Jee Main

02/02/2023, 21:53 https://cdn3.digialm.
com//per/g28/pub/2083/touchstone/AssessmentQPHTMLMode1//2083O234/2083O234…
JEE 2023 Session-1 24th Jan to 1st Feb 2023

Application No 230310134798
Candidate Name DHARSHINI K
Roll No TN01009972
Test Date 01/02/2023
Test Time 9:00 AM - 12:00 PM
Subject B TECH
Section : Physics Section A
Q.1
Options 1.
2.
3.
4.
Question Type : MCQ

Question ID : 3666942483
Option 1 ID : 3666947821
Option 2 ID : 3666947822
Option 3 ID : 3666947820
Option 4 ID : 3666947819
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 4
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Q.2
Options
1.
2.
3.
4.
Question Type : MCQ

Option 1 ID : 3666947852
Option 2 ID : 3666947854
Option 3 ID : 3666947851
Option 4 ID : 3666947853
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 4
Q.3
Options 1.
2.
3.
4.
Question Type : MCQ

Option 1 ID : 3666947887
Option 2 ID : 3666947890
Option 3 ID : 3666947888
Option 4 ID : 3666947889
Status : Not Answered
Chosen Option : --
Q.4
Options 1.
2.
3.
4.
Question Type : MCQ

Option 1 ID : 3666947847
Option 2 ID : 3666947849
Option 3 ID : 3666947848
Option 4 ID : 3666947850
Chosen Option : --
Q.5
Options
1.
2.
3.
4.
Question Type : MCQ

Option 1 ID : 3666947868
Option 2 ID : 3666947869
Option 3 ID : 3666947867
Option 4 ID : 3666947870
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 3
Q.6
Options
1.
2.
3.
4.
Question Type : MCQ

Option 1 ID : 3666947843
Option 2 ID : 3666947845
Option 3 ID : 3666947844
Option 4 ID : 3666947846
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 3
Q.7
Options 1.
2.
3.
4.
Question Type : MCQ

Option 1 ID : 3666947824
Option 2 ID : 3666947826
Option 3 ID : 3666947825
Option 4 ID : 3666947823
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 3
Q.8
Options 1.
2.
3.
4.
Question Type : MCQ

Option 1 ID : 3666947818
Option 2 ID : 3666947817
Option 3 ID : 3666947815
Option 4 ID : 3666947816
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 4
Q.9
Options 1.
2.
3.
4.
Question Type : MCQ

Option 1 ID : 3666947841
Option 2 ID : 3666947839
Option 3 ID : 3666947840
Option 4 ID : 3666947842
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 2
Q.10
Options
1.
2.
3.
4.
Question Type : MCQ

Option 1 ID : 3666947857
Option 2 ID : 3666947855
Option 3 ID : 3666947858
Option 4 ID : 3666947856
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 1
Q.11
Options 1.
2.
3.
4.
Question Type : MCQ

Option 1 ID : 3666947830
Option 2 ID : 3666947827
Option 3 ID : 3666947829
Option 4 ID : 3666947828
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 1
Q.12
Options 1.
2.
3.
4.
Question Type : MCQ

Option 1 ID : 3666947875
Option 2 ID : 3666947878
Option 3 ID : 3666947876
Option 4 ID : 3666947877
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 2
Q.13
Options 1.
2.
3.
4.
Question Type : MCQ

Option 1 ID : 3666947862
Option 2 ID : 3666947860
Option 3 ID : 3666947861
Option 4 ID : 3666947859
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 3
Q.14
Options 1.
2.
3.
4.
Question Type : MCQ

Option 1 ID : 3666947835
Option 2 ID : 3666947836
Option 3 ID : 3666947838
Option 4 ID : 3666947837
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 3
Q.15
Options 1.
2.
3.
4.
Question Type : MCQ

Option 1 ID : 3666947882
Option 2 ID : 3666947879
Option 3 ID : 3666947881
Option 4 ID : 3666947880
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 3
Q.16
Options 1.
2.
3.
4.
Question Type : MCQ

Option 1 ID : 3666947833
Option 2 ID : 3666947834
Option 3 ID : 3666947831
Option 4 ID : 3666947832
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 2
Q.17
Options
1.
2.
3.
4.
Question Type : MCQ

Option 1 ID : 3666947863
Option 2 ID : 3666947866
Option 3 ID : 3666947865
Option 4 ID : 3666947864
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 2
Q.18
Options 1.
2.
3.
4.
Question Type : MCQ

Option 1 ID : 3666947811
Option 2 ID : 3666947814
Option 3 ID : 3666947812
Option 4 ID : 3666947813
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 1
Q.19
Options 1.
2.
3.
4.
Question Type : MCQ

Option 1 ID : 3666947871
Option 2 ID : 3666947872
Option 3 ID : 3666947874
Option 4 ID : 3666947873
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 4
Q.20
Options
1.
2.
3.
4.
Question Type : MCQ

Option 1 ID : 3666947884
Option 2 ID : 3666947885
Option 3 ID : 3666947883
Option 4 ID : 3666947886
Chosen Option : --
Section : Physics Section B
Q.21
Given --
Answer :
Question Type : SA
Q.22
Given --
Answer :
Question Type : SA
Q.23
Given --
Answer :
Question Type : SA
Q.24
Given --
Answer :
Question Type : SA
Q.25
Given --
Answer :
Question Type : SA
Q.26
Given --
Answer :
Question Type : SA
Q.27
Given --
Answer :
Question Type : SA
Q.28
Given --
Answer :
Question Type : SA
Q.29
Given --
Answer :
Question Type : SA
Q.30
Given --
Answer :
Question Type : SA
Section : Chemistry Section A
Q.31
Options
1.
2.
3.
4.
Question Type : MCQ

Option 1 ID : 3666947933
Option 2 ID : 3666947936
Option 3 ID : 3666947934
Option 4 ID : 3666947935
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 4
Q.32
Options
1.
2.
3.
4.
Question Type : MCQ

Option 1 ID : 3666947950
Option 2 ID : 3666947952
Option 3 ID : 3666947951
Option 4 ID : 3666947949
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 3
Q.33
Options
1.
2.
3.
4.
Question Type : MCQ

Option 1 ID : 3666947919
Option 2 ID : 3666947918
Option 3 ID : 3666947917
Option 4 ID : 3666947920
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 1
Q.34
Options
1.
2.
3.
4.
Question Type : MCQ

Option 1 ID : 3666947943
Option 2 ID : 3666947944
Option 3 ID : 3666947941
Option 4 ID : 3666947942
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 3
Q.35
Options
1.
2.
3.
4.
Question Type : MCQ

Option 1 ID : 3666947938
Option 2 ID : 3666947940
Option 3 ID : 3666947937
Option 4 ID : 3666947939
Chosen Option : --
Q.36
Options 1.
2.
3.
4.
Question Type : MCQ

Option 1 ID : 3666947930
Option 2 ID : 3666947931
Option 3 ID : 3666947932
Option 4 ID : 3666947929
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 3
Q.37
Options
1.
2.
3.
4.
Question Type : MCQ

Option 1 ID : 3666947969
Option 2 ID : 3666947970
Option 3 ID : 3666947971
Option 4 ID : 3666947972
Chosen Option : --
Q.38
Options
1.
2.
3.
4.
Question Type : MCQ

Option 1 ID : 3666947915
Option 2 ID : 3666947916
Option 3 ID : 3666947913
Option 4 ID : 3666947914
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 1
Q.39
Options 1.
2.
3.
4.
Question Type : MCQ

Option 1 ID : 3666947954
Option 2 ID : 3666947953
Option 3 ID : 3666947955
Option 4 ID : 3666947956
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 4
Q.40
Options
1.
2.
3.
4.
Question Type : MCQ

Option 1 ID : 3666947928
Option 2 ID : 3666947925
Option 3 ID : 3666947927
Option 4 ID : 3666947926
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 1
Q.41
Options
1.
2.
3.
4.
Question Type : MCQ

Option 1 ID : 3666947906
Option 2 ID : 3666947907
Option 3 ID : 3666947908
Option 4 ID : 3666947905
Chosen Option : --
Q.42
Options
1.
2.
3.
4.
Question Type : MCQ

Option 1 ID : 3666947948
Option 2 ID : 3666947946
Option 3 ID : 3666947947
Option 4 ID : 3666947945
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 2
Q.43
Options
1.
2.
3.
4.
Question Type : MCQ

Option 1 ID : 3666947902
Option 2 ID : 3666947904
Option 3 ID : 3666947903
Option 4 ID : 3666947901
Chosen Option : --
Q.44
Options
1.
2.
3.
4.
Question Type : MCQ

Option 1 ID : 3666947966
Option 2 ID : 3666947968
Option 3 ID : 3666947967
Option 4 ID : 3666947965
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 4
Q.45
Options
1.
2.
3.
4.
Question Type : MCQ

Option 1 ID : 3666947976
Option 2 ID : 3666947973
Option 3 ID : 3666947975
Option 4 ID : 3666947974
Chosen Option : --
Q.46
Options
1.
2.
3.
4.
Question Type : MCQ

Option 1 ID : 3666947924
Option 2 ID : 3666947921
Option 3 ID : 3666947923
Option 4 ID : 3666947922
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 4
Q.47
Options
1.
2.
3.
4.
Question Type : MCQ

Option 1 ID : 3666947911
Option 2 ID : 3666947909
Option 3 ID : 3666947912
Option 4 ID : 3666947910
Chosen Option : --
Q.48
Options
1.
2.
3.
4.
Question Type : MCQ

Option 1 ID : 3666947978
Option 2 ID : 3666947980
Option 3 ID : 3666947977
Option 4 ID : 3666947979
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 2
Q.49
Options
1.
2.
3.
4.
Question Type : MCQ

Option 1 ID : 3666947958
Option 2 ID : 3666947959
Option 3 ID : 3666947960
Option 4 ID : 3666947957
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 2
Q.50
Options
1.
2.
3.
4.
Question Type : MCQ

Option 1 ID : 3666947964
Option 2 ID : 3666947961
Option 3 ID : 3666947962
Option 4 ID : 3666947963
Chosen Option : --
Section : Chemistry Section B
Q.51
Given --
Answer :
Question Type : SA
Q.52
Given --
Answer :
Question Type : SA
Q.53
Given --
Answer :
Question Type : SA
Q.54
Given --
Answer :
Question Type : SA
Q.55
Given --
Answer :
Question Type : SA
Q.56
Given --
Answer :
Question Type : SA
Q.57
Given --
Answer :
Question Type : SA
Q.58
Given --
Answer :
Question Type : SA
Q.59
Given --
Answer :
Question Type : SA
Q.60
Given --
Answer :
Question Type : SA
Section : Mathematics Section A
Q.61
Options
1.
2.
3.
4.
Question Type : MCQ

Option 1 ID : 3666948064
Option 2 ID : 3666948066
Option 3 ID : 3666948063
Option 4 ID : 3666948065
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 2
Q.62
Options
1.
2.
3.
4.
Question Type : MCQ

Option 1 ID : 3666948043
Option 2 ID : 3666948044
Option 3 ID : 3666948045
Option 4 ID : 3666948046
Chosen Option : --
Q.63
Options
1.
2.
3.
4.
Question Type : MCQ

Option 1 ID : 3666948019
Option 2 ID : 3666948021
Option 3 ID : 3666948022
Option 4 ID : 3666948020
Chosen Option : --
Q.64
Options
1.
2.
3.
4.
Question Type : MCQ

Option 1 ID : 3666948018
Option 2 ID : 3666948015
Option 3 ID : 3666948016
Option 4 ID : 3666948017
Chosen Option : --
Q.65
Options
1.
2.
3.
4.
Question Type : MCQ

Option 1 ID : 3666948040
Option 2 ID : 3666948039
Option 3 ID : 3666948041
Option 4 ID : 3666948042
Chosen Option : --
Q.66
Options
1.
2.
3.
4.
Question Type : MCQ

Option 1 ID : 3666948070
Option 2 ID : 3666948067
Option 3 ID : 3666948068
Option 4 ID : 3666948069
Chosen Option : --
Q.67
Options
1.
2.
3.
4.
Question Type : MCQ

Option 1 ID : 3666948024
Option 2 ID : 3666948026
Option 3 ID : 3666948023
Option 4 ID : 3666948025
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 3
Q.68
Options
1.
2.
3.
4.
Question Type : MCQ

Option 1 ID : 3666948033
Option 2 ID : 3666948031
Option 3 ID : 3666948034
Option 4 ID : 3666948032
Chosen Option : --
Q.69
Options 1.
2.
3.
4.
Question Type : MCQ

Option 1 ID : 3666947999
Option 2 ID : 3666948002
Option 3 ID : 3666948001
Option 4 ID : 3666948000
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 2
Q.70
Options
1.
2.
3.
4.
Question Type : MCQ

Option 1 ID : 3666948047
Option 2 ID : 3666948049
Option 3 ID : 3666948048
Option 4 ID : 3666948050
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 1
Q.71
Options
1.
2.
3.
4.
Question Type : MCQ

Option 1 ID : 3666948029
Option 2 ID : 3666948030
Option 3 ID : 3666948028
Option 4 ID : 3666948027
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 3
Q.72
Options
1.
2.
3.
4.
Question Type : MCQ

Option 1 ID : 3666948005
Option 2 ID : 3666948003
Option 3 ID : 3666948006
Option 4 ID : 3666948004
Chosen Option : --
Q.73
Options
1.
2.
3.
4.
Question Type : MCQ

Option 1 ID : 3666948037
Option 2 ID : 3666948036
Option 3 ID : 3666948035
Option 4 ID : 3666948038
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 1
Q.74
Options 1.
2.
3.
4.
Question Type : MCQ

Option 1 ID : 3666947993
Option 2 ID : 3666947994
Option 3 ID : 3666947991
Option 4 ID : 3666947992
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 2
Q.75
Options 1.
2.
3.
4.
Question Type : MCQ

Option 1 ID : 3666948060
Option 2 ID : 3666948062
Option 3 ID : 3666948061
Option 4 ID : 3666948059
Chosen Option : --
Q.76
Options 1.
2.
3.
4.
Question Type : MCQ

Option 1 ID : 3666948007
Option 2 ID : 3666948008
Option 3 ID : 3666948009
Option 4 ID : 3666948010
Chosen Option : --
Q.77
Options
1.
2.
3.
4.
Question Type : MCQ

Option 1 ID : 3666948052
Option 2 ID : 3666948051
Option 3 ID : 3666948054
Option 4 ID : 3666948053
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 1
Q.78
Options 1.
2.
3.
4.
Question Type : MCQ

Option 1 ID : 3666948011
Option 2 ID : 3666948012
Option 3 ID : 3666948014
Option 4 ID : 3666948013
Chosen Option : --
Q.79
Options
1.
2.
3.
4.
Question Type : MCQ

Option 1 ID : 3666948058
Option 2 ID : 3666948057
Option 3 ID : 3666948056
Option 4 ID : 3666948055
Chosen Option : --
Q.80
Options 1.
2.
3.
4.
Question Type : MCQ

Option 1 ID : 3666947998
Option 2 ID : 3666947995
Option 3 ID : 3666947997
Option 4 ID : 3666947996
Chosen Option : --
Section : Mathematics Section B
Q.81
Given --
Answer :
Question Type : SA
Q.82
Given --
Answer :
Question Type : SA
Q.83
Given --
Answer :
Question Type : SA
Q.84
Given --
Answer :
Question Type : SA
Q.85
Given --
Answer :
Question Type : SA
Q.86
Given --
Answer :
Question Type : SA
Q.87
Given --
Answer :
Question Type : SA
Q.88
Given --
Answer :
Question Type : SA
Q.89
Given --
Answer :
Question Type : SA
Q.90
Given --
Answer :
Question Type : SA

Candidate Name VEDANTAM REVANTH SAI
Roll No AP11004582
Test Time 3:00 PM - 6:00 PM
Subject B TECH
Q.1
Options
1.
2.
3.
4.
Question Type : MCQ

Option 1 ID : 7155053526
Option 2 ID : 7155053523
Option 3 ID : 7155053525
Option 4 ID : 7155053524
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 1
Q.2
Options
1.
2.
3.
4.
Question Type : MCQ

Option 1 ID : 7155053553
Option 2 ID : 7155053551
Option 3 ID : 7155053554
Option 4 ID : 7155053552
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 4
Q.3
Options 1.
2.
3.
4.
Question Type : MCQ

Option 1 ID : 7155053573
Option 2 ID : 7155053574
Option 3 ID : 7155053572
Option 4 ID : 7155053571
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 3
Q.4
Options 1.
2.
3.
4.
Question Type : MCQ

Option 1 ID : 7155053588
Option 2 ID : 7155053590
Option 3 ID : 7155053589
Option 4 ID : 7155053587
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 4
Q.5
Options 1.
2.
3.
4.
Question Type : MCQ

Option 1 ID : 7155053516
Option 2 ID : 7155053515
Option 3 ID : 7155053517
Option 4 ID : 7155053518
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 2
Q.6
Options 1.
2.
3.
4.
Question Type : MCQ

Option 1 ID : 7155053585
Option 2 ID : 7155053583
Option 3 ID : 7155053586
Option 4 ID : 7155053584
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 4
Q.7
Options 1.
2.
3.
4.
Question Type : MCQ

Option 1 ID : 7155053550
Option 2 ID : 7155053549
Option 3 ID : 7155053547
Option 4 ID : 7155053548
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 3
Q.8
Options
1.
2.
3.
4.
Question Type : MCQ

Option 1 ID : 7155053539
Option 2 ID : 7155053540
Option 3 ID : 7155053542
Option 4 ID : 7155053541
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 1
Q.9
Options
1.
2.
3.
4.
Question Type : MCQ

Option 1 ID : 7155053569
Option 2 ID : 7155053570
Option 3 ID : 7155053568
Option 4 ID : 7155053567
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 4
Q.10
Options 1.
2.
3.
4.
Question Type : MCQ

Option 1 ID : 7155053535
Option 2 ID : 7155053537
Option 3 ID : 7155053536
Option 4 ID : 7155053538
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 1
Q.11
Options 1.
2.
3.
4.
Question Type : MCQ

Option 1 ID : 7155053581
Option 2 ID : 7155053580
Option 3 ID : 7155053579
Option 4 ID : 7155053582
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 4
Q.12
Options 1.
2.
3.
4.
Question Type : MCQ

Option 1 ID : 7155053561
Option 2 ID : 7155053560
Option 3 ID : 7155053562
Option 4 ID : 7155053559
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 4
Q.13
Options 1.
2.
3.
4.
Question Type : MCQ

