Target Mds Image Based Questions - WWW - Thedentalhub.org - in

First -Ever Book Containing NEET and AllUS Pattern
image Based Questions with Explanatory Answers
TARGET MDS
Image Based Questions
Click here to visit www.thedentalhub.org.in
Momt Gautam
Gaurav Anand
TARGET MDS
TARGET MDS
Mohit Gautam bds mds

Conservative Dentistry and Endodontics

Sri Guru Ram Das Institute of Dental Sciences and Research
Director, Academist TARGET MDS Pvt. Ltd.
Amritsar, Punjab, India
Gaurav Anand bds

Genesis Institute of Dental Sciences and Research
Ferozepur, Punjab, India
Director, Academist TARGET MDS Pvt. Ltd.
Amritsar, Punjab, India
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TARGET MDS: Image Based Questions

First Edition: 2017
ISBN: 978-93-86261-66-3
Dedication
To Our Beloved Parents and Family
Smt. Utemi Devi
Shri Chander Shekhar Gautam
Smt. Shashi Sharma
—Mohit Gautam

Shri Subhash Anand
Smt. Chander Kanta
Dr. Aekant Anand
—Gaurav Anand
Preface
From the vast array of our MDS-Book Series to our Facebook group TARGET-MDS to the nation’s leading Academist
TARGET MDS Test Series, we have achieved a high watermark of being the most reliable and trusted brand for MDS
Entrance exams.
We, on behalf of the entire team, take the purpose of thanking one and all who have contributed to the backbone in
our success.
The national MDS Entrance exams have been hit by a lot of changes: from AIPGDE, State CETs, COMEDK to a single
Entrance Exam NEET MDS to be conducted by NBE. So, adapting to the ever-changing exam patterns is the need of the
time.
We are back on the tick with yet another Blockbuster release of the year, our brand new book TARGET MDS: Image
Based Questions.
The book has been written gingerly keeping in view the modern exam pattern with mickle stress laid on the clinical
subjects. Every effort has been made to keep the content extremely limpid and high yielding. Terse and condign
explanations from standard reference books will definitely make your reading an easy and time-saving task. It is a choate
guide to the flummoxing exam and is especially designed to incite your acumen in solving each question with a rational
reckoning.
We are sure this “Maverick Version” will wipe away all your anxieties stirred up by the sudden changes in exam
pattern and will buttress your aplomb by easy-to-revise exam-oriented points. With this, we are extremely happy to place
our new work in your hands.

Wishing you all the success for the upcoming exam.
Please do bolster our endeavors with your extremely valuable feedback.
Mohit Gautam
Gaurav Anand
Acknowledgments
First and foremost, we must acknowledge and thank the Almighty God for blessing, protecting and guiding us throughout
this period.
We are very grateful to Dr. Vivek Mahajan and Dr. Anagh Malhotra for their excellent suggestions and invaluable
ideas during the making of this book.
We express our gratitude to Dr. Sunaina Sood, Dr. Samita Gumber, Dr. Snigdha Sharma, Dr. Heena Ramnani,
Dr. Lisha Thakur, Dr. Sandeep Bhullar, Dr. Richa Arora, Dr. Pallavi Goel, Dr. Tarun Mahajan, Dr. Hansa Kundu,
Dr. Umesh Joshi, Dr. Amit Gupta, Dr. Devanshu Narang, Dr. Garima, Dr. Maninder Singh, Dr. Kanika Kapoor,
Dr. Navdeep Walia, Dr. Pankaj Gupta, Dr. Angad Singh, Dr. Nikhil Sharma, Dr. Gauri, Dr. Pallavi Gupta, Dr. Meenakshi
Jindal, Dr. Gagandeep, Dr. Rahul Wadhera, Dr. Krishan Jain, who helped us in numerous ways to bring out this book.
Thanks to whole TARGET MDS team for providing us all the papers.
Last but not the least, we thank Mr Jitendar P Vij (Group Chairman), Mr Ankit Vij (Group President) and
Ms Chetna Malhotra Vohra (Associate Director–Content Strategy) of Jaypee Brothers Medical Publishers (P) Ltd.,
New Delhi, India for giving us a go-ahead at the very beginning and helping us in every way possible to bring out this
book.

Contributors
Dr. Jitendra Sharan
MDS Orthodontics, AIIMS
Dr. Devashish
MDS—Pedodontics, PGIMER, Chandigarh, PGI June 2012 (Rank 4th), AIIMS May 2012 (Rank 4th—Orthodontics—left),
AIPG 2012 (AIR-40, KGMG Pedo—left), BHU 2012 (Rank 10th), AIPG 2011 (Rank 120, GDC Trivandrum—Periodontics—left),
PGI Dec. 2010 (Rank 2nd), AIIMS Nov. 2010 (Rank 13th) (Ex-Junior Resident, nonacademic-AIIMS), Punjab Govt. 2010
(Rank 8th).
Dr. Arun Joseph Dr. Deepika Ghai Dr. Vanashree Takane

AIPG 2014 Rank 1st PG Endodontics PG Orthodontics
Dr. Cathrine Diana Dr. Harshdeep Singh Dr. Bharat Ahuja
AIPG 2014 Rank 5th PG Endodontics MDS Endodontics
Dr. Paul Mathai Dr. Sukhmandeep Dr. Vishal Taneja
AIPG 2014 Rank 6th PG Endodontics PCMS
Dr. Mohit Galani Dr. Mintoo Dhingra Dr. Vishal Kakar
AIPG 2014 Rank 7th PG Endodontics PG Periodontics
Dr. Meghna Sapra Dr. Varun Nayyar

Dr. Urvi Modi
PG Endodontics PG Prosthodontics
AIPG 2014 Rank 11th
Dr. Ankur Sharma
Dr Abhishek Kumar Dr. Sohail Arora
PG Endodontics
AIPG 2014 Rank 15th (3rd Rank - PGI June 2014)
Dr. Tawanpreet Kaur PG Orthodontics
Dr. Rani Rana Bhatt PG Endodontics
AIPG 2014 Rank 20th & UPPG 2014 Dr. Harpreet Singh
Dr. Nidhi Goel PG Pedodontics
Rank 1st
MDS Endodontics
Dr. Nisarg Yagnik Dr. Vikram Sohar
Dr. Mohammad Akheel
AIPG 2014 Rank 38th PG Prosthodontics
MDS Oral Surgery
Dr. Shraddha Saini Dr. Utkarsh Passi
Dr. IbadatPreet
AIPG 2014 Rank 71th PG Pedodontics
MDS Endodontics
Dr. Bhumika Kapoor Dr. Shewta Gupta
Dr. Jyoti Kumar Jha
AIPG 2014 Rank 104th PG Oral Surgery
AIIMS Nov 2013 Rank 28th
Dr. Vivek Malik Dr. Rajpari Kamil Dr. Navdeep Attri
AIPG 2014 Rank 120th & PGI December PGI December 2013 3rd Rank PG Prosthodontics
2013 4th Rank Dr. Ashutosh Vatsyayan Dr. Priyanka Gauba
Dr. Arpit Sikri PG Oral Surgery PG Prosthodontics
PG Prosthodontics Dr. Gourav Ahuja Dr. Deepika Sharma
Dr. Muni Madhav Sharma MDS Oral Surgery PG Endodontics
AIPG 2014 Rank 135th & Ex AIIMS JR Dr. Nitin Mahajan Dr. Gaganpreet
Non Acad PG Oral Surgery PG Oral Surgery PG Endodontics
Dr. Navneet Arora Dr. Harit Talwar Dr. Harshpreet
PG Endodontics PG Prosthodontics PG Endodontics
When Inspiration Speaks
Most importantly ‘Believe in God’ and pray for a rank and seat which you wish to get.... Study
hard.... Some day we will study 13 hours and, the other day, we may study 3 or 4 hours only...it
does not matter...do not get confused about what to read.... Keep studying....Most important are
the dental and medical previous papers....A Book like TARGET MDS is trustworthy and superb....
keeping going....GOD BLESS YOU ALL....
Dr. Arun Joseph
AIPG 2014 Rank 1
First of all I want to congratulate the entire TARGET MDS team on the publication of the AIIMS
book and also want to thank them to have let me write a recommendation. I personally do not feel
that this book requires any recommendation from anybody cause its a recommendation into
itself. Anybody who has read the book will know that it is a thoroughly reviewed and comprehensive
book. A very few of them are there in the market today, and even fewer are as simple and yet as
informative as this one. A very good feature that I found out during my preparation days was that
the different forms of one question were all given together which was really a time saver in those
crucial days and it saved me a lot of hassle of sorting them out myself. Also the TARGET MDS team
is very prompt and helpful towards resolving queries of the aspirants. I just wish them all the best
and hope that they continue doing the great job that they are.

Dr. Vishwendra Singh
PGI 2014 Rank 2
Rx
Tab. TARGET MDS -------- Recipe for success
1-1-1 × 365 days
Dr. Paul Mathai
Manipal 2014 Rank 1
KLE2014 Rank 2
MHT CET 2014 Rank 3
AIPG2014 Rank 6
ASSO 2014 Rank 7
COMEDK 2014 Rank 8
Hello Students, for any aspiring PG student, authentic answers with good references are a dire need.
I think TARGET MDS team has done very true to their part. Also along with dental, they are
providing medical papers of recent years which are an icing on the cake.
Dr. Mohit Galani
AIPG 2014 Rank 7
I must say that this is an excellent book. It aided me a lot during my last minute preparation.
I recommend all of you that you should get hold of it at least once.
Dr. Chanchal Gupta
AIIMS Nov. 2013 Rank 3
xiv TARGET MDS: Image Based Questions
I have told this to many juniors personally but would like to mention here as well: TARGET
MDS books were very helpful for my PG preparation alot many controversial questions with
different versions have been discussed nicely which helps in clearing the concepts. I would highly
recommend it to all the PG aspirants. Good work TARGET MDS.
Dr. Urvi Modi
AIPG 2014 Rank 2
Hello Readers, at the onset I extend my heartiest thanks to the authors of TARGET MDS for bringing
out such a wonderful AIIMS series. TARGET MDS had been extremely useful to me throughout
the process of my preparation for postgraduate exams. Especially useful and worth praising is
the different version of questions discussed so nicely in the face of controversial and perplexing
questions.
I highly recommend this book as a must to read guide to all the aspirants looking up for
cracking AIIMS and AIPG exams this year. I am also grateful to the authors for extending their help
for solving my doubts and queries whenever I needed it. I also recommend every PG aspirant to
join the wonderful group TARGET MDS on the Facebook.
Thanks once again.
NISARG S YAGNIK
AIPG 2014 Rank 38
TARGET MDS book was really helpful in my MDS preparation. The way they presented the
controversial questions, different ways in which such questions can be fabricated and the inclusion
of standard references would help everyone to be clear about that topic.
I hope the book will be even better and would help the aspirants to achieve their dream goal

MDS.
Dr. Abhilash Radhakrishan
AIPG 2014 Rank 61
Right book to start with, blend of all recent papers, nowhere else to search for, jadibooti to success....
this book has been a boon to me that made my dream into a REALITY...have it and fulfill it.....
All the Best...
Dr. Shraddha Saini
AIPG 2014 Rank 71
COMEDK Rank 23
Hardwork is the key to success but handwork in the right direction is even more important.
Also being consistent and having faith in GOD is inevitable. I would love to thank the authors of
TARGET MDS book for their best efforts. The best part of this book is authenticity of the questions.
The authors have tried their level best to maintain same language of questions that come in exam.
I congratulate them for their sincere efforts.
Dr. Bhumika Kapoor
AMU 2014 Rank 3, PGI June 2013 Rank 10
AIPG 2014 Rank 104 and COMEDK 2014 Rank 92
Success Story
I commence by whole-heartedly thanking God, my parents, teachers and everyone who has been
a part of this challenging journey. I especially thank the Academist TARGET MDS Test series for
providing all the recent exam papers even before they were available in the market. It saved a lot of
time and money and tension.
The mantra of my success is DEDICATION, FOCUS, PERSISTENCE and CONFIDENCE; as a
result, I got All India Rank 18 and able to bag my dream seat.
For all the aspirants, I would say... “if I can do it, you too can”. I had been an average student
during my BDS when one incident pushed my limits and I started studying seriously and regularly. As
a result, I secured a university rank in final year and that proved to be a turning and motivating point in my life. I started
studying for MDS entrance exam. Initially, I did not know what all to study and how to study. I have learned everything
through my experience and hence sharing my journey with you all.
My strategies included:
1. Strict schedule which I followed religiously. My schedule included NBDE papers in the morning, subject reading
from standard textbooks and doing related MCQs during the day and solving previous year question papers in the
evening. I followed a holistic approach for my entrance exams which not only increased my knowledge of subjects
but also gave me confidence.
2. Always aim for big and do not doubt yourself. REMEMBER, it is YOUR dream…YOU have to nurture it and YOU
have to make it come true. Do not compromise on your worth and ability. Always stay MOTIVATED and do NOT let

anything and anyone come in between you and YOUR DREAM SEAT.
3. Read standard textbooks and make your own notes, esp. All the important topics and the ones repeatedly asked in
exams. It will help you to solve any type of controversia,l image-based, a conceptual as well as twisted questions.
4. REVISE as much as you can.
5. Keep giving mock tests. I had joined online test series of the ACADEMIST TARGET MDS test series. Their unique
pattern of tests but its not what the coaching institutes teach you that matters, it is YOUR SELF STUDY that takes you
to the level of success.
I studied for 12–14 hrs a day regularly, gave proper time to all the subjects, clinicals, para clinicals and non-clinicals
because, in Entrance exam, each MCQ matters. I gave tests regularly, evaluating my mistakes and working on my weak
areas.
Conclusion: During your preparation, you will face lots of challenges, difficulties and hurdles. You might fail in one
exam. There will be lot of mental pressure, negative thoughts and self doubts.
Remember: PAIN IS TEMPORARY AND GLORY IS FOREVER.. Just do not lose HOPE and PERSISTENCE and keep
praying... .
“When things go wrong as sometimes they will, rest if you must but don’t you quit.
Life is queer with its twists and turns, but this is how we all learn.
Don’t give up though the pace seems slow, you may succeed with another blow.
Because you can never tell how close you are, it may be near when it seems so far.
So, stick to the fight when you are hardest hit,
It’s when things seem worst that you must never quit.”
With all the best wishes and thanking you all.
Dr. Shikha Tayal
OMFS, GDCH, Nagpur
Inspiring Story
“A journey of thousand miles begins with a single step”.
Sharing my success story, to begin with, I would like to highlight few things that encouraged me
throughout my journey. I always wondered how hard the people might be working to get into their
dream institute like PGI and AIIMS. I also made my daily schedule and started preparing accordingly.
Giving equal time to each and every subject (especially clinicians). Making notes and highlighting the
important points helped me a lot. Try to convert your weakness into strength. I would say consistency
is the key to success. As it happened in my case, I was consistent throughout my whole journey, which
was a bit longer than I thought. Gave my first exam, AIIMS Nov 2013, got 1071 Rank, Gave my last exam, PGI June 2016,
Got 1st rank. Number of things happened with me during this 3 years time span that really helped me to reach my goal.
Firm determination, consistency and flexibility were my key to success making my daily schedule, following it regularly,
before going to bed: 15-20 minutes revision of what I read whole day, helped me in quicker and easier grasping of things.
Making notes from standard textbooks and other MCQs books helped me in better understanding and simplified the
things just before exams. You must learn from your mistakes, you must push yourself towards your goal, as push itself
says: Persist until something happens.
I would like to share my few ranks, which in the trust sense where not failure. But, a pathway to my success.
To my success
AIIMS May 2013 - 1071, AIPG 2014 - 621
AIIMS May 2014 - 150, AIPG 2015 - 355

AIIMS May 2015 - 49, AIIMS Nov 2015 - 52
PGI Nov 2005 - 17
Things which I learnt from all these:
• Focus on current trend of exam pattern
• Try to attempt max. no. of questions
• More focus on standard textbooks
• Try to know the source from where question is a direct lift.
Thus, I owe my success to the Almighty, to all my family members, to all my friends who encouraged me throughout
my journey. Special thanks to all members of TARGET MDS group who were supportive and also encouraged me a lot.
Lohit Malik (PGI, Oral and Maxillofacial Surgery)
PGI June 2014 - Rank 8
AIIMS Nov 2014 - Rank 6
AIPG Dec 2015 - Rank 39
“Some people succeed because they are destined, But most, Because they are Determined”.
Lohit Malik
Academist TARGET MDS Test Series
Why to join TARGET MDS?
•• BEST MDS ACADEMY with proven results.
•• Maximum number of selections in every exam. In PGI June 2016, first three rankers from TARGET MDS. In AIIMS
May 2016, 14 students got rank and, in AIPG 2016, 60 students (out of 200) got ranks.
•• Maximum numbers of tests (almost 150 tests)
•• 50 image-based test
•• Testing software is same as AIIMS and AIPG. Enjoy the real feel of exams.
•• All the recent papers will be provided to our students, like AIIMS Sr-Ship papers, PGI June 2017 paper and AIIMS
May 2017 papers.
•• TARGET MDS AIIMS is the best selling book. TARGET MDS PGI is the only book in the market containing last ten-
year papers.
Register for SCHOLARS batch at: targetmds.in
New batch starting every month for your convenience.

Online Course
•• Online test along with the soft copy and explanation material. Contact us:
e-mail: targetmdstestseries@gmail.com
•• Discussion at our Facebook group or exclusive Whatsapp group.
website: www.targetmds.in
•• Picturep-based subjectwise tests based on new trending pattern. Mobile: 9876317850
•• Online videos and discussion direct. Whatsapp: 9465380478

Regular Course
•• Online test along with the soft copy and explanation material
•• Hard copies of all the test provided at your home address
•• Exclusive Whatsapp group and Live video lectures and discussion.
•• Discussion at our Facebook group or exclusive Whatsapp group.
•• Picture-based subjectwise tests based on new trending pattern.
Supreme Course
•• For distant students who want only exclusive subjectwise study material without hard copies of the test.
•• Online test along with soft copy and explanation material.
•• Hard copies of the online test that will be sent directly to your home address.
•• Subjectwise picture-based tests based on new pattern.
•• Exclusive Whatsapp group and Live video lectures and discussion.
Premium Course
•• For distant students who want subjectwise study material with hard copies of the online test
•• Online test along with soft copy and explanation material.
•• Hard copies of the online test that will be sent directly to your home address.
•• Exclusive subjectwise study material that will be sent to your address.
•• A supplement copy of either TARGET MDS AIIMS/or TARGET MDS AIPG.
•• Subjectwise picture-based tests based on new pattern.
•• Online Live videos, lectures and discussion.
Note: ` 1000/- flat discount if you are enrolling after buying this book + Free Mock Test available on www.targetmds.in
Our centers are all over India.
xx TARGET MDS: Image Based Questions
Join Us on Facebook
For any queries and doubts, join our Facebook group: TARGET MDS.
Link for our group.
http://www.facebook.com/groups/targetmds2425/
Be a part of us in TARGET MDS by contributing Dental PG Entrance exam question, papers, finding reference page
numbers for questions from recent-edition standard textbooks and controversial questions. Those who want to give
suggestion are most welcome. We request our readers to continue sending their suggestions to us for future improvement
for the benefit of their friends, juniors and other future dental colleagues.
Contact us:
•• Mobile: +91-9465380478, +91-9876317850
•• Facebook group: TARGET MDS
•• e-mail: targetmdsaiims@gmail.com
•• website: targetmds.in; waytotargetmds.com
Best wishes
Team, TARGET MDS

Academist TARGET MDS Pvt. Ltd.
We congratulate our test series students for wonderful ranks. All the ranks are bagged by ATM students in AIIMS, AIPG,
PGI and state exams. Heartiest congratulations to all of them.
AIPG 2015 Dec. Result

AIPG Rank Student’s Name ATM No.
4 (1st Rank OBC) Bikash Ranjan Das 424
9 Gaurav Pratap Singh 1249
14 Radhika A Jain 592
17 Ravathy Jayan 536
18 Shikha Tayal 145
22 Ritika 1546
23 Arpana Shekhawat 153
24 Praveen Kumar Singh 1366
31 Garima 1450
41 Pratibha Singh 451
47 Shah Trusha Pranav 1280
50 Nayantara Sud 1469
58 Mohammed Salman K 1243

59 Arunkumar Shadamarshan 539
60 Lohit Arora 1526
61 Sushmita Barik 1622
62 Neeteesh Shukla A 211
67 Jasmine 1161
68 Deshmukh Bhagyashree 1271
73 Nitisha Pal 388
75 Akanshya 28
83 Sawant Sanket Prabhakar 966
84 Toufiq Asad 159
88 Priyanka Yadav 1157
PGI June 2016 Result

PGI Rank Student’s Name ATM No.
1 Lohit Malik 479
2 Aman Kumar 1612
3 Pradip Bhavani 2408
5 Abhishek Choudhary 1305
xxii TARGET MDS: Image Based Questions
AIIMS May 2016 Result

Application No. Name of Candidate Ranking
1360 Kirti Jyoti 30
2221 Rupesh Sharma 17
1161 Jasmine 12
1546 Ritika 19
1379 Abhishek Jha 24
1804 Ritika Yadav 19
910 Anish Poorna 11
1848 Navleen Bhatia 9
400 Wakil Ahmed 7
2314 Abhijeet Ashok 6
1412 Sarita 3
2127 Mane Rohan Madhav Rao 4
1927 Manju Lata 22
157 Toufiq Asad 15

Testimonials
Gayatri Ganesh
6th Rank
AIPG 2015
Dedication and hardwork are certainly stepping stones to success. However, the right guidance is also extremely essential
to secure a good rank. TARGET books and test papers helped to provide a direction to my studies. The detailed answers
helped in understanding concepts and expedite the revision process.
Nisarg S Yagnik
AIPG 2014 Rank 38
Hello Readers, at the onset I extend my heartiest thanks to the authors of TARGET MDS for bringing out such a wonderful
series. TARGET MDS had been extremely useful to me throughout the process of my preparation for postgraduate exams.
Especially useful and worth praising is the different version of questions discussed so nicely in the face of controversial
and perplexing questions.
I highly recommend this book as a must to read guide to all the aspirants looking up for cracking AIIMS and AIPG
exams this year. I am also grateful to the authors for extending their help for solving my doubts and queries whenever
I needed it. I also recommend every PG aspirant to join the wonderful group TARGET-MDS on the Facebook.
Adrita Roy Chowdhury

20th Rank, AIPG 2015
Getting through an exam like AIPG among thousands of competitors requires POSITIVE SPIRIT, HARDWORK, SELF
CONFIDENCE and LUCK... . The key to study is selecting a good book and revising it N number of times... . I, myself, have
been extremely benifited by TARGET-MDS, which I studied the entire year... . And the TARGET supplement at the very end
was a cherry on the top... . So, a hearty congratulations to the TARGET family and all the best to all future aspirants!! As
APJ Abdul Kalam says, Excellence is a continuous process, not an accident.
Anoop Divakaran Pillai

Finally dreams come true… . AIPG 2015 Rank 88. Thanks to all who helped me to achieve this golden opportunity,
especially Almighty, my parents, and all my friends.
Arjun Dhanny
Thanks to all the guidance that I got from this group… . It was a complete necessity to get guidance for such as horrendous
exam… . Got All India Rank 186 though not an awesome rank or something, but I am thankful to all those people who
have been a part of this journey.
Bhaumikk Joshi
Got 202 UR
Thanks to TARGET MDS Facebook and Whatsapp group, Mohit and Gaurav Sir, you guys helping aspirants like me to
reach their goal.
Jiju Mohan
Thanks Almighty, got 34 in AIPG… . Thanks everyone in TARGET group for valuable discussions.
xxiv TARGET MDS: Image Based Questions
Meena Abhishek Singh

17th Rank, AIPG 2015
Let me take a breath before I share something here… . I always dreamed for this kind of rank… but was not sure enough
that I get it or not in this neck through competition… this group helped me a lot…. Two years back when I completed
my BDS... . I joined clinic due to which I couldn’t give much time to my preparation… and land up with a poor rank of
419 in 2014 AIPG… . Then I joined this group and find out that its very helpful to keep in mainstream preparation… and
finally I get what I want…regarding books… yes the basic books everyone know that … . Thanks to Almighty and thanks
to everyone in this journey of my success... my better half… my parents…best friends and all the members of this group.
Thanks to Mohit Gautam Sir, Gaurav Anand Sir.
Still cannot believe… thank God…rank 17, thank to TARGET MDS group for the discussion and support… thanks to
all members of this group.
Meera Vijaykumar
It feels like a dream comes true…thank you TARGET MDS group for guiding me through the right path.
Naveen Jain
TARGET in Facebook, TARGET in Whatsapp is same as target of my life ALL INDIA PG DENTAL ENTRANCE EXAM.
Thank you Mohit sir, thank you TARGET… for helping me to achieve my target … general rank 104.
Naveeta Yadav
I am thankful to the entire TARGET MDS to make it possible for aspirants to interact and inspire each other on such a big
scale. Thank you Gaurav Anand Sir and Mohit Gautam Sir for your contributions to make it to 139 AIR.

Neha Ghai
Guys… I am really thankful to you people… you have made it possible for us… . Your group has inspired the aspirants, has
kept the spirit of competition alive everytime…hats off…read it the most at last moment… . I do not know about others
but it really worked out for me… . Once again thanks… .
Parul Dadhich
Hello all…Thanks TARGET Group…secured 176 rank in AIPG (your category) both the TARGET MDS supplement
books contributed to this success… and your practicing questions helped me to clear exam with overall 5th rank.
Rajpari Kamil
First of all, I would like to thank God for his blessings as 65 rank in AIPG and secondly my family and friends, specially
TARGET MDS group. For constant source of encouragement during preparation time, we faces lots of controversial
questions, so book we follow become more important than our effort. So reading selected reliable book like TARGET
MDS help me in achieving my goal. And special thanks and to Mohit Gautam and whole team of TARGET MDS for their
excellence.
Dr. Shweta Sharma

TARGET MDS Facebook group and books are major part of my success, thank you Sir for your help…
Facebook group especially made me aware of what I can not get in books, especially controversial questions..
Thanks to Gaurav Anand and Mohit Gautam Sir, all TARGET MDS group members… you all proved a guiding light to me.
Sourav Maji
As Mohit Gautam Sir asked me to share a few words…
Testimonials xxv
I don’t know what words I can put forward for you all! My brain is handed right now !! Still I am writing whatever
comes in mind. I think this PG rankings are representation of multiple factors… of those are:
a) Luck
b) Commitment
c) Hardwork
d) A stable mind
e) Correct and logical answer selection
f ) Identification of limitations and practical planning to overcome those.
g) Proper book/material selection (like I have said earlier in TARGET MDS group that TARGET MDS book is the best
book in the market in terms of specific material representation and overview of broader preparation).
This list will never complete because every success is different and no two success strategies are similar… One
must build his own strategy with keeping in mind time available, limitations, materials available and repetition of the
whole process… and, at the end, God is there and there is life apart from PG preparations. We should not forget that
the greatest asset we have is our Health, Family and Friends. I want to end by saying a quote that motivates me during
every success or defeat: “We may not end where we desired to be, but we will definitely end where we are needed the
most”.
God Bless Us All
Varsha Budakoti
Hi everyone, firstly congratulations to all the rank holders… . It was a difficult road for me to clear this exam in my first
shot, I started my preparation in April during my internship and gave me Ist exam in Nov AIIMS 14; after getting 77 rank.
there I genuinely doubled my work for all India and finally I am in… its 99% hardwork and 1% luck helped me to achieve
what I am today… . I want to thank TARGET MDS as there online test series helped me to know how well my preparation

is… definitely this FB group… . Seriously according to me, right direction is very important to clear the entrance… . It
is not about what 20% you study but is about what 80% you leave…always remember your way is the best way, only you
can think best for yourself… regarding books TARGET has provided a jumble up of all the important questions and
especially the controversial question… .
Lastly, I think clearing the exam is total mathematics you should circulate what all subjects carry more weightage of
question like dental material, oral pathology and have to plan your study accordingly. I believe that if I can clear it in my
first attempt definitely you all can… . All the very best for your upcoming exams… .
Viebhav Sehay
My trust with MDS Entrance exams.
•• AIIMS Nov 12 — Rank 183
•• AIPG 13—Rank 273
•• AIIMS no. 13—Rank 39
•• AIPG 14 — Rank 306
•• PGI June 14 — Rank 18
•• AIIMS Nov 14 — Rank 4
•• AIPG 15 — Rank 21
I am ready to help any aspiring candidate in every way possible for me… . A big thank you to this wonderful group.
This is an amazing platform to keep yourself focused and motivated throughout.
All the best to everyone and thanks for the sincere wishes.
Contents
1. Conservative Dentistry and Endodontics 1
2. Prosthodontics 16
3. Oral and Maxillofacial Surgery 31
4. Periodontics 51
5. Pedodontics 71
6. Orthodontics 88
7. Oral Medicine 104
8. Oral Radiology 119
9. Oral Pathology 140
10. Dental Anatomy 162
11. Dental Materials 178
MCQs from Recent AIIMS/AIPG/NBDE Papers 193
Miscellaneous Questions 206

Chapter 1
1-
Conservative Dentistry j
o
and Endodontics a>
LU
03
HHBHB
1. Identify the equipment present in the color plate. a. Rubber dam sheet b. Mylar strip
c. Composite dam sheet d. Saliva absorber
Ans a. Rubber dam sheet
4. Identify the equipment present in the color plate.

a. Electric pulp tester b. Apex locator
c. Pathfinder d. Obturator
Ans a. Electric pulp tester
a. Rubber dam clamp
2. Identify the equipment present in the color plate. b. Rubber dam frame
c. Rubber dam punch
d. Rubber dam stamp
CD
Ans a. Rubber dam clamp
LU
5. Identify the equipment present in the color plate .
03
a. Magnifying loupes b. Endoscope
c. Surgical glasses d. Laser protector
Ans a. Magnifying loupes CD
3. Identify the equipment present in the color plate .

a. Rubber dam clamp
b. Rubber dam frame CO
c. Rubber dam punch
d. Rubber dam stamp
Ans b. Rubber dam frame
2 TARGET MDS: Image Based Questions
6. Identify the equipment present in the color plate. a. Golden proportion gauge
b. Michel proportion gauge
c. Optimal proportion gauge
d. Relative proportion gauge
Ans a. Golden proportion gauge
a. Rubber dam clamp 10. Identify the equipment present in the color plate.
b. Rubber dam frame
c. Rubber dam punch
d. Rubber dam stamp
Ans c. Rubber dam punch
a. Tooth slooth
b. Agate spatula
c. Amalgam dispenser
d. Composite dispenser
Ans a. Tooth slooth
A unique pain response to chewing experienced by many
patients is the pain that occurs when they release the pres-
sure of biting, variously referred to as ‘‘rebound’’ or ‘‘relief’’
pain. This response can be duplicated diagnostically by
a. Rubber dam clamp
having the patient bite on a moist cotton roll/tooth sloth
b. Rubber dam frame and if ‘‘rebound’’ pain occurs on release, it is very likely
c. Rubber dam punch

that one of the two teeth, maxillary or mandibular, has an
d. Rubber dam stamp infraction.
Ans d. Rubber dam stamp 11. Following endodontic treatment patient devel-
8. The image depicts which of following concept? oped severe pain and ecchymosis as seen in the
color plate. What can be the cause?
a. Golden proportion
b. Michel proportion
c. Optimal proportion
d. Relative proportion a. Postsurgical ecchymosis
b. Sodium hypochlorite injection
Ans a. Golden proportion
c. Air emphysema
9. Identify the equipment present in the color plate. d. Herpes labialis activation
Ans b. Sodium hypochlorite injection
Accidental injection of NaOCl into the periapical tissues
is an experience that neither the patient nor the practi-
tioner will soon forget. The literature contains numerous
case reports describing the morbidity associated with
Conservative Dentistry and Endodontics 3
such occurrences. A NaOCl accident refers to any event in Extreme curvature of the root canal can be difficult for the
which NaOCl is expressed beyond the apex of a tooth and most experienced clinician to manage. The use of anticur-
the patient immediately manifests some combination of vature filing and nickel titanium files can help avoid strip
the following symptoms: perforations and ledging.
• Severe pain, even in areas that were previously anes- 15. The diagram presented here depicts which of the
thetized for dental treatment. following rule?
• Swelling.
• Profuse bleeding, both interstitially and through the
tooth.
a. Roach carver b. Le Cron carver a. Simon’s rule b. Clark’s rule

c. Duscoid-cleoid carver d. Simon carver c. Wilson’s rule d. Bose’s rule
Ans a. Roach carver Ans b. Clark’s rule

In endodontic therapy, it is imperative that the clinician
13. The radiograph is suggestive of which of following know the spatial or buccal-lingual relation of an object
dental anomaly? within the tooth or alveolus. The technique used to iden-
tify the spatial relation of an object is called the cone or
tube shift technique. Other names for this procedure are
the buccal object rule, Clark’s rule, and the SLOB (same

lingual, opposite buccal) rule. Proper application of the
technique allows the dentist to locate additional canals
or roots, to distinguish between objects that have been
superimposed and between various types of resorption,
to determine the buccal-lingual position of fractures and
perforative defects, to locate foreign bodies, and to locate
a. Dens in dente b. Dens evaginatus anatomic landmarks in relation to the root apex, such as
c. Dilaceration d. Taurodontism the mandibular canal.
Ans a. Dens in dente 16. Which of the following condition is present in this
radiograph?
14. The radiograph is suggestive of which of following
dental anomaly?
a. Internal resorption
b. External resorption
a. Dens in dente b. Dens evaginatus c. Cervial resorption
c. Dilaceration d. Taurodontism d. Apical resorption
Ans c. Dilaceration Ans a. Internal resorption
17. Which of the following condition is present in this a. Handidam b. Teflon dam
radiograph?
c. Plasti-isolate d. Optra dam
Ans a. Handidam
The handidam is a rubber dam system with built-in plastic
frame. The disposable frame bends easily for film place-
ment
a. Internal resorption
b. External resorption
c. Cervical resorption a. Roach carver b. Le Cron carver
d. Apical resorption c. Discoid cleoid carver d. Simon carver
Ans b. External resorption Ans b. Le Cron carver
18. Which of the following modality is present in this
22. Identify the technique presented in the color plate.
radiograph?

a. Split dam technique
a. RVG
b. Three-in-one technique
b. FOTI
c. Clampless technique
c. CBCT
d. Clamped technique
d. Magnetic frequency imaging
Ans a. Split dam technique
Ans a. RVG
The split-dam technique may be used to isolate anterior
19. Identify the equipment present in the color plate. teeth without using a rubber dam clamp. Not only is this
technique useful when there is insufficient crown struc-
ture, as in the case of horizontal fractures, but it also pre-
vents the possibility of the jaws of the clamp chipping
a. Roach carver b. Le Cron carver the margins of teeth restored with porcelain crowns or
c. Discoid cleoid carver d. Simon carver laminates. Studies on the effects of retainers on porcelain-
fused-to-metal restorations and tooth structure itself have
Ans c. Discoid cleoid carver demonstrated that there can be significant damage to cer-
20. Identify the equipment presented in the color plate. vical porcelain, as well as to dentin and cementum, even
when the clamp is properly stabilized. Thus, for teeth with
porcelain restorations ligation with dental floss is recom-
mended as an alternate method to retract the dam and tis-
sues, or the adjacent tooth can be clamped. In the split-dam
method, two overlapping holes are punched in the dam. A
cotton roll is placed under the lip in the mucobuccal fold
over the tooth to be treated. The rubber dam is stretched
over the tooth to be treated and over one adjacent tooth on
each side. The edge of the dam is carefully teased through 26. Identify the equipment shown in the color plate.
the contacts on the distal sides of the two adjacent teeth.
Dental floss helps carry the dam down around the gingiva.
The tension produced by the stretched dam, aided by the
rubber dam frame, secures the dam in place. The tight fit
and the cotton roll produce a relatively dry field. If the dam a. Articulating paper forceps
has a tendency to slip, a premolar clamp may be used on b. Locking forceps
a tooth distal to the three isolated teeth, or even on an c. Stieglitz pliers
adjacent tooth. The clamp is placed over the rubber dam, d. Tissue holding forceps
which then acts as a cushion against the jaws of the clamp. Ans b. Locking forceps
23. Identify the equipment shown in the color plate. 27. Identify the equipment present in the color plate.
a. Gutta-Percha cone
b. Gutta-Percha stick
c. Gutta-Percha points
d. Paper points
a. Tiger clamp b. Cat-paw clamp Ans d. Paper points
c. Universal clamp d. Incisor clamp
28. Identify the name of test being performed with

Ans a. Tiger clamp Gutta-Percher cone in the color plate.
24. Identify the equipment shown in the color plate.
a. Articulating paper forceps

b. Locking forceps
c. Stieglitz pliers a. Thermal test b. Test cavity
d. Tissue holding forceps c. Cold test d. EPT
Ans a. Articulating paper forceps Ans a. Thermal test
25. Identify the equipment present in the color plate. 29. Identify the equipment present in the color plate.
a. Composite placement instrument

b. Cement spatula
c. Spoon excavator
d. Hatchet
Ans a. Composite placement instrument
a. Silicone stop dispenser the prepared root canal. Using excessive force may either
b. Needle cutter perforate the canal or fracture the instrument. The Gates-
c. Needle dispenser Glidden drill is designed to break high on the shaft if exces-
d. Glass bead sterilizer sive resistance is encountered, allowing the clinician to
easily remove the fragment.
Ans a. Silicone stop dispenser
33. Identify the instrument present in the color plate.
a. Gates-Glidden drill
b. Pesso reamer
c. Piezoelectric drill
d. Piezoelectric scaler
a. Electric pulp tester b. Apex locator Ans b. Pesso reamer

c. Pathfinder d. Obturator
34. Identify the type of needle present in the color
Ans b. Apex locator plate.

a. Barbed broach a. Irrigating needle
b. File b. Hypodermal needle
c. Reamer c. Submucosal needle
d. Gutta-Percha remover d. Aspiration needle
Ans a. Barbed broach Ans a. Irrigating needle
32. Identify the instrument present in the color plate. 35. Identify the instrument present in the color plate.
a. Gates-Glidden drill
b. Pesso reamer
c. Piezoelectric bur
d. Piezoelectric scaler a. Barbed broach
b. File
Ans a. Gates-Glidden drill
c. Reamer
Rotary instruments are used principally as flaring devices
d. Gutta-Percha remover
for the coronal portion of the canal. The most common
is the Gates-Glidden drill. Sized in increasing diameters Ans d. Gutta-Percha remover
from no. 1 through no. 6, the Gates-Glidden should be used This device breaks up and removes Gutta-Percha from the
in a passive manner to enlarge the canal orifice and flare canal, facilitating retreatment procedures.
36. Identify the instrument in the color plate. 39. Identify the instrument in the color plate.
a. Hatchet b. Chisel
c. Hoe d. Osteotome
a. RC spreader b. RC plugger
Ans a. Hatchet
c. Williams probe d. Endo explorer
40. The cross-section represented in the color plate
Ans a. RC preader
belongs to which of the following?
Specialized instruments used in obturating the root
canal with Gutta-Percha include spreaders and plungers.
Spreaders are available in a wide variety of lengths and
tapers and are used primarily in the lateral condensation
technique to compact Gutta-Percha filling material.
37. Identify the instrument in the color plate.
a. Flex-R b. K-flex
a. RC spreader
c. Hedstrom d. Unifile
b. RC plugger
c. Williams probe Ans c. Hedstrom
d. Endo explorer 41. The cross-section represented in the color plate

Ans b. RC plugger belongs to which of the following?
Specialized instruments used in obturating the root canal
with Gutta-Percha include spreaders and pluggers. Plug-
gers, also called condensers, are flat-ended rather than
pointed and are used primarily to compact filling materi-
als in a vertical fashion.
38. The following canal anatomy image represents

anatomy of which tooth?
a. Flex-R b. K-flex
Ans d. Unifile
a. Maxillary molar
b. Mandibular molar
c. Mandibular premolar
d. Maxillary premolar
Ans b. Mandibular molar
42. The diagrammatic representation depicts which 44. Identify the equipment in the color plate.
of following canal preparation method?
a. H-file b. K-file
c. K-flex file d. Barbed broach
Ans a. H-file
45. According to Ellis classification system, trauma to

21 is classified as?
a. Watch winding
b. Balanced force motion
c. Step down
d. Anti-curvature
Ans a. Watch winding
a. Class 1 b. Class 2
43. The diagrammatic representation depicts which
of the following canal preparation method? c. Class 3 d. Class 4
Ans c. Class 3

b. Cement spatula
c. Spoon excavator
a. Watch winding
d. Hatchet
b. Balanced force motion
c. Step down Ans b. Cement spatula
d. Anticurvature 47. The image represents which of the following?
Ans b. Balanced force motion
a. HBSS b. Viaspan
c. Cold milk d. Stem cell culture
Ans a. HBSS
A system has been developed to transport avulsed teeth

that cannot readily be replanted at the site of the injury.
SAVE-ATOOTH (Biological Rescue Products, Consho-
hocken, Pa.) contains a basket in which the teeth are sus-
pended in HBSS, thus providing an optimal storage and
transport medium. These small containers may be pur-
chased and kept at sites such as schools, gymnasiums,
sports facilities, emergency vehicles, and homes to be
used if the need arises
51. Identify the feature shown in the color plate.

a. Nerve retractor
b. Carr retractor
c. Selden retractor
d. Arens tissue retractor
Ans b. Carr retractor
49. The diagrammatic representation of root canal

morphology depicts which type of Vertucci’s clas-
a. Palatal groove
sification?
b. Vertical root fracture
c. Dens in dente

d. Root resorption
Ans a. Palatal groove
52. Identify the feature shown in the color plate.
a. Type III b. Type IV

c. Type VI d. Type VIII
Ans a. Type III
50. The diagrammatic representation of root canal

morphology depicts which type of Vertucci’s
classification?
a. Dens evaginatus
b. Cusp of carabelli
c. Leonag’s premolar
d. Mulbery molar
Ans b. Cusp of carabelli

a. Type III b. Type IV
c. Type VI d. Type VIII
Ans d. Type VIII
a. Barbed broach 56. Identify the kind of tooth defect presented in the
b. File color plate.
c. Apexum device
d. Gutta-Percha remover
Ans c. Apexum device
Simpler, approach has recently emerged with the devel-
opment of a device that allows enucleation of the periapi-
cal tissue, through the root canal and the apical foramen.
The Apexum TM protocol is applied just before root canal
obturation. Once cleaning, shaping, and disinfection of a. Abfraction b. Erosion
the root canal is completed, the apical foramen is enlarged
c. Abrasion d. Attrition
by passing a no. 35 rotary file to 1 to 2 mm beyond the
apex. This passage is used to insert a specially designed Ans c. Abrasion
nickel– titanium wire into the periapical tissue that rotates
and minces the tissue. 57. Identify the kind of tooth defect presented in the
color plate.
a. Abfraction b. Erosion
54. Identify the kind of tooth defect presented in the c. Abrasion d. Attrition

color plate.
Ans d. Attrition
a. Michigan probe b. CPIT-N probe
Ans a. Abfraction
c. WHO probe d. Williams probe
55. Identify the kind of tooth defect presented in the
color plate. Ans d. Williams probe
a. Hatchet b. Chisel
c. Abrasion d. Attrition c. Hoe d. Osteotome
Ans b. Erosion Ans b. Chisel

60. Identify the instrument in the color plate. 64. Identify the instrument present in the color plate.
a. Hatchet
b. Chisel
c. Angle former a. Amalgam capsule
d. Gingival marginal trimmer b. Amalgam condenser
c. Amalgam dispener
Ans d. Gingival marginal trimmer
61. Identify the instrument in the color plate. Ans c. Amalgam dispenser
a. Condenser b. Burnisher
c. Carver d. GMT
a. Hatchet Ans a. Condenser
b. Chisel
c. Angle former
d. Gingival marginal trimmer
Ans c. Angle former

a. Roach carver b. Le Cron carver
c. Discoid cleoid carver d. Vehe carver
Ans d. Vehe carver
a. Hatchet b. Chisel 67. Identify the instrument present in the color plate.
c. Hoe d. Osteotome
Ans c. Hoe
a. Condenser b. Burnisher
c. Carver d. GMT
Ans b. Burnisher
a. Tooth slooth
b. Agate spatula
c. Amalgam dispenor
Ans b. Agate spatula
a. Ivory 1 matrix retainer a. Separator b. Wedge

b. Ivory 8 matrix retainer c. Matrix strip d. Mylar strip
c. Tofflemire retainer
Ans b. Wedge
d. Ivory 7 matrix retainer
Ans a. Ivory 1 matrix retainer 73. Identify the type of wedging represented in the
color plate.
a. Ivory 1 matrix retainer

b. Ivory 8 matrix retainer
Ans b. Ivory 8 matrix retainer a. Double wedging
b. Wedge wedging technique
c. Piggy back wedging
d. Inverted wedging
Ans a. Double wedging
74. Identify the type of wedging represented in the

a. Ivory 1 matrix retainer
color plate
b. Ivory 8 matrix retainer

Ans c. Tofflemire retainer

a. Double wedging
b. Wedge wedging technique
a. Composi-tight ring d. Inverted wedging
b. Clampless separator Ans b. Wedge wedging technique
c. Matrix strip
d. Mylar strip 75. Identify the type of wedging represented in the
color plate.
Ans a. Composi-tight ring
a. Double wedging 79. Identify the instrument present in the color

b. Wedge wedging technique plate.
d. Inverted wedging
Ans c. Piggy back wedging
76. The color plate depicts which class of tooth pre-

a. Crown trial forceps
paration?
b. Crown remover
c. Crown crimper
d. Crown crusher
Ans a. Crown trial forceps
80. Identify the part of casting assembly marked with

question mark.
a. Class 1
b. Class 2
c. Class 3
d. Class 4
Ans c. Class 3

b. Cement spatula a. Sprue former
c. Excavator b. Crucible former
d. Hatchet c. Casting ring
Ans c. Excavator d. Wax pattern
Ans a. Sprue former
81. Identify the instrument present in the color
plate.
a. Miniplates a. Crown trial forceps

b. Amalgam capsules b. Crown remover
c. Amalgam globules c. Crown crimper
d. Amalgam pins d. Crown crusher
Ans d. Amalgam pins Ans b. Crown remover
82. The cross-section represented in the color plate 85. Identify the equipment present in the color plate.
a. Carbon fiber-reinforced epoxy resin post

b. Glass fiber-reinforced epoxy resin posts
c. Zirconia posts
a. Flex-R b. K-flex
d. Metal post
Ans a. Carbon fiber-reinforced epoxy resin post
Ans c. Hedstrom
83. The cross-section represented in the color plate

a. Carbon fiber-reinforced epoxy resin
a. Flex-R b. K-flex
c. Zirconia posts
Ans b. K-flex d. Metal post
84. Identify the material present in the color plate. Ans b. Glass fiber-reinforced epoxy resin posts
a. Carbon fiber-reinforced epoxy resin

a. Normal saline b. Ringers lactate c. Zirconia posts
c. Dextrose solution d. Hypochlorite d. Metal post
Ans a. Normal saline Ans c. Zirconia posts
88. The condition seen in the color plate is associated 89. Following extraction of mandibular teeth patient
with which of following? developed severe pain and ecchymosis as seen in
the color plate. What can be the cause?
a. External resorption
b. Internal resorption a. Postsurgical ecchymosis
c. Cervical resorption b. Sodium hypochlorie injection
d. Apical resorption c. Air emphysema
d. Herpes labialis activation
Ans b. Internal resorption.
Pink tooth of mummery. Ans a. Postsurgical ecchymosis

Chapter 2
1-
j
O
Prosthodontics a>
LU
03
HHBHB
1 . This edentulous arch is classified according to 3. This edentulous arch is classified according to
Kennedy classification as. Kennedy classification as.

