is called Back EMF?
11. What do you understand by self‐excited generators?
12. What is the difference between Lap winding and wave windings?
13. What is instantaneous short circuit trip?
14. How do u check earthing in a system?
15. What is the standard direction of rotation of the DC generators?
16. What causes heating of armature?
17. What is a short circuit and how system is protected from short circuit?
18. Which is more dangerous‐shock due to AC or DC?
19. What are Interpoles used for?
20. What is the principle of DC motor?
21. Explain commutation in DC machines
22. What are Damper Windings?
23. Explain different types of D.C motors? Give their applications
24. Explain the process of commutation in a dc machine. Explain what are inter‐poles and why
they are required in a dc machine.
25. Why back emf used for a dc motor? highlight its significance.
26. What are the various kind of cables used for transmission?

Protection System & Measuring Equipment
1. What is circuit breaker?

2. What types of circuit breakers are there?
3. What is ACB, MCB, OCB, VCB etc.?
4. What is the function of a fuse?
5. How a fuse works?
6. What is minimum fusing current?
7. What is a relay?
8. What is the difference between Fuse and Relay?
9. What is reverse power relay?
10. How a relay works?
11. How a circuit breaker works?
12. What is neutral earthing and what are the advantages of neutral earthing?
13. What protections are provided for generators supplying current to Bus Bar?
14. What protections are provided to Induction Motors?
15. How overcurrent protection is provided?
16. What is Inverse Definite Minimum Time (IDMT) relay and how it works?
17. What is overload trip?
18. What is the difference between Short circuit trip and overload trip?
19. What is preferential trip?
20. What is reverse current / reverse power trip?
21. What is under voltage trip? Why all these trips are important?
22. What is Ammeter, Voltmeter, Wattmeter and Meager?
23. What is the difference between Ammeter and Voltmeter?
24. What is megger testing?
Storage Batteries & Electrolysis
1. What is Faraday’s Law of Electrolysis?

2. What is Electrolyte of a Battery?
3. What is Primary cell?
4. What is Secondary cell?
5. What are the main components of a Lead Acid Battery?

6. Write the charging and discharging reaction of Lead Acid Battery?
7. What is Edison Storage battery and what are its advantages?
8. What is Nickle Cadmium Battery and its advantages?
9. What is the meaning of Ampere Hours of a battery?
10. Why vent caps are provided in Lead Acid Batteries?
11. What is the Specific gravity of Fully charged and Fully discharged lead acid battery?
12. How do you confirm if a battery is charged or not?
13. What is trickle charging system? Why it is useful?
14. What is the difference between trickle charging and Heavy charging?
15. How to confirm if a Battery is fully charged or not?
16. How to revive a dead storage battery?
17. What are disadvantages of overcharging a battery?
18. What Personal Protective Equipment you should wear while working on Lead Acid
battery?
19. Which gas is emitted during charging of Lead Acid Battery? Is it dangerous?
20. Why we need to top up water in the Lead Acid Battery?
21. Draw the circuit diagram of battery charger charging from AC Source?
22. What important safety measures are required near the batteries?
23. When we should change the battery to new one?
24. Explain the application of storage batteries.
25. Explain advantages of storage batteries
Transformers
1. What is Transformer
2. What is step up and step down transformer.
3. What is humming of transformer?
4. What is single phase transformer and explain its working principle.
5. Explain different losses in a transformer.
6. Comment on the working principle of operation of a single‐phase transformer.
7. Why is transformer flux constant?
8. Why an induction motor is called a rotating transformer?
9. Why is transformer rating in KVA?
10. How do we specify the rating of a transformer?
11. What are the cooling methods to cool a transformer?

12. Does the transformer draw any current when its secondary is open?
13. What is power factor?
14. What is the approximate value of Power Factor?
15. Is Cu loss affected by power factor? Why?
16. What are Instrument Transformers?
17. What is Hysteresis loss?
18. What are Current Transformer (CT) and Potential Transformer (PT)?
19. Mention the disadvantages of low power factor? How can it be improved? State the
methods of improving power factor?
20. What is Eddy Current Loss?
21. What is the best way of minimizing eddy currents in an armature?
22. What is a Ground line?
23. What are the disadvantages of low power factor?
24. Why is earth pin longest and thickest?
Semiconductors & Electronics
1. What are Thermistors?

2. Why do thermistors have negative temperature coefficient?
3. What is semiconductor?
4. What is intrinsic Semiconductor?
5. What is extrinsic semiconductor?
6. What is P Type semiconductors?
7. What is n‐type semiconductors?
8. What is PN Junction diode?
9. What is forward Bias?
10. What is reverse bias?
11. Explain forward resistance, static resistance and dynamic resistance of a pn junction
diode.
12. How diodes are used as rectifiers?
13. Draw the circuit diagram of full wave and half wave rectifier.
14. How three phase AC is rectified?
15. What is breakdown voltage of Zener diode?
16. What is Zener diode and what is its use?
17. How does Zener phenomenon differ from Avalanche breakdown?
18. What do you know about transistors?

19. What is pnp and npn transistors?
20. What is most famous use of transistors?
21. What is the symbol of pnp and npn transistor?
22. How transistor works as amplifier?
23. What is Silicon controlled rectifier (SCR)?
24. What are thyristors?
25. State uses of thyristors / SCRs?
26. What are flame proof or explosion proof equipment?
27. What are intrinsically safe equipment?
28. Why Zener diode is used in intrinsically safe equipment?
29. What safeties you should take to avoid electrical shock?
30. What is basic treatment for Electrical shock?
General Electrical Engineering
1. What is Ohm’s Law?

2. What is the effect of temperature on resistance of a conductor?
3. What are the limitations of Ohm’s Law?
4. What are Kirchhoff’s laws?
5. State Thevenin’s Theorem:
6. State Norton’s Theorem
7. State Maximum power transfer theorem
8. What is Gauss theorem?
9. What is Corona?
10. What is skin effect?
11. What are properties of insulating material of electric cables?
12. Name few insulating materials for electrical cables?
13. What are the advantages and disadvantages of Compact Fluorescent Lamps?
14. What is ACSR cable and where we use it?
15. What are the different types of cores?

ENGLISH for ETO
Entrance exam

Directions to Solve
Read each sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The error, if any will be in
one part of the sentence. The letter of that part is the answer. If there is no error, the answer is 'D'.
(Ignore the errors of punctuation, if any).
Ques 1.(solve as per the direction given above)
A. We discussed about the problem so thoroughly

B. on the eve of the examination
C. that I found it very easy to work it out.
D. No error.
Answer: Option A
Explanation: We discussed the problem so thoroughly
A. An Indian ship
B. laden with merchandise
C. got drowned in the Pacific Ocean.
D. No error.
Answer: Option C
Explanation: sank in the Pacific Ocean
A. AI could not put up in a hotel

B. because the boarding and lodging charges
C. were exorbitant.
D. No error.
Answer: Option A
Explanation: 'I could not put up at a hotel'
A. The Indian radio

B. which was previously controlled by the British rulers
C. is free now from the narrow vested interests.
D. No error.
Answer: Option C
Explanation: is now free from the narrow vested interests.
A. If I had known
B. this yesterday
C. I will have helped him.
D. No error.
Answer: Option C
Explanation: I would have helped him
A. A lot of travel delay is caused

B. due to the inefficiency and lack of good management
C. on behalf of the railways.
D. No error.
Answer: Option C
Explanation: on the part of the railways
A. One of the members

B. expressed doubt if
C. the Minister was an atheist.
D. No error.
Answer: Option B
Explanation: expressed doubt that
A. I have got

B. my M.Sc. degree
C. in 1988.
D. No error.
Answer: Option A
Explanation: I got
A. If you lend him a book

B. he will lend it to some one else
C. and never you will get it back.
D. No error.
Answer: Option C
Explanation: and you will never get it back
Ques 10. (solve as per the direction given above)
A. According to the Bible

B. it is meek and humble
C. who shall inherit the earth.
D. No error.
Answer: Option B
Explanation: it is the meek and the humble
Directions to Solve
In the following questions choose the word which is the exact OPPOSITE of the given words.
Ques 11. ENORMOUS

A. Soft
B. Average
C. Tiny
D. Weak
Answer: Option C
Ques 12. COMMISSIONED

A. Started
B. Closed
C. Finished

D. Terminated
Answer: Option D
Ques 13. ARTIFICIAL

A. Red
B. Natural
C. Truthful
D. Solid
Answer: Option B
Ques 14. EXODUS

A. Influx
B. Home-coming
C. Return
D. Restoration
Answer: Option A
Ques 15. RELINQUISH

A. Abdicate
B. Renounce
C. Possess
D. Deny
Answer: Option C
Ques 16. EXPAND

A. Convert
B. Condense
C. Congest
D. Conclude
Answer: Option B
Ques 17. MORTAL

A. Divine
B. Immortal
C. Spiritual
D. Eternal
Answer: Option B
Ques 18. OBEYING

A. Ordering

B. Following
C. Refusing
D. Contradicting
Answer: Option A
Ques 19. FRAUDULENT

A. Candid
B. Direct
C. Forthright
D. Genuine
Answer: Option D
Ques 20. BELITTLE

A. Criticize
B. Flatter
C. Exaggerate
D. Adore
Answer: Option C
Ques 21. BUSY

A. Occupied
B. Engrossed
C. Relaxed
D. Engaged
Answer: Option C
Ques 22. FRESH

A. Faulty
B. Sluggish
C. Disgraceful
D. Stale
Answer: Option D
Ques 23. CULPABLE

A. Defendable
B. Blameless
C. Careless
D. Irresponsible
Answer: Option B

Directions to Solve
Find the correctly spelt words.
A. Efficient
B. Treatmeant
C. Beterment
D. Employd
Answer: Option A
A. Foreign
B. Foreine
C. Fariegn
D. Forein
Answer: Option A
A. Ommineous
B. Omineous
C. Ominous
D. Omenous
Answer: Option C
A. Pessenger
B. Passenger
C. Pasanger
D. Pesanger
Answer: Option B
A. Benefitted
B. Benifited
C. Benefited

D. Benefeted
Answer: Option C
Directions to Solve
In each question below, there is a sentence of which some parts have been jumbled up. Rearrange these
parts which are labelled P, Q, R and S to produce the correct sentence. Choose the proper sequence.
Ques 29. When he
P: did not know
Q: he was nervous and
R: heard the hue and cry at midnight
S: what to do
The Proper sequence should be:
A. RQPS
B. QSPR
C. SQPR
D. PQRS
Answer: Option A
Ques 30. It has been established that
P: Einstein was
Q: although a great scientist
R: weak in arithmetic
S: right from his school days
A. SRPQ
B. QPRS
C. QPSR
D. RQPS
Answer: Option B
Ques 31. Then

P: it struck me
Q: of course
R: suitable it was
S: how eminently
A. SPQR
B. QSRP
C. PSRQ
D. QPSR
Answer: Option C
Ques 32. I read an advertisement that said
P: posh, air-conditioned
Q: gentleman of taste
R: are available for
S: fully furnished rooms
A. PQRS
B. PSRQ
C. PSQR
D. SRPQ
Answer: Option B
Ques 33. Since the beginning of history
P: have managed to catch
Q: the Eskimos and Red Indians
R: by a very difficulty method
S: a few specimens of this aquatic animal
A. QRPS

B. SQPR
C. SQRP
D. QPSR
Answer: Option D
Ques 34. A French woman
P: committed suicide
Q: where she had put up
R: who had come to Calcutta
S: by jumping from the first floor balcony of the hotel
A. PRQS
B. QSRP
C. RPSQ
D. SRQP
Answer: Option C
Ques 35. The national unity of a free people
P: to make it impracticable
Q: for there to be an arbitrary administration
R: depends upon a sufficiently even balance of political power
S: against a revolutionary opposition that is irreconcilably opposed to it
A. QRPS
B. QRSP
C. RPQS
D. RSPQ
Answer: Option D
Ques 36. The grocer
P: did not listen to the protests of customer
Q: who was in the habit of weighing less

R: whom he had cheated
S: with great audacity
A. PRSQ
B. QSPR
C. QPRS
D. PQSR
Answer: Option C
Ques 37. They felt safer
P: to watch the mountain
Q: of more than five miles
R : as they settled down
S : from a distance
A. RPSQ
B. RSQP
C. PQSR
D. PRSQ
Answer: Option A
Ques 38. People
P: at his dispensary
Q: went to him
R: of all professions
S: for medicine and treatment
A. QPRS
B. RPQS
C. RQSP
D. QRPS

Answer: Option C
Directions to Solve
In questions given below, a part of the sentence is italicized and underlined. Below are given alternatives
to the italicized part which may improve the sentence. Choose the correct alternative. In case no
improvement is needed, option 'D' is the answer.
Ques 39. The workers are hell bent at getting what is due to them.
A. hell bent on getting
B. hell bent for getting
C. hell bent upon getting
D. No improvement
Answer: Option C
Ques 40. When it was feared that the serfs might go too far and gain their freedom from serfdom,
the protestant leaders joined the princes at crushing them.
A. into crushing
B. in crushing
C. without crushing
D. No improvement
Answer: Option B
Ques 41. If the room had been brighter, I would have been able to read for a while before bed
time.
A. If the room was brighter
B. If the room are brighter
C. Had the room been brighter
D. No improvement
Answer: Option C
Ques 42. The record for the biggest tiger hunt has not been met since 1911 when Lord Hardinge.
then Viceroy of India, shot a tiger than measured 11 feet and 6 inches.
A. Improved
B. Broken
C. Bettered
D. No improvement
Answer: Option B
Ques 43. his powerful desire brought about his downfall.

A. His intense desire

B. His desire for power
C. His fatal desire
D. No improvement
Answer: Option B
Ques 44. Will you kindly open the knot?

A. Untie
B. Break
C. Loose
D. No improvement
Answer: Option A
Ques 45. He sent a word to me that he would be coming late.

A. sent word
B. had sent a word
C. sent words
D. No improvement
Answer: Option A
Ques 46. John had told me that he hasn't done it yet.

A. Told
B. Tells
C. was telling
D. No improvement
Answer: Option B
Ques 47. If he had time he will call you.

A. would have
B. would have had
C. has
D. No improvement
Answer: Option C
Ques 48. Will you lend me few rupees in this hour of need?
A. lend me any rupees
B. borrow me a few rupees
C. lend me a few rupees
D. No improvement
Answer: Option C

Ques 49. During his long discourse, he did not touch that point.
A. touch upon
B. touch on
C. touch of
D. No improvement
Answer: Option B
Directions to Solve
In questions below, each passage consists of six sentences. The first and sixth sentences are given in the
beginning. The middle four sentences in each have been removed and jumbled up. These are labeled as
P, Q, R and S. Find out the proper order for the four sentences.
Ques 50.
S1: In the middle of one side of the square sits the Chairman of the committee, the most important
person in the room.
P : For a committee is not just a mere collection of individuals.
Q: On him rests much of the responsibility for the success or failure of the committee.
R: While this is happening we have an opportunity to get the 'feel' of this committee.
S : As the meeting opens, he runs briskly through a number of formalities.
S6: From the moment its members meet, it begins to have a sort nebulous life of its own.
A. RSQP
B. PQRS
C. SQPR
D. QSRP
Answer: Option D
Ques 51.
S1: A force of exists between everybody in the universe.
P: Normally it is very small but when the one of the bodies is a planet, like earth, the force is
considerable.
Q: It has been investigated by many scientists including Galileo and Newton.
R: Everything on or near the surface of the earth is attracted by the mass of earth.

S: This gravitational force depends on the mass of the bodies involved.
S6: The greater the mass, the greater is the earth's force of attraction on it. We can call this force of
attraction gravity.
A. PRQS
B. PRSQ
C. QSRP
D. QSPR
Answer: Option D
Ques 52.
S1: Calcutta unlike other cities kepts its trams.
P: As a result there horrendous congestion.
Q: It was going to be the first in South Asia.
R: They run down the centre of the road
S: To ease in the city decided to build an underground railway line.
S6: The foundation stone was laid in 1972.
A. PRSQ
B. PSQR
C. SQRP
D. RPSQ
Answer: Option D
Ques 53.
S1: For some time in his youth Abraham Lincoln was manager for a shop.
P: Then a chance Customer would come.
Q: Young Lincoln way of keeping shop was entirely unlike anyone else's
R: Lincoln would jump up and attend to his needs and then revert to his reading.
S: He used to lie full length on the counter of the shop eagerly reading a book.

S6: Never before had Lincoln had so much time for reading as had then.
A. SRQP
B. QSPR
C. SQRP
D. QPSR
Answer: Option B
Ques 54.
S1: All the land was covered by the ocean.
P: The leading god fought the monster, killed it and chopped its body in to two halves.
Q: A terrible monster prevented the gods from separating the land from the water.
R: The god made the sky out of the upper part of the body and ornamented it with stars.
S: The god created the earth from the lower part, grew plants on it and populated it with animals.
S6: The god moulded the first people out of clay according to his own image and mind.
A. PQRS
B. PQSR
C. QPSR
D. QPRS
Answer: Option D
Directions to Solve
In questions given below out of four alternatives, choose the one which can be substituted for the given
word/sentence.
Ques 55. Extreme old age when a man behaves like a fool
A. Imbecility
B. Senility
C. Dotage
D. Superannuation
Answer: Option C
Ques 56. That which cannot be corrected

A. Unintelligible
B. Indelible
C. Illegible
D. Incorrigible
Answer: Option D
Ques 57. The study of ancient societies

A. Anthropology
B. Archaeology
C. History
D. Ethnology
Answer: Option B
Ques 58. A person of good understanding knowledge and reasoning power

A. Expert
B. Intellectual
C. Snob
D. Literate
Answer: Option B
Ques 59. A person who insists on something

A. Disciplinarian
B. Stickler
C. Instantaneous
D. Boaster
Answer: Option B
Ques 60. State in which the few govern the many

A. Monarchy
B. Oligarchy
C. Plutocracy
D. Autocracy
Answer: Option B
Ques 61. List of the business or subjects to be considered at a meeting

A. Schedule
B. Timetable
C. Agenda
D. Plan

Answer: Option C
Ques 62. Leave or remove from a place considered dangerous

A. Evade
B. Evacuate
C. Avoid
D. Exterminate
Answer: Option B
Directions to Solve
In the questions below the sentences have been given in Active/Passive voice. From the given
alternatives, choose the one which best expresses the given sentence in Passive/Active voice.
Ques 63. After driving professor Kumar to the museum she dropped him at his hotel.
A. After being driven to the museum, Professor Kumar was dropped at his hotel.
B. Professor Kumar was being driven dropped at his hotel.
C. After she had driven Professor Kumar to the museum she had dropped him at his hotel.
D. After she was driven Professor Kumar to the museum she had dropped him at his hotel.
Answer: Option A
Ques 64. I remember my sister taking me to the museum.

A. I remember I was taken to the museum by my sister.
B. I remember being taken to the museum by my sister.
C. I remember myself being taken to the museum by my sister.
D. I remember taken to the museum by my sister.
Answer: Option B
Ques 65. Who is creating this mess?

A. Who has been created this mess?
B. By whom has this mess been created?
C. By whom this mess is being created?
D. By whom is this mess being created?
Answer: Option D
Ques 66. They greet me cheerfully every morning.

A. Every morning I was greeted cheerfully.
B. I am greeted cheerfully by them every morning.
C. I am being greeted cheerfully by them every morning.
D. Cheerful greeting is done by them every morning to me.
Answer: Option B

Ques 67. Darjeeling grows tea.
A. Tea is being grown in Darjeeling.
B. Let the tea be grown in Darjeeling.
C. Tea is grown in Darjeeling.
D. Tea grows in Darjeeling.
Answer: Option C
Directions to Solve
Each question consist of two words which have a certain relationship to each other followed by four pairs
of related words, Select the pair which has the same relationship.
Ques 68. DIVA:OPERA

A. Producer : theatre
B. Director : drama
C. Conductor : bus
D. Thespian : play
Answer: Option D
Ques 69. GRAIN:SALT

A. Shard : pottery
B. Shred : wood
C. Blades : grass
D. Chip : glass
Answer: Option D
Ques 70. PAIN:SEDATIVE

A. Comfort : stimulant
B. Grief : consolation
C. Trance : narcotic
D. Ache : extraction
Answer: Option B
Ques 71. LIGHT:BLIND

A. Speech : dumb
B. Language : deaf
C. Tongue : sound
D. Voice : vibration
Answer: Option A
Ques 72. PORK:PIG

A. Rooster : chicken
B. Mutton : sheep
C. Steer : beef
D. Lobster : crustacean
Answer: Option B
Ques 73. AFTER:BEFORE

A. First : second
B. Present : past
C. Contemporary : historic
D. Successor : predecessor
Answer: Option D
Ques 74. DISTANCE:MILE

A. Liquid : litre
B. Bushel : corn
C. Weight : scale
D. Fame : television
Answer: Option A
Ques 75. TEN:DECIMAL

A. Seven : septet
B. Four : quartet
C. Two : binary
D. Five : quince
Answer: Option C
Ques 76. GRAVITY:PULL

A. Iron : metal
B. north pole : directions
C. magnetism : attraction
D. dust : desert
Answer: Option C
Directions to Solve
In the following the questions choose the word which best expresses the meaning of the given word.
Ques 77. BRIEF

A. Limited
B. Small

C. Little
D. Short
Answer: Option D
Ques 78. VENT

A. Opening
B. Strode
C. End
D. Past tense of go
Answer: Option A
Ques 79. AUGUST

A. Common
B. Ridiculous
C. Dignified
D. Petty
Answer: Option C
Ques 80. ALERT

A. Energetic
B. Observant
C. Intelligent
D. Watchful
Answer: Option D
Ques 81. WARRIOR

A. Soldier
B. Sailor
C. Pirate
D. Spy
Answer: Option A
Ques 82. DISTANT

A. Far
B. Removed
C. Reserved
D. Separate
Answer: Option A
Ques 83. ADVERSITY

A. Failure
B. Helplessness
C. Misfortune
D. Crisis
Answer: Option C
Ques 84. FAKE

A. Original
B. Imitation
C. Trustworthy
D. Loyal
Answer: Option B
Ques 85. INDICT

A. Condemn
B. Reprimand
C. Accuse
D. Allege
Answer: Option C
Ques 86. STRINGENT

A. Dry
B. Strained
C. Rigorous
D. Shrill
Answer: Option C
Ques 87. LAMENT

A. Complain
B. Comment
C. Condone
D. Console
Answer: Option A
Ques 88. HESITATED

A. Stopped
B. Paused
C. Slowed
D. Postponed

Answer: Option B
Ques 89. RESCUE

A. Command
B. Help
C. Defence
D. Safety
Answer: Option B
Ques 90. ATTEMPT

A. Serve
B. Explore
C. Try
D. Explain
Answer: Option C
Ques 91. CONSEQUENCES

A. Results
B. Conclusions
C. Difficulties
D. Applications
Answer: Option A
Directions to Solve
Pick out the most effective word(s) from the given words to fill in the blank to make the sentence
meaningfully complete.
Ques 92. Fate smiles ...... those who untiringly grapple with stark realities of life.
A. With
B. Over
C. On
D. round
Answer: Option C
Ques 93. The miser gazed ...... at the pile of gold coins in front of him.
A. Avidly
B. Admiringly
C. Thoughtfully
D. earnestly
Answer: Option A

Ques 94. Catching the earlier train will give us the .......to do some shopping.
A. Chance
B. Luck
C. Possibility
D. occasion
Answer: Option A
Ques 95. I saw a ....... of cows in the field.

A. Group
B. Herd
C. Swarm
D. flock
Answer: Option B
Ques 96. The grapes are now ....... enough to be picked.

A. Ready
B. Mature
C. Ripe
D. advanced
Answer: Option C
Ques 97. Success in this examination depends .......hard work alone.

A. At
B. Over
C. For
D. on
Answer: Option D
Ques 98. My uncle decided to take ...... and my sister to the market.
A. I
B. Mine
C. Me
D. myself
Answer: Option C
Ques 99. If you smuggle goods into the country, they may be ....... by the customs authority.
A. Possessed
B. Punished
C. Confiscated
D. fined

Answer: Option C
Ques 100. Man does not live by ...... alone.

A. Food
B. Bread
C. Meals
D. diet
Answer: Option B
Ques 101. Piyush behaves strangely at times and, therefore, nobody gets ....... with him.
A. About
B. Through
C. Along
D. up
Answer: Option C
Ques 102. Rohan and Rohit are twin brothers, but they do not look ......
A. Unique
B. Different
C. Likely
D. alike
Answer: Option D
Directions to Solve
In each question below a sentence broken into five or six parts. Join these parts to make a meaningful
sentence. The correct order of parts is the answer.
Ques 103. 1. I 2. immediately 3. Salary 4. my 5. want

A. 43152
B. 15432
C. 25143
D. 42351
E. 45132
Answer: Option B
Ques 104. 1. do 2. today 3. You 4. must 5. it

A. 34152
B. 25413
C. 12543

D. 51324
E. 45213
Answer: Option A
Ques 105. 1. left 2. the 3. House 4. he 5. suddenly

A. 12435
B. 21354
C. 45123
D. 52341
E. 24135
Answer: Option C
Ques 106. 1. medicine 2. a 3. Neeta 4. given 5. was

A. 51423
B. 25431
C. 15423
D. 42531
E. 35421
Answer: Option E
Ques 107. 1. of 2. we 3. Heard 4. him 5. had

A. 42351
B. 52341
C. 25341
D. 25431
E. 25314
Answer: Option E
Ques 108. 1. at 2. it 3. Take 4. once 5. away

A. 23514
B. 14352
C. 32514
D. 53214
E. 42315
Answer: Option C
Ques 109. 1. him 2. the 3. To 4. charge 5. handover

A. 42531
B. 51342
C. 41352

D. 45231
E. 52431
Answer: Option E
Ques 110. 1. seen 2. going 3. You 4. him 5. have

A. 35214
B. 35142
C. 32514
D. 35124
E. 53124
Answer: Option B
Ques 111. 1. bag? 2. you 3. Seen 4. have 5. my

A. 51432
B. 43512
C. 42351
D. 42153
E. 21435
Answer: Option C
Ques 112. 1. killed 2. a 3. Jaswant 4. bear 5. wild

A. 31254
B. 53124
C. 23145
D. 43125
E. 15234
Answer: Option A
Directions to Solve
Which of phrases given below each sentence should replace the phrase printed in bold type to make the
grammatically correct? If the sentence is correct as it is, mark 'E' as the answer.
Ques 113. The small child does whatever his father was done.
A. has done
B. did
C. does
D. had done
E. No correction required
Answer: Option C

Ques 114. You need not come unless you want to.
A. You don't need to come unless you want to
B. You come only when you want to
C. You come unless you don't want to
D. You needn't come until you don't want to
Answer: Option A
Ques 115. There are not many men who are so famous that they are frequently referred to by their
short names only
A. Initials
B. Signatures
C. Pictures
D. middle names
Answer: Option A
Ques 116. The man to who I sold my house was a cheat.

A. to whom I sell
B. to who I sell
C. who was sold to
D. to whom I sold
Answer: Option D
Ques 117. They were all shocked at his failure in the competition.
A. were shocked at all
B. had all shocked at
C. had all shocked by
D. had been all shocked on
Answer: Option E
Ques 118. I need not offer any explanation regarding this incident - my behavior is speaking itself.
A. will speak to itself
B. speaks for itself
C. has been speaking
D. speaks about itself
Answer: Option B

Ques 119. He is too important for tolerating any delay.
A. to tolerate
B. to tolerating
C. at tolerating
D. with tolerating
Answer: Option A
Ques 120. The population of Tokyo is greater than that of any other town in the world.
A. greatest among any other
B. greater than all other
C. greater than those of any other
D. greater than any other
Answer: Option E
Ques 121. The performance of our players was rather worst than I had expected.
A. bad as I had expected
B. worse than I had expected
C. worse than expectation
D. worst than was expected
Answer: Option B
Ques 122. Why did you not threw the bag away?
A. did you not throw
B. had you not threw
C. did you not thrown
D. you did not thrown
Ques 123. Shapes of gods and goddess are worshipped by people.
A. Images
B. Reflections
C. Clay shapes
D. Clay toys
Answer: Option A
Directions to Solve

In each question, an incomplete statement (Stem) followed by fillers is given. Pick out the best one which
can complete incomplete stem correctly and meaningfully.
Ques 124. Despite his best efforts to conceal his anger ......
A. we could detect that he was very happy
B. he failed to give us an impression of his agony
C. he succeeded in camouflaging his emotions
D. he could succeed in doing it easily
E. people came to know that he was annoyed
Answer: Option E
Ques 125. Even if it rains I shall come means ......

A. if I come it will not rain
B. if it rains I shall not come
C. I will certainly come whether it rains or not
D. whenever there is rain I shall come
E. I am less likely to come if it rains
Answer: Option C
Ques 126. His appearance is unsmiling but ......

A. his heart is full of compassion for others
B. he looks very serious on most occasions
C. people are afraid of him
D. he is uncompromising on matters of task performance
E. he is full of jealousy towards his colleagues
Answer: Option A
Ques 127. She never visits any zoo because she is strong opponent of the idea of ......
A. setting the animals free into forest
B. feeding the animals while others are watching
C. watching the animals in their natural abode
D. going out of the house on a holiday
E. holding the animals in captivity for our joy
Answer: Option E
Ques 128. I felt somewhat more relaxed ......

A. but tense as compared to earlier
B. and tense as compared to earlier
C. as there was already no tension at all
D. and tension-free as compared to earlier
E. because the worry had already captured by mind

Answer: Option D
Ques 129. It is not easy to remain tranquil when those around you ......
A. behave in a socially acceptable manner
B. exhibit pleasant mannerism
C. are losing their heads
D. agree to whatever you say
E. exhibit generous and magnanimous gestures
Answer: Option C
Ques 130. "The food in this hotel is no match to what were forced at late hours in Hotel Kohinoor "
means ......
A. The food in this hotel is quite good compared to what we ate at Kohinoor
B. Hotel kohinoor served us good quality food than what we get here
C. Both hotels have maintained good quality of food
D. Both hotels serve poor quality of food
E. it is better to eat food than remain hungry
Answer: Option B
Ques 131. Although initial investigations pointed towards him ......

A. the preceding events corroborated his involvement in the crime
B. the additional information confirmed his guilt
C. the subsequent events established that he was guilt
D. the subsequent events proved that he was innocent
E. he gave an open confession of his crime
Answer: Option D
Ques 132. The weather outside was extremely pleasant and hence we decided to ......
A. utilise our time in watching the television
B. refrain from going out for a morning walk
C. enjoy a morning ride in the open
D. employ this rare opportunity for writing letters
E. remain seated in our rooms in the bungalow
Answer: Option C
Ques 133. "It is an uphill task but you will have to do it" means ......
A. The work is above the hill and you will have to do it
B. It is a very easy task but you must do it
C. It is very difficult task but you have to do it
D. This work is not reserved for you but you will have to do it
E. It is almost impossible for others but you can do it

Answer: Option C
Directions to Solve
Rearrange the following five sentences in proper sequence so as to for a meaningful paragraph, then
answer the questions given below them.
1. After Examining him, the doctor smiled at him mischievously and took out a syringe.
2. Thinking that he was really sick, his father summoned the family doctor.
3. That day, Mintu wanted to take a day off from school
4. Immediately, Mintu jumped up from his bed and swore the he was fine
5. Therefor; he pretended to be sick and remained in bed.
Ques 134. Which sentence should come third in the paragraph?

A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
E. 5
Answer: Option B
Ques 135. Which sentence should come last in the paragraph?

A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
E. 5
Answer: Option D
Ques 136. Which sentence should come fourth in the paragraph?

A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
E. 5
Answer: Option A
Ques 137. Which sentence should come second in the paragraph?

A. 1
B. 2

C. 3
D. 4
E. 5
Answer: Option E
Ques 138. Which sentence should come first in the paragraph?

A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
E. 5
Answer: Option C
Directions to Solve
Read the following five sentences and rearrange them to make a coherent and logical paragraph. After
deciding the sequence, answer the questions given below.
1. In his literacy work he spoke of that province of human life which mere intellect does not speak.
2. He has also given innocent joy to many children by his stories like 'Kabuliwalah'
3. These songs are sung not only in bengal but all over the country.
4. Rabindranath's great works sprang from intensity of vision and feelings.
5. He sang of beauty and heroism, nobility and charm.
Ques 139. Which sentence should come fourth in the paragraph?

A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
E. 5
Answer: Option E
Ques 140. Which sentence should come third in the paragraph?

A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
E. 5
Answer: Option B

Ques 141. Which sentence should come second in the paragraph?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
E. 5
Answer: Option A
Ques 142. Which sentence should come fifth in the paragraph?

A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
E. 5
Answer: Option C
Ques 143. Which sentence should come first in the paragraph?

A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
E. 5
Answer: Option D
Directions to Solve
I felt the wall of the tunnel shiver. The master alarm squealed through my earphones. Almost
simultaneously, Jack yelled down to me that there was a warning light on. Fleeting but spectacular sights
snapped into ans out of view, the snow, the shower of debris, the moon, looming close and big, the
dazzling sunshine for once unfiltered by layers of air. The last twelve hours before re-entry were
particular bone-chilling. During this period, I had to go up in to command module. Even after the fiery
re-entry splashing down in 81o water in south pacific, we could still see our frosty breath inside the
command module.
Ques 144. The word 'Command Module' used twice in the given passage indicates perhaps that it
deals with
A. an alarming journey
B. a commanding situation
C. a journey into outer space
D. a frightful battle.
Answer: Option C

Ques 145. Which one of the following reasons would one consider as more as possible for the
warning lights to be on?
A. There was a shower of debris.
B. Jack was yelling.
C. A catastrophe was imminent.
D. The moon was looming close and big.
Answer: Option C
Ques 146. The statement that the dazzling sunshine was "for once unfiltered by layers of air"
means
A. that the sun was very hot
B. that there was no strong wind
C. that the air was unpolluted
D. none of above
Answer: Option D
Directions to Solve
But I did not want to shoot the elephant. I watched him beating his bunch of grass against his knees,
with the preoccupied grandmotherly air that elephants have. It seemed to me that it would be murder
to shoot him. I had never shot an elephant and never wanted to. (Somehow it always seems worse to kill
large animal.) Besides, there was the beast's owner to be considered. But I had got to act quickly. I
turned to some experienced-looking Burmans who had been there when we arrived, and asked them
how the elephants had been behaving. They all said the same thing; he took no notice of you if you left
him alone, but he might charge if you went too close to him.
Ques 147. The phrase 'Preoccupied grandmotherly air' signifies

A. being totally unconcerned
B. pretending to be very busy
C. a very superior attitude
D. calm, dignified and affectionate disposition
Answer: Option D
Ques 148. From the passage it appears that the author was
A. an inexperienced hunter
B. kind and considerate
C. possessed with fear
D. a worried man
Answer: Option B
Ques 149. The author did not want to shoot the elephant because he

A. was afraid of it
B. did not have the experience of shooting big animals
C. did not wish to kill animal which was not doing anybody any harm
D. did not find the elephant to be ferocious
Answer: Option B
Directions to Solve
Some proverbs/idioms are given below together with their meanings. Choose the correct meaning of
proverb/idiom, If there is no correct meaning given, E (i.e.) 'None of these' will be the answer.
Ques 150. To make clean breast of

A. To gain prominence
B. To praise oneself
C. To confess without of reserve
D. To destroy before it blooms
E. None of these
Answer: Option C
Ques 151. To keeps one's temper

A. To become hungry
B. To be in good mood
C. To preserve ones energy
D. To be aloof from
E. None of these
Answer: Option B
Ques 152. To catch a tartar

A. To trap wanted criminal with great difficulty
B. To catch a dangerous person
C. To meet with disaster
D. To deal with a person who is more than one's match
E. None of these
Answer: Option B
Ques 153. To drive home

A. To find one's roots
B. To return to place of rest
C. Back to original position
D. To emphasise
E. None of these

Answer: Option D
Ques 154. To have an axe to grind

A. A private end to serve
B. To fail to arouse interest
C. To have no result
D. To work for both sides
E. None of these
Answer: Option A
Ques 155. To cry wolf

A. To listen eagerly
B. To give false alarm
C. To turn pale
D. To keep off starvation
E. None of these
Answer: Option B
Ques 156. To end in smoke

A. To make completely understand
B. To ruin oneself
C. To excite great applause
D. To overcome someone
E. None of these
Answer: Option B
Ques 157. To be above board

A. To have a good height
B. To be honest in any business deal
C. They have no debts
D. To try to be beautiful
E. None of these
Answer: Option B
Ques 158. To put one's hand to plough

A. To take up agricultural farming
B. To take a difficult task
C. To get entangled into unnecessary things
D. Take interest in technical work
E. None of these

Answer: Option B
Ques 159. To pick holes

A. To find some reason to quarrel
B. To destroy something
C. To criticise someone
D. To cut some part of an item
E. None of these
Answer: Option C
Directions to Solve
In the questions below the sentences have been given in Direct/Indirect speech. From the given
alternatives, choose the one which best expresses the given sentence in Indirect/Direct speech.
Ques 160. "If you don't keep quiet I shall shoot you", he said to her in a calm voice.
A. He warned her to shoot if she didn't keep quiet calmly.
B. He said calmly that I shall shoot you if you don't be quiet.
C. He warned her calmly that he would shoot her if she didn't keep quiet.
D. Calmly he warned her that be quiet or else he will have to shoot her.
Answer: Option C
Ques 161. I told him that he was not working hard.