Option 1 ID : 7155053546
Option 2 ID : 7155053545
Option 3 ID : 7155053544
Option 4 ID : 7155053543
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 1
Q.14
Options 1.
2.
3.
4.
Question Type : MCQ

Option 1 ID : 7155053558
Option 2 ID : 7155053556
Option 3 ID : 7155053557
Option 4 ID : 7155053555
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 1
Q.15
Options
1.
2.
3.
4.
Question Type : MCQ

Option 1 ID : 7155053578
Option 2 ID : 7155053577
Option 3 ID : 7155053576
Option 4 ID : 7155053575
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 4
Q.16
Options 1.
2.
3.
4.
Question Type : MCQ

Option 1 ID : 7155053520
Option 2 ID : 7155053519
Option 3 ID : 7155053521
Option 4 ID : 7155053522
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 3
Q.17
Options 1.
2.
3.
4.
Question Type : MCQ

Option 1 ID : 7155053511
Option 2 ID : 7155053514
Option 3 ID : 7155053512
Option 4 ID : 7155053513
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 1
Q.18
Options 1.
2.
3.
4.
Question Type : MCQ

Option 1 ID : 7155053527
Option 2 ID : 7155053529
Option 3 ID : 7155053528
Option 4 ID : 7155053530
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 1
Q.19
Options 1.
2.
3.
4.
Question Type : MCQ

Option 1 ID : 7155053532
Option 2 ID : 7155053531
Option 3 ID : 7155053534
Option 4 ID : 7155053533
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 1
Q.20
Options 1.
2.
3.
4.
Question Type : MCQ

Option 1 ID : 7155053565
Option 2 ID : 7155053563
Option 3 ID : 7155053566
Option 4 ID : 7155053564
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 1
Q.21
Given 21
Answer :
Question Type : SA
Status : Answered
Q.22
Given 2
Answer :
Question Type : SA
Status : Answered
Q.23
Given --
Answer :
Question Type : SA
Not Attempted and
Status :
Marked For Review
Q.24
Given 2
Answer :
Question Type : SA
Status : Answered
Q.25
Given 44
Answer :
Question Type : SA
Status : Answered
Q.26
Given --
Answer :
Question Type : SA
Q.27
Given --
Answer :
Question Type : SA
Q.28
Given --
Answer :
Question Type : SA
Q.29
Given --
Answer :
Question Type : SA
Q.30
Given 45.6
Answer :
Question Type : SA
Status : Answered
Q.31
Options 1.
2.
3.
4.
Question Type : MCQ

Option 1 ID : 7155053636
Option 2 ID : 7155053633
Option 3 ID : 7155053635
Option 4 ID : 7155053634
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 2
Q.32
Options 1.
2.
3.
4.
Question Type : MCQ

Option 1 ID : 7155053610
Option 2 ID : 7155053611
Option 3 ID : 7155053612
Option 4 ID : 7155053609
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 4
Q.33
Options 1.
2.
3.
4.
Question Type : MCQ

Option 1 ID : 7155053614
Option 2 ID : 7155053613
Option 3 ID : 7155053616
Option 4 ID : 7155053615
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 2
Q.34
Options 1.
2.
3.
4.
Question Type : MCQ

Option 1 ID : 7155053664
Option 2 ID : 7155053661
Option 3 ID : 7155053663
Option 4 ID : 7155053662
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 1
Q.35
Options 1.
2.
3.
4.
Question Type : MCQ

Option 1 ID : 7155053628
Option 2 ID : 7155053626
Option 3 ID : 7155053625
Option 4 ID : 7155053627
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 2
Q.36
Options 1.
2.
3.
4.
Question Type : MCQ

Option 1 ID : 7155053672
Option 2 ID : 7155053671
Option 3 ID : 7155053669
Option 4 ID : 7155053670
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 4
Q.37
Options 1.
2.
3.
4.
Question Type : MCQ

Option 1 ID : 7155053623
Option 2 ID : 7155053621
Option 3 ID : 7155053622
Option 4 ID : 7155053624
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 2
Q.38
Options 1.
2.
3.
4.
Question Type : MCQ

Option 1 ID : 7155053601
Option 2 ID : 7155053604
Option 3 ID : 7155053603
Option 4 ID : 7155053602
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 1
Q.39
Options 1.
2.
3.
4.
Question Type : MCQ

Option 1 ID : 7155053648
Option 2 ID : 7155053645
Option 3 ID : 7155053646
Option 4 ID : 7155053647
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 2
Q.40
Options 1.
2.
3.
4.
Question Type : MCQ

Option 1 ID : 7155053678
Option 2 ID : 7155053677
Option 3 ID : 7155053679
Option 4 ID : 7155053680
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 1
Q.41
Options
1.
2.
3.
4.
Question Type : MCQ

Option 1 ID : 7155053653
Option 2 ID : 7155053654
Option 3 ID : 7155053656
Option 4 ID : 7155053655
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 1
Q.42
Options 1.
2.
3.
4.
Question Type : MCQ

Option 1 ID : 7155053605
Option 2 ID : 7155053606
Option 3 ID : 7155053608
Option 4 ID : 7155053607
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 2
Q.43
Options 1.
2.
3.
4.
Question Type : MCQ

Option 1 ID : 7155053657
Option 2 ID : 7155053659
Option 3 ID : 7155053660
Option 4 ID : 7155053658
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 1
Q.44
Options
1.
2.
3.
4.
Question Type : MCQ

Option 1 ID : 7155053675
Option 2 ID : 7155053676
Option 3 ID : 7155053673
Option 4 ID : 7155053674
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 2
Q.45
Options
1.
2.
3.
4.
Question Type : MCQ

Option 1 ID : 7155053651
Option 2 ID : 7155053652
Option 3 ID : 7155053650
Option 4 ID : 7155053649
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 2
Q.46
Options 1.
2.
3.
4.
Question Type : MCQ

Option 1 ID : 7155053642
Option 2 ID : 7155053641
Option 3 ID : 7155053643
Option 4 ID : 7155053644
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 3
Q.47
Options 1.
2.
3.
4.
Question Type : MCQ

Option 1 ID : 7155053620
Option 2 ID : 7155053618
Option 3 ID : 7155053619
Option 4 ID : 7155053617
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 3
Q.48
Options 1.
2.
3.
4.
Question Type : MCQ

Option 1 ID : 7155053632
Option 2 ID : 7155053629
Option 3 ID : 7155053630
Option 4 ID : 7155053631
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 1
Q.49
Options 1.
2.
3.
4.
Question Type : MCQ

Option 1 ID : 7155053666
Option 2 ID : 7155053668
Option 3 ID : 7155053667
Option 4 ID : 7155053665
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 1
Q.50
Options 1.
2.
3.
4.
Question Type : MCQ

Option 1 ID : 7155053640
Option 2 ID : 7155053639
Option 3 ID : 7155053637
Option 4 ID : 7155053638
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 2
Q.51
Given 1583
Answer :
Question Type : SA
Status : Answered
Q.52
Given 0.7
Answer :
Question Type : SA
Status : Answered
Q.53
Given --
Answer :
Question Type : SA
Q.54
Given --
Answer :
Question Type : SA
Q.55
Given --
Answer :
Question Type : SA
Q.56
Given --
Answer :
Question Type : SA
Q.57
Given 2
Answer :
Question Type : SA
Status : Answered
Q.58
Given 3
Answer :
Question Type : SA
Status : Answered
Q.59
Given --
Answer :
Question Type : SA
Q.60
Given 13
Answer :
Question Type : SA
Status : Answered
Q.61
Options 1.
2.
3.
4.
Question Type : MCQ

Option 1 ID : 7155053699
Option 2 ID : 7155053700
Option 3 ID : 7155053701
Option 4 ID : 7155053702
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 3
Q.62
Options 1.
2.
3.
4.
Question Type : MCQ

Option 1 ID : 7155053736
Option 2 ID : 7155053735
Option 3 ID : 7155053738
Option 4 ID : 7155053737
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 3
Q.63
Options
1.
2.
3.
4.
Question Type : MCQ

Option 1 ID : 7155053732
Option 2 ID : 7155053734
Option 3 ID : 7155053733
Option 4 ID : 7155053731
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 2
Q.64
Options
1.
2.
3.
4.
Question Type : MCQ

Option 1 ID : 7155053757
Option 2 ID : 7155053755
Option 3 ID : 7155053758
Option 4 ID : 7155053756
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 4
Q.65
Options 1.
2.
3.
4.
Question Type : MCQ

Option 1 ID : 7155053708
Option 2 ID : 7155053707
Option 3 ID : 7155053710
Option 4 ID : 7155053709
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 1
Q.66
Options 1.
2.
3.
4.
Question Type : MCQ

Option 1 ID : 7155053692
Option 2 ID : 7155053694
Option 3 ID : 7155053691
Option 4 ID : 7155053693
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 1
Q.67
Options 1.
2.
3.
4.
Question Type : MCQ

Option 1 ID : 7155053739
Option 2 ID : 7155053742
Option 3 ID : 7155053741
Option 4 ID : 7155053740
Chosen Option : --
Q.68
Options
1.
2.
3.
4.
Question Type : MCQ

Option 1 ID : 7155053763
Option 2 ID : 7155053764
Option 3 ID : 7155053766
Option 4 ID : 7155053765
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 1
Q.69
Options
1.
2.
3.
4.
Question Type : MCQ

Option 1 ID : 7155053747
Option 2 ID : 7155053748
Option 3 ID : 7155053749
Option 4 ID : 7155053750
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 2
Q.70
Options 1.
2.
3.
4.
Question Type : MCQ

Option 1 ID : 7155053752
Option 2 ID : 7155053751
Option 3 ID : 7155053753
Option 4 ID : 7155053754
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 4
Q.71
Options
1.
2.
3.
4.
Question Type : MCQ

Option 1 ID : 7155053695
Option 2 ID : 7155053698
Option 3 ID : 7155053697
Option 4 ID : 7155053696
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 4
Q.72
Options 1.
2.
3.
4.
Question Type : MCQ

Option 1 ID : 7155053706
Option 2 ID : 7155053703
Option 3 ID : 7155053705
Option 4 ID : 7155053704
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 2
Q.73
Options
1.
2.
3.
4.
Question Type : MCQ

Option 1 ID : 7155053746
Option 2 ID : 7155053743
Option 3 ID : 7155053744
Option 4 ID : 7155053745
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 1
Q.74
Options
1.
2.
3.
4.
Question Type : MCQ

Option 1 ID : 7155053729
Option 2 ID : 7155053727
Option 3 ID : 7155053728
Option 4 ID : 7155053730
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 3
Q.75
Options 1.
2.
3.
4.
Question Type : MCQ

Option 1 ID : 7155053760
Option 2 ID : 7155053762
Option 3 ID : 7155053761
Option 4 ID : 7155053759
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 1
Q.76
Options 1.
2.
3.
4.
Question Type : MCQ

Option 1 ID : 7155053719
Option 2 ID : 7155053721
Option 3 ID : 7155053720
Option 4 ID : 7155053722
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 1
Q.77
Options
1.
2.
3.
4.
Question Type : MCQ

Option 1 ID : 7155053713
Option 2 ID : 7155053714
Option 3 ID : 7155053711
Option 4 ID : 7155053712
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 4
Q.78
Options
1.
2.
3.
4.
Question Type : MCQ

Option 1 ID : 7155053718
Option 2 ID : 7155053717
Option 3 ID : 7155053716
Option 4 ID : 7155053715
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 3
Q.79
Options 1.
2.
3.
4.
Question Type : MCQ

Option 1 ID : 7155053769
Option 2 ID : 7155053767
Option 3 ID : 7155053770
Option 4 ID : 7155053768
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 4
Q.80
Options 1.
2.
3.
4.
Question Type : MCQ

Option 1 ID : 7155053724
Option 2 ID : 7155053726
Option 3 ID : 7155053725
Option 4 ID : 7155053723
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 4
Q.81
Given --
Answer :
Question Type : SA
Q.82
Given 14
Answer :
Question Type : SA
Status : Answered
Q.83
Given 0
Answer :
Question Type : SA
Status : Answered
Q.84
Given 2
Answer :
Question Type : SA
Status : Answered
Q.85
Given 0
Answer :
Question Type : SA
Status : Answered
Q.86
Given --
Answer :
Question Type : SA
Q.87
Given --
Answer :
Question Type : SA
Q.88
Given --
Answer :
Question Type : SA
Q.89
Given --
Answer :
Question Type : SA
Q.90
Given 2
Answer :
Question Type : SA
Status : Answered

Candidate Name AYUSH KUMAR U
Roll No KK04001255
Subject B TECH
Q.1
Options 1.
2.
3.
4.
Question Type : MCQ

Option 1 ID : 7155054370
Option 2 ID : 7155054371
Option 3 ID : 7155054369
Option 4 ID : 7155054372
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 3
Q.2
Options 1.
2.
3.
4.
Question Type : MCQ

Option 1 ID : 7155054375
Option 2 ID : 7155054374
Option 3 ID : 7155054373
Option 4 ID : 7155054376
Chosen Option : --
Q.3
Options 1.
2.
3.
4.
Question Type : MCQ

Option 1 ID : 7155054364
Option 2 ID : 7155054363
Option 3 ID : 7155054362
Option 4 ID : 7155054361
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 4
Q.4
Options 1.
2.
3.
4.
Question Type : MCQ

Option 1 ID : 7155054389
Option 2 ID : 7155054390
Option 3 ID : 7155054391
Option 4 ID : 7155054392
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 3
Q.5
Options 1.
2.
3.
4.
Question Type : MCQ

Option 1 ID : 7155054379
Option 2 ID : 7155054380
Option 3 ID : 7155054377
Option 4 ID : 7155054378
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 3
Q.6
Options
1.
2.
3.
4.
Question Type : MCQ

Option 1 ID : 7155054394
Option 2 ID : 7155054395
Option 3 ID : 7155054393
Option 4 ID : 7155054396
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 3
Q.7
Options 1.
2.
3.
4.
Question Type : MCQ

Option 1 ID : 7155054398
Option 2 ID : 7155054399
Option 3 ID : 7155054397
Option 4 ID : 7155054400
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 1
Q.8
Options 1.
2.
3.
4.
Question Type : MCQ

Option 1 ID : 7155054332
Option 2 ID : 7155054331
Option 3 ID : 7155054329
Option 4 ID : 7155054330
Chosen Option : --
Q.9
Options 1.
2.
3.
4.
Question Type : MCQ

Option 1 ID : 7155054355
Option 2 ID : 7155054356
Option 3 ID : 7155054353
Option 4 ID : 7155054354
Chosen Option : --
Q.10
Options
1.
2.
3.
4.
Question Type : MCQ

Option 1 ID : 7155054339
Option 2 ID : 7155054338
Option 3 ID : 7155054340
Option 4 ID : 7155054337
Chosen Option : --
Q.11
Options 1.
2.
3.
4.
Question Type : MCQ

Option 1 ID : 7155054365
Option 2 ID : 7155054366
Option 3 ID : 7155054368
Option 4 ID : 7155054367
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 1
Q.12
Options 1.
2.
3.
4.
Question Type : MCQ

Option 1 ID : 7155054344
Option 2 ID : 7155054342
Option 3 ID : 7155054341
Option 4 ID : 7155054343
Chosen Option : --
Q.13
Options 1.
2.
3.
4.
Question Type : MCQ

Option 1 ID : 7155054384
Option 2 ID : 7155054383
Option 3 ID : 7155054382
Option 4 ID : 7155054381
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 1
Q.14
Options
1.
2.
3.
4.
Question Type : MCQ

Option 1 ID : 7155054388
Option 2 ID : 7155054387
Option 3 ID : 7155054386
Option 4 ID : 7155054385
Chosen Option : --
Q.15
Options 1.
2.
3.
4.
Question Type : MCQ

Option 1 ID : 7155054336
Option 2 ID : 7155054335
Option 3 ID : 7155054333
Option 4 ID : 7155054334
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 3
Q.16
Options
1.
2.
3.
4.
Question Type : MCQ

Option 1 ID : 7155054357
Option 2 ID : 7155054358
Option 3 ID : 7155054359
Option 4 ID : 7155054360
Chosen Option : --
Q.17
Options 1.
2.
3.
4.
Question Type : MCQ

Option 1 ID : 7155054327
Option 2 ID : 7155054328
Option 3 ID : 7155054325
Option 4 ID : 7155054326
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 2
Q.18
Options 1.
2.
3.
4.
Question Type : MCQ

Option 1 ID : 7155054345
Option 2 ID : 7155054346
Option 3 ID : 7155054348
Option 4 ID : 7155054347
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 1
Q.19
Options 1.
2.
3.
4.
Question Type : MCQ

Option 1 ID : 7155054351
Option 2 ID : 7155054349
Option 3 ID : 7155054352
Option 4 ID : 7155054350
Chosen Option : --
Q.20
Options 1.
2.
3.
4.
Question Type : MCQ

Option 1 ID : 7155054324
Option 2 ID : 7155054321
Option 3 ID : 7155054322
Option 4 ID : 7155054323
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 1
Q.21
Given --
Answer :
Question Type : SA
Q.22
Given --
Answer :
Question Type : SA
Q.23
Given 13
Answer :
Question Type : SA
Status : Answered
Q.24
Given 12.05
Answer :
Question Type : SA
Status : Answered
Q.25
Given --
Answer :
Question Type : SA
Q.26
Given 40
Answer :
Question Type : SA
Status : Answered
Q.27
Given 25
Answer :
Question Type : SA
Status : Answered
Q.28
Given --
Answer :
Question Type : SA
Q.29
Given --
Answer :
Question Type : SA
Q.30
Given 0.05
Answer :
Question Type : SA
Status : Answered
Q.31
Options 1.
2.
3.
4.
Question Type : MCQ

Option 1 ID : 7155054448
Option 2 ID : 7155054447
Option 3 ID : 7155054449
Option 4 ID : 7155054450
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 2
Q.32
Options 1.
2.
3.
4.
Question Type : MCQ

Option 1 ID : 7155054469
Option 2 ID : 7155054468
Option 3 ID : 7155054470
Option 4 ID : 7155054467
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 3
Q.33
Options
1.
2.
3.
4.
Question Type : MCQ

Option 1 ID : 7155054482
Option 2 ID : 7155054481
Option 3 ID : 7155054479
Option 4 ID : 7155054480
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 4
Q.34
Options 1.
2.
3.
4.
Question Type : MCQ

Option 1 ID : 7155054420
Option 2 ID : 7155054421
Option 3 ID : 7155054422
Option 4 ID : 7155054419
Chosen Option : --
Q.35
Options
1.
2.
3.
4.
Question Type : MCQ

