S3 Practice Test

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Unit 1

Questions 1 and 2 are based on the passage below adapted from Greg Laden’s Blog, “Why the
Efe won’t normally kill an insect 1”.

The local culture is very uptight about babies and fertility issues generally. Some of this is spill
over from the village-dwelling horticultural Lese with whom the foraging Efe share a culture.
The Lese have a repressed fertility owing to a number of causes. When a fertility rule is broken,
a great deal of effort may be expended to fix it. As the reproductive ecologist Peter Ellison once
said, "The Lese and Efe are constantly afraid of overdrawing on the bank of fertility." One of the
most dangerous things you can do is to accidentally have twins. That's like going to an ATM
machine to get 100 bucks and the machine gives you 200 bucks. What do you do with the extra
money? Will you get caught? When you check your bank account later, will there be 100 or 200
bucks taken out? Will there be a fee? A fine?

An insect that you don't know about might be an insect linked to something important like
fertility, or if not fertility, something else. Better to just leave it alone and let it go on its own
way.

The Efe do not generally look at beliefs of other people with disdain. Rather, they figure that
those beliefs might be valid as well, and try to incorporate them in their routine.

So it makes sense that Efe would assume that an insect they've never seen before ... and in this
very species rich rain forest that is not as unlikely as it sounds, though it is certainly not a daily
occurrence ... has an importance of which they are simply unaware.

1 Efe concerns about fertility issues most likely derive from

A low fertility rates in the Efe.

B cultural attitudes about having twins.
C low fertility rates amongst the Lese.
D the killing of insects.

2 The Efe belief system could best be described as

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A reactionary.
B accommodating.
C superstitious.
D primitive.
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http://scienceblogs.com/gregladen/2011/08/the_reason_the_efe_wont_normal.php
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Unit 2

Question 3 is based on the graphic depicting the number of burglaries and drug offenses between
2003 and 2010 and a short passage that follows.

Drug offences go up, burglary goes down 2

The prevailing myth is that drug use is associated with crime and the drug user’s speciality is
burglary. “If only drugs were legal, users wouldn't have to commit crime, especially burglary”.

The data, however, doesn't want to sing that song. Since 2003, drug offences exploded. At the
same time, burglary offences fell.

There are a couple of ways to explain the paradox presented by the data:

•
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Target the drug offence, tackle the crime - Perhaps the data is telling us that the Police
should target drug offences. Finding an addict with a few crumbs of Class A heroin is
easier than catching him breaking and entering.
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• Misreporting - Crime data has become totally politicised. The police have a strong
incentive to register declines in key crime categories.

•
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Lower drug prices reduce crime - Another possibility is that lower prices of drugs reduce
the need to commit crime. Previously, it might have taken two criminal offences to
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secure a given amount of drugs; now it only takes one.

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http://ukhousebubble.blogspot.com/2010_12_01_archive.html
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Personally, I like the first explanation, but that might be because of my deep rooted antipathy to
drug takers.

3 The data presented in the graphic clearly shows that

A Drug prices began dropping in 2003, reaching their lowest point in 2010.
B Drug addicts are easier to catch than burglars, so police should target drug crimes.
C There is no correlation between the data on burglaries and drug use.
D Root causes behind the data can likely be found by examining policy and trends in
early 2005.

Unit 3

Question 4 is based on Graham Lloyd’s article “Half-truths and great white lies” depicting
Australian shark attacks between 1791 and January 17, 2012, and a short passage that follows 3.
.

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JUST north of Redhead Beach near Newcastle, NSW, where a 44-year-old surfer this week
became the latest victim of a seemingly endless summer of shark-attack fear, is one of the few
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known nursery areas for endangered great whites.

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3
From: The Australian, January 20, 2012 12:00AM
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It is a hot spot for the juvenile "man-eaters", the dangers of which have been seared into public
consciousness by Steven Spielberg's Hollywood blockbuster “Jaws”.

And despite the high numbers of sharks in the area and the fact that popular swimming beaches
are located within the juvenile great white zone there has never been a reported great white
attack in the area.

Consider the statements below and answer the question that follows.

I Great whites are not responsible for the recent attack on a 44-year-old surfer near
Redhead Beach in Newcastle, NSW.
II Great white sharks are more likely to attack humans than are tiger sharks and whalers due
to their size.
III On rare occasions shark attacks occur out of the ocean.
IV The media has exaggerated the likelihood of great white shark attacks.
V People are able to identify the kind of shark that attacked them with a high level of
accuracy.

4 Which of the statements above is supported by the graphic and/or passage?

A Statements I and II
B Statements II and IV
C Statements I, III, and V.
D Statements III, IV and IV.

UNIT 4

Question 5 is based on the passage below adapted from “Four Mistaken Goals of Children 4”.
Why does six-year-old Mikie keep banging his foot against the table leg at dinner? Most likely,
Mikie has no idea why he keeps doing it. But there is a reason.

"Stop banging the table leg, Mikie," mother said, annoyed. Mikie stopped momentarily but
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began again. Mother again scolded, and Mikie stopped again for a minute, but soon resumed his
behaviour.
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Mother reached over and cuffed her son upside the head and yelled, "I said stop that! You're
driving me crazy. Why can't you sit quietly and eat?"

Because Mikie's behaviour is producing results, he realizes that he has power and that he can
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win. From this exercise, we can conclude that Mikie wants his mother to notice him and give
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http://high-desert-design.com/rwilliams/mission1.htm
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him her attention. Once his mother is aware of this she can redirect her attention and change the
course of Mikie's behaviour.

By paying attention to children's positive behaviours, such as playing quietly, and putting toys
away, parents train them towards what Adler called the "useful side of life." By having his
annoying behaviours ignored, Mikie will discover that he isn't getting any response and not
achieving his goal. Eventually, he will stop these behaviours and tend to perform (move toward)
those behaviours that please his mother.

5 The passage suggests that

A children typically prefer positive over negative attention.

B Mikie’s behaviour is purposeful, even if Mikey doesn’t know the purpose.
C children who receive adequate attention do not misbehave.
D Mikie’s behaviour is the result of his mother’s poor parenting skills.

UNIT 5

Questions 6 to 9 are based on the passage below adapted from the Nature News article “Malaria
surge feared 5” and five reader comments that follow.

Malaria is one of the world's most deadly diseases, each year killing about 880,000 people,
mostly children in sub-Saharan Africa, according to the World Health Organization.

In many African countries, as well as India and North Korea, DDT is sprayed inside homes and
buildings to kill mosquitoes that carry malaria.

The scientists reported that DDT may have a variety of human health effects, including reduced
fertility, genital birth defects, breast cancer, diabetes and damage to developing brains. Its
metabolite, DDE, can block male hormones.

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"Based on recent studies, we conclude that humans are exposed to DDT and DDE, that indoor
residual spraying can result in substantial exposure and that DDT may pose a risk for human
populations," the scientists wrote in their consensus statement, published online today in the
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journal Environmental Health Perspectives.

"This is a global issue," Eskenazi said. "We need to enforce the Stockholm Convention and to
have a plan for each country to phase out DDT, and if they feel they can't, good reason why other
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options cannot work."

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Mexico, the rest of Central America and parts of Africa have combated malaria without DDT by
using alternative methods, such as controlling stagnant ponds where mosquitoes breed and using

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http://www.nature.com/news/malaria-surge-feared-1.10643
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bed nets treated with pyrethroid insecticides. But such efforts have been less successful in other
places, particularly South Africa.

"We have a whole host of mosquito species and more than one parasite. The biology of the
vectors is different and there is therefore no one-method-fits-all strategy, as is the case in Central
America," Bouwman, world renown mosquito researcher, said. “For example”, he said, “some
types of mosquitoes in South Africa breed in running water, which cannot be easily controlled”.

"The area to be covered is also vast, and infrastructure in most areas is too little to allow
environmental management on a sustainable basis without DDT," he said.

6 Scientists investigating effects of DDT on humans

A support strict enforcement of the world-wide ban on DDT.

B recommend that DDT be phased out completely.
C recognize that DDT may be the only solution in certain circumstances.
D claim that the risks of using DDT outweigh the benefits.

Questions 7 to 9

Comment 1

The pure hypocrisy of these American eco-colonialists makes me livid. Imagine these western
elites telling Africans how to deal with malaria! One-million or more Africans--mainly women
and infants--die of malaria each and every year--and this "panel's" advice: don't use DDT! Why?
Because of "reduced fertility" and "breast cancer." The alleged linkage of breast (or any other
cancer) and DDT has been sought and not found for over a decade. DDT was banned by the EPA
administration in 1972 against the advice of the scientific advisory panel. There remains no
evidence of significant adverse human health effects, which was true even at the massive overuse
levels of the 1960s. Their "concern" over the "potential effects of DDT use on future
generations" would be obviated by the loss of these generations to malaria without DDT.