A. I said to him, "You are not working hard."
B. I told to him, "You are not working hard."
C. I said, "You are not working hard."
D. I said to him, "He is not working hard."
Answer: Option A
Ques 162. His father ordered him to go to his room and study.
A. His father said, "Go to your room and study."
B. His father said to him, "Go and study in your room."
C. His father shouted, "Go right now to your study room"
D. His father said firmly, "Go and study in your room."
Answer: Option A
Ques 163. He said to his father, "Please increase my pocket-money."

A. He told his father, "Please increase the pocket-money"
B. He pleaded his father to please increase my pocket money.
C. He requested his father to increase his pocket-money.
D. He asked his father to increase his pocket-money.

Answer: Option C
Ques 164. She said that her brother was getting married.
A. She said, "Her brother is getting married."
B. She told, "Her brother is getting married."
C. She said, "My brother is getting married."
D. She said, "My brother was getting married."
Answer: Option C
Ques 165. The boy said, "Who dare call you a thief?"
A. The boy enquired who dared call him a thief.
B. The boy asked who called him a thief.
C. The boy told that who dared call him a thief.
D. The boy wondered who dared call a thief.
Answer: Option A
Ques 166. She exclaimed with sorrow that was a very miserable plight.
A. She said with sorrow, "What a pity it is."
B. She said, "What a mystery it is."
C. She said, "What a miserable sight it is."
D. She said, "What a miserable plight it is."
Answer: Option D
Ques 167. Dhruv said that he was sick and tired of working for that company.
A. Dhruv said, "I am sick and tired of working for this company."
B. Dhruv said, "He was tired of that company."
C. Dhruv said to me, "I am sick and tired of working for this company."
D. Dhruv said, "I will be tired of working for that company."
Answer: Option A
Ques 168. "Are you alone, my son?" asked a soft voice close behind me.
A. A soft voice asked that what I was doing there alone.
B. A soft voice said to me are you alone son.
C. A soft voice from my back asked If I was alone.
D. A soft voice behind me asked If I was alone.
Answer: Option D
Ques 169. She said to him, "Why don't you go today?"

A. She asked him why he did not go that day.
B. She said to him why he don't go that day.

C. She asked him not to go that day.
D. She asked him why he did not go today.
Answer: Option A
”Error Correction Underlined Part”. Some of the portions will be underlined. You need to read the
question and identify the error in the highlighted portion.”
Ques 170. Have you been more careful, the accident could have been averted.
A. If you have been
B. Had you been
C. Have you been
D. If you could have been
Answer : Option B
Explanation: As the sentence talks about the past it is apt to say. 'Had you been more careful ...'.
Ques 171. The prices of essential commodities has risen unprecedentedly, causing a lot of hardship
to the common man.
A. has rosen
B. has rising
C. have risen
D. have rose
E. no correction required
Answer : Option C
Explanation: 'The prices' which is the subject of the sentence is in the plural and hence it has to take a
plural verb. 'Has risen' has to be replaced with 'have risen'.
Ques 172. The two belligerent nations decided to come to a compromise and resolve the issue
amicably.
A. to make a compromise
B. making a compromise
C. for a compromise
D. on compromising
Answer : Option E
Explanation: The given sentence has no grammatical error
Ques 173. Your admission into this university will be dependent on the marks you score in the
entrance examination.

A. is depending
B. depends
C. will depend
D. depending
Answer: Option C
Explanation: It is a future condition and hence 'will depend' is more appropriate.
Ques 174. In spite of all odds he pursued with his goal with girl and determination
A. he pursued to his goal
B. he pursued on his goal
C. he pursued into his goal
D. he pursued his goal
Answer: Option D
Explanation: The verb 'pursued' should not be followed by any preposition
Ques 175. There is no doubt whether he will be punished for his wrong doings.
A. that he will be
B. whether he would be
C. whether he is
D. that he has
Answer: Option A
Explanation: The phrases 'no doubt' 'little doubt', 'any doubt' are generally followed by 'that' clause. The
use of 'whether' is incorrect.
Ques 176. One must keep themselves abreast of current events particularly while preparing for
competitive exams.
A. put themselves
B. keep himself
C. keep oneself
D. put himself
Answer: Option C
Explanation: The pronoun 'themselves' does not agree with the subject of the sentence. 'One must keep
oneself ...'

Ques 177. Merit is the only criteria which is adapted in the selection of candidates.
A. criterion which is adapted
B. criterion that is adopted
C. criterion that is adapted
D. criterion what is adopted
E. No correction is required
Answer: Option B
Explanation: 'Criteria' is plural. Here it has to be 'criterion'(in singular). 'Adapted' is inapt in this context.
It has to be 'adopted'.
Ques 178. Relation between the two countries are in strain due to the border dispute.
A. are on strain
B. are on a strain
C. have a strain
D. have been strained
Answer: Option D
Explanation: The sentence suggests that the action has taken place over a period of time. In such cases,
the use of present perfect tense is most appropriate. 'relations have been strained '.
Ques 179. In order to attaining optimal health, one must lead a healthy lifestyle and exercise
regularly.
A. In order to attain optimal health
B. In order to attain optimal level in health
C. For attaining an optimal health
D. In order to attain an optimal health
Answer: Option A
Explanation: It has to be either 'In order to attain ...' or 'For attaining ...' Choices (C) and (D) are
incorrect as 'Health' is uncountable and does not take the article 'an'.
Ques 180. Yoga and meditation can relieve people of their mental stress and fatigues.
A. mental stress and fatigue
B. mental stresses and fatigues
C. mental stress or fatigue
D. mental stress or fatigues
Answer: Option A

Explanation: 'Fatigue' means tiredness and it is not used in the plural form. 'Fatigues' is inappropriate
usage. Yoga relieves one of both 'stress and fatigue' and not just 'stress or fatigue' and thus choice (C)
can be eliminated.
Antonyms Verbal Ability Questions: Find the correct antonym
Ques 181. Withdraw

A. Reduce
B. Need
C. Advance
D. Want
Answer: Option C
Explanation: To withdraw means to remove or retreat; to advance is the opposite of retreat
Ques 182. Secret

A. Friendly
B. Covert
C. Hidden
D. Overt
Answer: Option D
Explanation: Secret means hidden or covert; Overt means open to view
Ques 183. Heartfelt

A. Loving
B. Insincere
C. Unhealthy
D. Humorous
Answer: Option B
Explanation: Heartfelt means expressing genuine feeling, or sincere, so Insincere is its opposite
Ques 184. Impartial

A. Hostile
B. Biased
C. Dislike
D. Worried
Answer: Option B
Explanation: impartial means to be without prejudice or bias, therefore Biased is the opposite
Ques 185. Luminous

A. Clear
B. Dim
C. Brittle
D. Clever
Answer: Option B
Explanation: Luminous means radiating or reflecting light, or glowing; Dim means dark or dull
Ques 186. Expect

A. Attend
B. Regret
C. Despair
D. Loathe
Answer: Option C
Explanation: To expect is to wait for or to look forward to; to Despair is to lose all hope
Ques 187. Expound

A. Besmirch
B. Confuse
C. Confine
D. Condemn
Answer: Option B
Explanation: to Expound means to explain; to Confuse, or confound, is the opposite of expound
Ques 188. Dearth

A. Lack
B. Poverty
C. Abundance
D. Foreign
Answer: Option C
Explanation: Dearth means an inadequate supply or lack of something; Abundance means an ample
quantity, or wealth
Ques 189. Kindle

A. Smother
B. Detest
C. Enemy
D. Discourage

Answer: Option A
Explanation: To kindle means to start burning or ignite; to Smother means to stifle or suppress
Ques 190. Meager

A. Kind
B. Generous
C. Thoughtful
D. Copious
Answer: Option D
Explanation: Meager means lacking in quality or quantity; Copious means present in large quantity, or
abundant
Sentence Completion – Complete the sentence with given options
Ques 191. His------------ in his family’s position is great but he does not boast about it.
A. Status
B. Pride
C. Deceit
D. presumption
Answer: Option A
Ques 192. Everyone in this universe is accountable to God ------------ his actions.
A. About
B. Against
C. For
D. of
Answer: Option C
Ques 193. Prakash got the company car for a ----------- price as he was the senior most employee in
the company.
A. Reduced
B. Nominal
C. Fixed
D. discounted
Answer: Option B
Ques 194. The opposition parties allege that prices of essential commodities are ------------ like a
runaway ballon.
A. Soaring
B. Reviving

C. Flying
D. leaping
Answer: Option A
Ques 195. It was through the Second World War that Russia ----------- herself increased ------------ in
power and wealth and prestige.
A. saw, abundantly
B. notice, gullibly
C. witnessed prodigiously
D. None of these
Answer: Option C
Ques 196. In the world of today, material values take precedence ------------spiritual values.
A. About
B. On
C. Over
D. at
Answer: Option C
Ques 197. He congratulated his friend ----------- the latter’s success.

A. For
B. About
C. On
D. with
Answer: Option C
Ques 198. Even when Mashesh’s reputation was in ----------- almost everyone was willing to admit
that he had genius.
A. Failure
B. Rebuttal
C. Accumulation
D. eclipse
Answer: Option D
Ques 199. Knowledge is like a deep well fed by ------------ springs, and your mind is the little bucket
that you drop in it.
A. Perennial
B. Eternal
C. Sterling
D. immortal

Answer: Option A
Ques 200. We had a wonderful view of the bay through the --------- --.
A. Window
B. Zenith
C. Vicinity
D. proximity
Answer: Option A
Ques 201. Choose the correct spelt word out of the given alternatives.
A. Damage
B. Dammege
C. Damaige
D. Dammage
Answer: Option A
A. Itinaray
B. Itinarery
C. Itinarery
D. Itinerary
Answer: Option D
A. Commander
B. Comander
C. Comander
D. Comandar
Answer: Option A
A. Pasanger
B. Passenger
C. Pessenger
D. Pasanger
Answer: Option B
A. Busisness
B. Business

C. Buisiness
D. Bussiness
Answer: Option B
A. Scriptur
B. Skripture
C. Scripcher
D. Scripture
Answer: Option D
A. Careir
B. Carreer
C. Caireer
D. Career
Answer: Option D
A. Gaurante
B. Guaruntee
C. Garuntee
D. Guarantee
Answer: Option D
A. Forcaust
B. Forcast
C. Forecaste
D. Forecast
Answer: Option D
A. Commison
B. Comission
C. Commisson
D. Commission
Answer: Option D

A. Exampel
B. Example
C. Exampal
D. Exemple
Answer: Option B
A. Achievement
B. Acheivment
C. Achievment
D. Achevement
Answer: Option A
A. Fabullous
B. Fablous
C. Fabuleous
D. Fabulous
Answer: Option D
A. Corrupt
B. Currupt
C. Coruppt
D. Curropt
Answer: Option A
A. Receding
B. Recedeing
C. Reeceding
D. Receeding
Answer: Option A
A. Commettee
B. Committee
C. Committea
D. Commetee

Answer: Option B
A. Overlapped
B. Overleped
C. Overelaped
D. Overlaped
Answer: Option A
A. Draut
B. Drougt
C. Drout
D. Drought
Answer: Option D
A. Restaurent
B. Restaurant
C. Rastaurent
D. Rasteraunt
Answer: Option B
Arrange the sentence from the given options
Ques 220. People
(P) at his dispensary
(Q) went to him
(R) of a11 professions
(S) for medicine and treatment
A. RQSP
B. QPRS
C. QRPS
D. RPQS
Answer: Option A
Ques 221. As lightning accompanies thunder

(P) was mingled with
(Q) so in my character
(R) the mutterings of my wrath
(S) a flash of humour
A. QSPR
B. PRSQ
C. QPRS
D. QRPS
Answer: Option D
Ques 222. Recently
(P) containing memorable letters of Churchill
(Q) a book
(R) has been published
(S) by a reputed publisher
A. QPRS
B. PQRS
C. QRPS
D. RQPS
Answer: Option A
Ques 223. All religions are
(P) to advance the cause of peace
(Q) in a holy partnership
(R) justice and freedom
(S) bound together
A. PQRS
B. PRQS
C. SPQR
D. SQPR
Answer: Option D

Ques 224. It was true that
(P) the pet dog
(Q) would never sleep anywhere
(R) we once had
(S) except on the sofa
A. RPQS
B. SPQR
C. PRQS
D. PQSR
Answer: Option C
Ques 225. The boy
(P) with big blue eyes
(Q) watched him
(R) and he never said a word
(S) that had an uncanny cold fire in them
A. PQRS
B. PQSR
C. QPSR
D. QRPS
Answer: Option C
Ques 226. I enclose
(P) and the postage
(Q) a postal order
(R) the price of the books
(S) which will cover
A. QPSR
B. RPSQ
C. QSPR
D. QSRP

Answer: Option D
Ques 227. The Indian woman wants
(P) in a male dominated society
(Q) as an equal partner
(R) and it is not too much to demand
(S) her rightful place
A. RSQP
B. QPSR
C. SQPR
D. SRPQ
Answer: Option C
Ques 228. Little
(P) that he had been let down
(Q) stood by all these years
(R) did he realise
(S) by a colleague whom he had
A. QSPR
B. QSRP
C. RSQP
D. RPSQ
Answer: Option D
Ques 229. A policeman
(P) to abide
(Q) if he has to do well
(R) by the strict letters of the law
(S) cannot afford
A. PRQS
B. SPRQ
C. RQPS

D. QSPR
Answer: Option D
Ques 230. The effectiveness of a film
(P) the needs of the audience
(Q) is judged by
(R) and its relation to
(S) Its theme
A. QSRP
B. PSQR
C. PQRS
D. QPRS
Answer: Option A
Ques 231. They are plant eaters
(P) and various kinds of vegetation
(Q) browsing on grass
(R) and consume
(S) vast quantities of pasture
A. RSQP
B. QSRP
C. QPRS
D. RSPQ
Answer: Option C
Ques 232. I read an advertisement that said
(P) posh, air conditioned
(Q) gentlemen of taste
(R) are available for
(S) fully furnished rooms
A. PSRQ

B. SRPQ
C. PSQR
D. PQRS
Answer: Option A
Ques 233. It is a rule
(P) by anyone and admit
(Q) that must not
(R) of no variation
(S) be violated
A. QSPR
B. PSQR
C. QPRS
D. RQPS
Answer: Option A
Ques 234. The house
(P) about half a mile distant
(Q) that stunds in front of us
(R) was built of stones
(S) which were dug out of its own site
A. QSPR
B. QRPS
C. QPRS
D. QRSP
Answer: Option C
Ques 235. The statement
(P) therefore you must listen carefully
(Q) what the speaker has said
(R) in order to understand
(S) will be made just once

A. SRPQ
B. SPQR
C. SPRQ
D. RSPQ
Answer: Option C
Ques 236. Reading books
(P) is a habit
(Q) but also enlarges the mind
(R) because it not only increases knowledge
(S) which must be cultivated by everybody
A. PQSR
B. SRPQ
C. PSRQ
D. PQRS
Answer: Option C
Ques 237. Towards midnight
(P) so that the sky was lighted with
(Q) and the clouds drifted away
(R) the rain ceased
(S) the incredible lamp of stars
A. SPQR
B. SQPR
C. RPQS
D. RQPS
Answer: Option D
Ques 238. The exhibition committee
(P) attractive and useful
(Q) to make the exhibition
(R) making efforts

(S) has been
A. SRQP
B. QPRS
C. SRPQ
D. QPSR
Answer: Option A
Synonyms Verbal Ability Questions
Ques 239. Remote

A. Automatic
B. Distant
C. Savage
D. Mean
Answer: Option B
Explanation: Remote means faraway, or distant
Ques 240. Detest

A. Argue
B. Hate
C. Discover
D. Reveal
Answer: Option B
Explanation: to detest means to feel intense or violent dislike, or to hate
Ques 241. Gracious

A. Pretty
B. Clever
C. Pleasant
D. Present
Answer: Option C
Explanation: gracious means to be pleasant or considerate in social interactions
Ques 242. Predict

A. Foretell
B. Decide
C. Prevent
D. Discover

Answer: Option A
Explanation: to predict means to declare in advance or to foretell
Ques 243. Kin

A. Exult
B. Twist
C. Friend
D. Relative
Answer: Option D
Explanation: kin means people with common ancestors, or relatives
Ques 244. Banish

A. Exile
B. Hate
C. Fade
D. Clean
Answer: Option A
Explanation: to banish means to drive out from home or country, or to exile
Ques 245. Fraud

A. Malcontent
B. Argument
C. Imposter
D. Clown
Answer: Option C
Explanation: a fraud is someone who is not what he or she pretends to be, or an imposter
Ques 246. Drag

A. Sleepy
B. Crush
C. Proud
D. Pull
Answer: Option D
Explanation: to drag is to pull, or to cause movement in a direction with applied force
Ques 247. Indifferent

A. Neutral
B. Unkind

C. Precious
D. Mean
Answer: Option A
Explanation: to be indifferent is to be marked by impartiality or to be neutral
Ques 248. Simulate

A. Excite
B. Imitate
C. Trick
D. Apelike
Answer: Option B
Explanation: to simulate is to assume the outward appearance of, or to imitate
Ques 249. Charisma

A. Ghost
B. Force
C. Charm
D. Courage
Answer: Option C
Explanation: charisma is magnetic charm or appeal
Ques 250. Generic

A. General
B. Cheap
C. Fresh
D. Elderly
Answer: Option A
Explanation: generic means having the characteristic of a whole group, or general
Ques 251. Wary

A. Calm
B. Curved
C. Confused
D. Cautious
Answer: Option D
Explanation: wary means to be attentive especially to danger, or to be cautious

Ques 252. Distort
A. Wrong
B. Evil
C. Deform
D. Harm
Answer: Option C
Explanation: to distort means to twist out of a normal state, or to deform
Ques 253. Loot

A. Destruction
B. Waste
C. Spoils
D. Cavort
Answer: Option C
Explanation: loot means goods seized in war, or spoils
Ques 254. ABDUCT

A. Ransack
B. Surround
C. Induce
D. Destroy
E. kidnap
Answer: Option E
Explanation: Abduct and kidnap are synonymous.
Ques 255. DETEST

A. Loathe
B. Rebel
C. Neglect
D. Pretend
E. captivate
Answer: Option A
Explanation: Detest means to loathe or hate.
Ques 256. CLEANSE

A. Polish
B. Flow
C. Absolve

D. Reveal
E. revolve
Answer: Option C
Explanation: Cleanse (rid of something unpleasant or unwanted) is synonymous with absolve (declare
free from guilt, blame or sin).
Ques 257. ABODE

A. Sanctuary
B. Residence
C. Reformatory
D. Dwelling
E. shelter
Answer: Option D
Explanation: The word abode which is a formal or literary term means a house or home, 'dwelling' is its
closest synonym. The word 'residence' can be ruled out because it refers only to a person's home, where
as the word 'abode' has a wider connotation. For eg. the abode of animals, the abode of god but it is
absurd to say the residence of god or the residence of animals.
Ques 258. EPITOMIZE

A. Disappoint
B. Distend
C. Exemplify
D. Generate
E. lengthen
Answer: Option C
Explanation: The word epitomize means to be a perfect example of something. The word 'exemplify' is
its closest synonym.
Ques 259. REPEAL

A. Continue
B. Prolong
C. Promote
D. Reject
E. abrogate
Answer: Option E
Explanation: Repeal means to officially cancel(a law or an act of parliament)the word 'abrogate' also
means the same.

Ques 260. ABSCOND
A. run away
B. give away
C. move away
D. forbid
E. waste away
Answer: Option E
Explanation: Abscond means to leave quickly and secretly to escape from custody or to avoid arrest.
Ques 261. REPRIEVE

A. Save
B. Forgive
C. Victimize
D. Cure
E. influence
Answer: Option B
Explanation: Reprieve means to pardon or forgive.
Ques 262. CRYPTIC

A. Spurious
B. Obscure
C. Imposing
D. Superficial
E. irrelevant
Answer: Option B
Explanation: Cryptic means mysterious. Among the options, obscure is synonymous with it.
Ques 263. INCLINATION

A. Penchant
B. Skill
C. Fame
D. Favour
E. delight
Answer: Option A
Explanation: Inclination means penchant or predilection.
Ques 264. TRIBUTE

A. Declaration

B. Accolade
C. Criticism
D. Anger
E. assertion
Answer: Option B
Explanation: Tribute and accolade (praise) are synonymous.
Fill in the Blanks : Preposition
Ques 265. Take this medicine and you will get rid --------- the bad cold
A. Of
B. Over
C. At
D. from
Answer: Option A
Ques 266. I am angry with him ------ his carelessness.

A. On
B. To
C. For
D. at
Answer: Option C
Ques 267. It is dangerous to enter --------- the enemy’s camp.

A. In
B. On
C. By
D. into
Answer: Option D
Ques 268. It is dangerous to enter --------- the enemy’s camp.

A. In
B. On
C. By
D. into
Answer: Option D
Ques 269. My cousin has invested a lot of money ----------- farming.

A. In
B. For

C. On
D. into
Answer: Option A
Ques 270. He was vexed ------ Sohan for his behavior.

A. At
B. To
C. Upon
D. with
Answer: Option D
Ques 271. I brought him------- with great difficulty.

A. Up
B. About
C. Round
D. in
Answer: Option A
Ques 272. Give example pertinent --------- the case.

A. On
B. To
C. For
D. with
Answer: Option B
Ques 273. There is no exception -------- this rule.

A. For
B. To
C. At
D. about
Answer: Option B
Ques 274. I do not agree --------- you on this point.

A. To
B. In
C. At
D. with
Answer: Option D
Ques 275. The candidates were tense ----------expectancy.

A. With
B. In
C. From
D. on
Answer: Option A
Ques 276. Good sleep is necessary good health.

A. Of
B. For
C. At
D. from
Answer: Option B
Ques 277. He is used such hardships.

A. At
B. In
C. To
D. for
Answer: Option C
Ques 278. Reema is married Rajesh.

A. To
B. With
C. At
D. between
Answer: Option A
Ques 279. We should travel night, as it will be cooler.

A. In
B. At
C. With
D. by
Answer: Option A
Ques 280. One must keep something for the rainy day.
A. By
B. For
C. In
D. at

Answer: Option C
Ques 281. Mr. Rana has no control his student.

A. On
B. Over
C. With
D. at
Answer: Option B
Ques 282. Under heavy load the bridge may give .

A. Out
B. Way
C. Away
D. in
Answer: Option B
Ques 283. He has been waiting for me three weeks.

A. For
B. From
C. Since
D. on
Answer: Option A
Ques 284. The thieves quarrelled among them the division of booty.
A. About
B. In
C. Above
D. on
Answer: Option A
Ques 285. The thunder was accompanied heavy rains.

A. With
B. By
C. Up
D. into
Answer: Option A
Correct the Error in the sentences:
Ques 286. The organization aims to providing with satellite-based data on climate-relevent
information with highest possible levels of accuracy and realiability.

A. to provide with
B. at providing with
C. to provide
D. to the provision of
Answer: Option C
Explanation: The organisation aims 'at providing' or 'to provide' something. The use of 'with' is incorrect.
It aims 'to provide' something not 'provide with something'.
Ques 287. Underwater archaeology has huge potential, as it could be a time-consuming and costly
way to study the past.
A. as it is
B. but it is
C. since it could be
D. but it could
Answer: Option B
Explanation: The first part of the sentence says something positive about underwater archaeology (has
huge potential) and the second part brings out its drawbacks. It is a contradiction and hence it is apt to
use a conjunction which brings out this contrast. The conjunction 'but' has to replace 'as'. Also the idea
stated is given as a fact. The first part is in simple past and the second part should also be in the simple
past. The verb 'is' has to replace 'could be' which suggests a supposition. The correction therefore is 'but
it is a time-consuming'.
Ques 288. Each galaxy is surrounded by a giant sphere of dark matter more than 10 times so wide
asthe visible portion of the galaxy.
A. the width of
B. so wider than
C. of the width to
D. in width than
Answer: Option A
Explanation: It is 'more than 10 times the width of' something else. It has to take a noun and not an
adjective. The comparison is between the width of the dark matter and the width of the visible portion
of the galaxy. The comparison is brought out with the use of 'more than'. Hence the use of 'as wide as'
or 'wider than' becomes absurd. The correction is '10 times of the width of'.

Ques 289. Studies have revealed what more is the reason people are asked to come up with in
support of an idea, the less value they ascribe to each.
A. what more reasons
B. that more is the reason
C. what is the reason
D. that the more reasons
Answer: Option D
Explanation: There are two sentences combined using a conjunction. The first clause is 'studies have
revealed'. The rest forms another noun clause. What have the studies revealed? They have revealed
that. Hence the appropriate conjunction is 'that'. This clause should have one main verb which is 'asked'.
People are asked to come up with reasons in support of an idea. 'The more they are asked, the less they'
is the appropriate way of framing this. The correction therefore is 'that the more reasons people are
asked, the less value they'.
Ques 290. When he is short of money, he earns a little extra cash on being told the fortunes using
a pack of tarot cards.
A. by being told fortunes
B. by telling fortunes
C. by telling of the fortune of
D. on telling fortunes
Answer: Option B
Explanation: He is short of money. So he earns extra cash 'by' doing something. Hence 'by' has to
replace on. He earns it telling fortunes using the tarot cards.' 'Fortune-telling' is taken up as a profession.
Ques 291. Mobile phones are now-a-days used not just to make calls or send and receive text
messages but to also carry on financial transactions.
A. but also to carry on
B. but to carry out also
C. but also to carry out
D. and to carry out
Answer: Option C
Explanation: They are used 'not only to make calls but also to carry out'. The use of'to before also' is
ungrammatical. Also financial transactions are 'carried out'. 'carry on' is in apt in this context. The
correction is 'but also to carry out'.

Ques 292. Scientists have estimated that millions of a creatures living in water had been dying
every year if they become entangled in plastic pollution or ingest it.
A. every year is dying as
B. has died every year as if
C. die every year when
D. was dying every year when
Answer: Option C
Explanation: Scientists say that it happens 'every year'. Hence it is most apt to use the simple present
tense (die) in this context. Also the use of 'if' as the conjunction is illogical. They die 'when they become
entangled in'.
Ques 293. One of the grievances of the Kashmiri locals is about the overbearing presence of
security personnel in residential areas.
A. the overbearing present of
B. overbearing presence in the
C. overbearing in presence of
D. in the overbearing presence of
Answer: Option E
Explanation: The given sentence is grammatically correct.
Ques 294. One of the chief emotional differences between man and other animals is that some
human desires, unlikely that of animals, are essentially boundless and incapable of complete
satisfaction.
A. unlike that of animals,
B. unlike those of animals,
C. unlikely those in animals
D. unlikeable in animals,
Answer: Option B
Explanation: The comparison is between human desires and the desires of other animals. As 'human
desires' is plural 'those should be used in place of 'that'. Also the use of 'unlikely' is absurd. It is a
comparison. 'Unlike the desires of animals, human desires are insatiable' is the suggested meaning.
Hence the correction is 'unlike those of animals'.
Ques 295. Compared to most other diseases, in which bacteria or parasites take over the body, in
cancer, the forces to destruct is more close to be entwined with the fundamental mechanisms
of life.

A. of destructing is mostly to be
B. of destruction is more close and
C. in destruction are most close to be
D. of destruction are more closely
Answer: Option D
Explanation: It is 'the forces of destruction' or 'the forces causing destruction'. These 'forces are more
closely'. Forces is plural and hence 'are' has to replace 'is'. They 'are closely entwined with' something.
Hence the correction is 'forces of destruction are more closely entwined' the use of the phrase 'close to
be entwined' is absurd.
Ques 296. As a child, she was looking plainly but now she has turned out remarkable pretty.
A. looked plainly
B. is looking plain
C. looked plain
D. had looked plainly
Answer: Option C
Explanation: To 'look plain' means to be ordinary-looking which is what the sentence suggests. She was
'ordinary-looking' or she was 'looking plain' but later she turned out to be beautiful. Hence, 'looked
plain' in the simple past is the most appropriate replacement for the part given in bold.
Ques 297. They asked that how much long I had been learning French.
A. for how long
B. for how much long
C. how much long
D. that long
Answer: Option A
Explanation: It is a question which has been given in the indirect speech. Questions, when converted to
indirect speech do not take the conjunction 'that'. The use of 'much' before 'long' is grammatically
incorrect. It has to be 'for how long I had been' as given in option (A).
Ques 298. It might be located right in the capital's posh area but the moment you step into this
famous restaurant, cosy and warm enfolding you.
A. cosy and warm enfolds you
B. cosy and warmth enfolds you
C. cosiness and warmth enfolds you
D. cosiness and warmth is enfolding you

Answer: Option C
Explanation: The last part is the main clause of the second sentence 'the moment you'. Hence it needs a
finite verb. The sentence needs a verb in the present tense. Hence 'enfolds' should replace 'enfolding'.
Also 'cosy and warm' is the subject which has to be given in the noun form. The correction is 'cosiness
and warmth enfolds you'.
Ques 299. To be over weighed is not the same as being obese.

A. Being over weighed
B. To be over weight
C. Being over weight
D. Being over weight
Answer: Option D
Explanation: The comparison is between 'being overweight' and 'being obese'. As the second part of the
sentence has 'being obese' parallelism demands that the first part also takes the same be-form. Hence,
'being overweight' is the correct way of expressing the idea.
Ques 300. Unless I have a peaceful environment, I will be not able to complete my work.
A. will not be able
B. am not able
C. would be not able
D. was not able
Answer: Option A
Explanation: When there are two parts of a verb given in a sentence (will be) the negative has to come
between the two (i.e) 'will not be'.

APTITUDE QUESTIONS
(ALL TYPES)

Contents:
1. Formulas & Tricks to Solve Questions

2. Time – Distance and Train related Questions
3. Time and Work
4. Ratios
5. Simple & Compound Interest
6. Averages
7. Profit, Loss and Percentage
8. Simple Equations
9. Probability and Permutations & Combinations
10. River & Stream related Questions
11. General Mathematical Reasoning
12. Odd one Out
13. Series Completion
14. Analogy
15. Assertion & Reason

Concepts and Tricks to solve General Aptitude Questions
Time and Distance Formulae
1. Speed, Time and Distance

Speed = (Distance/Time)
Time = (Distance/Speed)
Distance = (Speed x Time).
2. km per hr to m per sec conversion x km/hr = (x*5/18) m/sec.

3. m/sec to km/hr conversion x m/sec = (x *18/5) km/hr.
Simple Interest Formulae
SI = Simple Interest; A = Amount; P = Principal; T = Time; R = Rate of interest

SI = (P * T * R) / 100
A = P + SI
P = (100 * A) / (100 + RT)
SI = ART / (100 + RT)
P = (100 * SI) / TR
T = (100 * SI) / PR
R = (100 * SI) / PT
Averages Formulae
1. Average
Average = (Sum of observations/Number of observations)
2. Average Speed
Suppose a man covers a certain distance at X kmph and an equal distance at Y kmph.
Then, the average speed during the whole journey is {2xy/(x+y)} kmph.
Compound Interest Formulae
Compound Interest basic terms
A = Amount
P = Principal
R = Rate of Interest
N = Number of Years

1. Interest Compounded Yearly
Amount (A) = Principal (P) X ( 1 + Rate of Interest (R) / 100 )Number of Years (N)
2. Interest Compounded Half-Yearly

Amount (A) = Principal (P) X [ 1 + Rate of Interest (R) / 2 / 100 ]2 X Number of Years (N)
(or) Principal (P) = [ 1 + Rate of Interest (R) / 200 ] 2 X Number of Years (N)
3. Interest Compounded Quarterly

Amount (A) = Principal (P) X [ 1 + Rate of Interest (R) / 4 / 100 ]
(or) Principal (P) [ 1 + Rate of Interest (R) / 400 ] 4 X Number of Years (N)
Profit and Loss Formulae
1. Gain = (S.P.) - (C.P.)

2. Loss = (C.P.) - (S.P.)
3. Loss or gain is always reckoned on C.P.
4. Gain Percentage = Gain x 100/C.P
5. Loss Percentage = Loss x 100/C.P
6. Selling Price = (100 + Gain %)x C.P/100
7. Selling Price = (100 - Loss %)x C.P/100
8. Cost Price = 100x S.P/(100 + Gain %)
9. Cost Price = 100x S.P/(100 - Loss %)
Permutations and Combinations Formulae
1. Factorial Notation - Let n be a positive integer. Then, factorial n denoted n! is defined as:
n! = n(n - 1)(n - 2) ... 3.2.1.
2. Number of Permutations - Number of all permutations of n things, taken r at a time, is given
by:
nPr = n(n - 1)(n - 2) ... (n - r + 1) = n!/(n - r)!
3. Then, the number of permutations of these n objects is = n!/(p1!).(p2)! .... (pr!)
4. Number of Combinations - The number of all combinations of n things, taken r at a time is:
nCr = n!/(r!)(n - r)! = n(n - 1)(n - 2) .... to r factors/r!
Probability Formulae

1. Probability Range = 0 = P(A) = 1
2. Rule of Complementary Events = P(AC) + P(A) = 1
3. Rule of Addition = (A or B) = P(A) + P(B) - P(AnB)
4. Disjoint Events
Events A and B are disjoint iff = P(AnB) = 0
5. Conditional Probability = P(A | B) = P(AnB) / P(B)
6. Bayes Formula = P(A | B) = P(B | A) · P(A) / P(B)
7. Independent Events
Events A and B are independent iff = P(AnB) = P(A) · P(B)
8.Cumulative Distribution Function = FX(x) = P(X = x)
Boats and Streams Formulae
1. Speed downstream = (u + v) km/hr.