Option 1 ID : 7155054471
Option 2 ID : 7155054474
Option 3 ID : 7155054473
Option 4 ID : 7155054472
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 1
Q.36
Options 1.
2.
3.
4.
Question Type : MCQ

Option 1 ID : 7155054489
Option 2 ID : 7155054488
Option 3 ID : 7155054487
Option 4 ID : 7155054490
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 1
Q.37
Options 1.
2.
3.
4.
Question Type : MCQ

Option 1 ID : 7155054435
Option 2 ID : 7155054438
Option 3 ID : 7155054437
Option 4 ID : 7155054436
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 1
Q.38
Options 1.
2.
3.
4.
Question Type : MCQ

Option 1 ID : 7155054414
Option 2 ID : 7155054413
Option 3 ID : 7155054412
Option 4 ID : 7155054411
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 3
Q.39
Options 1.
2.
3.
4.
Question Type : MCQ

Option 1 ID : 7155054454
Option 2 ID : 7155054451
Option 3 ID : 7155054452
Option 4 ID : 7155054453
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 2
Q.40
Options 1.
2.
3.
4.
Question Type : MCQ

Option 1 ID : 7155054486
Option 2 ID : 7155054483
Option 3 ID : 7155054485
Option 4 ID : 7155054484
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 4
Q.41
Options 1.
2.
3.
4.
Question Type : MCQ

Option 1 ID : 7155054443
Option 2 ID : 7155054446
Option 3 ID : 7155054444
Option 4 ID : 7155054445
Chosen Option : --
Q.42
Options 1.
2.
3.
4.
Question Type : MCQ

Option 1 ID : 7155054441
Option 2 ID : 7155054440
Option 3 ID : 7155054442
Option 4 ID : 7155054439
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 1
Q.43
Options 1.
2.
3.
4.
Question Type : MCQ

Option 1 ID : 7155054460
Option 2 ID : 7155054462
Option 3 ID : 7155054459
Option 4 ID : 7155054461
Chosen Option : --
Q.44
Options 1.
2.
3.
4.
Question Type : MCQ

Option 1 ID : 7155054428
Option 2 ID : 7155054429
Option 3 ID : 7155054427
Option 4 ID : 7155054430
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 1
Q.45
Options
1.
2.
3.
4.
Question Type : MCQ

Option 1 ID : 7155054463
Option 2 ID : 7155054464
Option 3 ID : 7155054466
Option 4 ID : 7155054465
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 2
Q.46
Options 1.
2.
3.
4.
Question Type : MCQ

Option 1 ID : 7155054431
Option 2 ID : 7155054433
Option 3 ID : 7155054434
Option 4 ID : 7155054432
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 4
Q.47
Options 1.
2.
3.
4.
Question Type : MCQ

Option 1 ID : 7155054456
Option 2 ID : 7155054457
Option 3 ID : 7155054458
Option 4 ID : 7155054455
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 1
Q.48
Options 1.
2.
3.
4.
Question Type : MCQ

Option 1 ID : 7155054424
Option 2 ID : 7155054426
Option 3 ID : 7155054425
Option 4 ID : 7155054423
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 2
Q.49
Options 1.
2.
3.
4.
Question Type : MCQ

Option 1 ID : 7155054418
Option 2 ID : 7155054416
Option 3 ID : 7155054415
Option 4 ID : 7155054417
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 3
Q.50
Options
1.
2.
3.
4.
Question Type : MCQ

Option 1 ID : 7155054475
Option 2 ID : 7155054478
Option 3 ID : 7155054476
Option 4 ID : 7155054477
Chosen Option : --
Q.51
Given --
Answer :
Question Type : SA
Q.52
Given --
Answer :
Question Type : SA
Q.53
Given 2
Answer :
Question Type : SA
Status : Answered
Q.54
Given --
Answer :
Question Type : SA
Q.55
Given 25
Answer :
Question Type : SA
Status : Answered
Q.56
Given --
Answer :
Question Type : SA
Q.57
Given 2
Answer :
Question Type : SA
Status : Answered
Q.58
Given --
Answer :
Question Type : SA
Q.59
Given 5832
Answer :
Question Type : SA
Status : Answered
Q.60
Given 4
Answer :
Question Type : SA
Status : Answered
Q.61
Options 1.
2.
3.
4.
Question Type : MCQ

Option 1 ID : 7155054534
Option 2 ID : 7155054533
Option 3 ID : 7155054535
Option 4 ID : 7155054536
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 3
Q.62
Options 1.
2.
3.
4.
Question Type : MCQ

Option 1 ID : 7155054550
Option 2 ID : 7155054551
Option 3 ID : 7155054552
Option 4 ID : 7155054549
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 3
Q.63
Options 1.
2.
3.
4.
Question Type : MCQ

Option 1 ID : 7155054530
Option 2 ID : 7155054532
Option 3 ID : 7155054529
Option 4 ID : 7155054531
Chosen Option : --
Q.64
Options 1.
2.
3.
4.
Question Type : MCQ

Option 1 ID : 7155054579
Option 2 ID : 7155054580
Option 3 ID : 7155054578
Option 4 ID : 7155054577
Chosen Option : --
Q.65
Options 1.
2.
3.
4.
Question Type : MCQ

Option 1 ID : 7155054523
Option 2 ID : 7155054521
Option 3 ID : 7155054522
Option 4 ID : 7155054524
Chosen Option : --
Q.66
Options 1.
2.
3.
4.
Question Type : MCQ

Option 1 ID : 7155054505
Option 2 ID : 7155054508
Option 3 ID : 7155054506
Option 4 ID : 7155054507
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 2
Q.67
Options 1.
2.
3.
4.
Question Type : MCQ

Option 1 ID : 7155054574
Option 2 ID : 7155054575
Option 3 ID : 7155054573
Option 4 ID : 7155054576
Chosen Option : --
Q.68
Options 1.
2.
3.
4.
Question Type : MCQ

Option 1 ID : 7155054543
Option 2 ID : 7155054542
Option 3 ID : 7155054544
Option 4 ID : 7155054541
Chosen Option : --
Q.69
Options 1.
2.
3.
4.
Question Type : MCQ

Option 1 ID : 7155054562
Option 2 ID : 7155054564
Option 3 ID : 7155054563
Option 4 ID : 7155054561
Chosen Option : --
Q.70
Options
1.
2.
3.
4.
Question Type : MCQ

Option 1 ID : 7155054567
Option 2 ID : 7155054566
Option 3 ID : 7155054565
Option 4 ID : 7155054568
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 4
Q.71
Options 1.
2.
3.
4.
Question Type : MCQ

Option 1 ID : 7155054572
Option 2 ID : 7155054569
Option 3 ID : 7155054570
Option 4 ID : 7155054571
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 4
Q.72
Options 1.
2.
3.
4.
Question Type : MCQ

Option 1 ID : 7155054502
Option 2 ID : 7155054501
Option 3 ID : 7155054503
Option 4 ID : 7155054504
Chosen Option : --
Q.73
Options 1.
2.
3.
4.
Question Type : MCQ

Option 1 ID : 7155054513
Option 2 ID : 7155054515
Option 3 ID : 7155054514
Option 4 ID : 7155054516
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 1
Q.74
Options
1.
2.
3.
4.
Question Type : MCQ

Option 1 ID : 7155054526
Option 2 ID : 7155054528
Option 3 ID : 7155054527
Option 4 ID : 7155054525
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 1
Q.75
Options 1.
2.
3.
4.
Question Type : MCQ

Option 1 ID : 7155054519
Option 2 ID : 7155054520
Option 3 ID : 7155054517
Option 4 ID : 7155054518
Chosen Option : --
Q.76
Options
1.
2.
3.
4.
Question Type : MCQ

Option 1 ID : 7155054560
Option 2 ID : 7155054557
Option 3 ID : 7155054558
Option 4 ID : 7155054559
Chosen Option : --
Q.77
Options 1.
2.
3.
4.
Question Type : MCQ

Option 1 ID : 7155054537
Option 2 ID : 7155054539
Option 3 ID : 7155054538
Option 4 ID : 7155054540
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 2
Q.78
Options
1.
2.
3.
4.
Question Type : MCQ

Option 1 ID : 7155054553
Option 2 ID : 7155054555
Option 3 ID : 7155054554
Option 4 ID : 7155054556
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 1
Q.79
Options 1.
2.
3.
4.
Question Type : MCQ

Option 1 ID : 7155054545
Option 2 ID : 7155054547
Option 3 ID : 7155054548
Option 4 ID : 7155054546
Chosen Option : --
Q.80
Options 1.
2.
3.
4.
Question Type : MCQ

Option 1 ID : 7155054510
Option 2 ID : 7155054511
Option 3 ID : 7155054512
Option 4 ID : 7155054509
Chosen Option : --
Q.81
Given --
Answer :
Question Type : SA
Q.82
Given --
Answer :
Question Type : SA
Q.83
Given --
Answer :
Question Type : SA
Q.84
Given 350
Answer :
Question Type : SA
Status : Answered
Q.85
Given 2880
Answer :
Question Type : SA
Status : Answered
Q.86
Given --
Answer :
Question Type : SA
Q.87
Given --
Answer :
Question Type : SA
Q.88
Given --
Answer :
Question Type : SA
Q.89
Given --
Answer :
Question Type : SA
Q.90
Given --
Answer :
Question Type : SA

Candidate Name YASH GANESH JADHAV
Roll No MR16001433
Subject B TECH
Q.1
Options 1.
2.
3.
4.
Question Type : MCQ

Option 1 ID : 7155054609
Option 2 ID : 7155054608
Option 3 ID : 7155054607
Option 4 ID : 7155054610
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 1
Q.2
Options 1.
2.
3.
4.
Question Type : MCQ

Option 1 ID : 7155054628
Option 2 ID : 7155054630
Option 3 ID : 7155054627
Option 4 ID : 7155054629
Chosen Option : --
Q.3
Options
1.
2.
3.
4.
Question Type : MCQ

Option 1 ID : 7155054594
Option 2 ID : 7155054593
Option 3 ID : 7155054591
Option 4 ID : 7155054592
Chosen Option : --
Q.4
Options
1.
2.
3.
4.
Question Type : MCQ

Option 1 ID : 7155054633
Option 2 ID : 7155054634
Option 3 ID : 7155054632
Option 4 ID : 7155054631
Chosen Option : --
Q.5
Options 1.
2.
3.
4.
Question Type : MCQ

Option 1 ID : 7155054615
Option 2 ID : 7155054617
Option 3 ID : 7155054618
Option 4 ID : 7155054616
Chosen Option : --
Q.6
Options
1.
2.
3.
4.
Question Type : MCQ

Option 1 ID : 7155054668
Option 2 ID : 7155054669
Option 3 ID : 7155054670
Option 4 ID : 7155054667
Chosen Option : --
Q.7
Options 1.
2.
3.
4.
Question Type : MCQ

Option 1 ID : 7155054625
Option 2 ID : 7155054624
Option 3 ID : 7155054626
Option 4 ID : 7155054623
Chosen Option : --
Q.8
Options 1.
2.
3.
4.
Question Type : MCQ

Option 1 ID : 7155054614
Option 2 ID : 7155054612
Option 3 ID : 7155054611
Option 4 ID : 7155054613
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 4
Q.9
Options
1.
2.
3.
4.
Question Type : MCQ

Option 1 ID : 7155054620
Option 2 ID : 7155054619
Option 3 ID : 7155054621
Option 4 ID : 7155054622
Chosen Option : --
Q.10
Options 1.
2.
3.
4.
Question Type : MCQ

Option 1 ID : 7155054597
Option 2 ID : 7155054596
Option 3 ID : 7155054595
Option 4 ID : 7155054598
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 2
Q.11
Options 1.
2.
3.
4.
Question Type : MCQ

Option 1 ID : 7155054647
Option 2 ID : 7155054650
Option 3 ID : 7155054649
Option 4 ID : 7155054648
Chosen Option : --
Q.12
Options 1.
2.
3.
4.
Question Type : MCQ

Option 1 ID : 7155054665
Option 2 ID : 7155054664
Option 3 ID : 7155054666
Option 4 ID : 7155054663
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 4
Q.13
Options 1.
2.
3.
4.
Question Type : MCQ

Option 1 ID : 7155054640
Option 2 ID : 7155054639
Option 3 ID : 7155054641
Option 4 ID : 7155054642
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 3
Q.14
Options 1.
2.
3.
4.
Question Type : MCQ

Option 1 ID : 7155054646
Option 2 ID : 7155054644
Option 3 ID : 7155054643
Option 4 ID : 7155054645
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 4
Q.15
Options 1.
2.
3.
4.
Question Type : MCQ

Option 1 ID : 7155054651
Option 2 ID : 7155054652
Option 3 ID : 7155054653
Option 4 ID : 7155054654
Chosen Option : --
Q.16
Options 1.
2.
3.
4.
Question Type : MCQ

Option 1 ID : 7155054605
Option 2 ID : 7155054606
Option 3 ID : 7155054604
Option 4 ID : 7155054603
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 2
Q.17
Options 1.
2.
3.
4.
Question Type : MCQ

Option 1 ID : 7155054637
Option 2 ID : 7155054635
Option 3 ID : 7155054636
Option 4 ID : 7155054638
Chosen Option : --
Q.18
Options 1.
2.
3.
4.
Question Type : MCQ

Option 1 ID : 7155054661
Option 2 ID : 7155054662
Option 3 ID : 7155054660
Option 4 ID : 7155054659
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 4
Q.19
Options
1.
2.
3.
4.
Question Type : MCQ

Option 1 ID : 7155054600
Option 2 ID : 7155054601
Option 3 ID : 7155054599
Option 4 ID : 7155054602
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 3
Q.20
Options 1.
2.
3.
4.
Question Type : MCQ

Option 1 ID : 7155054656
Option 2 ID : 7155054657
Option 3 ID : 7155054658
Option 4 ID : 7155054655
Chosen Option : --
Q.21
Given --
Answer :
Question Type : SA
Q.22
Given --
Answer :
Question Type : SA
Q.23
Given --
Answer :
Question Type : SA
Q.24
Given --
Answer :
Question Type : SA
Q.25
Given --
Answer :
Question Type : SA
Q.26
Given 105
Answer :
Question Type : SA
Status : Answered
Q.27
Given 1
Answer :
Question Type : SA
Status : Answered
Q.28
Given 32
Answer :
Question Type : SA
Status : Answered
Q.29
Given 24
Answer :
Question Type : SA
Status : Answered
Q.30
Given --
Answer :
Question Type : SA
Q.31
Options 1.
2.
3.
4.
Question Type : MCQ

Option 1 ID : 7155054714
Option 2 ID : 7155054713
Option 3 ID : 7155054716
Option 4 ID : 7155054715
Chosen Option : --
Q.32
Options 1.
2.
3.
4.
Question Type : MCQ

Option 1 ID : 7155054718
Option 2 ID : 7155054717
Option 3 ID : 7155054719
Option 4 ID : 7155054720
Chosen Option : --
Q.33
Options 1.
2.
3.
4.
Question Type : MCQ

Option 1 ID : 7155054749
Option 2 ID : 7155054752
Option 3 ID : 7155054750
Option 4 ID : 7155054751
Chosen Option : --
Q.34
Options
1.
2.
3.
4.
Question Type : MCQ

Option 1 ID : 7155054734
Option 2 ID : 7155054736
Option 3 ID : 7155054735
Option 4 ID : 7155054733
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 1
Q.35
Options 1.
2.
3.
4.
Question Type : MCQ

Option 1 ID : 7155054710
Option 2 ID : 7155054709
Option 3 ID : 7155054711
Option 4 ID : 7155054712
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 1
Q.36
Options 1.
2.
3.
4.
Question Type : MCQ

Option 1 ID : 7155054702
Option 2 ID : 7155054703
Option 3 ID : 7155054704
Option 4 ID : 7155054701
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 1
Q.37
Options 1.
2.
3.
4.
Question Type : MCQ

Option 1 ID : 7155054698
Option 2 ID : 7155054699
Option 3 ID : 7155054700
Option 4 ID : 7155054697
Chosen Option : --
Q.38
Options 1.
2.
3.
4.
Question Type : MCQ

Option 1 ID : 7155054754
Option 2 ID : 7155054756
Option 3 ID : 7155054755
Option 4 ID : 7155054753
Chosen Option : --
Q.39
Options 1.
2.
3.
4.
Question Type : MCQ

Option 1 ID : 7155054740
Option 2 ID : 7155054739
Option 3 ID : 7155054738
Option 4 ID : 7155054737
Chosen Option : --
Q.40
Options 1.
2.
3.
4.
Question Type : MCQ

Option 1 ID : 7155054705
Option 2 ID : 7155054706
Option 3 ID : 7155054707
Option 4 ID : 7155054708
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 4
Q.41
Options 1.
2.
3.
4.
Question Type : MCQ

Option 1 ID : 7155054721
Option 2 ID : 7155054723
Option 3 ID : 7155054722
Option 4 ID : 7155054724
Chosen Option : --
Q.42
Options 1.
2.
3.
4.
Question Type : MCQ

Option 1 ID : 7155054741
Option 2 ID : 7155054742
Option 3 ID : 7155054744
Option 4 ID : 7155054743
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 2
Q.43
Options 1.
2.
3.
4.
Question Type : MCQ

Option 1 ID : 7155054732
Option 2 ID : 7155054730
Option 3 ID : 7155054731
Option 4 ID : 7155054729
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 1
Q.44
Options
1.
2.
3.
4.
Question Type : MCQ

Option 1 ID : 7155054688
Option 2 ID : 7155054685
Option 3 ID : 7155054686
Option 4 ID : 7155054687
Chosen Option : --
Q.45
Options 1.
2.
3.
4.
Question Type : MCQ

Option 1 ID : 7155054748
Option 2 ID : 7155054746
Option 3 ID : 7155054747
Option 4 ID : 7155054745
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 2
Q.46
Options 1.
2.
3.
4.
Question Type : MCQ

Option 1 ID : 7155054695
Option 2 ID : 7155054694
Option 3 ID : 7155054696
Option 4 ID : 7155054693
Chosen Option : --
Q.47
Options 1.
2.
3.
4.
Question Type : MCQ

Option 1 ID : 7155054725
Option 2 ID : 7155054728
Option 3 ID : 7155054727
Option 4 ID : 7155054726
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 1
Q.48
Options 1.
2.
3.
4.
Question Type : MCQ

Option 1 ID : 7155054692
Option 2 ID : 7155054690
Option 3 ID : 7155054689
Option 4 ID : 7155054691
Chosen Option : --
Q.49
Options 1.
2.
3.
4.
Question Type : MCQ

Option 1 ID : 7155054684
Option 2 ID : 7155054682
Option 3 ID : 7155054683
Option 4 ID : 7155054681
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 3
Q.50
Options 1.
2.
3.
4.
Question Type : MCQ