Leave Africa to the Africans, and let's reduce the frightful toll of malaria in Africa with indoor
spraying of DDT. And meanwhile, let us ask ourselves a very important question, why did we
ban only DDT after we wiped out malaria in the US and Europe?
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Comment II

I am really shocked and enraged to find that DDT is back - of course it is harmful to humans, and
everyone else. Those who support the use of DDT do so in contravention of a body of research
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that clearly demonstrates significant health risks associated with DDT. What does all this
clamour to reinstate DDT do to further the development of inoculations? Are proponents of DDT
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unable to see that to eliminate malaria we must move forward, not backwards?
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Comment III

Let's see... 880,000 people, mostly children, a year suffering and dying vs. a possible increased
risk of low sperm count? The list of possible side effects is not unlike bis-phenol A. The most
effective solution to prevent over half a million child deaths a year should be denied for fear of a
Statistically questionable group of non-acute symptoms?

Comment IV

Using a simple and inexpensive solution of 28% Sodium Chlorite (NaClO2) and organic acids
such as lemon or lime juice, or 5% acid vinegar (15 drops NaClO2 to 1/2 teaspoon acid), Dr E.
Bodsworth creates Chlorine Dioxide to which he adds 4 ounces of apple juice or water. The
concoction is then ingested. With just one dose, blood tests have proven the total elimination of
Malaria from the body. After eliminating the malaria, the Chlorine Dioxide breaks down to a
minute amount of salt and water with no harmful side effects, no poisons, and no toxins. So why
isn't this being promoted more by world health agencies? Uh, let’s see; maybe it is more
profitable to do endless research to produce vaccines. I wonder who has the monopoly on DDT!

Comment V

Africa is a vast continent. Even if DDT has little adverse effect on humans, it would need to be
sprayed in colossal quantities which could have significant effects on biodiversity. Perhaps the
best solution is to improve the quality of life of Africans, so that they could afford repellents and
mosquito nets.

7 The author of comment III minimalises the

A effects of malaria.
B effects of DDT.
C effects of bis-phenol.
D value of DDT research.

8 According the author of Comment IV, which of the following is not a reason malaria
remains a serious and persistent problem?

A People do not know about Chlorine Dioxide.

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B Cures are withheld to justify malaria research.
C A vaccine for malaria will never be developed.
D World health agencies are causing malaria to spread.
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9 Taken as a whole, the passage and comments suggest that malaria

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A is the number one killer of poor people in sub-Sahara Africa.

B is a socio-economic and political problem as well a health issue.
C was prevalent around the globe before the introduction of DDT.
D can be eradicated if return to using DDT intensively but short term.
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Unit 6

Question 10 is based on the Theodore Roethke’s poem “The waking 6” and a table defining the
four most common forms of irony in literature that follows.

The Waking

I wake to sleep, and take my waking slow.

I feel my fate in what I cannot fear.
I learn by going where I have to go.
We think by feeling. What is there to know?
I hear my being dance from ear to ear.
I wake to sleep, and take my waking slow.
Of those so close beside me, which are you?
God bless the Ground! I shall walk softly there,
And learn by going where I have to go.
Light takes the Tree; but who can tell us how?
The lowly worm climbs up a winding stair;
I wake to sleep, and take my waking slow.
Great Nature has another thing to do
To you and me, so take the lively air,
And, lovely, learn by going where to go.
This shaking keeps me steady. I should know.
What falls away is always. And is near.
I wake to sleep, and take my waking slow.
I learn by going where I have to go.

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6
http://gawow.com/roethke/poems/104.html#top
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Verbal Irony
This form of irony arises from the contrast
between what is said and what is meant. At its
simplest we know verbal irony as sarcasm. In
its more subtle forms verbal irony may take the
form of a metaphor.
Dramatic Irony
This is the contrast between what the character
thinks to be true and what we (the readers)
know to be true. Dramatic tension arises from
the fact that the reader knows more about the
unfolding dramatic situation than the character
does.

Irony here derives from the contrast between
what is and what seems to be.
Tragic Irony
This is a form of dramatic irony in which a
character becomes a victim of disaster because
he or she misunderstands the situation or
underestimates the challenge or foe, while the
spectator or reader is aware of the truth of the
situation and feels anxiety on the character’s
behalf.
Irony here derives from the contrast between
what is and what ought to be.
Situational Irony:
This is the contrast between what happens and
what is expected (or what would seem
appropriate). Because it emerges from the
events and circumstances of a story it is often
more subtle and effective than verbal, tragic or
dramatic irony.

Irony here derives from the difference between Irony here derives from the contrast between
what is and what one wishes to be. what is and what one expects to be.

10 Which of the four types of irony defined above is the dominant irony underlying
Roethke’s poem?

A verbal irony
B dramatic irony
C tragic irony
D situational irony

ANSWERS 1-10
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There is no indication from the passage that the Efe suffer from low fertility rates, so
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option A must be eliminated. Option B is a symptom or outcome of the Efe and Lese concerns
about fertility issues, not the cause of that concern, so it too must be eliminated. Option C,
however, is supported. The passage tells us that the Lese, not the Efe have a repressed fertility
which gives rises to a number of concerns and taboos. The Efe concern with fertility, the second
sentence tells us, is “spill-over” from the Lese people with whom the Efe share a culture. Option
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D, like option B is the result or effect of Efe concerns about fertility, not a cause, so it too must
be eliminated. Option C is clearly the correct answer.
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(C)

2 Faced with several seemingly relevant options, candidates must look for the answer that
is best supported by the passage. To do this, they must discriminate between what they may think
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of Efe beliefs and rely on the clues the author provides. If the Efe respect and go so far as to try
to adapt the beliefs of others, they certainly are not reactionary (option A); they embrace rather
than reject change. Nor should we refer to their beliefs’ as being superstitious (option C) or
primitive (option D). The author does not pass such judgements, so neither should candidates.
The Efe respect and incorporate the beliefs of others into their routines. They are in short, highly
accommodating of the beliefs of others, making option B the correct answer.
(B)

3 Candidates must take care here not to confuse what the data says and what the author
speculates. He suggests that a drop in the price of drugs may have resulted in the need for fewer
burglaries and that this, in turn, resulted in fewer burglary arrests (option A), but this is sheer
speculation on the part of the author, not something the data tells us. Furthermore, we note that
the numbers of arrests for burglaries began increasing in mid-2005, not in 2003 as suggested in
option A. The author also speculates that it is easier to catch drug addicts than burglars, but,
again, the data does speak to this possibility, and option B can eliminated. Option C may or may
not be true. We cannot tell from the data alone if there is a causal relationship between drug and
burglary arrests or not. Option D is supported. Looking at the data presented in the chart we see
that the trend in drug and burglary arrests reversed itself early in 2005. Understanding what
happened by examining relevant factors including the political milieu, the cost of drugs, and any
policy or political changes in 2005 could likely explain why burglary arrests suddenly and
dramatically declined while drug arrests increase at just as suddenly and dramatically.
(D)

4 Statement I is supported. Although he was attacked in a great white shark nursery area
where great white juveniles are known to be present in great numbers, the passage tells us there
has never been a great white shark attack in the area. We can thus infer that the 44-year-old-
surfer was not attacked by a great white shark. Statement II, however, is not supported. The
graphic does depict the relative size of a human diver and the various sharks mentioned, but
there is no suggestion that great whites are more likely than tiger sharks or whalers to attack
humans because of their size. Statement III is supported by the graphic where we see dots
indicating shark attacks on land (most likely near river mouths) and definitely away from the
ocean. The media is mentioned, but Statement IV is not supported. The movie “Jaws” has
inspired fear of great whites but it has not exaggerated the likelihood (odds) of great white shark
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attacks. Statement V, like statements I and III, is supported. As the author can definitively say
that none of the attacks near the great white nursery have been carried out by great white sharks,
we can infer that people who are attacked are able to identify the sharks that attack them with a
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great deal of accuracy. As statements I, III, and V are supported, option C is the correct answer.
(C)