V
c. Class 3 d. Class 4
Ans c. Class 3
Ans a. Class 1
A unilateral tooth bounded edentulous area
Class 1: Bilateral posterior edentulous areas
4. This edentulous arch is classified according to
2. This edentulous arch is classified according to CD
Kennedy classification as.
Kennedy classification as.
LU
03
CD
a. Class 1 Class 2
a. Class 1 Class 2 c. Class 3 Class 4 CO
Ans d. Class 4
Ans b. Class 2 An anterior tooth bounded edentulous area which crosses
Class 2: An unilateral posterior edentulous area the midline
Prosthodontics 17
5. This edentulous arch is classified according to 8. This edentulous arch is classified according to
Kennedy classification as. Kennedy classification as.
a. Class 6 b. Class 4 a. Class 1 modification 1

c. Class 5 d. Class 3 b. Class 2 modification 1
c. Class 3 modification 1
Ans c. Class 5 d. Class 4 modification 1
Applegate’s Additions
Class 5: A unilateral tooth bounded edentulous area where Ans b. Class 2 modification 1
the anterior tooth is weak and incapable of providing sup- (questions 7 and 8)
port for the RPD Rules for Classification
Applegate, Swenson and Terkla have suggested rules to
6. This edentulous arch is classified according to apply to the Kennedy Classification System to eliminate
Kennedy classification as. some uncertainties and to make the classification more
descriptive. A simplification of these suggestions is:
1. Teeth which are to be extracted are considered as
edentulous spaces when classifying the arch.
2. Edentulous spaces which are not going to be restored
with the RPD are not considered in the classification of

the arch.
3. The most posterior edentulous space determines the
a. Class 6 b. Class 5 class of the arch for Classes 1 through 4. The length of
c. Class 4 d. Class 2 the edentulous space, i.e. the number of missing teeth
or the number of prosthetic teeth to be used on the
Ans a. Class 6 denture, is not considered in the classification.
Class 6: A unilateral tooth bounded edentulous area which 4. Edentulous areas in addition to those which determine
should be restored with a FPD the class for the arch are indicated as MODIFICATIONS
7. This edentulous arch is classified according to of that CLASS and are designated by their FREQUENCY
Kennedy classification as. and whether they are ANTERIOR (A) or POSTERIOR
(P). Only Class 1, 2 and 3 may have modifications. The
length of the modification edentulous space, i.e. the
number of missing teeth or number of prosthetic teeth
to be used on the denture, is not considered.
9. If Implant placement is planned for the missing
tooth, what type of occlusion is advisable?
a. Class 1 modification 1
b. Class 2 modification 1
c. Class 3 modification 1
d. Class 4 modification 1
Ans c. Class 3 modification 1

a. Unilateral group function 13. Identify the anatomical landmark pointed with
b. Bilateral group function arrow.
c. Unilateral balanced
d. Unilateral canine guided
Ans a. Unilateral group function
(AIIMS SR JAN 15)
If a canine is replaced with implant prosthesis, what type
of occlusion will you prefer: Unilateral group function
10. Identify the anatomical landmark pointed with
arrow. a. Labial frenum b. Lingual frenum
c. Buccal frenum d. Alveolar ridge
Ans d. Alveolar ridge
14. According to modified University of California

Los Angeles (UCLA) classification, this Knife-
shaped alveolar bone as seen in the color plate is
classified as.
a. Midpalatine raphe b. Uvula
c. Posterior palatal seal d. Rugae
Ans a. Midpalatine raphe
11. Identify the anatomical landmark pointed with
arrows.

a. Type 1 b. Type 2
c. Type 3 d. Type 4
Ans c. Type 3
a. Midpalatine raphe b. Uvula
c. Posterior palatal seal d. Rugae
Los Angeles (UCLA) classification, a case with
Ans d. Rugae bone characteristic as seen in the color plate is
12. Identify the anatomical landmark pointed with classified as.
arrows.
a. Labial frenum b. Lingual frenum a. Type 1 b. Type 2

c. Buccal frenum d. Alveolar ridge c. Type 3 d. Type 4
Ans c. Buccal frenum Ans a. Type 1

Prosthodontics 19
16. According to modified University of California 18. This edentulous arch falls under which class of
Los Angeles (UCLA) classification, a case with Cawood and Howell classification.
insufficient bone height as seen in the color plate
is classified as.
a. Type 1 b. Type 2 Ans a. Class 1
c. Type 3 d. Type 4
19. This edentulous arch falls under which class of
Ans d. Type 4 Cawood and Howell classification.
Los Angeles (UCLA) classification insufficient
bone volume on buccal side as seen in the color
plate is classified as.

Ans b. Class 2
a. Type 1 b. Type 2 Cawood and Howell classification.
c. Type 3 d. Type 4
Ans c. Type 2
(Q-14-17)
Ref: (Seriwatanachai D, et al. J Interdiscipl Med Dent Sci
2015; 3:2)
Classification Tool used in

system classification Types of bone Images a. Class 1 b. Class 2
Modified Clinical Type 1: Sufficient alveolar c. Class 3 d. Class 4
UCLA Observation shape for implants
classification, (Bone shape
Type 2: Insufficient
Ans c. Class 3
2008 and volume)
alveolar bone volume on
the buccal side
Type 3: Knife edge shape
Cawood and Howell classification.
with sufficient alveolar
bone height
Type 4: Insufficient
alveolar bone height
Table representing edentulous bone ridge classification

followed three-dimensional (3D) quantity of alveolar bone
shape and volume.
a. Class 1 b. Class 2 a. Groper’s appliance

c. Class 3 d. Class 4 b. Nance palatal arch
c. Halterman’s appliance
Ans d. Class 4
d. Catlan’s appliance
22. This edentulous arch falls under which class of Ans a. Groper’s appliance
Cawood and Howell classification. (Jan AIIMS Sr 15)
Groper’s appliance is fixed anterior appliance
25. Which of the following appliance is used in the
early loss of primary teeth such as this?
Ans b. Class 5
a. Groper’s appliance
23. This edentulous arch falls under which class of b. Nance palatal arch
Cawood and Howell classification. c. Halterman’s appliance
d. Catlan’s appliance
Ans a. Groper’s appliance
Loss of primary incisors after the eruption of primary
canines is not an important consideration for space loss

though occasionally in a crowded dentition there may be a
rearrangement of some anterior teeth. Another considera-
tion is the child’s speech development following extraction
a. Class 5 b. Class 6 of primary incisors. The sounds most frequently in error
c. Class 3 d. Class 4 are the labiolingual sounds. This is because many sounds
are made with the tongue touching the lingual side of the
Ans b. Class 6 maxillary incisors, and inappropriate speech compensa-
(Questions 20–23) tions can develop if the teeth are missing.
Cawood and Howell classification This space maintainer offers several advantages in terms
• Class 1: Dentate of esthetics, restoration of masticatory and speech efficiency,
• Class 2: Immediately post ext. the alveolus has healed and prevention of abnormal oral habit development. The
main disadvantage is the accumulation of food debris and
• Class 3: Well-rounded ridge, adequate in height and
plaque. Hence, parents have to be instructed to supervise
width.
the maintenance of proper oral hygiene in their child.
• Class 4: Knife edge ridge, adequate in ht. and width.
• Class 5: Flat ridge, inadequate in ht. and width. 26. This 58 years old diabetic, partially edentulous
patient comes with chief complaint of burning sen-
24. Identify the appliance. sation in palate. What is your line of treatment?
Prosthodontics 21
a. Start topical antiviral and advise plenty of water a. CAD-CAM

intake, review regularly, systemic antiviral if b. CBCT soft-tissue reconstruction
symptoms doesn’t subside c. CAT
b. Topical steroids d. Rapid prototype
c. Topical antifungals
d. Advise avoiding denture for time period along Ans a. CAD-CAM
with topical antifungals
30. Identify the type of articulator shown in the color
Ans d. Advise avoiding denture for time period along plate.
with topical antifungals
27. Identify the appliance shown in the picture.
a. Healing cap a. Non-adjustable articulator

b. Semi-adjustable articulator
b. G-cuff
c. Fully adjustablr articulator
c. Radiopaque indicator
d. Mean value articulator
d. Saliva absorbent
Ans b. Semi-adjustable articulator
Ans b. G-cuff
31. Identify the type of articulator shown in the color
28. What is the function of the appliance shown in

plate.
the image?
a. Arresting gingival hemorrhage a. Hinge articulator

b. Gingival retractor b. Semi-adjustable articulator
c. Radiological marker c. Fully adjustablr articulator
d. Mean value articulator
d. Saliva absorption
Ans b. Gingival retractor Ans d. Mean value articulator
29. Which system is shown here to construct this 32. Identify the instrument shown in the color plate.
maxillofacial prosthesis for the defect?
a. T-Scan b. G-Cuff a. Crown gauge

c. U-Impress d. V-Impress b. Boley gauge
c. Ridge mapping caliper
Ans a. T-Scan
d. Castroviejo caliper
33. What is the use of Instrument shown in the color
Ans a. Crown gauge
plate?
a. Measure biting force

a. Crown gauge
b. Maxillary digital impression
b. Boley gauge
c. Mandibular digital impression c. Ridge mapping caliper
d. Record mandibular movement d. Castroviejo caliper
Ans a. Measure biting force Ans b. Bolley gauge
T-Scan occlusal analysis system can help clinicians meet
the needs of their patients for reliable measurements of
occlusal biting forces.

a. Crown gauge
b. Boley gauge
a. Bone Harvester c. Ridge mapping caliper
b. Osteotome d. Castroviejo caliper
c. Sinus Lifter Ans c. Ridge mapping caliper
d. Bone mill
Ans a. Bone Harvester
Used to shave a thin layer of bone from a donor site. Harvest-
ers are not used for synthetic or non-bone graft material.
a. Crown gauge
b. Boley gauge
c. Ridge mapping caliper
d. Castroviejo caliper
Ans d. Castroviejo caliper
Prosthodontics 23
39. Identify the instrument in the color plate. Features precision ratchets to securely hold the bone block
in place while minimizing the chance of block breakage.
Aperture allows for screws to be placed while holding
bone.
a. William’s probe
b. Bone condensor
c. Nerve depressor
d. Implant depth gauge
Ans d. Implant depth gauge
a. Bone harvester b. Bone crusher

c. Bone rongeur d. Bone mill
Ans d. Bone mill
a. William’s probe
b. Bone condensor Table top
c. Bone spreader • Useful for crushing/grinding larger bone fragments
d. Implant depth gauge into smaller particles for grafting purposes.
Ans c. Bone spreader • Available in table top and handheld versions.
Useful to wedge donor block grafts from the chin and 44. Identify the instrument in the color plate.
ramus.

a. Bone harvester b. Bone crusher
a. Anterior bone block camp c. Bone rongeur d. Bone mill
b. Posterior bone block clamp
Ans d. Bone mill
c. Tongue clamp
• Useful for crushing/grinding larger bone fragments
d. Cheek retractor
into smaller particles for grafting purposes.
Ans b. Posterior bone block clamp
• Available in table top and handheld versions.
a. Anterior bone block camp

b. Posterior bone block clamp
c. Tongue clamp
d. Cheek retractor a. Bone harvester b. Bone grinder
Ans a. Anterior bone block camp c. Bone rongeur d. Bone mill
(Q-41,42) Ans b. Bone grinder
Reduces bone/graft material particle size. Place harvested 49. Identify the instrument in the color plate.
bone in well of instrument. Cover bone with top, serrated side
down. Use mallet to reduce bone to desired particle size.
a. Bone compactor
b. Bone burnisher
c. Bone tampers
d. Bone material spoon
Ans a. Bone compactor
Packs down graft material. Features a serrated tip and
bent angle to reach difficult areas.
a. Dappen dish b. Bone basin
c. Bone reservoir d. Bone disposer
Ans b. Bone Basin
Stainless steel deep dish with weighted bottom to prevent
tipping.
Holds 20 grams of wetted material.
a. Bone compactor
47. Identify the instrument in the color plate. b. Bone burnisher
c. Bone tampers
d. Graft material spoon
Ans d. Graft material spoon
Graft material spoons are used for mixing/preparation of

graft material for bone augmentation procedures.
a. Local anesthesia syringe b. Graft syringe

c. Bone tampers d. Irrigator
Ans b. Graft syringe a. Membrane forceps
Stainless steel syringe designed to load syringe from the tip b. Tissue graft forceps
to reduce clogging. c. Membrane placement instrument
“Tamp and pack” method for placement of graft mate- d. Blunt forceps
rial into oral cavity.
Ans b. Tissue graft forceps
a. Local anesthesia syringe b. Graft syringe a. Membrane forceps

c. Bone tampers d. Irrigator b. Tissue graft forceps
Ans c. Bone tampers c. Membrane placement instrument
Bone tampers feature a serrated tip for compacting bone d. Blunt forceps
or graft material. Ans a. Membrane forceps
Prosthodontics 25
53. Identify the instrument in the color plate. 56. Identify the appliance in the color plate.
a. Membrane forceps
b. Tissue graft forceps
c. Membrane placement instrument
d. Blunt forceps
a. Lingual plate
Ans c. Membrane placement instrument
b. Anteroposterior palatal bar
54. Identify the appliance in the color plate. c. Palatal strap
d. Continuous bar major connector
Ans c. Palatal strap
Palatal strap
• Usually use for Class 3 and 4 cases
• Wide anteroposteriorly
57. Identify the appliance in the color plate.
a. Lingual plate
c. Palatal strap
Ans a. Lingual plate

Lingual plate:
• Rest at each end of lingual plate a. Lingual plate
• Prevents forces being directed facially b. Anteroposterior palatal bar
• Easier denture tooth addition than bar c. Palatal strap
d. Continuous bar retainer
55. Identify the appliance in the color plate. Ans d. Continuous bar retainer
Continuous bar retainer
• Lingual bar with secondary bar above cingula
• Secondary bar acts as indirect retainer
a. Lingual plate
c. Palatlal strap
Ans b. Anteroposterior palatal bar a. Ring clasp
Anteroposterior palatal bar b. Reverse action clasp
A narrow (A-P) variation of anterior-posterior palatal strap c. Double embrasure clasp
• Double palatal bar connector d. RPI clasp
• Requires greater bulk for rigidity Ans a. Ring clasp
• Ring clasp a. Ring clasp

• Tilted abutments b. Reverse action clasp
− Usually mandibular molars
c. Double embrasure clasp
− Mesially/lingually tilt
d. RPI clasp
− Undercut close to rest
− Allows use of available undercut Ans d. RPI clasp
• “R” Rest (always mesial)
• “P” Proximal Plate (distal)
• “I” I - Bar (buccal)
• Rest minor connector and proximal plate reciprocate
• Proximal plate toward lingual
• Retentive arm mid-buccal except canines (mesio-
buccal)
a. Ring clasp 62. Identify the instrument in the color plate.
b. Reverse action clasp
d. RPI clasp
Ans b. Reverse action clasp
• Reverse action clasp
− Undercut adjacent edentulous space
− Almost impossible to adjust
− Poor esthetics, hygiene
− Clearance from opposing occlusion

− Poor flexibility (esp. short crowns)

a. Surveyor b. Cast holder
c. Cast trimmer d. Spirit lamp
Ans a. Surveyor
63. What is ideal distance marked by “X” in the dia-

a. Ring clasp grammatic representation of maxillary major
b. Reverse action clasp connector?
d. RPI clasp
Ans c. Double embrasure clasp
Double embrasure clasp
• Two rests, two retentive arms, two bracing arms
• Used in quadrants with no edentulous space
• Distal approach cannot be used on most posterior tooth
61. Identify the appliance in the color plate. a. 1 mm b. 2 mm
c. 3 mm d. 4 mm
Ans b. 2 mm
Position of Major Connector Junction
Should be ≈ 2 mm medial to lingual surface of denture
teeth
Ensures bulk of resin around teeth
Prosthodontics 27
64. Identify the instrument in the color plate. 68. Image shows which type of pontic?
a. Ovate
a. Surveyor b. Cast holder b. Ridge lap
c. Modified ridge lap
c. Face bow d. Boley gauge
d. Sanitary
Ans c. Face bow
Ans a. Ovate
65. Identify the appliance placed on anterior teeth. 69. Image shows which type of pontic?
a. Dahl appliance
b. Modified Dahl appliance a. Ovate
c. Inman appliance b. Ridge lap
c. Modified ridge lap

d. Metal-ceramic crowns
Ans a. Dahl appliance d. Sanitary
Ans c. Modified ridge lap
66. Image shows which type of pontic?
70. Image shows which type of pontic?
a. Ovate b. Ridge lap a. Conical b. Lap facing

c. Modified ridge lap d. Sanitary c. Modified ridge lap d. Sanitary
Ans b. Ridge lap Ans a. Conical
67. Image shows which type of pontic? 71. Mandibular second premolar as shown in the
color plate will act as.
a. Ovate b. Ridge lap

c. Modified ridge lap d. Sanitary
Ans d. Sanitary
a. Pier abutment a. Chamfer

b. Tilted abutment b. Shoulder
c. Distal extension abutment c. Shoulder with bevel
d. Lever abutment d. Knife-edge preparation
Ans A. Pier abutment Ans b. Shoulder
72. Which of the following tooth will act as pier abut- 75. Identify the tooth preparation finish line for the
ment if fixed partial denture is planned in this image shown here.
case?
a. 23 b. 24
c. 25 d. 27 a. Chamfer
Ans c. 25 b. Shoulder
c. Shoulder with bevel
73. Identify the tooth preparation finish line for the
d. Knife-edge preparation
image shown here.
Ans c. Shoulder with bevel
76. Which type of resin bonded FPD is shown in the

color plate?
a. Chamfer
b. Shoulder a. Rochette bridge b. Maryland bridge
c. Shoulder with bevel c. Cast mesh FPD d. Virginia bridge
d. Knife-edge preparation Ans a. Rochette bridge
Ans c. Shoulder with bevel
74. Identify the tooth preparation finish line for the color plate?
image shown here.
a. Rochette bridge b. Maryland bridge

c. Cast mesh FPD d. Virginia bridge
Ans b. Maryland bridge
Prosthodontics 29
78. Which type of resin bonded FPD is shown in the 81. Identify the appliance shown in the color plate.
color plate?
a. Svedopter b. Airbug
c. Dentpop d. Suction tube
a. Rochette bridge Ans b. Airbug
b. Maryland bridge
c. Cast mesh FPD 82. Identify the appliance shown in the color plate.
d. Virginia bridge
Ans c. Cast mesh FPD

color plate?
a. Svedopter b. Airbug
c. Dentpop d. Suction tube
Ans c. Dentpop
83. Identify the appliance shown in the color plate.

a. Rochette bridge
b. Loop connector FPD
c. Cast mesh FPD
d. Virginia bridge
Ans b. Loop connector FPD a. Svedeptor b. Airbug
c. Dentpop d. Dry angles
Ans d. Dry angles
Dry angles/dry aids are used to keep the mouth dry by
covering the Stensen’s (parotid) duct to restrict the flow of
saliva.
84. Identify the type of minor connector marked in
the color plate.
a. Suction tube b. Cheek retractor

c. Tongue depressor d. Svedopter
Ans d. Svedopter
Svedopter/Speejector Svedopter consist of a metal saliva a. Mesh work b. Lattice work
ejector with a tongue deflector. Effectively used in man- c. Nail head d. Wire
dibular arch. Ans a. Mesh work
85. Color plate shows wax pattern for which maxillo- a. Lingual bar
facial prosthesis? b. Labial bar
c. Lingual plate
d. Continuous bar
Ans a. Lingual bar
88. Identify the part of cast partial denture marked

with arrow.
a. Eye b. Ear
c. Nose d. Lips
Ans b. Ear
86. Color plate shows wax pattern for which maxillo-
facial prosthesis? a. Major connector
b. Minor connector
c. Shoulder
d. Retainer
Ans b. Minor connector
89. What is true for part of cast partial denture mar-

ked with arrow in the design?
a. Eye b. Ear
c. Nose d. Lips
Ans a. Eye

87. Which type of major connector is used in the cast
partial denture shown in the color plate?
a. Major connector
b. Minor connector
c. Relief area
d. Retainer
Ans c. Relief area
Chapter 3
1-
j
O
Oral and Maxillofacial Surgery a>
LU
03
HHBHB
1 . Identify the instrument present in the color plate . prop consists of a vertical block having a concave surface
on either of its ends to fit on the occlusal surfaces of maxi -
llary and mandibular teeth. The block is placed between
the mandibular and maxillary teeth to maintain the mouth
open. Usually, there are three or four blocks of varying
vertical heights arranged in an ascending order, and con -
a. Cheek retractor b. Tongue depressor nected by a chain. The operator can choose the block
c. Laryngoscope d. Cleft palate raspatory according to the required extent of oral opening.
Ans d. Cleft palate raspatory

This broad, flat handled elevator is specially used to elevate 3. Identify the instrument present in the color plate.
the palatal mucoperiosteum while mobilizing the flaps for
cleft palate repair.
a. Mouth prop b. Jaw stretcher

CD
c. Bone holding forceps d. Mouth gag
Ans b. Jaw stretcher LU
Heister 's jaw stretcher: This instrument is used to forcibly
open the mouth. The instrument has two flat blades that
are applied between the maxillary and mandibular poste- :
rior teeth and are separated by turning a key that is posi-
a. Mouth prop tioned between the two blades. CD
b. Jaw stretcher Uses 1. To force the mouth open when there is tris-
c. Bone holding forceps mus due to infection, muscle spasm, hemarthrosis of the
d. Mouth gag temporomandibular joint following trauma. 2. To give
Ans a. Mouth prop postoperative active jaw physiotherapy after surgery for
Mouth props can be of two varieties: ( A ) Rubber and TM joint ankylosis, submucous fibrosis. ^
( B) Metal. The function of the mouth prop is similar to the When using the above two instruments, care must be
mouth gag, i.e. to keep the mouth open during any sur- taken to prevent luxation of the teeth, especially the ante -
gical procedure performed in the oral cavity. The mouth riors and dislocation of the temporomandibular joint.
4. Identify the instrument present in the color plate. a. Bone file b. Osteotome
c. Chisel d. Rongeurs forceps
Ans d. Rongeurs forceps
Rongeurs forceps (Blumenthal, Jensen Middleton). The
rongeurs forceps have curved handles that have a spring
action. The spring increases the force applied and hence
a. Mouth prop b. Jaw stretcher efficiency of the instrument. There can be either one
c. Bone holding forceps d. Mouth gag spring or a double spring (Jensen Middleton). When the
Ans d. Mouth gag handles are released the instrument automatically opens
Mouth gag: This instrument is used to keep the mouth up. This helps the surgeon to make repeated cuts without
open in a patient under general anesthesia, during sur- making efforts to open the handles. The tip is angulated
geries of the oral cavity, tonsils and the pharynx. The flat forward to the handle and has a concave inner surface. The
blades have serrations that rest on the occlusal surfaces of beaks are sharp. They can be either side cutting (Blumen-
the maxillary and the mandibular teeth. The handle has a thal) or both side and end cutting. The instrument is used
catch that is fixed at the required opening. to remove large amounts of bone at a time using multiple,
small bites.
5. Identify the instrument present in the color plate. Uses 1. To nibble sharp bony margins following simple
or surgical extraction of teeth, surgical procedures. 2. To
peel off thinned out bone present over cystic or tumorous
lesions. 3. To trim sharp bony ridges during alveoloplasty
procedures.

a. Mouth prop b. Jaw stretcher
c. Bone holding forceps d. Mouth gag
Ans c. Bone holding forceps
Fergusson’s Lion Jaw Bone Holding Forceps: They are
named so because of the appearance of the beaks side- a. Bone file b. Osteotome
ways. The beaks have toothed margins to allow a good grip
on the bone.
Ans a. Bone file
The Crocodile bone holding forceps has a catch to
Miller and Colburn bone file: As the name suggests, the
stabilize the instrument in the required position. In the
bone file is used to smoothen any sharp bony margin pre-
absence of the above instruments, a forcep type of a towel
sent in the surgical field. The instrument has a long curved
clip may also serve the purpose.
working end and a short oval working end. The working
Uses To hold the bony fragments of the mandible dur-
ing manipulation of the bony fragments during fracture ends have horizontal serrations. The instrument is used
reduction, resection procedures, after osteotomy cuts, and unidirectionally using a pull stroke. A push stoke usually
during fixation of the bony fragments. causes burnishing and crushing of the bone. The working
edges must be cleaned regularly to prevent clogging by
6. Identify the instrument present in the color plate. bone debris, thereby reducing the efficiency of the instru-
ment.

Oral and Maxillofacial Surgery 33
a. Bone file b. Osteotome a. Bone gouge b. Cinelli osteotome

c. Chisel d. Rongeurs forceps c. Mallet d. Gigli’s saw
Ans b. Osteotome Ans b. Cinelli osteotome
Osteotome: The osteotome is similar to a chisel, but the Cinelli osteotome is a useful tool in rhinoplasty proce-
edge of the working tip is bibeveled. It splits bone rather dures. The instrument is designed to shape the bony nasal
than cut or chip the bone as with the chisel.
hump.
Uses 1. Various osteotomy procedures, 2. Biopsy of
bony lesions, 3. Removal or recontouring of the bone. 12. Identify the instrument present in the color plate.
a. Bone file b. Osteotome

a. Bone gouge b. Nasal rasp
c. Mallet d. Gigli’s saw
Ans c. Chisel
Chisel: Chisels are unibevelled instruments for cutting Ans c. Mallet
bone. They have a heavy round handle and a long flat Mallet: A mallet is made up of steel, lead or wood. It is sim-
working tip. The edge of the working tip has a bevel on one ilar to a hammer and is used for giving controlled taps on
side. The working edge is sharp and is flat. To plane the the chisel, bone gouge or osteotome. To be effective, the
bone, the bevel is kept facing the bone. To cut the bone,
mallet should be used with a loose, free swinging move-
the bevel is kept facing away from the bone.
Uses 1. To remove chips of bone as in transalveolar ment of the wrist that gives maximum speed to the head
extractions, 2. To split the tooth in difficult extractions. of the mallet without introducing the weight of the arm or
the body to the blow. The kinetic energy of a body is calcu-

10. Identify the instrument present in the color plate. lated as KE = 1/2MV2, where KE or kinetic energy stands
for the energy possessed by the moving body, M stands for
the mass of the body and V stands for the velocity of the
body. Usually, a six inch mallet is used for minor oral surgi-
cal procedures.
a. Bone gouge b. Nasal rasp
c. Mallet d. Gigli’s saw 13. Identify the instrument present in the color plate.
Ans a. Bone gouge

Bone gouge: The bone gouge has a round handle and a
blade that has a sharp working tip that is concave on the
inner side. The working tip is half round and has a long
working area.
Uses 1. To remove cancellous graft material during
grafting procedures, 2. To make a window in the anterior
wall of the maxillary sinus for access to the maxillary sinus
during Caldwell Luc procedure, 3. To remove irregular a. Bone gouge b. Nasal rasp
pieces of bone. c. Mallet d. Gigli’s saw
Ans d. Gigli’s saw
Gigli’s saw: The armamentarium for the use of Gigli’s saw
are: 1. Gigli’s saw, 2. Two handles, 3. Introducer, 4. Guide.
The Gigli’s saw is made by twisting a few pieces of wires
together, so that it acquires a sharp, barbed, cutting edge
when moved to and fro along it’s long axis.
At the end, there is a ring to which the hook of the a. Asche’s forceps
handle can be fitted. In maxillofacial surgery, the saw was b. Rowe’s disimpaction forceps
usually used to cut the mandible (hemimandibulectomy
c. Hayton Williams forceps
procedures). Care must be taken to protect the soft tissues,
d. Walsham’s forceps
while using this instrument.
Ans b. Rowe’s disimpaction forceps
14. Identify the instrument present in the color plate. Rowe’s disimpaction forceps: A pair of Rowe’s disimpac-
tion forceps is used for disimpacting the maxilla in LeFort
fractures. It consists of one straight and one curved blade.
The blades are padded for atraumatic purpose. The straight
blade is passed into the nostril and the curved blade
enters the mouth and grips the palate. The operator stands
behind the patient and grasps the handles of each of the
forceps and manipulates the fragments into position. Uses
a. Mayo-Hegar needle holder 1. To disimpact the maxilla in fresh LeFort fractures, malu-
b. Rowe’s disimpaction forceps nited fractures, 2. To check for free movements of the max-
c. Hayton williams forceps illa after LeFort osteotomy procedure.
d. Walsham’s forceps 17. Identify the instrument present in the color plate.
Ans a. Mayo-Hegar needle holder
Mayo-Hegar needle holder: The needle holder is a straight
instrument with a short working tip. The blade of the nee-
dle holder is shorter and stronger than that of the hemo-
stat. The working tip has cross hatched serrations with a
single vertical serration to grip the needle. The handle has a. Asche’s forceps
a catch. Usually, a six inch needle holder is used in oral b. Rowe’s disimpaction forceps

surgery. The instrument is held between the ring finger c. Hayton Williams forceps
and the thumb and the index and the middle finger sup- d. Walsham’s forceps
port the needle holder. Ans c. Hayton Williams forceps
15. Identify the instrument present in the color plate. Hayton Williams forceps: This forceps has two widely
divergent curved beaks that engage the maxilla behind
the tuberosity. It is usually used in conjunction with the
Rowe’s disimpaction forceps to mobilize the maxilla.
a. Erich’s arch bar b. Bone plates 18. Identify the instrument present in the color plate.
c. Wire holder d. Skin hook
Ans d. Skin hook
Skin hook: Skin hook is a thin, long instrument, with a deli-
cate curved tip. This tip engages the tissues.
Uses 1. To stretch the edges of the skin incision during a. Asche’s forceps
suturing to prevent dog ear formation, 2. To retract small b. Rowe’s disimpaction forceps
amount of soft tissue or edges. c. Hayton Williams forceps
16. Identify the instrument present in the color plate. d. Walsham’s forceps
Ans d. Walsham’s forceps
Walsham’s forceps: It is used to manipulate the fractured
nasal fragments. The forceps has a padded blade and an
unpadded blade that are curved. The unpadded blade
of the Walsham Forceps is passed up the nostril, and the
nasal bone and the associated fragment of the frontal
process of the maxilla are secured between the padded 21. Identify the instrument present in the radiograph.
blade externally and the unpadded blade internally. The
fragments are then manipulated in their correct position.
a. Erich’s arch bar b. Bone plate

c. Wire holder d. Skin hook
Ans b. Bone plate
Bone plates are usually made up of stainless steel or tita-
nium. They are available in various sizes, lengths and
shapes. In oral surgery the thickness of the plates varies
from 1.5 mm, 2 to 2.5 mm. 2.5 mm plates are usually used
for the mandible, whereas the former two are used for the
a. Asche’s forceps
maxilla. Depending on the requirement, they are available
b. Rowe’s disimpaction forceps in different lengths, 2-hole, 3-hole, 4-hole, 6-hole, etc. and
c. Hayton Williams forceps in different shapes—orbital, “L” shaped, “T” shaped, etc.
Ans a. Asche’s forceps
The Asche’s septal forceps is used to reduce the fractures
of the nasal bone and to align the nasal septum. The
blades are passed on either side of the nasal septum and
the vomer and the perpendicular plate of the ethmoid are a. Erich’s arch bar b. Bone plates
ironed out. If possible the septal cartilage is then grasped c. Wire holder d. Skin hook

and repositioned in it’s groove in the vomer. To reduce the Ans a. Erich’s arch bar
nasal bone fracture, one blade is inserted in the nostril, It contains a thin stainless steel strip that has hooks incor-
holding the medial aspect of the nasal bone and the other porated on it. It is malleable and can be adapted to the
blade is kept externally holding the lateral aspect of the contour of the maxillary or mandibular arch and fixed to
nasal bone. the teeth by wires.
Uses 1. To stabilize dentoalveolar fractures. 2. To sta-
20. Identify the instrument present in the color plate. bilize mandibular or maxillary fractures, that are to be
treated by closed reduction. 3. To provide means for inter-
maxillary ligation.
a. Erich’s arch bar b. Bone plates

c. Wire holder d. Skin hook a. Ryle’s tube
Ans c. Wire holder b. Foley’s self-retaining catheter
Wire holder (Hayton Williams): A wire holder is similar to c. Infant feeding tube
a needle holder, except that it has a heavy tip, which may d. Corrugated rubber drain
be devoid of the vertical serrations. Ans b. Foley’s self-retaining catheter
It is a self-retaining catheter used for evacuating the blad- a. Ryle’s tube

der. The self-retaining mechanism is in the balloon near b. Foley’s self-retaining catheter
its tip. At the other end of the catheter, two tubes are pre- c. Infant feeding tube
sent. The wider tube is meant for draining the urine, while d. Corrugated rubber drain
the narrower tube communicates with the balloon and is
Ans a. Ryle’s tube
meant for inflating and deflating the balloon. The catheter
Nasogastric tube (Ryle’s tube): Nasogastric tube is a long
is passed through the urethra in either sex, into the bladder.
hollow tube with one blunt end with multiple openings
The position is confirmed by the free passage of urine
and an open end. It is made up of polyvinyl chloride. The
through the wider tube. Then the catheter is anchored
blunt end is passed through the nostril into the stomach.
within the bladder by inflating the balloon via the smaller
To check the position of the tube air is pushed into the tube
tube, by injecting water. When the catheter is to be with-
with the help of a syringe and the air entry into the sto-
drawn, the water is aspirated through the narrower tube.
mach is checked with the help of a stethoscope. Only after
The catheter is available in various sizes. The commonly
confirmation of the presence of the tube into the stomach,
used size for males is no. 16 and for females is no. 14. Indi-
the feeds are started. The tube is fixed to the nose with
cations in oral and maxillofacial surgery: 1. For evacuation
the help of sticking plaster. Uses 1. To provide feeds to the
of the bladder in long cases under general anaesthesia.
patients who cannot take oral feeds. 2. To provide gastric
2. For evacuation of the bladder in unconscious patients.
lavage postoperatively to flush out blood, fluids ingested
3. For patients with postoperative urinary retention. 4. For
intraoperatively. 3. To provide gastric lavage in case of
nonambulatory patients with multiple fractures. 5. Foley’s
poisoning.
catheter may also be used as a retention stent in commi-
nuted zygomatic complex fractures. The balloon is inflated 26. Identify the instrument present in the color plate.
within the sinus to offer support to the bony fragments and
left in position for 5 to 7 days till initial stabilization.

a. Ryle’s tube
b. Foley’s self-retaining catheter
a. Asche’s forceps
c. Infant feeding tube
b. Rowe’s disimpaction forceps
d. Corrugated rubber drain
c. Bone spreader
Ans c. Infant feeding tube
Infant feeding tube is made up of nontoxic, radiopaque,
Ans c. Bone spreader polyvinyl chloride. It is a long tube with a blunt tip with
It is used to separate the bony fragments after completion multiple openings for facilitating drainage. The other open
of the osteotomy cuts, like in downfracture of maxilla after end has a stopper that can be closed.
LeFort I osteotomy or during sagittal spilt osteotomy pro-
cedure. 27. Identify the instrument present in the color plate.
a. Ryle’s tube
b. Foley’s self-retaining catheter
c. Infant feeding tube
d. Corrugated rubber drain
Ans d. Corrugated rubber drain a. Hockey stick b. Apexo elevators

It is a sheet of rubber with corrugations on its surface. It is c. Cryer’s elevator d. Winter’s elevator
usually used as a drain following abscess drainage. Multi-
Ans b. Apexo elevators
ple holes are usually made in the drain to prevent the drain
Apexo elevators: These are straight elevators that resemble
from getting obstructed. The drain is inserted with one end
the Cryer’s elevators, but have a biangulated and sharp,
in the cavity and the other end is kept out of the skin or
straight working tip. They are paired elevators for the
mucosa. The drain is secured by sutures and is left in place
mesial and the distal roots. Their uses and work principles
for three to five days.
are same as for the Cryer’s elevators. They can also be used
The drain is inserted into the dead space and can be
to remove the maxillary root stumps
either removed externally through the incision line or
through a separate incision away from the incision line. 30. Identify the instrument present in the color plate.
Most operators prefer the latter. A negative pressure can
be established within the space by attaching and aspira-
ting a 20 cc syringe to the open end. The syringe must be
emptied at regular intervals. The drain is fixed to the skin
by sutures. It can be removed in 3 to 5 days depending on
a. Hockey stick b. Apexo elevators
the amount of drainage. It can also be used for local instil-
c. Cryer’s elevator d. Winter’s elevator
lation of antibiotic solutions in deep wounds.
Ans c. Cryer’s elevator
28. Identify the instrument present in the color plate. Cryer’s elevator: Cryer‘s elevator is a straight elevator with
a triangular blade. The working tip is angulated, with one
convex and another flat surface. The flat surface is the wor-
king side. It is based on the lever and the wedge principle.
Uses 1. For extraction of root stump of mandibular molars
when one root is removed and the other is to be removed.

2. For extraction of mandibular molar root stumps when
both the roots are present but one is fractured at a lower
level than the other or when the bifurcation is intact. Two
separate elevators are available for the mesial and distal
a. Hockey stick b. Apexo elevators roots. The working blade is introduced into the empty
c. Cryer’s elevator d. Winter’s elevator socket and moved towards the remaining root piece. In
this technique the interradicular bone is fractured prior to
Ans a. Hockey stick
removal of the root stump.
Hockey Stick or London Hospital Elevator: This elevator
is similar to the Cryer’s elevator, with the working blade 31. Identify the instrument present in the color plate.
at an angulation to the shank, but the blade is straight,
rather than triangular, and has a convex and a flat surface.
The flat surface is the working surface and has transverse
serrations on it for better contact with the root stump.
When viewed, the instrument looks like a Hockey stick and
hence the name. The principles and functions are similar
to the Cryer’s elevator.
a. Hockey stick
b. Apexo elevators
c. Cryer’s elevator
d. Winter’s crossbar elevator
Ans d. Winter’s crossbar elevator
Winter’s Elevator: Winter’s elevator is a crossbar elevator.
The shank is at right angles to the handle. The working tip
is at an angle to the shank. The blade has a convex and a. One-fourth circle needle
a flat surface. The flat surface is the working surface and b. Three-eight circle needle
is placed facing the tooth to be elevated. It works on the
c. Five-eight circle needle
wheel and axle principle. Uses to luxate the mandibular
d. Compound curvature needle
molar teeth.
Ans b. Three-eight circle needle
a. Hockey stick
a. One-fourth circle needle
b. Apexo elevators
b. Three-eight circle needle
c. Cryer’s elevator
d. Winter Cryer’s elevator c. Five-eight circle needle
Ans d. Winter Cryer’s elevator
Winter Cryer’s elevator: As the name suggests, the eleva- Ans c. Five-eight circle needle
tor is a crossbar elevator with a triangular blade. The uses 36. Identify the instrument present in the color plate.
and the applications of this instrument are similar to the
Cryer’s elevator. It works on the wheel and axle and wedge
principles.

a. One-fourth circle needle

a. One-fourth circle needle Ans d. Compound curvature needle
37. The image represents which of the following sut-
uring technique?
Ans a. One-fourth circle needle
a. Figure of 8 suture
b. Sling suture
c. Continuous over and over suture
d. Continuous locking suture
Ans a. Figure of 8 suture
38. The image represents which of the following sut- and distributes the tension uniformly over the suture line.
uring technique? It also offers a more water tight closure.

uring technique?
a. Interrupted suture
b. Sling suture
c. Continuous over and over suture
d. Continuous locking suture
Ans b. Sling suture a. Interrupted suture
Interrupted suture-sling suture: The suture is passed b. Sling suture
through both the edges at an equal depth and distance c. Continuous over and over suture
from the incision, needle penetration should be 3 mm d. Continuous locking suture
from the wound edges and the knot is tied. It is the most
Ans d. Continuous locking suture
commonly used suture.
This technique is similar to the continuous suture, but
Advantages 1. It is strong, and can be used in areas of stress. locking is provided by withdrawing the suture through
2. Successive sutures can be placed according to individual its own loop. The suture thus passes perpendicular to the
requirement. 3. Each suture is independent and the loosen- incision line. The locking prevents excessive tightening of
ing of one suture will not produce loosening of the other. the suture as the wound closure progresses.
4. A degree of eversion can be controlled. 5. If the wound
becomes infected or there is an hematoma formation,

uring technique?
removal of a few sutures may offer a satisfactory treatment.
39. The image represents which of following suturing

technique?
a. Interrupted suture
b. Sling suture
c. Horizontal mattress suture
d. Vertical mattress suture
Ans c. Horizontal mattress suture
a. Interrupted suture Horizontal Mattress suture: The needle is passed from one
b. Sling suture edge of the incision to another and again from the latter
c. Continuous over and over suture edge to the first edge in a horizontal manner and a knot is
d. Continuous locking suture tied. The distance of needle penetration from the incision
Ans c. Continuous over and over suture line and the depth of penetration of the needle is the same
Continuous over and over suture: Initially, a simple inter- for each entry point, but horizontal distance of the points
rupted suture is placed and the needle is then reinserted of penetration on the same side of the flap differs (needle
in a continuous fashion such that the suture passes per- penetration through the surgical flap should be at least
pendicular to the incision line below and obliquely above. 8 mm away from the flap edges). This suture provides a
The suture is ended by passing a knot over the untightened broad contact of the wound margins, e.g. closure of extrac-
end of the suture. It provides a rapid technique for closure tion socket wounds.
42. The image represents which of following suturing 44. The strip shown in the color plate is used to test
technique? efficacy of sterilization of which of the following?
a. Interrupted suture a. Autoclave

b. Sling suture b. Hot air oven
c. Horizontal mattress suture c. Glass beads sterilizer
d. Vertical mattress suture d. UV chamber
Ans d. Vertical mattress suture Ans a. Autoclave
Vertical mattress suture: It is similar to the horizontal mat- Tests for efficiency for heat sterilization—sterilization
tress, except that, all factors remaining constant, the depth monitoring: The mechanical, chemical and biological
of penetration varies, i.e. when the needle is brought back parameters are used to evaluate both the sterilizing condi-
from the second flap to the first, the depth of penetration is
tions and the procedure’s effectiveness. Mechanical tech-
more superficial. It is used for closing deep wounds.
niques for monitoring sterilization include assessing cycle
43. Identify the equipment present in the color plate. time, temperature and pressure by observing the gauges or
displays on the sterilizer and noting these parameters for
each lot. Some tabletop sterilizers have recording devices
that printout these parameters. Correct readings do not
ensure sterilization, but incorrect readings can give first

indication of a problem with sterilizer. Spore testing: Bio-
logical indicator—should be done once a week to verify
proper functioning of the autoclave with the help of Geo-
a. Autoclave b. Hot air oven bacillus stearothermophilus strips or vials. Thermocou-
c. Glass beads sterilizer d. UV chamber ple: This is a thermometric testing, and a reliable gauge of
Ans a. Autoclave efficiency. One recording is taken from a thermocouple
Steam sterilization involves heating water to generate placed inside a test pack of towels and a second one from
steam in a closed chamber (Autoclave—in which drums the chamber drain. Comparison between the two record-
and trays with the materials to be sterilized can be kept ings gives a good guide regarding the speed at which the
inside) producing moist heat that rapidly kills microorga- steam penetrates the load.
nisms. There is a mass heat transfer as the steam con- Brown’s test: These are ampoules that contain a chemi-
denses. Use of saturated steam under pressure is the most cal indicator; which changes its color; from red through
practical, quickest, safest, effective, economic method amber to green at a specific temperature. Autoclave tape:
of sterilization, known for the destruction of all forms of
This is a tape printed with sensitive ink that undergoes a
microbial life, because of its: (i) high penetrating capacity,
color change at a specific temperature. This test forms the
and (ii) it gives up a large amount of heat (latent heat) to
basis of the Bowie-Dick test for high vacuum autoclaves.
the surface with which it comes into contact, and on which
it condenses as water. The advantages are: (i) The results Two pieces of strips are stuck onto a piece of square paper
are consistently goodand reliable, (ii) The instruments can and placed in the middle of the test pack. With the appli-
be wrapped prior to sterilization. (iii) Time efficient. (iv) cation of temperature of 134°C for 3.5 minutes, there is a
Good penetration. The main disadvantages are: (i) Blunt- uniform development of bars throughout the length of
ing and corrosion of sharp instruments, and (ii) Damage to the strips. This shows that the steam has passed freely and
certain rubber goods. rapidly to the center of the load.
45. Identify the equipment present in the color plate. clinging to the endodontic instruments into the root canal
may cause blockage. Some handpieces can be sterilized
by dry heat. The handpieces should be carefully cleaned
and lubricated with special heat resistant oils. Other hand-
pieces which have sealed bearings or which have been
pressure lubricated with appropriate oils can be auto-
claved. The instructions given by respective manufacturers
regarding the cleaning, lubrication and sterilization are of
importance and should be followed.

a. Autoclave b. Hot air oven
c. Glass beads sterilizer d. UV chamber
Ans b. Hot air oven
Hot air oven: It is used to sterilize items which do not get
damaged by high temperatures, such as laboratory glass-
ware, glass syringes and instruments. Hot air is a poor
conductor of heat and has poor penetrating capacity. It
does not penetrate grease, oil, and powders; and equip-
ment containing these substances should be sterilized by
other methods. High temperature damages fabrics and
melts rubber/plastic, hence should not be sterilized by a. Autoclave b. Hot air oven
this method. c. Glass beads sterilizer d. UV chamber
46. Identify the equipment present in the color plate. Ans d. UV chamber
Ultraviolet rays: It is absorbed by proteins and nucleic acids

and kills micro-organisms by the chemical reactions it
sets up in the bacterial cell. It has low penetrating capacity
and its main application is purification of air in operating
rooms viz to reduce the bacteria in air, water and on the
contaminated surfaces. All forms of bacteria and viruses
are vulnerable to ultraviolet rays below 3000 atmospheric
pressure. Excessive exposure of skin can produce serious
burns. Care must be taken to protect the eyes while using
UV radiation for sterilization. Now, UV chambers are avail-
a. Autoclave b. Hot air oven
able for storage of sterilized packages.
c. Glass beads sterilizer d. UV chamber
Ans c. Glass beads sterilizer 48. Identify the equipment present in the color plate.
Glass Beads Sterilizer: This method employs a heat trans-
fer device. The media used are glass beads, molten metal
or salt kept in a cup or crucible. The temperature achieved
is of 220°C. The method employs submersion of small
instruments such as endodontic files and burs, rotary
instruments into the beads; and are sterilized in 10 sec-
onds provided they are clean. Oliet et al (1958) reported
that temperatures vary in different areas of the sterilizer.
A warm-up time of at least 20 minutes is recommended
to ensure uniform temperatures in these sterilizers. Gross- a. Needle cutter b. Hot air oven
man (1974) recommended the use of salt media steriliza- c. Glass beads sterilizer d. UV chamber
tion, because the accidental introduction of metal or glass Ans a. Needle cutter
49. The colored bag cannot be used to dispose which tooth. This is mainly used for the surgical extraction of a
of the following? tooth or roots. Two-sided triangular flap: In addition to
the envelope flap, a vertical releasing incision is used in
order to have better access to the area. This vertical relea-
sing incision is made on one side of the envelope flap (at
the proximal or distal end) going divergent towards the
buccal vestibule forming an obtuse angle at the free gin-
gival margin. The vertical incision should be made in the
interproximal area, as the tissues here are thick. To avoid
periodontal defect, the incision should never lie directly
a. Tooth b. Dressings on the facial aspect of the tooth.
c. Bandages d. Needle 52. The diagrammatic representation is for which of
Ans d. Needle the following flap design?
50. Which of the following can be disposed in the

bag shown in the color plate?
a. Envelope flap
b. Two-sided triangular flap
c. Semilunar flap
d. Three-sided rhomboid flap

a. Needle b. Catheter Ans b. Two-sided triangular flap
c. Ryle’s Tube d. Tracheostomy tube Two-sided triangular flap is reflected toward the base of
the flap by using periosteal elevator.
Ans a. Needle
53. The diagrammatic representation is for which of
51. The diagrammatic representation is for which
the following flap design?
of the following flap design?
a. Envelope flap
b. Two-sided triangular flap a. Envelope flap
c. Semilunar flap b. Two-sided triangular flap
d. Three-sided rhomboid flap c. Semilunar flap
Ans a. Envelope flap d. Three-sided rhomboid flap
Envelope flap: The most common type of flap. The inci- Ans d. Three-sided rhomboid flap
sion is made to any length (depending on the amount of Three-sided rhomboid flap: This is the modification of the
exposure needed) intraorally around the necks of the teeth earlier flap to improve the visibility and access. An addi-
along the free gingival margin on the buccal or lingual tional vertical incision is added in the opposite direction
aspect including the interdental papillae. from the earlier release. Here, care should be taken that
The entire mucoperiosteal flap is raised by using peri- the base of the flap must be wider than the apex to ensure
osteal elevator to a point to the apical one-third of the good blood supply.
54. The diagrammatic representation is for which of region. It indicates the difference in occlusal level of sec-
the following flap design? ond and third molars.
• Amber line represents the bone level. The line is drawn
from the crest of the interdental septum between the
molars and extended posteriorly distal to third molar
or to the ascending ramus. This line denotes the alveo-
lar bone covering the impacted tooth and the portion
of tooth not covered by the bone.
• Red line is drawn perpendicular from the amber line
a. Envelope flap to an imaginary point of application of the elevator.
b. Two-sided triangular flap It indicates the amount of bone that will have to be
c. Semilunar flap removed before elevation, i.e. the depth of the tooth
d. Three-sided rhomboid flap in bone and the difficulty encountered in removing
Ans c. Semilunar flap the tooth. If the length of the red line is more than
Semilunar flap: Whenever the periapical area is required 5 mm then the extraction is difficult. Every additional
to be exposed to carry out periapical surgery, this flap is millimeter renders the removal of the impacted tooth
designed. Again the base of the flap should be broader three times more difficult (more than 9 mm—below
than the apex and the suture line should not lie on the the level of the apices of the second molar).
bony defect. The incision is taken at least 5 mm away from
the free gingival margin. This flap is useful to avoid damage 56. The airway as seen in the color plate can be classi-
to interdental papilla and to prevent periodontal post sur- fied according to mallampati’s grading as?
gical defects. In case of crowding of the teeth, the suturing
is not a problem with this flap. The only disadvantage of
this flap is that it often lies on the bony defect.