Option 1 ID : 7155054760
Option 2 ID : 7155054759
Option 3 ID : 7155054757
Option 4 ID : 7155054758
Chosen Option : --
Q.51
Given 4
Answer :
Question Type : SA
Status : Answered
Q.52
Given 4
Answer :
Question Type : SA
Status : Answered
Q.53
Given --
Answer :
Question Type : SA
Q.54
Given --
Answer :
Question Type : SA
Q.55
Given --
Answer :
Question Type : SA
Q.56
Given --
Answer :
Question Type : SA
Q.57
Given 314
Answer :
Question Type : SA
Status : Answered
Q.58
Given --
Answer :
Question Type : SA
Q.59
Given --
Answer :
Question Type : SA
Q.60
Given --
Answer :
Question Type : SA
Q.61
Options 1.
2.
3.
4.
Question Type : MCQ

Option 1 ID : 7155054830
Option 2 ID : 7155054827
Option 3 ID : 7155054828
Option 4 ID : 7155054829
Chosen Option : --
Q.62
Options
1.
2.
3.
4.
Question Type : MCQ

Option 1 ID : 7155054849
Option 2 ID : 7155054848
Option 3 ID : 7155054847
Option 4 ID : 7155054850
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 2
Q.63
Options
1.
2.
3.
4.
Question Type : MCQ

Option 1 ID : 7155054820
Option 2 ID : 7155054819
Option 3 ID : 7155054821
Option 4 ID : 7155054822
Chosen Option : --
Q.64
Options 1.
2.
3.
4.
Question Type : MCQ

Option 1 ID : 7155054777
Option 2 ID : 7155054778
Option 3 ID : 7155054775
Option 4 ID : 7155054776
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 3
Q.65
Options 1.
2.
3.
4.
Question Type : MCQ

Option 1 ID : 7155054773
Option 2 ID : 7155054774
Option 3 ID : 7155054772
Option 4 ID : 7155054771
Chosen Option : --
Q.66
Options
1.
2.
3.
4.
Question Type : MCQ

Option 1 ID : 7155054786
Option 2 ID : 7155054784
Option 3 ID : 7155054783
Option 4 ID : 7155054785
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 4
Q.67
Options
1.
2.
3.
4.
Question Type : MCQ

Option 1 ID : 7155054825
Option 2 ID : 7155054823
Option 3 ID : 7155054826
Option 4 ID : 7155054824
Chosen Option : --
Q.68
Options 1.
2.
3.
4.
Question Type : MCQ

Option 1 ID : 7155054831
Option 2 ID : 7155054834
Option 3 ID : 7155054832
Option 4 ID : 7155054833
Chosen Option : --
Q.69
Options 1.
2.
3.
4.
Question Type : MCQ

Option 1 ID : 7155054843
Option 2 ID : 7155054845
Option 3 ID : 7155054846
Option 4 ID : 7155054844
Chosen Option : --
Q.70
Options 1.
2.
3.
4.
Question Type : MCQ

Option 1 ID : 7155054809
Option 2 ID : 7155054810
Option 3 ID : 7155054808
Option 4 ID : 7155054807
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 3
Q.71
Options 1.
2.
3.
4.
Question Type : MCQ

Option 1 ID : 7155054814
Option 2 ID : 7155054812
Option 3 ID : 7155054811
Option 4 ID : 7155054813
Chosen Option : --
Q.72
Options 1.
2.
3.
4.
Question Type : MCQ

Option 1 ID : 7155054804
Option 2 ID : 7155054805
Option 3 ID : 7155054806
Option 4 ID : 7155054803
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 2
Q.73
Options
1.
2.
3.
4.
Question Type : MCQ

Option 1 ID : 7155054781
Option 2 ID : 7155054779
Option 3 ID : 7155054782
Option 4 ID : 7155054780
Chosen Option : --
Q.74
Options 1.
2.
3.
4.
Question Type : MCQ

Option 1 ID : 7155054795
Option 2 ID : 7155054796
Option 3 ID : 7155054798
Option 4 ID : 7155054797
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 2
Q.75
Options
1.
2.
3.
4.
Question Type : MCQ

Option 1 ID : 7155054817
Option 2 ID : 7155054816
Option 3 ID : 7155054815
Option 4 ID : 7155054818
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 3
Q.76
Options 1.
2.
3.
4.
Question Type : MCQ

Option 1 ID : 7155054839
Option 2 ID : 7155054841
Option 3 ID : 7155054842
Option 4 ID : 7155054840
Chosen Option : --
Q.77
Options 1.
2.
3.
4.
Question Type : MCQ

Option 1 ID : 7155054787
Option 2 ID : 7155054788
Option 3 ID : 7155054790
Option 4 ID : 7155054789
Chosen Option : --
Q.78
Options 1.
2.
3.
4.
Question Type : MCQ

Option 1 ID : 7155054836
Option 2 ID : 7155054835
Option 3 ID : 7155054837
Option 4 ID : 7155054838
Chosen Option : --
Q.79
Options 1.
2.
3.
4.
Question Type : MCQ

Option 1 ID : 7155054791
Option 2 ID : 7155054793
Option 3 ID : 7155054792
Option 4 ID : 7155054794
Chosen Option : --
Q.80
Options 1.
2.
3.
4.
Question Type : MCQ

Option 1 ID : 7155054802
Option 2 ID : 7155054800
Option 3 ID : 7155054799
Option 4 ID : 7155054801
Chosen Option : --
Q.81
Given --
Answer :
Question Type : SA
Q.82
Given --
Answer :
Question Type : SA
Q.83
Given --
Answer :
Question Type : SA
Q.84
Given --
Answer :
Question Type : SA
Q.85
Given --
Answer :
Question Type : SA
Q.86
Given 9
Answer :
Question Type : SA
Status : Answered
Q.87
Given --
Answer :
Question Type : SA
Q.88
Given --
Answer :
Question Type : SA
Q.89
Given --
Answer :
Question Type : SA
Q.90
Given --
Answer :
Question Type : SA

Candidate Name THEJASWINI T
Roll No TN08001020
Subject B TECH
Q.1
Options
1.
2.
3.
4.
Question Type : MCQ

Option 1 ID : 3666943542
Option 2 ID : 3666943540
Option 3 ID : 3666943541
Option 4 ID : 3666943539
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 2
Q.2
Options 1.
2.
3.
4.
Question Type : MCQ

Option 1 ID : 3666943511
Option 2 ID : 3666943513
Option 3 ID : 3666943512
Option 4 ID : 3666943514
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 4
Q.3
Options 1.
2.
3.
4.
Question Type : MCQ

Option 1 ID : 3666943556
Option 2 ID : 3666943555
Option 3 ID : 3666943557
Option 4 ID : 3666943558
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 3
Q.4
Options 1.
2.
3.
4.
Question Type : MCQ

Option 1 ID : 3666943546
Option 2 ID : 3666943544
Option 3 ID : 3666943545
Option 4 ID : 3666943543
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 4
Q.5
Options 1.
2.
3.
4.
Question Type : MCQ

Option 1 ID : 3666943588
Option 2 ID : 3666943590
Option 3 ID : 3666943587
Option 4 ID : 3666943589
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 2
Q.6
Options 1.
2.
3.
4.
Question Type : MCQ

Option 1 ID : 3666943583
Option 2 ID : 3666943586
Option 3 ID : 3666943585
Option 4 ID : 3666943584
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 4
Q.7
Options 1.
2.
3.
4.
Question Type : MCQ

Option 1 ID : 3666943538
Option 2 ID : 3666943536
Option 3 ID : 3666943535
Option 4 ID : 3666943537
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 1
Q.8
Options 1.
2.
3.
4.
Question Type : MCQ

Option 1 ID : 3666943565
Option 2 ID : 3666943566
Option 3 ID : 3666943563
Option 4 ID : 3666943564
Not Attempted and
Status :
Marked For Review
Chosen Option : --
Q.9
Options
1.
2.
3.
4.
Question Type : MCQ

Option 1 ID : 3666943520
Option 2 ID : 3666943521
Option 3 ID : 3666943519
Option 4 ID : 3666943522
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 1
Q.10
Options 1.
2.
3.
4.
Question Type : MCQ

Option 1 ID : 3666943573
Option 2 ID : 3666943571
Option 3 ID : 3666943572
Option 4 ID : 3666943574
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 4
Q.11
Options 1.
2.
3.
4.
Question Type : MCQ

Option 1 ID : 3666943554
Option 2 ID : 3666943552
Option 3 ID : 3666943551
Option 4 ID : 3666943553
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 4
Q.12
Options 1.
2.
3.
4.
Question Type : MCQ

Option 1 ID : 3666943559
Option 2 ID : 3666943561
Option 3 ID : 3666943560
Option 4 ID : 3666943562
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 1
Q.13
Options 1.
2.
3.
4.
Question Type : MCQ

Option 1 ID : 3666943523
Option 2 ID : 3666943525
Option 3 ID : 3666943526
Option 4 ID : 3666943524
Chosen Option : --
Q.14
Options
1.
2.
3.
4.
Question Type : MCQ

Option 1 ID : 3666943547
Option 2 ID : 3666943549
Option 3 ID : 3666943550
Option 4 ID : 3666943548
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 1
Q.15
Options
1.
2.
3.
4.
Question Type : MCQ

Option 1 ID : 3666943581
Option 2 ID : 3666943582
Option 3 ID : 3666943580
Option 4 ID : 3666943579
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 1
Q.16
Options
1.
2.
3.
4.
Question Type : MCQ

Option 1 ID : 3666943529
Option 2 ID : 3666943528
Option 3 ID : 3666943530
Option 4 ID : 3666943527
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 3
Q.17
Options 1.
2.
3.
4.
Question Type : MCQ

Option 1 ID : 3666943576
Option 2 ID : 3666943575
Option 3 ID : 3666943577
Option 4 ID : 3666943578
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 1
Q.18
Options
1.
2.
3.
4.
Question Type : MCQ

Option 1 ID : 3666943517
Option 2 ID : 3666943516
Option 3 ID : 3666943518
Option 4 ID : 3666943515
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 3
Q.19
Options 1.
2.
3.
4.
Question Type : MCQ

Option 1 ID : 3666943533
Option 2 ID : 3666943534
Option 3 ID : 3666943531
Option 4 ID : 3666943532
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 1
Q.20
Options 1.
2.
3.
4.
Question Type : MCQ

Option 1 ID : 3666943567
Option 2 ID : 3666943570
Option 3 ID : 3666943569
Option 4 ID : 3666943568
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 4
Q.21
Given --
Answer :
Question Type : SA
Q.22
Given --
Answer :
Question Type : SA
Q.23
Given --
Answer :
Question Type : SA
Q.24
Given --
Answer :
Question Type : SA
Q.25
Given --
Answer :
Question Type : SA
Q.26
Given --
Answer :
Question Type : SA
Q.27
Given --
Answer :
Question Type : SA
Q.28
Given --
Answer :
Question Type : SA
Q.29
Given --
Answer :
Question Type : SA
Q.30
Given --
Answer :
Question Type : SA
Q.31
Options 1.
2.
3.
4.
Question Type : MCQ

Option 1 ID : 3666943666
Option 2 ID : 3666943665
Option 3 ID : 3666943667
Option 4 ID : 3666943668
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 4
Q.32
Options 1.
2.
3.
4.
Question Type : MCQ

Option 1 ID : 3666943616
Option 2 ID : 3666943613
Option 3 ID : 3666943615
Option 4 ID : 3666943614
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 4
Q.33
Options
1.
2.
3.
4.
Question Type : MCQ

Option 1 ID : 3666943655
Option 2 ID : 3666943654
Option 3 ID : 3666943656
Option 4 ID : 3666943653
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 2
Q.34
Options 1.
2.
3.
4.
Question Type : MCQ

Option 1 ID : 3666943672
Option 2 ID : 3666943671
Option 3 ID : 3666943670
Option 4 ID : 3666943669
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 2
Q.35
Options 1.
2.
3.
4.
Question Type : MCQ

Option 1 ID : 3666943609
Option 2 ID : 3666943612
Option 3 ID : 3666943611
Option 4 ID : 3666943610
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 2
Q.36
Options 1.
2.
3.
4.
Question Type : MCQ

Option 1 ID : 3666943636
Option 2 ID : 3666943634
Option 3 ID : 3666943635
Option 4 ID : 3666943633
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 1
Q.37
Options
1.
2.
3.
4.
Question Type : MCQ

Option 1 ID : 3666943646
Option 2 ID : 3666943645
Option 3 ID : 3666943648
Option 4 ID : 3666943647
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 2
Q.38
Options 1.
2.
3.
4.
Question Type : MCQ

Option 1 ID : 3666943626
Option 2 ID : 3666943628
Option 3 ID : 3666943625
Option 4 ID : 3666943627
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 1
Q.39
Options
1.
2.
3.
4.
Question Type : MCQ

Option 1 ID : 3666943606
Option 2 ID : 3666943608
Option 3 ID : 3666943607
Option 4 ID : 3666943605
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 3
Q.40
Options
1.
2.
3.
4.
Question Type : MCQ

Option 1 ID : 3666943649
Option 2 ID : 3666943652
Option 3 ID : 3666943651
Option 4 ID : 3666943650
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 3
Q.41
Options
1.
2.
3.
4.
Question Type : MCQ

Option 1 ID : 3666943663
Option 2 ID : 3666943664
Option 3 ID : 3666943661
Option 4 ID : 3666943662
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 1
Q.42
Options 1.
2.
3.
4.
Question Type : MCQ

Option 1 ID : 3666943630
Option 2 ID : 3666943629
Option 3 ID : 3666943632
Option 4 ID : 3666943631
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 4
Q.43
Options 1.
2.
3.
4.
Question Type : MCQ

Option 1 ID : 3666943658
Option 2 ID : 3666943657
Option 3 ID : 3666943660
Option 4 ID : 3666943659
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 2
Q.44
Options 1.
2.
3.
4.
Question Type : MCQ

Option 1 ID : 3666943623
Option 2 ID : 3666943622
Option 3 ID : 3666943624
Option 4 ID : 3666943621
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 2
Q.45
Options 1.
2.
3.
4.
Question Type : MCQ

Option 1 ID : 3666943620
Option 2 ID : 3666943618
Option 3 ID : 3666943619
Option 4 ID : 3666943617
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 1
Q.46
Options 1.
2.
3.
4.
Question Type : MCQ

Option 1 ID : 3666943603
Option 2 ID : 3666943601
Option 3 ID : 3666943602
Option 4 ID : 3666943604
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 4
Q.47
Options 1.
2.
3.
4.
Question Type : MCQ

Option 1 ID : 3666943680
Option 2 ID : 3666943677
Option 3 ID : 3666943678
Option 4 ID : 3666943679
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 3
Q.48
Options 1.
2.
3.
4.
Question Type : MCQ

Option 1 ID : 3666943639
Option 2 ID : 3666943640
Option 3 ID : 3666943637
Option 4 ID : 3666943638
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 3
Q.49
Options
1.
2.
3.
4.
Question Type : MCQ

Option 1 ID : 3666943643
Option 2 ID : 3666943644
Option 3 ID : 3666943641
Option 4 ID : 3666943642
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 3
Q.50
Options 1.
2.
3.
4.
Question Type : MCQ

Option 1 ID : 3666943673
Option 2 ID : 3666943676
Option 3 ID : 3666943674
Option 4 ID : 3666943675
Chosen Option : --
Q.51
Given 2
Answer :
Question Type : SA
Status : Answered
Q.52
Given --
Answer :
Question Type : SA
Q.53
Given --
Answer :
Question Type : SA
Q.54
Given 1
Answer :
Question Type : SA
Status : Answered
Q.55
Given --
Answer :
Question Type : SA
Q.56
Given --
Answer :
Question Type : SA
Q.57
Given --
Answer :
Question Type : SA
Q.58
Given --
Answer :
Question Type : SA
Q.59
Given --
Answer :
Question Type : SA
Q.60
Given --
Answer :
Question Type : SA
Q.61
Options 1.
2.
3.
4.
Question Type : MCQ

Option 1 ID : 3666943747
Option 2 ID : 3666943748
Option 3 ID : 3666943750
Option 4 ID : 3666943749
Chosen Option : --
Q.62
Options 1.
2.
3.
4.
Question Type : MCQ

Option 1 ID : 3666943758
Option 2 ID : 3666943755
Option 3 ID : 3666943756
Option 4 ID : 3666943757
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 3
Q.63
Options 1.
2.
3.
4.
Question Type : MCQ

Option 1 ID : 3666943770
Option 2 ID : 3666943767
Option 3 ID : 3666943769
Option 4 ID : 3666943768
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 4
Q.64
Options 1.
2.
3.
4.
Question Type : MCQ

Option 1 ID : 3666943697
Option 2 ID : 3666943695
Option 3 ID : 3666943698
Option 4 ID : 3666943696
Chosen Option : --
Q.65
Options 1.
2.
3.
4.
Question Type : MCQ

Option 1 ID : 3666943701
Option 2 ID : 3666943699
Option 3 ID : 3666943700
Option 4 ID : 3666943702
Chosen Option : --
Q.66
Options
1.
2.
3.
4.
Question Type : MCQ

Option 1 ID : 3666943715
Option 2 ID : 3666943716
Option 3 ID : 3666943718
Option 4 ID : 3666943717
Chosen Option : --
Q.67
Options 1.
2.
3.
4.
Question Type : MCQ

Option 1 ID : 3666943726
Option 2 ID : 3666943724
Option 3 ID : 3666943725
Option 4 ID : 3666943723
Chosen Option : --
Q.68
Options 1.
2.
3.
4.
Question Type : MCQ

Option 1 ID : 3666943754
Option 2 ID : 3666943753
Option 3 ID : 3666943751
Option 4 ID : 3666943752
Chosen Option : --
Q.69
Options 1.
2.
3.
4.
Question Type : MCQ

Option 1 ID : 3666943745
Option 2 ID : 3666943743
Option 3 ID : 3666943746
Option 4 ID : 3666943744
Chosen Option : --
Q.70
Options 1.
2.
3.
4.
Question Type : MCQ

Option 1 ID : 3666943740
Option 2 ID : 3666943741
Option 3 ID : 3666943739
Option 4 ID : 3666943742
Chosen Option : --
Q.71
Options 1.
2.
3.
4.
Question Type : MCQ

Option 1 ID : 3666943721
Option 2 ID : 3666943720
Option 3 ID : 3666943719
Option 4 ID : 3666943722
Chosen Option : --
Q.72
Options
1.
2.
3.
4.
Question Type : MCQ