5 The passage suggests that children prefer negative attention over no attention, but we
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cannot tell if children prefer negative over positive attention. Option A, then, is not supported.
The passage does, however, support option B. Whether or not Mikie understands his motives, his
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aim is to get his mother’s attention; his behaviour is purposeful even if Mikie doesn’t know the
purpose. Option C is not adequately supported. We can see that children must be trained towards
the “useful side of life”, but certainly, nothing in the passage suggests that children who receive
ample positive attention will never misbehave as stated in option C. Option D is not supported.
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Although we could classify Mikie’s mother’s parenting skills as “poor” we cannot tell whether
Mikie would try to gain attention with negative behaviour if they were better.
(B)

6 Scientists include world renowned mosquito researcher Bouwman who recognizes that
the mosquito reduction strategies and toxins that worked in Central America and parts of Africa
are not universally applicable. From his statements we can see that DDT is needed still in
extreme circumstances. Options A and B can be eliminated, then, as at least some part of the
scientific community supports the use of DDT in some circumstances (option C). Option D can
be eliminated as Bouwman tells us the opposite; in some circumstances the benefits outweigh the
risks.
(C)

7 The author of Comment III adds the word “suffering” to the fatality statistics (880,000
people, mostly children, suffer and die” rather than simply telling us, as the passage does, that an
estimated 880,000 people a year die). S/he also reminds us malaria kills mostly children for
greater emotional effect. We cannot say, then, that the author minimalises the effects of malaria
(option A). The author does, however, minimalise the effects of DDT (option B) reducing them
to a “possible increased risk of low sperm count”. Because the passage does not elaborate on bis-
phenol we cannot tell for certain if the author of Comment II minimalises the effects of bis-
phenol. Option D is vague and not clearly supported by the passage. However, even though the
author minimalises the effects of DDT s/he does not seem to underestimate or undervalue
malarial research.
(B)

8 Candidates must take care here to look for the option that is NOT supported by the
passage. The fact that author introduces Chlorine Dioxide and gives the receipt for this simple
malaria cure, suggests that people don’t know about it. Option A is supported by the passage so
cannot be the correct answer. Option B is also supported. The author states research is profitable,
and a simple, inexpensive cure would curtail funding for vaccine research; this clearly implies
that cures are not promoted because researchers promote their own best interests. The author also
calls this research “endless” from which candidates can infer a vaccine will never be developed
as stated in option C – also supported so also incorrect. However, the author does not go so far as

supported, it is the correct answer.

(D)
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to state that world health agencies are responsible for the spread of malaria. As option D is NOT
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9 Option A can be eliminated quickly as neither the passage nor the comments tell how
malaria ranks in comparison to other diseases. Comment I tells us that DDT was not banned until
after malaria was eradicated in Europe and the US, but we cannot infer from this that it was once
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a globally prevalent, so option C is not adequately supported. Option D calls for knowledge not
presented in the passage or comments, and as we have no way of telling if intense, short-term use
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of DDT could eradicate malaria where conditions are toughest, it too must be eliminated. That
leaves option B, which is supported. Whether in favour of or against the use of DDT the passage
and the comments all make it clear that DDT is an inexpensive option for countries that can’t
afford anything better; thus DDT is a socio-economic issue. The 1972 worldwide ban on DDT
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supports that it is also a political issue. Furthermore, Comment I tells us to leave Africa (and
malaria) to Africans, while Comment V tells us that the way forward is to improve the income
and living standards for Africans. Option B, then, is clearly well supported while the remainder
are not.
(B)

10 To determine the type of irony underlying Roethke’s poem it is requisite that candidates
understand the poem on a whole. Although the literal subject of the poem is “waking”, the
implied subject is life (walking/going), death (sleeping) and the poet’s understanding of the two
and resulting transcendence to a higher level of consciousness (waking) that gives him a greater
understanding and appreciation of life. Although we tend to consider death as threatening and
foreboding, here death is described in organic terms as part of the ever-mysterious life-death-
rebirth cycle (“light takes the tree but who can tell us how?”). The “waking” described, is not
physical, but metaphysical (having to do with our understanding of the spiritual or unseen
world). Sleep is often equated with death, and here by sleeping, the persona familiarizes himself
with death to the extent he accepts rather than dreads it. (“I feel my fate in what I cannot fear.”)
Freed of the fear of death yet aware of the transience of life the persona more fully appreciates
life and his place in it; thus he “takes his walking slow” and learns the meaning of his life by
living it (“I learn by going where I have to go.”) Not everyone gains this awareness and joins the
ranks of those who truly live as is implied when the persona asks his companion “Of those so
close beside me, which are you?” (I.e. the living or the dead, the cognoscenti or the uninformed?)
Rather than knowing less than the reader about his situation, the persona is aware of this paradox
(situational irony) of life, so we can eliminate options B and C which both state the persona is
unaware of the underlying irony of his or her situation. Option A can also be eliminated. Despite
the reference to metaphor which brings poetry to mind automatically, the persona is sincere and
there is no indication words are being used ironically for sarcastic effect. Metaphor is employed
in the poem to communicate the ironic nature of life and death and, by implication, what the
persona knows about this paradoxical situation. The poem, then, is based on situational irony.
(D)

END OF S.1 FREE SAMPLE

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 BONUS 2 !

Section 2 Sample Questions

Writing task A

Consider the following comments and develop a piece of writing in response to one or
more of them. Your writing will be judged on the quality of what you have to say in
response to the theme, how well you organize and present your point of view, and how
effectively you express yourself. You will not be judged on your views or attitudes.

*******

The gap in our economy is between what we have and what we think we ought to
have—and that is a moral problem, not an economic one.

Paul Heyne

He who buys what he does not need steals from himself.

Author unknown

Economic advance is not the same as human progress.

John Clapham LE
People do not understand what a great revenue economy is.
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Marcus Tullius Cicero

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In the new economy, information, education, and motivation are everything.

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William J. Clinton
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Writing task B

Consider the following comments and develop a piece of writing in response to one or more of
them. Your writing will be judged on the quality of what you have to say in response to the
theme, how well you organize and present your point of view, and how effectively you express
yourself. You will not be judged on your views or attitudes.

*******

It is a good rule in life never to apologize. The right sort of people don’t want
apologies, and the wrong sort take mean advantage of them.

P.G. Wodehouse

More people should apologize, and more people should accept apologies when
sincerely made.

Greg LeMond

Apology is only egotism wrong side out.

Oliver Wendell

I felt bad, so I apologized. LE

Kimberly Johansen
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Apologies are for those who make them, not for those to whom they are made.

Gary Levine
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 Section 3
Questions 1-5

A Spirometer can be used to measure a number of different measurements with regards to the lungs
during different stages of the respiratory cycle. It is useful for both athletes and patients with respiratory
conditions, allowing medical professionals to easily measure the normal function and exerted function of
the lungs. Some of the measurements that are obtained from a spirometer are:

• Tidal Volume– the average volume of air that is changed with every resting breath.

• Vital Capacity – the volume of air that can be breathed in when the strongest exhalation is
followed by the strongest inhalation.

• Inspiratory Reserve Volume – the maximum volume of air you can breathe in over and above
normal inhalation.

• Expiratory Reserve Volume – the maximum volume of air you can breathe out over and above
normal exhalation.

• Total Lung Capacity – the sum of the residual volume and vital capacity.

Below is the Spirometer graph for an average adult human.

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1) What is the Tidal Volume for this individual?

A. 600 ml
B. 2700 ml
C. 4250 ml
D. 5500 ml

2) A measurement value of 1 dm3 is recorded. Which of the measurements below is this a reading for?

A. Vital Capacity
B. Inspiratory Reserve Volume
C. Expiratory Reserve Volume
D. None of the above

3) What is the Residual Volume for this individual?

A. 800 ml
B. 1000 ml
C. 1200 ml
D. 1500 ml

4) The Residual Volume for an individual can be expressed as a volume per Kg of body mass ( ml Kg-1).
If the individual that produced this spirometry graph had a weight of 588N, which of the values below is
the closest estimate of their residual volume?

A. 10 ml Kg-1
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B. 20ml Kg-1
C. 30ml Kg-1
D. 40ml Kg-1
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5) During exercise, which of the following increases?

A. Residual Volume
B. Inspiratory Reserve Volume
C. Tidal Volume
D. None of the above

Questions 6-8

Deoxyribonucleic acid (DNA) is used by most organisms as a biological ‘data storage system’, which is
used to encode the production of proteins using the ribosome and other cellular machinery. DNA is
comprised of 4 differing nitrogenous bases; Adenine (A), Guanine (G), Thymine (T) and Cytosine (C).
Groups of three of these bases are referred to as a codon, and the specific type and order of the bases
encode for different amino acids during protein synthesis. The genetic information is transferred from the
nucleus, where DNA is located, to the ribosomes for protein synthesis using mRNA.The below codon
wheel represents all the different combinations of DNA bases that are used to encode for amino acids.
The wheel is read from the inside ‘inner ring’ outwards. For example, all proteins begin with the start
amino acid Methionine (M), which is encoded for in DNA using the bases ATG. The complimentary
mRNA strand would be UAC. The outer BOLD LETTER is the single letter code for each amino acid.