55. What does the red line in the presented image
represent?
a. Class I b. Class II
c. Class III d. Class IV
a. The occlusal plane Ans a. Class I
b. The bone level Mallampati’s Grading
c. The amount of bone that will have to be
removed
d. The portion of tooth not covered by the bone
Ans c. The amount of bone that will have to be removed
Three imaginary lines are drawn which are known as Win-
ter’s lines.
WAR lines
White line corresponds to the occlusal plane. The line
is drawn touching the occlusal surfaces of first and second
molar and is extended posteriorly over the third molar
57. Identify the equipment shown in the color plate. L-shaped and it has no catch. It is available in two sizes—
adult and pediatric.
a. North pole tube b. South pole tube

c. Laryngeal mask airway d. Magill’s tube
a. North pole tube b. South pole tube
Ans a. North pole tube c. LMA d. Resuscitation bag
Nasal RAE tubes are also known as ‘north-facing’, i.e. the
Ans d. Resuscitation bag
tube connector facing towards the patient’s head after
Resuscitation bag is an assembly of equipment consisting
placement.
of a self-inflating bag, a non-rebreathing valve and a face-
58. Identify the equipment shown in the color plate. mask. As it is useful for ventilating a patient in emergency
situation, it should always be available in the operation
theater as handy as possible. If any problem occurs with
anesthesia machine or a breathing system, which cannot
be diagnosed or corrected quickly, a resuscitation bag will
allow the user to ventilate the patient with room air (with
or without oxygen) till the problem is solved. It is also use-
ful and should be available during patient transport. It can
a. North pole tube b. South pole tube also be used for administering anesthesia in the absence
of an anesthesia machine, e.g. in rural set-up or field situ-

c. Ryle’s tube d. Magill’s tube
ations.
Ans b. South pole tube
Oral RAE tubes are also described as ‘south-facing’, i.e. 61. Identify the equipment in the color plate.
the tube connector facing towards the patient’s feet after
placement.
a. Pulse oximeter b. Glucometer

c. CO2 meter d. Pulsometer
a. Magill forceps Ans a. Pulse oximeter
b. Cheatle forceps 62. The cylinder shown in the color plate will contain
c. Pinchter type towel clip which of the following gas?
d. Backhaus towel clip
Ans a. Magill forceps
Magill’s forceps is an instrument, which is most often used
for guiding an endotracheal tube, from the pharynx into
the larynx during nasal intubation. It is also used to pack
the throat with a roller gauze during oral and pharyngeal
surgery, to pick up a broken or dislodged tooth lying in
the oral cavity or to pass a Ryles (nasogastric) tube. It is
a. Oxygen b. CO2 Postramal (hind) approach indicated for surgeries invol-

c. Xenon d. Hydrogen ving the condylar neck and ramus area. Highly cosmetic
procedure. Excellent visibility and accessibility. A skin
Ans a. Oxygen
incision is placed 1 cm behind the ramus of the mandible
O2 is stored in black colors cylinders
and extends 1 cm below the lobe of the ear to the angle
63. The image represents which of the following inci- of the mandible. Communicating fascia between the ster-
son? nomastoid muscle and the parotid gland and masseter
muscle (parotidomasseteric fascia) is carefully separated,
to expose the posterior border of the ramus. Perforation
of the posterior facial vein and injury to the main trunk of
the facial nerve is avoided. Once the posterior border of
the ramus has been exposed, the pterygomasseteric sling
is incised at the angle and the masseter muscle, parotid
gland are reflected upward and laterally to expose the
neck of the condyle. After completion of the surgical pro-
cedure, the pterygomasseteric sling is reapproximated and
a. Risdon incision
b. Hind incision sutured and the wound is closed in layers.
c. Al-Kayat and Bramley incision 65. The image represents which of the following inci-
d. Bicoronal incision sion?
Ans a. Risdon incision
Submandibular (risdon) approach: Here, the incision is
taken about 1 cm below the angle of the mandible. It
extends forward, parallel to the lower border of the man-
dible and curves backward slightly behind the angle.

Approach to the neck of the condyle and ramus is achieved
by sharply incising through the pterygomasseteric sling
and reflecting the masseter muscle laterally to expose the
neck of the condyle and sigmoid notch. Poor access to the
condylar head region. Procedures involving the articu-
lar portion of the head and the meniscus cannot be per-
formed by this approach.
64. The image represents which of the following inci- a. Risdon incision
sion? b. Hind’s incision
c. Al-Kayat and Bramley incision
d. Bicoronal incision
Ans c. Al-Kayat and Bramley incision
Al-Kayat and Bramley in 1979 described a modified preau-
ricular approach to TMJ and zygomatic arch considering
the main branches of the vessels and nerves in the vicin-
ity. The facial nerve exits the skull through the stylomas-
toid foramen. It enters the parotid gland, where it usually
divides into two main trunks— temporofacial and cervi-
a. Risdon incision cofacial. The facial nerve divides at a point between 1.5
b. Hind’s incision and 2.8 cm below the lowest concavity of the bony external
c. Al-Kayat and Bramley incision auditory canal, according to Al-Kayat and Bramley. These
d. Bicoronal incision measurements can be used to identify the main trunk
Ans b. Hind incision (whenever required) and avoid it during TMJ surgery.
The terminal branches of the facial nerve are classi- They can be used for the following: i. To temporarily dis-
fied as temporal, zygomatic, buccal, marginal mandibular engage the teeth. ii. To create a balanced joint-tooth stabi-
and cervical. The location of the temporal branches is of lization of the mandible. iii. To reduce spasm, contracture
particular importance during TMJ surgery. The temporal and hyperactivity of musculature. iv. To improve/restore
nerve branches lie within a dense fusion of periosteum, the vertical dimension. v. To serve as safety or protec-
temporal fascia and superficial fascia at the level of the tive appliance. In majority of cases, two types of occlusal
zygomatic arch. Al-Kayat and Bramley found that the splints are used. The splints should be removed while eat-
nerve averaged 2 cm from the anterior concavity of the ing. 1. Stabilization splint—twelve to eighteen hours use is
external auditory canal. But in some cases, the nerve is advocated up to 4 to 6 months. These are fabricated over
found as near as 0.8 cm and as far anteriorly as 3.5 cm. Pro- the maxillary teeth, covering the occlusal and incisal sur-
tection of the nerve can be achieved by making an incision face. Similar to Hawley’s plate, but occlusal coverage is
added. The splint is made up of acrylic. A flat platform is
through the temporal fascia and periosteum down to the
added perpendicular to the mandibular incisors, so that
arch, not more than 0.8 cm in front of the anterior border
the splint will disengage the teeth and relax the muscles.
of the external auditory canal.
The splint should be worn as instructed and patient should
66. Coronal section of CT scan presented here is sug- be recalled for check up at 2 weeks interval. Follow-up is
gestive of which of the following diagnosis? done until the occlusion is stabilized and muscles are free
of tenderness. If patient does not have relief at the end of
3 months, reevaluation of the original diagnosis should
be done. This splint reduces the load on the retrodiskal
area and thereby relieves the pain. It can be also used to
eliminate occlusal interferences associated with bruxism.
Instead of acrylic material, prefabricated commercially
available resilient splints are also available for protection
of teeth from trauma or from forces of bruxism. 2. Relaxa-
tion Splints: Relaxation splints are used for disengagement

of teeth and for only short period (up to 4 weeks). They are
a. Condylar fracture fabricated over the maxillary incisor teeth. A platform is
b. Condylar hyperplasia added to disengage mandibular anteriors.
c. Ankylosis
68. Which of the following procedure is represented
d. Condylar osteochondroma
in the color plate?
Ans c. Ankylosis
Note the osseous ankylosis-obliteration of the joint space
of right condyle.
67. Identify the equipment in the color plate.
a. Arthrocentesis b. Arthroscopy
c. Arthroplasty d. Arthrectomy
a. Occlusal splint b. Gunning splint Ans a. Arthrocentosis
c. Metal FPD d. Bleaching tray T emporomandibular joint arthrocentesis: Arthrocentesis
Ans a. Occlusal splint (lavage or irrigation of the upper joint cavity) objectives:
i. Improve the disk mobility. ii. Eliminate joint inflam- a. BSSO

mation. iii. Remove the resistance to condyle translation. b. Horizontal distraction osteogenesis
Return to normal function. iv. Early physiotherapy. v. Elim-
c. Vertical distraction osteogenesis
inate pain. Indications for arthrocentesis: All patients who
d. Genioplasty
had proved refractory to conservative treatment (medica-
tion, bite appliance, physiotherapy and manipulation of Ans c. Vertical distraction osteogenesis
the joint). 72. The image represents which of the following pro-
69. The radiograph represents which of the following cedures?
procedures?
a. BSSO
a. BSSO
b. Horizontal distraction osteogenesis b. Horizontal distraction osteogenesis
c. Vertical distraction osteogenesis c. Vertical distraction osteogenesis
d. Inverted L osteotomy d. Genioplasty
Ans d. Genioplasty
Ans b. Horizontal distraction osteogenesis
73. The image represents which of the following pro-
70. The sign shown in the color plate is associated
cedures?
with which of the following?

a. Mandibular fracture
b. Maxillary fracture a. LeFort I osteotomy
c. Condylar fracture
b. Horizontal distraction osteogenesis
d. Basilar skull fracture
c. Vertical distraction osteogenesis
Ans b. Maxillary fracture
d. LeFort I osteotomy
Guerin’s sign: Palatal hemorrhage due to maxillary frac-
Ans d. LeFort I osteotomy
ture.
71. The radiograph represents which of the following
procedures?
a. Mandibular fracture b. Maxillary fracture a. Mandibular fracture

c. Midface fracture d. Blow on head b. LeFort I fracture
Ans a. Mandibular fracture c. LeFort III fracture
Coleman’s sign: Sublingual hemorrhage following man- d. Condyle fracture
dibular. Ans c. LeFort III fracture
Bilateral circumorbital/periorbital ecchymosis and gross
edema ‘Racoon eyes’. Gross circumorbital edema will pre-
vent eyes from opening.
78. Identify the type of wiring shown in the color plate.
a. Essig’s wiring b. Gilmer’s wiring
b. Maxillary fracture
c. Risdon’s wiring d. Ivy eyelets wiring
c. Midface fracture
Ans a. Essig’s wiring
d. Basilar skull fracture
Essig’s wiring: Essig’s wiring can be used to stabilize the
Ans d. Basilar skull fracture dentoalveolar fractures in individual dental arches, as well
Battle’s sign as it can be used as anchoring device for IMF. The luxated
76. The sign shown in the color plate is associated teeth also can be stabilized using this wiring. Require-
ments for this type of wiring is that there should be suffi-

cient number of teeth on either side of the fracture line to
take the anchorage.
b. LeFort I fracture
c. Zygomatic fracture
d. Dura mater injury
Ans d. Dura mater injury

c. Risdon’s wiring d. Ivy Eyelets wiring
Ans b. Gilmer’s wiring
Gilmer’s wiring: Gilmer’s wiring is a direct wiring method
of intermaxillary fixation between the maxillary and man-
dibular teeth. This is the most common, simple, and prac-
tical method, as it secures the teeth and stabilizes the jaw
properly.
80. Identify the type of wiring shown in the color plate. a. Essig’s wiring
b. Col. Stout’s multiloop wiring
c. Risdon’s wiring
d. Ivy eyelets wiring
Ans b. Col. Stout’s multiloop wiring
83. Identify the equipment in the color plate.

c. Risdon’s wiring d. Ivy eyelets wiring
Ans c. Risdon’s wiring a. Occlusal splint b. Gunning splint
Risdon’s wiring: Risdon’s wiring is a commonly utilized c. Metal FPD d. Bleaching tray
method of horizontal wire fixation. Certain fractures can
Ans b. Gunning splint
be treated adequately by this method alone. However, in
Gunning splint: In edentulous jaws, patient’s own den-
some cases, additional stabilization may be necessary. In
tures, suitably modified can be used or specially con-
this method, usually second molars on either sides are
structed Gunning splint can be used. Circumferential
chosen for anchorage.
wiring is used to fix the splint to the mandibular bone and
81. Identify the type of wiring shown in the color plate. upper denture or splint is fixed to the maxilla by means of
peralveolar wiring.

84. The color plate shows which of the following types
of fracture.
a. Essig’s wiring
b. Col. Stout’s multiloop wiring
c. Risdon’s wiring
d. Ivy eyelets wiring
Ans d. Ivy eyelets wiring
Ivy eyelets wiring: The Ivy loop embraces the two adjacent
teeth
a. Bucket handle fracture
b. Parade ground fracture
c. Horizontal favorable fracture
d. Horizontal unfavorable fracture
Ans a. Bucket handle fracture
Bucket handle fracture: Sometimes, due to extreme alveo-
lar resorption, the molar areas may be more prone to frac-
ture. In some cases, it is possible to have bilateral fracture of
the body of the edentulous mandible, each occurring near
the posterior attachment of the mylohyoid muscle. In the
edentulous mandible, the mylohyoid muscle attachment a. Champy’s plating

is relatively higher up on the lingual side. Under the influ- b. Circumorbital wiring
ence of the diagastric and mylohyoid muscles pull, there is c. Circumzygomatic wiring
extreme downward and backward angulation of the ante- d. Lag screw
rior fractured fragment. This creates a typical ‘bucket han-
Ans c. Circumzygomatic wiring
dle’ type of displacement, which is highly unstable.
Circumzygomatic wiring: This is mainly used in case of
85. The color plate shows which of the following types orbital floor fracture or zygomatic complex fracture dis-
of fracture. placement. Intraorally, the direct support can be given
via the maxillary sinus, with the objective of repositioning
the fragments and supporting them in position by various
means until union has occurred.
87. The image represents which of the following inci-

sion?
a. Bucket handle fracture

b. Parade ground fracture
c. Horizontal favorable fracture
d. Horizontal unfavorable fracture a. Caldwell luc incision
Ans b. Parade ground fracture b. Gilli’s incision
Parade ground fracture: When the blow is received in c. Al-Kayat and Bramley incision

the center of the chin, the distribution of force is equal to d. Bicoronal incision
both the condyles, resulting in a bilateral indirect fracture Ans a. Caldwell luc incision
through the necks, accompanied by a direct fracture at Caldwel luc incision
the symphysis (countercoup type of fractures). This type
of injury is more often seen in an epileptic patients or sol- 88. The image represents which of the following inci-
diers who fall on the face during parade. sion?
86. The radiograph represents which of the following?
a. Caldwell luc incision

b. Gillies temporal fossa approach
c. Al-Kayat and Bramley incision
d. Bicoronal incision
Ans b. Gillies temporal fossa approach
Gillies temporal fossa approach
Chapter 4
1-
j
O
Periodontics a>
LU
03
HHBHB
1. A 12-year- old,otherwise healthy male, patient, a. Autosomal dominant

reported with complaint of failure of eruption of b. Autosomal recessive
many teeth and irregular eruption of others as c. X- linked dominant
seen in the color plate. The gingiva is firm on pal - d. X- linked recessive
pation without bleeding on probing. Which of the
Ans a. Autosomal dominant
following can be the diagnosis?
Gingival hyperplasia may also be of genetic origin.
Such lesions are known as hereditary gingival fibromatosis
( HGF ), which is an uncommon condition characterized by
diffuse gingival enlargement, sometimes covering major

parts of, or the total, tooth surfaces. The lesions develop
irrespective of effective plaque removal.
Most cases are related to an autosomal dominant
a. Inflammatory gingival hyperplasia mode of inheritance, but cases have been described with
an autosomal recessive background
b. Hereditary gingival fibromatosis
Typically, HGF presents as large masses of firm, dense,
c. Drug- induced gingival enlargement
resilient, insensitive fibrous tissue that cover the alveolar
d. Scurvy ridges and extend over the teeth, resulting in extensive
Ans b. Hereditary gingival fibromatosis pseudopockets. The color may be normal or erythema - CD
2. A 12-year- old, otherwise healthy, male patient tous if inflamed. Depending on extension of the gingival
enlargement, patients complain of functional and esthetic LU
reported with complaint of failure of eruption
of many teeth and irregular eruption of others problems. The enlargement may result in protrusion of the
lips, and they may chew on a considerable hyperplasia of 03
as seen in the color plate. The Gingiva is firm on
palpation without bleeding on probing. Patient's tissue covering the teeth.
father suffered from same problem. What is its If the enlargement is present before tooth eruption, the
most common hereditary pattern? dense fibrous tissue may interfere with or prevent eruption
CD
3. Identify the pathology.
CO
a. Dehiscence b. Fenestration 6. Identify the periodontal fiber group marked with

c. Stillman’s cleft d. McCall festoon arrow.
Ans b. Fenestration
a. Alveolar crest fibers (ACF)

b. Apical fibers (APF)
c. Horizontal fibers (HF)
d. Oblique fibers (OF)
Ans c. Horizontal fibers (HF)
a. Dehiscence b. Fenestration
c. Stillman’s cleft d. McCall festoon 7. Identify the periodontal fiber group marked with
arrow.
Ans a. Dehiscene
Ref: Clinical periodontology and Implant Dentistry
(Lindhe), 5th Ed.
At the buccal aspect of the jaws, the bone coverage
is sometimes missing at the coronal portion of the roots,
forming a so-called dehiscence. If some bone is present

in the most coronal portion of such an area, the defect is
called a fenestration.
These defects often occur where a tooth is displaced
out of the arch and are more frequent over anterior than a. Alveolar crest fibers (ACF)
posterior teeth. The root in such defects is covered only by b. Apical fibers (APF)
periodontal ligament and the overlying gingiva. c. Horizontal fibers (HF)
5. Identify the periodontal fiber group marked with d. Oblique fibers (OF)
arrow. Ans d. Oblique fibers (OF)
8. Identify the periodontal fiber group.
a. Alveolar crest fibers (ACF) a. Alveolar crest fibers (ACF)

b. Horizontal fibers (HF) b. Apical fibers (APF)
c. Oblique fibers (OF) c. Horizontal fibers (HF)
d. Apical fibers (APF) d. Oblique fibers (OF)
Ans a. Alveolar crest fibers (ACF) Ans b. Apical fibers (APF)
Periodontics 53
Ref: Carranza’s clinical periodontology, 10th Ed. this association was never proved, and these indentations
The tooth is joined to the bone by bundles of collagen merely represent peculiar inflammatory changes of the
fibers which can be divided into the following main groups marginal gingiva.
according to their arrangement:
1. Alveolar crest fibers (ACF) 10. Which of the following structures is arrowed at in
2. Horizontal fibers (HF) the color plate.
3. Oblique fibers (OF)
4. Apical fibers (APF)
Alveolar crest group. Alveolar crest fibers extend
obliquely from the cementum just beneath the junctional
epithelium to the alveolar crest. Fibers also run from the
cementum over the alveolar crest and to the fibrous layer
of the periosteum covering the alveolar bone. The alveo-
lar crest fibers prevent the extrusion of the tooth and resist
lateral tooth movements. The incision of these fibers dur- a. Dehiscene b. Fenestration
ing periodontal surgery does not increase tooth mobility c. Stillman’s cleft d. McCall festoon
unless significant attachment loss has occurred.
Ans c. Stillman’s cleft
Horizontal group. Horizontal fibers extend at right
Ref: Carranza’s clinical periodontology, 10th Ed.
angles to the long axis of the tooth from the cementum to
Changes in gingival contour are primarily associated
the alveolar bone.
with gingival enlargement, but such changes may also
Oblique group. Oblique fibers, the largest group in the
periodontal ligament, extend from the cementum in a cor- occur in other conditions.
onal direction obliquely to the bone. They bear the brunt Of historical interest are the descriptions of indenta-
of vertical masticatory stresses and transform them into tions of the gingival margin referred to as Stillman’s clefts
tension on the alveolar bone. and the McCall festoons.

Apical group. The apical fibers radiate in a rather irreg- The term “Stillman’s clefts” has been used to describe
ular manner from the cementum to the bone at the apical a specific type of gingival recession consisting of a narrow,
region of the socket. They do not occur on incompletely triangular-shaped gingival recession. As the recession pro-
formed roots. gresses apically, the cleft becomes broader, exposing the
cementum of the root surface. When the lesion reaches the
9. Which of the following is seen in the color plate? mucogingival junction, the apical border of oral mucosa is
usually inflamed because of the difficulty in maintaining
adequate plaque control at this site.
11. A 25-year-old male patient presents with severe

periodontal destruction. Patient’s physical exam-
ination revealed the condition as seen in the color
plate. What is the most probable diagnosis?
a. Dehiscence b. Fenestration
c. Stillman’s cleft d. McCall festoon
Ans d. McCall festoon
Ref: Carranza’s clinical periodontology,10th Ed.
The term “McCall festoons” has been used to describe
a rolled, thickened band of gingiva usually seen adjacent to
the cuspids when recession approaches the mucogingival
junction. Initially, Stillman’s clefts and McCall festoons
were attributed to traumatic occlusion, and the recom-
mended treatment was occlusal adjustment. However,
a. Papillon-Lefèvre syndrome a. Traumatic fibroma b. Papilloma

b. Hypophosphatasia c. Pyogenic granuloma d. Lipoma
c. Stevens-Johnson syndrome Ans c. Pyogenic granuloma
d. NOMA Ref: Carranza’s clinical periodontology, 10th Ed.
Ans a. Papillon-Lefèvre syndrome Pyogenic granuloma is a tumor like gingival enlarge-
Ref: Carranza’s clinical periodontology, 10th Ed. ment that is considered an exaggerated conditioned
Papillon-Lefèvre syndrome (PLS) is a rare autosomal response to minor trauma The exact nature of the systemic
recessive disorder characterized by palmoplantar hyper- conditioning factor has not been identified.
keratosis and aggressive periodontitis. The lesion varies from a discrete spherical, tumor-
Both the primary dentitions and secondary dentitions like mass with a pedunculated attachment to a flattened,
can be affected. PLS is caused by mutations in the cathepsin keloid-like enlargement with a broad base. It is bright red
C gene, which is located on chromosome 11 (11q14-q21). or purple and either friable or firm, depending on its dura-
Cathepsin C is a cysteine protease normally expressed tion; in the majority of cases it presents with surface ulcer-
at high levels in various cells, including epithelium and ation and purulent exudation. The lesion tends to involute
polymorphonuclear leukocytes (PMNs). spontaneously to become a fibroepithelial papilloma, or it
Cathepsin C appears to play a role in degrading pro- may persist relatively unchanged for years.
teins and activating proenzymes in immune and inflam- Histopathology. Pyogenic granuloma appears as a
matory cells. mass of granulation tissue with chronic inflammatory cel-
lular infiltration. Endothelial proliferation and the forma-
12. Identify the component in place present in the tion of numerous vascular spaces are the prominent fea-
color plate. tures. The surface epithelium is atrophic in some areas and
hyperplastic in others. Surface ulceration and exudation
are common features.
14. 51. A 30-year-old woman presented with the

growth as seen in the color plate. The histopath
report shows endothelial proliferation in the con-
nective tissue. Which of the following is the ideal
treatment plan?
a. Healing abutment b. Guidepins

c. Auxiullary implant d. Transfer coping
Ans a. Healing abutment
13. A 30-year-old woman presented with the growth

as seen in the color plate. The histopath report
shows endothelial proliferation in the connective
tissue. Which of the following can be the diagnosis?
a. NSAIDs and observation

b. Removal of the irritating factors and observation
c. Removal of the lesion and observation
d. Removal of the lesion with irritating factors
and observation
Ans d. Removal of the lesion with irritating factors and
observation
Periodontics 55
Treatment consists of removal of the lesions plus the Diagrammatic representation of an osseous crater in
elimination of irritating local factors. The recurrence rate a faciolingual section between two lower molars.
is about 15%. Pyogenic granuloma is similar in clinical
17. The diagramatic representation shows which kind
and microscopic appearance to the conditioned gingival
of bone defect?
enlargement seen in pregnancy. Differential diagnosis is
based on the patient’s history.
15. The arrow in diagram shows extent of the pocket.

This kind of periodontal pocket is called what?
a. Ledge
b. Osseous creter
c. Reverse architecture
d. Bulbous bone contours
Ans c. Reverse architecture
Reversed architecture defects are produced by loss
a. Simple pocket
of interdental bone, including the facial plates and lin-
b. Compound pocket gual plates, without concomitant loss of radicular bone,
c. Complex pocket thereby reversing the normal architecture.
d. Suprabony pocket
Ans c. Complex pocket. of bone defect?

a. Ledge
b. Osseous creter
c. Reverse architecture
16. The diagramatic representation shows which kind d. Bulbous bone contours
of bone defect?
Ans a. Ledge
Ledges are plateau-like bone margins caused by resorp-
tion of thickened bony plates
The color plate shows ledge produced by interproxi-
mal resorption.
of bone defect?
a. Ledge
b. Osseous creter
c. Furcation involvement
Ans b. Osseous creter
a. Ledge 22. The diagramatic representation shows which kind

b. Osseous creter of bone defect?
c. Furcation involvement
Ans c. Furcation involvement
Flap elevation reveals extensive bone loss and furca-
tion involvement in the color plate.
Furcation involvements have been classified as grades
I, II, III, and IV according to the amount of tissue destruc-
a. One-wall defect
tion.
b. Two-wall defect
Grade I is incipient bone loss, grade II is partial bone
c. Three-wall defect
loss (cul-de-sac), grade III is total bone loss with through-
d. Combined wall defect
and-through opening of the furcation.
Ans a. One-wall defect
Grade IV is similar to grade III, but with gingival reces-
sion exposing the furcation to view.
20. What kind of bone loss does this IOPA reveal
of bone defect?
around 46?

a. One-wall defect
b. Two-wall defect
a. Horizontal b. Angular c. Three-wall defect
c. Spiral d. Mixed d. Combined wall defect
Ans b. Angular Ans b. Two-wall defect
Ref: Carranza’s clinical periodontology, 10th Ed. Ref: Carranza’s clinical periodontology, 10th Ed.
21. What kind of bone loss does this IOPA reveal 24. The 3DCT reconstruction shows which kind of
around 46? bone defect?
a. Hemiseptum
b. Two-wall defect
a. Horizontal b. Angular c. Intrabony defect
c. Spiral d. Mixed d. Combined wall defect
Ans a. Horizontal Ans a. Hemiseptum
Periodontics 57
The three-wall vertical defect was originally called an a. Exostoses b. Osseous creter
intrabony defect. This defect appears most frequently on c. Reverse architecture d. Ledge
the mesial aspects of second and third maxillary and man-
Ans A. Exostoses
dibular molars. The one-wall vertical defect is also called
Exostoses are outgrowths of bone of varied sizes and
a hemiseptum.
shapes. Palatal exostoses have been found in 40% of
human skulls. They can occur as small nodules, large nod-
ules, sharp ridges, spike-like projections, or any combina-
tion of these. Exostoses have been described in rare cases
as developing after the placement of free gingival grafts.
27. Which of the following curves is presented in the

diagrammatic representation here?
25. The diagrammatic representation shows which

kind of bone defect?
a. Monsoon curve b. Curve of Spee

c. Wilson curve d. Scammon’s curve
a. One-wall defect Ans b. Curve of Spee
b. Two-wall defect 28. Which of the following curves is presented in the

c. Three-wall defect diagrammatic representation here?
d. Combined wall defect
Ans d. Combined wall defect
Combined type of osseous defect. Because the facial
wall is half the height of the distal (1) and lingual (2) walls,
this is an osseous defect with three walls in its apical half
and two walls in the occlusal half.
Ans c. Wilson curve
29. Which of the following curves is presented in the

diagrammatic representation here?

of bone feature?

Ans a. Monsoon curve
The curve of occlusion in which each cusp and incisal edge a. Localized aggressive periodontitis
touch or conform to a segment of the surface of a sphere 8 b. Generalized aggressive periodontitis
inches in diameter with its center in the region of the glabella. c. Chronic localized periodontitis
30. Which of the following is true for radiopaque d. Chronic generalized periodontitis
structure visible interproximally? Ans b. Generalized aggressive periodontitis
The radiographic picture in generalized aggressive
periodontitis can range from severe bone loss associated
with the minimal number of teeth.
A comparison of radiographs taken at different times
illustrates the aggressive nature of this disease.
33. Identify the radiograph type used to study alveo-

a. Stains b. Plaque lar bone level.
c. Calculus d. Materia alba
Ans c. Calculus
31. The cropped OPG of a 25-year-old male is sugg-

estive of which of the following conditions?
a. IOPA b. Bite wing

c. Occlusal d. Panoramic
Ans b. Bite wing

a. Localized aggressive periodontitis
b. Generalized aggressive periodontitis 34. The lesion seen in the color plate shows angular
c. Chronic localized periodontitis bone loss in around 46 in the radiographic exami-
d. Chronic generalized periodontitis nation. What is the most probable diagnosis out of
the folowing?
Ans a. Localized aggressive periodontitis
Vertical loss of alveolar bone around the first molars
and incisors, beginning around puberty in otherwise
healthy teenagers, is a classic diagnostic sign of LAP.
Radiographic findings may include an “arc-shaped loss
of alveolar bone extending from the distal surface of the sec-
ond premolar to the mesial surface of the second molar.”
Bone defects are usually wider than usually seen with a. Periodontal abscess
chronic periodontitis b. Gingival abscess
c. Periapical abscess with sinus tract
32. The OPG of a 22-year-old male is suggestive of
which of the following conditions? d. Lateral periodontal cyst
Ans a. Periodontal abscess
A periodontal abscess is a localized purulent inflam-
mation in the periodontal tissues. It is also known as a
lateral abscess or parietal abscess. Abscesses localized in
the gingiva, caused by injury to the outer surface of the
gingiva, and not involving the supporting structures are
Periodontics 59
called gingival abscesses. Gingival abscesses may occur in It is generally limited to the marginal gingiva or inter-
the presence or absence of a periodontal pocket. dental papilla. In its early stages, it appears as a red swell-
Periodontal abscesses are classified according to loca- ing with a smooth, shiny surface. Within 24 to 48 hours,
tion as follows: the lesion usually becomes fluctuant and pointed with
1. Abscess in the supporting periodontal tissues along a surface orifice from which a purulent exudate may be
the lateral aspect of the root. In this condition, a sinus expressed. The adjacent teeth are often sensitive to percus-
generally occurs in the bone that extends laterally sion. If permitted to progress, the lesion generally ruptures
from the abscess to the external surface. spontaneously.
2. Abscess in the soft tissue wall of a deep periodontal Histopathology: The gingival abscess consists of a
pocket. purulent focus in the connective tissue, surrounded by
a diffuse infiltration of polymorphonuclear leukocytes
35. “Floating teeth” as seen in the radiograph of a
(PMNs), edematous tissue, and vascular engorgement.
55-year-old female is a feature of which of the fol-
The surface epithelium has varying degrees of intracellu-
lowing?
lar and extracellular edema, invasion by leukocytes, and
sometimes ulceration.
37. A 40-year-old male complained of pain and
mobility of noncarious 47, associated with swell-
ing and pus discharge from gingiva. What is the
diagnosis?
a. Localized aggressive periodontitis
b. Gingival abscess
c. Chronic localized periodontitis
d. Chronic generalized periodontitis
Ans d. Chronic generalized periodontitis

Severe cases of generalized periodontitis cause gener-
alized bone resorption, leading to loss of support for teeth,
causing floating teeth appearance. a. Periapical granuloma
b. Periodontal abscess
36. The lesion seen in the color plate does not show c. Periodontal cyst
its existence in the radiographic examination. d. Periapical cyst
What is the most probable diagnosis out of the
Ans b. Periodontal abscess
folowing?
38. A patient presented with a localized, painful
lesion of sudden onset limited to the marginal
gingiva of 47. Based on radiographic investiga-
tion. What is most probable diagnosis?
a. Periodontal abscess
b. Gingival abscess
c. Periapical abscess with sinus tract
d. Lateral periodontal cyst a. Periapical granuloma
Ans b. Gingival abscess b. Periodontal abscess
Ref: Carranza’s clinical periodontology, 10th Ed. c. Periodontal cyst
A gingival abscess is a localized, painful, rapidly expan- d. Gingival cyst
ding lesion that is usually of sudden onset. Ans b. Periodontal abscess
39. Gingival inflammation as seen in the color plate 42. A 15-year-old girl complained of progressively
is associated with which of the following habits? enlarging gum. The growth was excised. Hostopa-
thology report shows thickened epithelium with
elongated rete pegs that penetrated deep into the
connective tissue. Dense collagenous tissue bun-
dles arranged in parallel were found scattered
throughout the connective tissue. What is the
most probable diagnosis?
a. Thumb-sucking b. Nail-biting
c. Tongue-thrusting d. Mouth-breathing
Ans d. Mouth-breathing
40. Patient complains of bleeding gums. There is no

relevant past medical history. What is the diagno-
sis?
a. Inflammatory gingival hyperplasia
b. Hereditary gingival fibromatosis
c. Drug-induced gingival enlargement
d. Idiopathic gingival fibromatosis
Ans d. Idiopathic gingival fibromatosis
Gingival fibromatosis, otherwise known as gingi-
val hyperplasia or gingival overgrowth, may occur due

a. Inflammatory gingival enlargement to a variety of etiological and pathological factors. These
b. Pregnancy-induced gingivitis include inflammation, use of systemic medications, pres-
c. Phenytoin-induced gingival enlargement ence of systemic diseases or conditions, neoplasia or due
d. Nifedipine-induced gingival enlargement to pseudotumors. In rare cases (1 in 750,000 people), the
Ans a. Inflammatory gingival enlargement overgrowth can be hereditary, when it is called hereditary
gingival fibromatosis (HGF). This term is synonymous with
41. An HIV-positive patient presented with the clini-
idiopathic gingival fibromatosis (IGF) as in most cases, the
cal condition as seen in the color plate. Which
of the following is the most probable diagnosis? etiology remains unknown.
IGF can occur as an isolated disease affecting only gin-
giva. It can occur as a part of syndrome or chromosomal
abnormality and both autosomal dominant and reces-
sive forms have been described. It may present itself in
localized or generalized form. The symmetrical general-
ized form of IGF is more common. Clinically, it is a slowly
progressive benign gingival enlargement of keratinized
gingiva. The enlarged gingiva may be normal in color or
a. Pyogenic granuloma erythematous. The consistency might be nodular or uni-
b. Kaposi sarcoma formly fibrous. The enlargement may potentially cover
c. Linear gingival erythema the exposed tooth surfaces to the extent of causing func-
d. Focal epithelial hyperplasia tional and esthetic impairment. Alveolar bone is usually
Ans b. Kaposi sarcoma not affected, but periodontal problems might result due to
Ref: Carranza’s clinical periodontology, 10th Ed. pseudopocketing.
Periodontics 61
43. A 20-year-old boy presents with trismus and pain. The lesions are extremely sensitive to touch, and the
There is a partial impaction of 48. Based on clini- patient often complains of a constant radiating, gnawing
cal image. What is the most probable diagnosis? pain that is intensified by eating spicy or hot foods and
chewing. There is a “metallic” foul taste, and the patient is
conscious of an excessive amount of “pasty” saliva.
46. An HIV positive patient presented with the condi-

tion as seen in the color plate, which had radio-
graphic evidence of bone resorption. Which of
the following stages is diagnosed?
a. Pericoronal abscess
b. Periodontal abscess
c. Gingival abscess
d. Lateral periodontal cyst
Ans a. Pericoronal abscess
44. Identify the lesion shown in the colored image.
a. NUG b. NUP
c. Necrotizing stomatitis d. Vincent’s angina
Ans c. Necrotizing stomatitis
47. The color plate is diagnostic of which of the fol-

a. Linear gingival erythema lowing conditions?
b. Chronic generalized gingivitis

c. Erythematous candidiasis
d. Erythematous lichen planus
Ans a. Linear gingival erythema
Ref: Shafer’s Textbook of Oral Pathology, 7th Ed.
Linear gingival erythema (LGE) is a non-plaque-
induced gingivitis exhibiting a distinct erythematous band
of the marginal gingiva with either diffuse or punctate ery- a. Myiasis b. Mucormycosis
thema of the attached gingiva. c. Actinomycosis d. Blastomycosis
45. Patient complains of gnawing pain that is inten- Ans a. Myiasis
sified by eating spicy or hot foods and chewing. Ref: Shafer’s Textbook of Oral Pathology, 7th Ed.
There is a “metallic” foul taste and “pasty” saliva. Oral Myiasis (Gr. Myia: fly) is defined as a condition
What is the most probable diagnosis? in which the soft tissue of different parts of the oral cavity
are invaded by the parasitic larvae of flies (Moshref, Ansari
and Loftfi, 2008). These larvae, commonly known as mag-
gots, are of two-winged flies, the Diptera. Myiasis occurs
mainly in the tropics and is associated with poor personal
hygiene. Usually the female fly infests ova in open wounds,
dead tissue, or in the natural body cavities, such as ear,
nostrils, and oral cavity. The flies lay over 500 eggs directly
a. NUG b. NUP on diseased tissue. These eggs hatch and the larvae get
c. NOMA d. Vincent’s angina their nourishment from the soft tissue.
Ans a. NUG Oral myasis is relatively a rare condition but cases have
Ref: Carranza’s clinical periodontology, 10th Ed. been reported in gingiva, palate, and extracted wounds.
Antunes AA et al (2011) presented a series of 10 cases of of the gingival sulcus (arrow) and the junctional epithe-
oral and maxillofacial myasis and reviewd the literature. lium (JE) are on the enamel. 2, Base of the gingival sulcus
(arrow) is on the enamel, and part of the junctional epithe-
48. What is the treatment for the condition shown in lium is on the root. 3, Base of the gingival sulcus (arrow) is
the color plate? at the cementoenamel line and the entire junctional epi-
thelium is on the root. 4, Base of the gingival sulcus (arrow)
and the junctional epithelium are on the root.
Ref: Carranza’s Clinical Periodontology, 10th Ed.
Continuous Tooth Eruption
According to the concept of continuous eruption, eruption
does not cease when teeth meet their functional antago-
nists but continues throughout life. Eruption consists of an
a. Surgical excision active and a passive phase. Active eruption is the move-
b. Removal of larvae and debridement ment of the teeth in the direction of the occlusal plane,
c. Citric acid irrigation whereas passive eruption is the exposure of the teeth by
d. NaOH irrigation apical migration of the gingiva.
Although originally thought to be a normal physiologic
Ans b. Removal of larvae and debridement
process, passive eruption is now considered a pathologic
Ref: Shafer’s Textbook of Oral Pathology, 7th Ed.
process. Passive eruption is divided into the following four
Oral myiasis
stages.
The usual presenting symptoms are painful growth
Stage 1: The teeth reach the line of occlusion. The junc-
with ulceration and itching due to crawling movement
tional epithelium and base of the gingival sulcus are on the
of the larvae. The treatment is aimed at removal of larvae
enamel.
from the affected area and flushing the area with normal
Stage 2: The junctional epithelium proliferates, so that
saline or antiseptics. part is on the cementum and part is on the enamel. The

49. According to Gottlieb and Orban, this color plate base of the sulcus is still on the enamel.
represents. Which stage of passive eruption? Stage 3: The entire junctional epithelium is on the
cementum, and the base of the sulcus is at the cementoe-
namel junction. As the junctional epithelium proliferates
from the crown onto the root, it does not remain at the
cementoenamel junction any longer than at any other area
of the tooth.
Stage 4: The junctional epithelium has proliferated
farther on the cementum. The base of the sulcus is on the
cementum, a portion of which is exposed. Proliferation of
the junctional epithelium onto the root is accompanied
by degeneration of gingival and periodontal ligament fib-
ers and their detachment from the tooth. The cause of this
degeneration is not understood. At present, it is believed
to be the result of chronic inflammation and, therefore, a
a. Stage 1 b. Stage 2 pathologic process.
c. Stage 3 d. Stage 4
Ans d. Stage 4
Stage 4: The junctional epithelium has proliferated
farther on the cementum. The base of the sulcus is on the
cementum, a portion of which is exposed.
Diagrammatic representation of the four steps in pas-
sive eruption according to Gottlieb and Orban. 1, Base
Periodontics 63
50. The color plate points towards which of the foll- 53. The color image represents which type of suturing
owing? technique?
a. Dehiscence
a. Figure of eight
b. Fenestration
b. Circumferential director loop
c. Stillman’s cleft
c. Mattress—vertical
d. Boneless window
d. Intrapapillary
Ans d. Boneless window
Ans a. Figure of eight
Interdental Septum 54. The color image represents which type of suturing
If roots are too close together, an irregular “window” technique?
can appear in the bone between adjacent roots
51. Identify the type of implant in place in radiograph.