Option 1 ID : 3666943760
Option 2 ID : 3666943759
Option 3 ID : 3666943761
Option 4 ID : 3666943762
Chosen Option : --
Q.73
Options
1.
2.
3.
4.
Question Type : MCQ

Option 1 ID : 3666943737
Option 2 ID : 3666943735
Option 3 ID : 3666943738
Option 4 ID : 3666943736
Chosen Option : --
Q.74
Options
1.
2.
3.
4.
Question Type : MCQ

Option 1 ID : 3666943711
Option 2 ID : 3666943714
Option 3 ID : 3666943713
Option 4 ID : 3666943712
Chosen Option : --
Q.75
Options
1.
2.
3.
4.
Question Type : MCQ

Option 1 ID : 3666943707
Option 2 ID : 3666943710
Option 3 ID : 3666943708
Option 4 ID : 3666943709
Chosen Option : --
Q.76
Options
1.
2.
3.
4.
Question Type : MCQ

Option 1 ID : 3666943732
Option 2 ID : 3666943731
Option 3 ID : 3666943733
Option 4 ID : 3666943734
Chosen Option : --
Q.77
Options 1.
2.
3.
4.
Question Type : MCQ

Option 1 ID : 3666943706
Option 2 ID : 3666943703
Option 3 ID : 3666943705
Option 4 ID : 3666943704
Chosen Option : --
Q.78
Options 1.
2.
3.
4.
Question Type : MCQ

Option 1 ID : 3666943692
Option 2 ID : 3666943694
Option 3 ID : 3666943691
Option 4 ID : 3666943693
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 2
Q.79
Options
1.
2.
3.
4.
Question Type : MCQ

Option 1 ID : 3666943766
Option 2 ID : 3666943763
Option 3 ID : 3666943765
Option 4 ID : 3666943764
Chosen Option : --
Q.80
Options 1.
2.
3.
4.
Question Type : MCQ

Option 1 ID : 3666943727
Option 2 ID : 3666943730
Option 3 ID : 3666943729
Option 4 ID : 3666943728
Chosen Option : --
Q.81
Given --
Answer :
Question Type : SA
Q.82
Given --
Answer :
Question Type : SA
Q.83
Given --
Answer :
Question Type : SA
Q.84
Given --
Answer :
Question Type : SA
Q.85
Given --
Answer :
Question Type : SA
Q.86
Given --
Answer :
Question Type : SA
Q.87
Given --
Answer :
Question Type : SA
Q.88
Given --
Answer :
Question Type : SA
Q.89
Given --
Answer :
Question Type : SA
Q.90
Given --
Answer :
Question Type : SA

Candidate Name AMITI GEETHIKA
Roll No AP18005440
Subject B TECH
Q.1
Options
1.
2.
3.
4.
Question Type : MCQ

Option 1 ID : 7155054872
Option 2 ID : 7155054869
Option 3 ID : 7155054871
Option 4 ID : 7155054870
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 4
Q.2
Options 1.
2.
3.
4.
Question Type : MCQ

Option 1 ID : 7155054896
Option 2 ID : 7155054894
Option 3 ID : 7155054893
Option 4 ID : 7155054895
Not Attempted and
Status :
Marked For Review
Chosen Option : --
Q.3
Options 1.
2.
3.
4.
Question Type : MCQ

Option 1 ID : 7155054874
Option 2 ID : 7155054873
Option 3 ID : 7155054876
Option 4 ID : 7155054875
Not Attempted and
Status :
Marked For Review
Chosen Option : --
Q.4
Options 1.
2.
3.
4.
Question Type : MCQ

Option 1 ID : 7155054867
Option 2 ID : 7155054868
Option 3 ID : 7155054865
Option 4 ID : 7155054866
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 2
Q.5
Options 1.
2.
3.
4.
Question Type : MCQ

Option 1 ID : 7155054911
Option 2 ID : 7155054912
Option 3 ID : 7155054910
Option 4 ID : 7155054909
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 2
Q.6
Options 1.
2.
3.
4.
Question Type : MCQ

Option 1 ID : 7155054931
Option 2 ID : 7155054930
Option 3 ID : 7155054932
Option 4 ID : 7155054929
Chosen Option : --
Q.7
Options 1.
2.
3.
4.
Question Type : MCQ

Option 1 ID : 7155054861
Option 2 ID : 7155054863
Option 3 ID : 7155054864
Option 4 ID : 7155054862
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 3
Q.8
Options 1.
2.
3.
4.
Question Type : MCQ

Option 1 ID : 7155054887
Option 2 ID : 7155054886
Option 3 ID : 7155054885
Option 4 ID : 7155054888
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 4
Q.9
Options 1.
2.
3.
4.
Question Type : MCQ

Option 1 ID : 7155054890
Option 2 ID : 7155054892
Option 3 ID : 7155054889
Option 4 ID : 7155054891
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 3
Q.10
Options 1.
2.
3.
4.
Question Type : MCQ

Option 1 ID : 7155054902
Option 2 ID : 7155054904
Option 3 ID : 7155054903
Option 4 ID : 7155054901
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 1
Q.11
Options
1.
2.
3.
4.
Question Type : MCQ

Option 1 ID : 7155054918
Option 2 ID : 7155054917
Option 3 ID : 7155054919
Option 4 ID : 7155054920
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 1
Q.12
Options 1.
2.
3.
4.
Question Type : MCQ

Option 1 ID : 7155054927
Option 2 ID : 7155054925
Option 3 ID : 7155054926
Option 4 ID : 7155054928
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 2
Q.13
Options 1.
2.
3.
4.
Question Type : MCQ

Option 1 ID : 7155054879
Option 2 ID : 7155054878
Option 3 ID : 7155054877
Option 4 ID : 7155054880
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 2
Q.14
Options 1.
2.
3.
4.
Question Type : MCQ

Option 1 ID : 7155054924
Option 2 ID : 7155054923
Option 3 ID : 7155054922
Option 4 ID : 7155054921
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 2
Q.15
Options 1.
2.
3.
4.
Question Type : MCQ

Option 1 ID : 7155054906
Option 2 ID : 7155054908
Option 3 ID : 7155054907
Option 4 ID : 7155054905
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 1
Q.16
Options 1.
2.
3.
4.
Question Type : MCQ

Option 1 ID : 7155054882
Option 2 ID : 7155054881
Option 3 ID : 7155054884
Option 4 ID : 7155054883
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 2
Q.17
Options 1.
2.
3.
4.
Question Type : MCQ

Option 1 ID : 7155054916
Option 2 ID : 7155054915
Option 3 ID : 7155054914
Option 4 ID : 7155054913
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 3
Q.18
Options 1.
2.
3.
4.
Question Type : MCQ

Option 1 ID : 7155054935
Option 2 ID : 7155054934
Option 3 ID : 7155054933
Option 4 ID : 7155054936
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 2
Q.19
Options 1.
2.
3.
4.
Question Type : MCQ

Option 1 ID : 7155054937
Option 2 ID : 7155054940
Option 3 ID : 7155054938
Option 4 ID : 7155054939
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 1
Q.20
Options 1.
2.
3.
4.
Question Type : MCQ

Option 1 ID : 7155054898
Option 2 ID : 7155054897
Option 3 ID : 7155054899
Option 4 ID : 7155054900
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 4
Q.21
Given --
Answer :
Question Type : SA
Q.22
Given --
Answer :
Question Type : SA
Q.23
Given --
Answer :
Question Type : SA
Q.24
Given --
Answer :
Question Type : SA
Q.25
Given --
Answer :
Question Type : SA
Q.26
Given --
Answer :
Question Type : SA
Q.27
Given --
Answer :
Question Type : SA
Q.28
Given --
Answer :
Question Type : SA
Q.29
Given --
Answer :
Question Type : SA
Q.30
Given --
Answer :
Question Type : SA
Q.31
Options 1.
2.
3.
4.
Question Type : MCQ

Option 1 ID : 7155054985
Option 2 ID : 7155054986
Option 3 ID : 7155054983
Option 4 ID : 7155054984
Not Attempted and
Status :
Marked For Review
Chosen Option : --
Q.32
Options
1.
2.
3.
4.
Question Type : MCQ

Option 1 ID : 7155055009
Option 2 ID : 7155055008
Option 3 ID : 7155055010
Option 4 ID : 7155055007
Chosen Option : --
Q.33
Options 1.
2.
3.
4.
Question Type : MCQ

Option 1 ID : 7155054988
Option 2 ID : 7155054989
Option 3 ID : 7155054990
Option 4 ID : 7155054987
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 4
Q.34
Options 1.
2.
3.
4.
Question Type : MCQ

Option 1 ID : 7155054955
Option 2 ID : 7155054957
Option 3 ID : 7155054956
Option 4 ID : 7155054958
Not Attempted and
Status :
Marked For Review
Chosen Option : --
Q.35
Options 1.
2.
3.
4.
Question Type : MCQ

Option 1 ID : 7155054978
Option 2 ID : 7155054975
Option 3 ID : 7155054977
Option 4 ID : 7155054976
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 1
Q.36
Options 1.
2.
3.
4.
Question Type : MCQ

Option 1 ID : 7155054972
Option 2 ID : 7155054973
Option 3 ID : 7155054974
Option 4 ID : 7155054971
Not Attempted and
Status :
Marked For Review
Chosen Option : --
Q.37
Options 1.
2.
3.
4.
Question Type : MCQ

Option 1 ID : 7155054966
Option 2 ID : 7155054964
Option 3 ID : 7155054965
Option 4 ID : 7155054963
Chosen Option : --
Q.38
Options 1.
2.
3.
4.
Question Type : MCQ

Option 1 ID : 7155054968
Option 2 ID : 7155054969
Option 3 ID : 7155054967
Option 4 ID : 7155054970
Not Attempted and
Status :
Marked For Review
Chosen Option : --
Q.39
Options 1.
2.
3.
4.
Question Type : MCQ

Option 1 ID : 7155054998
Option 2 ID : 7155054995
Option 3 ID : 7155054996
Option 4 ID : 7155054997
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 2
Q.40
Options 1.
2.
3.
4.
Question Type : MCQ

Option 1 ID : 7155055026
Option 2 ID : 7155055024
Option 3 ID : 7155055025
Option 4 ID : 7155055023
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 2
Q.41
Options 1.
2.
3.
4.
Question Type : MCQ

Option 1 ID : 7155054954
Option 2 ID : 7155054951
Option 3 ID : 7155054953
Option 4 ID : 7155054952
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 3
Q.42
Options 1.
2.
3.
4.
Question Type : MCQ

Option 1 ID : 7155055015
Option 2 ID : 7155055016
Option 3 ID : 7155055017
Option 4 ID : 7155055018
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 2
Q.43
Options
1.
2.
3.
4.
Question Type : MCQ

Option 1 ID : 7155055013
Option 2 ID : 7155055012
Option 3 ID : 7155055014
Option 4 ID : 7155055011
Chosen Option : --
Q.44
Options 1.
2.
3.
4.
Question Type : MCQ

Option 1 ID : 7155055004
Option 2 ID : 7155055003
Option 3 ID : 7155055005
Option 4 ID : 7155055006
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 1
Q.45
Options 1.
2.
3.
4.
Question Type : MCQ

Option 1 ID : 7155054979
Option 2 ID : 7155054980
Option 3 ID : 7155054982
Option 4 ID : 7155054981
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 1
Q.46
Options 1.
2.
3.
4.
Question Type : MCQ

Option 1 ID : 7155055021
Option 2 ID : 7155055020
Option 3 ID : 7155055019
Option 4 ID : 7155055022
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 4
Q.47
Options 1.
2.
3.
4.
Question Type : MCQ

Option 1 ID : 7155054959
Option 2 ID : 7155054962
Option 3 ID : 7155054961
Option 4 ID : 7155054960
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 3
Q.48
Options 1.
2.
3.
4.
Question Type : MCQ

Option 1 ID : 7155055000
Option 2 ID : 7155055001
Option 3 ID : 7155055002
Option 4 ID : 7155054999
Not Attempted and
Status :
Marked For Review
Chosen Option : --
Q.49
Options 1.
2.
3.
4.
Question Type : MCQ

Option 1 ID : 7155054991
Option 2 ID : 7155054994
Option 3 ID : 7155054993
Option 4 ID : 7155054992
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 1
Q.50
Options 1.
2.
3.
4.
Question Type : MCQ

Option 1 ID : 7155055030
Option 2 ID : 7155055028
Option 3 ID : 7155055027
Option 4 ID : 7155055029
Chosen Option : --
Q.51
Given 12
Answer :
Question Type : SA
Status : Answered
Q.52
Given --
Answer :
Question Type : SA
Q.53
Given --
Answer :
Question Type : SA
Q.54
Given --
Answer :
Question Type : SA
Not Attempted and
Status :
Marked For Review
Q.55
Given --
Answer :
Question Type : SA
Q.56
Given --
Answer :
Question Type : SA
Not Attempted and
Status :
Marked For Review
Q.57
Given --
Answer :
Question Type : SA
Q.58
Given --
Answer :
Question Type : SA
Not Attempted and
Status :
Marked For Review
Q.59
Given 8.28
Answer :
Question Type : SA
Status : Answered
Q.60
Given --
Answer :
Question Type : SA
Not Attempted and
Status :
Marked For Review
Q.61
Options 1.
2.
3.
4.
Question Type : MCQ

Option 1 ID : 7155055063
Option 2 ID : 7155055064
Option 3 ID : 7155055061
Option 4 ID : 7155055062
Chosen Option : --
Q.62
Options
1.
2.
3.
4.
Question Type : MCQ

Option 1 ID : 7155055053
Option 2 ID : 7155055054
Option 3 ID : 7155055055
Option 4 ID : 7155055056
Chosen Option : --
Q.63
Options
1.
2.
3.
4.
Question Type : MCQ

Option 1 ID : 7155055096
Option 2 ID : 7155055093
Option 3 ID : 7155055095
Option 4 ID : 7155055094
Chosen Option : --
Q.64
Options 1.
2.
3.
4.
Question Type : MCQ

Option 1 ID : 7155055072
Option 2 ID : 7155055069
Option 3 ID : 7155055070
Option 4 ID : 7155055071
Chosen Option : --
Q.65
Options 1.
2.
3.
4.
Question Type : MCQ

Option 1 ID :7155055060
Option 2 ID :7155055059
Option 3 ID :7155055057
Option 4 ID :7155055058
Not Attempted and
Status :
Marked For Review
Chosen Option : --
Q.66
Options 1.
2.
3.
4.
Question Type : MCQ

Option 1 ID : 7155055097
Option 2 ID : 7155055098
Option 3 ID : 7155055099
Option 4 ID : 7155055100
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 2
Q.67
Options
1.
2.
3.
4.
Question Type : MCQ

Option 1 ID : 7155055105
Option 2 ID : 7155055107
Option 3 ID : 7155055108
Option 4 ID : 7155055106
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 3
Q.68
Options 1.
2.
3.
4.
Question Type : MCQ

Option 1 ID : 7155055073
Option 2 ID : 7155055076
Option 3 ID : 7155055074
Option 4 ID : 7155055075
Chosen Option : --
Q.69
Options
1.
2.
3.
4.
Question Type : MCQ

Option 1 ID : 7155055083
Option 2 ID : 7155055082
Option 3 ID : 7155055081
Option 4 ID : 7155055084
Chosen Option : --
Q.70
Options 1.
2.
3.
4.
Question Type : MCQ

Option 1 ID : 7155055092
Option 2 ID : 7155055090
Option 3 ID : 7155055089
Option 4 ID : 7155055091
Chosen Option : --
Q.71
Options 1.
2.
3.
4.
Question Type : MCQ

Option 1 ID : 7155055117
Option 2 ID : 7155055120
Option 3 ID : 7155055119
Option 4 ID : 7155055118
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 4
Q.72
Options
1.
2.
3.
4.
Question Type : MCQ

Option 1 ID : 7155055104
Option 2 ID : 7155055103
Option 3 ID : 7155055102
Option 4 ID : 7155055101
Chosen Option : --
Q.73
Options 1.
2.
3.
4.
Question Type : MCQ

Option 1 ID : 7155055042
Option 2 ID : 7155055044
Option 3 ID : 7155055041
Option 4 ID : 7155055043
Chosen Option : --
Q.74
Options
1.
2.
3.
4.
Question Type : MCQ

Option 1 ID : 7155055110
Option 2 ID : 7155055112
Option 3 ID : 7155055109
Option 4 ID : 7155055111
Not Attempted and
Status :
Marked For Review
Chosen Option : --
Q.75
Options
1.
2.
3.
4.
Question Type : MCQ

Option 1 ID : 7155055078
Option 2 ID : 7155055077
Option 3 ID : 7155055079
Option 4 ID : 7155055080
Chosen Option : --
Q.76
Options 1.
2.
3.
4.
Question Type : MCQ

Option 1 ID : 7155055050
Option 2 ID : 7155055049
Option 3 ID : 7155055052
Option 4 ID : 7155055051
Chosen Option : --
Q.77
Options 1.
2.
3.
4.
Question Type : MCQ

Option 1 ID : 7155055114
Option 2 ID : 7155055113
Option 3 ID : 7155055116
Option 4 ID : 7155055115
Chosen Option : --
Q.78
Options 1.
2.
3.
4.
Question Type : MCQ

Option 1 ID : 7155055046
Option 2 ID : 7155055047
Option 3 ID : 7155055048
Option 4 ID : 7155055045
Chosen Option : --
Q.79
Options 1.
2.
3.
4.
Question Type : MCQ

Option 1 ID : 7155055086
Option 2 ID : 7155055088
Option 3 ID : 7155055087
Option 4 ID : 7155055085
Chosen Option : --
Q.80
Options 1.
2.
3.
4.
Question Type : MCQ

Option 1 ID : 7155055066
Option 2 ID : 7155055065
Option 3 ID : 7155055068
Option 4 ID : 7155055067
Chosen Option : --
Q.81
Given --
Answer :
Question Type : SA
Q.82
Given --
Answer :
Question Type : SA
Q.83
Given --
Answer :
Question Type : SA
Q.84
Given --
Answer :
Question Type : SA
Q.85
Given --
Answer :
Question Type : SA
Q.86
Given --
Answer :
Question Type : SA
Q.87
Given --
Answer :
Question Type : SA
Q.88
Given --
Answer :
Question Type : SA
Q.89
Given --
Answer :
Question Type : SA
Q.90
Given --
Answer :
Question Type : SA

Candidate Name ANIRUDDH VYAS
Roll No MP03006039
Subject B TECH
Q.1
Options 1.
2.
3.
4.
Question Type : MCQ