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 LE
6) What would be the DNA base sequence to encode for the hexapeptide represented by the single letter
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amino acid code GAMSAT ?

A. GGGGCGATGAGCGCCACC
R

B. GGGGCGATTAGCGCCACC
C. TGTGCGATGAGCGCCTGA
FO

D. GGGGCGATGAGCGCCTGA
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7) How many different ways are there to encode for the tripeptide represented by the single letter amino
acid code DNA ?

A. 2
B. 4
C. 8
D. 16

The final question refers to this extra information. Nitrogenous bases always pair up in complementary
pairings. In DNA, these are GC and AT. In single stranded RNA, Thymine is replaced with Uracil, U.
During transcription, mRNA is produced as the complimentary strand of DNA. This occurs when the
double stranded DNA is unwound and separated into single strands. The strand that is used to produce the
mRNA strand is referred to as the template strand. The template strand itself is the complementary DNA
base sequence to the actual gene being copied on the other DNA strand, known as the coding strand. This
process is known as transcription.

8) If the DNA base sequence for a specific gene is ATGCATAT, then what is the base sequence of the
resultant mRNA strand produced from transcription?

A. TACGTATA
B. UACGUAUA
C. ATGCATAT
D. AUGCAUAU

Questions 9-11
The Haber-Bosch process was patented at the beginning of the 20th century to synthesize ammonia (an
important precursor for fertilizers) from Hydrogen and Nitrogen. It can be represented by the following
chemical equation:
𝑁𝑁2 (𝑔𝑔) + 3𝐻𝐻2 (𝑔𝑔) ⇌ 2𝑁𝑁𝑁𝑁33 (𝑔𝑔) LE
This enthalpy (ΔH) of this reaction is-92.28 kJ/mol and the Gibbs free energy (ΔG) is -10.9 kJ/mol at 298
SA
K The equilibrium expression for this reaction is
[𝑁𝑁𝑁𝑁3 ]2
𝐾𝐾𝐾𝐾 =
[𝑁𝑁2 ] ∙ [𝐻𝐻2 ]3
R

The relationship between the equilibrium constant defined by concentration (Kc) and the equilibrium
FO

constant defined by pressures (Kp) is:

𝐾𝐾𝐾𝐾 = 𝐾𝐾𝐾𝐾 ∙ (𝑅𝑅𝑅𝑅)∆𝑛𝑛

Where ∆𝑛𝑛 = 𝑚𝑚𝑚𝑚𝑚𝑚𝑚𝑚𝑚𝑚 𝑜𝑜𝑜𝑜 𝑔𝑔𝑔𝑔𝑔𝑔𝑔𝑔𝑔𝑔𝑔𝑔𝑔𝑔 𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝 − 𝑚𝑚𝑚𝑚𝑚𝑚𝑚𝑚𝑚𝑚 𝑜𝑜𝑜𝑜 𝑔𝑔𝑔𝑔𝑔𝑔𝑔𝑔𝑔𝑔𝑔𝑔𝑔𝑔 𝑟𝑟𝑟𝑟𝑟𝑟𝑟𝑟𝑟𝑟𝑟𝑟𝑟𝑟𝑟𝑟𝑟𝑟
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The relationship between the standard Gibbs energy change, the enthalpy change and the entropy change
(ΔS) is:
∆𝐺𝐺 = ∆𝐻𝐻 − 𝑇𝑇 ∙ ∆𝑆𝑆

9) If more Nitrogen gas is added to the reaction mixture after equilibrium has been reached, the
value of the equilibrium constant will be:

A. Higher
B. Lower
C. Unchanged
D. Unknown (depends on the amount of Nitrogen added)

10) For the Haber-Bosch process, what will be the relationship between Kc and Kp?

A. Kp > Kc
B. Kp < Kc
C. Kp = Kc
D. Kp = 2Kc

11) Which of the following is a correct statement describing the Haber-Bosch Process?

A. The entropy change for the reaction is negative because there is more disorder in the
product
B. The reaction does occur spontaneously because the change in the enthalpy is negative
C. The reverse reaction would be favored by low temperatures
D. The forward reaction would be favored by high pressures

Questions 12-15

buffer is made from a weak acid (HA) and its conjugate base (A-). When strong acid or strong base is LE
There is a special type of solution called “buffer”, which is able to keep the pH relatively constant. A

added to this solution, the conjugate base, or the weak acid, respectively react with it to diminish the
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effect of the strong acid or strong base on the pH by turning it into a weak acid or a weak base.
To calculate the pH of a buffer solution, the Henderson-Hasselbach equation is used:
[𝐴𝐴− ]
𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝 = 𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝 + log � �
[𝐻𝐻𝐻𝐻]
R

In this equation, 𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝 is the negative logarithm of the acid constant, [𝐴𝐴− ] and [𝐻𝐻𝐻𝐻] are the concentrations
FO

of the conjugate base and the weak acid that were used to prepare the buffer solution.
To prepare a buffer with a certain pH, an acid with a pKa close to the desired value of pH must be
selected. The following table shows the pKa of some common weak acids used to prepare buffers:
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 Acid HA A- pKa
Acetic CH 3 COOH CH 3 COO- 4.75
Ammonium Ion NH 4 + NH 3 9.25
Hydrocyanic HCN CN- 9.20
Hydrofluoric HF F- 5.60

12) Which of the following equations shows the correct chemical reaction that takes place when
hydrochloric acid (HCl) is added to a buffer made from hydrocyanic acid?

− −
A. 𝐻𝐻𝐻𝐻𝑙𝑙(𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎 ) + 𝐻𝐻𝐻𝐻𝑁𝑁(𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎 ) → 𝐻𝐻2(𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎 ) + 𝐶𝐶𝐶𝐶(𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎 ) + 𝐶𝐶𝐶𝐶(𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎 )
−
B. 𝐻𝐻𝐻𝐻𝑙𝑙(𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎 ) + 𝐶𝐶𝑁𝑁 − (𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎 ) → 𝐻𝐻𝐻𝐻𝐻𝐻(𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎 ) + 𝐶𝐶𝐶𝐶(𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎 )
−
C. 𝐶𝐶𝑙𝑙 − (𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎 ) + 𝐻𝐻𝐻𝐻𝑁𝑁(𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎 ) → 𝐻𝐻𝐻𝐻𝐻𝐻(𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎 ) + 𝐶𝐶𝐶𝐶(𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎 )
−
D. 𝐻𝐻𝐻𝐻𝑙𝑙(𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎 ) + 𝐻𝐻2 𝑂𝑂(𝑙𝑙) → 𝐻𝐻3 𝑂𝑂+(𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎 ) + 𝐶𝐶𝐶𝐶(𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎 )

13) Which of the following weak acids, combined with the corresponding conjugate base, would be
better suited to make a buffer with pH=9.0?

A. Acetic Acid
B. Ammonium Ion
C. Hydrocyanic Acid
D. Hydrofluoric Acid

14) Which of the following is a true statement describing buffer solutions?

A. When [A-] is higher than [HA] the pH of the buffer solution is higher than the pKa of the
weak acid.
B. When [A-] is lower than [HA] the pH of the buffer solution is higher than the pKa of the
weak acid.
C. When [A-] is equal to [HA] the pH of the buffer solution is higher than the pKa of the
weak acid.
D. When [A-] is higher than [HA] the pH of the buffer solution is equal to the pKa of the
weak acid.

15) A buffer solution was prepared by mixing 50 mL of 0.250 M Acetic Acid (CH 3 COOH) with 100LE
mL of 0.100 M Sodium Acetate (CH 3 COONa). Which of the following is closer to the pH of the
SA
buffer solution?