a. Figure of eight
a. Endosseous b. Periosteal b. Circumferential director loop
c. Transosseous d. Submucosal c. Mattress—horizontal
Ans a. Endosseous d. Intrapapillary
Ans c. Mattress—horizontal
52. The color image represents which type of suturing
technique? 55. Identify the instrument.
a. Figure of eight
b. Circumferential director of loop
c. Mattress—vertical a. Naber’s probe b. Sickle scaler
d. Intrapapillary c. Universal curette d. Morse scaler
Ans b. Circumferential director loop Ans a. Naber’s probe
56. Identify the appliance present in the color plate. In cases of demonstrating sufficient crestal bone
height, a sinus elevation approach can be taken through
the implant osteotomy (i.e. from a crestal approach). If the
amount of available bone in the posterior maxilla is less
than 10 mm and greater than 7 mm, the osteotome tech-
nique may be indicated. This procedure uses osteotomes
(color plate) to compress bone (internally from the alveo-
lar crest upward) against the floor of the sinus, ultimately
leading to a controlled “inward fracture” of the sinus floor
bone along with the Schneiderian membrane, which
should remain intact with the in-fractured bone.
a. Primary healing abutment
b. Guide pin
c. Auxullary implant
d. Transfer coping
Ans b. Guide pin
a. DeMarco curettes
b. #13/14 Gracey curette
57. Identify the instrument present in the color plate c. Large spoon curettes
used in implant surgery. d. Medium-sized curved membrane elevators
Ans d. Medium-sized curved membrane elevators

a. Straight osteotome
a. DeMarco curettes
b. Contra-angled condenser
b. #13/14 gracey curette
c. Offset osteotome
c. Large spoon curettes
d. Offset condenser d. Medium-sized curved membrane elevators
Ans c. Offset osteotome
Ans a. DeMarco curettes
Elevation of the Schneiderian membrane is accom-
58. For what purpose are these instruments present
plished with hand instruments that are inserted along the
in the color plate used in implant surgery?
internal aspect of the bony walls of the sinus.
Instruments used to elevate the Schneiderian mem-
brane through lateral window antrostomy.
61. Which of the following is presented in the color
plate?
a. Sinus lifting b. Bone drilling

c. Paralleling d. Bone grafting
Ans a. Sinus lifting
Periodontics 65
a. ePTFE barrier membrane 65. The color plate represents component of which
b. Anterior Iliac crest graft of the following systems?
c. Titanium-reinforced (TR) membrane
d. Cartilage greaft
Ans a. ePTFE barrier membrane
The color plate shows expanded polytetrafluoroethyl-
ene (ePTFE) barrier membrane positioned over graft and
held in place with sutures.
a. Perioprobe
62. Identify the instrument present in the color plate. b. Toronto automated
c. Florida probe system
d. Foster-miller probe
Ans c. Florida probe system
1. Handpiece for assessing probing pocket depths.
2. Handpiece for assessing relative clinical attachment
levels.
a. Periotest b. Osseotell 66. Identify the system present in the color plate.
c. Bonetap d. Endomate
Ans a. Periotest

a. Periotest b. Periotron
c. Periprobe d. Periotemp
a. Periosteal elevator b. Osteotome Ans b. Periotron
c. Chisel d. Malleet Ref: Carranza’s clinical periodontology, 10th Ed.
Ans b. Osteotome Sampling method for gingival crevicular fluid (GCF)
analysis (Periotron), saliva is removed from the tooth sur-
64. Identify the instrument present in the color plate. face with cotton wool before placement of a periopaper
strip into the pocket to collect GCF. The moist paper strip
is removed and placed between the jaws of the Periotron
for assessment of fluid content.
67. The color plate is representing which brushing
technique?
a. Periotest b. Osseotell
c. Periprobe d. Periotemp
Ans c. Periprobe
Automatic-electronic Periodontal Probe
a. Bass Method b. Scrub Method a. Powered flossing device

c Leonard Method d. Stillman method b. Floss cutter
Ans a. Bass Method c. Floss holder
Ref: Carranza’s clinical periodontology, 10th Ed. d. Floss cleaner
1. Place the head of a soft brush parallel with the occlusal Ans c. Floss holder
plane, with the brush head covering three to four teeth, Ref: Carranza’s clinical periodontology, 10th Ed.
beginning at the most distal tooth in the arch. Floss holders can simplify the manipulation of dental
2. Place the bristles at the gingival margin, pointing at a
floss.
45-degree angle to the long axis of the teeth.
Reusable floss tools require stringing the floss around
3. Exert gentle vibratory pressure, using short, back-and-
forth motions without dislodging the tips of the bris- a series of knobs and grooves to secure it
tles. This motion forces the bristle ends into the gingival 69. Identify the instrument present in the color plate.
sulcus area as well as partly into the interproximal
embrasures. The pressure should be firm enough to
blanch the gingiva.
4. Complete several strokes in the same position. The
repetitive motion cleans the tooth surfaces, concen-
trating on the apical third of the clinical crowns, the
gingival sulci, and as far onto the proximal surfaces as
the bristles can reach.
5. Lift the brush, move it to the adjacent teeth, and repeat
the process for the next three or four teeth. a. Powered flossing device
6. Continue around the arch, brushing about three teeth b. Floss cutter

at a time. Then, use the same method to brush the lin- c. Floss holder
gual surfaces. d. Floss cleaner
7. After completing the maxillary arch, move the brush to Ans a. Powered flossing device
the mandibular arch, and brush in the same organized Ref: Carranza’s clinical periodontology, 10th Ed.
way to reach all the teeth. Powered flossing devices can be easier for some
8. If the brush is too large to reach the lingual surfaces patients to use than hand held floss. The tip is inserted
of the anterior teeth, it should be turned vertically to into the proximal space, and a bristle or wand comes out
press the end of the brush into the gingival sulcus area. of the tip and moves in a circular motion when the device
9. Brush the occlusal surfaces of three or four teeth at a is turned on (left). Alternately, the device moves the pre-
time by pressing the bristles firmly into the pits and fis- strung floss in short motions to provide interproximal
sures and brushing with several short, back-and-forth cleaning (right).
strokes.
70. Identify the interdental tooth cleansing aid pre-
68. Identify the instrument present in the color plate. sented in the color plate
Periodontics 67
a. Toothpick 73. Identify the probe.

b. Interdental brush
c. Rubber tip stimulator
d. Floss
Ans b. Interdental brush
a. Marquis color-coded Probe

b. UNC-15 probe
c. University of Michigan “O” probe
d. World Health Organization (WHO) probe
Ans a. Marquis color-coded probe
Calibrations are in 3-mm sections.
74. Identify the probe.

a. Powered flossing device
b. Floss cutter
c. Oral irrigator
d. Floss cleaner
Ans c. Oral irrigator

For supragingival irrigation
72. Identify the probe. a. Marquis color-coded probe

b. UNC-15 probe
Ans b. UNC-15 Probe
UNC-15 probe, a 15-mm-long probe with millimeter
markings at each millimeter and color-coding at the fifth,
tenth, and fifteenth millimeters.

a. Marquis color-coded probe
b. UNC-15 probe
Ans d. World Health Organization (WHO) probe
World Health Organization (WHO) probe, which has a
0.5-mm ball at the tip and millimeter markings at 3.5, 8.5,
and 11.5 mm and color coding from 3.5 to 5.5 mm.
a. Marquis color-coded probe a. Mini five curette

b. UNC-15 probe b. Gracey curette sub-0
c. University of Michigan “O” probe c. Langer curette
d. World Health Organization (WHO) probe d. Schwartz periotriever
Ans c. University of Michigan “O” probe Ans d. Schwartz periotriever
University of Michigan “O” probe, with Williams mark- Color plate shows broken instrument tip attached to
ings (at 1, 2, 3, 5, 7, 8, 9, and 10 mm). the magnetic tip of the Schwartz Periotriever.
76. Identify the explorer.

a. No. 17 b. No. 23
c. Pigtail d. No. 3
Ans a. No. 17
a. Periosteal elevator b. Osteotome

c. Chisel d. Mallet
Ans d. Mallet

80. The diagram represents which instrument?
77. Identify the instrument.
a. Hu-friedy
a. Younger-good #7—8 b. Hoe scaler
b. Columbia #4R—4L universal curette c. Quétin furcation curette
c. McCall’s #17—18 d. Mini-bladed Gracey curette
d. Indiana University #17—18 universal curettes
Ans b. Hoe scaler
Ans b. Columbia #4R—4L universal curette Ref: Carranza’s clinical periodontology, 10th Ed.
Hoe scalers are designed for different tooth surfaces,
78. Identify the instrument. showing “two-point” contact. The back of the blade is
rounded for easier access. The instrument contacts the
tooth at two points for stability.
81. The color plate represents which instrument?

Periodontics 69
a. Jacquet scaler a. Kirkland’s knife

b. Hoe scaler b. Orban’s knife
c. Uiversal scaler c. Merrifield knife
d. Mini-bladed gracey curettes d. Hilton’s knife
Ans a. Jacquet scaler Ans a. Kirkland’s knife
The Kirkland knife is representative of knives typically

used for gingivectomy. These knives can be obtained as
either double-ended or single-ended instruments. The
entire periphery of these kidney-shaped knives is the cut-
ting edge.
a. The perioscopy system

b. The endoscopy system
a. Kirkland’s knife
c. Dental microscope
b. Orban’s knife
d. Periotest
c. Merrifield knife
Ans a. The perioscopy system d. Hilton’s knife

Ans b. Orban’s knife
A dental endoscope has been introduced recently for
use subgingivally in the diagnosis and treatment of peri-
The Orban knife #1–2 and the Merrifield knife #1, 2, 3, and
odontal disease.
4 are examples of knives used for interdental areas. These
83. This equipment belongs to which system? spear-shaped knives have cutting edges on both sides of
the blade and are designed with either double-ended or
single-ended blades.
a. Periotest b. Periotron
c. Prophy jet d. Periotemp
Ans c. Prophy jet
Ref: Carranza’s clinical periodontology, 10th Ed. a. #10 blade b. #12 blade
84. Identify the instrument. c. #15 blade d. #15c blade
Ans c. #15 blade
The #15 blade is used for thinning flaps and general
purposes.
87. Identify the instrument. The #12d blade is a beak-shaped blade with cutting edges
on both sides, allowing the operator to engage narrow,
restricted areas with both pushing and pulling cutting
motions.
a. #10 blade b. #12 blade 89. Identify the instrument.

c. #15 blade d. #15c blade
Ans d. #15c blade
The #15c blade, a narrower version of the #15 blade, is
useful for making the initial, scalloping-type incision. The
slim design of this blade allows for incising into the narrow
a. Hoe scaler
interdental portion of the flap.
b. Ochsenbein chisel
c. DeBakey tissue forceps
d. Castroviejo instrument
Ans b. Ochsenbein chisel
The Ochsenbein chisel is a useful chisel with a semi-
a. #10 blade b. #12 blade circular indentation on both sides of the shank that allows
c. #15 blade d. #15c blade the instrument to engage around the tooth and into the
Ans b. #12 blade interdental area. The Rhodes chisel is another popular
Ref: Carranza’s clinical periodontology, 10th Ed. back-action chisel.

Chapter 5
1-
j
O
Pedodontics a>
LU
03
HHBHB
1. This appliance is used as habit breaking appli - .

3 The diagrammatic representation of cleft palate /O *
ance for. falls under which category of Veau's classification ^

of cleft palate?

a. Thumb sucking
b. Mouth breathing c. Class 3 d. Class 4
c. Tongue thrusting
Ans a. Class 1
d. Nail biting
Ans a . Thumb sucking Class Description
I Soft palate only CD
2. Identify the condition in 2 months old child.
II Hard and soft palate to the incisive foramen
LU
HI Complete unilateral of soft, hard , lip and alveolar ridge
IV Complete bilateral of soft, hard and / or lip and alveolar 03
ridge
on CD
on
A IB
a. Riga - Fede disease
b. Papillon - Lefevre syndrome CO
c. DiGeorge syndrome
d. Lesch - Nyhan syndrome
c D
Ans a . Riga - Fede disease
4. This appearance is associated with which of the 7. A baby comes to your clinic carried by parents
following habits? in full sleeved shirt. Parents give history of fever
for last 1 week. On physical examination you find
this. What is your diagnosis?
a. Tongue thrusting b. Mouth breathing

c. Thumb sucking d. Masochistic habits
a. Target lesion of erythema multiforme
Ans b. Mouth breathing
b. Bite marks
Adenoid facies is the facial appearance that occurs with
c. Pityriasis rosea
adenoid hypertrophy in children.
d. Allergic reaction
5. What is the correct age of initiation of orthodontic
Ans b. Bite marks
treatment for such a case?
8. Identify the appliance present in the color plate.

a. No need as such. Wait and watch
b. After eruption of permanent canine
c. When first noted a. Unilateral functional space maintainer
d. It is a self-correcting malocclusion b. Bilateral functional space maintainer
c. Unilateral non-functional space maintainer
Ans c. When first noted d. Bilateral non-functional space maintainer
Crossbites should be corrected when first noted
Ans d. Bilateral non-functional space maintainer
6. A 10 years boy presents with bilateral facial swell-
ing along with “eyes raised to heaven appearance”. 9. Identify the appliance present in the color plate.
What could be the diagnosis?
a. Paget’s disease a. Unilateral functional space maintainer

b. Fibrous dysplasia b. Bilateral functional space maintainer
c. Cherubism c. Unilateral non-functional space maintainer
d. Plexiform ameloblastoma d. Bilateral non-functional space maintainer
Ans c. Cherubism Ans c. Unilateral non-functional space maintainer
Pedodontics 73
10. This 16-year-old boy has sparse hairs and compla- 13. Identify the appliance.
ins of heat intolerance, what is your diagnosis?
a. Lingual arch
a. Hyperparathyroidism
b. Groper’s appliance
b. Ectodermal dysplasia
c. Transpalatal arch
c. Hypovitaminosis D
d. Pendulum appliance
d. Cleidocranial dysplasia
Ans a. Lingual arch
Ans b. Ectodermal dysplasia
14. Identify the molar relationship.
11. A 5-year-old boy’s intraoral examination revels
presence of 19 teeth, what can be the diagnosis?

a. Mesial step b. Distal step
c. Flush terminal planar d. Angle’s class I
a. Fusion b. Gemination
c. Oligodontia d. Concrescenece Ans a. Mesial step
Ans a. Fusion 15. What is the use of this appliance?
12. What are the normal values of A and B, respec-

tively in mm in Indian girls?
a. For carrying disabled baby comfortably

b. As physical restraint
c. For keeping uncooperative child’s mouth open
while performing restorative treatment
a. 0.9 and 1.7 b. 1.96 and 0.94 d. For attracting frightened child towards dental
c. 0.5 and 1.9 d. 1.8 and 0.7 chair
Ans a. 0.9 and 1.7 Ans b. As physical restraint
Leeway space Papoose board
16. Identify the appliance.
Group 4: Does not progress appreciably into the mouth.

Lower incisors contact thumb nail.
a. Distal shoe space maintainer
b. Mechanical separator
c. Molar distalization appliance
d. A part of lingual arch appliance
Ans a. Distal shoe space maintainer
17. According to Subtleny (1973) this patient belongs

to which group of thumb sucking? 18. What is the hereditary pattern of this syndrome?

a. Group 1 b. Group 2
a. Autosomal dominant
c. Group 3 d. Group 4
b. Autosomal recessive
Ans d. Group 4 c. X-linked dominant
Group 1: Thumb inserted beyond first joint, lower incisors d. X-linked recessive (21 trisomy)
pressed.
Ans a. Autosomal dominant
Treacher Collins syndrome
19. What is the best treatment plan for diastema in
this 9-year-old boy?
Group 2: Up to the first joint or anterior
a. Wait and watch

b. Decide from diagnostic cast and model
analysis
c. Extraction of 53 and 63
d. Orthognathic surgery
Group 3: Fully into the mouth, lower incisors do not con- Ans a. Wait and watch
tact thumb. Ugly duckling stage
Pedodontics 75
20. Identify the appliance. 23. Identify the equipment.
a. Papoose board b. Pedi wrap

a. Trans palatal arch
c. Posey strap d. Velcro strap
b. Blue grass appliance
c. Nance palatal arch Ans a. Papoose board
d. Hyrax
24. Identify the appliance present in the color plate.
Ans c. Nance palatal arch
21. Picture shows crown of 21. It falls under which

class of Ellis classification?
a. Unilateral functional space maintainer

b. Bilateral functional space maintainer
c. Unilateral non-functional space maintainer
d. Bilateral non-functional space maintainer
Ans b. Bilateral functional space maintainer
25. According to classification of dens invaginatus by
Ans c. Class 3
Schulze and Brand. The diagram is which class of
22. Identify the appliance present in the color plate. Dens invaginatus?
a. Anterior mandibular bite plane

b. Anterior maxillary bite plane
c. Posterior mandibular bite plane a. Type 1 b. Type 2
d. Posterior maxillary bite plane c. Type 3 d. Type 4
Ans a. Anterior mandibular bite plane Ans b. Type 2
a. Angle’s class 1 b. Angle’s class 2

c. Angle’s class 3 d. Edge to edge
Ans a. Angle’s class 1
29. Diagnose the condition.
26. The radiographic image is suggestive of:
a. Dilaceration b. Fusion
c. Dens invaginatus d. Taurodontism
Ans c. Dens invaginatus
a. Bird face syndrome 30. This 2 months old child had the teeth erupted in
b. Crouzons syndrome oral cavity at the age of 21 days. What is the condi-
c. Robin sequence tion called?
d. Cherubism
Ans b. Crouzons syndrome
Copper beaten/Beaten metal appearance of skull

27. This kind of deciduous molar relation will develop
most commonly into which kind of permanent
molar relationship?
a. Premature teeth b. Neonatal teeth

c. Natal teeth d. Keratin plugs
Ans b. Neonatal teeth

a. Angle’s class 1 b. Angle’s class 2
c. Angle’s class 3 d. Edge to edge
Ans b. Angle’s class 2

most commonly in to which kind of permanent
molar relationship?
b. Crown and loop space maintainer
c. Crown and loop space regainer
d. Lingual arch space maintainer
Ans b. Crown and loop space maintainer
Pedodontics 77
32. Identify the appliance present in the color plate. 35. This panaromic radiograph image is diagnostic of
which condition?
a. Unilateral functional space maintainer

b. Bilateral functional space maintainer a. Amelogenesis imperfecta
c. Unilateral non-functional space maintainer b. Bruxism
d. Bilateral non-functional space maintainer c. Dentin dysplasia
Ans a. Unilateral functional space maintainer d. Dentinogenesis imperfecta
33. A 10-year-old girl comes to you with swelling to Ans d. Dentinogenesis imperfecta
raising the earlobe and history of fever and lower OPG shows obliteration of pulp chambers
abdominal pain. What’s true about the condition? 36. Identify the appliance.

b. Band and loop space maintainer a. Anterior mandibular bite plane
c. Band and loop space regainer b. Anterior maxillary bite plane
d. Lingual arch space maintainer c. Posterior mandibular bite plane
Ans b. Band and loop space maintainer d. Posterior maxillary bite plane
34. Identify the appliance. Ans b. Anterior maxillary bite plane
37. Which structure is the arrow pointing toward?
a. Nance palatal arch

b. Pendulum appliance
c. Transpalatal arch a. Inca b. Petrous ossicle
d. Rapid maxillary expansion device c. Anterior fontanels d. Posterior fontanels
Ans b. Transpalatal arch Ans a. Inca
38. Identify the appliance. 41. Identify the appliance.

c. Posterior mandibular bite plane
c. Posterior mandibular bite plane
d. Posterior maxillary bite plane
d. Posterior maxillary bite plane
Ans d. Posterior maxillary bite plane
Ans c. Posterior mandibular bite plane
42. The facies seen in the image is suggestive of which
39. Identify the equipment. condition?

a. Posey strap
b. Velcro strap
c. RUR’S elbow guard a. Proteus syndrome
d. Groper’s appliance b. Down syndrome
Ans c. RURS’ elbow guard c. Treacher Collins syndrome
d. Hurler syndrome
40. What is the application of the equipment shown
Ans d. Hurler syndrome
in the image?
most commonly into which kind of permanent
molar relationship?
a. Safety mechanism during sports

b. Protective stabilization in cooperative patients
c. As restrain in thumb sucking a. Angle’s class 1 b. Angle’s class 2
d. Dislocated elbow joint splinting c. Angle’s class 3 d. Edge to edge
Ans c. As restrain in thumb sucking Ans d. Edge to edge
Pedodontics 79
46. A 12-year-old patient reported to the dental clinic

with upper and lower complete denture. The OPG
revealed details as shown in image, what is the
most probable diagnosis of following?
a. Total extraction of primary teeth due to nursing

44. A 30 days old baby is having difficulty in breast bottle caries
feeding and she is having unilateral loss expres- b. Papillon-Lefèvre syndrome
sion of face as seen in the image. What is the most c. Ectodermal dysplasia
probable diagnosis? d. Hypovitaminosis D
Ans c. Ectodermal dysplasia
47. The 3D reconstruction image of patient’s jaw

points towards diagnosis of?

a. Moebius syndrome
b. Down syndrome
c. Treacher Collins syndrome a. Papillon-Lefèvre syndrome
d. Proteus syndrome b. Ectodermal dysplasia
Ans a. Moebius syndrome c. Hypovitaminosis D
d. Hyperparathyroidism
45. A 5 days old female brought to dental hospital
Ans b. Ectodermal dysplasia
with the features in the image. Whats most prob-
able diagnosis of following? 48. A 18-year-old patient presented with palmer
keratosis. This is the OPG image of same patient.
What is your diagnosis?
a. Moebius syndrome a. Papillon-Lefèvre syndrome

b. Robin sequence b. Ectodermal dysplasia
c. Treacher Collins syndrome c. Chronic generalized gingivitis
d. Proteus syndrome d. Generalized aggressive periodontitis
Ans b. Robin sequence Ans a. Papillon-Lefèvre syndrome
49. Diagnose the pathology from clinical picture. a. Long band and loop space maintainer
b. Short band and loop space maintainer
c. Hawley retainer
d. Inclined plane
Ans b. Short band and loop space maintainer
53. What is the advised treatment plan for this 8 years
old boy?
a. Rampant caries b. Radiation caries

c. Nursing bottle caries d. Senile caries
Ans c. Nursing bottle caries
50. Diagnose the pathology from clinical picture.
a. Wait and watch

b. Extraction of 72 71 81 82 and observe
c. Extraction of 72 71 81 82 and space mainte-
nance
d. Extraction of 72 71 81 82 and immediate begin-
ning of orthodontic therapy
a. Rampant caries b. Occlusal caries
Ans b. Extraction of 72 71 81 82 and observe
c. Nursing bottle caries d. Senile caries
54. A 20 years old male patient visited with brachyce-
Ans a. Rampant caries

phalic head, enamel pitting, mandibular progna-
51. Identify the appliance in the color plate. thism and ability to touch both shoulders to each
other, what is your diagnosis?
a. Ehlers-Danlos syndrome
a. Long band and loop space maintainer b. Down syndrome
b. Short band and loop space maintainer c. Cleidocranial dysplasia
c. Hawley retainer d. Crouzon syndrome
d. Inclined plane Ans c. Cleidocranial dysplasia
Ans a. Long band and loop space maintainer 55. This device is used in management of which con-
52. Identify the appliance in the color plate. dition?
Pedodontics 81
a. Obstructive sleep apnea 59. The axial section of CBCT scan is suggestive of
b. Lesch-Nyhan disease which pathology associated with 38 and 48?
c. Thumb sucking
d. Robin sequence
Ans c. Thumb sucking
a. Dentigerous cyst
b. Pericoronal abscess
c. Adenomatoid odontogenic tumor
d. CEOT
Ans a. Dentigerous cyst
a. Long band and loop space maintainer 60. The curve marked by ? is characterized by which
b. Short band and loop space maintainer of the following event during its course?
c. Hawley retainer
d. Inclined plane
Ans c. Hawley retainer

a. Growth of the larynx
a. Long band and loop space maintainer
b. Muscular growth
b. Short band and loop space maintainer
c. Increased immunological capacities
c. Hawley retainer
d. Inclined plane d. Cranial vault growth
Ans d. Inclined plane Ans a. Growth of the larynx
58. What is the most probable age of this female 61. Identify the appliance.
patient?
a. 12 years b. 10 years a. Activator b. Twin block

c. 14 years d. 18 years c. Oral screen d. Lip bumper
Ans b. 10 years Ans c. Oral screen
62. Identify the appliance. 66. This OPG image is suggestive of which of the fol-
lowing condition?
a. External root resorption of 36 and 46

a. Short labial bow b. Long labial bow b. Supernumerary (Paramolar)
c. Split bow d. Lip bumper c. Retained deciduous 75, 85
d. Periapical cyst of 44
Ans a. Short labial bow
Ans c. Retained deciduous 75, 85
67. A 14-year-old girl presented with swelling over
anterior mandible. What is the diagnosis?
a. Short labial bow b. Long labial bow

c. Split bow d. Lip bumper a. Compound odontoma
b. Complex odontoma
Ans b. Long labial bow
c. Dentigerous cyst

64. Which of the following is marked by an arrow in d. Follicular cyst
given OPG image?
Ans c. Dentigerous cyst
68. Identify the appliance in place.
a. Follicular cyst b. Dentigerous cyst

c. Tooth bud d. Stafne cyst
a. Crowns and loop space maintainer
Ans c. Tooth bud
b. Baker’s arch
65. Which of the following is possible most chrono- c. Nance arch
logical age of patient? d. Lingual arch
Ans d. Lingual arch
a. 1 year b. 5 years
c. 8 years d. 10 years
Ans b. 5 Years
Pedodontics 83
a. Short labial bow b. Long labial bow 73. CT scan coronal section taken at the level of con-
c. Split bow d. Lip bumper dyle of 10 years old female is suggestive of which
of the following?
Ans c. Split bow
a. Right condyle osteochondroma

b. Left condyle osteosarcoma
a. Short labial bow b. Long labial bow c. Bilateral condylar fracture
c. Split bow d. Lip bumper d. Bilateral mixed (fibrous and bony) ankylosis
Ans d. Lip bumper Ans c. Bilateral condylar fracture

a. Palatal crib
a. Palatal crib b. Transpalatal arch
b. Transpalatal arch c. Band and bar space maintainer
c. Band and bar space maintainer d. Gerber space maintainer
d. Gerber space maintainer
Ans b. Transpalatal arch
Ans a. Palatal crib
72. Which muscle is responsible for the open bite in
this patient?
a. Left masseter a. Palatal crib

b. Right medial pterygoid b. Transpalatal arch
c. Left lateral pterygoid c. Band and bar space maintainer
d. Platysma d. Gerber space maintainer
Ans a. Left masseter Ans c. Band and bar space maintainer
76. Identify the appliance. a. Twin block

b. Sling shot space regainer
c. Single cantilever spring
d. Mayne space maintainer
Ans c. Single cantilever spring

a. Palatal crib
b. Transpalatal arch
c. Band and bar space maintainer
d. Gerber space maintainer
Ans d. Gerber space maintainer
a. Twin block
Ans d. Mayne space maintainer

a. Twin block

Ans a. Twin block
a. Finger spring
b. Double cantilever spring
c. Distal shoe space maintainer
d. Cantilever spring
Ans a. Finger spring
a. Twin block 82. Identify the appliance.

Ans b. Sling shot space regainer
a. Finger spring
Ans b. Double cantilever spring
Pedodontics 85
83. Identify the appliance. a. Split saddle space regainer

c. Activator
d. Frankle appliance
Ans b. Blue grass appliance

a. Finger spring
Ans c. Distal shoe space maintainer
84. Identify the appliance. a. Split saddle space regainer

c. Activator
Ans c. Activator

a. Finger spring

d. Coffin spring
Ans d. Coffin spring

a. Split saddle space regainer
c. Activator
Ans d. Frankle appliance

a. Split saddle space regainer
c. Activator
Ans a. Split saddle space regainer
a. Pendulum appliance
b. Pendex appliance
c. Bionator
d. Removable expansion plate
Ans a. Pendulum appliance
90. Identify the appliance. a. Polishing

b. Finishing
c. Proximal stripping
d. Crown preparation
Ans c. Proximal stripping
94. The image depicts which of the following proce-
a. Pendulum appliance dure?
b. Pendex appliance
c. Bionator
Ans b. Pendex appliance
91. Identify the appliance. a. Pulpotomy
b. Pulpectomy
c. Apexogenesis
d. Apexification
Ans a. Pulpotomy
dure?
b. Pendex appliance
c. Bionator

Ans c. Bionator
92. Identify the appliance. a. Pulpotomy
b. Pulpectomy
c. Apexogenesis
d. Apexification
Ans b. Pulpectomy
dure?
b. Pendex appliance
c. Bionator
Ans d. Removable expansion plate
93. Which procedure is being performed in the color
plate?
a. Pulpotomy
b. Pulpectomy
c. Apexogenesis
d. Apexification
Ans c. Apexogenesis
Pedodontics 87
97. The image depicts which of the following proce- 99. Identify the instrument.
dure?
a. Crown crimping plier

b. Adams plier
c. Crown removing plier
a. Pulpotomy b. Pulpectomy d. Crown scissors
c. Apexogenesis d. Apexification
Ans d. Crown scissors
Ans d. Apexification
a. Crown crimping plier a. Crown crimping plier

b. Adams plier b. Adams plier

c. Crown removing plier c. Crown removing plier
d. Crown scissors d. Crown scissors
Ans a. Crown crimping plier Ans c. Crown removing plier
Chapter 6
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Orthodontics a>
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03
HHBHB
1 . Identify the instrument. a. Maxilla

b. Mandible
c. Vascular tissue
d. Fat tissue
Ans b. Mandible
a. Band remover b. Universal plier
c. Adam's plier d. Wire cutter 4. “A" in the Scammon's growth curve represents
growth of which of the following?
a . Band remover

Ans
200 -1
2. The “?" in the Scammon's growth curve repre - <D
N Lymphoid
sents which of the following? 2S
-o
3
CO Neural
o 100 -
S
<D General
CL Genital
0
Birth 10 Years 20 Years
CD
a. Maxilla
10 Years 20 Year?/ LU
b. Mandible
a. Lymphoid tissue b. Neural tissue c. Vascular tissue 03
c. Genital tissue d. General tissue d. Fat tissue
Ans a. Lymphoid tissue
Ans a. Maxilla
3. “ B" in the Scammon's growth curve represents Scammon's curves for growth of the four major tissue sys- CD
growth of which of the following? tems of the body. As the graph indicates, growth of the
neural tissues is nearly complete by 6 or 7 years of age.
200i
03
1J General body tissues, including muscle, bone, and viscera,
W) Lymphoid
3
show an S-shaped curve, with a definite slowing of the rate CO
Q
Neural
- of growth during childhood and an acceleration at puberty.
^8
<5
100
Genital
General
Lymphoid tissues proliferate far beyond the adult amount
in late childhood , and then undergo involution at the same
0
Birth 10 Years 20 Yeajy time that growth of the genital tissues accelerates rapidly.
Orthodontics 89
5. The image represents which of the following? a. Primary displacement of maxilla

b. Secondary displacement of maxilla
c. Surface remodeling principle
d. Secondary displacement of sphenoid
Ans b. Secondary displacement of maxilla
8. The image depicts which of following principle?
a. Cephalocaudal gradient of growth

b. Scammon’s growth curve
c. Growth chart
d. De Montebeillar curve
Ans a. Cephalocaudal gradient of growth
Schematic representation of the changes in overall body
proportions during normal growth and development. After a. Enlow’s expanding “V” principle
the third month of fetal life, the proportion of total body b. Scammon’ principle
size contributed by the head and face steadily declines.
6. The image depicts which of the following? d. Enlow’s counterpart principle
Ans a. Enlow’s expanding “V” principle
9. The image depicts which of following principle?

a. Primary displacement of maxilla
b. Secondary displacement of maxilla
c. Primary displacement of sphenoid
d. Secondary displacement of sphenoid a. Enlow’s expanding “V” principle
Ans a. Primary displacement of maxilla b. Scammon’ principle
7. The image depicts which of the following? d. Enlow’s counterpart principle
Ans a. Enlow’s expanding “V” principle
10. The “?” in the image represents which of the fol-

lowing?
a. Meckel cartilage a. Enlow’s expanding “V” principle

b. Hyoid cartlage b. Carry away phenomenon
c. Internal carotid artery c. Surface remodeling principle
d. Internal jugular vein d. Cartilage deposition principle
Ans a. Meckel cartilage Ans d. Cartilage deposition principle
11. The image depicts which of the following princi- 14. Identify the part marked with arrow.
ple?
a. Dental groove
a. Enlow’s expanding “V” principle
b. Transverse groove
b. Carry away phenomenon
c. Lateral sulcus
d. Retromolar pad
d. Cartilage growth principle
Ans c. Lateral sulcus
Ans c. Surface remodeling principle
15. Identify the part marked with arrow.
12. The image depicts which of the following princi-
ple?

a. Dental groove
b. Transverse groove
c. Lateral sulcus
a. Enlow’s expanding “V” principle
d. Retromolar pad
b. Carry away phenomenon
Ans b. Transverse groove
d. Cartilage deposition principle 16. Identify the area marked with arrow in the image.
Ans b. Carry away phenomenon
13. The image depicts which of the following princi-

ple?
a. Primate space
b. Leeway space
c. Black space
d. Diastema
Ans a. Primate space
Orthodontics 91
17. Identify the area marked with arrow in the image. a. Early shift b. Intermediate shift
c. Late shift d. Ugly duckling stage
Ans c. Late shift
21. The image depicts which of the following?
a. Early shift b. Intermediate shift

c. Late shift d. Ugly duckling stage
a. Primate space b. Leeway space Ans D. Ugly duckling stage
c. Black space d. Diastema 22. Identify the trajectory of force transfer marked
Ans b. Leeway space with arrow in the image.
18. Identify the interdental space present in the image.

a. Primate space b. Leeway space
a. Frontonasal buttress
c. Black space d. Diastema
b. Malar-zygomatic buttress
Ans d. Diastema
c. Pterygoid buttress
19. The image depicts which of the following? d. Alveolar buttress
Ans a. Frontonasal buttress
23. Identify the trajectory of force transfer marked

with arrow in the image.
a. Early shift b. Intermediate shift

c. Late shift d. Mesial tilting
Ans a. Early shift
20. The image depicts which of the following?
a. Frontonasal buttress
b. Malar-zygomatic buttress
c. Pterygoid buttress
d. Alveolar buttress
Ans c. Pterygoid buttress
24. The image depicts which of the following? a. Openbite b. Openjet

c. Overjet d. Overbite
Ans a. Openbite
28. The image represents which of the following inter-

arch relationship?
a. Andrew’s 1st KEY of occlusion

b. Andrew’s 2nd KEY of occlusion
c. Andrew’s 5th KEY of occlusion
d. Andrew’s 6th KEY of occlusion
Ans d. Andrew’s 6th KEY of occlusion
25. The image depicts which of the following? a. Openbite b. Openjet

c. Overjet d. Overbite
Ans d. Overbite

arch relationship?
a. Andrew’s 1st KEY of occlusion

b. Andrew’s 2nd KEY of occlusion
c. Andrew’s 5th KEY of occlusion
d. Andrew’s 6th KEY of occlusion

Ans b. Andrew’s 2nd KEY of occlusion a. Openbite b. Deepbite
26. The image represents which of the following inter- c. Crossbite d. Edge to edge
arch relationship? Ans c. Crossbite

arch relationship?
a. Openbite b. Openjet
c. Overjet d. Overbite a. Openbite b. Deepbite
c. Crossbite d. Edge to edge
Ans c. Overjet
Ans b. Deepbite
arch relationship? 31. The image represents which type of class II
according to Moyers classification?
Orthodontics 93
a. Type A b. Type B 33. Identify the condition present in the color plate.
c. Type C d. Type D
Ans b. Type B
Type B: It exhibits a midface prominence with a mandi-
ble of normal length. The maxilla is prognathic, while the
mandible is in normal anteroposterior relationship.
32. The image represents which type of class II accor- a. Unilateral crossbite
ding to Moyers classification? b. Bilateral crossbite
c. Buccal non-occlusion
d. Lingual non-occlusion
Ans c. Buccal non-occlusion
34. Identify the condition present in the color plate.
a. Type A b. Type B
c. Type C d. Type D
Ans d. Type D a. Unilateral crossbite
Type D: It shows a retrognathic skeletal profile with maxil- b. Bilateral crossbite
lary and mandibular retrognathism. The maxillary incisors c. Buccal non-occlusion
are typically proclined, and the mandibular incisors are d. Lingual non-occlusion
either upright or lingually inclined.

Ans d. Lingual non-occlusion
35. Identify the malocclusion present in the color

plate.
a. Angle’s class 1
b. Angle’s class 2 div 1
c. Angle’s class 2 div 2
d. Angle’s class 3
Ans c. Angle’s class 2 div 2

a. Scissor bite b. Transposition 40. The image depicts which of the following plane?
c. Crossbite d. Open bite
Ans a. Scissor bite
a. Frankort horizontal plane

a. Scissor bite b. Transposition b. Midsagital plane
c. Crossbite d. Open bite c. Orbital plane
d. Wilson’s plane
Ans b. Transposition
Ans c. Orbital plane
38. The condition depicted in the image is associated
with which of the following? 41. Who put forward classification of malocclusion
presented in the image?

a. Angle’s class 1
b. Angle’s class 2 div 1
c. Angle’s class 2 div 2
d. Angle’s class 3
Ans b. Angle’s class 2 div 1
39. The image depicts which of the following plane?
a. Angle b. Moyer
c. Ackerman and Proffit d. Derby
Ans c. Ackerman and Proffit
Ackerman and Proffit represented the five major charac-
a. Frankort horizontal plane
teristics of malocclusion via a Venn diagram. The sequen-
b. Midsagital plane tial description of the major characteristics, of their
c. Orbital plane graphic representation, is the key to this classification sys-
d. Wilson’s plane tem; but the interaction of the tooth and jaw relationships
Ans a. Frankort horizontal plane with facial appearance must be kept in mind.
Orthodontics 95
42. Identify the condition evident in the radiograph. a. Thumb sucking b. Mouth breathing
c. Nail biting d. Lip bIting
Ans b. Mouth breathing
46. The condition shown in the image is associated

with which of the following habit?
a. Supraeruption b. Transposition
c. Ankylosis d. Open bite
Ans c. Ankylosis
a. Thumb sucking b. Mouth breathing
43. Identify the condition evident in the radiograph.
c. Nail biting d. Lip biting
Ans c. Nail biting

a. Supraeruption b. Transposition
c. Ankylosis d. Open bite
Ans a. Supraeruption

44. The condition shown in the image is associated c. Nail biting d. Lip biting
with which of the following habit? Ans d. Lip biting


c. Nail biting d. Lip biting a. Thumb sucking b. Mouth breathing
Ans a. Thumb sucking c. Bruxism d. Lip biting
Ans c. Bruxism
with which of the following habit? 49. Identify the head type depicted in the image.
a. Brachycephalic b. Mesocephalic 53. Identify the landmark marked in the cephalogram.

c. Dolichocephalic d. Neutrocephalic
Ans c. Dolichocephalic
50. What is the normal value of angle presented in the

image?
a. Nasion b. Pogonion
c. ANS d. PNS
Ans b. Pogonion
54. Identify the landmark marked in the cephalogram.
a. 90 degrees b. 110 degrees

c. 120 degrees d. 85 degrees
Ans b. 110 degrees
51. Identify the modality presented in the image.
c. ANS d. PNS

Ans c. ANS
55. Identify the landmark marked in the cephalogram.
a. EEG b. EMG
c. EEG d. EOG
Ans b. EMG
52. Identify the landmark marked in the cephalo-

gram.
c. ANS d. PNS
Ans d. PNS
56. Identify the plane marked in the cephalogram.
c. ANS d. PNS
Ans a. Nasion
Orthodontics 97
a. S-N plane b. F-H plane 60. Identify the plane marked in the cephalogram.
c. Occlusal plane d. Palatal plane
Ans a. S-N plane
a. Mandibular plane
b. Basion nasion plane
c. Facial plane
d. A-Pog plane
Ans a. Mandibular plane
a. S-N plane
b. F-H plane
c. Occlusal plane
d. Palatal plane
Ans b. F-H plane
a. Mandibular plane
c. Facial plane

d. A-Pog plane
Ans b. Basion nasion plane
a. S-N plane
b. F-H plane
c. Occlusal plane
d. Palatal plane
Ans c. Occlusal plane
a. Mandibular plane
c. Facial plane
d. A-Pog plane
Ans c. Facial plane
a. S-N plane
b. F-H plane
c. Occlusal plane
d. Palatal plane
Ans d. Palatal plane
a. Mandibular plane a. 15–20 gm/sq.cm b. 20–26 gm/sq.cm

b. Basion nasion plane c. 25–30 gm/sq.cm d. 30–35 gm/sq.cm
c. Facial plane Ans b. 20–26 gm/sq.cm
d. A-Pog plane 67. The black area marked in the image represents
Ans d. A-Pog plane hyalinization. Based on the site of hyaliniza-
tion. Identify the type of tooth movement being
64. The image depicts which of the following analysis?
attempted.
a. Tipping b. Intrusion
c. Extrusion d. Bodily movement
Ans a. Tipping
a. Wits appraisal b. Tweed analysis
68. The black area marked in the image represents
c. Nance analysis d. Cary analysis hyalinization. Based on the site of hyaliniza-
Ans a. Wits appraisal tion. Identify the type of tooth movement being
attempted.
65. The image depicts which of the following analysis?

a. Wits appraisal b. Tweed analysis
c. Nance analysis d. Cary analysis a. Tipping b. Intrusion
Ans b. Tweed analysis c. Extrusion d. Bodily movement
66. As can be seen in the image the force is being Ans d. Bodily movement
applied on the tooth. What is the optimum value 69. What kind of bone resorption is seen during the
of this force? phase of tooth movement marked in the image?
Orthodontics 99
a. Frontal resorption a. Controlled tipping

b. Undermining resorption b. Uncontrolled tipping
c. Cervical resorption c. Rotation
d. Apical resorption d. Intrusion
Ans b. Undermining resorption Ans c. Rotation
70. Identify the type of tooth movement shown in the 73. Identify the type of tooth movement shown in the
image. image.
a. Controlled tipping a. Controlled tipping

b. Uncontrolled tipping b. Uncontrolled tipping
c. Rotation c. Rotation
d. Intrusion d. Torquing
Ans a. Controlled tipping Ans D. Intrusion
71. Identify the type of tooth movement shown in the 74. Identify the type of anchorage shown in the image.
image.

a. Simple b. Stationary
c. Reciprocal d. Extraoral
a. Controlled tipping Ans a. Simple
b. Uncontrolled tipping
c. Rotation 75. Identify the type of anchorage shown in the image.
d. Intrusion
Ans b. Uncontrolled tipping
72. Identify the type of tooth movement shown in the

image.
c. Reinforced d. Extraoral
Ans c. Reciprocal
76. The appliance shown in the image provides which a. Sved appliance
kind of anchorage?
b. Roger appliance
c. Anterior inclined plane
d. Posterior bite plane
Ans c. Anterior inclined plane
c. Reinforced d. Extraoral
Ans c. Reinforced
a. Sved appliance
b. Catlan’s appliance
Ans d. Posterior bite plane
a. Sved appliance 81. The technique shown in the color plate is used to
b. Catlan’s appliance manage which of the following condition?