2. Speed upstream = (u - v) km/hr.
3. Speed in still water = 1(a + b)/2 km/hr.
4. Rate of stream = 1(a - b)/2 km/hr.
Areas Formulae
1. Area of a rectangle = (Length x Breadth).

2. Length = Area/Breadth and Breadth = Area/Length
3. Perimeter of a rectangle = 2(Length + Breadth)
4. Area of a square = (side)2 = 1/2(diagonal)2.
5. Area of 4 walls of a room = 2 (Length + Breadth) x Height
6. Area of a triangle = 1/2x Base x Height.
7. Area of parallelogram = (Base x Height).
8. Area of a rhombus = 1/2x (Product of diagonals).
9. Area of a trapezium = 1/2x (sum of parallel sides) x distance between them.
Problems on LCM and HCF Formulae
1. H.C.F. = H.C.F. of Numerators/L.C.M. of Denominators

2. L.C.M. = L.C.M. of Numerators/H.C.F. of Denominators

Time- Distance and Train Related Questions
Ques 1. Express a speed of 36 kmph in meters per second?

A. 10 mps
B. 12 mps
C. 14 mps
D. 17 mps
Answer: Option A
Explanation:
36 * 5/18 = 10 mps
Ques 2. Express 25 mps in kmph?

A. 15 kmph
B. 99 kmph
C. 90 kmph
D. None
Answer: Option C
Explanation:
25 * 18/5 = 90 kmph
Ques 3. The speed of a train is 90 kmph. What is the distance covered by it in 10

minutes?
A. 15 kmph
B. 12 kmph
C. 10 kmph
D. 5 kmph
Answer: Option A
Explanation:
90 * 10/60 = 15 kmph
Ques 4. A car covers a distance of 624 km in 6 ½ hours. Find its speed?

A. 104 kmph
B. 140 kmph
C. 104 mph
D. 10.4 kmph
Answer: Option A
Explanation:

624/6 = 104 kmph
Ques 5. In what time will a railway train 60 m long moving at the rate of 36 kmph pass a
telegraph post on its way?
A. 9 sec
B. 8 sec
C. 7 sec
D. 6 sec
Answer: Option D
Explanation:
T = 60/36 * 18/5 = 6 sec
Ques 6. A train 240 m in length crosses a telegraph post in 16 seconds. The speed of the
train is?
A. 50 kmph
B. 52 kmph
C. 54 kmph
D. 56 kmph
Answer: Option C
Explanation:
S = 240/16 * 18/5 = 54 kmph
Ques 7. The speed of a car is 90 km in the first hour and 60 km in the second hour. What
is the average speed of the car?
A. 72 kmph
B. 75 kmph
C. 30 kmph
D. 80 kmph
Answer: Option B
Explanation:
S = (90 + 60)/2 = 75 kmph
Ques 8. Walking with 4/5 of my usual speed, I miss the bus by 5 minutes. What is my
usual time?
A. 35 min
B. 30 min
C. 25 min
D. 20 min

Answer: Option D
Explanation:
Speed Ratio = 1:4/5 = 5:4Time Ratio = 4:51 -------- 5 4 ----------? è 20
Ques 9. If a man walks to his office at ¾ of his usual rate, he reaches office 1/3 of an hour
late than usual. What is his usual time to reach office?
A. 1 hour
B. 2 hour
C. 3 hour
D. 4 hour
Answer: Option A
Explanation:
Speed Ratio = 1:3/4 = 4:3
Time Ratio = 3:4
1 1/3
3 --------- ? 1hour
Ques 10. Two cars cover the same distance at the speed of 60 and 64 kmps respectively.
Find the distance traveled by them if the slower car takes 1 hour more than the faster
car.
A. 906 km
B. 960 m
C. 960 km
D. 966 km
Answer: Option C
Explanation:
60(x + 1) = 64x
X = 15
60 * 16 = 960 km
Ques 11. A man leaves a point P at 6 a.m. and reaches the point Q at 10 a.m. another man
leaves the point give at 8 a.m. and reaches the point P at 12 noon. At what time do they
meet?
A. 8 a.m.
B. 8 p.m.
C. 9 a.m.
D. 9 p.m.

Answer: Option C
Explanation:
9 a.m.
Ques 12. A thief goes away with a SANTRO car at a speed of 40 kmph. The theft has been
discovered after half an hour and the owner sets off in a bike at 50 kmph when will the
owner over take the thief from the start?
A. 2 hours
B. 2 hours 45 min
C. 2 hours 30 min
D. 2 hours 50 min
Answer: Option A
Explanation:
| 20 |
50 40
D = 20
RS = 50 – 40 = 10
T = 20/10 = 2 hours
Ques 13. If I walk at 3 kmph, I miss the train by 2 min, if however, I walk at 4 kmph. I reach
the station 2 min before the arrival of the train. How far do I walk to reach the station?
A. 4/5 km
B. 5/4 km
C. 6/5 km
D. 3/4 km
Answer: Option A
Explanation:
x/3 – x/4 = 4/60
x = 4/5 km
Ques 14. Two trains each 250 m in length are running on the same parallel lines in
opposite directions with the speed of 80 kmph and 70 kmph respectively. In what time
will they cross each other completely?
A. 10 sec
B. 11 sec
C. 12 sec

D. 14 sec
Answer: Option C
Explanation:
D = 250 m + 250 m = 500 m
RS = 80 + 70 = 150 * 5/18 = 125/3
T = 500 * 3/125 = 12 sec
Ques 15. Two trains of equal length, running with the speeds of 60 and 40 kmph, take 50
seconds to cross each other while they are running in the same direction. What time will
they take to cross each other if they are running in opposite directions?
A. 10 sec
B. 9 sec
C. 8 sec
D. 7 sec
Answer: Option A
Explanation:
RS = 60 -40 = 20 * 5/18 = 100/18
T = 50
D = 50 * 100/18 = 2500/9
RS = 60 + 40 = 100 * 5/18
T = 2500/9 * 18/500 = 10 sec
Ques 16. A train running at the speed of 60 km/hr crosses a pole in 9 seconds. What is the
length of the train?
A. 120 metres
B. 180 metres
C. 324 metres
D. 150 metres
Answer: Option D
Ques 17. A train 125 m long passes a man, running at 5 km/hr in the same direction in
which the train is going, in 10 seconds. The speed of the train is:
A. 45 km/hr
B. 50 km/hr

C. 54 km/hr
D. 55 km/hr
Answer: Option B
Ques 18. A person crosses a 600 m long street in 5 minutes. What is his speed in km per
hour?
A. 3.6
B. 7.2
C. 8.4
D. 10
Answer: Option B
Ques 19. An aeroplane covers a certain distance at a speed of 240 kmph in 5 hours. To
cover the same distance in 1 hours, it must travel at a speed of:
A. 300 kmph
B. 360 kmph
C. 600 kmph
D. 720 kmph
Answer: Option D
Ques 20. A train can travel 50% faster than a car. Both start from point A at the same time
and reach point B 75 kms away from A at the same time. On the way, however, the train
lost about 12.5 minutes while stopping at the stations. The speed of the car is:
A. 100 kmph
B. 110 kmph
C. 120 kmph
D. 130 kmph
Answer: Option C
Ques 21. In a flight of 600 km, an aircraft was slowed down due to bad weather. Its
average speed for the trip was reduced by 200 km/hr and the time of flight increased by
30 minutes. The duration of the flight is:
A. 1 hour
B. 2 hours
C. 3 hours
D. 4 hours
Answer: Option A

Ques 22. Two trains running in opposite directions cross a man standing on the platform
in 27 seconds and 17 seconds respectively and they cross each other in 23 seconds. The
ratio of their speeds is:
A. 1 : 3
B. 3 : 2
C. 3 : 4
D. None of these
Answer: Option B
Ques 23. A train passes a station platform in 36 seconds and a man standing on the
platform in 20 seconds. If the speed of the train is 54 km/hr, what is the length of the
platform?
A. 120 m
B. 240 m
C. 300 m
D. None of these
Answer: Option B
Ques 24. Two trains of equal length are running on parallel lines in the same direction at
46 km/hr and 36 km/hr. The faster train passes the slower train in 36 seconds. The
length of each train is:
A. 50 m
B. 72 m
C. 80 m
D. 82 m
Answer: Option A
Ques 25. If a train, travelling at a speed of 90 kmph, crosses a pole in 5 sec, then the
length of train is?
A. 104 m
B. 125 m
C. 140 m
D. 152 m
Answer: Option B
Explanation:
D = 90 * 5/18 * 5 = 125 m

Ques 26. Two trains travelling in the same direction at 40 and 22 kmph completely pass
off another in 1 minute. If the length of the first train is 125 m, what is the length of the
second train?
A. 125 m
B. 150 m
C. 175 m
D. 185 m
Answer: Option C
Explanation:
RS = 40 – 22 = 18 * 5/18 = 5 mps
T = 60 sec
D = 5 * 60 = 300 m
125
175 m
Ques 27. How many seconds will a train 100 meters long take to cross a bridge 150 meters
long if the speed of the train is 36 kmph?
A. 18
B. 22
C. 25
D. 28
Answer: Option C
Explanation:
D = 100 + 150 = 250
S = 36 * 5/18 = 10 mps
T = 250/10 = 25 sec
Ques 28. Excluding stoppages, the speed of a train is 45 kmph and including stoppages it is
36 kmph. Of how many minutes does the train stop per hour?
A. 10 min
B. 11 min
C. 12 min
D. 13 min
Answer: Option C

Explanation:
T = 9/45 * 60 = 12
Ques 29. A motorcyclist goes from Bombay to Pune, a distance of 192 kms at an average
of 32 kmph speed. Another man starts from Bombay by car 2 ½ hours after the first, and
reaches Pune ½ hour earlier. What is the ratio of the speed of the motorcycle and the
car?
A. 1:2
B. 1:3
C. 10:27
D. 5:4
Answer: Option A
Explanation:
T = 192/32 = 6 h
T=6-3=3
Time Ratio = 6:3 = 2:1
Speed Ratio = 1:2
Ques 30. A car after covering ½ of a journey of 100 km develops engine trouble and later
travels at ½ of its original speed. As a result, it arrives 2 hours late than its normal time.
What is the normal speed of the car is?
A. 50 kmph
B. 40 kmph
C. 30 kmph
D. 25 kmph
Answer: Option D
Explanation:
[50/x + 50/(x/2)] – 100/x = 2
x = 25
Ques 31. A train passes a man standing on the platform. If the train is 170 meters long and
its speed is 72 kmph, how much time it took in doing so?
A. 10 ½ sec
B. 9 ½ sec
C. 8 ¾ sec
D. 8 ½ sec

Answer: Option D
Explanation:
D = 170
S = 72 * 5/18 = 20 mps
T = 170/20 = 8 ½ sec
Ques 32. A train 540 meters long is running with a speed of 54 kmph. The time taken by it
to cross a tunnel 180 meters long is?
A. 40 sec
B. 44 sec
C. 48 sec
D. 52 sec
Answer: Option C
Explanation:
D = 540 + 180 = 720
S = 54 * 5/18 = 15 mps
T = 720/15 = 48 sec
Ques 33. Two trains are moving at 50 kmph and 70 kmph in opposite directions. Their
lengths are 150 m and 100 m respectively. The time they will take to pass each other
completely is?
A. 3 sec
B. 4 ½ sec
C. 5 sec
D. 7 ½ sec
Answer: Option D
Explanation:
70 + 50 = 120 * 5/18 = 100/3 mps
D = 150 + 100 = 250 m
T = 250 * 3/100 = 15/2 = 7 ½ sec
Ques 34. Convert the 13/36 m/s into kilometers per hour?
A. 1.5
B. 1.2
C. 1.3
D. 1.4
E. None of these

Answer: Option C
Explanation:
13/36 m/s = 13/36 * 18/5 = 13/10 = 1.3 kmph.
Ques 35. If a man can cover 12 metres in one second, how many kilometres can he cover
in 3 hours 45 minutes?
A. 168
B. 162
C. 150
D. 156
E. None of these
Answer: Option B
Explanation:
12 m/s = 12 * 18/5 kmph
3 hours 45 minutes = 3 3/4 hours = 15/4 hours
Distance = speed * time = 12 * 18/5 * 15/4 km = 162 km.
Ques 36. In a kilometer race, A beats B by 50 meters or 10 seconds. What time does A
take to complete the race?
A. 200 sec
B. 190 sec
C. 210 sec
D. 150 sec
Answer: Option B
Explanation:
Time taken by B run 1000 meters = (1000 * 10)/50 = 200 sec.
Time taken by A = 200 - 10 = 190 sec.
Ques 37. A can give B 100 meters start and C 200 meters start in a kilometer race. How
much start can B give C in a kilometer race?
A. 111.12 m
B. 888.88 m
C. 777.52 m
D. 756.34 m
Answer: Option A
Explanation:

A runs 1000 m while B runs 900 m and C runs 800 m.
The number of meters that C runs when B runs 1000 m,
= (1000 * 800)/900 = 8000/9 = 888.88 m.
B can give C = 1000 - 888.88 = 111.12 m.
Ques 38. A can run a kilometer race in 4 1/2 min while B can run same race in 5 min. How
many meters start can A give B in a kilometer race, so that the race mat end in a dead
heat?
A. 150 m
B. 125 m
C. 130 m
D. 100 m
Answer: Option D
Explanation:
A can give B (5 min - 4 1/2 min) = 30 sec start.
The distance covered by B in 5 min = 1000 m.
Distance covered in 30 sec = (1000 * 30)/300 = 100 m.
A can give B 100m start.
Ques 39. In a race of 1000 m, A can beat by 100 m, in a race of 800m, B can beat C by
100m. By how many meters will A beat C in a race of 600 m?
A. 57.5 m
B. 127.5 m
C. 150.7 m
D. 98.6 m
Answer: Option B
Explanation:
When A runs 1000 m, B runs 900 m and when B runs 800 m, C runs 700 m.
When B runs 900 m, distance that C runs = (900 * 700)/800 = 6300/8 = 787.5 m.
In a race of 1000 m, A beats C by (1000 - 787.5) = 212.5 m to C.
In a race of 600 m, the number of meters by which A beats C = (600 * 212.5)/1000 =
127.5 m.
Ques 40. In a game of billiards, A can give B 20 points in 60 and he can give C 30 points in
60. How many points can B give C in a game of 100?
A. 50
B. 40

C. 25
D. 15
Answer: Option C
Explanation:
A scores 60 while B score 40 and C scores 30.
The number of points that C scores when B scores 100 = (100 * 30)/40 = 25 * 3 = 75.
In a game of 100 points, B gives (100 - 75) = 25 points to C.
Ques 41. In a 300 m race A beats B by 22.5 m or 6 seconds. B's time over the course is:
A. 86 sec
B. 80 sec
C. 76 sec
D. None of these
Answer: Option B
Ques 42. In a 100 m race, A can beat B by 25 m and B can beat C by 4 m. In the same race,
A can beat C by:
A. 21 m
B. 26 m
C. 28 m
D. 29 m
Answer: Option C
Ques 43. If in a game of 80, P can give 16 points to Q and R can give 20 points to P, then in
a game of 150, how many points can R give to Q?
A. 48
B. 60
C. 54
D. 90
Answer: Option B
Ques 44. If X can run 48m and Y 42m, then in a race of 1km, X beats Y by:
A. 140m
B. 125m
C. 100
D. 110m
Answer: Option B

Time & Work Related Questions
Ques 1. A and B complete a work in 6 days. A alone can do it in 10 days. If both together
can do the work in how many days?
A. 3.75 days
B. 4 days
C. 5 days
D. 6 days
Answer: Option A
Explanation:
1/6 + 1/10 = 8/30 = 4/15
15/4 = 3.75 days
Ques 2. A and B together can do a piece of work in 8 days. If A alone can do the same
work in 12 days, then B alone can do the same work in?
A. 20 days
B. 16 days
C. 24 days
D. 28 days
Answer: Option C
Explanation:
B = 1/8 – 1/2 = 1/24 => 24 days
Ques 3. A can do a piece of work in 4 days. B can do it in 5 days. With the assistance of C
they completed the work in 2 days. Find in how many days can C alone do it?
A. 10 days
B. 20 days
C. 5 days
D. 4 days
Answer: Option B
Explanation:
C = 1/2 - 1/4 - 1/5 = 1/20 => 20 days

Ques 4. A and B can do a piece of work in 6 2/3 days and 5 days respectively. They work
together for 2 days and then A leaves. In how many days after that B will complete the
work alone.
A. 2 days
B. 1 ½ days
C. 3 days
D. 3 ½ days
Answer: Option B
Explanation:
3/20 * 2 + (2 + x)/5 = 1
x = 1 ½ days
Ques 5. A can do a piece of work in 30 days. He works at it for 5 days and then B finishes
it in 20 days. In what time can A and B together it?
A. 16 2/3 days
B. 13 1/3 days
C. 17 1/3 days
D. 16 1/2 days
Answer: Option B
Explanation:
5/30 + 20/x = 1
x = 24
1/30 + 1/24 = 3/40
40/3 = 13 1/3 days
Ques 6. A and B can do a piece of work in 12 days and 16 days respectively. Both work
for 3 days and then A goes away. Find how long will B take to complete the remaining
work?
A. 15 days
B. 12 days
C. 10 days
D. 9 days
Answer: Option D
Explanation:
3/12 + (3 + x)/16 = 1
x = 9 days

Ques 7. A and B can do a piece of work in 3 days, B and C in 4 days, C and A in 6 days.
How long will C take to do it?
A. 18 days
B. 20 days
C. 24 days
D. 30 days
Answer: Option C
Explanation:
2c = ¼ + 1/6 – 1/3 = 1/12
c = 1/24 => 24 days
Ques 8. A can do a piece of work in 40 days; B can do the same in 30 days. A started
alone but left the work after 10 days, then B worked at it for 10 days. C finished the
remaining work in 10 days. C alone can do the whole work in?
A. 24 days
B. 30 days
C. 44 days
D. 17 1/2 days
Answer: Option A
Explanation:
10/40 + 10/30 + 10/x = 1
x = 24 days
Ques 9. A work which could be finished in 9 days was finished 3 days earlier after 10
more men joined. The number of men employed was?
A. 18
B. 20
C. 22
D. 24
Answer: Option B
Explanation:
x 9
(x + 10)----- 6
x * 9 = (x + 10)6
x = 20

Ques 10. A, B and C can do a piece of work in 24, 30 and 40 days respectively. They start
the work together but C leaves 4 days before the completion of the work. In how many
days is the work done?
A. 15 days
B. 14 days
C. 13 days
D. 11 days
Answer: Option D
Explanation:
x/24 + x/30 + x/40 = 1
x = 11 days
Ques 11. A is thrice as efficient as B and is, therefore, able to finish a piece of work 10 days
earlier than B. In how many days A and B will finish it together?
A. 3 1/2 days
B. 3 4/5 days
C. 3 days
D. 5 days
Answer: Option D
Explanation:
WC = 3:1
WT = 1:3
x 3x
1/x – 1/3x = 1/10
x = 20/3
3/20 + 1/20 = 1/5 5 days
Ques 12. A, B and C can do a piece of work in 7 days, 14 days and 28 days respectively.
How long will they taken, if all the three work together?
A. 3 days
B. 4 days
C. 5 days
D. 6 days
Answer: Option B
Explanation:
1/7 + 1/14 + 1/28 = 7/28 = 1/4 => 4 days

Ques 13. After working for 6 days, Ashok finds that only 1/3 rd of the work has been done.
He employs Ravi who is 60% as efficient as Ashok. How many days more would Ravi take
to complete the work?
A. 19 days
B. 10 days
C. 20 days
D. 12 days
Answer: Option C
Explanation:
1/3 ---- 6
1 ------- ? A = 18
R = 1/18 * 60/100 = 1/30
1 ------ 1/30
2/3 --- ? 20 days
Ques 14. A is twice as good a work man as B and together they finish the work in 14 days.
In how many days A alone can finish the work?
A. 20
B. 21
C. 22
D. 23
Answer: Option B
Explanation:
WC = 2:1
2x + x = 1/14 => x = 1/42
2x = 1/21
A can do the work in 21 days.
Ques 15. A, B and C can do a work in 6, 8 and 12 days respectively doing the work
together and get a payment of Rs.1800. What is B’s share?
A. Rs.600
B. Rs.450
C. Rs.300
D. Rs.500
Answer: Option A
Explanation:
WC = 1/6:1/8:1/12 4:3:2
3/9 * 1800 = 600

Ques 16. 5 men and 12 boys finish a piece of work in 4 days, 7 men and 6 boys do it in 5
days. The ratio between the efficiencies of a man and boy is?
A. 1:2
B. 2:1
C. 2:3
D. 6:5
Answer: Option D
Explanation:
5M + 12B ------ 4 days
7M + 6B ------- 5 days
20M + 48B = 35M + 30B
18B = 15M 5M = 6B
M: B = 6:5
Ques 17. 9 men and 12 boys finish a job in 12 days, 12 men and 12 boys finish it in 10
days. 10 men and 10 boys shall finish it in how many days?
A. 8
B. 10
C. 12
D. 14
Answer: Option C
Explanation:
9M + 12B ------ 12 days
12M + 12B -------- 10 days
10M + 10B ------- ?
108M + 144B = 120M +120B
24B = 12M => 1M = 2B
18B + 12B = 30B ----- 12 days
20B + 10B = 30B ----- ? => 12 days
Ques 18. If 12 men do a work in 80 days, in how many days will 16 men do it?
A. 30
B. 40
C. 50
D. 60
Answer: Option B
Explanation:

B = 1/16 – 1/24 = 1/48 => 48 days
Ques 19. A and B can do a piece of work in 8 days. B and C can do it in 12 days and A and C
in 16 days. Working together they will complete the work in how many days?
A. 14.76 days
B. 12.2 days
C. 9.48 days
D. 7.38 days
Answer: Option D
Explanation:
A + B = 1/8
B + C = 1/12
C + A = 1/16
2(A + B +C) = 1/8 + 1/12 + 1/16 = 13/48

A + B +C = 13/96
96/13 = 7.38 days
Ques 20. Two men and three women working 7 hours a day finish a work in 5 days. Four
men and four women working 3 hours a day complete the work in 7 days. The number
of days in which only 7 men working 4 hours a day will finish the work is?
A. 5 days
B. 6 days
C. 7 days
D. 10 days
Answer: Option A
Explanation:
2M + 3W ------35 h
4M + 4W --------21 h
7M ------- ? d
70M + 105W = 84M +84M
21W = 14M => 2M = 3W
4 * 35 = 7 * x x = 20 hours
20/4 = 5 days
Ques 21. 3 men or 6 women can do a piece of work in 20 days. In how many days will 12
men and 8 women do the same work?
A. 7/2

B. 15/4
C. 5
D. 4
Answer: Option B
Explanation:
3M = 6W -----20 days
12M + 8W ---- ?
24W + 8 W = 32W --- ?
6W ---- 20 32 -----?
6 * 20 = 32 * x => x = 15/4 days
Ques 22. A is twice as good a workman as B and they took 7 days together to do the work
B alone can do it in.
A. 12 days
B. 18 days
C. 21 days
D. 27 days
Answer: Option C
Explanation:
WC = 2:1
2x + x = 1/7
x = 1/21 21 days
Ques 23. A does half as much work as B in three –fourth of the time if together they take
18 days to complete a work. How much time shall B take to do it?
A. 30days
B. 35 days
C. 40 days
D. None of these
Answer: Option A
Explanation:
B takes x days to do the work
Therefore, A takes (2 × 3/4x)i.e.., 3x/2 days to do it
Now , (A +B)’s 1 day’s work = 1/18
Therefore, 1/x + 2/3x = 1/18 or x =30.
Ques 24. 12 Men or 18 women can reap a field in 14 days. The number of days that 8 men
and 16 women will take to reap it?
A. 5

B. 7
C. 8
D. 9
Answer: Option D
Explanation:
12 men = 18 women or 1 man = 3/2 women
Therefore 8 men + 16 women = (8 × 3/2 + 16) women i.e.., 28 women
Now 18 women can reap the field in 14 days
Therefore, 28 women can reap it in = 9 days
Ques 25. 10 men can finish a piece of work in 10 days. Whereas it takes 12 women to
finish it in 10 days if 15 men and 6 women undertake to complete the work. How many
days will they take to complete it?
A. 2
B. 4
C. 5
D. 11
Answer: Option C
Explanation:
10 men = 12 women or 1 man = 6/5 women
Therefore 15 men + 6 women = (15 x 6/5 +6)women i.e,, 24 women
Now 12 women can do the work in 10 days
Therefore, 24 women can do it in = 5 days
Ques 26. A, B and C can do a piece of work in 20, 30 and 60 days respectively. In how
many days can A do the work if he is assisted by B and C on every third day?
A. 12 days
B. 15 days
C. 16 days
D. 18 days
Answer: Option B
Ques 27. A alone can do a piece of work in 6 days and B alone in 8 days. A and B
undertook to do it for Rs. 3200. With the help of C, they completed the work in 3 days.
How much is to be paid to C?
A. Rs. 375
B. Rs. 400
C. Rs. 600
D. Rs. 800

Answer: Option B
Ques 28. 4 men and 6 women can complete a work in 8 days, while 3 men and 7 women
can complete it in 10 days. In how many days will 10 women complete it?
A. 35
B. 40
C. 45
D. 50
Answer: Option B
Ques 29. Twenty women can do a work in sixteen days. Sixteen men can complete the
same work in fifteen days. What is the ratio between the capacity of a man and a
woman?
A. 3 : 4
B. 4 : 3
C. 5 : 3
D. Data inadequate
Answer: Option B
Ques 30. 8 Children and 12 men complete a certain piece of work in 9 days. If each child
takes twice the time taken by man to finish the work. In how many days will 12 men
finish the same work?
A. 8
B. 15
C. 9
D. 12
Answer: Option D
Explanation:
2 children = 1 man
Therefore (8 children +12 men) = 16 men
Now less men more days 12: 16 : : 9 : x
Therefore, x = (144/12) = 12 days
Ratios

Ques 1. 1: 3 = 1 2/3: x. The value of x is?
A. 1
B. 3
C. 4 1/6
D. 5
Answer: Option D
Explanation:
x * 1 = 3 * 5/3
x=5
Ques 2. What number has a 5:1 ratio to the number 10?

A. 42
B. 50
C. 55
D. 62
Answer: Option B
Explanation:
5:1 = x: 10
x = 50
Ques 3. If a: b = 7: 5, b: c = 9: 11, find a: b: c?

A. 63: 14: 55
B. 63: 45: 55
C. 14: 14: 15
D. 7: 14: 15
Answer: Option B
Explanation:
a: b = 7: 5
b: c = 9: 11
a: b: c = 63: 45: 55
Ques 4. If a: b = 3:4, b:c = 7:9, c:d = 5:7, find a:d?

A. 5:12
B. 7:12
C. 3:11
D. 5:11
Answer: Option A

Explanation:
a/d = (3/4)*(7/9)*(5/7) => 5/12
Ques 5. The inverse ratio of 3: 2: 1 is?

A. 1:2:3
B. 2:3:1
C. 3:1:2
D. 2:3:6
Answer: Option D
Explanation:
1/3: 1/2: 1/1 = 2:3:6
Ques 6. The duplicate ratio of 3:4 is?

A. 4:3
B. 6:8
C. 9:16
D. 3:4
Answer: Option C
Explanation:
32: 42 = 9:16
Ques 7. The triplicate ratio of 1:2 is?

A. 8:1
B. 1:8
C. 2:1
D. 1:2
Answer: Option B
Explanation:
13: 23 = 1:8
Ques 8. The greatest ratio out of 2:3, 5:4, 3:2 and 4:5 is?
A. 4:5
B. 3:2
C. 5:4
D. 2:3
Answer: Option B
Ques 9. The smallest ratio out of 1:1, 2:1, 1:3 and 3:1 is?
A. 3:1

B. 1:3
C. 2:1
D. 1:2
Answer: Option B
Ques 10. The proportion of copper and zinc in the brass is 13:7. How much zinc will there
be in 100 kg of brass?
A. 20 kg
B. 35 kg
C. 55 kg
D. 14 kg
Answer: Option B
Explanation:
7/20 * 100 = 35
Ques 11. The ratio of two numbers is 2:3 and the sum of their cubes is 945. The difference
of number is?
A. 3
B. 4
C. 5
D. 6
Answer: Option A
Explanation:
2x 3x
8x cube + 27x cube = 945
35x cube = 945
x cube = 27 => x = 3
Ques 12. The ratio of the number of ladies to gents at a party was 1:2 but when 2 ladies
and 2 gents left, the ratio became 1:3. How many people were at the party originally?
A. 36
B. 24
C. 12
D. 6
Answer: Option C
Explanation:
x, 2x
(x-2):(2x-2) = 1:3

3x-6 = 2x-2
x=4
x+2x = 3x
=> 3*4 = 12
Ques 13. The first three terms of a proportion are 3, 9 and 12. The fourth term is?
A. 4
B. 6
C. 18
D. 36
Answer: Option D
Explanation:
(9*12)/3 = 36
Ques 14. 96 is divided into two parts in such a way that seventh part of first and ninth part
of second are equal. Find the smallest part?
A. 38
B. 40
C. 42
D. 48
Answer: Option C
Explanation:
x/7 = y/9 x:y = 7:9
7/16 * 96 = 42
Ques 15. A 70 cm long wire is to be cut into two pieces so that one piece will be 2/5th of
the other, how many centimeters will the shorter piece be?
A. 10cm
B. 20cm
C. 25cm
D. 30cm
Answer: Option B
Explanation:
1: 2/5 = 5: 2
2/7 * 70 = 20

Ques 16. 1000 men have provisions for 15 days. If 200 more men join them, for how many
days will the provisions last now?
A. 10.5
B. 11.5
C. 12.5
D. 10.4
Answer: Option C
Explanation:
1000*15 = 1200*x
x = 12.5
Ques 17. Three partners shared the profit in a business in the ratio 5 : 7 : 8. They had
partnered for 14 months, 8 months and 7 months respectively. What was the ratio of
their investments?
A. 5 : 7 : 8
B. 20 : 49 : 64
C. 38 : 28 : 21
D. None of these
Answer: Option B
Ques 18. A garrison of 400 men had a provision for 31 days. After 28 days 280 persons re-
enforcement leave the garrison. Find the number of days for which the remaining ration
will be sufficient?
A. 3 days
B. 8 days
C. 10 days
D. 6 days
Answer: Option C
Explanation:
400 --- 31
400 --- 3
120 --- ?
400*3 = 120*x => x =10 days
Ques 19. An amount of money is to be divided between P, Q and R in the ratio of 3:7:12. If
the difference between the shares of P and Q is Rs.2400, what will be the difference
between Q and R's share?
A. Rs.2800

B. Rs.3000
C. Rs.2400
D. Rs.3200
Answer: Option B
Explanation:
4 --- 2000
5 --- ? => 3000
Ques 20. A, B and C play a cricket match. The ratio of the runs scored by them in the
match is A:B = 2:3 and B:C = 2:5. If the total runs scored by all of them are 75, the runs
scored by B are?
A. 15
B. 18
C. 21
D. 24
Answer: Option B
Explanation:
A:B = 2:3
B:C = 2:5
A:B:C = 4:6:15
6/25 * 75 = 18
Ques 21. A share is divided among X, Y and Z in such a way that for each rupee X gets, Y
gets 45 paisa and Z gets 30 paisa. If the share of Y is RS. 27, what is the total amount?
A. Rs.90
B. Rs.105
C. Rs.96
D. Rs.120
Answer: Option B
Explanation:
x:y:z = 100:45:30
20:9:6
9 --- 27
35 --- ? => 105
Ques 22. Rs.160 contained in a box consists of one rupee, 50 paisa and 25 paisa coins in
the ratio 4:5:6. What is the number of 25 paisa coins?
A. 100

B. 115
C. 120
D. 110
Answer: Option C
Explanation:
4x 5x 6x
100 50 25
400x + 350x + 150x = 16000
x = 20
6x = 120
Ques 23. A vessel contains 20 liters of a mixture of milk and water in the ratio 3:2. 10 liters
of the mixture are removed and replaced with an equal quantity of pure milk. If the
process is repeated once more, find the ratio of milk and water in the final mixture
obtained?
A. 9:1
B. 4:7
C. 7:1
D. 2:5
Answer: Option A
Explanation:
Milk = 3/5 * 20 = 12 liters, water = 8 liters
If 10 liters of mixture are removed, amount of milk removed = 6 liters and amount of
water removed = 4 liters.
Remaining milk = 12 - 6 = 6 liters
Remaining water = 8 - 4 = 4 liters
10 liters of pure milk are added, therefore total milk = (6 + 10) = 16 liters.
The ratio of milk and water in the new mixture = 16:4 = 4:1
If the process is repeated one more time and 10 liters of the mixture are removed, then
amount of milk removed = 4/5 * 10 = 8 liters.
Amount of water removed = 2 liters.
Remaining milk = (16 - 8) = 8 liters.
Remaining water = (4 -2) = 2 liters.
The required ratio of milk and water in the final mixture obtained = (8 + 10):2 = 18:2 =
9:1.
Ques 24. In what ratio should two varieties of sugar of Rs.18 per kg and Rs.24 kg be mixed
together to get a mixture whose cost is Rs.20 per kg?