Option 1 ID : 3666946233
Option 2 ID : 3666946236
Option 3 ID : 3666946234
Option 4 ID : 3666946235
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 2
Q.2
Options
1.
2.
3.
4.
Question Type : MCQ

Option 1 ID : 3666946203
Option 2 ID : 3666946204
Option 3 ID : 3666946201
Option 4 ID : 3666946202
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 2
Q.3
Options
1.
2.
3.
4.
Question Type : MCQ

Option 1 ID : 3666946222
Option 2 ID : 3666946224
Option 3 ID : 3666946223
Option 4 ID : 3666946221
Chosen Option : --
Q.4
Options 1.
2.
3.
4.
Question Type : MCQ

Option 1 ID : 3666946267
Option 2 ID : 3666946266
Option 3 ID : 3666946268
Option 4 ID : 3666946265
Chosen Option : --
Q.5
Options
1.
2.
3.
4.
Question Type : MCQ

Option 1 ID : 3666946206
Option 2 ID : 3666946207
Option 3 ID : 3666946205
Option 4 ID : 3666946208
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 2
Q.6
Options
1.
2.
3.
4.
Question Type : MCQ

Option 1 ID : 3666946274
Option 2 ID : 3666946276
Option 3 ID : 3666946273
Option 4 ID : 3666946275
Not Attempted and
Status :
Marked For Review
Chosen Option : --
Q.7
Options
1.
2.
3.
4.
Question Type : MCQ

Option 1 ID : 3666946239
Option 2 ID : 3666946237
Option 3 ID : 3666946238
Option 4 ID : 3666946240
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 4
Q.8
Options 1.
2.
3.
4.
Question Type : MCQ

Option 1 ID : 3666946259
Option 2 ID : 3666946260
Option 3 ID : 3666946257
Option 4 ID : 3666946258
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 3
Q.9
Options 1.
2.
3.
4.
Question Type : MCQ

Option 1 ID : 3666946229
Option 2 ID : 3666946232
Option 3 ID : 3666946231
Option 4 ID : 3666946230
Chosen Option : --
Q.10
Options 1.
2.
3.
4.
Question Type : MCQ

Option 1 ID : 3666946212
Option 2 ID : 3666946210
Option 3 ID : 3666946211
Option 4 ID : 3666946209
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 2
Q.11
Options
1.
2.
3.
4.
Question Type : MCQ

Option 1 ID : 3666946272
Option 2 ID : 3666946269
Option 3 ID : 3666946270
Option 4 ID : 3666946271
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 2
Q.12
Options
1.
2.
3.
4.
Question Type : MCQ

Option 1 ID : 3666946213
Option 2 ID : 3666946215
Option 3 ID : 3666946216
Option 4 ID : 3666946214
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 4
Q.13
Options 1.
2.
3.
4.
Question Type : MCQ

Option 1 ID : 3666946277
Option 2 ID : 3666946278
Option 3 ID : 3666946280
Option 4 ID : 3666946279
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 3
Q.14
Options
1.
2.
3.
4.
Question Type : MCQ

Option 1 ID : 3666946245
Option 2 ID : 3666946247
Option 3 ID : 3666946248
Option 4 ID : 3666946246
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 3
Q.15
Options
1.
2.
3.
4.
Question Type : MCQ

Option 1 ID :3666946220
Option 2 ID :3666946217
Option 3 ID :3666946218
Option 4 ID :3666946219
Not Attempted and
Status :
Marked For Review
Chosen Option : --
Q.16
Options
1.
2.
3.
4.
Question Type : MCQ

Option 1 ID : 3666946262
Option 2 ID : 3666946264
Option 3 ID : 3666946263
Option 4 ID : 3666946261
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 2
Q.17
Options
1.
2.
3.
4.
Question Type : MCQ

Option 1 ID : 3666946253
Option 2 ID : 3666946255
Option 3 ID : 3666946256
Option 4 ID : 3666946254
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 3
Q.18
Options
1.
2.
3.
4.
Question Type : MCQ

Option 1 ID : 3666946249
Option 2 ID : 3666946251
Option 3 ID : 3666946250
Option 4 ID : 3666946252
Chosen Option : --
Q.19
Options
1.
2.
3.
4.
Question Type : MCQ

Option 1 ID : 3666946225
Option 2 ID : 3666946226
Option 3 ID : 3666946227
Option 4 ID : 3666946228
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 1
Q.20
Options 1.
2.
3.
4.
Question Type : MCQ

Option 1 ID : 3666946244
Option 2 ID : 3666946242
Option 3 ID : 3666946241
Option 4 ID : 3666946243
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 2
Q.21
Given --
Answer :
Question Type : SA
Q.22
Given --
Answer :
Question Type : SA
Q.23
Given --
Answer :
Question Type : SA
Q.24
Given --
Answer :
Question Type : SA
Q.25
Given --
Answer :
Question Type : SA
Q.26
Given 12
Answer :
Question Type : SA
Status : Answered
Q.27
Given 92
Answer :
Question Type : SA
Status : Answered
Q.28
Given 7
Answer :
Question Type : SA
Status : Answered
Q.29
Given 1200
Answer :
Question Type : SA
Status : Answered
Q.30
Given 20
Answer :
Question Type : SA
Status : Answered
Q.31
Options
1.
2.
3.
4.
Question Type : MCQ

Option 1 ID : 3666946324
Option 2 ID : 3666946325
Option 3 ID : 3666946326
Option 4 ID : 3666946323
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 1
Q.32
Options
1.
2.
3.
4.
Question Type : MCQ

Option 1 ID : 3666946309
Option 2 ID : 3666946307
Option 3 ID : 3666946310
Option 4 ID : 3666946308
Chosen Option : --
Q.33
Options
1.
2.
3.
4.
Question Type : MCQ

Option 1 ID : 3666946358
Option 2 ID : 3666946355
Option 3 ID : 3666946356
Option 4 ID : 3666946357
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 1
Q.34
Options
1.
2.
3.
4.
Question Type : MCQ

Option 1 ID : 3666946368
Option 2 ID : 3666946370
Option 3 ID : 3666946369
Option 4 ID : 3666946367
Chosen Option : --
Q.35
Options
1.
2.
3.
4.
Question Type : MCQ

Option 1 ID : 3666946334
Option 2 ID : 3666946333
Option 3 ID : 3666946332
Option 4 ID : 3666946331
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 3
Q.36
Options 1.
2.
3.
4.
Question Type : MCQ

Option 1 ID : 3666946316
Option 2 ID : 3666946318
Option 3 ID : 3666946315
Option 4 ID : 3666946317
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 2
Q.37
Options
1.
2.
3.
4.
Question Type : MCQ

Option 1 ID : 3666946327
Option 2 ID : 3666946329
Option 3 ID : 3666946328
Option 4 ID : 3666946330
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 1
Q.38
Options 1.
2.
3.
4.
Question Type : MCQ

Option 1 ID : 3666946366
Option 2 ID : 3666946365
Option 3 ID : 3666946363
Option 4 ID : 3666946364
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 1
Q.39
Options
1.
2.
3.
4.
Question Type : MCQ

Option 1 ID : 3666946294
Option 2 ID : 3666946293
Option 3 ID : 3666946292
Option 4 ID : 3666946291
Chosen Option : --
Q.40
Options
1.
2.
3.
4.
Question Type : MCQ

Option 1 ID : 3666946361
Option 2 ID : 3666946362
Option 3 ID : 3666946360
Option 4 ID : 3666946359
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 2
Q.41
Options 1.
2.
3.
4.
Question Type : MCQ

Option 1 ID : 3666946339
Option 2 ID : 3666946341
Option 3 ID : 3666946340
Option 4 ID : 3666946342
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 1
Q.42
Options 1.
2.
3.
4.
Question Type : MCQ

Option 1 ID : 3666946335
Option 2 ID : 3666946337
Option 3 ID : 3666946336
Option 4 ID : 3666946338
Chosen Option : --
Q.43
Options
1.
2.
3.
4.
Question Type : MCQ

Option 1 ID : 3666946299
Option 2 ID : 3666946301
Option 3 ID : 3666946300
Option 4 ID : 3666946302
Chosen Option : --
Q.44
Options
1.
2.
3.
4.
Question Type : MCQ

Option 1 ID : 3666946305
Option 2 ID : 3666946303
Option 3 ID : 3666946306
Option 4 ID : 3666946304
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 3
Q.45
Options
1.
2.
3.
4.
Question Type : MCQ

Option 1 ID : 3666946297
Option 2 ID : 3666946296
Option 3 ID : 3666946295
Option 4 ID : 3666946298
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 3
Q.46
Options
1.
2.
3.
4.
Question Type : MCQ

Option 1 ID : 3666946320
Option 2 ID : 3666946322
Option 3 ID : 3666946319
Option 4 ID : 3666946321
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 2
Q.47
Options
1.
2.
3.
4.
Question Type : MCQ

Option 1 ID : 3666946351
Option 2 ID : 3666946354
Option 3 ID : 3666946352
Option 4 ID : 3666946353
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 4
Q.48
Options
1.
2.
3.
4.
Question Type : MCQ

Option 1 ID : 3666946312
Option 2 ID : 3666946314
Option 3 ID : 3666946313
Option 4 ID : 3666946311
Chosen Option : --
Q.49
Options
1.
2.
3.
4.
Question Type : MCQ

Option 1 ID : 3666946347
Option 2 ID : 3666946349
Option 3 ID : 3666946348
Option 4 ID : 3666946350
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 1
Q.50
Options
1.
2.
3.
4.
Question Type : MCQ

Option 1 ID : 3666946345
Option 2 ID : 3666946344
Option 3 ID : 3666946343
Option 4 ID : 3666946346
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 4
Q.51
Given 2
Answer :
Question Type : SA
Status : Answered
Q.52
Given --
Answer :
Question Type : SA
Q.53
Given --
Answer :
Question Type : SA
Q.54
Given 2
Answer :
Question Type : SA
Status : Answered
Q.55
Given --
Answer :
Question Type : SA
Q.56
Given --
Answer :
Question Type : SA
Q.57
Given --
Answer :
Question Type : SA
Q.58
Given --
Answer :
Question Type : SA
Q.59
Given 2
Answer :
Question Type : SA
Status : Marked For Review
Q.60
Given 5
Answer :
Question Type : SA
Status : Answered
Q.61
Options
1.
2.
3.
4.
Question Type : MCQ

Option 1 ID : 3666946454
Option 2 ID : 3666946456
Option 3 ID : 3666946453
Option 4 ID : 3666946455
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 2
Q.62
Options 1.
2.
3.
4.
Question Type : MCQ

Option 1 ID : 3666946407
Option 2 ID : 3666946408
Option 3 ID : 3666946405
Option 4 ID : 3666946406
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 1
Q.63
Options
1.
2.
3.
4.
Question Type : MCQ

Option 1 ID : 3666946414
Option 2 ID : 3666946416
Option 3 ID : 3666946415
Option 4 ID : 3666946413
Chosen Option : --
Q.64
Options
1.
2.
3.
4.
Question Type : MCQ

Option 1 ID : 3666946420
Option 2 ID : 3666946419
Option 3 ID : 3666946417
Option 4 ID : 3666946418
Chosen Option : --
Q.65
Options
1.
2.
3.
4.
Question Type : MCQ

Option 1 ID : 3666946435
Option 2 ID : 3666946433
Option 3 ID : 3666946436
Option 4 ID : 3666946434
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 1
Q.66
Options
1.
2.
3.
4.
Question Type : MCQ

Option 1 ID : 3666946439
Option 2 ID : 3666946437
Option 3 ID : 3666946440
Option 4 ID : 3666946438
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 4
Q.67
Options
1.
2.
3.
4.
Question Type : MCQ

Option 1 ID : 3666946424
Option 2 ID : 3666946421
Option 3 ID : 3666946422
Option 4 ID : 3666946423
Chosen Option : --
Q.68
Options
1.
2.
3.
4.
Question Type : MCQ

Option 1 ID : 3666946385
Option 2 ID : 3666946386
Option 3 ID : 3666946388
Option 4 ID : 3666946387
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 2
Q.69
Options
1.
2.
3.
4.
Question Type : MCQ

Option 1 ID : 3666946459
Option 2 ID : 3666946458
Option 3 ID : 3666946460
Option 4 ID : 3666946457
Chosen Option : 2
Q.70
Options
1.
2.
3.
4.
Question Type : MCQ

Option 1 ID : 3666946398
Option 2 ID : 3666946399
Option 3 ID : 3666946397
Option 4 ID : 3666946400
Not Attempted and
Status :
Marked For Review
Chosen Option : --
Q.71
Options
1.
2.
3.
4.
Question Type : MCQ

Option 1 ID : 3666946445
Option 2 ID : 3666946448
Option 3 ID : 3666946447
Option 4 ID : 3666946446
Chosen Option : --
Q.72
Options
1.
2.
3.
4.
Question Type : MCQ

Option 1 ID : 3666946429
Option 2 ID : 3666946430
Option 3 ID : 3666946431
Option 4 ID : 3666946432
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 1
Q.73
Options 1.
2.
3.
4.
Question Type : MCQ

Option 1 ID : 3666946404
Option 2 ID : 3666946401
Option 3 ID : 3666946402
Option 4 ID : 3666946403
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 1
Q.74
Options 1.
2.
3.
4.
Question Type : MCQ

Option 1 ID : 3666946450
Option 2 ID : 3666946451
Option 3 ID : 3666946452
Option 4 ID : 3666946449
Chosen Option : --
Q.75
Options
1.
2.
3.
4.
Question Type : MCQ

Option 1 ID : 3666946444
Option 2 ID : 3666946442
Option 3 ID : 3666946441
Option 4 ID : 3666946443
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 2
Q.76
Options
1.
2.
3.
4.
Question Type : MCQ

Option 1 ID : 3666946426
Option 2 ID : 3666946427
Option 3 ID : 3666946428
Option 4 ID : 3666946425
Chosen Option : 1
Q.77
Options
1.
2.
3.
4.
Question Type : MCQ

Option 1 ID : 3666946395
Option 2 ID : 3666946393
Option 3 ID : 3666946396
Option 4 ID : 3666946394
Chosen Option : --
Q.78
Options 1.
2.
3.
4.
Question Type : MCQ

Option 1 ID : 3666946412
Option 2 ID : 3666946409
Option 3 ID : 3666946410
Option 4 ID : 3666946411
Chosen Option : --
Q.79
Options
1.
2.
3.
4.
Question Type : MCQ

Option 1 ID : 3666946392
Option 2 ID : 3666946390
Option 3 ID : 3666946389
Option 4 ID : 3666946391
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 3
Q.80
Options
1.
2.
3.
4.
Question Type : MCQ