Ans a. Sved appliance
a. Anterior crossbite b. Deep bite

c. Posterior crossbite d. Open bite
Ans a. Anterior crossbite
82. What is not true for the appliance shown in the

a. Sved appliance image?
b. Catlan’s appliance
c. Anterior opening plane
Ans b. Catlan’s appliance
a. Contraindicated in epileptic child

b. Band construction is necessary
c. Stimulate eruption of permanent teeth
d. Serve in mastication
Ans b. Band construction is necessary
Orthodontics 101
83. What is not true for the appliance shown in the a. Tongue thrust
image? b. Thumb sucking
c. Mouth breathing
d. Nail biting
Ans c. Mouth breathing
87. Identify the appliance shown in the image.
a. Hampers jaw growth

b. Require tooth preparation
c. Can be used in uncooperative children
d. Serve in mastication
Ans a. Hampers jaw growth
84. Which kind of space maintainer is presented in a. Jones jig appliance
the image? b. Jasper jumper appliance
c. Hyrax appliance
d. Herbst apliance
Ans a. Jones jig appliance
a. Band and loop space maintainer

b. Crown and loop space maintainer

c. Crown and bar space maintainer
d. Band and bar space maintainer
Ans c. Crown and bar space maintainer
85. The image depicts which of the following method
of serial tooth extraction? a. Jones jig appliance
b. Jasper jumper appliance
c. Hyrax appliance
d. Herbst apliance
Ans b. Jasper jumper appliance
a. Wilkinson b. Nance
c. Tweed d. Dewel
Ans c. Tweed
86. The appliance shown in the color plate is used to
treat which of the following habit?
a. Jones jig appliance

c. Hyrax appliance
d. Herbst apliance
Ans c. Hyrax appliance
90. Identify the appliance shown in the image. a. Derichsweiler appliance

b. Haas appliance
c. Isaacson appliance
d. Coffin spring
Ans c. Isaacson appliance
a. Jones jig appliance 94. Idetify the appliance shown in the image.
c. Hyrax appliance
d. Herbst apliance
Ans d. Herbst apliance
91. Idetify the appliance shown in the image.
a. Derichsweiler appliance
b. Haas appliance
d. Coffin spring
Ans d. Coffin spring
a. Derichsweiler appliance
b. Haas appliance 95. Identify the appliance shown in the image.
d. Coffin spring

Ans a. Derichsweiler appliance
a. Quad helix
b. Haas appliance
d. Coffin spring
a. Derichsweiler appliance Ans a. Quad helix
b. Haas appliance 96. Identify the appliance.
d. Coffin spring
Ans b. Haas appliance
a. Adam’s clasp
b. Southend clasp
c. Crozat clasp
d. Mill retractor
Ans a. Adam’s clasp
Orthodontics 103
a. Adam’s clasp
a. Ring separator
b. Southend clasp
c. Crozat clasp b. Brass wire separator
d. Mill retractor c. Kessling spring retractor
Ans b. Southend clasp d. G cuff
98. Identify the appliance. Ans a. Ring separator
a. Adam’s clasp a. Ring separator

b. Southend clasp b. Brass wire separator
c. Crozat clasp c. Kessling spring retractor

d. Mill retractor d. G cuff
Ans c. Crozat clasp Ans c. Kessling spring retractor
Chapter /
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Oral Medicine a>
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HHBHB
1. A 52-year-old known case of psoriasis comes to 2. What is the diagnosis for the condition shown in
you for routine dental check up when you find the color plate?
this non scrapable condition on patient 's tongue.
A
What's your diagnosis?

a. Heck's disease
b. Fordyces granules
c. Verruciform xanthoma
a. Psoriasis vulgaris d. Papilloma of buccal mucosa
b. Erythema migrans Ans b. Fordyces granules.
c. Fissured tongue Ref: Shafer 's Textbook of Oral Pathology, 7th edition.
d. Hairy tongue A developmental anomaly characterized by heterotopic
collections of sebaceous glands at various sites in the oral CD
Ans b. Erythema migrans. cavity. It has been postulated that the occurrence of seba -
Ref: Shafer 's Textbook of Oral Pathology, 7th edition. ceous glands in the mouth may result from inclusion in the LU
Benign migratory glossitis is a psoriasiform mucositis of oral cavity of ectoderm having some of the potentialities
03
the dorsum of the tongue. Its dominant characteristics is of skin in the course of development of the maxillary
a constantly changing pattern of serpiginous white lines and mandibular processes during embryonic life.
surrounding areas of smooth, depapillated mucosa. The .
3 A 20-year-old male comes with complaint of burn -
changing appearance has led some to call this the wan - .
ing sensation over left retromolar region What CD
dering rash of the tongue, with the depapillated areas can be the diagnosis?
have reminded others of continental outlines on a globe,
hence the use of the popular term geographic tongue. As
with psoriasis, the etiology of benign migratory glossitis
CO
is unknown, but it does seem to become more prominent
during conditions of psychological stress and it is found
with increased frequency (10% ) in persons with psoriasis
of the skin.
Oral Medicine 105
a. Leukoplakia extraction forceps, precedes the development of the reten-

b. Lichen planus tion phenomenon.
c. Candidiasis 5. Patient presented with the lesions as seen in the
d. Traumatic keratosis color image. Histopathology revealed Suprabasi-
Ans b. Lichen planus lar split and presence of Tzanck cells. What is the
diagnosis based on clinical and histopathological
Ref: Shafer’s Textbook of Oral Pathology, 7th edition.
findings?
The disease assumes a somewhat different clinical appe-
arance than on the skin, and classically is character-
ized by lesions consisting of radiating white or gray, vel-
vety, thread-like papules in a linear, annular or retiform
arrangement forming typical lacy, reticular patches, rings
and streaks over the buccal mucosa and to a lesser extent
on the lips, tongue and palate. A tiny white elevated dot
is frequently present at the intersection of the white lines,
known here also as the striae of Wickham. When plaque- a. Pemphigus vulgaris b. Pemphigoid
like lesions occur, radiating striae may often be seen on c. Fever blister d. Bed sores
their periphery. Shklar and McCarthy have reported the
following distribution of oral lesions: buccal mucosa, 80%; Ans a. Pemphigus vulgaris
tongue, 65%; lips, 20%; gingiva, floor of mouth and palate,
Pemphigus as an entity is characterized microscopically by
less than 10%. These oral lesions produce no significant
the formation of a vesicle or bulla entirely intraepithelial,
symptoms, although occasionally patients will complain
just above the basal layer producing the distinctive supra-
of a burning sensation in the involved areas. basilar ‘split’. Perivascular edema appears to weaken this

4. Patient presented with swelling as seen in color junction, and the intercellular bridges between the epithe-
plate, 2 months after extraction of 36. What is the lial cells disappear. This results in loss of cohesiveness or
diagnosis? acantholysis, and because of this, clumps of epithelial cells
are often found lying free within the vesicular space. These
have been called ‘Tzanck cells’ and are characterized par-
ticularly by degenerative changes which include swelling
of the nuclei and hyperchromatic staining.
6. Patient presented with the lesions as seen in the

color image. It presented following rubbing the
previously apparently normal skin. What is the
diagnosis based on this clinical sign?
a. Mucocele b. Papilloma
c. Fibrous epulis d. Pyogenic grauloma
Ans a. Mucocele
The retention phenomenon involving accessory salivary
gland structures occurs most frequently on the lower lip,
but may also occur on the palate, cheek, tongue (involv- a. Pemphigus vulgaris b. Lichen planus
ing the glands of Blandin-Nuhn), and floor of the mouth.
c. Fever blister d. Bed sores
Traumatic severance of a salivary duct, such as that pro-
duced by biting the lips or cheek or pinching the lip by Ans a. Pemphigus vulgaris
Ref: Shafer’s Textbook of Oral Pathology, 7th edition. 9. Which of following condition can lead to appear-
The loss of epithelium occasioned by rubbing apparently ance as seen in the color plate?
unaffected skin is termed Nikolsky’s sign. It is a character-
istic feature of pemphigus and is caused by perivascular
edema which disrupts the dermal-epidermal junction
7. This color plate is diagnostic of which of following

condition?
a. Mumps b. Buccal space infection

c. Quinsy d. KOT
Ans a. Mumps
a. Oral submucous fibrosis Ref: Shafer’s Textbook of Oral Pathology, 7th edition.
b. Quinsy The disease is usually preceded by the onset of headache,
c. Submucosal cleft palate chills, moderate fever, vomiting, and pain below the ear.
d. Bell’s palsy These symptoms are followed by a firm, somewhat rub-
bery or elastic swelling of the salivary glands, frequently
Ans a. Oral submucous fibrosis
elevating the ear, which usually lasts about one week.
Blanching of mucosa and “Hockey stick” appearance of
uvula are diagnostic of oral submucous fibrosis. 10. The abscess seen in the color plate can lead to cav-
ernous sinus thrombosis due to which of follow-
8. The lesion shown in the color plate is associated

ing communication?
a. Iron deficiency anemia

b. Idiopathic thrombocytopenic purpura a. Anterior facial vein
c. Thalassemia b. Posterior facial vein
d. Infectious mononucleosis c. Anterior facial artery
Ans b. Idiopathic thrombocytopenic purpura d. Posterior facial artery
Ref: Shafer’s Textbook of Oral Pathology, 7th edition. Ans a. Anterior facial vein
One of the prominent manifestations of thrombocytopenic Anterior facial vein begins at the side of root of nose
purpura is the severe and often profuse gingival hemor- through the union of supraorbital and frontal veins.
rhage which occurs in the majority of cases. This hemor- The vein drains upper lip, septum of nose and adjacent
rhage may be spontaneous and often arises in the absence areas. The anterior facial vein communicates with the cav-
of skin lesions. Petechiae also occur on the oral mucosa, ernous sinus through the ophthalmic veins.
commonly on the palate, and appear as numerous tiny, It also communicates with cavernous sinus via deep
grouped clusters of reddish spots only a millimeter or less facial vein which connects the pterygoid plexus with ante-
in diameter. Actual ecchymoses do occur occasionally. rior facial vein.
Oral Medicine 107
11. Which of the following condition is seen on the Ref: Shafer’s Textbook of Oral Pathology, 7th edition.
color plate? The lesion is usually an elevated, pedunculated or sessile
vascular mass with a smooth, lobulated, or even a warty
surface, which commonly is ulcerated and shows a ten-
dency for hemorrhage either spontaneously or upon slight
trauma.
The lesions are more common in the facial aspect than
the lingual or palatal aspects of gingiva and can occur
involving both sides including interdental papilla. It may be
single or occurs at more than one site, unilateral or bilat-
eral especially when it involves gingiva.
a. Herpes zoster Sometimes there is exudation of purulent material, but
b. Denture stomatitis this is not a characteristic feature despite the suggestive
c. Pemphigoid name of this lesion.
d. Multiple aphthous ulceration
13. The condition seen in the color plate can be des-
Ans b. Denture stomatitis cribed as:
The mucosa beneath the denture becomes extremely red,
swollen, smooth or granular and painful. Multiple pin-
point foci of hyperemia, usually involving the maxilla,
frequently occur. A severe burning sensation is common.
The redness of the mucosa is rather sharply outlined and
restricted to the tissue actually in contact with the denture.
Herpes Zoster—will be unilateral

Pemphigoid—involves oral cavity widely
Multiple Aphthous Ulceration—presents on nonkeratini- a. Danger space infection
zed mucosa b. Ludwig angina
c. NOMA
12. A 40-year-old male patient reported with the
d. Fever blister
lesion, which is present since past 1 month. It is
tender and does not fade upon compression. What Ans a. Danger space infection
is most probable diagnosis? Dangerous area of face comprises of upper lip, lower part
of nose and adjacent area. This area has been so named
because boils, infections of the nose and injuries around
the nose, especially those that become infected can read-
ily spread to cavernous sinus resulting in cavernous sinus
thrombosis.
14. The lesion as seen in color plate on the dorsum of
tongue is appropriately addressed as:
a. Pyogenic granuloma
b. Lipoma
c. Hemangioma
d. Pericoronal abscess
Ans a. Pyogenic granuloma
a. Median rhomboid glossitis Ref: Shafer’s Textbook of Oral Pathology, 7th edition.
b. Fissured Tongue The patient with Ludwig’s angina manifests a rapidly
c. Hairy tongue developing board-like swelling of the floor of the mouth
d. Posterior midline atrophic candidiasis and consequent elevation of the tongue. The swelling is
firm, painful and diffuse, showing no evidence of locali-
Ans d. Posterior midline atrophic candidiasis zation and paucity of pus. There is difficulty in eating and
swallowing as well as in breathing. Patients usually have
Median rhomboid glossitis (central papillary atrophy, post-
a high fever, rapid pulse and fast respiration. A moderate
erior lingual papillary atrophy) is a focal area of susceptibil-
leukocytosis is also found.
ity to recurring or chronic atrophic candidiasis, prompting
a recent shift toward the use of posterior midline atrophic 17. Which of following is the most common cause of
candidiasis as a more appropriate diagnostic term. death for appearance as seen in the color plate?
15. The lesion as seen in color plate on the soft palate

is also known as:
a. Meningitis
b. Dyspnea
c. Dysphagia

a. Greenspan lesion b. Kissing lesion
d. Aspiration pneumonia
c. Kissing disease d. Verruca vulgaris
Ans b. Dyspnea
Ans b. Kissing Lesion
As the disease continues, the swelling involves the neck,
Infected cases may also demonstrate a midline soft palate
erythema in the area of routine contact with the underly- and edema of the glottis may occur. This carries the serious
ing tongue involvement; this is commonly referred to as a risk of death by suffocation.
kissing lesion. 18. Which of the following is not used as treatment
16. The clinical appearance as seen in the color plate plan for the condition seen in the color plate?
can be due to which of the following?
a. Physiotherapy b. Inj hyaluronidase

a. Cherubism b. Paget’s disease c. Inj placentrax d. Inj Vit B
c. Mumps d. Ludwig’s angina
Ans d. Inj Vit B
Ans d. Ludwig’s angina Ref: Shafer’s Textbook of Oral Pathology, 7th edition.
Oral Medicine 109
Nutritional support. a. Pseudomembranous candidiasis

Mainly for high proteins and calories and for vitamin b. Hairy tongue
Physiotherapy. c. Hairy leukoplakia
This includes measures such as forceful mouth open- d. Lichen planus
ing and heat therapy. Heat has been commonly used and
the results have been described as satisfactory. Ans a. Pseudomembranous candidiasis
Local injections of corticosteroids and placental extract Ref: Shafer’s Textbook of Oral Pathology, 7th edition.
have been tried, in addition to hyaluronidase, collagenase It is also known as thrush and is one of the most common
and similar substances which break down intercellular forms of the candidiasis. It may occur at any age, but is
cement substances and also decrease collagen formation. especially prone to occur in the debilitated or the chroni-
cally ill patients or in infants. Occurrence of this lesion in a
19. The lesion seen in the color plate was associated
healthy individual indicates the presence of immune sup-
with painful and tender submandibular swelling.
What can be the diagnosis? pression especially HIV infection. It also occurs in patients
receiving systemic corticosteroid therapy. The oral lesions
are characterized by the appearance of soft, white, slightly
elevated plaques most frequently occurring on the buccal
mucosa and tongue, but also seen on the palate, gingiva,
and floor of the mouth.
It resembles milk curds, consist chiefly of tangled mas-
ses of fungal hyphae with intermingled desquamated epi-
thelium, keratin, fibrin, necrotic debris, leukocytes, and
a. Viral sialadenitis bacteria. The white plaque can usually be wiped away with a
b. Bacterial sialadenitis gauze, leaving either a relatively normal appearing mucosa

c. Warthin tumor or an erythematous area.
d. Mikulicz syndrome
21. What is the treatment for the lesion shown in the
Ans b. Bacterial sialadenitis color plate?
Ref: Burket’s Oral Medicine, 11th ed.
Sudden onset of unilateral or bilateral salivary gland
enlargement. Approximately 20% of the cases present as
bilateral infections. The involved gland is painful, indu-
rated, and tender to palpation. The overlying skin may be
erythematous.
Purulent discharge may be expressed from the duct
orifice, and samples of this exudate should be cultured for
aerobes and anaerobes.
20. Identify the scrapable condition shown in the col- a. Excision

our plate. b. Incision and drainage
c. Aspiration
d. Compression
Ans a. Excision
Ref:Burket’s Oral Medicine, 11th ed.
Surgical excision is the primary treatment for mucoce-
les, particularly to prevent recurrence. aspiration of the fluid
from the mucocele will not provide long-term benefit.
22. Identify the lesion seen in the color plate. a. Herpetic gingivo stomatitis
b. Recurrent aphthous ulcer
c. Pemphigus
d. Lichen plnus
Ans b. Recurrent aphthous ulcer
The first episodes of RAS most frequently begin during
the second decade.
a. Traumatic ulcer The individual lesions are round, symmetric, and shal-
b. Pemphigus low (similar to viral ulcers), but no tissue tags are present
c. Lichen planus
from ruptured vesicles, which helps distinguish RaS from
d. Herpetic gingivostomatitis
diseases that start as vesicles, such as pemphigus, and
Ans a. Traumatic ulcer pemphigoid.
In the color plate one can see the attrited posterior teeth 25. A 21-year-old boy presented with the lesion on
with sharp occlusal margins. alveolar mucosa as seen in the color plate with
Single mucosal ulcers may be caused by direct physi- history of recurrence. Which of the following is
cal/mechanical, thermal, or chemical trauma to the not included in the treatment plan?
mucosa causing tissue damage and ulceration.
23. Treatment plan for the lesion seen in the color
plate includes all, except:

a. Excision if not responsive to medical manage-
ment
b. Topical analgesic
c. Topical steroid
a. Excision d. Thalidomide
b. Topical analgesic
c. Topical steroid Ans a. Excision if not responsive to medical management
d. Selective grinding of sharp teeth margins Ref: Burket’s Oral Medicine, 11th ed.
Ans a. Excision 26. A 45 years old lady presented with loss of hairs
Ref: Burket’s Oral Medicine, 11th ed. from scalp and vesicle formation following scrat-
ching. Which of the following can be the diagnosis?
24. A 21-year-old boy presented with the lesion on
alveolar mucosa as seen in the color plate with
history of recurrence. Which of the following can
be the diagnosis?
a. Lichen plans b. Sarcoidosis

c. Pemphigus d. Psoriasis
Ans c. Pemphigus
Oral Medicine 111
Ref: Shafer’s Textbook of Oral Pathology, 7th edition. Smear from the infected area, which comprises epithelial
The loss of epithelium occasioned by rubbing apparently cells, creates opportunities for detection of the yeasts.
unaffected skin is termed Nikolsky’s sign. It is a character- The material obtained is fixed in isopropyl alcohol and
istic feature of pemphigus and is caused by perivascular air-dried before staining with periodic acid–Schiff (PAS).
edema which disrupts the dermal-epidermal junction The detection of yeast organisms is considered a sign of
infection. This technique is particularly useful when pseu-
27. A 45-year-old lady presented with loss of hairs
domembranous oral candidiasis and angular cheilitis are
from scalp following scratching and vesicle for-
suspected. To increase the sensitivity, a second scrape can
mation. This phenomenon is known as:
be transferred to a transport medium followed by cultiva-
tion on Sabouraud agar. To discriminate between different
Candida species, an additional examination can be per-
formed on Pagano-Levin agar. Imprint culture technique
can also be used where sterile plastic foam pads (2.5 × 2.5 cm)
are submerged in Sabouraud broth and placed on the
infected surface for 60 seconds. The pad is then firmly
pressed onto Sabouraud agar, which will be cultivated at
a. Nikolsky’s sign 37°C. The result is expressed as colony forming units per
b. Koebner’s phenomenon cubic millimeter (CFU/mm2). This method is a valuable
c. Auspitz sign adjunct in the diagnostic process of erythematous can-
d. Tinnel sign didiasis and denture stomatitis as these infections consist
of fairly homogeneous erythematous lesions. Salivary cul-
Ans a. Nikolsky’s sign ture techniques are primarily used in parallel with other
Ref: Burket’s Oral Medicine, 11th ed. diagnostic methods to get an adequate quantification of
Characteristic sign of the disease is that pressure to an Candida. Patients who display clinical signs of oral can-

apparently normal area results in the formation of a new didiasis usually have more than 400 CFU/mL.
lesion. This phenomenon, called the Nikolsky’s sign, Chronic plaque-type and nodular candidiasis, culti-
results from the upper layer of the skin pulling away from vation techniques have to be supplemented by a histo-
the basal layer. The Nikolsky’s sign is most frequently asso- pathologic examination. This examination is primarily
ciated with pemphigus but may also occur in other blister- performed to identify the possible presence of epithelial
ing disorders.
dysplasia and to identify invading Candida organisms by
28. Which of the following technique is not used for PAS staining. However, for the latter, there is a definitive
the diagnosis of the lesion seen in the color plate? risk of false-negative results.
29. Which of the following stains is used to stain the

lesion seen in the color plate?
a. Examination of the smear and identification of

organism under microscope
b. Imprint culture technique
c. Cultivation on Sabouraud agar a. H&E b. Gram stain
d. Histopathologic examination c. PAS stain d. Acid fast stain
Ans d. Histopathologic examination Ans c. PAS stain
Ref: Burket’s Oral Medicine, 11th ed. Ref: Burket’s Oral Medicine, 11th ed.
30. Identify the print seen in the color plate:
a. Pemphigus b. Herpes simplex

c. Herpes zoster d. Lichen planus
a. Tooth print b. Finger print
Ans a. Pemphigus
c. Lip print d. Cheek print
Ans a. Tooth print Pemphigus as an entity is characterized microscopically
Ref: Shafer’s Textbook of Oral Pathology, 7th edition. by the formation of a vesicle or bulla entirely intraepithe-
Ameloglyphics. lial, just above the basal layer producing the distinctive
Tooth prints are the pattern formed by the enamel rod suprabasilar ‘split’.
ends at the crown surface of the tooth. Manjunath and Perivascular edema appears to weaken this junction,
coworkers recorded the enamel rod end pattern using ace- and the intercellular bridges between the epithelial cells
tate peel technique (a technique used to study the texture disappear. This results in loss of cohesiveness or acantho-
and surface details of rocks and fossils). Based on their lysis, and because of this, clumps of epithelial cells are
recent study that examined 60 subjects and 120 teeth, they often found lying free within the vesicular space.
have categorized tooth prints into eight different patterns These have been called ‘Tzanck cells’ and are charac-
and demonstrated that no two teeth have similar pattern terized particularly by degenerative changes which include
and coined the term ameloglyphics. swelling of the nuclei and hyperchromatic staining.

31. Which technique is used to prepare the print seen 33. Patient presented with swelling present in maxilla
in the color plate? as seen in the image. On palpation egg shell crack-
ling was present. Aspiration revealed clear yellow
aspirate with protein content of 10 gm/100 mL
and presence of cholesterol crystals.Radiograph
revealed impacted supernumerary tooth sur-
rounded by coronal radiolucency. All erupted
teeth in the area of swelling are vital. What can be
the most probable diagnosis?
a. Acetate peel technique

b. Carbonate peel technique
c. Ascorbate peel technique
d. Urate peel technique
Ans a. Acetate peel technique
32. Patient presented with difficulty in swallowing a. OKC
due to painful ulcerations in oral cavity that were b. Periapical cyst
preceded by blisters. Examination revealed ulcers c. Dentigerous cyst
with tissue tags as seen in the image. Tzanck
d. Lateral periodontal cyst
smear turned out to be positive. What is the cause
of the ulcers present in the oral cavity? Ans c. Dentigerous cyst
Oral Medicine 113
Dentigerous cyst Aspirate: with atrophy of the filiform and later the fungiform papil-
Clear pale, straw colored fluid lae, and dysphagia limited to solid food resulting from
Cholesterol crystals. an esophageal stricture or web. These oral findings are
Total protein in excess of 4.0 g per 100 mL (resembling reminiscent of those seen in pernicious anemia. The
serum). mucous membranes of the oral cavity and esophagus are
Dentigerous cysts have the potential, to attain a large atrophic and show loss of normal keratinization. Koilo-
size, often it is the pronounced facial asymmetry or the nychia (spoon-shaped fingernails) or nails that are brittle
problem of ill-fitting dentures that forces a patient to seek and break easily have been reported in many patients;
treatment. Pain may be a presenting symptom, if secondary splenomegaly has also been reported in 20–30% of the
infection supervenes. Clinically, a tooth from the normal cases.
series, will be found to be missing, unless the cause is a
35. Aspiration of a swelling of mandible yielded blood
supernumerary tooth, sometimes, other adjacent teeth
as aspirate as seen in the color plate. Which of fol-
may also fail to erupt, may be tilted or otherwise be out of
lowing pathologies will show such result?
alignment. The lateral expansion causes a smooth, hard,
painless, prominence, later as the cyst expands the bone,
covering the center of the convexity, becomes thinned and
can be indented with pressure on palpation, with further
expansion. This fragile outer shell of bone becomes frag-
mented and the sensation imparted and sound produced
on palpation over the area is described aptly as eggshell
crackling, which is also true for other large odontogenic a. Dentigerous cyst b. KOT
cysts. Still later the cyst lining may come to lie immediately c. AV malformation d. Ranula
beneath the oral mucosa and fluctuation can be elicited.
Ans c. AV malformation
34. The clinical condition shown in the color plate is Ref: Textbook of Oral and Maxillofacial Surgery (Neelima

suggestive of which of following syndrome: Anil Malik).
1. Dentigerous cyst: Clear pale, straw colored fluid Cho-
lesterol crystals Total protein in excess of 4.0 g per 100 ml
(resembling serum).
2. Keratocystic odontogenic tumor: Dirty, creamy white
viscoid suspension Parakeratinized epithelium Total
protein less than 5.0 g per 100 mL most of which is
albumin.
3. Periodontal cysts: Clear, pale yellow straw colored
fluid Varying amounts of cholesterol crystals Total
protein content is between 5 and 11g per 100 ml.
a. Plummer-Vinson syndrome 4. Infected cyst: Pus or brownish fluid, seropurulent/
b. Pernicious anemia sanguinopurulent fluid, at times paste like or case-
c. Greenspan syndrome ous consistency Polymorphonuclear leukocytes Foam
d. Acquired immunodeficiency syndrome cells Cholesterol clefts.
5. Mucocele, ranula: Mucus
Ans a. Plummer-Vinson syndrome 6. Gingival cysts: Clear fluid
Ref: Shafer’s Textbook of Oral Pathology, 7th edition. 7. Solitary bone cyst: Serous or sanguineous fluid, blood
Plummer-Vinson syndrome occurs chiefly in women in or empty cavity Necrotic blood clot
the fourth and fifth decades of life. Presenting symptoms of 8. Stafne’s bone cavity: Empty cavity will yield air
the anemia and the syndrome are cracks or fissures at the 9. Dermoid cysts: Thick sebaceous material
corners of the mouth (angular cheilitis), a lemon-tinted 10. Fissural cysts: Mucoid fluid
pallor of the skin, a smooth, red, painful tongue (glossitis) 11. Vascular cyst walls: Fresh blood
12. Intramedullary cavernous hemangioma: Syringe full a. Leukoplakia b. Leukoedema

of venous blood
c. Lichen planus d. Erythroplakia
13. Arterial or arteriovenous malformation: Bright red
blood Pulsatile, pushes plunger. Ans d. Erythroplakia
36. A 52 years old patient under retroviral therapy
presented with complaint of nasal regurgitation The nonhomogeneous type of oral leukoplakia may have
of food. Examination revealed palatal perforation white patches or plaque intermixed with red tissue ele-
as seen in the color plate. Microscopic exami- ments. Due to the combined appearance of white and
nation reveled large, nonseptate hyphae with red areas, the nonhomogeneous oral leukoplakia has also
branching at obtuse angles. What is most prob- been called erythroleukoplakia and speckled leukoplakia.
able diagnosis? The clinical manifestation of the white component may
vary from large white verrucous areas to small nodular
structures.
38. The patient presented with complaint of burning

sensation of oral mucosa. Examination revealed
radiating striae and erythematous areas as seen
in the color plate. What can be the diagnosis?
a. Phycomycosis
b. North American blastomycosis
c. South American blastomycosis
d. Actinomycosis
Ans a. Phycomycosis

Two main types of phycomycosis infection occur in human
beings: (1) superficial and (2) visceral, although it is some-
times also classified as localized and disseminated. The a. Lichen planus b. Leukoplakia
superficial infection includes involvement of the external
c. Erythroplakia d. Psoriasis
ear, the fingernails, and the skin. The visceral forms of phy-
comycosis are of three main types: (a) pulmonary, (b) gas- Ans a. Lichen planus
trointestinal, and (c) rhinocerebral. Ref: Shafer’s Textbook of Oral Pathology, 7th edition.
The tissue involved by this infection shows a vari- The disease assumes a somewhat different clinical appe-
able amount of necrosis, some of which may be related arance than on the skin, and classically is characterized
to infarction brought about by thrombi consisting of the by lesions consisting of radiating white or gray, velvety,
organisms. This fungus has an apparent predilection for thread-like papules in a linear, annular or retiform
blood vessels; it is able to penetrate their walls and thereby arrangement forming typical lacy, reticular patches, rings
produce thrombosis. The organisms appear as large, non- and streaks over the buccal mucosa and to a lesser extent
septate hyphae with branching at obtuse angles. on the lips, tongue and palate. A tiny white elevated dot
37. Identify the non-scrapable lesion on the buccal is frequently present at the intersection of the white lines,
mucosa of a chronic smoker as presented in the known here also as the striae of Wickham. When plaque-
color plate: like lesions occur, radiating striae may often be seen on
their periphery.
Shklar and McCarthy have reported the following dis-
tribution of oral lesions: buccal mucosa, 80%; tongue, 65%;
lips, 20%; gingiva, floor of mouth and palate, less than 10%.
These oral lesions produce no significant symptoms,
although occasionally patients will complain of a burning
sensation in the involved areas.
Oral Medicine 115
39. The patient presented with complaint of burning Ref: Burket’s Oral Medicine, 11th ed.
sensation of oral mucosa. Examination revealed Angular cheilitis is infected fissures of the commissures
erythematous areas surrounded by radiating striae of the mouth, often surrounded by erythema. The lesions
at the periphery. What can be the diagnosis? are frequently coinfected with both Candida and Staphy-
lococcus aureus. Vitamin B12, iron deficiencies, and loss of
vertical dimension have been associated with this disor-
der. Atopy has also been associated with the formation of
angular cheilitis. Dry skin may promote the development
of fissures in the commissures, allowing invasion by the
microorganisms. Thirty percent of patients with denture
stomatitis also have angular cheilitis, which only affects 10%
of denture-wearing patients without denture stomatitis.
a. Erosive lichen planus
b. Plaque-like lichen planus 41. Identify the condition present in the color plate:
c. Reticular lichen planus
d. Annular lichen planus
Ans a. Erosive lichen planus
LP is characterized by lesions consisting of radiating white
or gray, velvety, thread-like papules in a linear, annular
or retiform arrangement forming typical lacy, reticular
patches, rings and streaks over the buccal mucosa and to
a lesser extent on the lips, tongue and palate. A tiny white

elevated dot is frequently present at the intersection of
the white lines, known here also as the striae of Wickham.
When plaque-like lesions occur, radiating striae may often
be seen on their periphery. a. Hairy tongue
b. Anemic glossitis
40. Patient complains of difficulty opening the mouth.
c. Pseudomembranous candidiasis
Patient’s medical history reveals that he is anemic
d. Hairy leukoplakia
and there is no other medical history.What is your
diagnosis for the lesion as shown in color plate? Ans b. Anemic glossitis
While an iron-deficiency anemia may occur at any age, the
Plummer-Vinson syndrome occurs chiefly in women in
the fourth and fifth decades of life. Presenting symptoms of
the anemia and the syndrome are cracks or fissures at the
corners of the mouth (angular cheilitis), a lemon-tinted
pallor of the skin, a smooth, red, painful tongue (glos-
sitis) with atrophy of the filiform and later the fungiform
papillae, and dysphagia limited to solid food resulting
a. Stomatitis medicamentosa secondary to drugs from an esophageal stricture or web.
for anemia
42. A growth present on lateral border of tongue of a
b. Angular cheilitis
chronic tobacco chewer with indurated periphery
c. Petechiae due to ITP
and tendency to bleed on provocation associated
d. Oral submucous fibrosis
with palpable neck masses. What is most prob-
Ans b. Angular cheilitis able diagnosis?
a. Carcinoma of tongue
b. Hairy leukoplakia
c. Pyogenic granuloma
a. Herpes zoster
d. Eruucous leukoplakia
b. Herpes simplex
Ans a. Carcinoma of tongue c. Cytomegalovirus
d. Human papillomavirus
Unfortunately, patients are most often identified only after
the development of symptoms at advanced stages of dis- Ans b. Herpes zoster
ease. Discomfort is the most common symptom that leads Ref: Harrison’s Principles of Internal Medicine, 18th edi-
a patient to seek care and may be present at the time of tion.
diagnosis in up to 85% of patients. Patients also may pre- Herpetic whitlow—HSV infection of the finger—may occur
sent with an awareness of a mass in the mouth or neck. as a complication of primary oral or genital herpes.
Dysphagia, odynophagia, otalgia, limited movement, oral
bleeding, neck masses, and weight loss may occur with 45. The clinical picture shown in the color plate is due
advanced disease. to heterotopic accumulation of which of follow-
ing?
43. The color plate shows which of the following pro-

cedures being performed:
a. Punch biopsy
b. Brush biopsy a. Minor salivary gland
c. Exfoliative cytology
b. Lipid globules
d. Excisional biopsy
c. Sebaceous glands
Ans A. Punch biopsy d. Candidia albicans
Ref: Textbook of Oral and Maxillofacial Surgery (Neelima
Ans c. Sebaceous glands
Anil Malik).
A small part of the lesion is obtained as specimen using Ref: Shafer’s Textbook of Oral Pathology, 7th edition.
a punch. This technique is of particular use in mucosal Fordyces granules are developmental anomaly character-
lesions from inaccessible regions that cannot be reached ized by heterotopic collections of sebaceous glands at vari-
by conventional methods. The technique produces some ous sites in the oral cavity.
amount of crushing or distortion of the tissues. 46. This aspirate sample showed cholesterol crystals
44. Which of the following organism is responsible under the microscope and had no keratin content
for the condition of a child patient with habit of within. Most probable diagnosis for the lesion
thumb sucking seen in the color plate? from which it was aspirated?
Oral Medicine 117
48. Identify the mode of inheritance.
a. Odontogenic keratocyst
a. Dominant b. Recessive
b. Dentigerous cyst
c. Mitochondrial d. X-linked
c. Peripheral hemangioma
d. Actinomycosis Ans a. Dominant
Ans b. Dentigerous cyst 49. Identify the mode of inheritance:

Ref: Textbook of Oral and Maxillofacial Surgery (Neelima
Anil Malik).
Dentigerous cyst contents consist of clear yellowish fluid,
in which cholesterol crystals may be present, or purulent
material, if infection has occurred.
47. Identify the non-scrapable lesion on the tongue of

a chronic smoker as presented in the color plate:

Ans b. Recessive
50. Identify the mode of inheritance:
a. Leukoplakia b. Leukoedema
c. Lichen planus d. Erythroplakia
Ans a. Leukoplakia
Oral leukoplakia is defined as a predominantly white
lesion of the oral mucosa that cannot be characterized as
any other definable lesion. This disorder can be further
divided into a homogeneous and a nonhomogeneous Ans d. X-linked
type. The typical homogeneous leukoplakia is clinically Modes of Inheritance
characterized as a white, well-demarcated plaque with Ref: Shafer’s Textbook of Oral Pathology, 7th edition.
an identical reaction pattern throughout the entire lesion. Population genetics deals with the study of the mode of
The demarcation is usually very distinct, which is different inheritance of traits and the distribution of genes in popu-
from an oral lichen planus (OLP) lesion, where the white lations.
components have a more diffuse transition to the normal All chromosomes exist in pairs so our cells contain two
oral mucosa. copies of each gene, which may be alike or may differ in
their substructure and their product. Different forms of gene responsible, along with one normal allele, the mode
genes at the same locus or position on the chromosome of inheritance of the trait is called dominant (question
are called alleles. If both copies of the gene are identical, no. 48). If two copies of the defective gene are required for
the individual is described as homozygous, while if they expression of the trait, the mode of inheritance is called
differ, the term used is heterozygous. recessive (question no. 49). The special case of genes car-
ried on the X chromosome produces yet different pedi-
The exception to the rule that cells contain pairs of
grees. Since male-to-male transmission is impossible and
chromosomes applies to the gametes, sperm and ovum,
since females do not express the disease when they carry
which contain only single representatives of each pair of
only one copy of the diseased gene (since it is modified by
chromosomes, and therefore, of each pair of genes. When the homologous X chromosome), the usual pedigree con-
the two gametes join at fertilization, the new individual sists of an affected male with clinically normal parents and
produced again has paired genes, one from the father and children, but with affected brothers, maternal uncles, and
one from the mother. If a trait or disease manifests itself other maternal male relatives (question no. 50). This mode
when the affected person carries only one copy of the of inheritance is described as X-linked recessive.

Chapter o
1-
j
O
Oral Radiology a>
LU
03
HHBHB
1. What is the significance of component of radio- a. Stabilizes patients head during exposure
graph machine marked with an arrow in the color
b. Provides reference for Frankfort horizontal plane
plate?
c. Provides reference for sagittal plane
d. Provides stabilized anteroposterior position
Ans d. Provides stabilized anteroposterior position
Ref: Oral radiology principles and interpretation, 6th
edition.
I The arrow points toward the notched bite block on which

a. Stabilizes patient 's head during exposure patient is asked to bite on.
b. Provides reference for Frankfort horizontal plane The anteroposterior position radiograph of the patient
is achieved typically by having patients place the incisal
c. Provides reference for sagittal plane
edges of their maxillary and mandibular incisors into
d. Keeps occlusal surfaces apart so as to disoc- a notched positioning device ( the bite block). Patients
clude and avoid superimposition of images should not shift the mandible to either side when making
Ans a. Stabilizes patient 's head during exposure this protrusive movement. The midsagittal plane must be
Ref: Oral radiology principles and interpretation, 6th centered within the image layer of the particular X- ray unit.
n
edition.
The arrow points toward lateral head supports. 3. Identify the film presented in the color plate. CD
Each unit has a unique method of head stabilization, LU
varying from chin cups to posterior or lateral head sup-
ports to head restraints. Patient motion can be minimized 03
by application of one or more methods simultaneously.
E
Image quality is severely degraded by head movement, so E
CD
it is important to obtain patient compliance. N
CD
2. What is the significance of component of radio-
graph machine marked with an arrow in the color
plate? 57 mm
a.
Occlusal film
CO
b.
Intraoral periapical film
c.
Bitewing film
d.
Conventional OPG film
Ans a. Occlusal film
Ref: Oral radiology principles and interpretation, 6th Ref: Oral radiology principles and interpretation, 6th
edition. edition.
Occlusal film is more than three times larger than size 2 Cassette for 8 × 10 inch film.
film (57 × 76 mm) When the cassette is closed, the film is supported in
It is used to show larger areas of the maxilla or mandi- close contact between two intensifying screens.
ble than may be seen on a periapical film. These films also 6. Identify the part marked with arrow in the color
are used to obtain right-angle views to the usual periapical plate.
view.
4. Identify the film present the color plate.
a. Intensifying screen b. Screen film

c. Film viewer d. Film dryer
a. Size 0 IOPA film b. Size 1 IOPA film Ans a. Intensifying screen
c. Size 2 IOPA film d. Size 3 IOPA film Ref: Oral radiology principles and interpretation, 6th
edition.
Ans c. Size 2 IOPA film
The presence of intensifying screens creates an image

receptor system that is 10 to 60 times more sensitive to
edition.
X-rays than the film alone.
Periapical view: Periapical views are used to record the
Intensifying screens are made of a base supporting
crowns, roots, and surrounding bone.
material, a phosphor layer, and a protective polymeric coat.
Film packs come in three sizes:
The film is supported in close contact between two
1. 0 for small children (22 × 35 mm)
intensifying screens within cassette.
2. Which is relatively narrow and used for views of the
anterior teeth (24 × 40 mm) 7. Identify the component of intraoral film presen-
3. The standard film size used for adults (31 × 41 mm) ted in the color plate.
a. Interleaf paper wrapper

b. Moisture- and light-proof packet
a. Film holding cassette b. Grid c. Lead foil
c. Film viewer d. Film dryer d. Film
Ans a. Film holding cassette Ans b. Moisture- and light-proof packet
Oral Radiology 121
edition. edition.
Moisture- and light-proof packet contains an opening tab Between the wrappers in the film packet is a thin lead foil
on the side opposite the tube. Inside is a sheet of lead foil backing with an embossed pattern. The foil is positioned in
and a black, lightproof, interleaf paper wrapper that is the film packet behind the film, away from the tube. This
folded around the film. Film is packaged with one or two lead foil serves several purposes. It shields the film from
sheets of film. backscatter (secondary) radiation, which fogs the film and
reduces subject contrast (image quality). It also reduces
8. Identify the structure marked with “x” in the color patient exposure by absorbing some of the residual X-ray
plate. beam. Perhaps most important, however, is the fact that if
the film packet is placed backward in the patient’s mouth
so that the tube side of the film is facing away from the X-ray
machine, the lead foil will be positioned between the sub-
ject and the film. In this circumstance most of the radiation
is absorbed by the lead foil and the resulting radiograph is
light and shows the embossed pattern in the lead foil.
10. Select the correct sequence of arrangement of
components of intraoral film shown in the color
a. Interleaf paper wrapper
plate from side facing toward X-ray source to the
b. Moisture- and light-proof packet
side facing tooth.
c. Lead foil
d. Film
Ans d. Film
edition.

X-ray film has two principal components: Emulsion and
base. The emulsion, which is sensitive to X-rays and visible
light, records the radiographic image. The base is a plastic
supporting material onto which the emulsion is coated. a. S-R-Q-P b. P-S-R-Q
c. P-Q-R-S d. P-R-S-Q
9. Which of following is not true for the component
Ans c. P-Q-R-S
of intraoral film shown in the color plate.
edition.
Moisture- and light-proof packet (P) contains an opening
tab on the side opposite the tube. Inside is a sheet of lead
foil (S) and a black, lightproof, interleaf paper wrapper (Q)
that is folded around the film (R). Film is packaged with
one or two sheets of film.
11. What is not true regarding the structure marked
with an arrow in the color image?
a. It shields the film from secondary radiation

b. It is positioned in the film packet behind the
film, towards from the tube
c. It Reduces patient exposure
d. It helps maintaining good image quality
Ans b. It is positioned in the film packet behind the
film, towards from the tube.
a. Indicates the tube side of the film The primary components of an X-ray machine are the X-ray
b. Identifies the patient’s right and left sides tube and its power supply. The X-ray tube is positioned
within the tube head, along with some components of the
c. Convex side of the dot faces tongue
power supply. Often the tube is recessed within the tube
d. Concave side of the dot faces tongue
head to improve the quality of the radiographic image. The
Ans c. Convex side of the dot faces tongue tube head is supported by an arm that is usually mounted
Ref: Oral radiology principles and interpretation, 6th on a wall. A control panel allows the operator to adjust the
edition. time of exposure and often the energy and exposure rate of
The raised film dot (arrow) indicates the tube side of the the X-ray beam.
film and identifies the patient’s right and left sides.
The corner of each dental film has a small, raised dot 14. Identify the component of X-ray tube marked with
that is used for film orientation. The manufacturer ori- the arrow.
ents the film in the packet so that the convex side of the
dot is toward the front of the packet and faces the X-ray
tube. The side of the film with the depression is thus ori-
ented toward the patient’s tongue. After the film has
been exposed and processed, the dot is used to identify the
image as showing the patient’s right or left side. When the
films are mounted with the images of the teeth in the ana-
tomic position, each film is first oriented with the convex
a. Anode b. Cathode
side of the dot toward the viewer.
c. Filament d. Yoke
12. What does this symbol represent? Ans b. Cathode
edition.

The cathode in an X-ray tube consists of a filament and a
focusing cup. The filament is the source of electrons within
the X-ray tube. It is a coil of tungsten wire about 2 mm in
diameter and 1 cm or less in length. It is mounted on two
stiff wires that support it and carry the electric current.
These two mounting wires lead through the glass enve-
a. Recycling of waste products lope and connect to both the high- and low-voltage elec-
b. Biohazard trical sources. The filament is heated to incandescence by
c. Radiohazard the flow of current from the low-voltage source and emits
d. Green energy electrons at a rate proportional to the temperature of the
Ans b. Biohazard filament.
13. Which of the following is represented in the color 15. Identify the component of X-ray tube marked with
plate? the arrow.
a. X-ray tube b. Autotransformer

c. Filament transformer d. Rotating anode
Ans a. X-ray tube a. Anode b. Cathode
Ref: Oral radiology principles and interpretation, 6th c. Filament d. Yoke
edition. Ans a. Anode
Oral Radiology 123
edition. edition.
The anode consists of a tungsten target embedded in a Position-and-distance rule. If no barrier is available, the
copper stem. The purpose of the target in an X-ray tube is operator should stand at least 6 feet from the patient when
to convert the kinetic energy of the colliding electrons into the exposure is made.
X-ray photons.
18. What does this symbol represent?
16. Which of following angulation marked with “X”
is correct for “safe position” during exposure of
radiograph?
a. Recycling of waste products

b. Biohazard
c. Radiohazard
d. Green energy
a. 90-120 degrees b. 90-135 degrees Ans c. Radiohazard
c. 90-140 degrees d. 90-110 degrees
19. The intraoral radiograph presented in the color
Ans b. 90-135 degrees

image is suggestive of which of the following?
edition.
Position-and-distance rule. If no barrier is available, the
operator should stand, at an angle of 90 to 135 degrees
to the central ray of the X-ray beam when the exposure is
made.
17. Which of the following distance marked with “?”

is correct for “safe position” during exposure of
radiograph?
a. Periapical cyst
b. Globulomaxillary cyst
c. Nasopalatine cyst
d. Nasoalveolar cyst
Ans b. Globulomaxillary cyst
Ref: Shafer’s Textbook of Oral Pathology, Seventh Edition.
Globullomaxillary cyst, on the intraoral radiograph, charac-
a. 5 ft b. 6 ft teristically appears as an inverted, pear-shaped radiolu-
c. 7 ft d. 8 ft cent area between the roots of the lateral incisor and cus-
Ans b. 6 ft pid, usually causing divergence of the roots of these teeth.
20. Identify the supernumerary tooth presented in observed attenuation (the egg-shell effect). Developmen-
the color plate. tally, the lamina dura is an extension of the lining of the
bony crypt that surrounds each tooth during development.
22. Coronal Section of head CT scan shows which of

the following findings?
a. Paramolar b. Distomolar
c. Mesiodens d. Mulberry molar
Ans c. Mesiodens
Mesiodens—it is located at or near the midline in the incisal a. Lt. ramal fracture
region of maxilla between central incisors. It may occur b. Rt. ramal fracture
singly or paired, erupted or impacted or even inverted. It c. Lt. parasymphysis fracture
is a small tooth with cone-shaped crown and short root. It d. Rt. parasymphysis fracture
may cause retarded eruption, displacement or resorption Ans d. Rt. parasymphysis fracture
of adjacent root. It frequently causes improper alignment. Coronal section of head CT scan shows discontinuity at
parasymphysis level and displacement of fractured frag-
21. Which of the following represents a radiopaque
ment.
lining of empty socket shown in the radiograph?