A. 4.95
B. 4.85
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C. 4.75
D. 4.65
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Questions 16-19
The Doppler effect is the phenomenon in which the frequency of the waves perceived by an observer
changes when the source is moving relative to the observer. When the source is moving and the observer
is stationary, the Doppler effect can be represented by the diagram below:

Human senses perceive the frequency of a sound wave as pitch. Low frequencies correspond to low
𝑣𝑣
pitches, and high frequencies correspond to high pitches. The frequency of a wave is defined as: 𝑓𝑓 = ,
𝜆𝜆
where 𝑓𝑓 is the frequency (Hz), 𝑣𝑣 is the sound velocity (343 m/s at 20 °C), and 𝜆𝜆 is the wavelength (in m).
Humans can hear sounds in the range between 20 - 20000 Hz.
When the source is receding at a velocity 𝑣𝑣𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠 , the observed frequency is:
𝑣𝑣
𝑓𝑓𝑜𝑜𝑜𝑜𝑜𝑜 = 𝑓𝑓𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠 � �
𝑣𝑣 + 𝑣𝑣𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠
When the source is approaching at a velocity 𝑣𝑣𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠 , the observed frequency is:

𝑓𝑓𝑜𝑜𝑜𝑜𝑜𝑜 = 𝑓𝑓𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠 �
𝑣𝑣
𝑣𝑣 − 𝑣𝑣𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠
�
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16) Which of the following observers would hear a sound with the highest pitch?
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A. An observer standing at the back of a speeding ambulance.

B. An observer standing at the front of a speeding ambulance.
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C. An observer sitting inside a speeding ambulance.

D. An observer standing on top of a speeding ambulance.
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17) Astronomers on planet Earth have observed that the observed wavelength of objects in space is higher
than their emitted wavelength. Which of the following conclusions can be drawn from this
observation?

A. Objects in space are moving closer to Earth.

B. Objects in space are static.
C. Objects in space are moving away from Earth.
D. Earth is moving towards objects in space.

18) An ambulance is moving at 15 m/s and emitting a sound with a frequency of 960 Hz. What will be the
frequency that an observer standing in front of the ambulance will hear? (assume the temperature of
air is 20 °C).

A. 1004 Hz
B. 960 Hz
C. 920 Hz
D. 1440 Hz

19) At what speed an ambulance that is emitting sound with a frequency of 770 Hz would need to travel
so that a human observer standing at the back of the ambulance would not hear the sound? (assume
the temperature of air is 20 °C).

A. 330 m/s.
B. 343 m/s.
C. 12900 m/s
D. 11300 m/s

Questions 20-24

Calcium (Ca2+ ) is essential for a number of biological functions. The blood plasma concentration, [Ca2+] is
regulated by the 4 Parathyroid glands, located within the neck behind the Thyroid gland, which produces
LE
Thyroxine. These 4 glands produce Parathyroid Hormone (PTH) in response to decreased plasma [Ca2+].
SA
There are many organs involved with the homeostasis of Calcium, including the Liver, Skin, Kidneys and
Intestines. Vitamin D is essential for the absorption of calcium, and is obtained from either the diet or
synthesised from endogenous precursors with the addition of UV light on the skin. Vitamin D deficiency
results in Rickets (bending of the bones) in children and Osteomalacia (weak bones, bone pain and
muscle weakness) in adults. Calcium and inorganic Phosphate (P i ) aremetabolised and stored together in
R

the bones as hydroxyapatite. The bones contain 99% of the body’s Calcium and 85% of the body’s
phosphate.
FO

The flow diagram below shows the interactions which result in Calcium homeostasis. (Negative feedback
interactions are shown with dotted lineswith no arrow head. The full mechanism of inorganic phosphate
homeostasis is not shown)
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20) If there is a decrease in plasma [Ca2+], then this results in;
LE
A. An increase in the plasma [P i ]
SA
B. An increase in Calcium deposition in the Bones
C. A decrease in P i absorption in the intestines
D. An increase in 1𝛼𝛼-hydroxylase activity
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21) Another name for Vitamin D is Cholecalciferol, which can undergo two hydroxylation modifications
in the liver and kidneys resulting in a molecule known as Calcitriol or Vitamin D 3 . Calcitriol has an:
A. Excitatory effect on the liver
B. Excitatory effect on the Kidneys
C. Inhibitory effect on the Intestines
D. Inhibitory effect on the Parathyroid glands

22) Calcitonin is a 32 amino acid peptide produced by the parafollicular cells in the Thyroid. Calcitonin is
released in response to increased plasma [Ca2+]. Which of the following is an expected biological effect of
Calcitonin?
A. Inhibitory effect on Osteoclasts, cells which break down bone tissue.
B. Excitatory effect on Osteoclasts, cells which break down bone tissue.
C. Excitatory effect on the kidneys, increasing Calcium resorption.
D. Excitatory effect on the kidneys, increasing1𝛼𝛼-hydroxylase activity.

23) During pregnancy, the hormone Prolactin is produced to help stimulate milk production. Milk is high
in Calcium, designed to help nourish the child once born. Prolactin has the same biological effect as
which of the following?
A. 25-hydroxyvitamin D 3 (25(OH)D 3 ) on the Liver
B. 1,25-Dihydroxyvitamin D 3 (1,25(OH) 2 D 3 ) on the Intestines
C. 1,25-Dihydroxyvitamin D 3 (1,25(OH) 2 D 3 ) on the Parathyroid glands
D. 25-hydroxylase on the Liver

24) Hyperparathyroidism results in the over production of PTH. Which of the following is an effect of
Hyperparathyroidism?
A. Low plasma [Ca2+],Low plasma [P i ]
B. High plasma [Ca2+],Low plasma [P i ]
C.
D.
Low plasma [Ca2+],High plasma [P i ]
High plasma [Ca2+],High plasma [P i ] LE
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Questions 25-27

Haemophilia is a genetic disease caused by a mutation found on the X Chromosome. If the offspring
inherit the defective gene/s, then they cannot produce enough of clotting factor VIII, which is part of the
coagulation cascade. This results in excessive bleeding after trauma, which can be potentially life
threatening.

Below is a family tree diagram for a family with inherited haemophilia.

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25) What is the most likely genotype of the ‘Unknown Parentage’ for the above Family Tree?

26) What is the statistical genotype distribution ratio for the offspring when an affected male has children
with an unaffected female?
A. 1:1
B. 1:2:1
C. 1:1:1:1
D. None of the above

27) Which of the following statements below is correct with regards to expressing haemophilia.
A. Haemophilia is caused by a dominant gene, affected males are homozygous whereas affected
females are heterozygous.
B. Haemophilia is caused by a dominant gene, affected males are heterozygous
females are homozygous.
C. Haemophilia is caused by a recessive gene, affected males are homozygous
LE
whereas affected

whereas affected
females are heterozygous.
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D. Haemophilia is caused by a recessive gene, affected males are heterozygous whereas affected
females are homozygous.
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Questions 28-32
The Grignard reaction is one of the most important reactions in organic chemistry due to its versatility to
form new carbon-carbon bonds. Grignard reagents are made by reacting an alkyl halide in an anhydrous
dissolvent:
𝐸𝐸𝑡𝑡 2 𝑂𝑂 𝑜𝑜𝑜𝑜 𝑇𝑇𝑇𝑇𝑇𝑇 (𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎 ℎ𝑦𝑦𝑦𝑦𝑦𝑦𝑦𝑦𝑦𝑦𝑦𝑦 )
𝑅𝑅 − 𝑋𝑋 + 𝑀𝑀𝑀𝑀 �⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯� [𝑅𝑅 − 𝑀𝑀𝑀𝑀 − 𝑋𝑋]
(𝑋𝑋 = 𝐶𝐶𝐶𝐶, 𝐵𝐵𝐵𝐵, 𝐼𝐼)
(𝑅𝑅 = 𝐴𝐴𝐴𝐴𝐴𝐴𝐴𝐴𝐴𝐴 𝑜𝑜𝑜𝑜 𝐴𝐴𝐴𝐴𝐴𝐴𝐴𝐴 𝐺𝐺𝐺𝐺𝐺𝐺𝐺𝐺𝐺𝐺𝐺𝐺)

Adding a Grignard reagent to carbonyl compounds produces an alcohol with an additional carbon chain to
the existing ones on the carbonyl group:
𝑂𝑂 𝐻𝐻2 𝑂𝑂
|
|| + [𝑅𝑅 − 𝑀𝑀𝑀𝑀 − 𝑋𝑋] �⎯� 𝑂𝑂𝑂𝑂 − 𝐶𝐶 − 𝑅𝑅 + 𝑀𝑀𝑀𝑀𝑀𝑀𝑀𝑀𝑀𝑀
−𝐶𝐶 − |

28) Which of the following will react with a Grignard reagent to produce a primary alcohol?

A. Acetaldehyde (Ethanal)
B. Acetone (Propanone)
C. Carbon Dioxide (O=C=O)
D. Formaldehyde (Methanal)

29) Which alcohol is formed from the reaction of the Grignard reagent made from 1-bromobutane
with acetone (propanone) in the presence of water?

A. 2-methyl-2-hexanol
B. 2,3-dimethyl-2-pentanol
C. 2-hexanol
D. 3-methyl-2-pentanol
LE
30) If the first molecule from each of the following pairs is used to prepare a Grignard reagent, and
then reacted with the second molecule of the pair in the presence of water, which of the pairs
SA
produces 4-methyl-3-pentanol?