Option 1 ID : 3666946382
Option 2 ID : 3666946381
Option 3 ID : 3666946384
Option 4 ID : 3666946383
Chosen Option : --
Q.81
Given --
Answer :
Question Type : SA
Q.82
Given --
Answer :
Question Type : SA
Q.83
Given --
Answer :
Question Type : SA
Q.84
Given --
Answer :
Question Type : SA
Q.85
Given --
Answer :
Question Type : SA
Q.86
Given --
Answer :
Question Type : SA
Q.87
Given --
Answer :
Question Type : SA
Q.88
Given --
Answer :
Question Type : SA
Q.89
Given --
Answer :
Question Type : SA
Q.90
Given --
Answer :
Question Type : SA
PHYSICS
SECTION - A 3. Two conducting solid spheres (A & B) are placed at
a very large distance with charge densities and radii
Multiple Choice Questions: This section contains 20
as shown:
multiple choice questions. Each question has 4 choices
(1), (2), (3) and (4), out of which ONLY ONE is correct.
Choose the correct answer:
1. Bob P is released from the position of rest at the
moment shown. If it collides elastically with an
identical bob Q hanging freely then velocity of Q, When the key K is closed, find the ratio of final
just after collision is (g = 10 m/s2) charge densities.
(1) 4 : 1 (2) 1 : 2
(3) 2 : 1 (4) 1 : 4
Answer (3)
Sol. Final potential is same
1 Q1 1 Q2
⇒ = .... (1)
4πε0 R 4πε0 2R
2
Also, Q1 + Q2 = σ · 4πR 2 + σ · 4π ( 2R ) ..... ( 2 )
(1) 1 m/s (2) 4 m/s
σ1
(3) 2 m/s (4) 8 m/s ⇒ 2.
=
σ2
Answer (3)
4. Position-time graph for a particle is parabolic and is
Sol. Velocity of P just before collision is = 2gl as shown:
= 2 m/sec
As collision is elastic and the mass of P and Q is
equal therefore just after collision velocity of P is 0
and that of Q is 2 m/sec.
2. Choose the option showing the correct relation
between Poisson’s ratio (σ), Bulk modulus (B) and
Choose the corresponding v – t graph
modulus of rigidity (G).
3B − 2G 6B + 2G
(1) σ = (2) σ =
2G + 6B 3B − 2G (1) (2)
9BG 3σ − 3G
(3) σ = (4) B =
3B + G 6σ + 2G
Answer (1)
Sol. E = 2G(1 + σ) ….(1)
(3) (4)
E = 3B(1 – 2σ) ….(2)
2G  1 + σ 
1=
3B  1 − 2σ 
Answer (2)
⇒ 3B – 6Bσ = 2G + 2Gσ Sol. Since x ∝ t2
⇒ 3B – 2G = σ (2G + 6B)
dx
⇒ =
v ∝ t′
 3B − 2G  dt
σ = 
 2G + 6B  ⇒ Option 2 is correct
-2-
5. For a system undergoing isothermal process, heat 7. Momentum-time graph of an object moving along a
energy is supplied to the system. Choose the option straight line is as shown in figure. If (P2 – P1) < P1
showing correct statements and (t2 – t1) = t1 < (t3 – t2) then at which points among
(a) Internal energy will increase A, B and C the magnitude of force experienced by
the object is maximum and minimum respectively.
(b) Internal energy will decrease
(c) Work done by system is positive
(d) Work done by system is negative
(e) Internal energy remains constant
(1) (a), (c), (e) (2) (b), (d)
(3) (c), (e) (4) (a), (d), (e)
Answer (3)
Sol. For isothermal process,
dT = 0
(1) A, B (2) A, C
so, dU = 0 ⇒ Internal energy remains same
(3) B, C (4) B, A
dQ = dW
Answer (2)
as dQ is positive,
so dW is positive Sol.
6. The heat passing through the cross-section of a
conductor, varies with time ‘t’ as Q(t) = αt – βt2 + γt3.
(α, β and γ are positive constants.) The minimum
heat current through the conductor is
β2 β2
(1) α − (2) α −
2γ 3γ
β2 3β2
(3) α − (4) α − P1
γ γ FA =
t1
Answer (2)
Sol. Heat through cross section of rod P2 − P1
FB =
Q = αt – βt2 + γt3 t2 − t1
dQ P2 − P1
so heat current = FC =
dt t3 − t 2
dQ
heat current = = α − 2βt + 3 γt 2 Therefore the maximum force is at A and minimum
dt force is at C.
for heat current to be minimum 8. A particle moving in unidirectional motion travels
d Q 2 half of the total distance with a constant speed of
= −2β + 6 γt = 0 15 m/s. Now first half of the journey time it travels
dt 2
at 10 m/s and second half of the remaining journey
2β  β  time it travels at 5 m/s. Average speed of the
=
t =   particle is
6γ  3γ 
(1) 12 m/s (2) 10 m/s
so minimum heat current
(3) 7 m/s (4) 9 m/s
dQ β β2
= α − 2β × + 3γ × 2 Answer (2)
dt minimum 3γ 9γ
Sol.
2 2
2β β
=α− +
3γ 3γ
2x
v av =
 β2  x
=  α −  + 2t
 3γ  15
-3-
2x
=
x 2x
+
15 10 + 5
= 10 m/sec
9. A bullet strikes a stationary ball kept at a height as
shown. After collision, range of bullet is 120 m and The LCR circuit is in resonance stage
that of ball is 30 m. Find initial speed of bullet.
So, Z = R 2 + ( X L − XC )2
Collision is along horizontal direction.
Take g = 10 m/s2 Z=R
R R
P2 = cosφ = power factor= = = 1
Z R
 1 
P1  2  1
So,
= =
P2 1 2
11. Electromagnetic wave beam of power 20 mW is
(1) 150 m/s (2) 90 m/s incident on a perfectly absorbing body for 300 ns.
(3) 240 m/s (4) 360 m/s The total momentum transferred by the beam to the
body is equal to
Answer (4)
(1) 2 × 10–17 Ns (2) 1 × 10–17 Ns
Sol. m1V + m2 (O ) =m1v1′ + m2V2′ ...(1)
(3) 3 × 10–17 Ns (4) 5 × 10–17 Ns
2h Answer (1)
=
∆t = 2s ... ( 2 )
g Sol. Total energy incident = Pt
120 m Pt
v1′
⇒= = 60 m/s So total initial momentum =
2s c
Total final momentum = 0
30 m
&
= v 2′ = 15 m/s Pt
2s Total momentum transferred =
c
⇒ v = 360 m/s
10. If an inductor with inductive reactance, XL = R is 20 × 10−3 × 300 × 10 −9
=
connected in series with resistor R across an A.C 3 × 108
voltage, power factor comes out to be P1. Now, if a
capacitor with capacitive reactance, XC = R is also = 2 × 10–17 Ns
connected in series with inductor and resistor in the 12. The velocity of an electron in the seventh orbit of
P hydrogen-like atom is 3.6 × 106 m/s. Find the
same circuit, power factor becomes P2. Find 1 velocity of the electron in the 3rd orbit.
P2
(1) 4.2 × 106 m/s (2) 8.4 × 106 m/s
(1) 2 :1 (2) 1: 2 (3) 2.1 × 106 m/s (4) 3.6 × 106 m/s
(3) 1 : 1 (4) 1 : 2 Answer (2)
Answer (2) Sol. For hydrogen like atom,
Sol. 1
v∝
n
 v1   n2 
 = 
 v 2   n1 
=Z R2 + R2 3.6 × 106 3
⇒ =
v2 7
= 2R
7
R  1  ⇒ v 2 = × 3.6 × 106
P1 = cosφ = power factor = = 3
Z  2 
= 8.4 × 106 m/s
When capacitor is also connected in series
-4-
 a ˆ b ˆ dV 3T 2
13. Electric field in a region is given by=
E i + 3 j, Or = 3
x2 y VdT T
where x & y are co-ordinates. Find SI units of a & b. dV 3
(1) a – Nm2C–1 (2) a – Nm3C–1 =
VdT T
b – Nm3C–1 b – Nm2C–1 16. Consider a combination of gates as shown :
(3) a – NmC–1 (4) a – Nm2C–1
b – Nm2C–1 b – Nm2C–1
Answer (1)
Sol. E – NC–1
x2 – m2
y3 – m3
⇒ a – Nm2C–1
& b – Nm3C–1
14. Coil A of radius 10 cm has NA number of turns and
IA current is flowing through it. Coil B of radius
20 cm has NB number of turns and IB current is (1)
flowing through it. If magnetic dipole moment of
both the coils is same then
1 (2)
(1) IANA = 4IBNB (2) I A N A = I N
4 B B
1 (3)
(3) IANA = 2IBNB (4) I A N A = I N
2 B B
Answer (1)
(4)
Sol. Magnetic dipole moment µ = NIA = NIπR2
µ N AI A RA2 Answer (1)
So A
= = 1
µB NB IB RB2 Sol. y = (A′B′) = A + B
⇒ OR gate
N AI A (102 )
=1 ⇒ Option 1
NB IB (202 )
17. For the given YDSE setup. Find the number of
NAIA = 4NBIB fringes by which the central maxima gets shifted
15. An ideal gas undergoes a thermodynamic process from point O.
following the relation PT2 = constant. Assuming (Given d = 1 mm
symbols have their usual meaning then volume D=1m
expansion coefficient of the gas is equal to
λ = 5000 Å)
2 3
(1) (2)
T T
1 1
(3) (4)
2T T
Answer (2)
dV
Sol. Volume expansion coefficient =
VdT
For PT2 = constant
T3
Or = constant
V
(1) 10 (2) 15
dV
Or = (C ) 3T 2 (3) 8 (4) 12
dT
Answer (1)
-5-
Sol. di
Sol. VA − iR − L − 12 =
VB
dt
⇒ VA – VB = +18 volts
22. A particle undergoing SHM follows the position-time
 π
equation given as=x A sin  ωt +  . If the SHM
 3
motion has a time period of T, then velocity will be
T
maximum at time t= for first time after
β
t = 0. Value of β is equal to
at central position, path difference, is,
(µ – 1)t1 – (µ – 1)t2 Answer (03.00)
∆x = (µ – 1) (t1 – t2)  π
Sol.=x A sin  ωt + 
3   3 
∆x =  − 1 ( 5.11 − 5.10 ) mm
2 
 π
1 ⇒ v = Aω cos  ωt + 
= × ( 0.01) mm  3 
2
= 0.005 mm For maximum value of v
= 5 × 10–6 m  π
cos  ωt +  =±1
∆x 5 × 10−6 m  3
No. of fringes shifted = =
λ 5 × 10−7 m π
= 10 ⇒ ωt + =π (for nearest value of t)
3
2π
ωt =
3
SECTION - B T
t=
Numerical Value Type Questions: This section 3
contains 10 questions. In Section B, attempt any five So β = 3
questions out of 10. The answer to each question is a
23. A block of mass 1 g is equilibrium with the help of a
NUMERICAL VALUE. For each question, enter the
current carrying square loop which is partially lying
correct numerical value (in decimal notation,
truncated/rounded-off to the second decimal place; in constant magnetic field (B) as shown. Resistance
e.g. 06.25, 07.00, –00.33, –00.30, 30.27, –27.30) using of the loop is 10 Ω. Find the voltage (V) (in volts) of
the mouse and the on-screen virtual numeric keypad in
the battery in the loop.
the place designated to enter the answer.
21. In a part of a circuit shown:
Find VA – VB in volts. It is given that current is

decreasing at a rate of 1 ampere/s.
Answer (10.00)
Answer (18)
-6-
1 1 1
⇒ − − =
120 40 f
1  −1 − 3  4
=  = −
f  120  120
Sol. f = – 30 cm
 1 
Least count of scale =   cm
 20 
 1 
 1 
Fractional error =  20  =  
   600 
ilB = mg  30 
−3
 mg  (1× 10 kg) × (10 m/s )
2 1 1
=i = as =
 (0.1 m) × (0.1 T) 10 k 600
 lB 
= 1 × 10–3 × 103 k = 60
i=1A 26.
As resistance of loop = 10 Ω
V
=
i = 1A
R
V = (1 × 10) V
= 10 V In two circuit shown above the value of current I1 (in
24. Initial volume of 1 mole of a monoatomic gas is y
amperes) is equal to − A . Value of y is equal to
2 litres. It is expanded isothermally to a volume of 5
6 litres. Change in internal energy is xR. Find x. Answer (11.00)
Answer (00) Sol.
Sol. ∆U = nCV∆T
= nCV(0) ( isothermal)
⇒ ∆U = 0
25. An object is placed at a distance of 40 cm from the
pole of a converging mirror. The image is formed at Using Kirchoff’s law.
a distance of 120 cm from the mirror on the same I1 + I3 – I2 = –2 …(i)
side. If the focal length is measured with a scale I3 + 2I2 = 5 …(ii)
where each 1 cm has 20 equal divisions. If the
2I2 – (I3 – I2) – (I1 + I3 – I2) = 5 …(iii)
fractional error in the measurement of focal length
1 11
is Find k. ⇒ I1 = − A
10 k 5
⇒ y = 11
Answer (60.00)
Sol. u = – 40 cm
v = – 120 cm
1 1 1
+ =
v u f
-7-
CHEMISTRY
SECTION – A 4. Number of lone pair of electrons on central atom?
Multiple Choice Questions: This section contains 20 Column-I Column-II

multiple choice questions. Each question has 4 choices (A) IF7 (P) 0
(1), (2), (3) and (4), out of which ONLY ONE is correct. (B) ICl4– (Q) 1
Choose the correct answer : (C) XeF2 (R) 2
1. Caprolactam when heated at high temperature, (D) XeF6 (S) 3
gives Match the following
(1) (A)→(P); (B)→(Q); (C)→(R); (D)→(S)
(1) Nylon 6, 6
(2) (A)→(P); (B)→(R); (C)→(S); (D)→(Q)
(2) Dacron (3) (A)→(R); (B)→(S); (C)→(P); (D)→(Q)
(4) (A)→(S); (B)→(R); (C)→(Q); (D)→(P)
(3) Teflon
Answer (2)
(4) Nylon 6
Sol. Molecule/species No. of lone pair
Answer (4) IF7 →0
ICl4 →2
Sol. Caprolactam on heating at high temperature gives
XeF2 →3
Nylon-6 polymer. XeF6 →1
2. Molarity of CO2 in soft drink is 0.01 M. The volume 5. Which one of the following is water soluble?
(a) BeSO4
of soft drink is 300 mL. Mass of CO2 in soft drink is
(b) MgSO4
(1) 0.132 g (c) CaSO4
(d) SrSO4
(2) 0.481 g
(e) BaSO4
(3) 0.312 g (1) Only a and b (2) Only a, b, c
(3) Only d and e (4) Only a and e
(4) 0.190 g
Answer (1)
Answer (1) Sol. Solubility of sulphates of group-2 elements
decreases down the group. BeSO4 and MgSO4 are
Sol. Moles = 0.01 × 0.3 = 0.003 appreciably soluble in water. CaSO4, SrSO4 and
BaSO4 are practically insoluble in water.
Mass = 0.003 × 44 = 0.132 gm 6. Shape of OF2 molecule is?
3. During the qualitative analysis ofSO3–2
using dilute (1) Bent (2) Linear
H2SO4, SO2 gas evolved which turns K2Cr2O7 (3) Tetrahedral (4) T-shaped
solution (acidified H2SO4)
Answer (1)
(1) Green (2) Black
Sol.
(3) Blue (4) Red
Answer (1)
Sol. Orange colour of dichromate solution (K2Cr2O7) It is sp3 hybridised therefore its shape will be bent
converts to green (Cr3+). or V-shaped.
-8-
7. Inhibitor of cancer growth Sol. 37 is Rubidium belonging to 1st group of s-block.
(1) Cisplatin 10. Consider the following reactions
(2) EDTA NO2 ⎯⎯⎯
UV
→A +B
(3) Cobalt
A + O2 ⎯⎯→ C
(4) Ethane 1, 2 - diamine
B + C ⎯⎯→ NO2 + O2
Answer (1) A, B and C are respectively
Sol. Cisplatin acts as an anticancer agent. (1) O, NO, O3 (2) NO, O, O3
8. Speed of e– in 7th orbit is 3.6 × 106 m/s then find the (3) NO, O3, O (4) O3, O, NO
speed in 3rd orbit
Answer (1)
(1) 3.6 × 106 m/s
Sol. NO2 ⎯⎯⎯ → NO+ O
UV
(2) 8.4 × 106 m/s (B ) ( A )
(3) 7.5 × 106 m/s O + O2 ⎯⎯→ O3 ( C)
(4) 1.8 × 106 m/s NO + O3 ⎯⎯→ NO2 + O2
Answer (2) 11. Which of the following option contains the correct
match:
Sol. Speed of electron in nth orbit of a Bohr atom is given (List-I) (Reactions) (List-II) (Products)
by (A) Wurtz (P)
Z (B) Fittig (Q) R – R
v n = ( v1 ) H
n
(C) Wurtz Fittig (R)
If n = 7
Z (D) Sandmeyer (S)
v 7 = ( v1 )H = 3.6  106 m / s
7 (1) A → Q; B → P; C → R; D → S
If n = 3 (2) A → P; B → Q; C → R; D → S
Z (3) A → S; B → R; C → Q; D → P
v 3 = ( v1 )H (4) A → R; B → S; C → P; D → Q
3
Answer (1)
7  3.6  106
=
3 Sol. The correct matches are
= 8.4 × 106 m/s (A) Wurtz → R – R
9. Match the following :
(B) Fittig →
Atomic Number
(C) Wurtz fittig →
(i) 52 (p) s-block
(ii) 37 (q) p-block (D) Sandmeyer →
(iii) 65 (r) d-block 12. If volume of ideal gas is increased isothermally,
(iv) 74 (s) f-block then its internal energy
(1) (i) → (q); (ii) → (p); (iii) → (r); (iv) → (s) (1) Increased
(2) (i) → (q); (ii) → (p); (iii) → (s); (iv) → (r) (2) Remains constant
(3) (i) → (s); (ii) → (r); (iii) → (p); (iv) → (q) (3) Is decreased
(4) (i) → (r); (ii) → (p); (iii) → (q); (iv) → (s) (4) Can be increased or decreased
Answer (2) Answer (2)
-9-
Sol. Internal energy of ideal gas depends only upon Sol. It converts FeO to FeSiO3
temperature. 17. Assertion: Ketoses gives seliwanoff test.
13. Arrange the following ligands according to their Reason : Ketoses undergo - elimination to form
increasing order of field strength furfural.
(1) Assertion and reason both are correct and
S2– , C2O2–
4 , NH3 , en, CO reason is the correct explanation of assertion
(1) S2–  CO  NH3  en  C2O2–
4
(2) Assertion and reason both are correct but
reason is not the correct explanation of
(2) S2–  NH3  en  CO  C2O2–
4
assertion.
(3) Assertion is correct and reason is incorrect
(3) S2–  C2O2–
4  NH3  en  CO (4) Assertion is incorrect but reason is correct.
(4) CO  en  NH3  C2O2–
4 S
2–
Answer (1)
Sol. Assertion and reason both are correct and reason
Answer (3)
is the correct explanation of assertion.
Sol. The correct order of field strength is
18. Consider the following reactions:
S2–  C2O2–
4  NH3  en  CO
14. Consider the following molecule
The products P and Q respectively are?
Select the correct order of acidic strength (1)

(1) HA > HD > HB > HC (2) HB > HA > HD > HC
(3) HA > HB > HC > HD (4) HC > HB > HD > HA
Answer (1)
(2)
Sol. The correct order of acidic strength is
HA > H D > H B > H C
15. Which of the following compound is used as the

antacid?
(3) and HCOOH
(1) Ranitidine
(2) Prontosil
(3) Norethindrone (4) HCOOH and
(4) Codeine Answer (2)
Sol.
Answer (1)
Sol. Ranitidine is used as the antacid.
16. The role of SiO2 in Cu extraction is

(1) Converts FeO to FeSiO3
(2) Converts CaO to CaSiO3
(3) Reduces Cu2S to Cu
(4) None of these
Answer (1)
- 10 -
SECTION - B 23. 600 mL of 0.04 M HCl is mixed with 400 mL of 0.02
M H2SO4. Find out the pH of resulting solution
Numerical Value Type Questions: This section
(Nearest integer).
contains 10 questions. In Section B, attempt any five
Answer (01.00)
Sol. m moles of H+ from HCl = 0.04 × 600
= 24
m moles of H+ from H2SO4 = 0.02 ×2 × 400
truncated/rounded-off to the second decimal place; e.g.
= 16
06.25, 07.00, –00.33, –00.30, 30.27, –27.30) using the
Total m moles of H+ = 24 + 16 = 40
mouse and the on-screen virtual numeric keypad in the
Final volume of solution = 1000 mL
place designated to enter the answer.
40
[H+ ] = = 0.04 M
21. For given cell, at T K 1000
Pt | H2 (g) | H+ || Fe3+ ; Fe2+ | Pt pH = – log 0.04 = 1.4

(1bar) (1M) 24. A solution of 2 g of a solute and 20 g water has
boiling point 373.52 K. Then find the molar mass of
Ecell = .712 V solute in grams? [Given : Kb = 0.52 K kg/mole and
Ecell = .770 V solute is non-electrolyte].
Answer (100)
Fe2+  Sol. Tb = K b .m
if   is t  2.303 RT = .058 
 
Fe 
3 +
 F 
  0.52 = 0.52 
2/M
.02
t
then find   M = 100 g
5
25. When first order kinetic, rate constant is 2.011 × 10–3
Answer (2) sec–1, the time taken in decomposition of substance
2 from 7 g to 2 g will be. [Use log7 = 0.845 and log2
.058  Fe2+ 
Sol. .712 = .770 – log  3 +  = 0.301]
2  Fe 
Answer (623)
Fe2+  Sol. A → Products
–.058 = –.058 log  
7
Fe 
3 +
Initial moles of A = (M is molar mass of A)
  M
Fe2+ Final moles of A =
2
3+
= 10 = t
Fe M
Rate constant K = 2.011 × 10–3 s–1
t
=2 2.303 7
5 t= log
k 2
22. How many moles of electrons are required to
2.303
reduce 1 mole of permanganate ions into = 0.845 – 0.301
2.011 10 –3
manganese dioxide
= 623 s
Answer (3)
Sol.
3 mole of e– are required
- 11 -
MATHEMATICS
SECTION - A 3. If set A = {a, b, c}