23. Incidental finding on IOPA of a 16 years old
patient points toward which of the following?
a. Lamina densa b. Lamina dura

c. Lamina lucida d. PDL space
Ans b. Lamina dura a. Compound odontome
Ref: Oral radiology principles and interpretation, 6th b. Dentigerous cyst
edition. c. Complex odontome
A radiograph of sound teeth in a normal dental arch d. Cemento-ossifying fibroma
demonstrates that the tooth sockets are bounded by a thin Ans c. Complex odontome
radiopaque layer of dense bone. Maxillary IOPA radiograph showing complex odontome.
It is only slightly thicker and no more highly minera- A toothlike appearance of the radiopaque structures
lized than the trabeculae of cancellous bone in the area. within a well-defined lesion leads to easy recognition of
Its radiographic appearance is caused by the fact that a compound odontoma. Complex odontomas differ from
the X-ray beam passes tangentially through many times cemento-ossifying fibromas by their tendency to associate
the thickness of the thin bony wall, which results in its with unerupted molar teeth and because they usually
Oral Radiology 125
are more radiopaque than cemento-ossifying fibromas. a. Common carotid artery

Odontomas may also develop in much younger patients
b. Internal carotid artery
than do cementoossifying fibromas.
c. External carotid artery
24. The image presented in the color plate is repre-
d. Inernal jugular vein
sentative of which of the following imaging mod-
alities? Ans b. Internal carotid artery
27. The arrow points towards which of the following

structure is presented CT angiogram?
a. CT sialogram b. CT angiogram
c. MRI sialogram d. PET scan
Ans b. CT angiogram
25. The arrow points toward which of the following a. Common carotid artery
structure is presented CT angiogram? b. Internal carotid artery
Ans c. External carotid artery

28. The radiograph is suggestive of which of follow-
ing diagnosis for the pathology marked with an
arrow?
a. Common carotid artery

b. Internal carotid artery
Ans a. Common carotid artery
26. The arrow points toward which of the following
structure is presented CT angiogram?
a. Mucositis b. Sinusitis
c. Periostitis d. Periapical abscess
Ans a. Mucositis
Thickened sinus mucosa is portrayed as a hyperdense
band paralleling the contour of the maxillary wall.
The image of thickened mucosa is readily detectable in
the radiograph as a noncorticated band noticeably more
radiopaque than the air-filled sinus, paralleling the bony
wall of the sinus.
29. 3D CBCT image presented in the color plate is 32. What is the ideal treatment plan for 46 shown in
diagnostic of which of the following? the radiograph?
a. Extraction b. Pulpectomy
a. Impacted right maxillary canine
c. Pulpotomy d. Bicuspidization
b. Impacted right mandibular canine
Ans b. Pulpectomy
c. Impacted left maxillary canine
IOPA reveals tooth with periapical radiolucent lesion sug-
d. Impacted left mandibular canine
gestive of abscess that should be ideally treated endodon-
Ans a. Impacted right maxillary canine tically.
3DCT image shows presence of canine in right maxillary
sinus area 33. Identify the supernumerary tooth presented in
the color plate.
30. Identify the supernumerary tooth presented in
the color plate.

a. Paramolar b. Distomolar
a. Paramolar b. Distomolar c. Mesiodens d. Mulberry molar
c. Mesiodens d. Mulberry molar
Ans c. Mesiodens
Ans a. Paramolar IOPA shows inverted conical supernumerary between
It is supernumerary molar, usually small and rudimentary maxillary incisors .
and is situated buccally or lingually to one of the maxillary
molars or interproximally between 1st, 2nd and 3rd maxil- 34. 3DCT image of a 15 years old patient, presented
lary molars. with swelling. Aspiration did not yield any aspi-
rate. What’s the most probable diagnosis?
31. The occlusal radiograph presented here shows
which of following artifact?
a. Phalangioma b. Cone cut
c. Elongation d. Double exposure b. Ameloblastoma
Ans b. Cone cut c. Dentigerous cyst
Partial image caused by poor alignment of the tube head d. Central hemangioma
with the film. Ans b. Ameloblastoma
Oral Radiology 127
3DCT demonstrating expansion of the cortex with areas of and gives negative response to EPT. What is the
erosion. diagnosis based on the clinical and radiographic
The ameloblastoma is usually well defined and fre- findings?
quently delineated by a cortical border. The border is often
curved, and in small lesions the border and shape may be
indistinguishable from a cyst. The periphery of lesions in
the maxilla is usually more ill defined.
In this case, absence of aspirate rules out other 3
options.
35. An axial section CT scan of a 30 years old patient,

reveals a bicortical expansion as seen in image. a. Periapical cyst
Aspiration did not yield any aspirate. What’s the b. Periapical abscess
most probable diagnosis? c. Periapical granuloma
d. Follicular cyst
Ans a. Periapical cyst
Radiograph of a radicular cyst reveals a lesion with a well-
defined cortical boundary and radiolucent internal struc-
ture.
38. A swelling associated with nonvital tooth and
radiographic finding as seen in the radiograph is
suggestive of?
b. Ameloblastoma

c. Dentigerous cyst
d. Central hemangioma
Ans b. Ameloblastoma
An axial section demonstrating bicortical expansion with
maintenance of a thin outer shell of bone.
a. Periapical cyst
36. Identify the artifact present in the IOPA as seen in
b. Periapical abscess
the color image.
c. Periapical granuloma
d. Follicular cyst
Ans a. Periapical cyst
Radiograph of a radicular cyst reveals a lesion with a well-
defined cortical boundary and radiolucent internal struc-
ture.
39. Occlusal radiograph presented in the color plate
is diagnostic of which of the following?
a. Writing with pen on film b. Cone cut

c. Elongation d. Foreshortening
Ans a. Writing with pen on film
37. Patient presented with palatal swelling. History
reveals episode of trauma 2 years back. On clini-
cal examination central incisor is discolored
a. Impacted right and left mandibular canine a. Coronal section b. Sagittal section
b. Impacted righ and left maxillary canine c. Axial section d. 3D reconstruction
c. Impacted right and left maxillary lateral incisor Ans b. Sagittal section
d. Impacted right and left mandibular lateral
incisor 42. CBCT image showed in the color plate is repre-
Ans b. Impacted right and left maxillary canine senting which of the following section?
40. A 24 years old female patient presented with swel-

ling associated with palate and aspirate showed
pale, straw-colored fluid. What is the diagnosis
based on provided information?
a. Coronal section b. Sagittal section

c. Axial section d. 3D reconstruction
Ans a. Coronal section
a. Dentigerous cyst b. KOT 43. CBCT image showed in the color plate is repre-
c. CEOC d. Periapical cyst senting which of the following section?
Ans a. Dentigerous cyst
The epicenter of a dentigerous cyst is found just above the
crown of the involved tooth, most commonly the man-
dibular or maxillary third molar or the maxillary canine.

An important diagnostic point is that this cyst attaches at
the cementoenamel junction. Some dentigerous cysts are
eccentric, developing from the lateral aspect of the folli-
cle so that they occupy an area beside the crown instead
of above the crown. Cysts related to maxillary third molars a. Coronal section b. Sagittal section
often grow into the maxillary antrum and may become c. Axial section d. 3D reconstruction
quite large before they are discovered. Cysts attached to the
Ans c. Axial section
crown of mandibular molars may extend a considerable
distance into the ramus. Dentigerous cysts typically have 44. Image showed in the color plate is representing
a well-defined cortex with a curved or circular outline. If which of the following radiograph?
infection is present, the cortex may be missing. The inter-
nal aspect is completely radiolucent except for the crown
of the involved tooth.
41. CBCT Image showed in the color plate is repre-

senting which of the following section?
a. Anteroposterior view
b. Reverse Towne view
c. PA Waters view
d. Submentovertex view
Ans a. Anteroposterior view
Oral Radiology 129
45. The radiograph presented here shows which of The most common location of KOT is the posterior body
the following finding? of the mandible (90% occur posterior to the canines) and
ramus (more than 50%). The epicenter is located superior
to the inferior alveolar nerve canal. This type of cyst occa-
sionally has the same pericoronal position as, and is indis-
tinguishable from, a dentigerous cyst.
Periphery and shape: As with cysts, KOTs usually
show evidence of a cortical border unless they have
become secondarily infected. The cyst may have a smooth
a. Zygomatic arch fracture round or oval shape identical to that of other cysts, or it
b. Mandibular angle fracture may have a scalloped outline (a series of contiguous arcs).
c. Mandibular body fracture Internal structure: The internal structure is most
d. Mandibular parasymphysis fracture commonly radiolucent. The presence of internal keratin
Ans a. Zygomatic arch fracture does not increase the radiopacity. In some cases, curved
The image presented is a submentovertex radiograph internal septa may be present, giving the lesion a multi-
which shows fractured zygomatic arch. locular appearance.
46. Image showed in the color plate is representing Effects on surrounding structures: An important
which of the following radiograph? characteristic of the KOT is its propensity to grow along the
internal aspect of the jaws, causing minimal expansion.
This occurs throughout the mandible except for the upper
ramus and coronoid process, where considerable expan-
sion may occur.
KOTs can displace and resorb teeth but to a slightly

lesser degree than dentigerous cysts. The inferior alveolar
nerve canal may be displaced inferiorly. In the maxilla,
a. Anteroposterior view this cyst can invaginate and occupy the entire maxillary
b. Reverse Towne view antrum.
c. PA Waters view
48. 3D reconstruction of CT scan presented here is
d. Submentovertex view suggestive of which of the following diagnosis?
Ans d. Submentovertex view
47. A 35 years old male patient reported with the
complaint of lower lip paresthesia and displace-
ment of tooth. Aspiration revealed presence dirty,
creamy white viscoid suspension with keratin and
protein content of 1 gm/100 ml. What is the diag-
nosis based on this OPG findings?
a. Condylar fracture
b. Condylar hyperplasia
c. Ankylosis
a. Dentigerous cyst d. Condylar osteochondroma
b. Residual cyst Ans c. Ankylosis
c. Keratocystic odontogenic tumor Note the osseous ankylosis: presence of mass with bony
d. Unicystic ameloblastoma consistency in place of joint space leading to obliteration
Ans c. Keratocystic odontogenic tumor of the joint space of TMJ.
49. Coronal section of CT scan presented here is sug- a. Sialolith b. Tonsilolith

gestive of which of the following diagnosis? c. Phlebolith d. Calcified lymph node
Ans a. Sialolith
3D reconstruction of CT scan of a submandibular gland
sialolith; note the position and size.
52. What is the diagnosis for the radiograph?
a. Condylar fracture
b. Condylar hyperplasia
c. Ankylosis
d. Condylar osteochondroma
Ans c. Ankylosis a. Mandibular body fracture
Note the osseous ankylosis: Obliteration of the joint space b. Zygomatic arch fracture
of right condyle. c. Right condylar fracture
d. Bilateral condylar fracture
50. The 3DCT chest feature presented is associated Ans c. Right condylar fracture

a. Basal cell nevus syndrome
b. Gardner’s syndrome
c. Down syndrome a. Mandibular body fracture
d. Cleidocranial dysplasia b. Zygomatic arch fracture
c. Right condylar fracture
Ans a. Basal cell nevus syndrome.
The term basal cell nevus syndrome comprises a number
of abnormalities such as multiple nevoid basal cell carci- Ans a. Mandubular body fracture
nomas of the skin, skeletal abnormalities (BIFID RIB), cen- Left body fracture involving 46.
tral nervous system abnormalities, eye abnormalities, and 54. What is the diagnosis for the radiograph?
multiple KOTs. It is inherited as an autosomal dominant
trait with variable expressivity.
51. The CT image is suggestive of which of the follow-

ing diagnosis?
a. Mandibular symphysis fracture

b. Mandibular parasymphysis fracture
Ans b. Mandibular parasymphysis fracture.
Oral Radiology 131
a. Cloaca b. Sequestrum
c. Involucrum d. Residual cyst
a. Mandibular body fracture
Ans b. Sequestrum
b. Symphysis fracture
The necrosed bone is known as sequestrum: Sequestra
may be present but usually are more apparent and numer-
d. Bilateral condylar fracture ous in chronic forms. Sequestra can be identified by closely
Ans b. Symphysis fracture inspecting a region of bone destruction (radiolucency) for
56. Which of the following shows radiological fea- an island of bone.
tures as seen in the radiograph?
58. The patient complains of chronic pus discharge
from left mandibular body region. Presence of
draining fistula extraorally along with the findings
seen in the radiograph are suggestive of which of
the following?
a. Focal sclerosis
b. Sialolith

c. Proliferative periostitis
d. Metal restoration artifact
a. Suppurative osteomyelitis
Ans c. Proliferative periostitis
Acute osteomyelitis can stimulate either bone resorp- b. KOT
tion or bone formation. Portions of cortical bone may c. Periapical cyst
be resorbed. An inflammatory exudate can lift the peri- d. Ameloblastic fibroma
osteum and stimulate bone formation. Radiographically, Ans a. Suppurative osteomyelitis
this appears as a thin, faint, radiopaque line adjacent to Panoramic film reveals large sequestra and a periosteal
and almost parallel or slightly convex to the surface of the reaction at the inferior border of the mandible in a case of
bone. A radiolucent band separates this periosteal new chronic osteomyelitis.
bone from the bone surface. As the lesion develops into a Very early in the disease, no radiographic changes may
more chronic phase, cyclic and periodic acute exacerba- be identifiable. The bone may be filled with inflammatory
tions may produce more inflammatory exudate, which exudate and inflammatory cells and may show no radio-
again lifts the periosteum from the bone surface and graphic change.
stimulates the periosteum to form a second layer of bone. Location: The most common location is the posterior
This is detected radiographically as a second radiopaque
body of the mandible. The maxilla is a rare site. Periphery.
line almost parallel to the first and separated from it by
A cute osteomyelitis most often presents an ill-defined
a radiolucent band. This process may continue and may
periphery with a gradual transition to normal trabeculae.
result in several lines (an onion-skin appearance), and
Internal structure. The first radiographic evidence of
eventually a massive amount of new bone may be formed.
the acute form of osteomyelitis is a slight decrease in the
This is referred to as proliferative periostitis and is seen
more often in children. density of the involved bone, with a loss of sharpness of the
existing trabeculae. In time, the bone destruction becomes
57. Identify the part of lesion marked with arrow in more profound, resulting in an area of radiolucency in one
the radiograph of a patient of osteomyelitis? focal area or in scattered regions throughout the involved
bone. Later, the appearance of sclerotic regions becomes

apparent. Sequestra may be present but usually are more
apparent and numerous in chronic forms. Sequestra can
be identified by closely inspecting a region of bone destruc-
tion (radiolucency) for an island of bone. This island of
nonvital bone may vary in size from a small dot (smaller
sequestra usually are seen in young patients) to larger seg-
ments of radiopaque bone.
a. Ankylosis
59. What is the diagnosis for the coronal section of
b. Pericoronal abscess
CT face?
c. Taurodontism
d. Periapical granuloma
Ans c. Taurodontism
Periapical radiograph reveals enlarged pulp chambers and
apically positioned furcations in permanent first molar.
The body of taurodont teeth appears elongated and
the roots short. The pulp chamber extends from a normal
position in the crown throughout the length of the elon-
gated body, leading to a more apically positioned pulpal
a. Blow out fracture floor.
b. Blow in fracture 62. Identify the lesion present in reconstructed CT
c. Parade ground fracture image.
d. Bucket handle fracture

Ans a. Blow out fracture
Coronal section CT reveals fracture of left floor of orbit and
displacement of content in the maxillary sinus.
60. What is the diagnosis for the asymptomatic,

static swelling present palate as seen in the 3DCT
image?
a. Osteoma b. Sialolithiasis
c. Warthin tumor d. Ameloblastoma
Ans a. Osteoma
3D CT image shows a calcifies structure arising from the
parietal bone that is suggestive of Osteoma.
63. The radiograph is suggestive of which of the follo-

wing diagnosis?
a. Fibrous dysplasia
b. Sialolith
c. Calcified lymph node
d. Torus palatinus
Ans d. Torus palatinus
A 3D CT image (Posterior View) with torus palatinus.
61. Which of the following condition is present in
this IOPA?
Oral Radiology 133
a. Basal cell nevus syndrome The bilateral structures marked with the arrow are mental
b. Gardner’s syndrome foramen.
c. Down syndrome 66. What is the diagnosis for the radiograph?
d. Cleidocranial dysplasia
Ans d. Cleidocranial dysplasia
Note the absence of clavicles in the radiograph. Typi-
cally the clavicles are underdeveloped to varying degrees
in cleidocranial dysplasia and, in approximately 10% of
cases, they are completely absent.
64. A child patient presents with bilateral facial swel-

ling. The radiograph presented here of same case a. Mandibular body fracture
is suggestive of which of the following condition?
b. Mandibular angle fracture
Ans b. Mandibular angle fracture
67. Identify the film presented in the color plate.
a. Ameloblastoma
b. Central giant cell granuloma
c. Cherubism
d. Paget’s disease

Ans c. Cherubism
OPG showing lesions in mandible. The epicenter of the
lesion is in mandibular ramus; note the anterior displace-
ment of the unerupted teeth. The internal structure con-
tains septa.
Although the radiographic appearance of cherubism a. Occlusal film
may be similar to that of giant cell granuloma, the fact b. Intraoral periapical film
that cherubism is bilateral with an epicenter in the ramus c. Bitewing film
should provide a clear differentiation. d. Conventional OPG film
Ans c. Bitewing Film
65. Identify the structure marked with the arrows in
the radiograph.
edition.
Bitewing (interproximal) views are used to record the
coronal portions of the maxillary and mandibular teeth in
one image. They are useful for detecting interproximal car-
ies and evaluating the height of alveolar bone. Size 2 film
is normally used in adults; the smaller size 1 is preferred in
children. In small children, size 0 may be used. A relatively
long size 3 also is available. Bitewing films often have a
a. Residual cyst paper tab projecting from the middle of the film on which
b. Periapical cyst the patient bites to support the film. This tab is rarely visu-
c. Periapical cemental dysplasia alized and does not interfere with the diagnostic quality of
d. Mental foramen the image. Film-holding instruments for bitewing projec-
Ans d. Mental foramen tions also are available.
68. The OPG of an asymptomatic hard bony swelling 71. A radiopaque structure present in the OPG in left
over ramus is suggestive of which of following? mandibular body region is diagnostic of which
of the following?
a. Osteoma
b. Osteosarcoma a. Complex odontome
c. Fibrous dysplasia b. Compound odontome
d. Pleomorphic adenoma c. Osteoma
Ans a. Osteoma d. Osteosarcoma
An osteoma on the mandibular ramus Ans a. Complex odontome
Osteomas have well-defined borders. Location. More of the compound type (62%) occur in
Osteomas composed solely of compact bone are uni- the anterior maxilla in association with the crown of an
formly radiopaque; those containing cancellous bone unerupted canine. In contrast, 70% of complex odontomas
show evidence of internal trabecular structure. are found in the mandibular first and second molar area.
69. Which of the following is correct for multiple radi- Periphery: The borders of odontomas are well defined
olucencies present periapical to teeth in OPG? and may be smooth or irregular. These lesions have a cor-
tical border, and immediately inside and adjacent to the
cortical border is a soft-tissue capsule.
Internal structure. The contents of these lesions are
largely radiopaque. Compound odontomas have a number

of toothlike structures or denticles that look like deformed
teeth. Complex odontomas contain an irregular mass of
calcified tissue. The degree of radiopacity is equivalent to
a. Multiple periapical cemental dysplasia or exceeds that of adjacent tooth structure and may vary
b. Central ossifying fibroma in the degree of radiopacity from one region to another,
c. Permanent tooth buds reflecting variations in amount and type of hard tissue that
d. Multiple KOT has been formed. A dilated odontoma has a single calcified
Ans c. Permanent tooth buds structure with a more radiolucent central portion that has
The OPG represents erupted deciduous dentition and an overall form like a donut.
developing permanent dentition.
72. Identify the mandibular 3rd condition present in
70. What is approximate dental age of the patient the radiograph.
based on the radiographic finding?
a. 3-4 years b. 5-6 years a. Vertical impaction

c. 7-8 years d. 9-10 years b. Mesoangular impaction
Ans b. 5-6 years c. Distoanglar impaction
OPG reveals presence of full set of primary dentition along d. Torseversion
with erupting permanent mandibular 1st molars (6 yrs). Ans a. Vertical impaction
Oral Radiology 135
73. Identify the mandibular 3rd condition present in 76. The equipment presented in the color plate is
the radiograph. used while following which technique?
a. Vertical impaction
b. Mesoangular impaction
c. Distoangular impaction a. Paralleling technique
d. Horizontal impaction b. Bisecting technique
c. Bitewing radiograph
Ans d. Horizontal impaction
d. Occlusal radiogaph
74. Identify the mandibular 3rd condition present in Ans a. Paralleling technique
the radiograph.
77. Identify the equipment presented in the color
plate.

a. Vertical impaction
b. Mesoangular impaction
c. Distoangular impaction a. Collimator b. Grid
d. Horizontal impaction c. XCP film holder d. Bite block
Ans b. Mesoangular impaction Ans c. XCP film holder
XCP film-holding instrument: The aiming ring aligns a cir-
75. Identify the structure marked with arrow in the
cular aiming cylinder from an X-ray machine with the sen-
radiograph image.
sor to assure that the image plane is perpendicular to the
central ray and in the middle of the beam. Note notches to
align rectangularly collimated aiming devices.
78. What is marked with an arrow in the radiograph?
a. Inferior alveolar nerve canal

b. Mental nerve canal
c. Posterior superoalveolar nerve canal
d. Mylohyoid nerve canal
Ans a. Inferior alveolar nerve canal a. Buccal pit caries b. Occlusal caries
Image represents inferior alveolar nerve canal apical to c. Smooth surface caries d. None of the above
mandibular 3rd molar region. Ans d. None of the above
The structure marked with the arrow is the raised dot pre- a. Ameloblastoma
sent on corner of radiograph that is meant for side deter-
b. Traumatic bone cyst
minaton
c. KOT
79. Patient presented with restricted mouth with d. Hemangioma
opening, an ulcerative growth in retromolar
Ans b. Traumatic bone cyst
region along with bleeding as well as palpable
stony hard lymph nodes. What is the provisional Almost all SBCs are found in the mandible, in rare cases
diagnosis based on the provided details? they develop in the maxilla. The lesion can occur any-
where in the mandible but is seen most often in the ramus
and posterior mandible in older patients. SBCs also fre-
quently occur with cemento-osseous and fibrous dyspla-
sia. Periphery and Shape: The margin may vary from a
well-defined, delicate cortex to an ill-defined border that
blends into the surrounding bone. The boundary usually
is better defined in the alveolar process around the teeth
a. Malignancy b. Benign tumor than in the inferior aspect of the body of the mandible. The
c. Soft tissue cyst d. Osseous cyst shape most often is smooth and curved, like a cyst, with an
Ans a. Malignancy oval or scalloped border. The lesion often scallops between
OPG shows destruction of bone in the mandibular retro- the roots of the teeth.
molar area by a squamous cell carcinoma.
Squamous cell carcinoma may erode into underlying 81. This is a 15-year-old white female presented with
bone from any direction, producing a radiolucency that is a history of increasing swelling without pain in
polymorphous and irregular in outline. Invasion occurs in the left mandible. Surgical exposure of the lesion
half of cases and is characterized most commonly by an yielded empty cavity. What is next line of treat-

ill-defined, noncorticated border. Rarely, the border may ment?
appear smooth without a cortex, indicating underlying
erosion rather than invasion. If bone involvement is exten-
sive, the periphery appears to have finger like extensions
preceding a zone of impressive osseous destruction. If
pathologic fracture occurs, the borders show sharpened
thinned bone ends with displacement of segments and an
adjacent soft-tissue mass. Sclerosis in underlying osseous
structures (likely from secondary inflammatory disease) a. Autologus bone grafting
may be seen in association with erosions from surface car- b. Allogenous bone grafting
cinomas.
c. Curettage and inducing of blood
80. This is a 15-year-old white female presented with d. No intervention
a history of increasing swelling without pain in Ans c. Curettage and inducing of blood
the left mandible. Surgical exposure of the lesion
The customary treatment is a conservative opening into
yielded empty cavity. What is most probable diag-
the lesion and careful curettage of the lining; this usu-
nosis?
ally initiates bleeding and subsequent healing. Spon-
taneous healing has been reported. Periodic follow-up
radiographic examinations are advisable, especially if the
patient declines treatment. These lesions can recur but it
is rare.
82. Which treatment modality is presented here in
the color plate?
Oral Radiology 137
thermal conductivity, and low vapor pressure at the work-

ing temperatures of an X-ray tube.
85. The anatomic structure present in the radiograph

appears due to which of the following effect?
a. MRI sialogram b. CT sialogram

c. CBCT sialogram d. CT angiogram
Ans a. MRI sialogram
The image shows MRI sialogram and cherry-blossom
appearance of parotid gland bilaterally.
a. Egg crackling effect b. Egg shell effect
83. The concave structure pointed by an arrow in the
c. Van der Waals effect d. Aunt Minnie effect
image of X-ray tube is made of which of the follo-
wing? Ans b. Egg shell effect
Projection images, those that project a three-dimensional
volume onto a two-dimensional receptor, may produce a
peripheral egg shell effect. The top photon has a tangential
path through the apex of the egg and a much longer path
through the shell of the egg than does the lower photon,
which strikes the egg at right angles to the surface and tra-
vels through two thicknesses of the shell. As a result, pho-
a. Tungsten b. Copper tons traveling through the periphery of a curved surface
c. Molybdenum d. Platinum are more attenuated than those traveling at right angles to

Ans c. Molybdenum the surface.
The filament lies in a focusing cup, a negatively charged The cortical bone is not thicker on the cortex than over
concave reflector made of molybdenum. The parabolic the rest of the lesion, but rather the X-ray beam is more
shape of the focusing cup electrostatically focuses the elec- attenuated in this region because of the longer path length
trons emitted by the filament into a narrow beam directed of photons through the bony cortex on the periphery. This
at a small rectangular area on the anode called the focal peripheral egg shell effect accounts for why the lamina
spot. dura, the border of the maxillary sinuses and nasal fossa,
84. The area of the anode pointed by the arrow in the and numerous other structures are well demonstrated on
image is made up of which of the following? projection images. Note that soft-tissue masses, such as
the nose and tongue, do not show a peripheral egg shell
effect because they are uniform rather than being com-
posed of a dense layer surrounding a more lucent interior.
86. Identify the equipment presented in the color

plate.
a. Tungsten b. Copper
c. Molybdenum d. Platinum
Ans a. Tungsten
The anode consists of a tungsten target embedded in a
copper stem. The purpose of the target in an X-ray tube is
to convert the kinetic energy of the colliding electrons into
X-ray photons. The target is made of tungsten, an element
that has several characteristics of an ideal target material.
It has a high atomic number, a high melting point, high
a. Lead collar b. Lead apron Periphery and shape: In most cases, the periphery of
a PCD lesion is well defined. Often a radiolucent border
c. Aluminum collar d. Alluminum apron
of varying width is present, surrounded by a band of scle-
Ans b. Lead apron
rotic bone that also can vary in width. The sclerotic bone
Radiation protection equipment for patients and radio-
represents a reaction of the immediate surrounding bone.
logist.
The lesion may be irregularly shaped or may have an over-
87. Identify the equipment presented in the color plate. all round or oval shape centered over the apex of the tooth.
Internal Structure: The internal structure varies,
depending on the maturity of the lesion. In the early stage,
normal bone is resorbed and replaced with fibrous tis-
sue that usually is continuous with the periodontal liga-
ment (causing loss of the lamina dura). Radiographically,
this appears as a radiolucency at the apex of the involved
tooth in the mixed stage, radiopaque tissue appears in the
radiolucent structure. This material usually is amorphous;
a. Lead collar b. Lead apron has a round, oval, or irregular shape; and is composed
c. Aluminum collar d. Alluminum apron of cementum or abnormal bone. Sometimes the cemen-
Ans a. Lead collar tum-like material forms a swirling pattern. These struc-
Radiation protection equipent to protect thyroid from tures sometimes are called cementicles; however, this is
unwanted exposure. a radiographic term that does not necessarily represent
the histologic appearance. In rare cases, the radiopaque
88. Identify the mixed radiolucency attached to vital material resembles the abnormal trabecular patterns
teeth apices. seen in fibrous dysplasia. In the mature stage, the internal
aspect may be totally radiopaque without any obvious pat-
tern. Usually, a thin radiolucent margin can be seen at the

periphery because this lesion matures from the center out-
ward). Occasionally, this radiolucent margin is not appa-
rent, which makes the differential diagnosis more difficult.
The internal structure may appear dramatically radiolu-
cent if cavities resembling simple bone cysts form within
the cemental lesions. In some cases, the simple bone cyst
extends beyond the original margin of the cemental lesion.
a. Periapical abscess All other 3 lesions are associated with nonvital teeth.
b. Periapical cemental dysplasia
89. The skull view is suggestive of which of the follow-
c. Periapical cyst
ing diagnosis?
d. Periapical granuloma
Ans b. Periapical cemental dysplasia
Location: The epicenter of a PCD lesion usually lies at
the apex of a tooth. In rare cases, the epicenter is slightly
higher and over the apical third of the root. The condition
has a predilection for the periapical bone of the mandibu-
lar anterior teeth, although any tooth can be involved, and,
in rare cases, the maxillary teeth may be involved. In most
cases, the lesion is multiple and bilateral, but occasion- a. Basal cell nevus syndrome
ally a solitary lesion arises. If the involved teeth have been b. Crouzon syndrome
extracted, this lesion can still develop but the periapical c. Treacher Collins syndrome
location is less evident. In these cases, the term cemental d. Cleidocranial dysplasia
dysplasia may be more appropriate. Ans b. Crouzon syndrome
Oral Radiology 139
Skull view demonstrating the short anterior-posterior 90. The radiograph of skull is suggestive of which of
dimension of the skull, digital impressions, and hypoplas- the following diagnosis?
tic maxilla.
The earliest radiographic signs of cranial suture syno-
stosis are sclerosis and overlapping edges. Sutures that
normally should look radiolucent on the skull film will not
be detectable or will show sclerotic changes. Interestingly,
on rare occasions the facial features may present before
radiographic evidence of sutural synostosis. Premature
a. Malignant melanoma
fusion of the cranial base leads to diminished facial growth.
b. Multiple myeloma
In some cases, prominent cranial markings are noted,
c. Sickle cell anemia
which are also seen in normally growing patients, but are
d. Langerhans cell histiocytosis
more prominent because of an increase in intracranial
pressure from the growing brain. These markings may be Ans c. Sickle cell anemia
seen as multiple radiolucencies appearing as depressions Radiograph of a patient with sickle cell anemia showing a
(so-called digital impressions) of the inner surface of the thickened diploic space and thinning of the skull cortex.
cranial vault, which results in a beaten metal appearance. Skull showing the hair-on-end bone pattern.

Chapter 9
1-
j
O
Oral Pathology a>
LU
03
HHBHB
1. A 28-year- oldpregnant female presented with a

nodular mass in or near the base of the tongue as
seen in the color plate. What is the most probable
diagnosis?
a. Fusion
b. Gemination
c. Dilaceration

d. Concrescence
Ans a. Fusion
3. Identify the structure marked with an arrow in
the color plate.
a. Lingual thyroid
b. Lingual varices
c. Reactive lymphoid aggregate
d. Thyroglossal duct cyst
Ans a. Lingual thyroid
It appears to arise in females during puberty, adolescence,
a. Dens in dente
s CD
LU
pregnancy, or menopause.
b. Cingulum
The lingual thyroid may be manifested clinically as a 03
c. Talon cusp
nodular mass in or near the base of the tongue in the gene-
d. Dens invaginatus
ral vicinity of the foramen caecum and often, but not
Ans c. Talon cusp
always, in the midline. This mass, which more commonly
The talon cusp, an anomalous structure resembling an CD
appears as deeply situated rather than as a superficial
exophytic lesion, tends to have a smooth surface. In some Eagle's talon, projects lingually from the cingulum areas
cases, it may appear vascular, while in others, the color of of a maxillary or mandibular permanent incisor. This cusp
the mucosa is not atypical. blends smoothly with the tooth except that there is a deep
developmental groove where the cusp blends with the
CO
2. A 12-year- old male patient came with a large tooth sloping lingual tooth surface.
as seen in the color plate. On examination, no. of It is composed of normal enamel and dentin and con-
teeth is one less than normal. What is the diagnosis? tains a horn of pulp tissue.
Oral Pathology 141
4. Identify the pathology. 7. Identify the pathology.
a. Cleft lip b. Cleft tongue a. Median rhomboid glossitis

c. Tongue tie d. Lip pits b. Accessory uvula
Ans d. Lip pits c. Bifid uvula
Congenital lip pits and fistulas are malformations of the d. Palatal perforation
lips, often following a hereditary pattern, that may occur Ans c. Bifid uvula
alone or in association with other developmental anoma- Isolated cleft palate is etiologically and embryologically
lies such as various oral clefts. different from cleft lip with or without cleft palate. Several
subtypes of isolated cleft palate can be diagnosed based on
5. Identify the pathology. severity. The uvula is the place where the minimal form of
clefting of the palate is observed.

a. Cleft lip b. Commissural pits
c. Herpes labialis d. Herpes zoster
Ans b. Commissural pits
Commissural pits are an entity probably very closely a. Cleft tongue b. Macroglossia
related to lip pits, but occur at the lip commissures, lateral c. Ankyloglossia d. Natal teeth
to the typical lip pits. Ans c. Ankyloglossia
Congenital short lingual frenum of the tongue with micro-
6. Pathology shown in the image is associated with
glossia.
which of the following syndromes?
Ankyloglossia, or tongue-tie as it is more commonly
known, is said to exist when the inferior frenulum attaches
to the bottom of the tongue and subsequently restricts free
movement of the tongue.
a. Down’s syndrome
b. Greenspan syndrome
c. Van der Woude syndrome
d. Progeria
Ans c. Van der Woude syndrome
Van der Woude syndrome is an autosomal dominant syn- a. Cleft tongue b. Macroglossia
drome typically consisting of a cleft lip or cleft palate and c. Ankyloglossia d. Fissured tongue
distinctive pits of the lower lips. Ans a. Cleft tongue
A completely cleft or bifid tongue is a rare condition that a. Greenspan lesion b. Kissing lesion
is apparently due to lack of merging of the lateral lingual c. Kissing disease d. Verruca vulgaris
swellings of this organ. A partially cleft tongue is consi-
Ans b. Kissing lesion
derably more common and is manifested simply as a deep
Infected cases may also demonstrate a midline soft palate
groove in the midline of the dorsal surface.
erythema in the area of routine contact with the under-
10. Identify the pathology. lying tongue involvement; this is commonly referred to as
a kissing lesion.
a. Cleft tongue b. Macroglossia

c. Ankyloglossia d. Fissured tongue
Ans d. Fissured tongue
Fissured tongue is a condition frequently seen in the gen- a. Cleft tongue b. Macroglossia
eral population and it is characterized by grooves that vary c. Hairy tongue d. Fissured tongue
in depth and are noted along the dorsal and lateral aspects Ans c. Hairy tongue
of the tongue. Normal filiform papillae are approximately 1 mm in length,
whereas filiform papillae in hairy tongue are more than
11. Pathology shown in the image is associated with
15 mm in length.
which of the following syndromes?
Hairy tongue (lingua villosa) is a commonly observed
condition of defective desquamation of the filiform papillae

that results from a variety of precipitating factors. The
condition is most frequently referred to as black hairy
tongue (lingua villosa nigra); however, hairy tongue may
also appear brown, white, green, pink, or any of a variety
of hues depending on the specific etiology and secondary
factors.
a. Melkersson-Rosenthal syndrome
b. Greenspan syndrome 14. Identify the condition shown in the radiograph.
c. Van der woude syndrome
d. Progeria
Ans a. Melkersson-Rosenthal syndrome
Benign migratory glossitis: Melkersson-Rosenthal synd-
rome and Down syndrome and in frequent association
with benign migratory glossitis (geographic tongue).
12. The lesion as seen in color plate on the soft palate
is also known as: a. Concrescence
b. Dilaceration
c. Odontoma
d. Root fracture
Ans b. Dilaceration
Unusual bend in the root is seen in case of dilaceration: It
refers to angulations or sharp bends or curve in the roots
and crowns of the teeth.
Oral Pathology 143
15. Identify the condition shown in the radiograph. 18. The equipment showed in the image is used to
evaluate which of the following?
a. Talon cusp b. Dens in dente

a. Blood sugar
c. Dens invaginatus d. Dentin dysplasia
b. Blood protein
Ans b. Dens in dente c. Hemoglobin
Dens invaginatus showing inverted umbrella appearances:
d. Bleeding time
Infolding of the outer surface: Fig of the tooth into its inte-
Ans a. Blood sugar
rior surface occurs. It is a developmental variation which is
thought to arise as a result of an invagination in the surface Glucometer used for detection of blood glucose
of crown before calcification. 19. Patient presented with complaint of multiple
retained deciduous teeth. The clinical picture is
16. The test showed in the image is performed to eva-
suggestive of which of the following?
luate which of following?

a. Cleidocranial dysplasia
a. Bleeding time b. Ectodermal dysplasia
b. Clotting time c. Odontodysplasia
c. Erythrocyte sedimentation rate d. Chondroectodermal dysplasia
d. Capillary fraglity Ans a. Cleidocranial dysplasia
Ans d. Capillary fraglity 20. The condition show in the color plate is associa-
17. Which test is presented in the image? ted with all of the following except?
a. Westergren test a. Reduced vertical height

b. Rumpel-Leede test b. Anemic state
c. Drabkin’s test c. Candidal infection
d. Schilling test d. High occlusal contacts
Ans b. Rumpel-Leede test Ans d. High occlusal contacts
21. The diagrammatic representation shows which of The wrinkles and grooves visible on the lips have been
the following tests? named by Tsuchihashi as ‘sulci labiorum rubrorum’. The
imprint produced by these grooves is termed ‘lip print’, the
examination of which is referred to as ‘cheiloscopy’. These
grooves are heritable and are supposed to be individualis-
tic. Lip prints, therefore, can constitute material evidence
left at a crime scene, similar to fingerprint.
24. The diagram represents which of the following?
a. Elisa test b. Northern blot test

c. Western blot test d. Eastern blot test
Ans c. Western blot test a. Cheiloscopy b. Bite mark analysis
c. Amyloglyphics d. Dermoglyphics
22. The diagrammatic representation shows which of Ans b. Bite mark analysis
the following tests? Bite marks have been defined by MacDonald as “a mark
caused by the teeth either alone or in combination with
other mouth parts”. Bite marks may be caused by humans
or animals; they may be on tissue, food items or on objects.
Biting is considered to be a primitive type of assault and

results when teeth are employed as a weapon in an act of
dominance or desperation. As a result, bite marks are usu-
ally associated with sex crimes, violent fights, and child
abuse. Bite marks have also been recovered from scenes of
theft. Hence, matching the bite mark to a suspect’s denti-
tion may enable the investigating officers to connect the
a. Elisa test b. Northern blot test suspect to the crime.
c. Western blot test d. Eastern blot test
25. A 16-year-old boy is having unilateral loss expres-
Ans a. Elisa test
sion of face as seen in the image. What is the most
23. The diagram represents which of the following? probable diagnosis?
a. Cheiloscopy a. Moebius syndrome

b. Bite mark analysis b. Down’s syndrome
c. Ameloglyphics c. Treacher Collins syndrome
d. Dermatoglyphics d. Proteus syndrome
Ans a. Cheiloscopy Ans a. Moebius syndrome
Oral Pathology 145
Congenital facial diplegia is a nonfamilial deficient deve- nerve (CN III) that innervate the levator superioris mus-
lopment of cranial muscles consisting of facial diplegia cle of the upper eyelid.
with bilateral paralysis of the ocular muscles, particularly
27. Patient complains of closing of the left upper eye-
the abducens. Congenital facial diplegia is usually mani-
lid during movement of the mandible to the con-
fested in infancy during the first few days of life by failure
to close the eyes during sleep. Because of the partial or tralateral side as seen in the color plate. What is
the most probable diagnosis?
complete facial paralysis, the infant exhibits no change in
facial expression even when crying or laughing. The pro-
minent lips are often everted, and the mouth may remain
partially opened.
There is difficulty in mastication; saliva frequently
drools from the corners of the mouth, and speech is sev-
erely impaired.
The majority of patients have other associated con-
genital deformities, including external ophthalmoplegia,
a. Marcus Gunn Jaw-winking syndrome
deformity of the external ears, deafness, defects of the pec-
toral muscles, paresis of the tongue, soft palate or jaw mus- b. Frey syndrome
cles, clubfoot, mental defects and epilepsy. c. Marin Amat syndrome
d. Eagle’s syndrome
26. Patient complains of retraction of the left upper Ans c. Marin Amat syndrome
eyelid during movement of the mandible to the An interesting condition known as the Marin Amat syn-
contralateral side as seen in the color plate. What drome or inverted Marcus Gunn phenomenon is usually
is the most probable diagnosis? seen after peripheral facial paralysis. In this condition, the
eye closes automatically when the patient opens his/her
mouth forcefully and fully, as in chewing, and tears may

flow.
28. Patient complained of pain on deglutition as well

as pain on movement of head. OPG examination
revealed presence of calcified stylohyoid liga-
ment as seen in the color plate, what is the most
probable diagnosis?
b. Frey syndrome
c. Marin Amat syndrome
Ans a. Marcus Gunn Jaw-winking syndrome
Marcus Gunn Jaw-winking syndrome (trigemino-oculo-
motor synkinesis): This interesting condition consists of
congenital unilateral ptosis, with rapid elevation of the b. Frey’s syndrome
ptotic eyelid occurring on movement of the mandible to c. Marin Amat syndrome
the contralateral side. It is commonly recognized in the d. Eagle’s syndrome
infant by the mother when, on breastfeeding her baby, Ans d. Eagle’s syndrome
she notices one of its eyelids shoot up, Marcus Gunn jaw- One condition which must always be considered in the
winking is a form of synkinetic ptosis. An aberrant connec- differential diagnosis of any vague or atypical orofacial
tion exists between the motor branches of the trigeminal pain is Eagle’s syndrome. This syndrome consists of either
nerve (CN V3) innervating the external pterygoid muscle elongation of the styloid process or ossification of the sty-
and the fibers of the superior division of the oculomotor lohyoid ligament causing dysphagia, sore throat, otalgia,
glossodynia, headache, vague orofacial pain or pain along wrinkle or the eyebrow raise (Fig.). The patient has a typi-
the distribution of the internal and external carotid arteries. cal mask like or expressionless appearance. Speech and
Probably, the most consistent symptom is pharyngeal eating usually become difficult, and occasionally the taste
pain. It is common for the difficulty to arise following ton- sensation on the anterior portion of the tongue is lost or
sillectomy, presumably from fibrous tissue that forms and altered.
is stretched and rubbed over the elongated styloid process.
30. The patient complains of sweating while eating
However, many cases are not preceded by tonsillectomy,
and this is especially true of the form known as the carotid as seen in the color plate. What can be the most
probable diagnosis?
artery syndrome, in which pressure exerted by either a
deviant styloid process or an ossified ligament causes
impingement on the internal or external carotid arteries
between which the styloid process normally lies.
29. Patient presented with the condition as shown in

the color plate. This condition has aetiology pre-
sent in disturbance of which of the following?

b. Frey’s syndrome
c. Marin Amat syndrome
Ans b. Frey’s syndrome
a. Trigeminal ganglion Auriculotemporal syndrome (Frey’s syndrome, gustatory

b. Facial nerve sweating)
c. Internal jugular vein The auriculotemporal syndrome is an unusual phe-
d. Stylohyoid ligament nomenon, which arises as a result of damage to the auricu-
Ans b. Facial nerve lotemporal nerve and subsequent reinnervation of sweat
Bell’s palsy begins abruptly as a paralysis of the facial glands by parasympathetic salivary fibers.
musculature, usually unilaterally. Familial occurrence of The syndrome follows some surgical operation such as
Bell’s palsy has been reported on a number of occasions, removal of a parotid tumor or the ramus of the mandible,
such as the case of Burzynski and Weisskopf, and heredi- or a parotitis of some type that has damaged the auricu-
tary factors may play a role in the etiology of the disease. lotemporal nerve. After a considerable amount of time
Women are affected more commonly than men, and the following surgery, during which the damaged nerve
middle-aged are most susceptible, although no age group regenerates, the parasympathetic salivary nerve supply
is exempt. The disease arises more frequently in the spring develops, innervating the sweat glands, which then func-
and fall than at other times of the year. It may develop tion after salivary, gustatory or psychic stimulation. Some
within a few hours or be present when the patient awakens cases of gustatory sweating appear to be due to transax-
in the morning. In some cases it is preceded by pain on onal excitation rather than to actual anatomic misdirec-
the side of the face which is ultimately involved, particu- tion of fibers.
larly within the ear, in the temple or mastoid areas, or at The patient typically exhibits flushing and sweating of
the angle of the jaw. the involved side of the face, chiefly in the temporal area,
The muscular paralysis manifests itself by the droop- during eating. The severity of this sweating may often be
ing of the corner of the mouth, from which saliva may run, increased by tart foods. Of further interest is the fact that
the watering of the eye, and the inability to close or wink profuse sweating may be evoked by the parenteral admini-
the eye, which may lead to infection. When the patient stration of pilocarpine or eliminated by the administration
smiles, the paralysis becomes obvious, since the corner of of atropine or by a procaine block of the auriculotemporal
the mouth does not rise nor does the skin of the forehead nerve.
Oral Pathology 147
31. The characteristic appearance as seen in the color by mucosal erosions of raised atypical target lesions. These
plate is associated with which of following? are usually located on the extremities and/or on the face.
The characteristic findings of SJS are mucosal erosions
plus widespread distribution of flat atypical targets or pur-
puric macules. The lesions may be present on the trunk,
the face, and on the extremities.
33. The lesion as seen in the color plate was present

in the oral cavity since birth, what can be the diag-
nosis?
a. Lichen planus b. Leukoplakia

c. White spongy nevus d. Candidiasis
Ans a. Lichen planus
The skin lesions of lichen planus appear as small, angu-
lar, flat-topped papules only a few millimeter in diameter.
These may be discrete or gradually coalesce into larger
plaques, each of which is covered by a fine, glistening scale.
The papules are sharply demarcated from the surrounding a. White spongy nevus
skin. Early in the course of the disease the lesions appear b. Leukoplakia
red, but they soon take on a reddish, purple or violaceous c. Pseudomembranous candidiasis
hue. Later, a dirty brownish-color develops. The center of
d. Lichen planus
the papule may be slightly umbilicated. Its surface is cov-
Ans a. White spongy nevus
ered by characteristic, very fine grayish-white lines, called
Ref: Shafer’s Textbook of Oral Pathology, Seventh Edition
Wickham’s striae.