A. 1-bromopropane and propionaldehyde (propanal)

B. 2-bromopropane and acetaldehyde (ethanal)
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C. 2-bromopropane and propionaldehyde (propanal)

D. 1-bromopropane and acetaldehyde (ethanal
FO
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31) If the first molecule from each of the following pairs is used to prepare a Grignard reagent, and
then reacted with the second molecule of the pair in the presence of water, which of the following
pairs will not produce the alcohol shown below? (Bu = Butyl, Et=Ethyl, Me=Methyl).

𝐸𝐸𝐸𝐸
|
𝐵𝐵𝐵𝐵 − 𝐶𝐶 − 𝑀𝑀𝑀𝑀
|
𝑂𝑂𝑂𝑂

A. chloroethane and 2-hexanone

B. bromomethane and 3-heptanone
C. 1-iodobutane and 2-butanone
D. chloromethane and 2-heptanone

32) When the substrate that reacts with the Grignard reagent is an ester, the reaction proceeds in a
different way, as shown below:
𝑂𝑂 𝐻𝐻2 𝑂𝑂
𝑂𝑂
|| + [𝑅𝑅 − 𝑀𝑀𝑀𝑀 − 𝑋𝑋] �⎯� || + 𝑅𝑅′′𝑂𝑂𝑂𝑂 + 𝑀𝑀𝑀𝑀𝑀𝑀𝑀𝑀𝑀𝑀
𝑅𝑅′ − 𝐶𝐶 − 𝑂𝑂𝑂𝑂′′ 𝑅𝑅′ − 𝐶𝐶 − 𝑅𝑅

If the first molecule from each of the following pairs is used to prepare a Grignard reagent, and
then reacted with the second molecule of the pair in the presence of water, which of the pairs
produces Acetone (Propanone) and Ethanol?

A. methyl iodide and ethyl acetate

B. ethyl bromide and ethyl acetate
C. methyl iodide and methyl acetate
D. ethyl bromide and methyl acetate

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Questions 33-36
As a chemical reaction progresses, reactants get closer through the minimum energy pathway, called
reaction coordinate. The graph of free energy vs reaction coordinate is called “reaction coordinate
diagram” and it’s commonly used to study energy changes in chemical reactions. Reactants and products
are points where free energy is minimum, and the transition state has the highest energy. The figure below
shows a typical reaction coordinate diagram:

The chemical reaction progresses from left to right, and the difference in energy between the transition
state and the reactants corresponds to the activation energy (E a ). The difference in energy between
products and reactants is the overall energy released or absorbed by the reaction (ΔE). A negative value
for ΔE means that the reaction is exothermic and releases heat, while a positive value means that the
reaction is endothermic and absorbs heat.
The activation energy can change at different temperatures. To determine the value of E a, the Arrhenius
equation can be applied by measuring the rate constant (k) at two different temperatures (T) as shown
below:
𝑘𝑘2 𝐸𝐸𝑎𝑎 𝑇𝑇2 − 𝑇𝑇1
2.303 log � � = � �
𝑘𝑘1 𝑅𝑅 𝑇𝑇1 ∙ 𝑇𝑇2

R is the ideal gas constant. It has a value of 8.31

𝐽𝐽
𝑚𝑚𝑚𝑚𝑚𝑚 ∙𝐾𝐾
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33) The transition state is represented in the figure by:

A. A
B. B
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C. C
D. D
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 34) The activation energy (E a ) is represented in the figure by:

A. E 2 -E 3
B. E 1 -E 3
C. E 1 -E 2
D. E 3 -E 2

35) If the energy of the reactants is 30 J, the activation energy is 60 J, and the energy of the products
is 40 J, the overall energy of the reaction (ΔE) is:

A. 10 J
B. -20 J
C. 30 J
D. -10 J

36) The rate of a reaction increases by a factor of 10 when the temperature goes from 284 K to 300 K.
Which of the following is the best estimate of the activation energy (E a ) for this reaction?

A. 10 J/mol
B. 100 J/mol
C. 10kJ/mol
D. 100kJ/mol

Questions 37-41
Newton’s laws are fundamental to study the movement of objects. There are three laws. The first one,
also known as the law of inertia, states that a body will not modify its movement if no forces are applied
on it, or if the sum of all forces acting on it is zero. This is expressed mathematically as follows:

� 𝐹𝐹⃗ = 0 ⟺ 𝑣𝑣⃗ = 𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐

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Newton’s second law, also known as the fundamental principle, states that the acceleration that a body
experiences is proportional to the forces acting on it. Mathematically it is expressed as:
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� 𝐹𝐹⃗ = 𝑚𝑚 ∙ 𝑎𝑎⃗

Newton’s third law, or action-reaction principle states that when two bodies interact, there will be equal
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and opposite forces on each one of them. For two bodies A and B, this law is expressed as:
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������⃗
𝐹𝐹𝐴𝐴𝐴𝐴 = ������⃗
𝐹𝐹𝐵𝐵𝐵𝐵
In the figure, a block with mass M is located on a horizontal frictionless surface. The block is connected
to another block with mass m, which is hanging vertically from a rope that passes through an ideal pulley.
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The force of friction (Fs) is the force that a rough surface exerts on an object. It acts in the opposite
direction of motion. When the object is static, the force of friction depends on the coefficient of static
friction (µ s ) and the normal force (N) as shown below:

𝐹𝐹𝑠𝑠 = 𝜇𝜇𝑠𝑠 ∙ 𝑁𝑁
37) Which of the following forces is not acting on the block with massM?

A. Tension force (T) pointing right

B. Normal force (N) pointing up
C. Gravity (Fg) pointing down
D. Friction (Fs) pointing left

38) Which of the following statements is true regarding the system shown in the figure?

A. The Tension force (T) will be the same for both blocks
B. Increasing mass M will increase the acceleration of the system
C. Decreasing mass m will increase the acceleration of the system
D. The force of gravity acts only on the block with mass m

39) What is the acceleration of the system if M=8 kg, m=2 kg and g= 10 m/s2?

A. 1 m/s2
B. 2 m/s2
C. 4 m/s2
D. 10 m/s2

40) If the rope breaks at tensions higher than 24 N. What is the maximum mass m that can be hanged
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from the rope before it breaks?(considerM=6 kg,and g= 10 m/s2)
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A. 24kg
B. 6kg
C. 4kg
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D. 2kg
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41) If the surface is changed to a surface with µ s =0.5. What is the minimum mass M that will keep the
system in equilibrium? (consider m=2 kg, and g= 10 m/s2)

A. 2 kg
B. 4 kg
C. 6 kg
D. 8 kg

Questions 42-49

Oxygen is transported around the human body bound to Haemoglobin (Hb). Haemoglobin is an Iron
containing globular protein comprised of 4 peptide chains and is also an effective buffer by accepting H+
ions to form haemoglobinic acid. Haemoglobin is found within Erythrocytes (Red Blood Cells, RBC’s)
and each individual peptide is able to bind 1 O 2 molecule at its haem group, resulting in a total of 4 per
whole Haemoglobin protein. The arrangement of the Haemoglobin molecule means that as soon as one
oxygen molecule binds to a haem group, the molecule changes shape, making it easier for the next
oxygen to bind. This is known as positive cooperativity. This is the process that occurs when the
surrounding oxygen concentrations are high, such as in the lungs.

Below is a diagram known as the oxygen dissociation curve. It shows how the blood carries and releases
oxygen. The graph graphically represents the affinity of Haemoglobin for O 2 with changing partial
pressures of Oxygen. The partial pressure for O 2 changes throughout the body depending on the different
tissue’s respiratory needs. The below graph is for the average healthy adult.