A. 1:3
B. 3:1
C. 1:2
D. 2:1
Answer: Option D
Ques 25. How many liters of oil at Rs.40 per liter should be mixed with 240 liters of a
second variety of oil at Rs.60 per liter so as to get a mixture whose cost is Rs.52 per
liter?
A. 120 liters
B. 180 liters
C. 110 liters
D. 160 liters
Answer: Option D
Ques 26. Two varieties of wheat - A and B costing Rs. 9 per kg and Rs. 15 per kg were
mixed in the ratio 3 : 7. If 5 kg of the mixture is sold at 25% profit, find the profit made?
A. Rs. 13.50
B. Rs. 14.50
C. Rs. 15.50
D. Rs. 16.50
E. None of these
Answer: Option D
Explanation:
Let the quantities of A and B mixed be 3x kg and 7x kg.
Cost of 3x kg of A = 9(3x) = Rs. 27x
Cost of 7x kg of B = 15(7x) = Rs. 105x
Cost of 10x kg of the mixture = 27x + 105x = Rs. 132x
Cost of 5 kg of the mixture = 132x/10x (5) = Rs. 66
Profit made in selling 5 kg of the mixture = 25/100 (cost of 5 kg of the mixture) = 25/100
* 66 = Rs. 16.50
Ques 27. The marks obtained by Vijay and Amith are in the ratio 4:5 and those obtained
by Amith and Abhishek in the ratio of 3:2. The marks obtained by Vijay and Abhishek are
in the ratio of?
A. 2:1
B. 5:3
C. 6:5
D. 5:6

Answer: Option C
Explanation:
4:5
3:2
12:15:10
12:10
6:5
Simple & Compound Interests
Ques 1. Find the principle on a certain sum of money at 5% per annum for 2 2/5 years if
the amount being Rs.1120?
A. Rs.1000
B. Rs.1100
C. Rs.1050
D. Rs.1200
Answer: Option A
Explanation:
1120 = P [1 + (5*12/5)/100]
P= 1000
Ques 2. What sum of money will produce Rs.70 as simple interest in 4 years at 3 1/2
percent?
A. Rs.525
B. Rs.500
C. Rs.550
D. Rs.555
Answer: Option B
Explanation:
70 = (P*4*7/2)/100
P = 500

Ques 3. At what rate percent on simple interest will Rs.750 amount to Rs.900 in 5 years?
A. 5%
B. 3 1/2%
C. 4%
D. 5 1/2 %
Answer: Option C
Explanation:
150 = (750*5*R)/100
R = 4%
Ques 4. What is the rate percent when the simple interest on Rs.800 amount to Rs.160 in
4 Years?
A. 5%
B. 6%
C. 4 1/2%
D. 3 1/2 %
Answer: Option A
Explanation:
160 = (180*4*R)/100
R = 5%
Ques 5. Find the simple interest on Rs.500 for 9 months at 6 paisa per month?
A. Rs.345
B. Rs.270
C. Rs.275
D. Rs.324
Answer: Option B
Explanation:
I = (500*9*6)/100 = 270
Ques 6. A certain sum amounts to Rs.1725 in 3 years and Rs.1875 in 5 years. Find the
rate % per annum?
A. 3%
B. 5%
C. 6%
D. 4%
Answer: Option B

Explanation:
3 --- 1725
5 --- 1875
2 --- 150
N = 1 I = 75 R = ?
P = 1725 - 225 = 1500
75 = (1500*1*R)/100
R = 5%
Ques 7. At what rate percent on simple interest will a sum of money double itself in 30
years?
A. 3 1/3 %
B. 3 1/2%
C. 4 %
D. 4 1/2 %
Answer: Option A
Explanation:
P = (P*30*R)/100
R = 3 1/3%
Ques 8. A certain sum of money at simple interest amounted Rs.840 in 10 years at 3%

per annum, find the sum?
A. Rs.500
B. Rs.515
C. Rs.525
D. None
Answer: Option D
Explanation:
840 = P [1 + (10*3)/100]
P = 646
Ques 9. In what time a sum of money double itself at 3% per annum simple interest?
A. 29 years
B. 33 1/3 years
C. 23 1/3 years
D. 13 1/3 years
Answer: Option B

Explanation:
P = (P*3*R)/100
R = 33 1/3%
Ques 10. The simple interest on a sum of money will be Rs.600 after 10 years. If the
principal is trebled after 5 years what will be the total interest at the end of the tenth
year?
A. Rs.800
B. Rs.900
C. Rs.1200
D. Rs.1500
Answer: Option C
Explanation:
P --- 10 ----- 600
P --- 5 ------- 300
3P --- 5 ------ 900
=> 1200
Ques 11. Sonika deposited Rs.8000 which amounted to Rs.9200 after 3 years at simple
interest. Had the interest been 2% more. She would get how much?
A. Rs.9680
B. Rs.9860
C. Rs.9380
D. Rs.9800
Answer: Option A
Explanation:
(8000*3*2)/100 = 480
9200
9680
Ques 12. If Re.1 amounts to Rs.9 over a period of 20 years. What is the rate of simple
interest?
A. 26 2/3 %
B. 30 %
C. 27 1/2%
D. 40 %

Answer: Option D
Explanation:
8 = (1*20*R)/100
R = 40%
Ques 13. 4000 was divided into two parts such a way that when first part was invested at
3% and the second at 5%, the whole annual interest from both the investments is
Rs.144, how much was put at 3%?
A. Rs.2500
B. Rs.2700
C. Rs.2800
D. Rs.5000
Answer: Option C
Explanation:
(x*3*1)/100 + [(4000 - x)*5*1]/100 = 144
3x/100 + 200 – 5x/100 = 144
2x/100 = 56 x = 2800
Ques 14. A certain sum of money doubles itself in 10 years in how much many years will it
trible itself at the same rate?
A. 20 years
B. 15 years
C. 30 years
D. 17 1/2 years
Answer: Option A
Explanation:
100 ---- 100 --- 10
100 --- 10
300 ----- 20 years
Ques 15. The simple interest on a sum of money is 4/9 of the principal and the number of
years is equal to the rate percent. Find the rate and the time?
A. 6 2/3 years; 6 2/3 %
B. 5 1/3 years; 5 1/3 %
C. 4 2/3 years; 4 2/3 %
D. None
Answer: Option A

Explanation:
4/9 P = (P*R*R)/100
R = 20/3 = 6 2/3%
Ques 16. In what time will Rs.4000 lent at 3% per annum on simple interest earn as much
interest as Rs.5000 will earn in 5 years at 4% per annum on simple interest?
A. 8 1/3 years
B. 9 years
C. 7 1/2 years
D. 7 1/3 years
Answer: Option A
Explanation:
(4000*3*R)/100 = (5000*5*4)/100
R = 8 1/3
Ques 17. In how many years will a sum of money doubles itself at 5% per annum on
simple interest?
A. 22 years
B. 20 years
C. 21 years
D. 29 years
Answer: Option B
Explanation:
P = (P*5*R)/100
R = 20%
Ques 18. A sum of money becomes triple itself in 5 years at simple interest. How many
years will it become six times at the same rate?
A. 12 1/2 years
B. 12 years
C. 11 1/2 years
D. 11 years
Answer: Option A
Explanation:
100 ---- 200 ---- 5
200 ---- 5
100 ---- 2 1/2

600 ----- 12 ½ years
Ques 19. A sum of money becomes double itself in 8 years at simple interest. How many
times will it become 10 years at the same rate?
A. 2 ¼
B. 4 ¼
C. 5 ¼
D. None
Answer: Option A
Explanation:
P ---- 2P ----- 8 years
2 1/4 P ----- 10 years
Ques 20. A part of certain sum of money is invested at 9% per annum and the rest at 12%
per annum, if the interest earned in each case for the same period is equal, then ratio of
the sums invested is?
A. 2:3
B. 3:4
C. 4:3
D. None
Answer: Option C
Explanation:
12:9
= 4:3
Ques 21. The equal amounts of money are deposited in two banks each at 15% per annum
for 3.5 years and 5 years respectively. If the difference between their interests is Rs.144,
find the each sum?
A. Rs.3467
B. Rs.640
C. Rs.500
D. None
Answer: Option B
Explanation:
(P*5*15)/100 - (P*3.5*15)/100 = 144
75P/100 – 52.5P/100 = 144
22.5P = 144 * 100

P = Rs.640
Ques 22. Find the compound interest and the amount on Rs.8000 at 5% per annum for 3
years when C.I is reckoned yearly?
A. Rs.1261
B. Rs.1440
C. Rs.1185
D. Rs.1346
Answer: Option A
Explanation:
A = 8000(21/20)3
= 9261
= 8000
1261
Ques 23. If Rs.7500 are borrowed at C.I at the rate of 4% per annum, then after 2 years
the amount to be paid is?
A. Rs.8082
B. Rs.7800
C. Rs.8100
D. Rs.8112
Answer: Option D
Explanation:
A = 7500(26/25)2 = 8112
Ques 24. Rs.8000 become Rs.9261 in a certain interval of time at the rate of 5% per
annum of C.I. Find the time?
A. 4 years
B. 6 years
C. 2 years
D. 3 years
Answer: Option D
Explanation:
9261 = 8000(21/20)N
(21/20)3 = (21/20)N => N = 3

Ques 25. At the end of three years what will be the compound interest at the rate of 10%
p.a. on an amount of Rs.20000?
A. Rs.6620
B. Rs.6500
C. Rs.6800
D. Rs.6400
Answer: Option A
Explanation:
A = 20000(11/10)3
= 26620
= 20000
6620
Ques 26. The difference between compound and simple interest on a certain sum of
money for 3 years at 6 2/3% p.a is Rs.184. Find the sum?
A. Rs.12000
B. Rs.14200
C. Rs.17520
D. Rs.13500
Answer: Option D
Explanation:
P = (184*106) / [6 2/3 * 6 2/3 *(300*6 2/3)]
P = 13500
Ques 27. A sum of money is put out at compound interest for 2 years at 20%. It would
fetch Rs.482 more if the interest were payable half-yearly, then it were pay able yearly.
Find the sum.
A. Rs.4000
B. Rs.1000
C. Rs.1250
D. Rs.2000
Answer: Option D
Explanation:
P(11/10)4 - P(6/5)2 = 482
P = 2000

Ques 28. Find the sum The difference between the compound and S.I. on a certain sum of
money for 2 years at 10% per annum is Rs.15of money?
A. 1500
B. 1800
C. 2100
D. 1950
Answer: Option A
Explanation:
P = 15(100/10)2 => P = 1500
Ques 29. What sum of money put at C.I amounts in 2 years to Rs.8820 and in 3 years to
Rs.9261?
A. Rs.8000
B. Rs.8400
C. Rs.7500
D. None
Answer: Option A
Explanation:
8820 ---- 441
100 ---- ? 5%
x *105/100 * 105/100 = 8820
x*1.1025=8820
x=8820/1.1025 => 8000
Ques 30. The difference between simple and compound interests compounded annually
on a certain sum of money for 2 years at 4% per annum is Re. 1. The sum (in Rs.) is:
A. 625
B. 630
C. 640
D. 650
Answer: Option A
Ques 31. There is 60% increase in an amount in 6 years at simple interest. What will be
the compound interest of Rs. 12,000 after 3 years at the same rate?
A. Rs. 2160
B. Rs. 3120
C. Rs. 3972

D. Rs. 6240
E. None of these
Answer: Option C
Ques 32. What amount does Kiran get if he invests Rs.8000 at 10% p.a. compound interest
for two years, compounding done annually?
A. Rs.9630
B. Rs.9680
C. Rs.9610
D. Rs.9650
E. None of these
Answer: Option E
Explanation:
A= P{1 + R/100}n
=> 8000{1 + 10/100}2 = Rs.9680
Ques 33. A sum of money at simple interest amounts to Rs. 815 in 3 years and to Rs. 854
in 4 years. The sum is:
A. Rs. 650
B. Rs. 690
C. Rs. 698
D. Rs. 700
Answer: Option C
Ques 34. Mr. Thomas invested an amount of Rs. 13,900 divided in two different schemes
A and B at the simple interest rate of 14% p.a. and 11% p.a. respectively. If the total
amount of simple interest earned in 2 years be Rs. 3508, what was the amount invested
in Scheme B?
A. Rs. 6400
B. Rs. 6500
C. Rs. 7200
D. Rs. 7500
E. None of these
Answer: Option A
Ques 35. A sum fetched a total simple interest of Rs. 4016.25 at the rate of 9 p.c.p.a. in 5
years. What is the sum?

A. Rs. 4462.50
B. Rs. 8032.50
C. Rs. 8900
D. Rs. 8925
E. None of these
Answer: Option D
Ques 36. How much time will it take for an amount of Rs. 450 to yield Rs. 81 as interest at
4.5% per annum of simple interest?
A. 3.5 years
B. 4 years
C. 4.5 years
D. 5 years
Answer: Option B
Ques 37. Reena took a loan of Rs. 1200 with simple interest for as many years as the rate
of interest. If she paid Rs. 432 as interest at the end of the loan period, what was the
rate of interest?
A. 3.6
B. 6
C. 18
D. Cannot be determined
E. None of these
Answer: Option B
Ques 38. What will be the ratio of simple interest earned by certain amount at the same
rate of interest for 6 years and that for 9 years?
A. 1 : 3
B. 1 : 4
C. 2 : 3
D. Data inadequate
E. None of these
Answer: Option C
Ques 39. The compound interest earned by Sunil on a certain amount at the end of two
years at the rate of 8% p.a. was Rs.2828.80. Find the total amount that Sunil got back at
the end of two years in the form of principal plus interest earned.

A. Rs.18,828.80
B. Rs.19,828.80
C. Rs.18,028.80
D. Rs.17,828.80
E. None of these
Answer: Option B
Explanation:
Let the sum be Rs.P
P{ [ 1 + 8/100]2 - 1 } = 2828.80
P(8/100)(2 + 8/100) = 2828.80 [a2 - b2 = (a - b) ( a + b)] P = 2828.80 / (0.08)(2.08) =
1360/0.08 = 17000 Principal + Interest = Rs. 19828.80
Averages
Ques 1. The average of 11 numbers is 10.9. If the average of first six is 10.5 and that of
the last six is 11.4 the sixth number is?
A. 11.0
B. 11.3
C. 11.4
D. 11.5
Answer: Option D
Explanation:
1 to 11 = 11 * 10.9 = 119.9
1 to 6 = 6 * 10.5 = 63
6 to 11 = 6 * 11.4 = 68.4
63 + 68.4 = 131.4 – 119.9 = 11.5
Ques 2. The average of first ten prime numbers which are odd is?
A. 12.9
B. 13.8
C. 17
D. 15.8
Answer: Option D
Explanation:
Sum of first 10 prime no. which are odd = 158
Average = 158/10 = 15.8

Ques 3. The average of first 10 natural numbers is?
A. 5
B. 5.5
C. 6.5
D. 6
Answer: Option B
Explanation:
Sum of 10 natural no. = 110/2 = 55
Average = 55/10 = 5.5
Ques 4. The average of first 10 odd numbers is?

A. 11
B. 10
C. 17
D. 9
Answer: Option B
Explanation:
Sum of 10 odd no. = 100
Average = 100/10 = 10
Ques 5. The average age of three boys is 15 years and their ages are in proportion 3:5:7.
What is the age in years of the youngest boy?
A. 15
B. 9
C. 18
D. 21
Answer: Option B
Explanation:
3x + 5x + 7x = 45
x =3
3x = 9
Ques 6. The average of 1st 3 of 4 numbers is 16 and of the last 3 are 15. If the sum of the
first and the last number is 13. What is the last numbers?
A. 8
B. 6
C. 5
D. 2

Answer: Option C
Explanation:
A + B + C = 48
B + C + D = 45
A + D = 13
A–D=3
A + D = 13
2D = 10
D=5
Ques 7. The average of 9 observations was 9, that of the 1st of 5 being 10 and that of the
last 5 being 8. What was the 5th observation?
A. 9
B. 8
C. 7
D. 6
Answer: Option A
Explanation:
1 to 9 = 9 * 9 = 81
1 to 5 = 5 * 10 = 50
5 to 9 = 5 * 8 = 40
5th = 50 + 40 = 90 – 81 = 9
Ques 8. The average of 10 numbers is calculated as 15. It is discovered later on that while
calculating the average, one number namely 36 was wrongly read as 26. The correct
average is?
A. 12.4
B. 14
C. 16
D. 18.6
Answer: Option C
Explanation:
10 * 15 + 36 – 26 = 160/10 = 16
Ques 9. The average age of 8 men increases by 2 years when two women are included in
place of two men of ages 20 and 24 years. Find the average age of the women?
A. 36 years
B. 24 years
C. 30 years

D. 18 years
Answer: Option C
Explanation:
20 + 24 + 8 * 2 = 60/2 = 30
Ques 10. The average salary of workers in an industry is Rs.200 the average salary of
technicians being Rs.400 and that of non-technicians being Rs.125. What is the total
number of workers?
A. 250
B. 275
C. 550
D. 400
Answer: Option C
Ques 11. A team of eight entered for a shooting competition. The best marks man scored
85 points. If he had scored 92 points, the average scores for. The team would have been
84. How many points altogether did the team score?
A. 625
B. 665
C. 632
D. 656
Answer: Option B
Explanation:
8 * 84 = 672 – 7 = 665
Ques 12. The average of 13 numbers is 60. Average of the first 7 of them is 57 and that of
the last 7 is 61. Find the 8th number?
A. 46
B. 32
C. 68
D. 51
Answer: Option A
Explanation:
Sum of all the 13 numbers = 13 * 60 = 780
Sum of the first 7 of them = 7 * 57 = 399
Sum of the last 7 of them = 7 * 61 = 427
So, the 8th number = 427 + 399 - 780 = 46.

Ques 13. A batsman makes a score of 64 runs in the 16th innings and thus increased his
average by 3. Find his average after the 16th inning?
A. 17
B. 29
C. 18
D. 19
Answer: Option D
Explanation:
Let the average after the 16th inning be P.
So, the average after the 15th inning will be (P-3) Hence, 15(P-30) + 64 = 16P => P = 19.
Ques 14. The average marks of a class of 30 students is 40 and that of another class of 50
students is 60. Find the average marks of all the students?
A. 50
B. 47.5
C. 59
D. 52.5
Answer: Option D
Explanation:
Sum of the marks for the class of 30 students = 30 * 40 = 1200
Sum of the marks for the class of 50 students = 50 * 60 = 3000
Sum of the marks for the class of 80 students =
1200 + 3000 = 4200
Average marks of all the students = 4200/80 = 52.5
Ques 15. A grocer has a sale of Rs. 6435, Rs. 6927, Rs. 6855, Rs. 7230 and Rs. 6562 for 5
consecutive months. How much sale must he have in the sixth month so that he gets an
average sale of Rs. 6500?
A. Rs. 4991
B. Rs. 5991
C. Rs. 6001
D. Rs. 6991
Answer: Option A
Ques 16. The average of 20 numbers is zero. Of them, at the most, how many may be
greater than zero?
A. 0
B. 1

C. 10
D. 19
Answer: Option D
Ques 17. In the first 10 overs of a cricket game, the run rate was only 3.2. What should be
the run rate in the remaining 40 overs to reach the target of 282 runs?
A. 6.25
B. 6.5
C. 6.75
D. 7
Answer: Option A
Ques 18. The average weight of 8 person's increases by 2.5 kg when a new person comes
in place of one of them weighing 65 kg. What might be the weight of the new person?
A. 76 kg
B. 76.5 kg
C. 85 kg
D. Data inadequate
E. None of these
Answer: Option C
Ques 19. The average salary of a person for the months of January, February, March and
April is Rs.8000 and that for the months February, March, April and May is Rs.8500. If his
salary for the month of May is Rs.6500, find his salary for the month of January?
A. 3000
B. 2500
C. 4500
D. 5000
Answer: Option C
Explanation:
Sum of the salaries of the person for the months of January, February, March and April =
4 * 8000 = 32000 ---- (1)
Sum of the salaries of the person for the months of February, March, April and May = 4 *
8500 = 34000 ---- (2)
(2)-(1) i.e. May - Jan = 2000
Salary of May is Rs.6500
Salary of January = Rs.4500

Profit, Loss & Percentage
Ques 1. A cycle is bought for Rs.900 and sold for Rs.1080, find the gain percent?
A. 16 2/3%
B. 20%
C. 18%
D. 25%
Answer: Option B
Explanation:
900 ---- 180
100 ---- ? 20%
Ques 2. An article is bought for Rs.675 and sold for Rs.900, find the gain percent?
A. 16 2/3%
B. 30%
C. 33 1/3%
D. 33 1/6%
Answer: Option C
Explanation:
675 ---- 225
100 ---- ? 33 1/3%
Ques 3. An article is bought for Rs.600 and sold for Rs.500, find the loss percent?
A. 16 4/3%
B. 100/3%
C. 16%
D. 16 2/3%
Answer: Option D
Explanation:
600 ---- 100
100 ---- ? => 16 2/3%
Ques 4. A watch was sold at a loss of 10%. If it was sold for Rs.140 more, there would
have been a gain of 4%. What is the cost price?

A. Rs.1000
B. Rs.1140
C. Rs.860
D. Rs.760
Answer: Option A
Explanation:
90%
104%
14% ---- 140

100% ---- ? Rs.1000
Ques 5. The sale price sarees listed for Rs.400 after successive discount is 10% and 5% is?
A. Rs.357
B. Rs.340
C. Rs.342
D. Rs.338
Answer: Option C
Explanation:
400*(90/100)*(95/100) = 342
Ques 6. The cost price of 20 articles is the same as the selling price of x articles. If the
profit is 25%, then the value of x is:
A. 15
B. 16
C. 18
D. 25
Answer: Option B
Ques 7. In a certain store, the profit is 320% of the cost. If the cost increases by 25% but
the selling price remains constant, approximately what percentage of the selling price is
the profit?
A. 30%
B. 70%
C. 100%
D. 250%

Answer: Option B
Ques 8. A vendor bought toffees at 6 for a rupee. How many for a rupee must he sell to
gain 20%?
A. 3
B. 4
C. 5
D. 6
Answer: Option C
Ques 9. Two students appeared at an examination. One of them secured 9 marks more
than the other and his marks was 56% of the sum of their marks. The marks obtained by
them are:
A. 39, 30
B. 41, 32
C. 42, 33
D. 43, 34
Answer: Option C
Ques 10. A fruit seller had some apples. He sells 40% apples and still has 420 apples.
Originally, he had:
A. 588 apples
B. 600 apples
C. 672 apples
D. 700 apples
Answer: Option D
Ques 11. What percentage of numbers from 1 to 70 have 1 or 9 in the unit's digit?
A. 1
B. 14
C. 20
D. 21
Answer: Option C
Ques 12. The list price of an article is Rs.65. A customer pays Rs.56.16 for it. He was given
two successive discounts, one of them being 10%. The other discount is?
A. 3%
B. 4%

C. 5%
D. 6%
Answer: Option B
Explanation:
65*(90/100)*((100-x)/100) = 56.16
x = 4%
Ques 13. A single discount equivalent to the discount series of 20%, 10% and 5% is?
A. 25%
B. 30%
C. 31.6%
D. 33.5%
Answer: Option C
Explanation:
100*(80/100)*(90/100)*(95/100) = 68.4
100 - 68.4 = 31.6
Ques 14. What profit percent is made by selling an article at a certain price, if by selling at
2/3rd of that price, there would be a loss of 20%?
A. 20%
B. 25%
C. 13 1/30%
D. 12%
Answer: Option A
Explanation:
SP2 = 2/3 SP1
CP = 100
SP2 = 80
2/3 SP1 = 80
SP1 = 120
100 --- 20 20%
Ques 15. A trader bought a car at 20% discount on its original price. He sold it at a 40%
increase on the price he bought it. What percent of profit did he make on the original
price?
A. 10%

B. 11%
C. 12%
D. 15%
Answer: Option C
Explanation:
Original price = 100
CP = 80
S = 80*(140/100) = 112
100 - 112 = 12%
Ques 16. A man sells a horse for Rs.800 and loses something, if he had sold it for Rs.980,
his gain would have been double the former loss. Find the cost price of the horse?
A. Rs.900
B. Rs.875
C. Rs.850
D. Rs.860
Answer: Option D
Explanation:
CP = SP + 1CP = SP - g
800 + x = 980 - 2x
3x = 180 x = 60
CP = 800 + 60 = 860
Ques 17. If a man lost 4% by selling oranges at the rate of 12 a rupee at how many a rupee
must he sell them to gain 44%?
A. 7
B. 8
C. 9
D. 10
Answer: Option B
Explanation:
96% ---- 12
144% ---- ?
96/144 * 12 = 8

Ques 18. By selling 150 mangoes, a fruit-seller gains the selling price of 30 mangoes. Find
the gain percent?
A. 20%
B. 25%
C. 18%
D. 30%
Answer: Option B
Explanation:
SP = CP + g
150 SP = 150 CP + 30 SP
120 SP = 150 CP
120 --- 30 CP
100 --- ? => 25%
Ques 19. A, B and C jointly thought of engaging themselves in a business venture. It was
agreed that A would invest Rs. 6500 for 6 months, B, Rs. 8400 for 5 months and C, Rs.
10,000 for 3 months. A wants to be the working member for which, he was to receive
5% of the profits. The profit earned was Rs. 7400. Calculate the share of B in the profit.
A. Rs. 1900
B. Rs. 2660
C. Rs. 2800
D. Rs. 2840
Answer: Option B
Ques 20. A, B, C subscribe Rs. 50,000 for a business. A subscribes Rs. 4000 more than B
and B Rs. 5000 more than C. Out of a total profit of Rs. 35,000, A receives:
A. Rs. 8400
B. Rs. 11,900
C. Rs. 13,600
D. Rs. 14,700
Answer: Option D
Ques 21. A tradesman by means of his false balance defrauds to the extent of 20%? in
buying goods as well as by selling the goods. What percent does he gain on his outlay?
A. 20%
B. 45%
C. 44%
D. 48%

Answer: Option C
Explanation:
g% = 20 + 20 + (20*20)/100
= 44%
Ques 22. A dishonest dealer professes to sell goods at the cost price but uses a weight of
800 grams per kg, what is his percent?
A. 20%
B. 25%
C. 30%
D. 15%
Answer: Option B
Explanation:
800 --- 200
100 --- ? => 25%
Ques 23. Ram professes to sell his goods at the cost price but he made use of 900 grms
instead of a kg, what is the gain percent?
A. 11%
B. 11 2/9%
C. 11 1/9%
D. 10%
Answer: Option C
Explanation:
900 --- 100
100 --- ? 11 1/9%
Ques 24. A man purchases 8 pens for Rs.9 and sells 9 pens for Rs.8, how much profit or
loss does he make?
A. 20.98% profit
B. 20.98% loss
C. 20.89% profit
D. 20.89% loss
Answer: Option B
Explanation:

81 ---- 17
100 ------ ? 20.98%loss
Ques 25. I bought two books; for Rs.480. I sold one at a loss of 15% and other at a gain of
19% and then I found each book was sold at the same price. Find the cost of the book
sold at a loss?
A. Rs.28
B. Rs.280
C. Rs.140
D. Rs.70
Answer: Option B
Explanation:
x*(85/100) = (480 - x)119/100
x = 280
Ques 26. A man buys an article and sells it at a profit of 20%. If he had bought it at 20%
less and sold it for Rs.75 less, he could have gained 25%. What is the cost price?
A. Rs.370
B. Rs.375
C. Rs.350
D. Rs.300
Answer: Option B
Explanation:
CP1 = 100 SP1 = 120
CP2 = 80 SP2 = 80 * (125/100) = 100
20 ----- 100
75 ----- ? => 375
Ques 27. A person bought an article and sold it at a loss of 10%. If he had bought it for
20% less and sold it for Rs.75 less, he could have gained 25%. What is the cost price?
A. Rs.250

B. Rs.225
C. Rs.275
D. Rs.200
Answer: Option A
Explanation:
CP1 = 100 SP1 = 90
CP2 = 80 SP2 = 80 * (140/100) = 112
22 ----- 100
55 ------? => Rs.250
Ques 28. If goods be purchased for Rs.840 and one-fourth be sold at a loss of 20% at what
gain percent should the remainder be sold so as to gain 20% on the whole transaction?
A. 30%
B. 33%
C. 33 1/3%
D. 35%
Answer: Option C
Explanation:
1/4 CP = 210 SP = 21*(80/100) = 168
SP = 840*(120/100) = 1008
1008 - 168 = 840
3/4 SP = 630
Gain = 210
630 --- 210
100 --- ? => 33 1/3%
Ques 29. Oranges are bought at 11 for a rupee and an equal number more at 9 a rupee. If
these are sold at 10 for a rupee, find the loss or gain percent?
A. 1% gain
B. 2% gain
C. 1% loss
D. 2% loss
Answer: Option C
Ques 30. A mixture of 150 liters of wine and water contains 20% water. How much more
water should be added so that water becomes 25% of the new mixture?
A. 7 liters

B. 15 liters
C. 10 liters
D. 9 liters
Answer: Option C
Explanation:
Number of liters of water in150 liters of the mixture = 20% of 150 = 20/100 * 150 = 30
liters.
P liters of water added to the mixture to make water 25% of the new mixture.
Total amount of water becomes (30 + P) and total volume of mixture is (150 + P).
(30 + P) = 25/100 * (150 + P)
120 + 4P = 150 + P => P = 10 liters.
Simple Equations
Ques 1. Solve the equation for x : 6x - 27 + 3x = 4 + 9 - x

A. 4
B. 5
C. 6
D. -4
E. None of these
Answer: Option A
Explanation:
9 x + x = 13 + 27
10 x = 40 => x = 4
Ques 2. Solve the equation for x : 19(x + y) + 17 = 19(-x + y) - 21

A. -1
B. -2
C. -3
D. -4
E. None of these
Answer: Option A
Explanation:

19x + 19y + 17 = -19x + 19y - 21
38x = -38 => x = -1
Ques 3. The cost of 2 chairs and 3 tables is Rs.1300. The cost of 3 chairs and 2 tables is
Rs.1200. The cost of each table is more than that of each chair by?
A. Rs.70
B. Rs.75
C. Rs.50
D. Rs.60
E. None of these
Answer: Option E
Explanation:
2C + 3T = 1300 --- (1)
3C + 3T = 1200 --- (2)
Subtracting 2nd from 1st, we get
-C + T = 100 => T - C = 100
Ques 4. The denominator of a fraction is 1 less than twice the numerator. If the
numerator and denominator are both increased by 1, the fraction becomes 3/5. Find
the fraction?
A. 2/3
B. 3/5
C. 4/7
D. 5/9
E. None of these
Answer: Option D
Explanation:
Let the numerator and denominator of the fraction be 'n' and 'd' respectively.
d = 2n - 1
(n + 1)/(d + 1) = 3/5
5n + 5 = 3d + 3
5n + 5 = 3(2n - 1) + 3 => n = 5
d = 2n - 1 => d = 9
Hence the fraction is : 5/9.

Ques 5. The cost of 10 kg of apples is equal to the cost of 24 kg of rice. The cost of 6 kg of
flour equals the cost of 2 kg of rice. The cost of each kg of flour is Rs.20.50. Find the total
cost of 4 kg of apples, 3 kg of rice and 5 kg of flour?
A. Rs.849.40
B. Rs.877.40
C. Rs.901.60
D. Rs.815.20
E. None of these
Answer: Option B
Explanation:
Let the costs of each kg of apples and each kg of rice be Rs.a and Rs.r respectively.
10a = 24r and 6 * 20.50 = 2r
a = 12/5 r and r = 61.5
a = 147.6
Required total cost = 4 * 147.6 + 3 * 61.5 + 5 * 20.5
= 590.4 + 184.5 + 102.5 = Rs.877.40
Ques 6. The tens digit of a two-digit number is two more than its unit digit. The two-digit
number is 7 times the sum of the digits. Find the units digits?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
E. None of these
Answer: Option B
Explanation:
Let the two-digit number be 10a + b
a = b + 2 --- (1)
10a + b = 7(a + b) => a = 2b
Substituting a = 2b in equation (1), we get
2b = b + 2 => b = 2
Hence the units digit is: 2.
Ques 7. The sum of the digits of a two-digit number is 12. The difference of the digits is 6.
Find the number?
A. 93
B. 39
C. 75

D. 48
E. Either (a) or (b)
Answer: Option E
Explanation:
Let the two-digit number be 10a + b
a + b = 12 --- (1)
If a>b, a - b = 6
If b>a, b - a = 6
If a - b = 6, adding it to equation (1), we get
2a = 18 => a =9
so b = 12 - a = 3
Number would be 93.
if b - a = 6, adding it to the equation (1), we get
2b = 18 => b = 9
a = 12 - b = 3.
Number would be 39.
There fore, Number would be 39 or 93.
Ques 8. In a series of six consecutive even numbers, the sum of the second and sixth
numbers is 24. What is the fourth number?
A. 8
B. 12
C. 6
D. 14
E. None of these
Answer: Option B
Explanation:
Let the numbers be x, x + 2, x + 4, x + 6, x + 8 and x + 10.
Given (x + 2) + (x + 10) = 24
=> 2x + 12 = 24 => x = 6
The fourth number = x + 6 = 6 + 6 = 12.
Ques 9. The sum of five consecutive even numbers of set x is 440. Find the sum of a
different set of five consecutive integers whose second least number is 121 less than
double the least number of set x?
A. 248
B. 240

C. 228
D. 236
E. None of these
Answer: Option B
Explanation:
Let the five consecutive even numbers be 2(x - 2), 2(x - 1), 2x, 2(x + 1) and 2(x + 2)
Their sum = 10x = 440
x = 44 => 2(x - 2) = 84
Second least number of the other set = 2(84) - 121 = 47
This set has its least number as 46.
Sum of the numbers of this set = 46 + 47 + 48 + 49 + 50
= 48 - 2 + 48 - 1 + 48 + 48 + 1 + 48 + 2 => 5(48) = 240
Ques 10. The sum of ages of 5 children born at the intervals of 3 years each is 50 years.
What is the age of the youngest child?
A. 4 years
B. 8 years
C. 10 years
D. None of these
Answer: Option A
Ques 11. A father said to his son, "I was as old as you are at the present at the time of
your birth". If the father's age is 38 years now, the son's age five years back was:
A. 14 years
B. 19 years
C. 33 years
D. 38 years
Answer: Option A
Ques 12. Present ages of Sameer and Anand are in the ratio of 5 : 4 respectively. Three
years hence, the ratio of their ages will become 11 : 9 respectively. What is Anand's
present age in years?
A. 24
B. 27
C. 40
E. None of these

Answer: Option A
Ques 13. Ayesha's father was 38 years of age when she was born while her mother was 36
years old when her brother four years younger to her was born. What is the difference
between the ages of her parents?
A. 2 years
B. 4 years
C. 6 years
D. 8 years
Answer: Option C
Ques 14. A person's present age is two-fifth of the age of his mother. After 8 years, he will
be one-half of the age of his mother. How old is the mother at present?
A. 32 years
B. 36 years
C. 40 years
D. 48 years
Answer: Option C
Ques 15. A man has Rs. 480 in the denominations of one-rupee notes, five-rupee notes
and ten-rupee notes. The number of notes of each denomination is equal. What is the
total number of notes that he has ?
A. 45
B. 60
C. 75
D. 90
Answer: Option D
Ques 16. There are two examinations rooms A and B. If 10 students are sent from A to B,
then the number of students in each room is the same. If 20 candidates are sent from B
to A, then the number of students in A is double the number of students in B. The
number of students in room A is:
A. 20
B. 80
C. 100
D. 200
Answer: Option C

Ques 17. The price of 10 chairs is equal to that of 4 tables. The price of 15 chairs and 2
tables together is Rs. 4000. The total price of 12 chairs and 3 tables is:
A. Rs. 3500
B. Rs. 3750
C. Rs. 3840
D. Rs. 3900
Answer: Option D
Ques 18. 3 pumps, working 8 hours a day, can empty a tank in 2 days. How many hours a
day must 4 pumps work to empty the tank in 1 day?
A. 9
B. 10
C. 11
D. 12
Answer: Option D
Ques 19. Running at the same constant rate, 6 identical machines can produce a total of
270 bottles per minute. At this rate, how many bottles could 10 such machines produce
in 4 minutes?
A. 648
B. 1800
C. 2700
D. 10800
Answer: Option B
Ques 20. The number obtained by interchanging the two digits of a two-digit number is
less than the original number by 45. If the sum of the two digits of the number so
obtained is 13, then what is the original number?
A. 49
B. 94
C. 83
D. Either (a) or (b)
E. None of these
Answer: Option B
Explanation:
Let the number be in the form of 10a + b
Number formed by interchanging a and b = 10b + a.
a + b = 13 --- (1)

10b + a = 10a + b - 45
45 = 9a - 9b => a - b = 5 --- (2)
Adding (1) and (2), we get
2a = 18 => a = 9 and b = 4
The number is: 94.
Probability and Permutation & Combination
Ques 1. A boy has nine trousers and 12 shirts. In how many different ways can he select a
trouser and a shirt?
A. 21
B. 12
C. 9
D. 108
E. 101
Answer: Option D
Explanation:
The boy can select one trouser in nine ways.
The boy can select one shirt in 12 ways.
The number of ways in which he can select one trouser and one shirt is 9 * 12 = 108
ways.
Ques 2. How many three letter words are formed using the letters of the word TIME?
A. 12
B. 20
C. 16
D. 24
E. 30
Answer: Option D
Explanation:
The number of letters in the given word is four.
The number of three letter words that can be formed using these four letters is ⁴P₃ = 4 *
3 * 2 = 24.