This mucosal abnormality is congenital in many instances.
32. The characteristic appearance as seen in the color In other cases it does not appear until infancy, child-
plate is associated with which of the following? hood or even adolescence, by which time it has generally
reached the full extent of its severity.
The oral lesions may be widespread, often involving
the cheeks, palate, gingiva, floor of the mouth and portions
of the tongue. The mucosa appears thickened and folded
or corrugated with a soft or spongy texture and a peculiar
white opalescent hue.
There is sometimes a minimal amount of folding pre-
sent. Ragged white areas may also be present which can be
removed sometimes by gentle rubbing without any ensu-
a. Lichen planus ing bleeding.
b. Leukoplakia The lesions themselves are almost invariably asymp-
c. White spongy nevus tomatic. Banoczy and her associates have provided a
d. Steven-Johnson syndrome detailed review and discussion in their report of 45 cases
Ans d. Steven-Johnson syndrome of this disease. In occasional cases reported in the litera-
EM major and Stevens-Johnson syndrome (SJS) are more ture, the oral lesions were accompanied by similar lesions
severe mucosal and skin diseases and are potentially life- of other mucosal surfaces, including the vagina and labia,
threatening disorders. Recently, different workers have anus, rectum and nasal cavity.
suggested that EM and SJS could be separated as two dis- This mucosal abnormality is congenital in many
tinct clinical disorders with similar mucosal reactions but instances. In other cases, it does not appear until infancy,
different patterns of cutaneous lesions. The clinical picture childhood or even adolescence, by which time it has gene-
is as follows: Erythema multiforme major is characterized rally reached the full extent of its severity.
The oral lesions may be widespread, often involving 36. A known case of scleroderma presents with fol-
the cheeks, palate, gingiva, floor of the mouth and portions lowing finding. What is the diagnosis?
of the tongue. The mucosa appears thickened and folded
or corrugated with a soft or spongy texture and a peculiar
white opalescent hue.
34. Patient develops lesion as seen in the image by rub-

bing apparently normal skin. This sign is known as:
a. Morphea b. Coup de sabre

c. Linear d. Mask face
Ans a. Morphea
a. Nikolsky’s sign b. Wickham’s sign Circumscribed scleroderma, commonly termed morphea,
c. John’s sign d. Target lesion is manifested by the appearance of one or more well-
defined, slightly elevated or depressed cutaneous patches,
Ans a. Nikolsky’s sign
which are white or yellowish and are surrounded by a viol-
The loss of epithelium occasioned by rubbing apparently
aceous halo. The plaques are varied in both size and shape.
unaffected skin is termed Nikolsky’s sign. It is a characte-
The lesions commonly occur on the sides of the chest and
ristic feature of pemphigus and is caused by prevesicular
the thighs.
edema which disrupts the dermal-epidermal junction.
The course of pemphigus vulgaris is a variable one, the 37. A known case of scleroderma presents with fol-

disease terminating in death or recovery within a few days lowing finding. What is the diagnosis?
or weeks, or being prolonged over a period of months or
even years.
35. The characteristic appearance of rash as seen

in the color plate is associated with which of the
following?
a. Morphea b. Coup de sabre

c. Coup de Sabre d. Mask face
a. Scleroderma b. Pemphigus Ans b. Coup de Sabre
c. DLE d. SLE Occasionally, the lesions occur as linear bands or rib-
Ans d. SLE bons on the face, particularly the forehead, on the chest
Systemic lupus erythematous and trunk or on an extremity. This has been termed linear
The cutaneous lesions consist of erythematous patches scleroderma. Such a band, made up of a furrow with an
on the face which coalesce to form a roughly symmetrical elevated ridge on one side, is often termed as coup de
pattern over the cheeks and across the bridge of the nose sabre, since it resembles the mark produced by the blow
in a so-called butterfly distribution. of a sabre.
Oral Pathology 149
38. The condition shown in the color image is associ- 40. The characteristic discoloration of teeth as seen
ated with which of the following? in the color plate is associated with which of the
following?
a. Scurvy b. Rickets a. Erythroblastosis fetalis

c. Thalassemia d. Pernicious anemia b. Tetracycline consumption
c. Mercury staining
Ans d. Pernicious anemia
d. Dentinogenesis imperfecta
Glossitis is one of the more common symptoms of perni-
cious anemia. The patients complain of painful and burn- Ans a. Erythroblastosis fetalis
ing lingual sensations which may be so annoying that the Erythroblastosis fetalis may be manifested in the teeth by
dentist is often consulted first for local relief. the deposition of blood pigment in the enamel and dentin
The tongue is generally inflamed, often described as of the developing teeth, giving them a green, brown or blue
‘beefy red’ in color, either in entirety or in patches scattered hue. Ground sections of these teeth give a positive test for
over the dorsum and lateral borders. Characteristically, bilirubin. The stain is intrinsic and does not involve teeth
with the glossitis, glossodynia and glossopyrosis, there is or portions of teeth developing after cessation of hemoly-
gradual atrophy of the papillae of the tongue that eventu- sis shortly after birth: Enamel hypoplasia is also reported
ate in a smooth or ‘bald’ tongue which is often referred to occurring in some cases of erythroblastosis fetalis. This
usually involves the incisal edges of the anterior teeth and

as Hunter’s glossitis or Moeller’s glossitis and is similar to
the ‘bald tongue of Sandwith’ seen in pellagra. the middle portion of the deciduous cuspid and first molar
crown. Here a characteristic ring-like defect occurs which
39. The condition shown in the color image is associ- has been termed the Rh hump by Watson.
ated with which of the following? 41. A known case of leukemia presents with a condi-
tion as seen in the color plate. What is the most
probable type of leukemia patient can be suffe-
ring from?
a. Scurvy b. Rickets
c. Thalassemia d. Pernicious anemia
Ans c. Thalassemia a. AML b. CML
In the skull, there is extreme thickening of the diploe c. ALL d. CLL
(medulla), the inner and outer plates (cortices) become Ans a. AML
poorly defined, and the trabeculae between the plates Ref: Carranza’s clinical periodontology, 10(e).
become elongated, producing a bristle like crew-cut Leukemic enlargement may be diffuse or marginal and loca-
or hair-on-end appearance of the surface of the skull. lized or generalized It may appear as a diffuse enlargement
Because of the lack of hematopoietic marrow, the occipital of the gingival mucosa, an oversized extension of the mar-
bone usually is not involved. ginal gingival or a discrete tumor like interproximal mass.
In leukemic enlargement, the gingiva is generally blu-

ish red and has a shiny surface. The consistency is mod-
erately firm, but there is a tendency toward friability and
hemorrhage, occurring either spontaneously or on slight
irritation.
Acute painful necrotizing ulcerative inflammatory
involvement sometimes occurs in the crevice formed at
the junction of the enlarged gingiva and the contiguous a. Contact dermatitis
tooth surfaces. b. Amalgam tattoo
True leukemic enlargement often occurs in acute leu- c. Mercury allergy
kemia but may also be seen in subacute leukemia. It sel- d. Postoperative ecchymosis
dom occurs in chronic leukemia.
Ans b. Amalgam tattoo
42. A 10-year-old girl comes to you with swelling rai- Amalgam tattoo: Amalgam tattoo of oral mucous mem-
sing the earlobe and history of fever and lower brane is a relatively common finding in dental practice,
abdominal pain. What’s your diagnosis? generally occurring in one of four ways, according to
Buchner and Hansen: (1) From condensation in gin-
giva during amalgam restorative work, (2) from particles
entering mucosa lacerated by revolving instruments dur-
ing removal of old amalgam restorations, (3) from broken
pieces introduced into a socket or beneath periosteum
during tooth extraction, or (4) from particles entering a
surgical wound during root canal treatment with a retro-
grade amalgam filling.

color plate.
a. Viral parotitis
b. Plexiform adenoma
c. Dermoid cyst
d. Ameloblastoma
Ans a. Viral parotitis
The disease is usually preceded by the onset of headache, a. Abraction b. Erosion
chills, moderate fever, vomiting, and pain below the ear. c. Abrasion d. Attrition
These symptoms are followed by a firm, somewhat rub- Ans d. Attrition
bery or elastic swelling of the salivary glands, frequently Attrition may be defined as the physiologic wearing away
elevating the ear, which usually lasts about one week. of a tooth as a result of tooth-to-tooth contact, as in masti-
Mumps is an acute contagious viral infection character- cation. This occurs only on the occlusal, incisal, and proxi-
ized chiefly by unilateral or bilateral swelling of the sali- mal surfaces of teeth, not on other surfaces unless a very
vary glands, usually the parotid. The submaxillary and unusual occlusal relation or malocclusion exists.
sublingual glands are occasionally involved, but seldom
without parotid involvement also. Other than salivary 45. Identify the kind of tooth defect presented in
glands, it may also involve nerves meninges, pancreas the color plate.
and gonads. Although it is usually a disease of childhood,
mumps may also affect adults, and in such cases there is
a greater tendency for complications to develop. Mumps
has an incubation period of two to three weeks.
43. The patient developed this discoloration follow-

ing restoration treatment. What is the diagnosis?
Oral Pathology 151
a. Abfraction b. Erosion dependent on the magnitude, duration, direction, fre-

c. Abrasion d. Attrition quency, and location of the forces.
Ans c. Abrasion 48. The area marked in the microscopic image repre-
Abrasion is the pathologic wearing away of tooth sub- sents which of the following?
stance through some abnormal mechanical process. Abra-
sion usually occurs on the exposed root surfaces of teeth,
but under certain circumstances it may be seen elsewhere
such as on incisal or proximal surfaces.

color plate.
a. Enamel caries b. Dentin caries

c. Root caries d. Dead tracks
Ans b. Dentin caries
49. The area marked in the microscopic image repre-

sents which of the following?
Ans b. Erosion
Dental erosion is defined as irreversible loss of dental hard
tissue by a chemical process that does not involve bacteria.
Dissolution of mineralized tooth structure occurs upon
contact with acids that are introduced into the oral cavity

from intrinsic (e.g. gastroesophageal reflux, vomiting) or
extrinsic sources (e.g. acidic beverages, citrus fruits). a. Enamel caries b. Dentin caries
c. Root caries d. Dead tracks
color plate. Ans d. Dead tracks
‘Dead tracts’ in dentin are seen in ground sections of teeth
and are manifested as a black zone by transmitted light but
as a white zone by reflected light.
50. Identify the radiopacity present in the color plate.
Ans a. Abfraction
Grippo, in 1991, coined the term abfraction to describe a. Odontolith b. Pulp stone
the pathologic loss of both enamel and dentin caused by c. Fibrolith d. Phlebolith
biomechanical loading forces. He stated that the forces Ans b. Pulp stone
could be static, such as those produced by swallowing and The two chief morphologic forms of pulp calcifications are
clenching; or cyclic, as in those generated during chew- discrete pulp stones (denticles, pulp nodules) and diffuse
ing action. The abfraction lesions were caused by flexure calcification. Pulp stones have been classified as either
and ultimate material fatigue of susceptible teeth at loca- true or false stones, depending upon their microscopic
tions away from the point of loading. The breakdown was structure.
True denticles are made up of localized masses of cal- Ans a. Linea alba
cified tissue that resemble dentin because of their tubular Linea Alba: Linea Alba is a white line seen on the buccal
structure. mucosa extending from the commissures posteriorly at
True denticles may be subdivided further according the level of the occlusal plane. It is caused by the physical
to whether or not they are attached to the wall of the pulp irritation and pressure exerted by the posterior teeth. It is
chamber. Denticles lying entirely within the pulp tissue usually bilateral and is more pronounced in persons who
and not attached to the dentinal walls are called ‘free den- have clenching habit or bruxism.
ticles’, while those that are continuous with dentinal walls 53. Identify the lesion present in the color plate that
are referred to as ‘attached denticles.’ developed following extraction of a tooth.
False denticles are composed of localized masses of
calcified material, and unlike true denticles, do not exhibit
dentinal tubules. The false denticle also may be classified
as free or attached.
51. Identify the condition shown in the radiograph.
a. Mucocele b. Plunging ranula

c. Hemangioma d. Aneurysmal cyst
Ans a. Mucocele
Mucous retention phenomenon: Mucocele, mucous reten-
tion cyst.
a. Hypercementosis The mucous retention phenomenon, which is gene-
b. Periapical granuloma rally conceded to be of traumatic origin, is a lesion involving
c. Periapical abscess salivary glands and their ducts. The retention phenome-

d. Periapical cyst non involving accessory salivary gland structures occurs
Ans a. Hypercementosis most frequently on the lower lip, but may also occur on
Hypercementosis is a non-neoplastic condition in which the palate, cheek, tongue (involving the glands of Blandin-
excessive cementum is deposited in continuation with the Nuhn), and floor of the mouth.
normal radicular cementum. A variety of circumstances may
favor the deposition of excessive amounts of cementum. 54. The condition shown in the color plate that devel-
These include: oped following radiotherapy is due to which of the
1. Accelerated elongation of a tooth following?
2. Inflammation about a tooth
3. Tooth repair
4. Osteitis deformans, or Paget’s disease of bone.
52. Identify the condition shown in the color image.
a. Reduced salivary flow

b. Decreased calcium in blood
c. Increased consumption of glucose
d. Poor hygiene
a. Linea alba Ans a. Reduced salivary flow
b. Bullous lichen planus Erupted teeth are often affected in patients who have
c. Traumatic fibroma received X-ray radiation about the head and neck, but the
d. Reticular lichen planus damage may not appear for several years after the radiation.
Oral Pathology 153
The most common manifestation of the injury is a peculiar a. Anesthetic necrosis

destruction of tooth substance, resembling dental caries b. Postsurgical ecchymosis
and sometimes called ‘radiation caries’, which often begins
c. Surgical trauma
at the cervical area of the teeth.
d. Infected sinus tract
55. What is true for the condition shown in the color Ans a. Anesthetic necrosis
plate that developed the following radiotherapy? At times, administration of a local anesthetic agent can
cause ulceration and necrosis atthesite of injection. This
necrosis is thought to result from localized ischemia,
although the exact cause is unknown. The possible causes
include epinephrine content in local anesthetic solution,
administration of excess solution in tissue firmly bound
to bone, or subperiosteal injection.
Anesthetic necrosis usually appears several days after
the procedure and most commonly appears on the hard-
a. Topical fluorine application is advisable as pre-
palate as a well-circumscribed area of ulceration.
ventive measure
b. Increased chances due to decreased physical 57. The condition shown in the color plate developed
following direct application of analgesic drug in
capability of patient
the vestibule. Which of the following drug is most
c. Caused due to increased consumption of sugar
commonly abused in this manner?
d. Increased chances due to destruction of amelo-
blasts by radiation
Ans a. Topical fluorine application is advisable as a pre-
ventive measure
The primary cause of the condition lies in alterations

of the saliva induced by either direct or indirect radia-
tion of the salivary glands. Although physical and chemi-
cal changes in the saliva following salivary gland irradia-
tion have been postulated, there is no evidence for such
changes other than the direct observation that the saliva a. Diclofenac b. Aspirin
often becomes somewhat thicker and more tenacious c. Aceclofenac d. Paracetamol
after irradiation. The xerostomia of varying degrees cer- Ans b. Aspirin
tainly favors the collection of debris on the teeth and ensu- Aspirin (acetyl salicylic acid): Aspirin tablets are used mis-
ing caries. Radiation induced xerostomia in humans pro- takenly by many people as a local obtundent, especially
duced pronounced shifts in the oral microbial population, for the relief of toothache. It is also available in a powder
with cariogenic microorganisms gaining prominence at form. Although effective if used systemically, they are par-
the expense of noncariogenic ones. ticularly harmful to the oral mucosa if applied locally. The
usual mode of local use is to place the tablet against the
56. Identify the condition that developed following offending tooth, allowing the cheek or lip to hold it in posi-
extraction of maxillary tooth. tion, and to let it dissolve slowly. Within a few minutes, a
burning sensation of the mucosa will be noted, and the
surface becomes blanched or whitened in appearance. The
caustic action of the drug causes separation and slough-
ing of the epithelium and frequently bleeding, especially if
the area is traumatized. The healing of the painful ‘aspirin
burn’ usually takes a week or more.
58. A known epileptic patient developed condition as
seen in the color plate. What can be the most pos-
sible etiological factor amongst all?
60. This classical appearance of patient points toward

which of the following?
a. Vitamin D deficiency
b. Dilantin administration
a. Cavernous sinus thrombosis
c. Poor hygiene
d. Cyclosporine therapy b. Ludwig angina
c. Vincent angina
Ans b. Dilantin administration
d. Mandibular fracture
Gingival hyperplasia may begin as early as two weeks after
dilantin therapy has been instituted, although usually it Ans b. Ludwig angina
takes two to three months. The first change noted is a pain- The patient with Ludwig’s angina manifests a rapidly
less increase in the size of the gingiva, starting with the developing board-like swelling of the floor of the mouth
enlargement of one or two interdental papillae. The sur- and consequent elevation of the tongue. The swelling is
face of the gingiva shows an increased stippling and finally firm, painful and diffuse, showing no evidence of locali-
a cauliflower, warty, or pebbled surface. As enlargement zation and paucity of pus. There is difficulty in eating and
increases, the gingival tissue becomes lobulated, and clefts swallowing as well as in breathing. Patients usually have
remain between each enlarged gingiva in many cases. Pal- a high fever, rapid pulse and fast respiration. A moderate
pation reveals that the tissue is dense, resilient and insen- leukocytosis is also found.
sitive. It shows little tendency to bleed. As the disease continues, the swelling involves the

neck, and edema of the glottis may occur. This carries the
59. The condition shown in the color plate is associ- serious risk of death by suffocation. Next, the infection
ated with which of the following? may spread to the parapharyngeal spaces, to the carotid
sheath or to the pterygopalatine fossa. Cavernous sinus
thrombosis with subsequent meningitis may be sequela to
this type of spread of the infection.
61. Patient developed the condition following infec-
tion in the dangerous area of face. Which of the
following communication is responsible for spread
of infection here?
a. Acrodynia b. Rickets
c. Scurvy d. Pernicious anemia
Ans a. Acrodynia
Acrodynia occurs most frequently in young infants before
the age of two years, although children are occasionally
affected up to the age of five or six years. The skin, particu-
larly of the hands, feet, nose, ears, and cheeks, becomes
red or pink and has a cold, clammy feeling. The appear- a. Pterygoid plexus
ance has been described as resembling raw beef. Patients b. Basilar artery
with acrodynia exhibit profuse salivation and often much c. Angular veins
‘dribbling.’ The gingiva be comes extremely sensitive or d. Postero superoalveolar artery
painful and may exhibit ulcerations. Ans c. Angular veins
Oral Pathology 155
Cavernous sinuses are bilateral venous channels for the of tissue resistance and reactivity, and readily respond
content of middle cranial fossa, particularly the pituitary to proliferative lesions. It involves teeth with large, open
gland. Areas drained by cavernous sinus include the orbit, carious lesions. A pulp so affected appears as a pinkish red
paranasal sinuses, anterior mouth, and middle portion globule of tissue protruding from the pulp chamber and
of the face. Cavernous sinus thrombophlebitis is a seri- not only fills the caries defect but also extends beyond.
ous condition consisting in the formation of a thrombus
63. The tetrad for etiological factor for caries doesn’t
in the cavernous sinus or its communicating branches.
Infections of the head, face, and intraoral structures above involve which of the following?
the maxilla are particularly prone to produce this disease.
There are many routes by which the infection may reach
the cavernous sinus. The facial and angular veins carry
infection from the face and lip, while dental infection is
carried by way of the pterygoid plexus.
The patient with cavernous sinus thrombophlebitis is
extremely ill and manifests the characteristic features of
exophthalmos with edema of the eyelids as well as che-
mosis. Paralysis of the external ocular muscles is reported, a. Time b. Tooth
along with impairment of vision and sometimes photo- c. Substrate d. Hygiene
phobia and lacrimation. There are also headaches, nausea Ans d. Hygiene
and vomiting, pain, chills and fever. Orbital cellulitis and Dental caries is a multifactorial disease with interplay of
cavernous sinus thrombosis can have similar signs and three primary factors: The host, the microbial flora, and
symptoms, and differentiation between them sometimes the substrate with time, as an inevitable fourth factor. In
is impossible on clinical basis alone. Neuroimaging with other words, caries requires a susceptible host, a cario-
CT, MRI or magnetic resonance angiography may help to genic flora and a suitable substrate that must be present
distinguish these entities.

for a sufficient length of time.
62. The growth seen in the color plate doesn’t show 64. The condition shown in the color plate points
any movement while interdental papillae are toward which of the following?
moved. It points towards which of the following?
a. Mucous polyp b. Pulp polyp

a. Myiasis b. Actinomycosis
c. Gingival polyp d. Fibrous polyp
c. Phycomycosis d. Candidiasis
Ans b. Pulp polyp
Ans a. Myiasis
Chronic hyperplastic pulpitis: Pulp polyp
Oral myiasis (Gr. Myia: fly) is defined as a condition in
Chronic hyperplastic pulpitis is a unique form of pul-
which the soft tissue of different parts of the oral cavity are
pitis wherein the inflamed pulp, instead of perishing by
invaded by the parasitic larvae of flies (Moshref, Ansari
continued suppuration, reacts by excessive and exuberant
and Loftfi, 2008). These larvae commonly known as mag-
proliferation. It occurs either as a chronic lesion from the
gots, are of two winged flies, the Diptera. Myiasis occurs
onset or as a chronic stage of a previously acute pulpitis.
mainly in the tropics and is associated with poor per-
Clinical Features sonal hygiene. Usually, the female fly infests ova in open
Chronic hyperplastic pulpitis occurs almost exclusively wounds, dead tissue, or in the natural body cavities, such
in children and young adults who possess a high degree as ear, nostrils, and oral cavity. The flies lay over 500 eggs
directly on diseased tissue. These eggs hatch and the lar- a. HHV2 b. HHV8
vae get their nourishment from the soft tissue. c. HIV d. HPV
Oral myasis is relatively a rare condition but cases have
Ans b. HHV8
been reported in gingiva, palate, and extracted wounds.
Kaposi’s sarcoma is a multifocal neoplasm of vascular
65. The condition shown in the color plate points endothelial origin. Human herpes virus type 8 is involved
toward which of the following? in the pathogenesis of Kaposi’s sarcoma. Commonly
affected sites include palate, gingiva, tongue, and oropha-
rynx or the skin. The clinical appearance of oral Kaposi’s
sarcoma can be macular, nodular, or raised and ulcerated,
the color of which can range from red to purple. Early
lesions tend to be flat, red and asymptomatic, with the
color becoming darker as the lesion ages. As lesions pro-
gress, they can interfere with the normal functions of the
oral cavity and become symptomatic secondary to trauma
a. Myiasis b. Actinomycosis
or infection. Bacillary angiomatosis often mimics Kaposi’s
c. Phycomycosis d. Candidiasis
sarcoma, but diagnosis can be made from a biopsy from
Ans c. Phycomycosis the lesion, examined with the Warthin-Starry stain. Treat-
Two main types of phycomycosis infection occur in human ment features intralesional vinblastine or surgical removal.
beings: (1) superficial and (2) visceral, although it is some- Systemic chemotherapy is indicated for widespread or dis-
times also classified as localized and disseminated. The seminated form.
superficial infection includes involvement of the external
ear, the fingernails, and the skin. The visceral forms of phy- 67. The condition more commonly seen in HIV-
comycosis are of three main types: (a) Pulmonary, (b) gas- infected patients as seen in the color plate is
trointestinal, and (c) rhinocerebral. Although all forms of caused by which of the following?

phycomycosis are important, the rhinocerebral is of great-
est interest to the dental profession, and only this variety
will be discussed here.
Infections of the head by these organisms are charac-
terized by the classical syndrome of uncontrolled diabetes,
cellulitis, ophthalmoplegia and meningoencephalitis. The
infection apparently enters the tissues through the nasal
mucosa and extends to the paranasal sinuses, pharynx, a. EBV b. HHV8
palate, orbit, and brain. c. HIV d. HPV
One early clinical manifestation of the disease is the Ans a. EBV
appearance of a reddish-black nasal turbinate and sep- Oral hairy leukoplakia (OHL) was first reported by
tum with a nasal discharge. The necrosis may extend to the Greenspan and coworkers in 1984 on the lateral margin
paranasal sinuses and orbital cavity, with the development of the tongue among young homosexual males. The term
of sinus tracts and sloughing of tissue. hairy leukoplakia was given because of the corrugated sur-
face of the epithelium. Initially this lesion was observed
66. The condition more commonly seen in HIV-
exclusively in male homosexuals. Further reports indi-
infected patients as seen in the color plate is caused
cated their prevalence among other risk groups for AIDS
by which of the following?
(IDUs, transfusion recipients, hemophiliacs) and in cer-
tain immunocompromised HIV-seronegative patients.
The association of these lesions with Epstein-Barr virus
(EBV) has been demonstrated by immuno histochemis-
try, electron microscopy and in situ hybridization. It has
been hypothesized that basal epithelial cells of the lateral
margin of the tongue normally harbor latent EBV and
Oral Pathology 157
significant diminution of Langerhans cells by HIV, in the a. Herpes stomatitis b. Aphthous minor
affected site permits reactivation of EBV with subsequent c. Aphthous major d. Cat scratch disease
epithelial hyperplasia.
Ans a. Herpes stomatitis
68. A 12 years old male patient reports with the con- Initially, the adult patient exhibits fever, a general malaise,
dition as seen in the color plate. What is the most and pain and tenderness along the course of the involved
probable diagnosis? sensory nerves, usually unilaterally. Often the trunk is
affected. Within a few days, the patient has a linear papular
or vesicular eruption of the skin or mucosa supplied by the
affected nerves. It is typically unilateral and dermatomic
in distribution. After rupture of the vesicles, healing com-
mences, although secondary infection may intervene and
slow the process considerably. Occasionally, herpes zoster
may resemble the lesions of herpes simplex, but the two
diseases can be separated since the zoster virus cannot
be transmitted to animals, e.g. the rabbit cornea, as can
a. Herpes zoster stomatitis the simplex virus. Herpes zoster may involve the face by
b. Primary herpetic gingivostomatitis infection of the trigeminal nerve .This usually consists of
c. Self inflicted injuries unilateral involvement of skin areas supplied by either the
d. Necrotizing ulcerative gingivitis ophthalmic, maxillary or mandibular nerves. Lesions of
the oral mucosa are fairly common, and extremely pain-
Ans b. Primary herpetic gingivostomatitis
ful vesicles may be found on the buccal mucosa, tongue,
Herpes labialis is clinically seen as vesicles on the lip and
uvula, pharynx, and larynx. These generally rupture to
adjacent facial skin which rapidly breakdown to produce leave areas of erosion. One of the characteristic clinical
shallow ulcers. Intraoral lesions on the gingiva are referred features of the disease involving the face or oral cavity is
to as acute herpetic gingivostomatitis. the unilaterality of the lesions. Typically, when large, the
lesions will extend up to the midline and stop abruptly.

69. Identify the condition more commonly seen in
HIV-infected patients. 71. The finding in the measles patient as seen in the
color plate is known as which of the following?
a. Kaposi sarcoma b. Hairy leukoplakia

c. LGE d. IgA disease
Ans c. LGE
Linear gingival erythema (LGE) is a non-plaque induced
gingivitis exhibiting a distinct erythematous band of the
marginal gingiva with either diffuse or punctuate ery- a. Nikalsky’s sign b. Auspitz sign
thema of the attached gingiva. c. Koplik spot d. Wickham striae
Ans c. Koplik spot
70. Identify the condition shown in the color plate.
There are three stages in measles namely: pre-eruptive
stage or prodromal stage, eruptive stage and post-eruptive
stage. Incubation period of 8–10 days is characterized by
the onset of fever, malaise, cough, conjunctivitis, photo-
phobia, lacrimation, and eruptive lesions of the skin and
oral mucosa. Skin eruptions usually begin on the face, in
the hair line and behind the ears, and spread to the neck,
chest, back, and the extremities. These appear as tiny red
macules or papules which enlarge and coalesce to form NOMA usually begins as a small ulcer of the gingival
blotchy, discolored, irregular lesions which blanch upon mucosa which rapidly spreads and involves the surround-
pressure and gradually fade away in four to five days with ing tissues of the jaws, lips, and cheeks by gangrenous
a fine desquamation. necrosis. The initial site is commonly an area of stagna-
tion around a fixed bridge or crown. The overlying skin
Oral Manifestations becomes inflamed, edematous and finally necrotic, with
The oral lesions are prodromal, frequently occurring two the result that a line of demarcation develops between
to three days before the cutaneous rash, and are pathog- healthy and dead tissue, and large masses of the tissue
nomonic of this disease. These intraoral lesions are called may slough out, leaving the jaw exposed.
Koplik’s spots and have been reported to occur in as high
74. The lesion seen in the color plate is present in
as 97% of all patients with measles. The Koplik’s spots are-
which stage of syphilis?
white papules resembling table salt like crystals with red
base which appear usually on the buccal mucosa opposite
to first and second molar teeth.
a. Primary b. Secondary
c. Latent d. Tertiary
Ans a. Primary
In the primary stage, a lesion known as chancre develops
at the site of inoculation approximately 3–90 days after
a. Smoker melanosis b. Herpangina contact with the infection. Chancre is usually solitary but

c. Herpes zoster d. Cat scratch disease may be multiple at times. It most commonly occurs on the
Ans b. Herpangina penile in the male and on the vulva or cervix in the female.
The clinical manifestations of herpangina are compara- About 95% of chancres occur on the genitalia, but they are
tively mild and of short duration. It begins with sore throat, also found in other areas. In recent years, there appears to
cough, rhinorrhea, low-grade fever, headache, sometimes have been an increase in the occurrence of extragenital
vomiting, prostration, and abdominal pain. The patients syphilis as result of an increase in altered sexual activity
soon exhibit small vesicles which rupture to form crops of and increased contact among infected male homosexuals.
ulcers, each showing a gray base and an inflamed periphery Of particular interest to the dentist are those lesions occur-
on the anterior faucial pillars and sometimes on the hard ring on the lips, tongue, palate, gingiva, and tonsils. The
and soft palates, posterior pharyngeal wall, buccal mucosa chancre has been reported developing even at the site of
and tongue. a fresh extraction wound. The usual primary lesion is an
elevated, ulcerated nodule showing local induration and
producing regional lymphadenitis. Such a lesion on the lip
may have a brownish, crusted appearance.
75. The lesion seen in the color plate is present in
which stage of syphilis?
a. NUG b. NUP
c. NOMA d. Cyclic neutropenia
Ans c. NOMA
Oral Pathology 159
a. Primary b. Secondary 77. The characteristic appearance as seen in the

c. Latent d. Tertiary color plate is seen in association with which of
following?
Ans b. Secondary
The secondary or metastatic stage, usually commencing
about six weeks after the primary lesion, is characterized
by diffuse eruptions of the skin and mucous membranes. In
contrast to the solitary lesion in the primary stage, lesions
of the secondary stage are typically multiple. On the skin,
the lesions often appear as macules or papules which are
painless. The oral lesions, called ‘mucous patches,’ are a. Actinomycosis b. Phycomycosis
usually multiple, painless, grayish-white plaques overlying c. Candidiasis d. Myiasis
an ulcerated surface. They occur most frequently on the Ans a. Actinomycosis
tongue, gingiva, or buccal mucosa. They are often ovoid or Cervicofacial actinomycosis is the most common form of
irregular in shape and are surrounded by an erythematous this disease and is of the greatest interest to the dentist.
zone. Mucous patches are also highly infectious, since they It has been emphasized by Norman that two-third of all
contain vast numbers of micro organisms. In the second- cases are of this type. Stenhouse and associates, who also
ary stage the serologic reaction is always positive. emphasized the surprisingly high incidence of occurrence
76. The lesion seen in the color plate is present in of actinomyces in routine pathologic and bacteriologic
which stage of syphilis? specimens, have reported a series of 39 cases of cervico-
facial and intraoral actinomycosis. The organisms may
enter the tissues through the oral mucous membranes
and may either remain localized in the subjacent soft-tis-
sues or spread to involve the salivary glands, tongue, very
rarely gingiva, bone or even the skin of the face and neck,

producing swelling and induration of the tissue. These
soft tissue swellings eventually develop into one or more
abscesses, which tend to discharge upon a skin surface,
a. Primary b. Secondary rarely a mucosal surface, liberating pus containing the
c. Latent d. Tertiary typical ‘sulfur granules.’
Ans d. Tertiary
78. The lesion shown in the clinical image is present
Tertiary syphilis, also called late syphilis, does not usually
along with long standing history of productive
appear for several years and involves chiefly the cardio-
cough. Which of following test are advised to con-
vascular system, the central nervous system, and certain
firm presence of tuberculosis?
other tissues and organs. Late syphilis is noninfectious.
Classic lesion of the tertiary syphilis is gumma. It is the
result of hypersensitivity reaction between the host and
the treponemes or their breakdown products. Gumma
occurs most frequently in the skin and mucous mem-
branes, liver, testes, and bone. It consists of a focal, granu-
a. Sputum investigation for AFB
lomatous inflammatory process with central necrosis. The
b. Chest X-ray
lesion may vary in size from a millimeter or less to several
c. FNAC
centimeters in diameter.
d. Incisional biopsy
The intraoral gumma most commonly involves the
tongue and palate. In either situation, the lesion appears Ans a. Sputum investigation for AFB
as a firm nodular mass in the tissue, which may subse- The diagnosis of active infection must be confirmed by
quently ulcerate, to form a deep painless ulcer. Lesions of demonstration of the organisms by special microbial
the palate cause perforation by sloughing of the necrotic stains and culture of the infected tissue or sputum. The
mass of tissue. Such an occurrence frequently follows vig- presence of acid-fast bacilli (AFB) in sputum smear is the
orous antibiotic therapy, a Herxheimer reaction. gold standard for the diagnosis of TB.
79. A 20 years old patient comes with complain of a. Klinefelter syndrome

recurrent vesicles followed by ulcerations as shown b. Progeria
in the color plate.What can be the diagnosis? c. Treacher collins
d. Down syndrome
Ans d. Down syndrome
82. The appearance as seen in the color plate is sug-
gestive of which of the following?
a. Herpes zoster b. Impetigo

c. Herpes labialis d. Pemphigus
Ans c. Herpes labialis
80. A patient comes with the clinical condition as seen
in the color plate and complains of gnawing pain a. Klinefelter syndrome
that is intensified by eating spicy or hot foods and b. Progeria
chewing. There is a “metallic” foul taste,“pasty” c. Treacher collins
saliva. Which of the following organisms are asso- d. Down syndrome
ciates with this lesion? Ans c. Treacher collins
83. The patient shows accelerated growth and appe-
ars older compared to his age as seen in the color
plate is suggestive of which of the following?

a. P. gingivalis
b. Actinobacillus actinomycetemcomitans
c. Fusospirochetes
d. Candida albicans
a. Klinefelter syndrome b. Progeria
Ans c. Fusospirochetes c. Treacher collins d. Down’s syndrome
Mild NUG case with erythematous marginal and inter-
Ans b. Progeria
proximal gingival with slightly cratered papillae
Ref: Carranza’s clinical periodontology, 10(e) 84. This genetic mapping gives diagnosis of:
The lesions are extremely sensitive to touch, and the
patient often complains of a constant radiating, gnawing
pain that is intensified by eating spicy or hot foods and
chewing. There is a “metallic” foul taste, and the patient is
conscious of an excessive amount of “pasty” saliva.
81. The appearance as seen in the color plate is sug-
gestive of which of the following?
a. Klinefelter syndrome
b. Cri du chat syndrome
c. Eagle’s syndrome
d. Down’s syndrome
Ans b. Cri du chat syndrome
Oral Pathology 161
85. This genetic mapping gives diagnosis of: a. Klinefelter syndrome (xxy)
b. Turner syndrome
c. Down syndrome
d. Cri du chat syndrome
Ans b. Turner syndrome
88. Which of the following grading system for staging

Lymphoma is represented in the image?
a. Klinefelter syndrome
b. Cri du chat syndrome
c. Eagle’s syndrome
d. Down’s syndrome
Ans d. Down’s syndrome (21 trisomy)
86. This chromosome map is diagnostic of:
a. Ann Arbor staging classification

b. WHO grading classification
c. REAL staging classification
d. TNM staging classification
Ans a. Ann Arbor staging classification
89. The characteristic appearance as seen in the color

a. Klinefelter syndrome (xxy)

b. Turner syndrome plate is associated with which of the following?
c. Down’s syndrome
d. Cri du chat syndrome
Ans a. Klinefelter syndrome
87. This chromosome map is diagnostic of:
a. Canine space infection

b. Bucal space infection
c. Submandibular space infection
d. Temporal space infection
Ans a. Canine space infection
1-
j
o
Dental Anatomy a>
LU
03
HHBHB
1 . Identify the anatomical structures marked with 3. Identify the part of gingiva marked with question
question marks. mark.
Palatine
glands

Palatine
nerve
a. Palatine artery and palatine vein

b. Maxillary artery and palatine vein
c. Palatine artery and facial vein a. Marginal gingiva
d. Maxillary artery and facial vein b. Attached gingival
Ans a. Palatine artery and palatine vein c. Vestibular gingiva
CD
2. Identify the part of gingiva marked with question d. Alveolar mucosa
LU
mark . Ans a. Marginal gingiva
03
4. The dental formula shown here represents which
of following?
2 1 2 3 CD
I - C- P - M— = 1 6
2 1 2 3
a. Deciduous human dentition CO
b. Permanent human dentition
a. Marginal gingiva b. Attached gingiva c. Deciduous canine dentition
c. Sulcular gingiva d . Interdental papilla d. Permanent canine dentition
Ans b. Attached gingiva Ans b. Permanent human dentition

Dental Anatomy 163
5. What is true? a. Mesial marginal ridge

b. Distal marginal ridge
c. Incisal ridge
d. Lingual ridge
a. Zsigmondy/Palmer notation-mandibular left Ans b. Distal marginal ridge
deciduous central incisor
b. Zsigmondy/Palmer notation-mandibular right 9. Identify the anatomical landmark of central inci-
deciduous central incisor sor marked in the colour plate.
c. Zsigmondy/Palmer notation-mandibular left
Permanent central incisor
d. Zsigmondy/Palmer notation-mandibular right
Ans a. Zsigmondy/Palmer notation-mandibular left
6. What is True?
a. Cingulam b. Marginal ridge

c. CEJ d. Lingual fossa
Ans d. Lingual fossa
a. FDI notation for permanent teeth
b. Universal notation for deciduous teeth 10. Identify the condition seen in the colour plate.
c. Zsigmondy/Palmer notation for deciduous teeth

d. FDI notation for deciduous teeth
Ans a. FDI notation for permanent teeth
7. Identify the condition present in the colour plate.
a. Enamel hypoplasia
b. Dentin dysplasia
c. Hypoplastic amelogenesis imperfecta
d. Hypomineralized amelogenesis imperfecta
a. Open bite and mamelons-deciduous incisors Ans a. Enamel hypoplasia

b. Deep bite and mamelons-permanent incisors
11. Status of deciduous dentition as shown in the col-
c. Open bite and mamelons-permanent incisors
our plate here is seen at which of the following
d. Deep bite and mamelons-deciduous incisors
ages?
Ans a. Open bite and mamelons-deciduous incisors
8. Identify the anatomical landmark of central inci-
sor marked in the colour plate.
a. 2 months in utero b. At birth

c. 6 months of age d. 1 year
Ans b. At birth
12. Status of deciduous dentition as shown in the col- a. Incisive fossa

our plate here is seen at which of the following b. Vomer
ages? c. Greater palatine foramen
d. Inferior conchae
Ans d. Inferior conchae
16. Identify the anatomical landmark marked in the

image.
a. 2 months in utero b. At birth

c. 6 months of age d. 1 year
Ans c. 6 months of age
image. a. Incisive fossa
b. Vomer
c. Greater palatine foramen
d. Inferior conchae
Ans b. Vomer

a. Incisive fossa image.
b. Vomer

d. Inferior conchae
Ans a. Incisive fossa
image.
a. Mental ridge b. Mylohyoid ridge
c. Genial tubercles d. Mental foramen
Ans c. Genial tubercles
18. Identify the condition shown in the colour plate.

Patient history record gives information that same
a. Incisive fossa condition is present in the neighbourhood friends.
b. Vomer
d. Inferior conchae
Ans c. Greater palatine foramen
image.
a. Tetracycline stains
b. Fluorosis
c. Dentin dysplasia
d. Amelogenesis imperfecta
Ans b. Fluorosis
Dental Anatomy 165
19. Identify the condition shown in the colour plate. 22. Image defines which stage of tooth development?
Patient history record gives information that
patient suffered severe illness for which patient
underwent antibiotic therapy.
a. Cusp initiated b. Cusp coalescence

c. Cusp outline complete d. Cusp complete
a. Tetracycline stains
b. Fluorosis Ans a. Cusp initiated
c. Dentin dysplasia 23. Image defines which stage of tooth development?
d. Amelogenesis imperfecta
Ans a. Tetracycline stains
20. What is patient’s dental age based on the radio-

graphic findings?
a. Root initiated b. Cusp coalescence

c. Cleft initiated d. Cusp complete

Ans c. Cleft initiated
24. The image show sequence of tooth eruption for
which of the followings?
a. 5 years b. 7 years
c. 10 years d. 12 years
Ans b. 7 years
a. Deciduous maxillary dentition
21. Image defines which stage of tooth development? b. Permanent maxillary dentition
c. Deciduous mandibular dentition
d. Permanent mandibular dentition
Ans a. Deciduous maxillary dentition
25. If the dotted lines on the root denotes completion
of eruption, select correct value for this decidu-
ous tooth.
a. Cusp initiated
b. Cusp coalescence
c. Cusp outline complete
d. Cusp complete
Ans b. Cusp coalescence
a. 10 mm b. 18 mm c. Primary molars have a markedly pronouced

c. 13 mm d. 18 cm CEJ compared with the permanent molars
Ans b. 18 mm d. Permanent molars have a markedly pronounced
CEJ compared with the deciduous molars
26. If the dotted lines on the root denotes completion
of eruption, select correct value for this decidu- Ans a. Primary molars have a markedly constricted
ous tooth. neck compared with the permanent molars
29. What is true for area marked with question mark

for deciduous dentition?
a. 12 months b. 16 months
c. 20 months d. 24 months
Ans b. 16 months
27. Identify the tooth numbering system. a. The enamel rods at the cervix slope occlusally
instead of gingivally as in the permanent teeth
b. The enamel rods at the cervix slope gingivally
instead of occlusally as in the permanent teeth
c. The enamel rods at the cusp edge occlusally

d. The enamel rods at the cusp edge gingivally
instead of occlusally as in the permanent teeth
Ans a. The enamel rods at the cervix slope occlusally
a. Universal b. FDI 30. The image shows lingual aspect of the deciduous
c. Zsigmondy/Palmer d. WHO tooth. Identify the tooth.
Ans a. Universal
28. What is true for area marked with question mark
comparing deciduous to permanent dentition?
a. Maxillary 1st molar

b. Maxillary 2nd molar
a. Primary molars have a markedly constricted c. Mandibular 1st molar
neck compared with the permanent molars d. Mandibular 2nd molar
b. Permanent molars have a markedly constricted Ans b. Maxillary 2nd molar (tubercle of carabelli pre-
neck compared with the deciduous molars sent on maxillary 2nd molar )
Dental Anatomy 167
31. What is true for the image shown in the colour 33. The image shows mesial of the deciduous tooth.
plate? Identify the tooth.

c. Mandibular 1st molar
d. Mandibular 2nd molar
Ans c. Mandibular 1st molar. The outline of the mesial
root from the mesial aspect does not resemble the outline
of any other primary tooth root.
34. The image shows lingual of the deciduous tooth.

a. Edge to edge CEJ Identify the tooth.
b. Gap CEJ
c. Enamel overlap cementum
d. Cementum overlap CEJ
Ans a. Edge to edge CEJ

32. What is incidence percentage for the type of CEJ
shown in the colour plate?
c. Mandibular 1st molar
Ans d. Mandibular 2nd molar. From the lingual aspect,
two cusps of almost equal dimensions can be observed.
A short, lingual groove is between them. The two lingual
cusps are not quite as wide as the three buccal cusps; this
arrangement narrows the crown lingually. The cervical
line is relatively straight, and the crown extends out over
the root more distally than it does mesially.
35. What does the colour plate represent?
a. 0–1% b. 30%
c. 60–65% d. 50%
Ans c. 60–65%
a. Lip marks b. Bite marks a. Haplodent

c. Target lesion d. Electric burn b. Triconodont
Ans b. Bite marks c. Tritubercular molar
d. Quadritubercular molar
36. Identify the cusp form.
Ans d. Quadritubercular molar
40. What is true for the radiograph shown in the col-

our plate?
a. Haplodent
b. Triconodont
c. Tritubercular molar
Ans a. Haplodent a. Enamel hypoplasia
37. Identify the cusp form. b. Radiograph of dog teeth
c. Osteopetrosis
d. Osteoporosis
Ans b. Radiograph of dog teeth
41. Identify the permanent tooth based on the occ-

lusal outline.

a. Haplodent
b. Triconodont
c. Tritubercular molar
Ans b. Triconodont

b. Mandibular 1st molar
c. Maxillary 2nd molar
a. Haplodent
Ans a. Maxillary 1st molar
b. Triconodont
c. Tritubercular molar 42. Identify the permanent tooth based on the occ-
d. Quadritubercular molar lusal outline.
Ans c. Tritubercular molar

Dental Anatomy 169
a. Maxillary 1st molar a. Furcation involvement

b. Mandibular 1st molar b. Dehiscence
c. Maxillary 2nd molar c. Fenestration
d. Mandibular 2nd molar d. External resorption
Ans b. Mandibular 1st molar Ans c. Fenestration
43. Identify the permanent tooth based on the occ- 46. Identify the curve.
lusal outline.
a. Maxillary 1st premolar a. Curve of Spee b. Curve of Monson

b. Mandibular 1st premolar c. Curve of Wilson d. Curve of Winter
c. Maxillary 2nd premolar
Ans a. Curve of Spee
d. Mandibular 2nd premolar
Ans a. Maxillary 1st premolar 47. Identify the area marked with dotted line.
44. Identify the permanent tooth based on the mesial

outline.

a. Attached gingiva
b. Alveolar mucosa
c. Marginal gingiva
d. Mucogingival junction
Ans d. Mucogingival junction
48. Identify the periodontal group of fiber marked

a. Maxillary 1st premolar with arrow.
b. Mandibular 1st premolar
c. Maxillary 2nd premolar
d. Mandibular 2nd premolar
Ans a. Maxillary 1st premolar
45. Identify the clinical condition seen in the colour
plate.
a. Transseptal fibers
b. Interradicular fibers
c. Apical fibers
d. Alveolar crest fiber
Ans a. Transseptal fibers
49. Identify the periodontal group of fiber marked a. Curve of Spee b. Curve of Wilson
with arrow. c. Curve of Monsoon d. Curve of Williams
Ans b. Curve of Wilson

53. Identify the tooth.
c. Apical fibers
Ans b. Interradicular fibers
a. Maxillary central incisor
50. Identify the periodontal group of fiber marked b. Maxillary lateral incisor
with arrow. c. Mandibular central incisor
d. Mandibular lateral incisor
Ans b. Maxillary lateral incisor

c. Apical fibers
Ans d. Alveolar crest fiber
51. Identify the structure marked with arrow in the a. Mandibular canine
colour plate. b. Maxillary lateral incisor
c. Mandibular central incisor
Ans a. Mandibular canine
a. Embrasures b. Incisal ridge

c. Black space d. Lingual fossa
Ans a. Embrasures
52. Identify the curve.
a. Mandibular canine
b. Mandibular first premolar
c. Mandibular second premolar
Ans b. Mandibular first premolar
Dental Anatomy 171
56. Identify the tooth. a. Orbicularis oculi b. Orbicularis oris

c. Zygomaticus major d. Buccinator
Ans a. Orbicularis oculi
60. Identify muscle group.
a. Mandibular canine
b. Mandibular first premolar
c. Mandibular second premolar
Ans b. Mandibular first premolar
57. Identify structure marked in the image. a. Orbicularis occuli b. Orbicularis oris
Ans b. orbicularis oris
a. Transverse ridge b. Triangular ridge

c. Oblique ridge d. Cusp ridge
Ans b. Triangular ridge
58. Identify structure marked in the image
a. Orbicularis oculi b. Orbicularis oris

Ans c. Zygomaticus major

a. Transverse ridge b. Triangular ridge
c. Oblique ridge d. Cusp ridge
Ans a. Transverse ridge
a. Orbicularis oculi b. Orbicularis oris