(1 Torr = 133.322 Pa) (1 psi = 51.749 Torr) (1 atm = 101,325 Pa) (1 Torr = 1 mmHg)
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42) The partial pressure of oxygen within different areas of the body and external environment are stated
below:

• Atmosphere : 21 kPa
• Alveoli : 13.3 kPa
• Pulmonary Artery: 5.3 kPa
• Pulmonary Vein: 13.3 kPa

What is the average decrease in % in Haemoglobin Oxygen saturation levels from one complete
circulation of blood around the body after oxygen has just be absorbed?
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A. 95%
B. 75%
C. 45%
D. 25%
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43) Each tetramer of Haemoglobin has a total molecular weight of 64,458 gmol-1. Per 100 mL of Blood,
there is on average 15g of Hb. 1.34 mL of Oxygen can be bound per gram of Hb. The average adult
human has 5 L of Blood. Estimate what the total volume of Oxygen that an adult can absorb if all their Hb
is fully saturated?
A. 1.0 dm3
B. 1.3 dm3
C. 6.7 dm3
D. 8.6 dm3

44) What is the partial pressure of oxygen when the average Hb oxygen saturation is 50% ?
A. 5.06 atm
B. 1940.752 mmHg
C. 0.724 psi
D. 665,000 Torr

45) Carbon monoxide (CO) has a very high affinity for Hb (200–300 times that of oxygen in normal
adults). In situations where there is simultaneously enough oxygen and carbon monoxide to fully saturate
the Hb, these two ligands compete for the same binding sites, and the relative amount of each bound to
Hb is given by Haldane's first law:
%𝐻𝐻𝐻𝐻𝐻𝐻𝐻𝐻 𝑃𝑃𝐶𝐶𝐶𝐶
= 𝑀𝑀
%𝐻𝐻𝐻𝐻𝑂𝑂2 𝑃𝑃𝑂𝑂2

where M lies in the range 220–270 for normal adult Hb. If P CO = 0.08 mm Hg, P O2 = 80 mm Hg and
M=250, then what % of Hb is in the form HbCO?
A. 15%
B. 20%
C.
D.
25%
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46) The blue line on the first graph, and the graphs below, represent the oxygen saturation of
Haemoglobin when the partial pressure of carbon dioxide (P CO2 ) = 3 kPa. When the partial pressure of
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CO 2 is increased, such as during exercise, the respiring tissues require higher demands for oxygen for
aerobic respiration. Which of the orange lines below represents the shift in the oxygen dissociation curve
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for when the (P CO2 ) = 6 kPa?

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A. B.

C. D.

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47) When a foetus is developing in the uterus it is entirely dependent on its mother to supply it with
oxygen. Oxygenated blood from the mother runs close to the deoxygenated foetal blood in the placenta. If
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 the blue line represents the mothers blood haemoglobin oxygen association curve, which of the pink lines
represents that of the developing foetus?

A. B.

C. D.

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48) Carbon dioxide is also transported in the blood; however not all of it binds to Hb. Of the dissolved
CO 2 in the bloodstream, ≈95% of it diffuses into RBC’s whilst the remaining 5% stays dissolved in the
blood. Of the 95% CO 2 in the RBC’s, roughly 10-20% binds to Hb, forming Carbaminohaemoglobin
(Hb-CO 2 ). The other 75-85% is converted to Carbonic Acid (H 2 CO 3 ) using Carbonic anhydrase. This can
further dissociate into H+ and HCO 3 -. Finally the HCO 3 - moves out of the RBC’s, and is exchanged for a
chloride ion, Cl-. This overall process maintains a steep concentration gradient for carbon dioxide to
diffuse from respiring tissues into the RBC’s.

Which of the following is occurring when the RBC’s are in the lungs?
A. [HCO 3 -] increasing
B. [HCO 3 -] decreasing
C. pH increasing
D. pH decreasing

49) Which of the following would have the same effect on the normal oxygen Hb saturation curve (blue
line) as decreasing the pH of the blood?
A. Increasing P O2
B. Decreasing P O2
C. Increasing P CO2
D. Decreasing P CO2

Questions 50-53
Radioactive isotopes may lose particles from its nucleus in what is called “Radioactive decay”. This
decay can be modelled as a first-order chemical equation in which the disintegration rate (A) depends on
the number of particles (N) and the decay constant (λ):
𝐴𝐴 = 𝜆𝜆 ∙ 𝑁𝑁
The number of particles (N t ) at any given time (t) can be modelled as a function of the initial number of
particles (N o ) and the decay constant:

𝑁𝑁𝑡𝑡 = 𝑁𝑁𝑜𝑜 ∙ 𝑒𝑒 −𝜆𝜆∙𝑡𝑡 LE

The half-life (t 1/2 ) is the time it takes for the number of particles to decrease by half. It is inversely
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proportional to the decay constant
ln⁡
(2)
𝑡𝑡1 =
2 𝜆𝜆
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The radioactive decay of a set of 4 isotopes used for medical purposes is being studied. The figure below
shows measurements of the number of particles of each isotope at intervals of 10 days:
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50) Which of the following is the best estimate of the number of particles of B that decompose in the
first month?

A. 65 particles
B. 45 particles
C. 40 particles
D. 25 particles

51) Which of the following is the approximate value of t 1/4 for the radioactive decay of C?

A. 50 days
B. 30 days
C. 20 days
D. 10days

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52) What would be the estimated average rate of radioactive decay of A, between the first and the
second month?
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A. 0.33particles/day
B. 0.5particles/day
C. 0.75 particles/day
D. 1 particle/day
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53) Which is the most unstable radioactive isotope?

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A. A
B. B
C. C
D. D
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Questions 54-56
An unsaturated compound is one with a cycle, or a multiple bond. When looking at the molecular formula
of an organic compound, it is very useful to find the degree of unsaturation, also known as the Index of
Hydrogen Deficiency (IDH), in which the number of cycles or multiple bonds in the chemical structure
can be found from the number of atoms of carbon (C), nitrogen (N), halogens (X), and hydrogen (H):
2𝐶𝐶 + 2 + 𝑁𝑁 − 𝐻𝐻 − 𝑋𝑋
𝐼𝐼𝐼𝐼𝐼𝐼 =
2
54) Linoleic acid is a fatty acid with molecular formula C 18 H 32 O 2 . What is the degree of unsaturation
of this acid?

A. 3
B. 2
C. 1
D. 0

55) An unknown hydrocarbon has the molecular formula C 4 H 6 . The figure below shows four
proposed structures for the unknown hydrocarbon.

Which structure is not possible for the unknown hydrocarbon?

A. A
B.
C.
D.
B
C
D
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56) Which of the following molecular formulas corresponds to a compound with molar mass 107
g/mol and 1 degree of unsaturation?
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A. C 3 H 7 NO 3
B. C 2 H 5 NO 4
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C. C5H4N2O
D. C 4 H 9 NO 2
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Questions 57-59
In closed circuits with several generators or voltage sources the generalized Ohm’s Law can be applied.
This Law says that in a closed circuit with a continuous current, the algebraic sum of the voltage sources
(E n ) is equal to the product of the electric current (I) and the sum of the resistances (R n ) in the circuit:

� 𝐸𝐸𝑛𝑛 = 𝐼𝐼 ∙ � 𝑅𝑅𝑛𝑛

When resistances are placed in series, the equivalent resistance is:

𝑅𝑅𝑡𝑡 = 𝑅𝑅1 + 𝑅𝑅2 + 𝑅𝑅3 + ⋯
When resistances are placed in parallel, the equivalent resistance is:
1 1 1 1
= + + +⋯
𝑅𝑅𝑡𝑡 𝑅𝑅1 𝑅𝑅2 𝑅𝑅3
Two batteries with their positive terminals in the same direction are placed in series within the cylinder of
a flashlight as shown in the figure below:

In the figure, E 1 =16 V, R 1 =4 Ω, E 2 = 8 V, R 2 = 2 Ω, R 3 = 3Ω, R 4 = 6 Ω.

57) What is the resistance of the flashlight?
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A. 6Ω
B. 4Ω
C. 3Ω
D. 2Ω
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58) What is the resultant voltage from the batteries?

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A. 24 V
B. 20 V
C. 12 V
D. 8 V
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59) What is the current flowing in the flashlight?

A. 2A
B. 3A
C. 4A
D. 5A

Questions 60-64
A study into the feeding behaviour of baboons determined that this species’ feeding habits utilises a wide
variety of sources, including various types of worms, eggs, insects, reptiles, crabs, molluscs, small
mammals, fruits and young shoots. During this study, the year was broken down into two distinct parts:
The wet season and the dry season. Both the food abundance and preference changes dramatically for this
species depending on whether it is the wet or dry season, as well as the particular habitat that the baboon
resides in. For example, Grassland Baboons spend long hours extracting the swollen, underground bases
of grass stems. Baboons in drier and impoverished geographic ranges tend to characteristically utilise
hunting as the major part of their diet. The study clearly showed the importance that foods with high
water concentrations and high nutritional values had both in the wet and dry season – with succulent fruits
of wet season trees contributing to the majority of their food consumption, while the juice and sap from
cactus species were being utilised heavily in the dry season. These plant species with high water and
nutritional content can be so valued that their fruits can be extremely difficult to find towards the end of a
season, as the plants have been entirely harvested – sometimes causing the baboons to dramatically
change their diet towards the end of a season.