Ques 3. Using all the letters of the word "THURSDAY", how many different words can be
formed?
A. 8
B. 8!
C. 7!
D. 7
E. 6!
Answer: Option B
Explanation:
Total number of letters = 8
Using these letters the number of 8 letters words formed is ⁸P₈ = 8!.
Ques 4. Using all the letters of the word "NOKIA", how many words can be formed,
which begin with N and end with A?
A. 3
B. 6
C. 24
D. 120
E. 12
Answer: Option B
Explanation:
There are five letters in the given word.
Consider 5 blanks ....
The first blank and last blank must be filled with N and A all the remaining three blanks
can be filled with the remaining 3 letters in 3! ways.
The number of words = 3! = 6.
Ques 5. The number of arrangements that can be made with the letters of the word
MEADOWS so that the vowels occupy the even places?
A. 720
B. 144
C. 120
D. 36
E. 204
Answer: Option B
Explanation:
The word MEADOWS has 7 letters of which 3 are vowels.
-V-V-V-

As the vowels have to occupy even places, they can be arranged in the 3 even places in
3! i.e., 6 ways. While the consonants can be arranged among themselves in the
remaining 4 places in 4! i.e., 24 ways.
Hence the total ways are 24 * 6 = 144.
Ques 6. The number of permutations of the letters of the word 'MESMERISE' is_.
A. 9!/(2!)2 3!
B. 9!/(2!)3 3!
C. 9!/(2!)2 (3!)2
D. 5!/(2!)2 3!
E. 8!/(2!)2 (3!)2
Answer: Option A
Explanation:
n items of which p are alike of one kind, q alike of the other, r alike of another kind and
the remaining are distinct can be arranged in a row in n!/p!q!r! ways.
The letter pattern 'MESMERISE' consists of 10 letters of which there are 2M's, 3E's, 2S's
and 1I and 1R.
Number of arrangements = 9!/(2!)2 3!
Ques 7. A committee has 5 men and 6 women. What are the number of ways of selecting
2 men and 3 women from the given committee?
A. 150
B. 200
C. 250
D. 300
E. None of these
Answer: Option B
Explanation:
The number of ways to select two men and three women = ⁵C₂ * ⁶C₃
= (5 *4 )/(2 * 1) * (6 * 5 * 4)/(3 * 2)
= 200
Ques 8. What are the number of ways to select 3 men and 2 women such that one man
and one woman are always selected?
A. 100
B. 60
C. 30
D. 20

E. None of these
Answer: Option C
Explanation:
The number of ways to select three men and two women such that one man and one
woman are always selected = Number of ways selecting two men and one woman from
men and five women
= ⁴C₂ * ⁵C₁ = (4 * 3)/(2 * 1) * 5
= 30 ways.
Ques 9. There are 18 stations between Hyderabad and Bangalore. How many second
class tickets have to be printed, so that a passenger can travel from any station to any
other station?
A. 200
B. 190
C. 95
D. 100
E. 380
Answer: Option E
Explanation:
The total number of stations = 20
From 20 stations we have to choose any two stations and the direction of travel (i.e.,
Hyderabad to Bangalore is different from Bangalore to Hyderabad) in ²⁰P₂ ways.
²⁰P₂ = 20 * 19 = 380.
Ques 10. A letter lock consists of three rings each marked with six different letters. The
number of distinct unsuccessful attempts to open the lock is at the most -.
A. 216
B. 243
C. 215
D. 729
E. 728
Answer: Option C
Explanation:
Since each ring consists of six different letters, the total number of attempts possible
with the three rings is = 6 * 6 * 6 = 216. Of these attempts, one of them is a successful
attempt.
Maximum number of unsuccessful attempts = 216 - 1 = 215.

Ques 11. The number of ways in which six boys and six girls can be seated in a row for a
photograph so that no two girls sit together is -.
A. (6!)2
B. 6! * ⁷P₆
C. 2(6!)
D. 6! * 7
E. None of these
Answer: Option B
Explanation:
We can initially arrange the six boys in 6! ways.
Having done this, now three are seven places and six girls to be arranged. This can be
done in ⁷P₆ ways.
Hence required number of ways = 6! * ⁷P₆
Ques 12. How many four digit numbers can be formed using the digits {1, 3, 4, 5,
7,9}(repetition of digits is not allowed)?
A. 360
B. 60
C. 300
D. 180
E. 240
Answer: Option A
Explanation:
The given digits are six.
The number of four digit numbers that can be formed using six digits is ⁶P₄ = 6 * 5 * 4 * 3
= 360.
Ques 13. In how many ways can six members be selected from a group of ten members?
A. ⁶C₄
B. ¹⁰C₄
C. ¹⁰C₅
D. ¹⁰P₄
E. ¹⁰P₅
Answer: Option B
Explanation:
Six members can be selected from ten members in
¹⁰C₆ = ¹⁰C₄ ways.

Ques 14. The probability that a number selected at random from the first 50 natural
numbers is a composite number is -.
A. 21/25
B. 17/25
C. 4/25
D. 8/25
E. 9/25
Answer: Option B
Explanation:
The number of exhaustive events = ⁵⁰C₁ = 50.
We have 15 primes from 1 to 50.
Number of favourable cases are 34.
Required probability = 34/50 = 17/25.
Ques 15. A coin is tossed five times. What is the probability that there is at the least one
tail?
A. 31/32
B. 1/16
C. ½
D. 1/32
E. None of thes3e
Answer: Option A
Explanation:
Let P(T) be the probability of getting least one tail when the coin is tossed five times.
= There is not even a single tail.
i.e. all the outcomes are heads.
= 1/32 ; P(T) = 1 - 1/32 = 31/32
Ques 16. If a number is chosen at random from the set {1, 2, 3, .... , 100}, then the
probability that the chosen number is a perfect cube is -.
A. 1/25
B. ½
C. 4/13
D. 1/10
E. 9/13
Answer: Option A
Explanation:

We have 1, 8, 27 and 64 as perfect cubes from 1 to 100.
Thus, the probability of picking a perfect cube is
4/100 = 1/25.
Ques 17. Out of first 20 natural numbers, one number is selected at random. The
probability that it is either an even number or a prime number is -.
A. ½
B. 16/19
C. 4/5
D. 17/20
E. 3/5
Answer: Option D
Explanation:
n(S) = 20
n(Even no) = 10 = n(E)
n(Prime no) = 8 = n(P)
P(EᴜP) = 10/20 + 8/20 - 1/20 = 17/20
Ques 18. If two dice are thrown together, the probability of getting an even number on
one die and an odd number on the other is -.
A. ¼
B. ½
C. ¾
D. 3/5
E. None of these
Answer: Option B
Explanation:
The number of exhaustive outcomes is 36.
Let E be the event of getting an even number on one die and an odd number on the
other. Let the event of getting either both even or both odd then = 18/36 = 1/2
P(E) = 1 - 1/2 = 1/2.
Ques 19. If four coins are tossed, the probability of getting two heads and two tails is -.
A. 3/8
B. 6/11
C. 2/5
D. 4/5
E. 5/11

Answer: Option A
Explanation:
Since four coins are tossed, sample space = 24
Getting two heads and two tails can happen in six ways.
n(E) = six ways
p(E) = 6/24 = 3/8
Ques 20. If a card is drawn from a well shuffled pack of cards, the probability of drawing a
spade or a king is -.
A. 19/52
B. 17/52
C. 5/13
D. 4/13
E. 9/26
Answer: Option D
Explanation:
P(SᴜK) = P(S) + P(K) - P(S∩K), where S denotes spade and K denotes king.
P(SᴜK) = 13/52 + 4/52 - 1/52 = 4/13
Ques 21. If six persons sit in a row, then the probability that three particular persons are
always together is -.
A. 1/20
B. 3/10
C. 1/5
D. 4/5
E. 2/5
Answer: Option C
Explanation:
Six persons can be arranged in a row in 6! ways. Treat the three persons to sit together
as one unit then there four persons and they can be arranged in 4! ways. Again three
persons can be arranged among them selves in 3! ways. Favourable outcomes = 3!4!
Required probability = 3!4!/6! = 1/5
Ques 22. A bag contains 7 green and 8 white balls. If two balls are drawn simultaneously,
the probability that both are of the same colour is -.
A. 8/15
B. 2/5

C. 3/5
D. 11/15
E. 7/15
Answer: Option E
Explanation:
Drawing two balls of same color from seven green balls can be done in ⁷C₂ ways.
Similarly from eight white balls two can be drawn in ⁸C₂ ways.
P = ⁷C₂/¹⁵C₂ + ⁸C₂/¹⁵C₂ = 7/15
Ques 23. A basket has 5 apples and 4 oranges. Three fruits are picked at random. The
probability that at least 2 apples are picked is -.
A. 25/42
B. 9/20
C. 10/23
D. 41/42
E. 1/42
Answer: Option A
Explanation:
Total fruits = 9
Since there must be at least two apples,
(⁵C₂ * ⁴C₁)/⁹C₃ + ⁵C₃/⁹C₃ = 25/42.
River and Current Related
Ques 1. A person can swim in still water at 4 km/h. If the speed of water 2 km/h, how
many hours will the man take to swim back against the current for 6km?
A. 3
B. 4
C. 4 (1/2)
D. Insufficient data
Answer: Option A
Explanation:
M=4

S=2
US = 4 - 2 = 2
D=6
T = 6/2 = 3
Ques 2. A boat goes 100 km downstream in 10 hours, and 75 m upstream in 15 hours.

The speed of the stream is?
A. 7 km/h
B. 5 km/h
C. 3 km/h
D. 2 (1/2) km/h
Answer: Option D
Explanation:
100 --- 10 DS = 10
? ---- 1
75 ---- 15 US = 5
? ----- 1 S = (10 - 5)/2
= 2 2 ½ kmph
Ques 3. A man can row his boat with the stream at 6 km/h and against the stream in 4
km/h. The man's rate is?
A. 1 kmph
B. 5 kmph
C. 8 kmph
D. 3 kmph
Answer: Option A
Explanation:
DS = 6
US = 4
S=?
S = (6 - 4)/2 = 1 kmph
Ques 4. A man can swim in still water at 4.5 km/h, but takes twice as long to swim
upstream than downstream. The speed of the stream is?
A. 3
B. 7.5
C. 2.25

D. 1.5
Answer: Option D
Explanation:
M = 4.5
S=x
DS = 4.5 + x
US = 4.5 + x
4.5 + x = (4.5 - x)2
4.5 + x = 9 -2x
3x = 4.5
x = 1.5
Ques 5. A man can row upstream at 25 kmph and downstream at 35 kmph, and then find
the speed of the man in still water?
A. 60 kmph
B. 10 kmph
C. 30 kmph
D. 5 kmph
Answer: Option C
Explanation:
US = 25
DS = 35
M = (35 + 25)/2 = 30
Ques 6. A boat can move upstream at 25 kmph and downstream at 35 kmph, then the
speed of the current is?
A. 5 kmph
B. 10 kmph
C. 30 kmph
D. 15 kmph
Answer: Option A
Explanation:
US = 25
DS = 35
M = (35 - 25)/2 = 5

Ques 7. A man swims downstream 30 km and upstream 18 km taking 3 hours each time,
what is the speed of the man in still water?
A. 2 kmph
B. 8 kmph
C. 16 kmph
D. 4 kmph
Answer: Option B
Explanation:
30 --- 3 DS = 10
? ---- 1
18 ---- 3 US = 6
? ---- 1 M=?
M = (10 + 6)/2 = 8
Ques 8. The current of a stream runs at the rate of 4 kmph. A boat goes 6 km and back to
the starting point in 2 hours, then find the speed of the boat in still water?
A. 10 kmph
B. 21 kmph
C. 8 kmph
D. 12 kmph
Answer: Option C
Explanation:
S=4
M=x
DS = x + 4
US = x - 4
6/(x + 4) + 6/(x - 4) = 2
x=8
Ques 9. A man whose speed is 4.5 kmph in still water rows to a certain upstream point
and back to the starting point in a river which flows at 1.5 kmph, find his average speed
for the total journey?
A. 8 kmph
B. 4 kmph
C. 2 kmph
D. 10 kmph
Answer: Option B

Explanation:
M = 45
S = 1.5
DS = 6
US = 3
AS = (2 * 6 * 3) /9 = 4
Ques 10. A boat can travel with a speed of 13 km/hr in still water. If the speed of the
stream is 4 km/hr, find the time taken by the boat to go 68 km downstream.
A. 2 hours
B. 3 hours
C. 4 hours
D. 5 hours
Answer: Option C
Ques 11. A man's speed with the current is 15 km/hr and the speed of the current is 2.5
km/hr. The man's speed against the current is:
A. 8.5 km/hr
B. 9 km/hr
C. 10 km/hr
D. 12.5 km/hr
Answer: Option C
Ques 12. A boat running upstream takes 8 hours 48 minutes to cover a certain distance,
while it takes 4 hours to cover the same distance running downstream. What is the ratio
between the speed of the boat and speed of the water current respectively?
A. 2 : 1
B. 3 : 2
C. 8 : 3
E. None of these
Answer: Option C
Ques 13. A motorboat, whose speed in 15 km/hr in still water goes 30 km downstream
and comes back in a total of 4 hours 30 minutes. The speed of the stream (in km/hr) is:
A. 4
B. 5

C. 6
D. 10
Answer: Option B
Ques 14. The speed of a boat in still water is 60kmph and the speed of the current is
20kmph. Find the speed downstream and upstream?
A. 35, 25 kmph
B. 80, 40 kmph
C. 40, 60 kmph
D. 50, 55 kmph
Answer: Option B
Explanation:
Speed downstream = 60 + 20 = 80 kmph
Speed upstream = 60 - 20 = 40 kmph
Mathematical Reasoning
Ques 1. The area of a triangle is with base 4m and height 5m?

A. 20 sq m
B. 10 sq m
C. 5 sq m
D. 3 sq m
Answer: Option B
Explanation:
1/2 * 4 * 5 = 10 m2
Ques 2. The length of each side of an equilateral triangle having an area of 4√3 cm2 is?
A. 4/3 cm
B. 3/4 cm
C. 3 cm
D. 4 cm
Answer: Option D
Explanation:

Ques 3. What is the area of a square field whose diagonal of length 20 m?
A. 300 sq m
B. 250 sq m
C. 200 sq m
D. 400 sq m
Answer: Option C
Explanation:
d2/2 = (20 * 20)/2 = 200
Ques 4. What is the perimeter of a square field whose diagonal is 8√2?

A. 64 m
B. 32 m
C. 30 m
D. 16 m
Answer: Option B
Explanation:
4a = 32 m
Ques 5. A man walked 20 m to cross a rectangular field diagonally. If the length of the
field is 16 cm. Find the breadth of the field is?
A. 11 m
B. 12 m
C. 13 m
D. 14 m
Answer: Option B
Explanation:
Ques 6. The side of a rhombus is 26 m and length of one of its diagonals is 20 m. The area
of the rhombus is?
A. 529 sq m
B. 240 sq m
C. 260 sq m
D. 480 sq m
Answer: Option D

Explanation:
262 – 102 = 242
d1 = 20 d2 = 48
1/2 * 20 * 48 = 480
Ques 7. In a shower, 5 cm of rain falls. The volume of water that falls on 1.5 hectares of
ground is:
A. 75 cu. M
B. 750 cu. M
C. 7500 cu. M
D. 75000 cu. m
Answer: Option B
Ques 8. A hall is 15 m long and 12 m broad. If the sum of the areas of the floor and the
ceiling is equal to the sum of the areas of four walls, the volume of the hall is:
A. 720
B. 900
C. 1200
D. 1800
Answer: Option C
Ques 9. A hollow iron pipe is 21 cm long and its external diameter is 8 cm. If the
thickness of the pipe is 1 cm and iron weighs 8 g/cm3, then the weight of the pipe is:
A. 3.6 kg
B. 3.696 kg
C. 36 kg
D. 36.9 kg
Answer: Option B
Ques 10. The perimeter of a rhombus is 68 cm and one of its diagonals is 16 cm. Find its
area?
A. 260 cm2
B. 240 cm2
C. 280 cm2
D. 220 cm2
Answer: Option B
Explanation:

4a = 68 a = 17
172 – 82 = 152
1/2 * 16 * 30 = 240
Ques 11. LCM of 455, 117, 338 is:

A. 10670
B. 106470
C. 104670
D. 107470
Answer: Option B
Ques 12. HCF of 3/16, 5/12, 7/8 is:

A. 2/47
B. 3/47
C. 1/48
D. 5/48
Answer: Option C
Explanation:
HCF of numerators = 1
LCM of denominators = 48
=> 1/48
Ques 13. The product of two digits number is 2160 and their HCF is 12. The numbers are:
A. 36,60)
B. (12,180)
C. (96,25)
D. (72,30)
Answer: Option A
Explanation:
(36,60)
Ques 14. The least number of four digits which is divisible by 4, 6, 8 and 10 is?
A. 1080
B. 1085
C. 1075
D. 1095
Answer: Option A

Explanation:
LCM = 120
120) 1000 (8
960
40
1000 + 120 - 40 = 1080
Ques 15. Which one of the following is not a prime number?

A. 31
B. 61
C. 71
D. 91
Answer: Option D
Ques 16. The difference of two numbers is 1365. On dividing the larger number by the
smaller, we get 6 as quotient and the 15 as remainder. What is the smaller number ?
A. 240
B. 270
C. 295
D. 360
Answer: Option B
Ques 17. Find the greatest number that will divide 43, 91 and 183 so as to leave the same
remainder in each case.
A. 4
B. 7
C. 9
D. 13
Answer: Option A
Ques 18. Six bells commence tolling together and toll at intervals of 2, 4, 6, 8 10 and 12
seconds respectively. In 30 minutes, how many times do they toll together ?
A. 4
B. 10
C. 15
D. 16

Answer: Option D
Ques 19. Let N be the greatest number that will divide 1305, 4665 and 6905, leaving the
same remainder in each case. Then sum of the digits in N is:
A. 4
B. 5
C. 6
D. 8
Answer: Option A
Ques 20. The greatest number of five digits which is divisible by 32, 36, 40, 42 and 48 is:
A. 90730
B. 90725
C. 90715
D. 90720
Answer: Option D
Explanation:
LCM = 10080
10080) 99999 (8
90720
9279
99999 - 9279 = 90720
Ques 21. Two ships are sailing in the sea on the two sides of a lighthouse. The angle of
elevation of the top of the lighthouse is observed from the ships are 30° and 45°
respectively. If the lighthouse is 100 m high, the distance between the two ships is:
A. 173 m
B. 200 m
C. 273 m
D. 300 m
Answer: Option C
Ques 22. The angle of elevation of a ladder leaning against a wall is 60º and the foot of the
ladder is 4.6 m away from the wall. The length of the ladder is:
A. 2.3 m
B. 4.6 m
C. 7.8 m

D. 9.2 m
Answer: Option D
Ques 23. From a point P on a level ground, the angle of elevation of the top tower is 30º. If
the tower is 100 m high, the distance of point P from the foot of the tower is:
A. 149 m
B. 156 m
C. 173 m
D. 200 m
Answer: Option C
Ques 24. The angle of elevation of the sun, when the length of the shadow of a tree √3
times the height of the tree, is:
A. 30º
B. 5º
C. 60º
D. 90º
Answer: Option A
Ques 25. It was Sunday on Jan 1, 2006. What was the day of the week Jan 1, 2010?
A. Sunday
B. Saturday
C. Friday
D. Wednesday
Answer: Option C
Ques 26. Today is Monday. After 61 days, it will be:

A. Wednesday
B. Saturday
C. Tuesday
D. Thursday
Answer: Option B
Ques 27. How many days are there in x weeks x days?

A. 7x2
B. 8x
C. 14x

D. 7
Answer: Option B
Ques 28. An accurate clock shows 8 o'clock in the morning. Through how may degrees will
the hour hand rotate when the clock shows 2 o'clock in the afternoon?
A. 144º
B. 150º
C. 168º
D. 180º
Answer: Option D
Ques 29. The angle between the minute hand and the hour hand of a clock when the time
is 4.20, is:
A. 0º
B. 10º
C. 5º
D. 20º
Answer: Option B
Ques 30. How many times are the hands of a clock at right angle in a day?
A. 22
B. 24
C. 44
D. 48
Answer: Option C
Odd one OUT
Ques 1. Find the one which does not belong to that group?
A. Curd
B. Butter
C. Oil

D. Cheese
E. Cream
Answer: Option C
Hint: Except Oil all others are milk product
A. Rose
B. Lotus
C. Marigold
D. Tulip
Answer: Option B
Hint: Lotus grows in water.
A. Book
B. Paper
C. Pencil
D. Pen
E. Sharpner
Answer: Option A
Hint: Except Book all others are stationery items
A. Geometry
B. Algebra
C. Trigonometry
D. Mathematics
E. Arithmetic
Answer: Option D
Hint: All others are part of Mathematics.
A. Copper
B. Tin

C. Brass
D. Platinum
E. Zinc
Answer: Option C
Hint: Brass is the only alloy in the group
A. Carrot
B. Potato
C. Tomato
D. Ginger
E. Beetroot
Answer: Option C
Hint: Except Tomato all others grow underground
A. lake
B. sea
C. river
D. pool
E. pond
Answer: Option B
Hint: Sea is of salt water. All others are not.
A. sun
B. moon
C. stars
D. mars
E. universe
Answer: Option E
Hint: All others are part of Universe

A. hostel
B. hotel
C. inn
D. club
E. motel
Answer: Option D
Hint: You can’t stay in club
A. wheat
B. mustard
C. rice
D. gram
E. peanut
Answer: Option C
Hint: Rice is not a Rabi crop
A. pineapple
B. orange
C. malta
D. banana
E. lemon
Answer: Option D
Hint: All others are juicy except Banana
A. Ear
B. Lung
C. Eye
D. Heart
E. Kidney
Answer: Option D

Hint: Heart is not in pair
A. Tailor
B. Carpenter
C. Blacksmith
D. Barber
E. Engineer
Answer: Option D
Hint: Barber does not require raw material to work
A. Whale
B. Dolphin
C. Shark
D. Cod
E. Starfish
Answer: Option A
Hint: Whale is the only mammal
A. Goat
B. Dog
C. Sheep
D. Cow
E. Camel
Answer: Option B
Hint: Dog milk cannot be consumed
A. Inch
B. Foot
C. Yard
D. Quart

E. Meter
Answer: Option D
Hint: Quart is not an unit of length
A. X-ray
B. telephone
C. radio
D. computer
E. television
Answer: Option A
Hint: X-ray is not a mode of communication
A. Arc
B. Diagonal
C. Tangent
D. Radius
E. Diameter
Answer: Option B
Hint: Diagonal is not related to circle, but others are related.
A. Biscuit
B. Chocolate
C. Cake
D. Bread
E. Pastry
Answer: Option B
Hint: Except chocolate all others are baked items
A. Listen

B. Swim
C. Walk
D. Climb
E. Run
Answer: Option A
Hint: Listen is not a physical activity
A. Carrot
B. Guava
C. Tomato
D. Pears
E. Brinjal
Answer: Option E
Hint: Brinjal cannot be eaten directly without cooking
A. 43
B. 53
C. 63
D. 73
E. 83
Answer: Option C
Hint: 63 is not a prime number
A. 51
B. 144
C. 64
D. 121
E. 256
Answer: Option A
Hint: 51 is not a perfect square.

A. 15
B. 21
C. 24
D. 28
E. 30
Answer: Option D
Hint: 28 is not divisible by 3
A. 6
B. 12
C. 18
D. 9
E. 7
Answer: Option E
Hint: & is the only prime number
A. 11
B. 13
C. 15
D. 17
Answer: Option C
Hint: 15 is not a prime number
A. 10
B. 11
C. 15
D. 16
Answer: Option B
Hint: 11 is the only prime number

A. 37
B. 49
C. 132
D. 154
Answer: Option A
Hint: 37 is the only prime number
A. 21
B. 69
C. 81
D. 83
Answer: Option C
Hint: 81 is the only perfect square
A. 27
B. 37
C. 47
D. 67
E. 17
Answer: Option A
Explanation:
37, 47, 67 and 17 are prime numbers but not 27.
Ques 31. Find the one which does not belong to that group ?
A. 36
B. 49
C. 64
D. 81
E. 100
Answer: Option B
Explanation:
36 = 62, 49 = 72, 64 = 82, 81 = 92 and 100 = 102.

36, 64, 81 and 100 are squares of composite numbers, but not 49.
Ques 32. Find odd one out : 3, 5, 11, 14, 17, 21

A. 21
B. 17
C. 14
D. 3
Answer: Option C
Ques 33. Which word does NOT belong with the others?
A. Inch
B. Ounce
C. Centimeter
D. yard
Answer: Option B
A. Tyre
B. steering wheel
C. engine
D. car
Answer: Option D
A. Leopard
B. Cougar
C. Elephant
D. lion
Answer: Option C
A. Cornea
B. Retina
C. Pupil
D. vision

Answer: Option D
Ques 37. Find odd one out : 396, 462, 572, 427, 671, 264
A. 396
B. 427
C. 671
D. 264
Answer: Option B
A. 4422
B. 2442
C. 4242
D. 2244
E. 4224
Answer: Option C
Explanation:
Except 4242, all other numbers are divisible by 11.
A. 508
B. 328
C. 608
D. 148
E. 706
Answer: Option C
Explanation:
The sum of the digits in 508, 328, 706 and 148 is 13, but not in 608.
A. CAT
B. DOG
C. TIGER
D. ELEPHANT
E. LION
Answer: Option D
Explanation:
Cat, Dog, Tiger and Lion are carnivores, while Elephant is a herbivore.

A. Baseball
B. Boxing
C. Chess
D. Wrestling
E. Squash
Answer: Option A
Explanation:
Boxing, Chess, Wrestling and Squash are individual events, while Baseball is a team
event.
A. Ganga
B. Hirakud
C. Yamuna
D. Sutlej
E. Krishna
Answer: Option B
Explanation:
Ganga, Yamuna, Sutlej and Krishna are rivers, Hirakud is a dam.
A. 30
B. 630
C. 10
D. 520
E. 130
Answer: Option B
Explanation:
30 = 33 + 3, 630 = 54 + 5, 10 = 23 + 2, 520 = 83 + 8 and 130 = 53 + 5.
30, 10, 130 and 520 can be expressed as n3 + n but not 630.
Series Completion

Ques 1. Look at this series: 7, 10, 8, 11, 9, 12, ... What number should come next?
A. 7
B. 10
C. 12
D. 13
Answer: Option B
Hint: Alternate numbers are in sequence
Ques 2. Look at this series: 22, 21, 23, 22, 24, 23, ... What number should come next?
A. 22
B. 24
C. 25
D. 26
Answer: Option C
Hint: Alternate numbers are in sequence
Ques 3. Complete the series: 5, 7, 12, 19, ……., 39.

A. 29
B. 28
C. 26
D. 24
Answer: Option B
Ques 4. 1, 4, 9, 16, 25, ……

A. 35
B. 36
C. 48
D. 49
Answer: Option B
Hint: Square of 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6
Ques 5. 20, 19, 17, ……., 10, 5

A. 12

B. 13
C. 14
D. 15
Answer: Option C
Hint: Pattern is -1, -2, -3,…..Therefore 17-3 = 14
Ques 6. 1, 6, 13, 22, 33, ……

A. 44
B. 45
C. 46
D. 47
Answer: Option C
Hint: Pattern is +5, +7, +9, +11, ….Therefore 33+13=46
Ques 7. 3, 9, 27, 81, …..

A. 324
B. 243
C. 210
D. 162
Answer: Option B
Hint: Every term is multiplied by 3. Therefore 81*3=243
Ques 8. 1, 9, 17, 33, 49, 73, ……

A. 97
B. 98
C. 99
D. 100
Answer: Option A
Hint: Pattern is +8, +8, +16, +16, +24, +24…….Therefore 73+24=97
Ques 9. 2, 5, 9, ……, 20, 27

A. 14
B. 16
C. 18
D. 24
Answer: Option A
Hint: Pattern is +3, +4, +5, +6,…… Therefore 9+5=14
Ques 10. 3, 7, 15, 31, 63, …….

A. 92
B. 115
C. 127
D. 131
Answer: Option C
Hint: Pattern is (previous number*2+1=Next number), Therefore( 63*2)+1=127
Ques 11. 1, 2, 3, 5, 8, ……..

A. 9
B. 11
C. 13
D. 15
Answer: Option C
Hint: Sum of last two terms=Next term. Therefore 5+8=13
Ques 12. 0.5, 1.5, 4.5, 13.5, ……

A. 45.5
B. 39.5
C. 30.5
D. 40.5
Answer: Option D
Hint: Next term = previous term * 3. Therefore 13.5 * 3= 40.5

Ques 13. 66, 36, 18, ……
A. 3
B. 6
C. 8
D. 9
Answer: Option C
Hint: Next number = product of digits in last number. Therefore 1*8=8
Ques 14. 1, 2, 6, 24, ……

A. 60
B. 95
C. 120
D. 150
Answer: Option C
Hint: Pattern is next term = Last term *2, *3, * 4….. Therefore 24*5=120
Ques 15. 4, 10, ……., 82, 244, 730

A. 24
B. 28
C. 77
D. 218
Answer: Option B
Hint: Next number = (Previous number*3) – 2. Therefore 10*3-2=28
Ques 16. 5, 16, 49, 104, …..

A. 115
B. 148
C. 170
D. 181
Answer: Option D
Hint: Pattern is Next term =Previous term + (11*1), +(11*3), +(11*5)….Therefore

104+(11*7)=181

Ques 17. 840, 168, 42, 14, 7, …..
A. 1
B. 7
C. 9
D. 12
Answer: Option B
Hint: Previous term=Next term*5, *4, *3, *2……Therefore 7=1*7
Ques 18. Look at this series: 544, 509, 474, 439, ... What number should come next?
A. 404
B. 414
C. 420
D. 445
Answer: Option A
Hint: Next number is 35 less than the previous number
Directions to Solve
In these series, you will be looking at both the letter pattern and the number pattern. Fill the
blank in the middle of the series or end of the series.
Ques 19. SCD, TEF, UGH, , WKL

A. CMN
B. UJI
C. VIJ
D. IJT
Answer: Option C
Hint: First letters are in sequence. S, T, U, V, W
Ques 20. B2CD, , BCD4, B5CD, BC6D

A. B2C2D
B. BC3D

C. B2C3
D. BCD7
Answer: Option B
Hint: Number is increasing by 1 and shifting 1 letter after. so after B2, C3 should come.
Ques 21. FAG, GAF, HAI, IAH,

A. JAK
B. HA
C. HAK
D. JAI
Answer: Option A
Hint: First letters are in sequence. FGHIJ. Second letter is A. Last letter is next to first letter.
Ques 22. ELFA, GLHA, ILJA, , MLNA

A. OLPA
B. KLMA
C. LLMA
D. KLLA
Answer: Option D
Hint: First letters are skipping 1 letter. Third letter is also skipping by 1 letter.
Ques 23. QPO, SRQ, UTS, WVU, …….

A. XVZ
B. ZYA
C. YXW
D. VWX
E. AZY
Answer: Option C
Hint: Letters are in reverse order. The first letter of each term and the last letter of the next term
are same.
Ques 24. DEF, HIJ, MNO, …..

A. STU
B. RST
C. RTV
D. SRQ
E. TUV
Answer: Option A
Hint: First letter starts with a gap of 1 letter, 2 letter, 3 letter etc.
Ques 25. LXF, MTJ, NPN, OLR, ……

A. PHV
B. PIU
C. PJW
D. PKX
E. PPV
Answer: Option A
Hint: First letters are one step forward. Second letter is 4 steps back. Third letter is 4 steps
forward.
Ques 26. AB, BA, ABC, CBA, ABCD, …….

A. ACBD
B. BACD
C. CABD
D. DCBA
Answer: Option D
Hint: Every next term is the reverse of previous term.
Analogy

Ques 1. Marathon is to race as hibernation is to
A. Winter
B. Bear
C. Dream
D. sleep
Answer: Option D
Ques 2. Window is to pane as book is to

A. Novel
B. Glass
C. Cover
D. page
Answer: Option D
Ques 3. Yard is to inch as quart is to

A. Gallon
B. Ounce
C. Milk
D. liquid
Answer: Option B
Directions to Solve
Each question has an underlined word followed by four answer choices. You will choose the
word that is a necessary part of the underlined word.
Ques 4. harvest
A. autumn
B. stockpile
C. tractor
D. crop
Answer: Option D
Ques 5. desert
A. cactus
B. arid
C. oasis
D. flat

Answer: Option B
Ques 6. book
A. fiction
B. pages
C. pictures
D. learning
Answer: Option B
Ques 7. language
A. tongue
B. slang
C. writing
D. words
Answer: Option D
Ques 8. school
A. student
B. report card
C. test
D. learning
Answer: Option A
Ques 9. Newspaper: Press :: Cloth: ?

A. Tailor
B. Textile
C. Factory
D. Mill
Answer: Option D
Ques 10. Melt: Liquid :: Freeze: ?

A. Ice
B. Condense
C. Solid
D. Crystal
Answer: Option C
Ques 11. Clock: Time :: Thermometer: ?

A. Heat
B. Radiation
C. Energy
D. Temperature
Answer: Option D
Ques 12. Flower: Bud :: Plant: ?

A. Seed
B. Taste
C. Flower
D. Twig
Answer: Option A
Ques 13. Car: Garage :: Aero plane: ?

A. Port
B. Depot
C. Hangar
D. Harbour
Answer: Option C
Ques 14. Oxygen: Burn :: Carbon dioxide: ?

A. Isolate
B. Foam
C. Extinguish
D. Explode
Answer: Option C
Ques 15. Cobbler: Leather:: Carpenter: ?

A. Furniture
B. wood
C. hammer
D. chair
Answer: Option B
Ques 16. Court: Justice:: School: ?

A. teacher
B. student

C. ignorance
D. education
Answer: Option D
Ques 17. Skeleton: Body :: Grammar: ?

A. Language
B. Sentence
C. Meaning
D. Education
Answer: Option A
Ques 18. Atom: Matter :: Particle: ?

A. Proton
B. Electron
C. Molecule
D. Dust
Answer: Option D
Ques 19. Professor: Lecture :: Doctor: ?

A. Hospital
B. Disease
C. Medicine
D. Patient
Answer: Option C
Ques 20. Ship: Sea :: Camel: ?

A. Forest
B. Land
C. Mountain
D. Desert
Answer: Option D
Ques 21. Girl: Beautiful :: Boy: ?

A. Smart
B. Heroic
C. Courageous
D. Handsome

Answer: Option D
Ques 22. Earth: Sun :: Moon: ?