Ans d. Buccinator
63. Identify the structure marked with arrow. 66. Identify the structure marked with arrow.
a. Uvula b. Palatine tonsila a. Uvula b. Palatine tonsila

c. Palatum molle d. Palatum durum c. Palatum molle d. Palatum durum
Ans a. Uvula Ans d. Palatum durum

a. Articular surface of condyle
b. Superior joint sapce
a. Uvula b. Palatine tonsila c. Articular disc
c. Palatum molle d. Palatum durum d. Synovial membrane
Ans b. Palatine tonsila Ans c. Articular disc

b. Superior joint space
a. Uvula b. Palatine tonsila c. Articular disc
c. Palatum molle d. Palatum durum d. Synovial membrane
Ans c. Palatum molle Ans d. Synovial membrane
Dental Anatomy 173
a. Articular surface of condyle a. Internal carotid artery

b. Superior joint space b. Internal maxillary artery
c. Articular disc c. Inferior alveolar artery
d. Synovial membrane d. Inion
Ans a. Articular surface of condyle Ans b. Internal maxillary artery

b. Superior joint space a. Internal carotid artery
c. Articular disc b. Internal maxillary artery
d. Synovial membrane c. Inferior alveolar artery
d. Inion
Ans b. Superior joint space
Ans c. Inferior alveolar artery
71. Identify the structure marked with arrow.
74. Identify the structure marked with arrow
a. Internal carotid artery a. Internal carotid artery

b. Internal maxillary artery b. Internal maxillary artery
c. Inferior alveolar artery c. Inferior alveolar artery
d. Inion d. Inion
Ans a. Internal carotid artery Ans d. Inion
75. Identify the structure marked with arrow. a. Mental foramen

b. Inferior alveolar canal
c. Coronoid process
d. Condyle
Ans c. Coronoid process

a. Mental foramen
c. Coronoid process
d. Condyle
Ans a. Mental foramen

a. Styloid process b. Hyoid bone
c. Mallus d. Inca
Ans a. Styloid process
a. Mental foramen

c. Coronoid process
d. Condyle
Ans b. Inferior alveolar canal
77. Identify the structure marked with arrow. a. Styloid process b. Hyoid bone
c. Mallus d. Inca
Ans b. Hyoid bone
a. Mental foramen b. Inferior alveolar canal

c. Coronoid process d. Condyle
Ans d. Condyle
a. IAN canal foramen

b. Lingula
c. Sigmoid notch
d. Internal oblique ridge
Ans a. IAN canal foramen
Dental Anatomy 175
a. IAN canal foramen

a. Gingival groove
b. Lingula
b. Gingival crevices
c. Sigmoid notch
c. Periodontal membrane
d. Internal oblique ridge
d. Epithelial attachment
Ans b. Lingula
Ans a. Gingival groove
86. The contact area between teeth is located at:
a. Incisal third

b. Junction of incisal and middle third
a. IAN canal foramen c. Middle third
b. Lingula d. Middle of middle third
c. Sigmoid notch Ans a. Incisal third. Since the mesioincisal third of maxil-
d. Internal oblique ridge lary central incisor approaches a right angle, incisal
embrasure is very slight
Ans c. Sigmoid notch
a. IAN canal foramen a. Gingival groove

b. Lingula b. Gingival crevices
c. Sigmoid notch c. Periodontal membrane
d. Internal oblique ridge d. Epithelial attachment
Ans d. Internal oblique ridge Ans b. Gingival crevices

a. Incisive canal foramen

b. Foramen of scarpa
a. Gingival groove
c. Foramen of nasolacrimal duct
b. Gingival crevices d. Anterior nasal spine
c. Periodontal membrane
Ans c. Foramen of nasolacrimal duct
d. Epithelial attachment
Ans c. Periodontal membrane


c. Foramen of stenson
d. Anterior nasal spine
a. Superior foramen of incisive canal
b. Foramen of scarpa Ans d. Anterior nasal spine
c. Foramen of stenson 93. The line gives origin to which muscle?
Ans a. Superior foramen of incisive canal
a. Anterior belly of digastric

b. Platysma
c. Mylohyoid
d. Superior constrictor
Ans c. Mylohyoid
c. Foramen of stenson
Ans b. Foramen of scarpa
Dental Anatomy 177
a. Accessory canal 98. Identify the structure marked with arrow.

b. Lamina dura
c. Median maxillary suture
d. Incisive foramen identify the structure
Ans b. Lamina dura
a. Nasal septum
b. Crestal plate
c. Floor of maxillary sinus
d. Inverted Y of ennis
a. Accessory canal Ans b. Crestal plate

b. Lamina dura
c. Median maxillary suture 99. Identify the structure marked with arrow.
d. Incisive foramen
Ans c. Median maxillary suture

a. Nasal septum
b. Median palatal suture
c. Floor of maxillary sinus
a. Accessory canal d. Inverted Y of ennis
b. Lamina dura Ans c. Floor of maxillary sinus
c. Median maxillary suture
d. Incisive foramen 100. Identify the structure marked with arrow.
Ans d. Incisive foramen
a. Nasal septum
a. Nasal septum
b. Median palatal suture b. Median palatal suture
c. Floor of maxillary sinus c. Floor of maxillary sinus
d. Inverted Y of ennis d. Inverted Y of ennis
Ans a. Nasal septum Ans d. Inverted Y of ennis
C h a pte r 11
1-
j
O
Dental Materials a>
LU
03
HHBHB
1 . The image shows which type of enamel etching? 3. Image shows which procedure being performed?
a. Etching b. Priming

a. Type 1 c. Bonding d. Curing
b. Type 2 Ans a. Etching
c. Type 3
d. Type 4 4. Image shows which form of deformation?
Ans a . Type -1
( Preferential prism core etching)
2. The image shows which type of enamel etching? CD

a. Torsion b. Shear
c. Compression d. Bending LU
Ans a. Torsion 03
5. Image shows which form of deformation?
CD
a. Type 1
b. Type 2
c. Type 3
V* CO
d. Type 4 a. Torsion b. Shear
c. Compression d. Bending
Ans b. Type 2
( Preferential prism periphery etching) Ans b. Shear
Dental Materials 179
6. Which of the following is marked as X in the stress a. Fracture

strain curve shown in the color plate? b. Yield point
c. Yield strength
d. Ultimate strength
Ans c. Yield strength
9. Which of the following is marked as X in the stress

strain curve shown in the color plate?
a. Fracture b. Yield point

c. Yield strength d. Ultimate strength
Ans a. Fracture

a. Fracture
b. Yield point
c. Yield strength
d. Ultimate strength

Ans d. Ultimate strength
10. The area marked with ? is representative of which

of the following?
a. Fracture b. Yield point

c. Yield strength d. Ultimate strength
Ans b. Yield point

a. Plastic deformation
b. Elastic deformation
c. Necking
d. Fracture
Ans a. Plastic deformation
11. The area marked with ? is representative of which

of the following?
a. Bioreactor
b. Needle disposer
c. Amalgamator
d. Vaccume former
Ans b. Needle disposer
a. Plastic deformation
b. Elastic deformation
c. Necking
d. Fracture
Ans a. Plastic deformation
a. Bioreactor b. Needle disposer

c. Amalgamator d. Vacuum former
Ans d. Vacuum former


Ans a. Bioreactor
a. Dontrix gauge b. Boley gauge

c. Correx gauge d. MBT gauge
Ans a. Dontrix gauge

Ans c. Amalgamator

Ans b. Boley gauge
18. Identify the instrument. 22. Identify the instrument.
a. Crown gauge b. Willis gauge

a. Dontrix gauge b. Boley gauge c. George gauge d. Endo dental gauge
Ans c. George gauge
Ans c. Correx gauge

Ans d. MBT gauge
20. Identify the instrument. c. George gauge d. Endodental gauge
Ans d. Endodental gauge


c. George gauge d. Endo dental gauge
Ans a. Crown gauge

a. Drophead bracket positioning gauge
b. Huffman leaf gauge
c. Stainless steel leaf gauge
d. Golden mean gauge
Ans b. Huffman leaf gauge

c. George gauge d. Endo dental gauge
Ans b. Willis gauge
a. Drophead bracket positioning gauge 29. Identify the instrument.

c. Stainless steel leaf gauge
Ans c. Stainless steel leaf gauge
a. Bracket positioning gauge (Pole style)

b. Bracket positioning forceps
c. Bracket positioning gauge (Double ended)
d. Bracket positioning gauge (Cross style)
a. Drophead bracket positioning gauge Ans c. Bracket positioning gauge (Double ended)
c. Stainless steel leaf gauge 30. Identify the instrument
Ans d. Golden mean gauge

b. Bracket positioning forceps
a. Drophead bracket positioning gauge c. Bracket positioning gauge (Double ended)
b. Huffman leaf gauge d. Bracket positioning gauge (Cross style)
c. Stainless steel leaf gauge Ans d. Bracket positioning gauge (Cross style)
Ans a. Drophead bracket positioning gauge 31. Identify the instrument.

b. Bracket positioning forceps b. Bracket positioning forceps
c. Bracket positioning gauge (Double ended) c. Bracket positioning gauge (Double ended)
d. Bracket positioning gauge (Cross style) d. Bracket positioning gauge (Cross style)
Ans a. Bracket positioning gauge (Pole style) Ans b. Bracket positioning forceps
32. Identify the bracket type. a. Wing b. Slot

c. Buccal tube d. Lock pin
Ans b. Slot
36. Identify the component of bracket.
a. Edgewise b. Begg
c. Ribbon arch d. Combined
Ans a. Edgewise
33. Identify the bracket type. a. Wing b. Slot
Ans c. Buccal tube
a. Edgewise b. Begg

c. Ribbon arch d. Combined
Ans c. Ribbon arch
a. Wing b. Slot
Ans d. Lock pin
38. Identify the component in the bracket.
a. Wing b. Slot
Ans a. Wing
a. Wing b. Slot
c. Archwire d. Lock pin
Ans c. Archwire
39. Identify the instrument. a. Beading b. Boxing

c. Base forming d. Waxing
Ans a. Beading
43. Which procedure is being performed in the image?
a. Vibator b. Base former

c. Bur block d. Amalgamator
Ans a. Vibator.

a. Beading b. Boxing
c. Base forming d. Waxing
Ans b. Boxing

c. Bur block d. Amalgamator
Ans b. Base former

41. Identify the instrument. a. Fox plane b. Paint scraper
c. Wax Knife d. Face bow
Ans a. Fox plane

c. Bur block d. Amalgamator a. Fox plane b. Paint scraper
Ans c. Bur block c. Wax knife d. Face bow
42. Which procedure is being performed in the image? Ans b. Paint scraper
a. Fox plane b. Paint scraper

c. Wax knife d. Face bow
Ans c. Wax knife

47. Identify the material. 51. Identify the instrument.
a. Amalgam well b. Amalgam carrier

a. Rouge b. Pumice
c. Amalgam capsules d. Amalgam separator
c. Emery d. Carborundum
Ans a. Amalgam well
Ans a. Rouge
48. Identify the material.

c. Amalgam capsules d. Amalgam separator
a. Rouge b. Pumice Ans b. Amalgam carrier

c. Emery d. Carborundum
Ans b. Pumice

49. Identify the material.

a. Rouge b. Pumice c. Amalgam capsules d. Amalgam separator
c. Emery d. Stone
Ans c. Amalgam capsules
Ans c. Emery
50. Identify the bur material.
a. Rouge b. Pumice a. Amalgam well b. Amalgam carrier

c. Emery d. Carborundum c. Amalgam capsules d. Amalgam separator
Ans d. Carborundum Ans d. Amalgam separator
55. Identify the instrument. a. Automatrix band

b. S shaped Matrix band
c. T Bands
d. Mylar strip
Ans d. Mylar strip
59. Identify matrix system.
a. Automatrix band
b. S-shaped Matrix band
c. T Bands
d. Mylar strip
Ans a. Automatrix band
a. Sectional matrix system b. Ring matrix
56. Identify the instrument. c. Garrison matrix d. Sectional matrix
Ans a. Sectional matrix system

a. Automatrix band

b. S-shaped Matrix band
c. T Bands
a. Sectional matrix system b. Ring matrix
d. Mylar strip
c. Garrison matrix d. Sectional matrix
Ans b. S Separators
Ans b. Ring matrix
a. Automatrix band a. Sectional matrix system

b. S-shaped Matrix band b. Ring matrix
c. T Bands c. Garrison matrix
d. Mylar strip d. Tofflemire matrix
Ans c. T Bands Ans d. Tofflemire matrix
58. Identify the instrument. 62. Identify matrix system.
a. Sectional matrix system 66. Identify the instrument.

b. Ring matrix
c. Garrison matrix
d. Tofflemire matrix
Ans c. Garrison matrix
63. Identify the instrument. a. Vacuum mixer b. Dental spatulator

c. Tensiometer d. Vibrator
Ans d. Vibrator
67. Identify the equipment/method.
a. Vacuum mixer b. Dental spatulator

a. Vicat needle test b. Vickers test
Ans a. Vacuum mixer c. Rockwell test d. Cold bend test
64. Identify the instrument. Ans a. Vicat needle test


Ans b. Dental spatulator

65. Identify the instrument. c. Rockwell test d. Cold bend test
Ans c. Rockwell test


Ans c. Tensilometer
a. Vicat needle test b. Vickers test 73. Identify the instrument.

c. Rockwell test d. Cold bend test
Ans b. Vickers test
a. Centrifugal casting machine

b. Vacuum casting machine
c. Induction casting machine
d. CAD CAM milling machine
c. Rockwell test d. Cold bend test
Ans c. Induction casting machine
Ans d. Cold bend test

Ans a. Centrifugal casting machine
Ans a. Centrifugal casting machine
75. Identify the type of dental implant.

c. Induction casting machine a. Subperiosteal b. Endosseous
d. CAD CAM milling machine c. Transosseous d. Mini implant
Ans b. Vacuum casting machine Ans c. Transosseous
76. Identify the type of dental implant. a. Crown b. Abutment

c. Implant post d. Abutment screw
Ans a. Crown
80. Identify the component of dental implants.
a. Subperiosteal b. Endosseous
c. Transosseous d. Mini implant
Ans a. Subperiosteal
77. Identify the type of dental implant. a. Crown b. Abutment

c. Implant post d. Abutment screw
Ans b. Abutment
Ans b. Endosseous

78. Identify the type of dental implant.
a. Crown b. Abutment
c. Implant post d. Abutment Screw
Ans c. Implant post

Ans d. Mini implant
a. Crown
b. Abutment
c. Implant post
d. Abutment screw
Ans d. Abutment screw
83. Identify the type of grafting material. a. Autograft b. Allograft

c. Xenograft d. Alloplast
Ans d. Alloplast
87. The symbol represents which of the following?
a. Autograft b. Allograft
Ans a. Autograft
a. Single use only b. MR safe
84. Identify the type of grafting material.
c. Conditionally MR safe d. MR unsafe
Ans b. MR safe
a. Autograft b. Allograft

a. Single use only b. MR safe
Ans b. Allograft c. Conditionally MR safe d. MR unsafe
85. Identify the type of grafting material. Ans c. Conditionally MR safe
a. Autograft b. Allograft a. Single use only b. MR safe

c. Xenograft d. Alloplast c. Conditionally MR safe d. MR unsafe
Ans c. Xenograft Ans d. MR unsafe
86. Identify the type of grafting material. 90. The symbol represents which of following?
a. Single use only b. MR safe 95. Identify the cytotoxicity test.

c. Conditionally MR safe d. MR unsafe
Ans a. Single use only

91. Identify the type of crown.
a. Agar overlay method

b. Dentin disk barrier test method
c. Style’s cell transformation test
d. MTT test
Ans a. Agar overlay method
a. All ceramic b. PFM
c. SS crown d. Acrylic crown 96. Identify the cytotoxicity test.
Ans a. All ceramic

a. Agar overlay method

b. Dentin disk barrier test method
c. Style’s cell transformation test

d. MTT test
a. All ceramic b. PFM
c. SS crown d. Acrylic crown Ans b. Dentin disk barrier test method
Ans b. PFM 97. Identify the part of casting assembly.
a. All ceramic b. PFM a. Casting ring b. Sprue former

c. SS crown d. Acrylic crown c. Crown d. Reservoir
Ans c. SS crown Ans a. Casting ring
94. Identify the instrument. 98. Identify the part of casting assembly.
a. Agate spatula b. Tooth sloth

c. Separator d. Bite strip
Ans a. Agate spatula

a. Casting ring b. Sprue former Ans a. Ringless casting system

c. Crown d. Reservoir 100. Identify the component of casting assembly.
Ans d. Reservoir
99. Identify the system.
a. Casting ring
a. Ringless casting system b. Crucible
b. Vaccum former c. Sprue
c. Crucible former d. Ring liner
d. Ring casting system
Ans b. Crucible

1-
MCQs from Recent o
AIIMS/ AIPG/NBDE Papers a>
LU
03
HHBHB
1. What type of angle is the nasolabial angle as shown 3. Identify the anomaly in figure? ARMS May 2016
in the given picture? AIIMS May 2016
^

a. Gemination
b. Fusion
c. Concrescence
a. Acute b. Obtuse d. Supernumerary teeth
c. Normal d. Ideal Ans b. Fusion
Ans a. Acute
4. This molar relation of primary dentition will never
2. A 7-month pregnant lady comes to your clinic with convert into which of the following in permanent
CD
.
the following lesions all over the body Which of dentition? ARMS May 2016
these drugs is the appropriate treatment ? LU
ARMS May Medical 2015
03
CD
a. Class I
CO
b. Class III
a. Methotrexate b. Retinoids c. Class II
c. Azathioprime d. Cyclosporine d. End -to-end relation
Ans d. Cyclosporine Ans b. Class III
5. A man with leprosy came with the following lesion. a. A b. B

Shows a single target lesion of about 7 cm diameter c. C d. D
over forearm. Diagnosis is: AIIMS May 2016
Ans b. B
8. Which procedure is this: AIIMS Nov 2015
a. BB b. BT
c. LL d. BL
Ans a. BB a. Esmarch’s b. Gap arthroplasty
c. Champy’s d. Ilizarov’s
6. In cleidocranial dysplasia, there is impaired sutu-
Ans d. Ilizarov’s
red growth of maxilla leading to retrognathic maxi
lla and normal mandible. All are true except: 9. What is this used for? AIIMS Nov 2015
AIIMS Nov 2015

a. Osteotomy
b. Sequestrectomy
c. Removing maxillary root fragments
d. Maxillary disimpaction
a. CFBA1 mutation
Ans b. > a. Sequestrectomy > a. Osteotomy
b. Prognostic maxilla and retrognathia mandible
c. Crowding of teeth 10. This instrument is used for: AIIMS Nov 2015
d. Hypertelorism
Ans b. Prognostic maxilla and retrognathia mandible
> c. Crowding of teeth
7. Muscles in diagram responsible for protrusion:

AIIMS Nov 2015 a. Submandibular incision
b. Crevicular incision
c. Cricothyrotomy
d. Preauricular incision
Ans c. Cricothyrotomy
11. A 60-year-old man, who is chronic smoker, reported

your clinic with a complaint of pain since 10 days in
the left lower molar region. OPG shows a large uni-
locular radiolucent area on left side of mandible.
What is the treatment of choice? AIIMS Nov 2015
14. In the given image, abdominal subclavian artery

develops as a result of? AIIMS Medical May 2016
a. IMF and antibiotics

b. Biopsy
c. 2 Miniplate
d. Reconstruction by bony plates a. Persistence of A
Ans b. Biopsy b. Persistence of B
c. Obliteration of A with persistence of B
12. CT scan image of mandible: AIIMS Nov 2015
d. Obliteration of B with persistence of A
Ans d. Obliteration of B with persistence of A
15. In following diagram, left ventricular pressure is
equal to diastolic BP indicated by which number?
AIIMS Medical May 2015

a. TMJ ankylosis
b. Condylar #
c. Normal TMJ morphology
d. TMJ osteoarthritis
Ans a. TMJ ankylosis a. 1 b. 2
c. 3 d. 4
13. A 60-year-old petient came with h/o itchy tense Ans b. 2
blisters whose roof settled as above. Diagnosis is:
AIIMS May Medical 2015 16. A 9-year-old girl underwent a surgery with cos-
tochondral grafting at mandibular condyle. He
reported to clinic after 4 months as seen in the pho-
tograph. Probable cause for this: AIIMS May 2016
a. Pemphigus vulgaris a. Chin deviation

b. Bullous pemphigoid b. Reduced mouth opening
c. Dermatitis herpetiformis c. Facial NV palsy
d. Linear IgA disease d. Excessive growth of graft
Ans b. Bullous pemphigoid Ans d. Excessive growth of the graft
17. A 9-year-old boy with complicated crown fracture 20. Identify the procedure: AIIMS May 2016
with abscess formation in 12. EPT is negative for
11, 12 and 21. What would be the management of
patient? AIIMS May 2016
a. Electric pulp tester b. Diagnodent

c. Composite curing d. Scaling
Ans a. Electric pulp tester
21. Which is not a succesedaneou tooth?

AIIMS May 2016
a. Apexification of 12 and RCT of 11
b. Revascularization in 12 and RCT 11
c. RCT in 12 and 11
d. Extraction of 12 and RCT in 11
Ans b. Revascularization in 12 and RCT 11 > a. Apexifi-
cation of 12 and RCT of 11
18. A patient complains of sensitivity to ice cream in

lower back region of jaw and disappears soon after
the removal of stimulus. Your treatment would be. a. 16 b. 54
AIIMS May 2016 c. 45 d. 13

Ans a. 16
22. The figure represents which NITI generation?
a. Indirect pulp capping b. Sensitivity paste

c. Pulpectomy d. Extraction
Ans a. Indirect pulp capping a. 3rd generation b. 4th generation
c. 5th generation d. 6th generation
19. Identify the type of wiring: AIIMS May 2016 Ans c. 5th generation
23. Identify the PAP smear given below:

AIIMS Medical May 2016
a. Kazanjian button b. Ivy loop

c. Risdon d. Gilmer
Ans b. Ivy loop
a. Actinomycetes b. Chlamydia 27. Identify the appliance: AIIMS May 2016

c. Herpes simplex type 2 d. Trichomonas
Ans a. Actinomycetes
24. All of the following are true about titration curve of

an amino acid except: AIIMS May Medical 2016
a. Activator b. Bionator
c. Functional regulator d. Twin block
Ans b. Bionator
28. Type of ECC? AIIMS May 2016
a. The protein has 1 functional ion

b. The protein has 3 ionisable sites
c. A and B represent ionization of amino and car-
boxyl end of the protein
d. Points A and B represent points of maximal
a. Mild b. Moderate
buffering capacity
c. Severe d. Very mild
Ans a. The protein has one functional ion
Ans b. Moderate

25. Identify the injury shown in the picture:
AIIMS May 2016 29. Identify the instrument:
a. Intrusive luxation a. Naber’s probe b. Marquis

b. Subluxation c. Michigan d. WHO
c. Complicated crown and root # Ans a. Naber’s probe
d. Lateral luxation
30. Identify the arrow-marked cell in the picture:
Ans a. Intrusive luxation AIIMS May 2016
26. Identify the following: AIIMS May 2016
a. MBT b. Dynamometer
c. Boon’s gauge d. Dontrix gauze
Ans a. MBT
a. Plasma cell b. Eosinophil a. Primary healing cap b. Secondary cap

c. Lymphocyte d. Macrophage c. Abutment d. Pellets of bullets
Ans a. Plasma cell Ans a. Primary healing cap
For color diagram, refer to: Color palate, Diagram number: 1
31. Latest terminology for following type of caries gain-
ing almost total acceptance is: AIPG Dec 2015 34. A radio-opacity at the third molar area impacted third
molar. What is your diagnosis? AIPG Dec 2015
a. Rapidly progressive
b. Severe early childhood caries a. Osteoma
c. Nursing bottle caries b. Odontoma
d. Juvenile caries c. Fibrous dysplasia
Ans b. Severe early childhood caries d. Dentigerous cyst
Ans b. Odontoma
32. A CT scan of a patient with swelling in left angle
of ramus shows a bony growth that is painless and 35. Following instrument used for advancement of
present on the lateral surface of ramus indicates: maxilla is also known as: AIPG Dec 2015
AIPG Dec 2015

a. Osteoma a. Delaire facemask
b. Sialolithiasis b. Petit facemask
c. Pleomorphic adenoma c. High pull headgear
d. Fibrous dysplasia d. McNamara appliance
Ans a. Osteoma Ans b. Petit facemask
For color diagram, refer to: Color palate, Diagram number: 1
36. Following picture shows a device in a child used
33. Two metallic objects in mandibular anterior ridge for: AIPG Dec 2015
as shown in the figure represents. AIPG Dec 2015
a. Distraction osteogenesis 40. Following appliance is used for: AIPG Dec 2015
b. Obstructive sleep apnea
c. Neck stabilization appliance
d. Retrognathia
Ans a. Distraction osteogenesis
37. An image of the teeth showing linear tooth defect.

Which is the following cause: AIPG Dec 2015
a. Treat posterior crossbite

b. Rapid maxillary expansion
c. Treat anterior as well as posterior crossbite
d. Correction of midline diastema
Ans a. Treat posterior crossbite
a. Hypophosphatemia b. Fluorosis 41. The below patient is affected with: AIPG Dec 2015
c. Chickenpox d. Paget’s disease
Ans b. Fluorosis
38. Which clasp is this? AIPG Dec 2015

a. Down’s syndrome
b. Treacher Collins
c. Pierre Robin
d. Angelman syndrome
a. Southend b. Schwarz
c. Crozats d. Delta clasp Ans b. Treacher Collins
Ans c. Crozats 42. In the following mixed dentition analysis, distal
surface of both 2nd molar of primary teeth shows:
39. A diagrammatic question. Best approach of inci-
AIPG Dec 2015
sion for subcondylar fracture correction is:
AIPG Dec 2015
a. A b. B a. Distal step b. Mesial step

c. C d. D c. Class 1 d. Flush terminal plane
Ans d. D. Ans b. Mesial step
43. Which procedure is shown in this figure? 46. Histology image of lymphatic tissue. Identify:
AIPG Dec 2015 AIIMS May Medical 2016
a. Genioplasty b. Chin reduction

c. Subapical osteotomy d. Sagittal split a. Peyer’s patches b. Tonsil
Ans a. Genioplasty c. Lymph node d. Spleen
Ans a. Peyer’s patches
44. Picture of Scammon’s curve. B involves:
AIPG Dec 2015 47. Given image signifies injury to which nerve?
AIIMS May 2016

a. Anterior interosseous
a. Lymphoid b. Posterior interosseous
b. Brain and neck and neural c. Median
c. General
d. Ulnar
d. Reproductive
Ans d. Ulnar
Ans b. Brain and neck and neural
45. Identify the organism in the image given below: 48. Identify the appliance: AIIMS May 2015
AIIMS May Medical 2015
a. Staphylococcus a. Jasper jumper

b. Streptococcus pyogenes b. Herbst appliance
c. Meningococcus c. Rito appliance
d. S. pneumonia d. Jig appliance
Ans d. S. pneumonia Ans b. Herbst appliance
49. A 5-year-old child showing evidence of juxta-artic- 52. Identify the suturing technique: AIIMS May 2015
ular bone deposition, if subjected to trauma to the
TMJ, is to be treated with maintaining adequate
ramal length and full mouth opening. What should
be the treatment plan? AIIMS May 2015
a. Simple loop suture

b. Figure of eight
c. Periosteal suture
d. Close anchor suture
Ans a. Simple loop suture
a. Gap arthroplasty 53. Picture of Scammon’s curve. B involves:

b. Chondrocostal grafting AIIMS May 2015
c. Lateral arthroplasty
d. Brisement forces
Ans b. Chondrocostal grafting
50. Identify this instrument: AIIMS May 2015

a. Lymphoid
b. Brain and neck and neural
c. General
a. Titanium surgical insert
d. Reproductive
b. Sinus lift insert
Ans b. Brain and neck and neural
c. Piezoelectric osteotomy insert
d. Periapical surgical osteotome 54. The following OPG shows fracture parasymphysis
Ans c. Piezoelectric osteotomy insert in a 50-year-old man. What will be your treatment
plan? AIIMS May 2015
51. Auxillary wire used in fixed mechanotherapy:
AIIMS May 2015
a. IMF for 3 weeks

a. Elastic module b. IMF for 6 weeks
b. Preformed ligature wire c. Compression plate is must
c. Kobayashi hook d. Nonunion will occur if reconstruction plate is
d. Begg’s loop not given
Ans c. Kobayashi hook Ans b. IMF for 6 weeks
55. A patient comes to your clinic with the following 58. Identify insula in the transverse section of brain:
OPG after road traffic accident. What will be your AIIMS May Medical 2016
treatment? AIIMS May 2015
a. A b. B
a. 2 plate anterior, 1 plate posterior c. C d. D
b. 1 plate anterior, 2 plate posterior Ans c. C
c. 1 plate anterior, 1 plate posterior
59. Identify the type of gland:
d. IMF
Ans a. 2 plate anterior, 1 plate posterior
56. This following instrument is based on which prin-

ciple. AIIMS May 2015

a. Apocrine b. Endocrine
c. Holocrine d. Merocrine
Ans c. Holocrine
a. Wedge b. Lever 3
c. Lever 1 d. Wheel and axle 60. The given histology of the cartilage is found in which
of the following areas of human body?
Ans d. Wheel and axle
57. Expansion appliance is made of: AIIMS May 2015
a. Epiphyseal plate
a. NiTi b. NiCr b. Ear pinna
c. NiAl d. NiCo c. Articular discs
Ans a. NiTi d. Intervertebral discs
Ans a. Epiphyseal plate (Growth plate)
61. The rate of diffusion of a substance is plotted against Ans a. First order bend
concentration gradient in the following graph. The For Color diagram, refer to : Color palate, Diagram Number: 1
substance is: AIIMS May Medical 2016
64. Comminuted fracture in symphyseal area. Manage-
ment. AIPG Dec 2015
a. Load-bearing plate
a. O2 b. Na+ b. Load-sharing
c. CO2 d. Glucose c. Semi-rigid fixation
Ans d. Glucose d. IMF with open reduction
62. Which of the following cells secretes HCl? Ans a. Load-bearing plate
65. There are two pictures shown below. According to
Ackerman classification of normal spontaneous
smile or posed smile, which is true: AIPG Dec 2015

a. Sp 1 is posed smile
b. Sp 2 is posed smile
a. A b. B
c. Both are posed smiles
c. C d. D
d. Both are spontaneous smiles
Ans a. A
Ans a. Sp 1 is posed smile
63. In given orthodontic model, a wire is shown adapted
over the teeth. It shows which order of bends? 66. A young girl came to the hospital with severe swell-
AIPG Dec 2015 ing and redness on all affected areas. On intraoral
examination, 24 was severely infected with signs
of acute alveolar abscess. Cellulitis occurs in this
patient most probably due to which space infection?
AIPG Dec 2015
a. First order bend

b. Second order bend
c. Third order bend
d. First and second bends
a. Buccal b. Canine a. Right side

c. Masseter d. Cavernous sinus b. Left-side
Ans a. Buccal c. Both right and left
d. Both sides not involved
67. A child with carious deciduous mandibular teeth
Ans b. Left-side
has sensitivity to cold and sweet food which sub-
sides on removing the stimulus. The diagram and 70. Examine the following OPG carefully (ignore the
most appropriate treatment for this condition is: plates placed for ORIF) and determine what should
AIPG Dec 2015 be the most appropriate treatment of tooth in the
line of fracture? AIPG Dec 2015
a. Reversible pulpitis with direct pulp capping

b. Reversible pulpitis with pulpotomy a. Extraction of 42, and 38
c. Reversible pulpitis with extraction b. Extraction of 38 and retention of 42
d. Irreversible pulpitis c. Extraction of 42 and retention of 38
d. No extraction until 38 interferes with reduction
Ans a. Reversible pulpitis with direct pulp capping
Ans b. Extraction of 38 and retention of 42
68. A radio-opacity at the third molar area and impac-

ted third molar. What is your diagnosis? 71. What does the image represent?
AIPG Dec 2015 AIIMS SRSHIP Community Dentistry July 2016
a. Osteoma b. Odontoma
c. Fibrous dysplasia d. Dentigerous cyst
Ans b. Odontoma
69. Which side of TMJ is not affected by ankylosis?

a. OHRQoL b. DALY
c. IOTN d. None of the above
Ans a. OHRQoL
Oral health-related quality of life (OHRQoL) is a multidi-
mensional construct that includes a subjective evaluation
of the individual’s oral health, functional well-being, emo-
tional well-being, expectations and satisfaction with care,
and sense of self. It has wide-reaching applications in sur-
vey and clinical research.
72. Which of the following data is missing in given com- a. Anterior communicating branch
mon risk factor approach diagram? b. Vertebral artery
AIIMS SRSHIP Community Dentistry July 2016 c. Posterior communicating branch
d. Basilar artery
Ans c. Posterior communicating branch
75. A radiograph is shown below. This type of root mor-
phology has the highest incidence in which popula-
tion? AIIMS SRSHIP Endodontic July 2016 Paper
a. Disease and smoking

b. Prevention and diet
c. Diet and smoking
d. Smoking and prevention a. African-American
b. Asians
Ans c. Diet and smoking
c. Does not depend on ethnicity
73. Identify the instrument: d. Mongoloids
AIIMS SRSHIP Community July 2015 Ans d. Mongoloids
The prevalence of these three-rooted mandibular first
molars appears to be less than 3% in African populations,
not to exceed 4.2% in Caucasians, to be less than 5% in
Eurasian and Asian populations, and to be higher than 5%

(even up to 40%) in populations with Mongolian traits.
Prevalence
• Mongoloid population—5–25%
• Asian population—5%
• Caucasian population—4.2%
a. CPITN probe with Bands between 3.5–5.5 mm
• African population—3%
and 8.5–11.5 mm
b. CPITN probe with Bands between 3–5 mm and Ref.: Int Endod J. 2004 Nov;37(11):789-99.
8–11 mm 76. Definite treatment for the condition shown in radi-
c. Marquis Color-coded Probe having Calibra- ograph below is:
tions are in 3-mm sections AIIMS SRSHIP Endodontic July 2016 Paper
d. WHO probe markings at 3.5, 8.5, and 11.5 mm
Ans a. CPITN probe with Bands between 3.5–5.5 mm
and 8.5–11.5 mm
74. Identify the artery marked in the below specimen of
brain: AIIMS May Medical 2016
a. Apexogenesis
b. Revascularization
c. Calcium hydroxide apexification
d. MTA barrier formation
Ans b. Revascularization >> D. MTA barrier formation
Directly lifted from AIIMS research article.
VT
1.
j
o
Miscellaneous Questions CD
LU
TO
1 . For what purpose is the following used? 3. What are the splayed lines, which are being shown
in the following CBCT?

a. Intermaxillary fixation
b. LeFort 1 osteotomy a. Poor resolution Poor contrast
c. Genioplasty c. Subtraction radiography d. Metal artifact
d. None of the above Ans d. Metal artifact
Ans b. Lefort 1 osteotomy CBCT is cheaper than the CT, but the resolution and con -
It is a thermodrape L- plate, which is used in the ortho - trast of CT is better than CBCT Metal artifact is its one of
gnathic surgeries, as in lefort osteotomy. the other shortcomings. The radiation exposure of CT is
Ref : Textbook of Oral and Maxillofacial Surgery by 2000 pSv and that of CBCT is 20-314 pSv.
Neelima Anil Malik Ref: Oral radiology, 7th edition: White and Pharoah CD
2. What is the radiographic technique being shown in 4. When is the following removed in the case of uni -
the following color plate? lateral mandibular body fracture in a 50-year- old
TO
patient?
CD
a. Computed tomography CO
b. Cone beam computed tomography a. 1- 2 weeks 2-3 weeks
c. 'a' and ' b c. 3- 4 weeks d. 4-6 weeks
d. PSP Ans c. 3- 4 weeks
Ans c. la and ' b' Normally immobilization is done for 2- 3 weeks. For chil-
It can be CT or CBCT because both look the same. dren 1 week is subtracted. While in cases of 40 years and
Ref : Oral radiology, 7th edition: White and Pharoah above patients, 1 week is added.
Ref: Textbook of Oral and Maxillofacial Surgery by cells. This view is also known as the occipitomental view
Neelima Anil Malik or the PA axial view.
Ref: Oral radiology, 7th edition: White and Pharoah
5. A 6-year-old female came with lesion as seen in the
color plate. Patient had a fall 4-5 hours ago, having 7. At what angle the X-Ray beam is made to strike at
an impact with the ground. Mild swelling is seen the canthomeatal line in the below given radio-
under the chin. Radiograph is being shown in the graphic view?
color plate. No step is being found on palpation at
the lower border of the mandible. Even the occlu-
sion is normal. What will be the treatment?
a. 10° b. 20°
c. –10° d. –20°
a. Open reduction with mini plate and immobili-
Ans a. 10°
zation and soft diet
Ref: Oral radiology, 7th edition: White and Pharoah
b. Immobilization for 6 weeks and soft diet
c. Soft diet and patient under observation 8. Identify the immobilization technique in the color
d. Open reduction with dynamic plates and soft plate.
diet

Ans c. Soft diet and patient under observation
As seen in the radiograph, the fracture is not complete.
Moreover, there is no step formation, or the fracture is
undisplaced. So, there is no need to immobilize the max-
illa and mandible or any open reduction. Patient is given
antibiotics, analgesics and asked to be on soft diet as well a. Ivy loops b. Essig wire
as under observation. c. Bridal wire d. Erich arch bar
Ref: Textbook of Oral and Maxillofacial Surgery by Ans a. Ivy loops
Neelima Anil Malik Ref: Textbook of Oral and Maxillofacial Surgery by
Neelima Anil Malik
6. What view of radiograph is the following?
9. Identify the article shown in the color plate.
a. PA view cranium a. Mini plate

b. Reverse Towne’s view b. Reconstruction plate
c. Submentovertex view c. Arch wire
d. Water’s view d. None of the above
Ans d. Water’s view Ans a. Mini plate
Water’s view is a view to see the frontal sinus, maxillary Ref: Textbook of Oral and Maxillofacial Surgery by
sinus, sphenoid sinus, odontoid process and ethmoid Neelima Anil Malik
10. Identify the crown in the color plate. 13. The category of waste collected in the bag shown
below:
a. Polycarboxylate crown b. Zirconia crown

c. Cheng crown d. Strip crown
Ans d. Srip crown
The strip crowns are bonded resin composite crowns,
which are perhaps the most esthetic of all the restora- a. Category 1 b. Category 2
tions available to the clinician for the treatment of severely c. Category 8 d. All of the above
decayed primary incisors. However, strip crowns are also Ans a. Category 1
the most technique-sensitive and may be difficult to place. Category 1- (Human anatomical waste)
11. The below image will represents zygoma reduction 14. Identify the type of instrument damage according
done by? to Sotokowa’s classification :
a. Type I b. Type II

c. Type III d. Type IV
Ans c. Type III

a. Poswillo bone hook approach
b. Quinn’s coronoid approach
c. Malar Hook approach
d. Carrol Girard screw
Ans a. Poswillo bone hook approach
12. Type of bone involvement according to Misch clas-
sification is.
a. Nabers probe
b. Marques color probe
c. WHO probe
d. Merritt B probe
Ans d. Merritt B probe
a. D1 b. D2 16. Identify the image.
c. D3 d. D4
Ans c. D3
a. Endo-Rayll 20. Identify the type of wiring.

b. Snapex film holder
c. Snap-A-Ray film holder
d. Crawford film holder system
Ans d. Crawford film holder system
17. Identify the type of wiring.
a. Kazanjian Button b. Ivy loop

c. Risdon d. Gilmer
Ans a. Kazanjian Button
21. The below picture clearly indicates paralysis of:
a. Kazanjian Button
b. Ivy loop
c. Risdon
d. Gilmer
Ans b. Ivy loop
18. Identify the type of wiring. a. Right glossopharyngeal N

b. Left glossopharyngeal N

c. Right hypoglossal N
d. Left hypoglossal N
Ans c. Right hypoglossal N
22. Identify the type of coronal dens in dente according
to Oehler.
a. Kazanjian Button
b. Ivy loop
c. Risdon
d. Gilmer
Ans d. Gilmer
19. What is used for IMF here?

a. Type I b. Type II
c. Type III d. Any of the above
Ans b. Type II
23. According to Shaw classification of subdivision of
taurodontism the image represents.
a. IMF screws
b. Locking screws
c. Heavy duty bicortical screws
d. Lag screws
Ans a. IMF screws
a. Hypotaurodont b. Mesotaurodont 27. The removable appliance shown in Figure is acti-

vated by:
c. Hypertaurodont d. Normal tooth
Ans b. Mesotaurodont
24. Identify the type of coronal dens in dente according

to Oehler.
a. Closing the coil

b. Opening the coil
c. Readaptation
d. Does not require any activation
Ans a. Closing the coil
a. Type I b. Type II 28. In cariogram the missing Figure will represent.
c. Type III d. Any of the above
Ans c. Type III
25. The below image represents.

a. Chance b. Division
c. Parents d. Staff
Ans a. Chance
a. Lymphangitis b. Lymphadenitis 29. Identify the international health agency.

c. Submucosal abscess d. All of the above
Ans a. Lymphangitis
26. The removable appliance shown in Figure is acti-

vated by.
a. Word bank b. WHO

c. UNICEF d. UNDP
Ans c. UNICEF
30. Identify the international health agency.
a. Closing the loop

b. Cutting its ends
c. Readaptation
d. Does not require any activation
Ans a. Closing the loop
Labial bow is activated by closing the loops by 1 mm
a. Word bank b. WHO 34. In the palsy the muscle which is paralyzed is.
c. UNICEF d. UNDP
Ans b. WHO
31. The image shown occurs most frequently in which

direction?
a. Levator palpebrae superioris

b. Orbicularis oris
c. Constrictor pupil
d. Dilator pupilli
a. Anteromedial side Ans b. Orbicularis oris is facial muscle
b. Anterolateral side
c. Posterior medial side 35. Act related to safeguard interests shown in photo-
graph was enacted in:
d. Posterior lateral side
Ans a. Anteromedial side
32. The below image represents.

a. 1948
b. 1971
a. Sialendoscope c. 1986
b. Duct opening dilator d. 1996
c. Lithotripsy handpiece
Ans c. 1986
d. Sialolith retractor
Ans a. Sialendoscope 36. What kind of illusion will shifting the height of con-
tour more gingivally create in the appearance of the
33. Name the isolation shown in the Figure. tooth?
a. Lengthening
b. Shortening
c. Narrowing
a. Optradam b. Instidam d. Widening
c. Handidam d. Liquidam Ans a. Lengthening.
Ans c. Handidam Indirect - Repeat from AIIMS SRSHIP PAPERS.
37. Identify this instrument. 40. A. If no root or bone resorption is evident, prepara-
tion should terminate 1.0 mm from the apical fora-
men. B. If bone resorption is apparent but there is
no root resorption, shorten the length by 1.5 mm.
C. If both root and bone resorption are apparent,
shorten the length by 2.0 mm. This recommenda-
tion was given by:
a. Titanium surgical insert

b. Sinus lift insert
c. Piezoelectric osteotomy insert
d. Periapical surgical osteotome a. Grossman b. Weine
Ans b. Sinus lift insert c. Kuttler d. Ingle
Ans b. Weine
38. What is the color of the no. 10 file of the following
file system? 41. Your diagnosis is:

a. Pink
b. Grey a. Lingua nigra
c. Purple b. Benign migratory glossitis
d. Teal c. Fissured tongue
Ans c. Purple d. Median rhomboid glossitis
• No. 6 is pink Ans a. Lingua nigra
• No. 8 is grey
42. Identify the image.
• No.10 is purple
39. Identify the instrument shown in following image.
a. Brook airway b. Water airway

c. Safar airway d. Guedel airway
Ans d. Guedel airway
Guedel (oropharyngeal) airway
The Guedel airway was first described in 1933 and is a hol-
a. SAF instrument
low partially flattened plastic tube formed in the shape
b. Apexum device of the superior surface of the tongue. It acts both to open
c. Finishing file the mouth and to lift the tongue from the hypopharynx,
d. Fine plugger so clearing the airway. The tip should lie in the orophar-
Ans b. Apexum device ynx. There arc up to seven sizes and size is approximated
by measuring from the midline (incisors) to the angle of 46. The following rubber dam clamp is used for:
the jaw. Adult sizes are 90–110 mm in length (size 3-5).
In adults the airway is inserted upside-down (convexity
downwards) until the soft palate is reached and it is then
rotated 180 degrees and advanced into place.
43. Identify the image.
a. Anteriors centrals b. Premolars

c. Molars d. Anteriors laterals
Ans c. Molars
47. Which fracture is cleary represented in the image?
a. Mean value articulator

b. Semi- adjustable articulator
c. Hinge articulator
d. None of the above
Ans c. Hinge articulator
44. Physiological response to which hormone seen in

Photograph?

a. Horizontal or Guerin or LeFort I fracture
b. Pyramidal or LeFort II fracture
c. Craniofacial disjunction, transverse or LeFort
III fracture
d. Any one of the above
Ans a. Horizontal or Guerin or LeFort I fracture
It is also called as horizontal fracture of the maxilla or
Guerin’s fracture. It is also known as floating fracture, as
a. Norepinephrine b. Epinephrine there is a separation of complete dentoalveolar part of the
c. Acetylcholine d. Adrenaline maxilla (pterygomaxillary disjunction) and the fractured
fragment is held only by means of soft tissues. The frac-
Ans d. Adrenaline
tured fragment is freely mobile and the resultant displace-
Fright-flight response-adrenaline
ment will depend on the direction of the force. Depending
45. Identify the image. on the displacement of a fragment, variety of occlusal dis-
harmony can be seen in this type of fracture (anterior open
bite, cross bite, reverse overjet, etc.)
48. Identify the appliance shown in image.
a. Rabbit force digital caliper

b. Correx gauge
a. Surveyor b. Alma gauge c. Dontrix gauge dynamometer
c. Willis gauge d. Boon gauge d. Boonguage
Ans b. Alma gauge Ans c. Dontrix gauge dynamometer
49. The below image represents: 50. Identify the instrument/device shown in photograph?
a. Vernier gauge b. Willis Bite gauge a. Endoscope b. LMA

c. Boley gauge d. Iwanson gauge c. Tracheostomy tube d. Endotracheal tube
Ans d. Iwanson gauge Ans b. LMA

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