Table 3: The Utilization vs. Availability of various plant materials consumed by baboons in the wet
season

Food Item Utilization Availability

Plant Species % %
Naclea latifolia 22.81 13.79
Annona senegalensis
Parkia biglobosa
Syzygium giuneese
7.41
23.71
6.50
9.13
13.35
12.25
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Ficus capensis 6.58 12.92
Vitex doniana 4.70 10.46
Vitellaria paradoxa 7.40 9.13
Haemastosphis barteri 10.10 10.47
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Grewia molis 11.01 9.49

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Table 4: The Utilization vs. Availability of various plant materials consumed by baboons in the dry
season

Food Item Utilization Availability

Plant Species % %
Adansonia digitata 36.54 11.35
Magnifera indica 31.21 15.88
Oxytenanthera species 13.91 17.51
Ficus platyphlla 6.70 12.82
Cactus species 8.50 9.02
Borassus aethiopum 8.53 10.16
Diospyrus mespiliformis 6.73 11.71

60)
Which species in the dry season clearly takes the highest preference?
A. Magnifera indica
B. Ficus platyphlla
C. Adansonia digitata
D. Borassus aethiopum

61)
Vitex doniana is a large and succulent fruit, but takes the lowest preference ranking of all the wet season
plants due to its difficulty of accessibility. If we consider that that the preference value of Haemastosphis
barteri is 0.96, what is the closest value for thepreference of Vitex doniana?
A. 0.51
B. 0.44
C. 1.3
D. -0.3
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62)
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Two types of ficus species that both produce fruits are consumed all year round, ficus capensis and ficus
platyphlla. According to the tables 3 and 4, what conclusions can be drawn about this plant?
A. Ficus plants are consumed all year and are a highly favoured plant species.
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B. Ficus fruit is considerably more necessary in the dry season than the wet season.
C. Ficus capensis is less available than ficus platyphlla.
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D. Both ficus capensis and ficus platyphlla are relatively easy to find but not preferred.
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63)
Which species is most likely to have its fruit depleted by the end of the season?
A. Grewia molis
B. Oxytenanthera species
C. Haemastosphis barteri
D. Vitex doniana

64)
A particular family of baboons was found to heavily exploit a plant that grows an underground bulb with
a high water and nutritional content. This bulb made up much of the family’s diet for a specific time of
the year. It is most likely that this family is eating the bulb:
A. In the wet season in a rich geographical range.
B. In the dry season in a rich geographical range.
C. In the wet season in an impoverished range.
D. In the dry season in an impoverished range.

Question 65-67
A certain species of skink (Reptile, Lizard) that resides on the southern coast of Africa undergoes
Temperature-dependent sex determination (TSD). TSD is a type of environmental sex determination
experienced within the embryonic or larval stages of development, in-turn dictating the gender of the
offspring. This species of skink is sensitive to TSD and follows a very regular correlation between
ambient temperature and gender determination while producing offspring all year round. The gender of
this species also strongly influences several factors related to the individual’s life. For example, rival
males of this species are extremely territorial and often take part in confrontations that regularly results in
maiming or death. Males of this species also have brightly coloured bands across their backs, which is
thought to dramatically increase their rate of predation by birds and other reptiles.

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65)
Assuming that successful breeding takes place at an even rate all year round, what is the closest ratio of
male to female hatchlings each year?
A. 1:1
B. 1:4
C. 3:4
D. 2:1

66)
With the increase in temperatures brought about by climate change, what is most likely to occur in this
species in the future?
A. Attacks by birds will become more common.
B. Less members of the species will have missing tails.
C. Temperature-dependent sex determination will have less of an effect.
D. The month of April will see the gender ratio rise to 50:50.

67)
A subset of this species is also found in locations closer to the equator with more stable climates than
what is found in the case of the southern coastal species. Assuming that the breeding practices are the
same, it is likely that this species:
A. Has more males each year.
B. Has less predators.
C. Has less variance in the genders born year-round.
D. Nothing, as it is identical to the southern coastal species.

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Questions 68-72
Reactions that involve the movement of electrons are called oxidation-reduction reaction. Substances that
lose electrons (also called reducing agents) are oxidized, while substances that gain electrons (also called
oxidizing agents) are reduced. When an oxidation-reduction reaction takes place in a voltaic cell, the
reduction occurs at the cathode, and reduction occurs at the anode. The difference in potential for a
voltaic cell is known as the cell potential (E cell ), and the standard cell potential (E° cell ) is the cell potential
at 25 °C, 1 atm and with concentration of reactants and products equal to 1 M. It can be found by
applying the equation below:
𝐸𝐸°𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐 = 𝐸𝐸°𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐 ℎ𝑜𝑜𝑜𝑜𝑜𝑜 − 𝐸𝐸°𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎
The Gibbs free energy (ΔG) of the reaction can be found by knowing the number of moles of electrons
that are transferred in the reaction (n), the Faraday constant (F=96500 J/V mol e-), and the cell potential
(E cell ):
Δ𝐺𝐺 = −𝑛𝑛 ∙ 𝐹𝐹 ∙ 𝐸𝐸𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐
A positive value of E cell and a negative value of ΔG mean that the reaction is spontaneous.
At 25°C, the standard potential is related to the equilibrium constant K eq by:
0.06
𝐸𝐸°𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐 = ∗ log 𝐾𝐾𝑒𝑒𝑒𝑒
𝑛𝑛
The table below shows the standard reduction potentials of some electron carriers in the mitochondria at
pH 7.0:

Redox Reaction (half reaction) E’° (V)

2H+ + 2e- → H 2 -0.414
NAD + H+ + 2e- → NADH
+
-0.320
NADP+ + H+ + 2e- → NADPH -0.324
Ubiquinone+ H+ + 2e- → Ubiquinol 0.045
Cytochrome b (Fe3+)+ e- → Cytochrome b (Fe2+) 0.077
Cytochrome c (Fe3+)+ e- → Cytochrome c (Fe2+) 0.254
½ O 2 + 2H+ + 2e- → H 2 O 0.8166

68) Which of the following is the strongest reducing agent?

A. NADH
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B. NADPH
C. Ubiquinol
D. H2O
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69) What would be E’° for the reaction Ubiquinol + ½ O 2 + H+ → H 2 O + Ubiquinone?

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A. -0.8616 V
B. -0.7716 V
C. 0.7716 V
D. 0.8616 V
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 70) Which of the following reactions will not be spontaneous?

A. Cytochrome b (Fe2+)+Cytochrome c (Fe3+)→Cytochrome b (Fe3+)+Cytochrome c (Fe2+)

B. H 2 O + NAD+ → NADH + ½ O 2 + H+
C. NADPH + Ubiquinone→ NADP+ + Ubiquinol
D. H2 + ½ O2→ H2O

71) What is the best estimate for the Gibbs free energy of the reduction of NADPH by H 2 ? (Assume
F=100000 J/V mol e-)

A. -73400 J
B. -18800
C. 9400 J
D. 146800 J

72) What is the best estimate of the K eq for the oxidation of NADPH by Cytochrome c (Fe3+)?

A. 1.0 x 109.5
B. 19
C. 1.0 x 1019
D. 9.5

Questions 73-75
Carbohydrates are biomolecules composed of carbon and hydrogen, and many of them follow the
empirical formula (CH 2 O) n . This empirical formula represents the simplest ratio of elements in the
carbohydrate.
Monosaccharides are carbohydrates made of a single unit of ketone or polyhydroxy aldehyde. They can
exist in linear form, or also forming six-membered rings called pyranoses, or five-membered rings called
furanoses. There are several ways to represent monosaccharides, but one common way of doing it is by
using Fischer and Haworth projections. The following image shows the Fischer and Haworth Projections
of D-Galactose, and α-D-Galactopyranose, respectively (pyranoses and furanoses both can have α or β
prefixes depending on the position of the highlighted anomeric carbon below or over the plane,
respectively):
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73) Which of the following molecular formulas does not correspond to a carbohydrate?

A. C2H4O2
B. C3H6O3
C. C4H8O2
D. C 5 H 10 O 5

74) The image below shows the structures of D-Mannose, a common monosaccharide, and an
unknown structure X:

What would be an appropriate name for structure X?

A. β – D – Mannofuranose
B. α – D – Mannopyranose
C. β – D – Mannopyranose
D. α – D – Mannofuranose

75) The image below shows the structure of β – D – Fructofuranose, and four proposed Fischer
projections of the linear form of fructose:

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What is the appropriate Fischer projection for the linear form of fructose?
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A. A
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B. B
C. C
D. D
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