A. Orbit
B. Sky
C. Star
D. Earth
Answer: Option D
Ques 23. Good: Bad :: Virtue: ?

A. Blame
B. Sin
C. Despair
D. Vice
Answer: Option D
Ques 24. Mountain: Valley :: Genius: ?

A. Brain
B. Idiot
C. Think
D. Intelligence
Answer: Option B
Ques 25. Eye: Wink :: Heart: ?

A. move
B. throb
C. pump
D. quiver
Answer: Option B
Ques 26. Circle: Circumference :: Square: ?

A. Volume
B. Area
C. Diagonal
D. Perimeter
Answer: Option D
Ques 27. Car: Petrol :: Television: ?

A. Electricity
B. Transmission
C. Entertainment
D. Antenna
Answer: Option A
Ques 28. Doctor is related to Patient in the same way as Lawyer is related to……?
A. Customer
B. Accused
C. Magistrate
D. Client
Answer: Option D
Ques 29. Bread is related to Bakery in the same way as Brick is related to……?
A. Mint
B. Kiln
C. Furnace
D. Mine
Answer: Option C
Ques 30. Life is related to Death in the same way as Hope is related to……?
A. Sad
B. Despair
C. Pain
D. Cry
Answer: Option B
Ques 31. Maths is related to Numbers in the same way as History is related to……?
A. People
B. Events
C. Dates
D. Wars
Answer: Option B
Ques 32. Mirror is related to Reflection in the same way as Water is related to……?
A. Conduction
B. Dispersion

C. Immersion
D. Refraction
Answer: Option D
Ques 33. Wood is related to Charcoal in the same way as Coal is related to……?
A. Fire
B. Smoke
C. Coke
D. Ash
Answer: Option C
Ques 34. Appreciation is related to Reward in the same way as Disgrace is related to……?
A. Crime
B. Guilt
C. Allegation
D. Punishment
Answer: Option D
Ques 35. Book is related to Magazine in the same way as Newspaper is related to……?
A. Journal
B. News
C. Article
D. Headline
Answer: Option A
Ques 36. Mouse is related to Cat in the same way as Fly is related to……?
A. Animal
B. Horse
C. Spider
D. Rat
Answer: Option C
Ques 37. Kilogram is related to Quintal in the same way as Paisa is related to……?
A. Rupee
B. Coin
C. Wealth
D. Money

Answer: Option A
Ques 38. Which one of the following is same Dozen, Score, Decade?
A. Century
B. Number
C. Measurement
D. Counting
Answer: Option A
Ques 39. Which one the following is same as Flood, Fire, Cyclone?
A. Damage
B. Earthquake
C. Rain
D. Accident
Answer: Option B
Ques 40. Which of the following is same as Kathak, Bihu, Garbha?

A. Kathkkali
B. Pongal
C. Bhangra
D. Bharatnatyam
Answer: Option C
Ques 41. Which of the following is the same as Steel, Bronze, Brass?
A. Calcite
B. Magnesium
C. Methane
D. Zinc
Answer: Option D
Ques 42. Which of the following is the same as wrestling, Karate, Boxing?
A. Swimming
B. polo
C. Pole vault
D. Judo
Answer: Option D
Ques 43. 21: 3 :: 574: ?

A. 23
B. 82
C. 97
D. 113
Answer: Option B
Ques 44. 25: 37 :: 49: ?

A. 41
B. 56
C. 60
D. 65
Answer: Option D
Ques 45. CAT:DDY :: BIG: ?

A. CLL
B. CLM
C. CML
D. CEP
Answer: Option A
Ques 46. LOGIC: BHFNK :: CLERK: ?

A. XVRPA
B. QBKJA
C. LPRTU
D. JQDKB
Answer: Option D
Ques 47. PALE: LEAP :: POSH: ?

A. HSOP
B. POHS
C. SHOP
D. HOPS
Answer: Option C
Ques 48. BUCKET: ACTVBDJLDFSU :: BONUS: ?

A. ACMNMOTVRT
B. SUNOB

C. ACNPMOTVRT
D. ACMNMOTURT
Answer: Option C
Ques 49. CIRCLE: RICELC :: SQUARE: ?

A. QSUERA
B. QUSERA
C. UQSAER
D. UQSERA
Answer: Option D
Ques 50. DWH: WDS :: FUL: ?

A. UFO
B. OFU
C. FOU
D. ELV
Answer: Option A
Ques 51. MADRAS: NBESBT :: BOMBAY: ?

A. CPNCBX
B. CPNCBZ
C. CPOCBZ
D. CQOCBZ
E. NONE
Answer: Option B
Hint: All letters are written as one step forward.
Ques 52. TRIPPLE: SQHOOKD :: DISPOSE: ?

A. CHRONRD
B. DSOESPI
C. ESJTPTF
D. ESOPSID
E. NONE
Answer: Option A

Hint: All letters are written as one step backward.
Ques 53. MONKEY: XDJMNL :: TIGER: ?

A. QDFHS
B. SDFHS
C. SHFDQ
D. UJHFS
E. NONE
Answer: Option A
Hint: Letters are first written in reverse order and then moved one step backward.
Ques 54. FRAGRANCE: SBHSBODFG :: IMPOSING: ?

A. NQPTJHOJ
B. NQPTJOHI
C. NQTPJOHJ
D. NQPTJOHJ
E. NONE
Answer: Option D
Hint: All letters are moved one step forward. and then first letters is shifted to end.
Ques 55. COMPUTER: RFUVQNPC :: MEDICINE: ?

A. EOJDJEFM
B. EOJDEJFM
C. MFEJDJOE
D. MFEDJJOE
E. NONE
Answer: Option A
Hint: Letters are written in reverse order. Then except first and last letter all others are moved
one step forward.
Assertion & Reason

Ques 1. An Informal Gathering occurs when a group of people get together in a casual,
relaxed manner. Which situation below is the best example of an Informal Gathering?
A. The book club meets on the first Thursday evening of every month.
B. After finding out about his promotion, Jeremy and a few coworkers decide to go out
for a quick drink after work.
C. Mary sends out 25 invitations for the bridal shower she is giving for her sister.
D. Whenever she eats at the Mexican restaurant, Clara seems to run into Peter.
Answer: Option B
Ques 2. People speculate when they consider a situation and assume something to be
true based on inconclusive evidence. Which situation below is the best example of
Speculation ?
A. Francine decides that it would be appropriate to wear jeans to her new office on
Friday after reading about "Casual Fridays" in her employee handbook.
B. Mary spends thirty minutes sitting in traffic and wishes that she took the train
instead of driving.
C. After consulting several guidebooks and her travel agent, Jennifer feels confident
that the hotel she has chosen is first-rate.
D. When Emily opens the door in tears, Theo guesses that she's had a death in her
family.
Answer: Option D
Ques 3. A Guarantee is a promise or assurance that attests to the quality of a product

that is either (1) given in writing by the manufacturer or (2) given verbally by the person
selling the product. Which situation below is the best example of a Guarantee?
A. Melissa purchases a DVD player with the highest consumer ratings in its category.
B. The salesperson advises Curt to be sure that he buys an air conditioner with a
guarantee.
C. The local auto body shop specializes in refurbishing and selling used cars.
D. Lori buys a used digital camera from her coworker who says that she will refund
Lori's money if the camera's performance is not of the highest quality.
Answer: Option D

Ques 4. The Pacific yew is an evergreen tree that grows in the Pacific Northwest. The
Pacific yew has a fleshy, poisonous fruit. Recently, taxol, a substance found in the bark
of the Pacific yew, was discovered to be a promising new anticancer drug.
A. Taxol is poisonous when taken by healthy people.
B. Taxol has cured people from various diseases.
C. People should not eat the fruit of the Pacific yew.
D. The Pacific yew was considered worthless until taxol was discovered.
Answer: Option C
Ques 5. Erin is twelve years old. For three years, she has been asking her parents for a
dog. Her parents have told her that they believe a dog would not be happy in an
apartment, but they have given her permission to have a bird. Erin has not yet decided
what kind of bird she would like to have.
A. Erin's parents like birds better than they like dogs.
B. Erin does not like birds.
C. Erin and her parents live in an apartment.
D. Erin and her parents would like to move.
Answer: Option C
Ques 6. When they heard news of the hurricane, Maya and Julian decided to change
their vacation plans. Instead of traveling to the island beach resort, they booked a room
at a fancy new spa in the mountains. Their plans were a bit more expensive, but they'd
heard wonderful things about the spa and they were relieved to find availability on such
short notice.
A. Maya and Julian take beach vacations every year.
B. The spa is overpriced.
C. It is usually necessary to book at least six months in advance at the spa.
D. Maya and Julian decided to change their vacation plans because of the hurricane.
Answer: Option D
Directions to Solve
In each of the following questions, two statements numbered I and II are given. There may be
cause and effect relationship between the two statements. These two statements may be the
effect of the same cause or independent causes. These statements may be independent causes
without having any relationship. Read both the statements in each question and mark your
answer as

(A) If statement I is the cause and statement II is its effect;
(B) If statement II is the cause and statement I is its effect;
(C) If both the statements I and II are independent causes;
(D) If both the statements I and II are effects of independent causes; and
(E) If both the statements I and II are effects of some common cause.
Statements:
Ques 7. The prices of petrol and diesel in the domestic market have remained unchanged
for the past few months.
The crude oil prices in the international market have gone up substantially in the last
few months.
A. Statement I is the cause and statement II is its effect

B. Statement II is the cause and statement I is its effect
C. Both the statements I and II are independent causes
D. Both the statements I and II are effects of independent causes
E. Both the statements I and II are effects of some common cause
Answer: Option D
Statements:
Ques 8. The government has recently fixed the fees for professional courses offered by
the unaided institutions which are much lower than the fees charged last year.
The parents of the aspiring students launched a severe agitation last year protesting
against the high fees charged by the unaided institutions.

Answer: Option B
Statements:

Ques 9. The Reserve Bank of India has recently put restrictions on few small banks in the
country.
The small banks in the private and co-operative sector in India are not in a position to
withstand the competitions of the bigger in the public sector.

Answer: Option B
Statements:
Ques 10. All the schools in the area had to be kept closed for most part of the week.
Many parents have withdrawn their children from the local schools.

Answer: Option D
Statements:
Ques 11. India has surpassed the value of tea exports this year over all the earlier years
due to an increase in demand for quality tea in the European market.
There is an increase in demand of coffee in the domestic market during the last two
years.

Answer: Option C

Directions to Solve
In each question below are given two statements followed by two conclusions numbered I and
II. You have to take the given two statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance from
commonly known facts. Read the conclusion and then decide which of the given conclusions
logically follows from the two given statements, disregarding commonly known facts.
Give answer:
(A) If only conclusion I follows
(B) If only conclusion II follows
(C) If either I or II follows
(D) If neither I nor II follows and
(E) If both I and II follow.
Ques 12. Statements: No women teacher can play. Some women teachers are athletes.
Conclusions:
Male athletes can play.
Some athletes can play.
A. Only conclusion I follows

B. Only conclusion II follows
C. Either I or II follows
D. Neither I nor II follows
E. Both I and II follow
Answer: Option D
Ques 13. Statements: All bags are cakes. All lamps are cakes.
Conclusions:
Some lamps are bags.
No lamp is bag.


Answer: Option C
Ques 14. Statements: All mangoes are golden in colour. No golden-coloured things are
cheap.
Conclusions:
All mangoes are cheap.
Golden-coloured mangoes are not cheap.

Answer: Option B
Ques 15. Statements: Some kings are queens. All queens are beautiful.
Conclusions:
All kings are beautiful.
All queens are kings.

Answer: Option D
Ques 16. Statements: Some doctors are fools. Some fools are rich.
Conclusions:
Some doctors are rich

Some rich are doctors.

Answer: Option D
Directions to Solve
Each question presents a situation and asks you to make a judgment regarding that particular
circumstance. Choose an answer based on given information.
Ques 17. Eileen is planning a special birthday dinner for her husband's 35th birthday. She
wants the evening to be memorable, but her husband is a simple man who would rather
be in jeans at a baseball game than in a suit at a fancy restaurant. Which restaurant
below should Eileen choose?
A. Alfredo's offers fine Italian cuisine and an elegant Tuscan decor. Patrons will feel as
though they've spent the evening in a luxurious Italian villa.
B. Pancho's Mexican Buffet is an all-you-can-eat family style smorgasbord with the best
tacos in town.
C. The Parisian Bistro is a four-star French restaurant where guests are treated like royalty.
Chef Dilbert Olay is famous for his beef bourguignon.
D. Marty's serves delicious, hearty meals in a charming setting reminiscent of a baseball
clubhouse in honor of the owner,Marty Lester, a former major league baseball all-star.
Answer: Option D
Ques 18. The film director wants an actress for the lead role of Lucy who perfectly fits the
description that appears in the original screenplay. He is not willing to consider
actresses who do not resemble the character as she is described in the screenplay, no
matter how talented they are. The screenplay describes Lucy as an average-sized, forty
something redhead, with deep brown eyes, very fair skin, and a brilliant smile. The
casting agent has four actresses in mind.
Actress #1 is a stunning red-haired beauty who is 5'9" and in her mid-twenties. Her eyes are
brown and she has an olive complexion.
Actress #2 has red hair, big brown eyes, and a fair complexion. She is in her mid-forties and is
5'5".

Actress #3 is 5'4" and of medium build. She has red hair, brown eyes, and is in her early forties.
Actress #4 is a blue-eyed redhead in her early thirties. She's of very slight build and stands at 5'.
A. 1, 2
B. 2, 3
C. 1, 4
D. 2, 4
Answer: Option B
Ques 19. The school principal has received complaints from parents about bullying in the
school yard during recess. He wants to investigate and end this situation as soon as
possible, so he has asked the recess aides to watch closely. Which situation should the
recess aides report to the principal?
A. A girl is sitting glumly on a bench reading a book and not interacting with her peers.
B. Four girls are surrounding another girl and seem to have possession of her backpack.
C. Two boys are playing a one-on-one game of basketball and are arguing over the last
basket scored.
D. Three boys are huddled over a handheld video game, which isn't supposed to be on
school grounds.
Answer: Option B
Ques 20. Mrs. Carson took a taxi to meet her three friends for lunch. They were waiting
for her outside the restaurant when she pulled up in the car. She was so excited to see
her friends that she left her tote bag in the taxi. As the taxi pulled away, she and her
friends took notice of the license plate number so they would be able to identify the car
when they called the taxi company.
#1: The four women seem to agree that the plate starts out with the letter J.
#2: Three of them agree that the plate ends with 12L.
#3: Three of them think that the second letter is X, and a different three think that the third
letter is K.
The four license plate numbers below represent what each of the four women thinks she saw.
Which one is most likely the license plate number of the taxi?

A. JXK 12L
B. JYK 12L
C. JXK 12I
D. JXX 12L
Answer: Option A
Ques 21. Zachary has invited his three buddies over to watch the basketball game on his
wide-screen television. They are all hungry, but no one wants to leave to get food. Just
as they are arguing about who should make the food run, a commercial comes on for a
local pizze-ria that delivers. The phone number flashes on the screen briefly and they all
try to remember it. By the time Zachary grabs a pen and paper, each of them recollects
a different number.
#1: All of the men agree that the first three numbers are 995.
#2: Three of them agree that the fourth number is 9.
#3: Three agree that the fifth number is 2.
#4: Three agree that the sixth number is 6; three others agree that the seventh number is also
6.
Which of the numbers is most likely the telephone number of the pizzeria?
A. 995-9266
B. 995-9336
C. 995-9268
D. 995-8266
Answer: Option A
Directions to Solve
Each problem consists of three statements. Based on the first two statements, the third
statement may be true, false, or uncertain.
Ques 22. Tanya is older than Eric.
Cliff is older than Tanya.
Eric is older than Cliff.
If the first two statements are true, the third statement is

A. True
B. False
C. uncertain
Answer: Option B
Ques 23. Blueberries cost more than strawberries.
Blueberries cost less than raspberries.
Raspberries cost more than strawberries and blueberries.
A. True
B. False
C. uncertain
Answer: Option A
Ques 24. All the trees in the park are flowering trees.
Some of the trees in the park are dogwoods.
All dogwoods in the park are flowering trees.
A. True
B. False
C. uncertain
Answer: Option A
Ques 25. Mara runs faster than Gail.
Lily runs faster than Mara.
Gail runs faster than Lily.
A. True
B. False
C. uncertain

Answer: Option B
Ques 26. Apartments in the Riverdale Manor cost less than apartments in The Gaslight
Commons.
Apartments in the Livingston Gate cost more than apartments in the The Gaslight Commons.
Of the three apartment buildings, the Livingston Gate costs the most.
A. True
B. False
C. uncertain
Answer: Option A
Directions to Solve
Read the paragraph carefully and determine the main point the author is trying to make. What
conclusion can be drawn from the argument? Each paragraph is followed by five statements.
One statement supports the author's argument better than the others do.
Ques 27. One New York publisher has estimated that 50,000 to 60,000 people in the
United States want an anthology that includes the complete works of William
Shakespeare. And what accounts for this renewed interest in Shakespeare? As scholars
point out, his psychological insights into both male and female characters are amazing
even today.
This paragraph best supports the statement that
A. Shakespeare's characters are more interesting than fictional characters today.

B. people even today are interested in Shakespeare's work because of the characters.
C. academic scholars are putting together an anthology of Shakespeare's work.
D. New Yorkers have a renewed interested in the work of Shakespeare.
E. Shakespeare was a psychiatrist as well as a playwright.
Answer: Option B
Ques 28. One of the warmest winters on record has put consumers in the mood to spend
money. Spending is likely to be the strongest in thirteen years. During the month of
February, sales of existing single-family homes hit an annual record rate of 4.75 million.

A. consumer spending will be higher thirteen years from now than it is today.
B. more people buy houses in the month of February than in any other month.
C. during the winter months, the prices of single-family homes are the lowest.
D. there were about 4 million homes for sale during the month of February.
E. warm winter weather is likely to affect the rate of home sales.
Answer: Option E
Ques 29. Generation Xers are those people born roughly between 1965 and 1981. As
employees, Generation Xers tend to be more challenged when they can carry out tasks
independently. This makes Generation Xers the most entrepreneurial generation in
history.
This paragraph best supports the statement that Generation Xers
A. work harder than people from other generations.

B. have a tendency to be self-directed workers
C. have an interest in making history
D. tend to work in jobs that require risk-taking behavior.
E. like to challenge their bosses work attitudes.
Answer: Option B
Ques 30. If you're a fitness walker, there is no need for a commute to a health club. Your
neighborhood can be your health club. You don't need a lot of fancy equipment to get a
good workout either. All you need is a well-designed pair of athletic shoes.
A. fitness walking is a better form of exercise than weight lifting.

B. a membership in a health club is a poor investment.
C. walking outdoors provides a better workout than walking indoors.
D. fitness walking is a convenient and valuable form of exercise.
E. poorly designed athletic shoes can cause major foot injuries.
Answer: Option D
Ques 31. In the past, consumers would rarely walk into an ice cream store and order low-
fat ice cream. But that isn't the case today. An increasing health consciousness
combined with a much bigger selection of tasty low-fat foods in all categories has made
low-fat ice cream a very profitable item for ice cream store owners.

A. low-fat ice cream produces more revenue than other low-fat foods.
B. ice cream store owners would be better off carrying only low-fat ice cream.
C. ice cream store owners no longer think that low-fat ice cream is an unpopular item.
D. low-fat ice cream is more popular than other kinds of ice cream.
E. consumers are fickle and it is impossible to please them
Answer: Option C
Directions to Solve
Each of the following questions contains a small paragraph followed by a question on it. Read
each paragraph carefully and answer the question given below it.
Ques 32. The attainment of individual and organisational goals is mutually interdependent
and linked by a common denominator - employee work motivation. Organisational
members are motivated to satisfy their personal goals, and they contribute their efforts
to the attainment of organisational objectives as means of achieving these personal
goals.
The passage best supports the statement that motivation -
A. encourages an individual to give priority to personal goals over organisational goals.

B. is crucial for the survival of an individual and organisation.
C. is the product of an individual's physical and mental energy.
D. is the external force which induces an individual to contribute his efforts.
E. makes organisation and society inseparable.
Answer: Option A
Ques 33. Due to enormous profits involved in smuggling, hundreds of persons have been
attracted towards this anti-national activity. Some of them became millionaires
overnight. India has a vast coastline both on the Eastern and Western Coast. It has been
a heaven for smugglers who have been carrying on their activities with great impunity.
There is no doubt, that from time to time certain seizures were made by the
enforcement authorities, during raids and ambush but even allowing these losses the
smugglers made huge profits.
The passage best supports the statement that

A. smuggling hampers the economic development of a nation.
B. smuggling ought to be curbed.
C. authorities are taking strict measures to curb smuggling.
D. smuggling is fast increasing in our country owing to the quick profit it entails.
Answer: Option D
Ques 34. Though the waste of time or the expenditure on fashions is very large, yet
fashions have come to stay. They will not go, come what may. However, what is now
required is that strong efforts should be made to displace the excessive craze for fashion
from the minds of these youngsters.
The passage best supports the statement that:
A. fashion is the need of the day.

B. the excessive craze for fashion is detrimental to one's personality.
C. the hoard for fashion should be done away with so as not to let down the constructive
development.
D. work and other activities should be valued more than the outward appearance.
Answer: Option C
Ques 35. One of the important humanitarian by-products of technology is the greater
dignity and value that it imparts to human labour. In a highly industrialized society,
there is no essential difference between Brahmin and Dalit, Muslim and Hindu; they are
equally useful and hence equally valuable for in the industrial society individual
productivity fixes the size of the pay cheque and this fixes social status.
A. technology decides individual's social status.

B. castes and religions are man-made.
C. human labour has dignity and value.
D. all individuals, irrespective of caste and creed, are born equal.
E. industrial society is a great leveller of men.
Answer: Option C

Ques 36. The future of women in India is quite bright and let us hope that they will justify
their abilities by rising to the occasion. Napoleon was right when he declared that by
educating the women we can educate the whole nation. Because a country can never
rise without the contribution of 50% of their population.
A. India is striving hard for the emancipation of women.

B. all women should be well educated.
C. a nation can progress only when women are given equal rights and opportunities as
men.
D. women ought to be imparted full freedom to prove their worth and contribute to the
progress of the nation.
Answer: Option D
Ques 37. Answer the questions based on the following information:
Four sisters- Suvarna, Tara, Uma and Vibha are playing a game such that the loser doubles the
money of each of the other players from her share. They played four games and each sister lost
one game in alphabetical order. At the end of fourth game, each sister has Rs. 32.
How many rupees did Suvarns start with?
A. Rs. 60
B. Rs. 34
C. Rs. 66
D. Rs. 28
Answer: Option C
Ques 38. Answer the questions based on the following information:
A, B, C and D are to be seated in a row. But C and D cannot be together. Also B cannot be at the
third place.
Which of the following must be false?
A. A is at the first place

B. A is at the second place
C. A is at the third place
D. A is at the fouth place
Answer: Option A

QUESTION PAPER PAPER
ETO QUESTION
Max Marks: 100
Duration: Sec A to Sec D - 60 Min, Sec E – 15 Min
Instructions:
 Question no 1 to 48 are of objective type.
 Question no 49 to 56 to be written separately.
SECTION A: ELECTRICAL POWER

Qn 1 to 15 carries 2 marks each.
Inductance is measured in Henry or .
1. (A) Wb.Turn/sec (B) Wb.Turn/Ampere
(C) Ampere.Turn/Wb (D) Wb.Ampere/Turn
Ideal Transformer donot have .
2. (A) Mag. Leakage (B) Losses
(C) low efficiency (D) All of these
Losses of a Transformer is proportional to square of its
3. (A) Voltage (B) Power
(C) Current (D) Both B & C
Regulation of a DC Generator can be negative due to compounding of Field
4. (A) Over (B) Under
(C) Flat (D) None of these
Infinite Bus in a generator system has number of Generators.
5. (A) Infinite (B) Large
(C) less (D) Can’t say
'Watt.hour' is the Unit of .
6. (A) Power (B) Voltage
(C) Energy (D) Current
Overload in a circuit means
7. (A) Over Power (B) Over Current
(C) Over Voltage (D) Over Power/Current
Batteries form the basic source of DC power supply.
8. (A) Always False (B) Sometimes False
(C) Sometimes True (D) Always True
A 12V 1.5 ohm battery connected to a ohm load yields maximum power transfer.
9. (A) 50 (B) 2
(C) 25 (D) 12.5
10.
Energy stored in an Inductive circuit is proportional to .
(A) VI^2 (B) CV^2
(C) LI^2 (D) None of these
The starting Torque of a slip ring Induction motor varies to its Rotor resistance.
11. (A) directly proportional (B) inversely proportional

(C) Equal to (D) None of these
Starting current of a 10 HP induction Motor is time’s full load current.
12. (A) 5 (B) 8

(C) 10 (D) 20
Di-electric strength is also called as _.
13.
(A) Insulation (B) dual-electric
(C) twin-electric (D) conductance
Electro Magnetic Induction is converting Electrical energy into magnetic energy between a
& a core.
14.
(A) Coil (B) Solenoid
(C) A & B (D) Wire
The efficiency of an autotransformer for the same rating compared to a two-winding

transformer is _.
15.
(A) Greater (B) Lesser
(C) Same (D) None of these
SECTION B: ELECTRONICS & CONTROL

Qn 16 to 30 carries 2 marks each.
A single phase Bridge rectifier has diodes.

16. (A) 2 (B) 4
(C) 6 (D) 8
A Thyristor is also called as
17. (A) SCR (B) PNPN Diode
(C) 3 terminal device (D) All of these
A Darlington pair consists of two .
18.
(A) Diodes (B) Transistors
Page 1 of 7

(C) Thyristors (D) None of these
A Transistor is used in .
19. (A) Oscillator (B) Amplifiers
(C) Modem (D) None of these
A Doide is used in .
20. (A) Converter (B) Rectifier
(C) Doubler (D) All of these
Electrical analogous quantity for spring element (K) in force-voltage analogy is .
21. (A) R (B) L
(C) C (D) 1/C
Which of the following is the disadvantage of a closed loop control system?
22. (A) Oscillatory response (B) Costly
(C) Complex circuit (D) All of these
Differentiation of parabolic response is a response?
23. (A) Parabolic (B) Ramp
(C) Step (D) Impulse
In which of the following controller band width is increased?

24. (A) PI (B) PD
(C) P (D) I
Queue is also known as memory.
25. (A) FIFO (B) LIFO
(C) FLASH (D) FILO
1 Kilobits in Digital circuits = bits.
26.
(A) 1024 (B) 1000
(C) 1032 (D) 1016
In n-type material ............ is minority carriers.
(A) neutrons (B) protons

27.
(C) electrons (D) holes
As a result of introduction of negative feedback which of the following will not decrease?
28. (A) Bandwidth (B) Gain
(C) Distortion (D) Stability
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Page 3 of 7

If the arrow in the symbol for a transistor points away from the base lead, the transistor is
a...........
29. (A) NPN transistor (B) PNP transistor
(C) FET transistor (D) MOSFET transistor
Semiconductor materials have ................ Bonds.
(A) Ionic (B) Covalent

30.
(C) Mutual (D) Metallic
SECTION C: GENERAL ENGINEERING

Qn. 31 to 40 carries 2 marks each.
All the commercial liquid fuels are derived from

31. (A) Coal (B) Crude oil
(C) Fuel oil (D) LNG
Which of the following is not a type of energy source?
32. (A) rheostat (B) generator
(C) battery (D) solar cell
A 100 cc engine refers to
33. (A) fuel tank capacity (B) lubricating oil capacity
(C) swept volume (D) cylinder volume
A four stroke diesel engine does not have
34. (A) cooling system (B) ignition coil
(C) cam shaft (D) piston rings
Ratio of heat used in generation of steam to the heat supply by fuel in a same period is known as
35. (A) boiler efficiency (B) economiser efficiency
(C) chimney efficiency (D) none of these
Which of the listed operations will cause an automatically controlled refrigeration compressor
to restart?
36.
(A) Closing of solenoid valve (B) Closing of expansion valve
(C) Increase in suction pressure (D) Decrease in suction pressure
37.
Centrifugal pump should be started with ETO Entrance exam Book
(A) delivery valve open (B) delivery valve close
(C) suction valve close (D) none of above
On psychometric chart, dew point temperature lines are
(A) horizontal (B) vertical
38.
(C) straight inclined sloping downward to the (D) curved.
right.
For same power, the floor area occupied by two-stroke cycle engine as compared to four-stroke
cycle engine is
39.
(A) more (B) less
(C) same (D) none of these
If the relative humidity of atmosphere air is 100% the rate of evaporation of water will be
40. (A) very high (B) very low
(C) same as the water content in air (D) zero
SECTION D: LOGIC
Qn 41 to 48 carries 1 mark each.
Yard is to inch as quart is to

41. (A) gallon (B) ounce
(C) milk (D) liquid
Choose the word that is a necessary part of the underlined word :
election
42.
(A) president (B) voter
(C) November (D) nation
What comes next in the given series?
FAG, GAF, HAI, IAH,
43.
(A) JAK (B) HAL
(C) HAK (D) JAI
All the offices on the 9th floor have wall-to-wall carpeting.
No wall-to-wall carpeting is pink.
None of the offices on the 9th floor has pink wall-to-wall carpeting.
44.
(A) True (B) False
(C) Uncertain (D) None of all
Look at this series: 8, 22, 8, 28, 8, ... What number should come next?
45. (A) 9 (B) 29
(C) 32 (D) 34
Page 4 of 7

Look at this series: 3, 4, 7, 8, 11, 12, ... What number should come next?
46. (A) 7 (B) 10
(C) 14 (D) 15
Which word does NOT belong with the others?
47.
(A) dodge (B) flee
(C) duck (D) avoid
The words in the bottom row are related in the same way as the words in the top row. Find the
word that completes the bottom row of words.
meal banquet feast

48. shelter palace ?
(A) mansion (B) hallway
(C) protection (D) haven
SECTION E: ENGLISH
Solve the following questions. (4 x 1 = 4 )
49. Rearrange the jumbled up sentence into a meaningful one: on the road People queue formed a.
50. Make a sentence with the following word: DISCLOSE
51. Correct the following sentence: I no like coffee.
52. Complete the following sentence: The best teacher is the one who….
Read the following passage and answer questions. ( 3 x 1 = 3 )
Opera refers to a dramatic art form, originating in Europe, in which the emotional content is conveyed to the
audience as much through music, both vocal and instrumental, as it is through the lyrics. By contrast, in musical
theater an actor's dramatic performance is primary, and the music plays a lesser role. The drama in opera is
presented using the primary elements of theater such as scenery, costumes, and acting. However, the words of the
opera, or libretto, are sung rather than spoken. The singers are accompanied by a musical ensemble ranging from
a small instrumental ensemble to a full symphonic orchestra.
53. Why is opera referred as a dramatic art form?
54. What are the primary elements of theater?
55. What do you understand from the above passage?
Write about any one of the following topics in 100 words. ( 5 Marks )
Page 5 of 7

Is competition among students good? Justify your answer.
56.
True friendship

Pattern Recognition
1. Which of the figures can be used to continue the series given below?
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
Correct answer: C
Explanation: The base figure rotates at an angle of 45 0 in the anti-clockwise direction. Hence choice C is the perfect match.
2. Which of the figures, you think best fits the series below?
A.
B.
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id : sumanchakraborty626
C.
D.
Correct answer: A
Explanation: The base figure rotates at an angle of 90 0 in the clockwise direction. Hence choice A is the best fit.
3. Which of the figures can be used to continue the series given below?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Correct answer: D
Explanation: In the given series, a figure is followed by the combination of itself and its vertical inversion. Thus D. is the right choice.
4. If in a certain code language BOSTON can be written as SNSNSN, then how would you write CALIFORNIA in the same code language?
1. OAOAOA
2. LONLON
3. LOILOILOI
4. LONLONLON
Correct answer: 3. LOILOILOI
Explanation: The letters present in 3rd, 6th, 9th...etc (multiples of 3) positions are repeated thrice.
5. If NEW YORK can be encrypted as PGYAQTM, how can you code the word CHARLOTTE?
0. EICSNPVVG
1. EJCTNQVVG
2. EICTNPVVF
3. EJCSMPVVG
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Correct answer: 2. EJCTNQVVG
Explanation: Each letter in the original word is forwarded two places (+2) in the alphabetical order, to get the encrypted word.
Directions to Solve
In each of the following questions, select a figure from amongst the four alternatives, which when placed in the blank space of figure (X)
would complete the pattern.
1. Identify the figure that completes the pattern.
(X) (1) (2) (3) (4)

A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
Answer: Option D
Explanation:
(X) (1) (2) (3) (4)

A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
Answer: Option C
Explanation:
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(X) (1) (2) (3) (4)
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
Answer: Option D
Explanation:
(X) (1) (2) (3) (4)

A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
Answer: Option D
Explanation:
(X) (1) (2) (3) (4)

A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
Answer: Option B
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Explanation:
Directions to Solve
In each of the following questions, select a figure from amongst the four alternatives, which when placed in the blank space of figure
(X) would complete the pattern.
(X) (1) (2) (3) (4)

A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
Answer: Option B
Explanation:
(X) (1) (2) (3) (4)

A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
Answer: Option B
Explanation:

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(X) (1) (2) (3) (4)
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
Answer: Option D
Explanation:
(X) (1) (2) (3) (4)

A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
Answer: Option B
Explanation:
(X) (1) (2) (3) (4)

A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
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D. 4
Answer: Option D
Explanation:
Directions to Solve
(X) (1) (2) (3) (4)

A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
Answer: Option D
Explanation:
(X) (1) (2) (3) (4)

A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
Answer: Option B
Explanation:
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(X) (1) (2) (3) (4)

A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
Answer: Option C
Explanation:
(X) (1) (2) (3) (4)

A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
Answer: Option B
Explanation:
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(X) (1) (2) (3) (4)
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
Answer: Option B
Explanation:
Directions to Solve
(X) (1) (2) (3) (4)

A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
Answer: Option D
Explanation:
(X) (1) (2) (3) (4)

A. 1
B. 2
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C. 3
D. 4
Answer: Option A
Explanation:
Data Interpretation
Directions to Solve
The following pie-chart shows the percentage distribution of the expenditure incurred in publishing a book. Study the pie-chart and
the answer the questions based on it.
Various Expenditures (in percentage) Incurred in Publishing a Book
1. If for a certain quantity of books, the publisher has to pay Rs. 30,600 as printing cost, then what will be amount of royalty to be
paid for these books?
A. Rs. 19,450
B. Rs. 21,200
C. Rs. 22,950
D. Rs. 26,150
Answer: Option C
Explanation:
Let the amount of Royalty to be paid for these books be Rs. r.
30600 x 15
Then, 20 : 15 = 30600 : r r = Rs. = Rs. 22,950.
20
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2. What is the central angle of the sector corresponding to the expenditure incurred on Royalty?
A. 15°
B. 24°
C. 54°
D. 48°
Answer: Option C
Explanation:
Central angle corresponding to Royalty = (15% of 360)°
15 °
= x 360
100
= 54°.
3. The price of the book is marked 20% above the C.P. If the marked price of the book is Rs. 180, then what is the cost of the
paper used in a single copy of the book?
A. Rs. 36
B. Rs. 37.50
C. Rs. 42
D. Rs. 44.25
Answer: Option B
Explanation:
Clearly, marked price of the book = 120% of C.P.
Also, cost of paper = 25% of C.P
Let the cost of paper for a single book be Rs. n.
25 x 180
Then, 120 : 25 = 180 : n n = Rs. = Rs. 37.50 .
120
4. If 5500 copies are published and the transportation cost on them amounts to Rs. 82500, then what should be the selling price of
the book so that the publisher can earn a profit of 25%?
A. Rs. 187.50
B. Rs. 191.50
C. Rs. 175
D. Rs. 180
Answer: Option A
Explanation:
For the publisher to earn a profit of 25%, S.P. = 125% of C.P.
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Also Transportation Cost = 10% of C.P.
Let the S.P. of 5500 books be Rs. x.
125 x 82500
Then, 10 : 125 = 82500 : x x = Rs. = Rs. 1031250.
10
1031250
S.P. of one book = Rs. = Rs. 187.50 .
5500
5. Royalty on the book is less than the printing cost by:

A. 5%
1
B. 33 %
5
C. 20%
D. 25%
Answer: Option D
Explanation:
Printing Cost of book = 20% of C.P.
Royalty on book = 15% of C.P.
Difference = (20% of C.P.) - (15% of C.P) = 5% of C.P.
Difference
Percentage difference = x 100 %
Printing Cost
5% of C.P.
= x 100 % = 25%.
Printing Cost
Directions to Solve
Two different finance companies declare fixed annual rate of interest on the amounts invested with them by investors. The rate of
interest offered by these companies may differ from year to year depending on the variation in the economy of the country and the
banks rate of interest. The annual rate of interest offered by the two Companies P and Q over the years are shown by the line graph
provided below.
Annual Rate of Interest Offered by Two Finance Companies Over the Years.
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1. A sum of Rs. 4.75 lakhs was invested in Company Q in 1999 for one year. How much more interest would have been earned if
the sum was invested in Company P?
A. Rs. 19,000
B. Rs. 14,250
C. Rs. 11,750
D. Rs. 9500
Answer: Option D
Explanation:
Difference = Rs. [(10% of 4.75) - (8% of 4.75)] lakhs
= Rs. (2% of 4.75) lakhs
= Rs. 0.095 lakhs
= Rs. 9500.
2. If two different amounts in the ratio 8:9 are invested in Companies P and Q respectively in 2002, then the amounts received
after one year as interests from Companies P and Q are respectively in the ratio?
A. 2:3
B. 3:4
C. 6:7
D. 4:3
Answer: Option D
Explanation:
Let the amounts invested in 2002 in Companies P and Q be Rs. 8x and Rs. 9x respectively.
Then, interest received after one year from Company P = Rs. (6% of 8x)
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48
= Rs. x.
100
and interest received after one year from Company Q = Rs. (4% of 9x)
36
= Rs. x.
100
48
x
100 4
Required ratio = = .
36 3
x
100
3. In 2000, a part of Rs. 30 lakhs was invested in Company P and the rest was invested in Company Q for one year. The total
interest received was Rs. 2.43 lakhs. What was the amount invested in Company P?
A. Rs. 9 lakhs
B. Rs. 11 lakhs
C. Rs. 12 lakhs
D. Rs. 18 lakhs
Answer: Option D
Explanation:
Let Rs. x lakhs be invested in Company P in 2000, the amount invested in Company Q in 2000 = Rs. (30 - x) lakhs.
Total interest received from the two Companies after 1 year
= Rs. [(7.5% of x) + {9% of (30 - x)}] lakhs
1.5x
= Rs. 2.7 - lakhs.
100
1.5x
2.7 - = 2.43 x = 18.
100
4. An investor invested a sum of Rs. 12 lakhs in Company P in 1998. The total amount received after one year was re-invested in
the same Company for one more year. The total appreciation received by the investor on his investment was?
A. Rs. 2,96,200
B. Rs. 2,42,200
C. Rs. 2,25,600
D. Rs. 2,16,000
Answer: Option C
Explanation:
Amount received from Company P after one year (i.e., in 199) on investing Rs. 12 lakhs in it
= Rs. [12 + (8% of 12)] lakhs
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= Rs. 12.96 lakhs.
Amount received from Company P after one year on investing Rs. 12.96 lakhs in the year 1999
= Rs. [12.96 + (10% of 12.96)] lakhs
= Rs. 14.256.
Appreciation received on investment during the period of two years
= Rs. (14.256 - 12) lakhs
= Rs. 2.256 lakhs
= Rs. 2,25,600.
5. An investor invested Rs. 5 lakhs in Company Q in 1996. After one year, the entire amount along with the interest was
transferred as investment to Company P in 1997 for one year. What amount will be received from Company P, by the investor?
A. Rs. 5,94,550
B. Rs. 5,80,425
C. Rs. 5,77,800
D. Rs. 5,77,500
Answer: Option B
Explanation:
Amount received from Company Q after one year on investment of Rs. 5 lakhs in the year 1996
= Rs. [5 + (6.5% of 5)] lakhs
= Rs. 5.325 lakhs.
Amount received from Company P after one year on investment of Rs. 5.325 lakhs in the year 1997
= Rs. [5.325 + (9% of 5.325)] lakhs
= Rs. 5.80425 lakhs
= Rs. 5,80,425.
Directions to Solve
The bar graph given below shows the data of the production of paper (in lakh tonnes) by three different companies X, Y and Z over
the years.
Production of Paper (in lakh tonnes) by Three Companies X, Y and Z over the Years.
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1. For which of the following years, the percentage rise/fall in production from the previous year is the maximum for Company Y?
A. 1997
B. 1998
C. 1999
D. 2000
Answer: Option A
Explanation:
Percentage change (rise/fall) in the production of Company Y in comparison to the previous year, for different years are:
(35 - 25)
For 1997 = x 100 % = 40%.
25
(35 - 35)
For 1998 = x 100 % = 0%.
35
(40 - 35)
For 1999 = x 100 % = 14.29%.
35
(50 - 40)
For 2000 = x 100 % = 25%.
40
Hence, the maximum percentage rise/fall in the production of Company Y is for 1997.
2. What is the ratio of the average production of Company X in the period 1998-2000 to the average production of Company Y in
the same period?
A. 1:1
B. 15:17
C. 23:25
D. 27:29
Answer: Option C
Explanation:
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Average production of Company X in the period 1998-2000
1 115
= x (25 + 50 + 40) = lakh tons.
3 3
Average production of Company Y in the period 1998-2000
1 125
= x (35 + 40 + 50) = lakh tons.
3 3
115
3 115 23
Required ratio = = = .
125 125 25
3
3. The average production for five years was maximum for which company?
A. X
B. Y
C. Z
D. X and Z both
Answer: Option D
Explanation:
Average production (in lakh tons) in five years for the three companies are:
1 190
For Company X = x (30 + 45 + 25 + 50 + 40) = = 38.
5 5
1 185
For Company Y = x (25 + 35 + 35 + 40 + 50) = = 37.
5 5
1 190
For Company Z = x (35 + 40 + 45 + 35 + 35) = = 38.
5 5
Average production of five years is maximum for both the Companies X and Z.
4. In which year was the percentage of production of Company Z to the production of Company Y the maximum?
A. 1996
B. 1997
C. 1998
D. 1999
Answer: Option A
Explanation:
The percentages of production of Company Z to the production of Company Z for various years are:
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35
For 1996 = x 100 % = 140%.
25
40
For 1997 = x 100 % = 114.29%.
35
45
For 1998 = x 100 % = 128.57%.
35
35
For 1999 = x 100 % = 87.5%.
40
35
For 2000 = x 100 % = 70%.
50
Clearly, this percentage is highest for 1996.
5. What is the percentage increase in the production of Company Y from 1996 to 1999?
A. 30%
B. 45%
C. 50%
D. 60%
Answer: Option D
Explanation:
Percentage increase in the production of Company Y from 1996 to 1999
(40 - 25)
= x 100 %
25
15
= x 100 %
25
= 60%.
Spatial & Abstract

Reasoning
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HIDDEN FIGURES
Hidden figures questions require you to find given geometric shapes inside more elaborate and complicated figures.
Sometimes the answers will literally pop out at you. Other times, you might be left scratching your head without an
answer, or worse yet—you might be falling into a trap laid out by those sinister Hidden Figures question designers.
In the sample questions below, these are the basic figures you will be looking for:
(c) (e)
Question 1:
If nothing “pops out at you,” a good strategy is to analyze each given shape to see if it could possibly be
hid- ing inside the figure above.
(c) (e)
Right height,
but it's just
not in there!
Notice how the figure in question looks like two trapezoids reflected over each other. This would tempt
some unsuspecting test takers into picking choice c. However upon closer inspection, you can see that
trapezoid c is narrower than the trapezoids in the question. Always be careful to pick the shape that is the
exact size. Also, when dealing with polygons, make sure you are picking the figure with the correct
number of sides.
Question 2:
Even if the question seems funky, run through your choices and reject all impossible answers.
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SPATIAL CONCEPTS
(c) (e)
Right height,
but otherwise
is too long to too big to be
fit in there. in there.
If you weren’t able to spot the cube inside the figure, you would still know that choice d was correct
because all of the other choices were eliminated.
20 PRACTICE QUESTIONS
a) b) c) d) e)
f) h) i) j)
When answering questions 1 through 10, refer to shapes a through j above. For each question, determine which let-
tered shape is hidden inside the figure. Lettered shapes may be used once, twice, or not at all.
1. 2. 3. 4. 5.
6. 7. 8. 9. 10.
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SPATIAL CONCEPTS
a) b) c) d) e)
f) h) i) j)
When answering questions 11 through 20, refer to shapes a through j above. For each question, determine which let-
tered shape is hidden inside the figure. Lettered shapes may be used once, twice, or not at all.
13. 14. 15.
16. 17. 18. 19. 20.
Use Figure J-1 for questions 21–25:
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SPATIAL CONCEPTS
21. The hidden figure in block 1 is . 24. The hidden figure in block 4 is .
a. A a. A
b. B b. B
c. C c. C
d. D d. D
e. E e. E
a. A a. A
b. B b. B
c. C c. C
d. D d. D
e. E e. E
23. The hidden figure in block 3 is .
a. A
b. B
c. C
d. D
e. E
Use Figure J-2 for questions 26–30:
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SPATIAL CONCEPTS
a. A a. A
b. B b. B
c. C c. C
d. D d. D
e. E e. E
a. A a. A
b. B b. B
c. C c. C
d. D d. D
e. E e. E
28. The hidden figure in block 8 is .
a. A
b. B
c. C
d. D
e. E
HIDDEN FIGURES ANSWER EXPLANATIONS
1. j 6. c
7. a
2. e
8. d
3. h
9. b
4. g
10. f
5. i
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SPATIAL CONCEPTS
11. c 21. c
22. a
12. d
13. g 23. d
14. f 24. e
15. h 25. b
26. b
16. a
17. e 27. e
18. j 28. c
29. d
19. b
30. a
20. i
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SPATIAL CONCEPTS
BLOCK COUNTING
These 3-D–based questions have you counting lots and

lots of blocks: some that you can see, and other hidden
blocks that you need to assume are present. Start at the
bottom level, counting each block, one at a time. It is help-
The second sample is a rectangle three blocks wide,
ful to make a note in the margin, such as “Level 1 = 23.” four blocks deep, and two blocks high with a hollow
Next, check out the second level up, again counting each center. This one is fairly simple to count, and you
box, one at a time. Record a value for “Level 2 = ” in should have counted 20 blocks easily. Though this one
the margin. Work your way upward to the topmost was fairly simple, the questions ahead may get a lot
more complicated, so remember to count the blocks
layer. Finally, tally up all of your numbers. Keeping track
one at a time to avoid simple miscalculations.
of each level in an organized manner will help you feel
secure about your answer so you won’t have to re-do the 30 PRACTICE QUESTIONS
question. Face it, you’re not going to want to do these ques-
tions twice! 1.
This first sample question has a pyramid-like

structure with one center column four blocks high
(that center block isn’t resting on the edges of the
surrounding columns) and four symmetrical sides,
consisting of six blocks each, that gradually step
down one block at a time giving you a total of 28
blocks. A good way to attack this problem would be
to start at the outside where you can see that there is
only one block resting on the plane and work your
way inward counting the columns as they step up.
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SPATIAL CONCEPTS
2. 5.
3.
6.
4.
7.
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SPATIAL CONCEPTS
8. 12.
9.
13.
10.
14.
11.
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SPATIAL CONCEPTS
18. Block 3 is touched by other blocks.

15. a. 2
b. 3
c. 4
d. 5
e. 6
a. 2
b. 3
c. 4
d. 5
e. 6
For questions 16–20, refer to Figure I-1 a. 2
b. 3
c. 4
d. 5
e. 6
For questions 21–25, refer to Figure I-2
16. Block 1 is touched by other

blocks.
a. 2
b. 3
c. 4
d. 5
e. 6
17. Block 2 is touched by other a. 2
blocks.
b. 3
a. 2 c. 4
b. 3 d. 5
c. 4
e. 6
d. 5
e. 6
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SPATIAL CONCEPTS
22. Block 7 is touched by other blocks. For questions 26–30, refer to Figure I-3
a. 2
b. 3
c. 4
d. 5
e. 6
a. 2
b. 3
c. 4
d. 5
e. 6
a. 2
24. Block 9 is touched by other blocks. b. 3
a. 2 c. 4
b. 3 d. 5
c. 4 e. 6
d. 5
e. 6
a. 2
25. Block 10 is touched by other b. 3
blocks. c. 4
a. 2 d. 5
b. 3 e. 6
c. 4
d. 5 28. Block 13 is touched by other blocks.
e. 6 a. 2
b. 3
c. 4
d. 5
e. 6
a. 2
b. 3
c. 4
d. 5
e. 6
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SPATIAL CONCEPTS
30. Block 15 is touched by other blocks. 19. c. Block 4 touches one block to the left,
a. 2 one block to the right, and two blocks
b. 3 below.
c. 4 20. d. Block 5 touches two blocks above,
d. 5 one block to the left, and two blocks
below.
BLOCK COUNTING ANSWER EXPLANATIONS 21. b. Block 6 touches one block to the left,
1. 154 one block to the right, and one block
below.
2. 141
22. e. Block 7 touches two blocks below, one
3. 99
block to the right, and three blocks
4. 48
above.
5. 98
23. d. Block 8 touches two blocks below,
6. 132 two blocks to the left, and one block
7. 100 above.
8. 52 24. d. Block 9 touches two blocks below,
9. 126 one block to the left, one block to the
10. 81 right, and one block above.
11. 68 25. c. Block 10 touches three blocks above
12. 141 and one block to the right.
13. 296 26. b. Block 11 touches two blocks below
14. 70 and one block to the right.
15. 124 27. e. Block 12 touches three blocks above,
16. b. Block 1 touches two blocks above and one block to the left, and two blocks
one block to the left. below.
17. c. Block 2 touches one block below, 28. e. Block 13 touches three blocks above,
one block to the right, and two blocks one block to the right, and two blocks
above. below.
18. a. Block 3 touches one block to the left 29. d. Block 14 touches two blocks above,
and one block below. one block below, one block to the
right, and one block to the left.
30. b. Block 15 touches one block above and
two blocks to the left.
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SPATIAL CONCEPTS
ROTATED BLOCKS
Rotated Blocks questions require the ability to mentally spin a 3-D figure around and envision what it will look like
from this new angle. Since each face of the cube is labeled with a particular figure, sometimes it’s easier to spot a wrong
answer by focusing on the relative positions of these figures. The remaining choices will give you an idea of which way
to rotate the original block.
ROTATED BLOCKS INSTRUCTIONS

Solid
In this first set of exercises, you will be rotating solid three-dimensional blocks of various shapes in order to
enhance your ability to think in three-dimensions. For each numbered shape you will find four possible
answers which may represent that numbered shape rotated 360 degrees in any direction. Your task is to
determine which of the four choices is the only one that could be the original shape, rotated. You’ll want to
pay close attention to detail here in order to catch some of the small differences that may lead you to an
incorrect answer. Some of the most common mistakes are made when you overlook subtly placed extra lines
or mirror images. They may appear correct at a glance but under closer examination are wrong. Study the
images carefully and the answers will become obvious.
c)
a) d)
b)
If you observed closely and looked for common mistakes, you should have found the correct answer to be c.
Patterned
In this set of exercises, there are numbered cubes with patterned faces and no pattern appears on more than one
side of the cube. For each numbered cube there are four possible answers that represent the cube turned in a dif-
ferent direction. Your task is to decide which of the answer cubes is the original cube rotated in any direction.
On this one you’ll need to be aware of tricky mirrored patterns and pay close attention to the position of the
patterns in relation to their adjacent faces. Then the answers will become clear.
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SPATIAL CONCEPTS
a. b. c. d.
If you have figured correctly, you’ll see the answer is d. It is the original block turned once clockwise.
Then the circle faces forward. Next, it is turned on its side so that the diamond moves from the top to the
right side.
1. a) b) c) d)
2. a)
c) d)
b)
3. a) b)
d)
c)
a)
4. b) c) d)
5. a) c)
b) d)
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SPATIAL CONCEPTS
6. a) b) c) d)
7.
a) b) c) d)
8.
a) b) c) d)
9.
a) b) c) d)
10.
a) b) c) d)
11. a)
b) c) d)
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SPATIAL CONCEPTS
12. d)
b) c)
a)
13. a) b)
c) d)
14. a) c)
b) d)
15. a)
c)
b) d)
16.
a. b. c. d.
17.
a. b. c. d.
10
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SPATIAL CONCEPTS
18.
a. b. c. d.
19.
a. b. c. d.
20.
a. b. c. d.
21.
22.
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SPATIAL CONCEPTS
23.
24.
25.
26.
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SPATIAL CONCEPTS
27.
28.
29.
30.
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SPATIAL CONCEPTS
ROTATED BLOCKS ANSWER EXPLANATIONS
1. b 9. a
2. c
10. c
3. a
11. b
4. d
12. a
5. b
13. c
6. c
14. c
7. d
15. b
8. b
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SPATIAL CONCEPTS
Back
Top
Left Front Right

Side Side
Bottom
16. c. The original cube has been turned once clockwise to move the
crescent-moon shape to the front and reveal a new right side.
17. b. The original cube has been turned clockwise once to move the
circle pattern to the front and reveal a new right side, then turned
once away to move the circle to the top and reveal the bottom as
the new front.
18. d. The original cube has been turned once onto its right side to move
the top to the right side and reveal a new top pattern.
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SPATIAL CONCEPTS
19. b. The original cube has been turned once onto its right side to
move what was the top to the right side and reveal a new top
pattern.
20. d. The original cube has been turned 180 degrees (clockwise or
counter- clockwise).
21. a 26. d
22. a 27. b
23. e 28. c
24. c 29. a
25. c 30. b
MATCHING PIECES AND PARTS

There are several styles of Matching Pieces and Parts ques- In the first question below, you must decide
tions, but the underlying concept is the same. Some ques- which two lettered pieces will come together to make
tions require the test-taker to visualize the parts that form the parallelogram shown. Pieces may be
rotated a given whole. Other questions require the test-taker to (turned) or reflected (flipped over).
visualize the whole that is made up of the given parts. All
in all, these questions require the ability to mentally flip- 1. a) b) c) d) e)
flop, turn, and piece together shapes. To add to the chal-

lenge, you also must be on guard for pieces whose
dimensions are slightly off. When dealing with polygons,
make sure the figure you end up with has the correct num-
ber of sides.
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SPATIAL CONCEPTS
Initially, you should eliminate any choices In the next question, you are given 4 pieces.
that obviously could not make up the whole in You must choose which answer choice represents a
question. figure comprised of all four pieces. Pieces may be
rotated and/or reflected.
2. a) b) c) d)
It would be impossible for choice b to be a part

of the figure, as it is too large. Similarly, c and e would
be too short: We will analyze each choice:
Now you should focus on a and d. Although

they do not look very compatible at this point,
remember that you are allowed to rotate and reflect
these pieces. Let’s flip a over as you would a piece of
paper. And let’s turn d on its side:
Now, we can fit them together:
Sometimes you will be surprised which pieces

turn out to be the right parts. The more choices you
can eliminate off the bat, the easier your task will
be.
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SPATIAL CONCEPTS
In questions 1–10 below, pick the TWO answer choices that will come together to make the figure shown. Pieces may
be reflected and/or rotated.
1. a) b) c) d) e)
2. a) b) c) d) e)
3. a) b) c) d) e)
4. a) b) c) d) e)
5. a) b) c) d) e)
6.
a) b) c) d) e)
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SPATIAL CONCEPTS
7.
a) b) c) d) e)
8.
a) b) c) d) e)
9.
a) b) c) e)
10.
a) b) c) d) e)
In questions 11–20 below, select the SINGLE answer choice that represents the two parts that join together to
make the given whole. Pieces may be reflected and/or rotated.
11.
a) b) c)
12.
c) d)
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SPATIAL CONCEPTS
13.
c) d)
14.
a) b) c) d)
15.
a) b) c)
16.
a) b) c) d)
17.
c) d)
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SPATIAL CONCEPTS
18.
a) b) c) d)
19.
a) b) c) d)
20.
a) b) c) d)
In questions 21–30 below, 4–5 pieces are given. Choose the answer choice that represents a figure comprised of
ALL pieces. Pieces may be rotated and/or reflected.
21.
a) b) c) d)
22.
a) b) c) d)
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SPATIAL CONCEPTS
23.
a) b) c) d)
24.
a) b) c) d)
25.
c) d)
26.
a) b) c) d)
27.
a) b) c) d)
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SPATIAL CONCEPTS
28.
a) b) c) d)
29.
a) b) c) d)
30.
a) b) c) d)
MATCHING PIECES AND PARTS ANSWER EXPLANATIONS
1. b+e 4. b+d
2. a+d
5. c+e
3. a+c
6. c+e
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SPATIAL CONCEPTS
7. a+d 14. b
8. c+e
15. d
9. b+e
16. d
10. a+b
17. c
11. b
18. b
12. c
19. c
13. a
20. a
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SPATIAL CONCEPTS
21. c 26. d
B B
22. b
27. a
C D
23. a
28. d
C
24. d
29. c
A
25. b
30. b
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SPATIAL CONCEPTS
SPATIAL ANALYSIS
Spatial Analysis questions deal with the ability to take several separate spatial views and mentally combine them into
a 3-D solid. Usually you are presented with a front view, a side view, and a top view. Always refer back to the three
views to make sure the dimensions are correct. Scrutinize the answer choices for errors in dimensions when resorting
to process of elimination.
SPATIAL ANALYSIS INSTRUCTIONS

You’re going to be given two types of questions in this exercise that involve taking a two dimensional diagram
of an object and picturing it in three dimensions. Then you’ll have to reverse the process and go from 3D
to 2D. This type of visualization will be extremely useful if you intend to enter the fields of Drafting or
Architecture.
In this first sample you’ll see the three views of a three-dimensional object (top, front, and side) as you
would see them if you were to look at them from the top, front, or side. Next, take a look at the first sample
and try to find the answer.
top a. b. c. d.
side front
The answer to this sample question is b, and here’s why. The straight square in b corresponds to the
square in the two-dimensional view that represents the front. Then the two skewed rectangles that are
connected to the square correspond to the two evenly proportioned rectangles in the two-dimensional
view that represent the top and the side. That gives you a complete three-dimensional object.
The second sample gives you a three-dimensional object with four choices. Of these four choices,
three are the correct two-dimensional views that would represent the top, front, and side. The fourth is
incorrect. Identify the response that would be INCORRECT.
a. b. c. d.
If you figured correctly, your answer should be b. The reason is simple. This answer choice adds an
extra line that would not be visible in 2-D. Most spatial analysis questions are tricky, so take your time and
make careful observations.
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SPATIAL CONCEPTS
1.
a. b. c. d.
top
side front
2.
top a. b. c. d.
front side
3.
a. b. c. d.
top
front side
4.
top
a.
front side
5.
a. b. c. d.
top
front side
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SPATIAL CONCEPTS
6.
a. b. c.
top
front side
7.
a. b. c. d.
top
front side
8.
a. c. d.
b.
top
front side
9.
top
front side
10.
a. b. c. d.
top
front side
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SPATIAL CONCEPTS
11.
a. b. c. d.
top
front side
12.
a. c. d.
top
front side
13.
a. c. d.
top
front side
14.
a. c.
b. d.
top
front side
15. b. c. d.
top
front side
16.
a. b. c. d.
top
front side
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SPATIAL CONCEPTS
17.
a. c.
top
front side
18.
a. b. c. d.
top
front side
19. a. c. d.
b.
top
front side
20.
a. b. c. d.
top
front side
21.
a. b. c. d.
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SPATIAL CONCEPTS
22.
a. b. c. d.
23.
a. b. c. d.
24.
a. b. c. d.
25.
a. b. c. d.
26.
a. b. c. d.
27.
a.
b. c. d.
28.
c.
a. b. d.
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SPATIAL CONCEPTS
29.
b. c.
a.
d.
30.
a. b. c. d.
SPATIAL ANALYSIS ANSWER EXPLANATIONS
1. 4.
top
top c. b.
side front
front side
2.
5.
top a. top b.
front side
front side
3.
6.
a. c.
top
top
front side
front side
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SPATIAL CONCEPTS
7. a.
12.
top top
front side
front side
8.
13. a.
a.
top top
front side
front side
9.
14.
a.
top
top
front side front side
10.
15.
top
11. front side

c.
16.
top c.
top
front side
front side
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SPATIAL CONCEPTS
17. 23.
top
b.
front side 24.
18.
a.
d.
top 25.
front side
d.
19. b. 26.
top
b.
27.
front side
20.
d. d.
28.
top
b.
front side 29.

21.
d. a.
22. 30.
a.
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d.
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SPATIAL CONCEPTS
UNDERSTANDING PATTERNS
These pattern questions are designed to test your capacity to transform 2-D into 3-D and vice versa. You should be
able to mentally fold up a 2-dimensional pattern into a 3-dimensional solid. Sometimes this is trickier than others.
In such cases, process of elimination is your best friend. Figure out how many faces will be present in the folded prod-
uct, and cross off inappropriate answers accordingly. Next, analyze the shape and placement of each face.
Other questions will present you with a patterned 3-D figure and ask you to mentally squash it flat
into a 2-D representation. Again, counting up the number of faces can help you eliminate wrong answers.
Next, look at the relative positions of the patterned shapes upon folding. Let’s look at some examples below.
UNDERSTANDING PATTERNS INSTRUCTIONS

In this first sample question you will see an unfolded cardboard pattern. The solid lines represent the
shape of the different parts and the dashed lines represent fold lines. For each unfolded pattern there are
four choices that could possibly represent the pattern folded into a three-dimensional shape.
a. c. d.
b.
Here’s a brief description of what the sample question would look like in three dimensions. Picture the
image as it might look folded up to visualize the answer. The square in the center of the unfolded pattern
represents the base of the pyramid with the four surrounding triangles representing the four sides of the
pyramid. Since there are no other lines to represent any shapes, other than the ones described, then c can
be the only possible answer.
The second sample uses the reverse of the principle set up in the first sample and uses cubes with
patterned sides instead of solid shapes as a starting point. In this exercise you will take a three-dimensional
cube with patterned faces (not necessarily every side will have a pattern on it) and decide which of the
four possible answers represents an unfolded cube. To find the answer to this question, it is a good idea to
first study the cube and observe the shape of the patterns and their placement on the face of the cube. Once
you feel you have a good grasp of the cube, compare it to the possible answers. Look for the position of
the symbols and where they would sit if the pattern were folded up.
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SPATIAL CONCEPTS
a. b. c. d.
If you study the cube carefully you should see that c is the only possible answer. The front of the cube
bears a crescent-moon shape, the top bears an upside down v-shape and the side bears a black circle.
Answer choice c uses the crescent-moon shape as its front. If you fold all the other sides around it, they
fall into place and give you the original cube.
1.
a. b. d.
c.
2.
a. b. d.
c.
3.
a. c. d.
b.
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SPATIAL CONCEPTS
4.
a. b. d.
c.
5.
a. b. c. d.
6.
a. b. c. d.
7.
a. b. c. d.
8.
a. b. c. d.
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SPATIAL CONCEPTS
9.
a. b. c. d.
10.
a. b. c. d.
11.
a. b. c. d.
12.
a. b. c. d.
13.
a. b. c. d.
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SPATIAL CONCEPTS
14.
a. b. c. d.
15.
a. b. c. d.
16.
a. b. c. d.
17.
c.
b. d.
a.
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SPATIAL CONCEPTS
18.
a. b. c. d.
19.
a. b. c. d.
20.
a. b. c. d.
21.
a. b. c. d.
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SPATIAL CONCEPTS
22.
a. b. c. d.
23.
a. b. c. d.
24.
a. b. c. d.
25.
a. b. c. d.
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SPATIAL CONCEPTS
26.
a. b. c. d.
27.
a. b. c. d.
28.
a. b. c. d.
29.
a. b. c. d.
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SPATIAL CONCEPTS
30.
a. b. c. d.
UNDERSTANDING PATTERNS ANSWER EXPLANATIONS

1. 5.
b.
b.
2. 6.
a.
b.
3. 7.
d.
b.
8.
4.
a.
d.
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SPATIAL CONCEPTS
9. 15.
b.
10. 16.
c.
11.
17.
a.
12.
18.
c.
b.
13.
19.
a.
14.
a.
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SPATIAL CONCEPTS
20. 25.
a.
21. 26.
b.
22.
27.
23.
28.
24.
29.
c.
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SPATIAL CONCEPTS
30.
EYE-HAND COORDINATION LETTER-SYMBOL CODING

These types of questions bring out the kid in
everyone. Although they are pretty straightforward
Several tests are designed to test eye-hand coordination.
and fun, just be careful not to confuse similar
These include: Letter-Symbol Coding, Inspection Tests, shapes. Make sure the shape is at the same angle as
Examining Objects, and Mazes. the one in the question. If the shape is a polygon,
make sure it has the correct number of sides. Below
is an example of a Letter-Sym- bol Code followed
by a chart for you to fill in.
Letter A B C D E F G H I J
Code
Letter K L M N O P Q R S T
Code
Question Answer
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
6.
7.
8.
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SPATIAL CONCEPTS
You can check your answers against this key.
3 6
Letter A B C D E F G H I J
Code
Letter K L M N O P Q R S T
Code
5 7 2 8 1 4
Question Answer
1. Q
2. M
3. C
4. S
5. K
6. E
7. L
8. N
If you missed any of the above questions, slow down and take care to compare all of the aspects of the
given symbol and the choice you are about to pick.
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SPATIAL CONCEPTS
INSPECTION TESTS
These tests require you to closely analyze a figure. For example, in the chart below, determine how many
triangles are in Column 2, Rows B and C.
1 2 3
Did you count nine? The key below shows all the triangles.
1 2 3
These questions tend to get pretty tedious. Be extremely careful.
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SPATIAL CONCEPTS
EXAMINING OBJECTS
In these questions you must examine objects and classify them according to a given set of rules or codes.
Read the instructions carefully and underline anything that you think is important. Otherwise, jot down
some quick notes next to the graphic sorting code.
Sorting Code
2" 3" 3" 3"
2" 3" 2" 3"
BOX BOX BOX BOX

1 2 3 4
Ship Trash Resize Recycle
The Sorting Code above is a graphical summary for the following Sorting Code. Read the code
carefully.
Sorting Code for Boxes 1 through 4:
Box 1: Ship
Both pieces are not defective and are the same size.
Box 2: Trash
Both pieces are defective.
Note: A “defect” is displayed as a dashed line going across the piece. See the graphic code above.
Box 3: Resize
Both pieces are not defective but the sizes do not match.
Box 4: Recycle
Anytime one piece is defective, place the package into Box 4.
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SPATIAL CONCEPTS
In the question below, you are presented with a package containing two pieces. Use the above sorting
code to determine which box the package needs to be placed in.
1. a. Box 1
b. Box 2
3" c. Box 3
d. Box 4
2"
Answer: d. Although you may have been tempted to put this package into Box 3 (Resize), notice that the
criteria for Box 3 states: Both pieces are not defective but the sizes do not match. In this example we do have
one defective piece. According to the Sorting Code, we see that this package belongs in Box 4: Anytime one
piece is defective, place the package into Box 4.
MAZES
As you wind your way through a maze, pretend the solid lines are walls that you cannot cross. Try the
sample maze below.
E
D A
C
B
enter
Did you come out at B? Following is the answer key.
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For any doubt contact I'd :- sumanchakraborty626
me on Instagram id : sumanchakraborty626
Verbal Reasoning
Directions to Solve
In each of the following questions, arrange the given words in a meaningful sequence and thus
find the correct answer from alternatives.
1. Arrange the words given below in a meaningful sequence.

1. Key 2. Door 3. Lock
4. Room 5. Switch on
A. 5, 1, 2, 4, 3
B. 4, 2, 1, 5, 3
C. 1, 3, 2, 4, 5
D. 1, 2, 3, 5, 4
Answer: Option C
Explanation:
The correct order is :
Key Lock Door Room Switch on

1 3 2 4 5

1. Word 2. Paragraph 3. Sentence
4. Letters 5. Phrase
A. 4, 1, 5, 2, 3
B. 4, 1, 3, 5, 2
C. 4, 2, 5, 1, 3
D. 4, 1, 5, 3, 2
Answer: Option D
Explanation:
Letters Word Phrase Sentence Paragraph

4 1 5 3 2

1. Police 2. Punishment 3. Crime
4. Judge 5. Judgement
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A. 3, 1, 2, 4, 5
B. 1, 2, 4, 3, 5
C. 5, 4, 3, 2, 1
D. 3, 1, 4, 5, 2
Answer: Option D
Explanation:
Crime Police Judge Judgement Punishment

3 1 4 5 2

1. Family 2. Community 3. Member
4. Locality 5. Country
A. 3, 1, 2, 4, 5
B. 3, 1, 2, 5, 4
C. 3, 1, 4, 2, 5
D. 3, 1, 4, 5, 2
Answer: Option A
Explanation:
Member Family Community Locality Country

3 1 2 4 5

1. Poverty 2. Population 3. Death
4. Unemployment 5. Disease
A. 2, 3, 4, 5, 1
B. 3, 4, 2, 5, 1
C. 2, 4, 1, 5, 3
D. 1, 2, 3, 4, 5
Answer: Option C
Explanation:
Population Unemployment Poverty Disease Death

2 4
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Directions to Solve
1. Leaf 2. Fruit 3. Stem
4. Root 5. Flower
A. 3, 4, 5, 1, 2
B. 4, 3, 1, 5, 2
C. 4, 1, 3, 5, 2
D. 4, 3, 1, 2, 5
Answer: Option B
Explanation:
Root Stem Leaf Flower Fruit

4 3 1 5 2

1. Nation 2. Village 3. City
4. District 5. State
A. 2, 3, 4, 5, 1
B. 2, 3, 4, 1, 5
C. 1, 3, 5, 4, 2
D. 1, 2, 3, 4, 5
Answer: Option A
Explanation:
Village City District State Nation

2 3 4 5 1

1. Caste 2. Family 3. Newly married Couple
4. Clan 5. Species
A. 2, 3, 1, 4, 5
B. 3, 4, 5, 1, 2
C. 3, 2, 1, 4, 5
D. 4, 5, 3, 2, 1
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Answer: Option C
Explanation:
Newly married Couple Family Caste Clan Species

3 2 1 4 5

1. Cut 2. Put on 3. Mark
4. Measure 5. Tailor
A. 3, 1, 5, 4, 2
B. 2, 4, 3, 1, 5
C. 1, 3, 2, 4, 5
D. 4, 3, 1, 5, 2
Answer: Option D
Explanation:
Measure Mark Cut Tailor Put on

4 3 1 5 2

1. House 2. Street 3. Room
4. Town 5. District
A. 3, 2, 1, 4, 5
B. 3, 1, 4, 2, 5
C. 3, 1, 2, 4, 5
D. 3, 1, 2, 5, 4
Answer: Option C
Explanation:
Room House Street Town District

3 1 2 4 5
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Directions to Solve
1. Wall 2. Clay 3. House
4. Room 5. Bricks
A. 5, 2, 1, 4, 3
B. 2, 5, 4, 1, 3
C. 2, 5, 1, 4, 3
D. 1, 2, 3, 4, 5
Answer: Option C
Explanation:
Clay Bricks Wall Room House

2 5 1 4 3

1. Probation 2. Interview 3. Selection
4. Appointment 5. Advertisement 6. Application
A. 5, 6, 3, 2, 4, 1
B. 5, 6, 4, 2, 3, 1
C. 5, 6, 2, 3, 4, 1
D. 6, 5, 4, 2, 3, 1
Answer: Option C
Explanation:
Advertisement Application Interview Selection Appointment Probation

5 6 2 3 4 1

1. Elephant 2. Cat 3. Mosquito
4. Tiger 5. Whale
A. 5, 3, 1, 2, 4
B. 3, 2, 4, 1, 5
C. 1, 3, 5, 4, 2
D. 2, 5, 1, 4, 3
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Answer: Option B
Explanation:
Mosquito Cat Tiger Elephant Whale

3 2 4 1 5

1. Yarn 2. Plant 3. Saree
4. Cotton 5. Cloth
A. 2, 4, 5, 1, 3
B. 2, 4, 3, 5, 1
C. 2, 4, 1, 5, 3
D. 2, 4, 5, 3, 1
Answer: Option C
Explanation:
Plant Cotton Yarn Cloth Saree

2 4 1 5 3

1. Infant 2. Old 3. Adult
4. Adolescent 5. Child
A. 5, 4, 3, 2, 1
B. 3, 4, 2, 1, 5
C. 2, 3, 4, 5, 1
D. 1, 5, 4, 3, 2
Answer: Option D
Explanation:
Infant Child Adolescent Adult Old

1 5 4 3 2
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
1. Which one will replace the question mark ?
A. L10
B. K15
C. I15
D. K8
Answer: Option D
Explanation:
How the number is obtained?

2+4=6
5 + 9 = 14
Similarly,
3+5=8
Therefore, the answer is K8.
A. 1
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B. 4
C. 3
D. 6
Answer: Option D
Explanation:
(5 + 4 + 7)/2 = 8
(6 + 9 + 5)/2 = 10
(3 + 7 + 2)/2 = 6.
A. 18
B. 12
C. 9
D. 6
Answer: Option C
Explanation:
(12 + 18 + 30)/10 = 6
(16 + 24 + 40)/10 = 8
Similarly, (45 + 18 + 27)/10 = 9.
A. 25
B. 37
C. 41
D. 47
Answer: Option C
Explanation:
(5 x 3) + 4 = 19
and (6 x 4) + 5 = 29
Therefore, (7 x 5) + 6 = 41
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A. 45
B. 41
C. 32
D. 40
Answer: Option A
Explanation:
(15 x 2 - 3) = 27,
(31 x 2 - 6) = 56
and (45 x 2 - 9) = 81
A. 115
B. 130
C. 135
D. 140
Answer: Option B
Explanation:
(5 x 6 x 8) + (7 x 4 x 9) = 492
and (7 x 5 x 4) + (6 x 8 x 9) = 572
Therefore (4 x 3 x 5) + (7 x 2 x 5) = 130.
A. 92
B. 72
C. 62
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D. 99
Answer: Option D
Explanation:
21 + 31 = 52
and 39 + 46 = 85
Therefore, 16 + 83 = 99.
A. 2
B. 3
C. 4
D. 5
Answer: Option B
Explanation:
(18 x 12)/3 = 72
and (32 x 16)/4 = 128
Therefore, (24 x 14)/? = 112
(336/?) = 112
? = (336/112)
? = 3.
A. 36
B. 48
C. 38
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D. 30
Answer: Option C
Explanation:
(0 + 2 + 6 + 4) - 2 = 10
and (6 + 2 + 10 + 8) - 2 = 24
Therefore, (4 + 14 + 12 + 10) - 2 = 38.
A. 41
B. 64
C. 35
D. 61
Answer: Option B
Explanation:
(1)3 = 1, (2)3 = 8, (3)3 = 27
Therefore, (4)3 = 64.
A. 13
B. 14
C. 12
D. 15
Answer: Option D
Explanation:
Sum of numbers in lower half of the circle = 11 + 9 + 3 + 7 = 30
Sum of numbers in upper half of the circle = ? + 4 + 5 + 6 = ? + 15
Upper half = Lower half
30 = ? + 15
? = 30 - 15
? = 15.
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Threfore, 15 is the answer.
A. 262
B. 622
C. 631
D. 824
Answer: Option B
Explanation:
915 - 364 = 551
and 789 - 543 = 246
Similarly, 863 - 241 = 622.
A. 45
B. 29
C. 39
D. 37
Answer: Option C
Explanation:
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A. 184
B. 210
C. 241
D. 425
Answer: Option A
Explanation:
(12)2 - (8)2 = 80
and (16)2 - (7)2 = 207
Therefore (25)2 - (21)2 = 184.
A. 25
B. 59
C. 48
D. 73
Answer: Option D
Explanation:
(2)3 + (1)3 + (3)3 = 36
and (0)3 + (4)3 + (3)3 = 91
Therefore, (4)3 + (2)3 + (1)3 = 73.
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Q. Directions to Solve
Below in each of the questions are given two statements I and II. These statements may be
either independent causes or may be effects of independent causes or a common cause. One of
these statements may be the effect of the other statements. Read both the statements and
decide which of the following answer choice correctly depicts the relationship between these two
statements.
Mark answer
 (A) If statement I is the cause and statement II is its effect.
 (B) If statement II is the cause and statement I is its effect.
 (C) If both the statements I and II are independent causes.
 (D) If both the statements I and II are effects of independent causes.
 (E) If both the statements I and II are effects of some common cause.
1. Statements:
I. Standard of living among the middle class society is constantly going up since part of few
years.
II. Indian Economy is observing remarkable growth.
A. Statement I is the cause and statement II is its effect.
B. Statement II is the cause and statement I is its effect.
C. Both the statements I and II are independent causes.
D. Both the statements I and II are effects of independent causes.
E. Both the statements I and II are effects of some common cause.

Answer: Option A
Explanation:
Since the standard of living among the middle class society is constantly going up so Indian
Economy is observing remarkable growth.
2. Statements:
I. The meteorological Department has issued a statement mentioning deficient rainfall during
monsoon in many parts of the country.
II. The Government has lowered the revised estimated GDP growth from the level of earlier
estimates.

Answer: Option D
Explanation:
Both the statements I and II are effects of independent causes.
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3. Statements:
I. The staff of Airport Authorities called off the strike they were observing in protest against
privatization.
II. The staff of Airport Authorities went on strike anticipating a threat to their jobs.

Answer: Option D
Explanation:
Both the statements I and II are effects of independent causes
4. Statements:
I. A huge truck overturned on the middle of the road last night.
II. The police had cordoned of entire area in the locality this morning for half of the day.

Answer: Option A
Explanation:
Since a huge truck overturned on the middle of the road last night, so, the police had
cordoned off the entire area in the locality last morning for half of the day.
5. Statements:
I. Importance of Yoga and exercise is being realized by all sections of the society.
II. There is an increasing awareness about health in the society particularly among middle ages
group of people.
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Answer: Option B
Explanation:
As the awareness about health in the society is increasing particularly among middle-aged
group of people, the importance of Yoga and exercise is being realized by all sections of the
society.
6. Statements:
I. The prices of food grains and other essential commodities in the open market have risen
sharply during the past three months.
II. The political party in opposition has given a call for general strike to protest against the
government's economic policy.

Answer: Option A
Explanation:
Since the prices of food grains and other essential commodities in the open market have
been raised sharply during the past three months, so the political party in opposition has
given a call for general strike to protest against the government's economic policy.
7. Statements:
I. The Government has decided to hold a single entrance test for admission to all the medical
colleges in India.
II. The State Government has debarred students from other States to apply for the seats in the
medical colleges in the State.

Answer: Option E
Explanation:
Both the statements are effects of some common cause.
8. Statements:
I. Large number of Primary Schools in the rural areas is run by only one teacher.
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II. There has been a huge dropout from the primary schools in rural areas.

Answer: Option A
Explanation:
Since large numbers of primary schools in the rural areas are run by only one teacher so
there has been a huge dropout from the Primary Schools in rural areas.
9. Statements:
I. The employees of the biggest bank in the country have given an indefinite strike call starting
from the third of the next month.
II. The employees of the Central Government have withdrawn their week long demonstrations.

Answer: Option D
Explanation:
Both the statements are effects of the different causes.
10. Statements:
I. The farmers have decided against selling their Kharif crops to the Government agencies.
II. The Government has reduced the procurement price of Kharif crops starting from the last month
to the next six months.

Answer: Option B
Explanation:
Since the government has reduced the procurement price of Kharif crops starting from the last
months to the next six months, therefore, the farmers have decided against selling their Kharif
crops to the Government agencies.
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1. The total of the ages of Amar, Akbar and Anthony is 80 years. What was the total of their ages
three years ago ?
A. 71 years
B. 72 years
C. 74 years
D. 77 years
Answer: Option A
Explanation:
Required sum = (80 - 3 x 3) years = (80 - 9) years = 71 years.
2. Two bus tickets from city A to B and three tickets from city A to C cost Rs. 77 but three
tickets from city A to B and two tickets from city A to C cost Rs. 73. What are the fares for
cities B and C from A ?
A. Rs. 4, Rs. 23
B. Rs. 13, Rs. 17
C. Rs. 15, Rs. 14
D. Rs. 17, Rs. 13

Answer: Option B
Explanation:
Let Rs. x be the fare of city B from city A and Rs. y be the fare of city C from city A.
Then, 2x + 3y = 77 ...(i) and
3x + 2y = 73 ...(ii)
Multiplying (i) by 3 and (ii) by 2 and subtracting, we get: 5y = 85 or y = 17.
Putting y = 17 in (i), we get: x = 13.
3. An institute organised a fete and 1/5 of the girls and 1/8 of the boys participated in the same.
What fraction of the total number of students took part in the fete ?
A. 2/13
B. 13/40
C. Data inadequate
D. None of these
Answer: Option C
Explanation:
No answer description available for this question.
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4. A number of friends decided to go on a picnic and planned to spend Rs. 96 on eatables. Four
of them, however, did not turn up. As a consequence, the remaining ones had to contribute
Rs. 4 each extra. The number of those who attended the picnic was
A. 8
B. 12
C. 16
D. 24
Answer: Option A
Explanation:
5. A, B, C, D and E play a game of cards. A says to B, "If you give me three cards, you will have as
many as E has and if I give you three cards, you will have as many as D has." A and B together
have 10 cards more than what D and E together have. If B has two cards more than what C has
and the total number of cards be 133, how many cards does B have ?
A. 22
B. 23
C. 25
D. 35
Answer: Option C
Explanation:
Clearly, we have :
B-3 = E ...(i)
B + 3 = D ...(ii)
A+B = D + E+10 ...(iii)
B = C + 2 ...(iv)
A+B + C + D + E= 133 ...(v)
From (i) and (ii), we have : 2 B = D + E ...(vi)
From (iii) and (vi), we have : A = B + 10 ...(vii)
Using (iv), (vi) and (vii) in (v), we get:
(B + 10) + B + (B - 2) + 2B = 133 5B = 125 B = 25.
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6. A pineapple costs Rs. 7 each. A watermelon costs Rs. 5 each. X spends Rs. 38 on these fruits.
The number of pineapples purchased is
A. 2
B. 3
C. 4
D. Data inadequate
Answer: Option C
Explanation:
7. A woman says, "If you reverse my own age, the figures represent my husband's age. He is,
of course, senior to me and the difference between our ages is one-eleventh of their sum."
The woman's age is
A. 23 years
B. 34 years
C. 45 years
D. None of these
Answer: Option C
Explanation:
Let x and y be the ten's and unit's digits respectively of the numeral denoting the woman's
age.
Then, woman's age = (10X + y) years; husband's age = (10y + x) years.
Therefore (10y + x)- (10X + y) = (1/11) (10y + x + 10x + y)
(9y-9x) = (1/11)(11y + 11x) = (x + y) 10x = 8y x = (4/5)y
Clearly, y should be a single-digit multiple of 5, which is 5.
So, x = 4, y = 5.
Hence, woman's age = 10x + y = 45 years.
8. A girl counted in the following way on the fingers of her left hand : She started by calling the
thumb 1, the index finger 2, middle finger 3, ring finger 4, little finger 5 and then reversed
direction calling the ring finger 6, middle finger 7 and so on. She counted upto 1994. She
ended counting on which finger ?
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A. Thumb
B. Index finger
C. Middle finger
D. Ring finger
Answer: Option B
Explanation:
Clearly, while counting, the numbers associated to the thumb will be : 1, 9,17, 25,.....
i.e. numbers of the form (8n + 1).
Since 1994 = 249 x 8 + 2, so 1993 shall correspond to the thumb and 1994 to the index
finger.
9. A man has Rs. 480 in the denominations of one-rupee notes, five-rupee notes and ten-rupee
notes. The number of notes of each denomination is equal. What is the total number of notes
that he has ?
A. 45
B. 60
C. 75
D. 90
Answer: Option D
Explanation:
Let number of notes of each denomination be x.
Then, x + 5x + 10x = 480 16x = 480 x = 30.
Hence, total number of notes = 3x = 90.
10. What is the product of all the numbers in the dial of a telephone ?
A. 1,58,480
B. 1,59,450
C. 1,59,480
D. None of these
Answer: Option D
Explanation:
Since one of the numbers on the dial of a telephone is zero, so the product of all the
numbers on it is 0.
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11. A is 3 years older to B and 3 years younger to C, while B and D are twins. How many years
older is C to D?
A. 2
B. 3
C. 6
D. 12
Answer: Option C
Explanation:
Since B and D are twins, so B = D.
Now, A = B + 3 and A = C - 3.
Thus, B + 3 = C - 3 D + 3 = C-3 C - D = 6.
12. The 30 members of a club decided to play a badminton singles tournament. Every time a
member loses a game he is out of the tournament. There are no ties. What is the minimum
number of matches that must be played to determine the winner ?
A. 15
B. 29
C. 61
D. None of these
Answer: Option B
Explanation:
Clearly, every member except one (i.e. the winner) must lose one game to decide the winner.
Thus, minimum number of matches to be played = 30 - 1 = 29.
13. In a garden, there are 10 rows and 12 columns of mango trees. The distance between the
two trees is 2 metres and a distance of one metre is left from all sides of the boundary of the
garden. The length of the garden is
A. 20 m
B. 22 m
C. 24 m
D. 26 m
Answer: Option C
Explanation:
Each row contains 12 plants.
There are 11 gapes between the two corner trees (11 x 2) metres and 1 metre on each side
is left.
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Therefore Length = (22 + 2) m = 24 m.
14. 12 year old Manick is three times as old as his brother Rahul. How old will Manick be when
he is twice as old as Rahul ?
A. 14 years
B. 16 years
C. 18 years
D. 20 years
Answer: Option B
Explanation:
Manick's present age = 12 years, Rahul's present age = 4 years.
Let Manick be twice as old as Rahul after x years from now.
Then, 12 + x = 2 (4 + x) 12 + x = 8 + 2x x = 4.
Hence, Manick's required age = 12 + x = 16 years.
15. A tailor had a number of shirt pieces to cut from a roll of fabric. He cut each roll of equal
length into 10 pieces. He cut at the rate of 45 cuts a minute. How many rolls would be cut in
24 minutes ?
A. 32 rolls
B. 54 rolls
C. 108 rolls
D. 120 rolls
Answer: Option D
Explanation:
Number of cuts made to cut a roll into 10 pieces = 9.
Therefore Required number of rolls = (45 x 24)/9 = 120.
16. In a class of 60 students, the number of boys and girls participating in the annual sports is in
the ratio 3 : 2 respectively. The number of girls not participating in the sports is 5 more than
the number of boys not participating in the sports. If the number of boys participating in the
sports is 15, then how many girls are there in the class ?
A. 20
B. 25
C. 30
D. Data inadequate
E. None of these
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Answer: Option C
Explanation:
Let the number of boys and girls participating in sports be 3x and 2x respectively.
Then, 3x = 15 or x = 5.
So, number of girls participating in sports = 2x = 10.
Number of students not participating in sports = 60 - (15 + 10) = 35.
Let number of boys not participating in sports be y.
Then, number of girls not participating in sports = (35 -y).
Therefore (35 - y) = y + 5 2y 30 y = 15.
So, number of girls not participating in sports = (35 - 15) = 20.
Hence, total number of girls in the class = (10 + 20) = 30.
17. There are deer and peacocks in a zoo. By counting heads they are 80. The number of their
legs is 200. How many peacocks are there ?
A. 20
B. 30
C. 50
D. 60
Answer: Option D
Explanation:
Let x and y be the number of deer and peacocks in the zoo respectively. Then,
x + y = 80 ...(i) and
4x + 2y = 200 or 2x + y = 100 ...(ii)
Solving (i) and (ii), we get) x = 20, y = 60
18. A man wears socks of two colours - Black and brown. He has altogether 20 black socks and
20 brown socks in a drawer. Supposing he has to take out the socks in the dark, how many
must he take out to be sure that he has a matching pair ?
A. 3
B. 20
C. 39
D. None of these
Answer: Option A
Explanation:
Since there are socks of only two colours, so two out of any three socks must always be of
the same colour.
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19. A motorist knows four different routes from Bristol to Birmingham. From Birmingham to
Sheffield he knows three different routes and from Sheffield to Carlisle he knows two
different routes. How many routes does he know from Bristol to Carlisle ?
A. 4
B. 8
C. 12
D. 24
Answer: Option D
Explanation:
Total number of routes from Bristol to Carlisle = (4 x 3 x 2) = 24.
20. Mac has £ 3 more than Ken, but then Ken wins on the horses and trebles his money, so that
he now has £ 2 more than the original amount of money that the two boys had between
them. How much money did Mac and Ken have between them before Ken's win ?
A. £9
B. £ 11
C. £ 13
D. £ 15
Answer: Option C
Explanation:
Let money with Ken = x. Then, money with Mac = x + £ 3.
Now, 3x = (x + x + £ 3) + £ 2 x = £ 5.
Therefore Total money with Mac and Ken = 2x + £ 3 = £ 13.
Choose the correct alternative that will continue the same pattern and replace the question mark
in the given series.
1. 120, 99, 80, 63, 48, ?
A. 35
B. 38
C. 39
D. 40
Answer: Option A
Explanation:
The pattern is - 21, - 19, - 17, - 15,.....
So, missing term = 48 - 13 = 35.
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2. 589654237, 89654237, 8965423, 965423, ?
A. 58965
B. 65423
C. 89654
D. 96542
Answer: Option D
Explanation:
The digits are removed one by one from the beginning and the end in order alternately
so as to obtain the subsequent terms of the series.
3. 3, 10, 101,?
A. 10101
B. 10201
C. 10202
D. 11012
Answer: Option C
Explanation:
Each term in the series is obtained by adding 1 to the square of the preceding term.
So, missing term = (101)2 + 1 = 10202.
4. In the series 2, 6, 18, 54, ...... what will be the 8th term ?
A. 4370
B. 4374
C. 7443
D. 7434
Answer: Option B
Explanation:
Clearly, 2 x 3 = 6, 6 x 3 = 18, 18 x 3 = 54,.....
So, the series is a G.P. in which a = 2, r = 3.
Therefore 8th term = ar8-1 = ar7 = 2 x 37 = (2 x 2187) = 4374.
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5. 125,80,45,20,?
A. 5
B. 8
C. 10
D. 12
Answer: Option A
Explanation:
The pattern is - 45, - 35, - 25, .....
So, missing term = 20 - 15 = 5.
6. 1, 1, 4, 8, 9, 27, 16, ?
A. 32
B. 64
C. 81
D. 256
Answer: Option B
Explanation:
The series consists of squares and cubes of consecutive natural numbers i.e. 12, 13, 22, 23,
32, 33, 42, .....
So, missing term = 43 = 64.
7. 1, 2, 3, 6, 9, 18, ?, 54
A. 18
B. 27
C. 36
D. 81
Answer: Option B
Explanation:
The pattern is x 2, x 3/2, x 2, x 3/2, x 2,.....
So, missing term = 18 x 3/2 = 27.
8. 6, 13, 25, 51, 101, ?

A. 201
B. 202
C. 203
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D. 205
Answer: Option C
Explanation:
The pattern is x 2 + 1, x 2 - 1, x 2 + 1, x 2 - 1,.....
So, missing term = 101 x 2 + 1 = 203.
9. 5, 6, 9, 15, ?, 40
A. 21
B. 25
C. 27
D. 33
Answer: Option B
Explanation:
The pattern is + 1, + 3, + 6,....., i.e. + 1, + (1 + 2), + (1 + 2 + 3),.....
So, missing term = 15 + (1 + 2 + 3 + 4) = 25.
10. 1, 3, 4, 8, 15, 27, ?

A. 37
B. 44
C. 50
D. 55
Answer: Option C
Explanation:
The sum of any three consecutive terms of the series gives the next term.
So, missing number = 8 + 15 + 27 = 50.
11. 3, 4, 7, 7, 13, 13, 21, 22, 31, 34, ?
A. 42
B. 43
C. 51
D. 52
Answer: Option B
Explanation:
The given sequence is a combination of two series :
I. 3, 7, 13, 21, 31, ? and II. 4, 7, 13, 22, 34
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The pattern in I is + 4, + 6, + 8, + 10,.....
The pattern in II is + 3, + 6, + 9, + 12,.....
So, missing term = 31 + 12 = 43.
12. 198, 194, 185, 169, ?

A. 92
B. 112
C. 136
D. 144
Answer: Option D
Explanation:
The pattern is - 4, - 9, - 16,.....i.e. - 22, - 32, - 42,.....
So, missing pattern = 169 - 52 = 169 - 25 = 144.
13. 2, 3, 5,7,11,?, 17
A. 12
B. 13
C. 14
D. 15
Answer: Option B
Explanation:
Clearly, the given series consists of prime numbers starting from 2. So, the missing
term is the prime number after 11, which is 13.
14. 6, 12, 21, ?, 48

A. 33
B. 38
C. 40
D. 45
Answer: Option A
Explanation:
The pattern is + 6, + 9, + 12, + 15, .....
So, missing term = 21 + 12 = 33.
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15. Which term of the series 5, 10, 20, 40, ..... is 1280?
A. 10th
B. 9th
C. 8th
D. None of these
Answer: Option B
Explanation:
Clearly, 5 x 2 = 10, 10 x 2 = 20, 20 x 2 = 40,.....
So, the series is a G.P. in which a = 5 and r = 2.
Let 1280 be the rath term of the series.
Then, 5x2n-1 = 1280 2n-1 = 256 = 28 n-1=8 n = 9.
The following questions are based on the information given below:
1. A cuboid shaped wooden block has 6 cm length, 4 cm breadth and 1 cm height.
2. Two faces measuring 4 cm x 1 cm are coloured in black.
3. Two faces measuring 6 cm x 1 cm are coloured in red.
4. Two faces measuring 6 cm x 4 cm are coloured in green.
5. The block is divided into 6 equal cubes of side 1 cm (from 6 cm side), 4 equal cubes of side 1
cm(from 4 cm side).
1. How many cubes having red, green and black colours on at least one side of the cube will be
formed ?
A. 16
B. 12
C. 10
D. 4
Answer: Option D
Explanation:
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Such cubes are related to the corners of the cuboid. Since the number of corners of the
cuboid is 4.
Hence, the number of such small cubes is 4.
2. How many small cubes will be formed ?

A. 6
B. 12
C. 16
D. 24
Answer: Option D
Explanation:
Number of small cubes = l x b x h = 6 x 4 x 1 = 24
3. How many cubes will have 4 coloured sides and two non-coloured sides ?
A. 8
B. 4
C. 16
D. 10
Answer: Option B
Explanation:
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Only 4 cubes situated at the corners of the cuboid will have 4 coloured and 2 non-coloured
sides.
4. How many cubes will have green colour on two sides and rest of the four sides having no
colour ?
A. 12
B. 10
C. 8
D. 4
Answer: Option C
Explanation:
There are 16 small cubes attached to the outer walls of the cuboid.
Therefore remaining inner small cubes will be the cubes having two sides green coloured.
So the required number = 24 - 16 = 8
5. How many cubes will remain if the cubes having black and green coloured are removed ?
A. 4
B. 8
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C. 12
D. 16
Answer: Option D
Explanation:
Number of small cubes which are Black and Green is 8 in all.

Hence, the number of remaining cubes are = 24 - 8 = 16
DIFFERENT TYPE QUESTIONS
1. Which symbol will be on the face opposite to the face with symbol * ?
A. @
B. $
C. 8
D. +
Answer: Option C
Explanation:
The symbols of the adjacent faces to the face with symbol * are @, -, + and $. Hence the
required symbol is 8.
2. Two positions of dice are shown below. How many points will appear on the opposite to the
face containing 5 points?
A. 3
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B. 1
C. 2
D. 4
Answer: Option D
Explanation:
In these two positions one of the common face having 1 point is in the same position.
Therefore according to rule (2). There will be 4 points on the required face.
3. Which digit will appear on the face opposite to the face with number 4?
A. 3
B. 5
C. 6
D. 2/3
Answer: Option A
Explanation:
Here the common faces with number 3, are in same positions. Hence 6 is opposite to 2 and
5 is opposite to 1. Therefore 4 is opposite to 3.
4. Two positions of a dice are shown below. Which number will appear on the face opposite to
the face with the number 5?
A. 2/6
B. 2
C. 6
D. 4
Answer: Option C
Explanation:
According to the rule no. (3), common faces with number 3, are in same positions. Hence the
number of the opposite face to face with number 5 will be 6.
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5. How many points will be on the face opposite to in face which contains 2 points?
A. 1
B. 5
C. 4
D. 6
Answer: Option D
Explanation:
In first two positions of dice one common face containing 5 is same. Therefore according to
rule no. (3) the face opposite to the face which contains 2 point, will contains 6 points.
6. Which number is on the face opposite to 6?
A. 4
B. 1
C. 2
D. 3
Answer: Option B
Explanation:
As the numbers 2, 3, 4 and 5 are adjacent to 6. Hence the number on the face opposite to 6
is 1.
7. Two positions of a dice are shown below. When number '1' is on the top. What number will
be at the bottom?
A. 3
B. 5
C. 2
D. 6
Answer: Option B
Explanation:
According to the rule (2) when 'one' is at the top, then 5 will be at the bott
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8. Two positions of a cube with its surfaces numbered are shown below. When the surface 4
touch the bottom, what surface will be on the top?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 5
D. 6
Answer: Option A
Explanation:
In these 2 positions one common face with number 1 is in the same position. Hence
according to the rule number (3), 2 is opposite 6 and 3 is opposite to 5. Therefore opposite to
4 is 1.
9. Here two positions of dice are shown. If there are two dots in the bottom, then how many
dots will be on the top?
A. 2
B. 3
C. 5
D. 6
Answer: Option C
Explanation:
Here the common faces with 4 dots are in same positions.
Hence 2 will be opposite to 5.
10. Two positions of dice are shown below. How many points will be on the top when 2 points
are at the bottom?
A. 6
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B. 5
C. 4
D. 1
Answer: Option D
Explanation:
In these 2 positions of a dice, one common face having points 3 is in the same position.
Hence according to rule (3), there will be 4 points on the required face.
11. Here 4 positions of a cube are shown. Which sign will be opposite to '+' ?
A. %
B. -
C. x
D. $
Answer: Option C
Explanation:
From position I and III common face with % is in the same position. Hence according to rule
(3) opposite is X.
12. Two positions of a cubical block are shown. When 5 is at the top which number will be at
bottom?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
Answer: Option C
Explanation:
In these 2 positions one common face with number 3, is in same position. Hence according
to rule (3), 1 is opposite to 6 and 4 is opposite to 2. Therefore 5 is opposite to 3.
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13. From the four positions of a dice given below, find the color which is opposite to yellow ?
A. Violet
B. Red
C. Rose
D. Blue
Answer: Option A
Explanation:
The colours adjacent to yellow are orange, blue, red and rose. Hence violet will be opposite
to yellow.
14. When the digit 5 is on the bottom then which number will be on its upper surface?
A. 1
B. 3
C. 4
D. 6
Answer: Option A
Explanation:
According to the rule no. (3), common faces with number 2 are in same positions. Hence
when the digit 5 is on the bottom then 1 will on the upper surface.
15. How many points will be on the face opposite to the face which contains 3 points?
A. 2
B. 4
C. 5
D. 6
Answer: Option C
Explanation:
The adjacent faces to the face which 3 points have 2, 1, 4 and 6 points. Hence on the face which
is opposite to the face which contains 3 points, there will be 5 points.
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1. A, P, R, X, S and Z are sitting in a row. S and Z are in the centre. A and P are at the ends. R is
sitting to the left of A. Who is to the right of P ?
A. A
B. X
C. S
D. Z
Answer: Option B
Explanation:
The seating arrangement is as follows:
Therefore, right of P is X.
2. There are 8 houses in a line and in each house only one boy lives with the conditions as
given below:
1. Jack is not the neighbour Siman.
2. Harry is just next to the left of Larry.
3. There is at least one to the left of Larry.
4. Paul lives in one of the two houses in the middle.
5. Mike lives in between Paul and Larry.
If at least one lives to the right of Robert and Harry is not between Taud and Larry, then
which one of the following statement is not correct ?
A. Robert is not at the left end.
B. Robert is in between Simon and Taud.
C. Taud is in between Paul and Jack.
D. There are three persons to the right of Paul.

Answer: Option C
Explanation:
No answer description available for this question.
3. A, B, C, D and E are sitting on a bench. A is sitting next to B, C is sitting next to D, D is not

sitting with E who is on the left end of the bench. C is on the second position from the right. A
is to the right of B and E. A and C are sitting together. In which position A is sitting ?
A. Between B and D
B. Between B and C
C. Between E and D
D. Between C and E
Answer: Option B
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Explanation:
Therefore, A is sitting in between B and C.
P, Q, R, S, T, U, V and W are sitting round the circle and are facing the centre:
1. P is second to the right of T who is the neighbour of R and V.
2. S is not the neighbour of P.
3. V is the neighbour of U.
4. Q is not between S and W. W is not between U and S.
1. Which two of the following are not neighbours ?
A. RV
B. UV
C. RP
D. QW
Answer: Option A
Explanation:
2. Which one is immediate right to the V ?

A. P
B. U
C. R
D. T
Answer: Option D
Explanation:
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T is immediate right to the V.
3. Which of the following is correct ?

A. P is to the immediate right of Q
B. R is between U and V
C. Q is to the immediate left of W
D. U is between W and S
Answer: Option C
Explanation:
4. What is the position of S ?

A. Between U and V
B. Second to the right of P
C. To the immediate right of W
D. Data inadequate.
Answer: Option C
Explanation:
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In each of the following questions, five words have been given out of which four are alike in some
manner, while the fifth one is different. Choose the word which is different from the rest.
1. Choose the word which is different from the rest.
A. Chicken
B. Snake
C. Swan
D. Crocodile
E. Frog
Answer: Option A
Explanation:
All except Chicken can live in water.

A. Cap
B. Turban
C. Helmet
D. Veil
E. Hat
Answer: Option D
Explanation:
All except Veil cover the head, while veil covers the face.

A. Kiwi
B. Eagle
C. Emu
D. Ostrich
Answer: Option B
Explanation:
All except Eagle are flightless birds.

A. Rigveda
B. Yajurveda
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C. Atharvaveda
D. Ayurveda
E. Samveda
Answer: Option D
Explanation:
All except Ayurveda are names of holy scriptures, the four Vedas. Ayurveda is a branch of
medicine.

A. Curd
B. Butter
C. Oil
D. Cheese
E. Cream
Answer: Option C
Explanation:
All except Oil are products obtained from milk.

A. Potassium
B. Silicon
C. Zirconium
D. Gallium
E. Germanium
Answer: Option A
Explanation:
All except Potassium are metals used in semiconductor devices.

A. Tea
B. Cinchona
C. Rubber
D. Cardamom
E. Chalk
Answer: Option E
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Explanation:
All except Chalk are obtained from crops.

A. Hangar
B. Platform
C. Dock
D. Park
E. Bus stand
Answer: Option D
Explanation:
All except Park are halting places of various transport means.

A. Sparrow
B. Swan
C. Parrot
D. Koel
Answer: Option B
Explanation:
Swan is the only water bird in the group.

A. Tall
B. Huge
C. Thin
D. Sharp
E. Small
Answer: Option D
Explanation:
All except Sharp are related to dimension.
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WELCOME TO MERCHANT NAVY

This book Contains:-

ETO exam Syllabus

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 Principle of Direct and Alternating current and circuits

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 Electrical and Electronic Measurements

 Bridges and potentiometers

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Hobbies, Family introduction and Basic geography (canals, straits,

1. Motors : types, construction, principle of working, application

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ETO Entrance exam Book

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ETO Entrance exam Book

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ETO Entrance exam Book

Types of Psychometric Tests

Psychometric test questionnaires may be divided as follows:

 Personality Tests: Personality-focused psychometric tests evaluate aptitude areas

Advantages of using a Psychometric Personality Tests:-

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ETO Entrance exam Book

The personality assessment of a person is provided based on the Five type of

Extroversion – Person who is extroverted, talkative, socially confident.

Conscientiousness: Person who is well organized, responsible, hardworking and

Openness To experience: A broad-minded, unconventional, imaginative person

Agreeableness: A kind, sympathetic, cooperative and warm person.

Emotional Stability: A calm, happy, undisturbed and confident person .

Personality test sample

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ETO Entrance exam Book

Numeracy test sample

Verbal critical reasoning test sample

Question : For each statement, choose the response that best

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ETO Entrance exam Book

Question 2. I enjoy repairing/fixing things.

Question 3. I like managing other people.

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ETO Entrance exam Book

Question 2. Which cube cannot be made based on the unfolded

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ETO Entrance exam Book

Question :- Rating Statements

Select circle 1 If you strongly disagree with the statement

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ETO Entrance exam Book

Personality Test Sample Questions

Option a. I get a lot of invitations from friends.

Option a. I smile at everyone I see.

Option a. I often regret my decisions.

Option b. Doing multiple things at one time can be fun.

Option a. I make a schedule to study for my exams.

Option b. I am uncomfortable interacting with the opposite sex.

Option a. I like to decorate my room.

Option b. I am very polite and respectful to everyone I meet.

Option a. I often regret the decisions made by me.

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c. Neither accurate nor inaccurate

Question 8. I look for proof before believing in anything.

c. Neither accurate nor Inaccurate

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