Multiple Choice Questions: This section contains 20 R:A→A
R= ( a, b ) , ( b, c )
(1), (2), (3) and (4), out of which ONLY ONE is correct.
How many elements should be added for making it
Choose the correct answer : symmetric and transitive.
1. Coefficient of x301 in (1 + x)500 + x(1 + x)499 (1) 2 (2) 3
+ x2(1 + x)498 + ….. + x500 is equal to
(3) 4 (4) 7
506
(1) C306 Answer (4)
(2) 501C300 Sol. For symmetric

(a, b), (b, c) R
(3) 501C301
 (b, a), (c, b) R
500
(4) C300 For transitive.
Answer (3) (a, b), (b, c) R
Sol. Coeff of x 301 = 500C301 + 499
C300 + 498C299 + ... + 199C0  (a, c) R
Now,
= 500 C199 + 499C199 + 498C199 + ... + 199C199
(a, c) R
= 501C200
 (c, a) R {For symmetric}
= 501
C301 (a, b), (b, a) R
1 1  (a, a) R
2. tan15 + + + tan195 = 2a, then
tan165 tan105 (b, c), (c, b) R
 1  (b, b) R
value of  a +  is
 a
(c, b), (b, c) R
−4  (c, c) R
(1) 4 − 2 3 (2)
3
 elements to be added
3
(3) 2 (4) 5 − 3 {(b, a) (c, b) (b, b) (a, a) (a, c) (c, a) (c, c)}
2
Total 7 elements
Answer (2)
4. Let P(h, k) be two points on x2 = 4y which is at
Sol. tan15° + cot165° + cot105° + tan195°
shortest distance from Q(0, 33) then difference of
= tan15° – cot15° – tan15° + tan15° distances of P(h, k) from directrix of y2 = 4(x + y) is
= tan15° – cot15° (1) 2
= −2 3 (2) 4
 a=− 3 (3) 6
(4) 8
1 1 −4
a+ =− 3− =
a 3 3 Answer (2)
- 12 -
Sol. For normal through (0, 33) Shaded area is the required area
2
 x 
A =   x − 2
dx
1/4  
2
x 2 x 3/2
= −
2 3
1/4
 2 2  1 1 
= 2 −  −  −

 3   32 24 
Normal at point (2t, t2)
1 2 2
x = –ty + 2at + at3 = 2+ −
96 3
0 = –t  33 + 2t + t3
1
 3A = 6 + − 2 2 sq. units.
 t = 0 OR  31 32
6. A die with points (2, 1, 0, –1, –2, 3) is thrown 5
Points at which normal are drawn are
times. The probability that the product of outcomes
A(0, 0), B ( 2 31, 31) , C(–2 31, 31) on all throws is positive is
521
Shortest distance (1)
2592
= PB = PC = 124 + 4 = 8 2 units 16
(2)
81
Given parabola ( y − 2)2 = 4( x + 1)
41
(3)
Directrix is x = –2, that is line L 288
BL – CL = ( –2 + 2 31) – ( 2 + 2 31) (4)

28
81
=4 Answer (1)
5. Area bounded by larger part in I quadrant by Sol. Either all outcomes are positive or any two are
x = 4y2, x = 2 and y = x is A then 3A equals negative.
5 2 3
1 1 2 2  1  1  1
(1) 6 + −2 2 (2) 2 + − The required probability = 5 C5   + 5 C2    
32 96 3  
2 3 2
4 1
2 2  1  1 5 1 5 521
(3) (4) 96 +5 C4     = + + =
3    
3 2 162 32 36 2592
7. Let S = {1, 2, 3, 4, 5}
Answer (1)
if f : S → P(S), where P(S) is power set of S. Then
Sol. number of one-one functions f can be made is
(1) (32)5
32!
(2)
27!
(3) 32 C27
(4) 32 P27
Answer (2)
- 13 -
Sol. n(S) = 5 9. For solution of differential equation
n(P(S)) = 25 = 32 5 −1 3
dy 3 x tan x
− y =−
( )
x 3 tan−1 x 3
dx 3
1+ x6 2 ( )
1+ x6
given that y(0) = 0 then y(1) is


(1) 1− e 2
4
 1  
 − 
 No. of one-one function= 32 × 31 × 30 × 24 × 28 (2) 1− e  2 4 2
32! 1 
=
27! (3) e 2 −e 2
4
8. A line is cutting x axis and y axis at two points A and 
B, respectively, where OA = a, OB = b. A (4) e 4 2
perpendicular is drawn from O (origin) to AB at an Answer (2)
angle of

from positive x-axis. If area of triangle −3 x 5 tan−1 x 3 ( ) dx
6 Sol. IF =  3
OAB =
98 3
sq. units, then 3 a + b is equal to
( )
1+ x6 2
(1) 28 (2) 14
Let tan−1 (x ) = t
3
= e(
− t sin t t cos t −sin t )
(3) 12 (4) 7 IF = e 
Answer (1) Solution of Differential equation
Sol. Let the perpendicular distance of line from origin is
y  e(
t cos t −sin t )
=  e(
t cos t −sin t )
p.
( −t sin t ) dt
y  e(
t cos t −sin t )
= e(
t cos t −sin t )
x 3 y +c
 Equation of AB : + =p
2 2
t=0→y=0
x y
 + =1  c = –1
2p 2p
3 
When x = 1, t =
4
2p
OA = , OB = 2p   1    1 
3  −   − 
y e  4 2 2 = e  4 2 2 −1
1 2p 98
· · 2p =  1  
2 3 3  − 
y = 1− e  2 4 2
 p=7
2
3(e − 1) 3
14 10.  x 2e[ x ]+[ x ] dx equals
OA = a = e
3 1
OB = b = 14 (1) e9 − e (2) e8 − 1
3a + b (3) e8 − e (4) e9 − 1
 14 + 14 = 28 Answer (3)
- 14 -
2 3
2 3 SECTION - B
Sol. I =  x 2e[ x ]+[ x ]dx = e  x 2  e[ x ]dx
1 1 Numerical Value Type Questions: This section
Let x 3 = t
8
dt [t ] e (
I = e e = e + e2 + ... + e7 ) NUMERICAL VALUE. For each question, enter the
3 3 correct numerical value (in decimal notation,
1

e 2  e7 – 1 
=   06.25, 07.00, –00.33, –00.30, 30.27, –27.30) using the
3  e −1 
3(e − 1) e2 e7 − 1
So,   = e8 − e place designated to enter the answer.
e 3 e −1
11. n̂ is a vector, a  0, b  0. If n ⊥ c, a =  b − nˆ and x

t3
b · c = 12 then the value of | c  (a  b ) | equals
 1+ t 6 dt
0
21. lim equals
x →0 x4
(where n̂ represents unit vector in the direction of n )
(1) 144 Answer (12)
x
(2) 12 t3
48  dt
6
(3) 12 0t +1
Sol. lim
(4) 24
x →0 x4
Answer (3) 0
As form, applying L’ hospital rule we get
0
Sol. a = b − nˆ
x3 1
 a  b = − nˆ  b lim 48 = 48  = 12
Now,
x →0
( x + 1)  4x
6 3 4
| c  (a  b ) | −2 m
22. If an = and a1 + a2 + .... + a25 =
2
4n − 16n + 15 n
(
= | c  −nˆ  b | ) where m and n are coprime, then the value of
= | nˆ (12) − b(0) | m + n is
Answer (191)
= 12
−2 −2
Sol. an = =
2
4n − 16n + 15 ( 2n − 3 ) (2n − 5)
1 1
= −
2n − 3 2n − 5
 1 1   1 1 
a1 + a2 + .... + a25 =  −  + ...  47 − 45 
 −1 −3   
1 1 50
= + =
47 3 141
 m + n = 191
- 15 -
i + z (1 − i ) 15 −r
Sol. an  ax 3 + 1 
( )
15−r
23. If z = 1 + i and z1 = = z1 , then find the  Tr +1 = Cr a15−r x 3
15
b −r x 3
z (1 − z ) 

bx1/3 
r 10r
value of
12
arg ( z1 ) . 45 − 3r − = 15  = 30
 3 3
r =9
Answer (3)
15
 1  15 − r
i + z (1 − i ) i + (1 − i )(1 − i ) 1 
Sol. z1 = = =
1 an  ax 3 +  Tr +1 = Cr a15 −r x
15 3 b − r x −3r
z (1 − z ) (1 − i )( −i ) 1− i  bx 3 
 
 1   15 − r
arg z1 = arg  = – arg (1 − i ) = − 3r = −15
 3
 1− i  4
15 − r − 9r = −45
12 12 
arg ( z1 ) =  =3 r=6
  4
So, 15C9 a 6 b −9 = 15C6 a9 b −6
24. Mean & Variance of 7 observations are 8 & 16
respectively, if number 14 is omitted then a & b are  a −3 b −3 = 1
new mean & variance. The value of a + b is or ab = 1
Answer (19) ab − 5 = 4
Sol. Let x1, … x7 are observation 26. Using 1, 2, 3, 5, 4-digit numbers are formed, where
repetition is allowed. How many of them is divisible
8  7 − 14 by 15?
New mean = =7
6
Answer (21)
n Sol. Units digit will be 5
 xi2 a b c 5
 i −1
− 64 = 16   xi2 = 560
7
a + b + c = (3 + 1) type
 xi2(new ) = 560 − 142 For (a, b, c) possibilities are

(2, 2, 3) (1, 1, 5) (1, 1, 2)
364 70 35
 b= − 72 = = (3, 3, 1) (5, 5, 3) (2, 3, 5)
6 6 3
3!
For (2, 2, 3)  =3
35 56 2!
 a+b =7+ = = 18.67
3 3 3!
For (1, 1, 5)  =3
2!
Rounding off gives 19
3!
15 For (1, 1, 2)  =3
 1  2!
25. If coefficient of x15 in expansion of  ax 3 + 
 bx1/3  3!
For (3, 3, 1)  =3
2!
is equal to coefficient of x–15 in expansion of
3!
 1/3 1 
15 For (5, 5, 3)  =3
2!
 ax + 3  then |ab – 5| is equal to
 bx 
For (2, 3, 5)  3! = 6
Answer (04.00) Total = 21
- 16 -
27. If 5f ( x + y ) = f ( x )  f ( y ) and f ( 3 ) = 320, then the 28. If for logcos x (cot x ) − 4log( sin x ) cot x = 1,
value of f(1) is +   

x = sin−1  . Find ( + ), given x  0, 
 2   2
Answer (20)  
Answer (04.00)
Sol. 5f ( x + y ) = f ( x )  f ( y ) ...(i) f(3) = 320
Sol. logcos x cot x − 4logsin x cot x = 1
Put x = 1, y = 2 in (i) 1 − logcos x sin x − 4(logsin x cos x − 1) = 1
5f ( 3 ) = f (1)  f ( 2 ) Let logcos x sin x = t
1 
 f (1)  f ( 2 ) = 5  320 = 1600 ...(ii) − t − 4  − 1 = 0
t 
Put x = y = 1 in (i) 4
 t+ =4
t
5f ( 2 ) = ( f (1) )
2
 t=2
logcos x sin x = 2
 f ( 2) =
( f (1) )
2
...(iii)  cos2x = sinx
5
 1 – sin2x – sinx = 0
Using (iii) in (ii),  sin2x + sinx – 1 = 0
−1  5
f (1) 
( f (1) )2 = 1600
So, sin x =
2
5
 = – 1,  = 5
( f (1) ) 3
= 8000 +=4
f (1) = 20
- 17 -
PHYSICS
SECTION - A Distance
Sol. v avg =
Multiple Choice Questions: This section contains 20 Time
multiple choice questions. Each question has 4 choices 4+4
(1), (2), (3) and (4), out of which ONLY ONE is correct. = km/h
4 4
+
Choose the correct answer: 3 5
1. In the given circuit the resistance between terminals 15
= km/h
A and B is equal to 4
3. A current 2 A is flowing through the sides of an
equilateral triangular loop of side 4 3 m as shown.
Find the magnetic field induction at the centroid of
the triangle.
3
(1) 2 Ω (2) Ω
2
2
(3) Ω (4) 6 Ω
3
Answer (3) (1) 3 3 × 10−7 T (2) 3 × 10−7 T

Sol. The circuit can be redrawn as
(3) 2 3 × 10−7 T (4) 5 3 × 10−7 T
Answer (1)
Sol.
So the net resistance across A and B is

1 1 1 1 1 1
= + + + +
Rnet 2 12 4 6 2 r
= tan30°
2 3
1 6 + 1+ 3 + 2 + 6
=
Rnet 12 r=2m
Magnetic field at centroid
2 
R=
net  3 Ω
  µ 0I
= 3× (sin 60° + sin 60°)
4πr
2. A car travels 4 km distance with a speed of 3 km/h
and next 4 km with a speed of 5 km/h. Find average µ0 2  3 3
speed of car. =3 × ×  + 
4π 2  2 2 
15 15
(1) km/h (2) km/h
2 4 µ0
= 3 3× T
(3) 15 km/h (4) 10 km/h 4π
Answer (2) = 3 3 × 10−7 T
-2-
4. A particle is released at a height equal to radius of 7. In the AC circuit shown in the figure the value of Irms
the earth above the surface of the earth. Its velocity is equal to
when it hits the surface of earth is equal to
(Me : mass of earth, Re : Radius of earth)
2GMe GMe
(1) v = (2) v =
Re 2Re
GMe 2GMe
(3) v = (4) v = (1) 2A (2) 2 2A
Re 3Re
(3) 4A (4) 2A
Answer (3)
Answer (1)
Sol. Using energy conservation.
Sol.=
Z R 2 + ( X L – XC )2
GMm GMm 1
− =
− + mv 2
2Re Re 2 1002 + (100 – 100)2 =
= 100 Ω
GMe 200 2
v= So, i0
= = 2 2
Re 100
5. A faulty scale reads 5°C at melting point and 95°C i0
So, irms
= = 2A
at steam point. 2
Find original temperature if this faulty scale reads 8. A point charge Q is placed inside the cavity made
41°C. in uniform conducting solid sphere as shown. EA,
(1) 40°C (2) 41°C EB and EC are electric field magnitudes at points A,
(3) 36°C (4) 45°C B and C respectively, Then
Answer (1)
41 − 5 x −0
Sol. =
95 − 5 100 − 0
⇒ 9x = 360
⇒ x = 40
(1) EA = 0, EB = 0 and EC ≠ 0
6. A block stays in equilibrium as shown:
(2) EA ≠ 0, EB = 0 and EC ≠ 0
(3) EA ≠ 0, EB = 0 and EC = 0
(4) EA ≠ 0, EB ≠ 0 and EC ≠ 0
Answer (2)
Sol. Taking Q as positive
Find the tension in the string if m = 3 kg
(1) 3g N (2) 3g N
g g
(3) N (4) N
2 3
Answer (1) EA ≠ 0 (electric field due to both Q and induced

Sol. Since block in equilibrium charge on the inner surface of cavity)
⇒ T = mg EB = 0 (No field line inside conductor)
EC ≠ 0 (electric field due to charge induced on outer
⇒ T = 3g
surface of conductor).
-3-
9. In the shown mass-spring system when it is set into
oscillations along the spring, it has angular X1 = A ⋅ ( A ⋅ B ) ⋅ B ⋅ ( A ⋅ B )
frequency ω1, when m = 1 kg and ω2 if m = 2 kg. = A ⋅ ( AB ) + B.( AB )
ω
Then value of 1 is equal to = A ⋅ ( A + B) + B ⋅ ( A + B)
ω2
= AB + BA
= XOR gate
A B Y
0 0 0
0 1 1
(1) 1 (2) 2
1 0 1
1
(3) (4) 2 1 1 0
2
Answer (2) 11. A particle of mass m is moving under a force whose
delivered power P is constant. Initial velocity of
k k particle is zero. Find position of particle at t = 4s.
Sol. ω
=1 =
m 1 16 2P 4 2P
(1) x = (2) x =
k k 3 m 3 m
ω=
2 =
m 2 2 P 3 P
(3) x = (4) x =
ω1 k 3 m 10 m
So
= = 2
ω2 k /2 Answer (1)
10. For the given logic circuit which of the following W
Sol. P =
truth table is correct? t
1
⇒ mv 2 =
P ⋅t
2
2Pt dx
⇒ v= =
m dt
16 2P
⇒ x=
3 m
(1) (2)
12. Column-I list few physical quantities and column-II
lists their dimensions. Choose the correct option
matching the two lists correctly
Column-I Column-II
(P) Pressure gradient (A) [M1L2T–2]
(3) (4)
(Q) Energy density (B) [M1L1T–1]
(R) Torque (C) [M1L–2T–2]
(S) Impulse (D) [M1L–1T–2]
Answer (1) (1) P-C, Q-A, R-B, S-D (2) P-C, Q-D, R-A, S-B
Sol. (3) P-A, Q-D, R-B, S-C (4) P-A, Q-C, R-B, S-D
Answer (2)
dp  ML–1T –2 
Sol. [Pressure gradient] ⇒   =  
 dz   L 
= [ML–2 T 2 ]
-4-
 dU   ML2 T –2  Sol. When proton is accelerated by potential difference
–1 –2
[Energy density] ⇒   =
  = [ML T ] V, the linear momentum of proton
 dV   L 3

P2
[Torque] ⇒ [F ] × [r ] =
[MLT –2 2 –2
] × [L] = [ML T ] = eV
2m
[Impulse] ⇒ [F] [t] = [MLT–2]
[T] = [MLT–1] h
=P 2meV=
⇒ λ1
So, P → C, Q → D, R → A, S → B 2meV
13. Consider the following assertion & reason: When accelerated by potential difference of 3V,
Assertion (A): At sink temperature of –273°C, the then linear momentum of proton is
efficiency of a Carnot engine will be 1.
P2
Reason (R): Efficiency of a Carnot engine is given = 3eV
T 2m
by η = 1 − sink . h
TSource =P 6meV=
⇒ λ2
(1) (A) is correct, (R) is correct and correctly 6meV
explains A λ1
= 3
(2) (A) is not correct, (R) is correct λ2
(3) Both (A) & (R) are incorrect
(4) Both (A) & (R) are correct, (R) does not explain
(A)
Answer (1)
T
Sol. η = 1 − sink
TSource SECTION - B
If Tsink = 0 K ⇒ η = 1 Numerical Value Type Questions: This section
14. Electric field in a region is contains 10 questions. In Section B, attempt any five
 questions out of 10. The answer to each question is a
E = 2 x 2 iˆ − 4 yjˆ + 6zkˆ NUMERICAL VALUE. For each question, enter the
truncated/rounded-off to the second decimal place;
e.g. 06.25, 07.00, –00.33, –00.30, 30.27, –27.30) using
21. For the given electrical circuit, the potential
difference between points B and C is zero. The
Find the charge inside the cuboid shown: value of x is _______.
(1) –8ε0 (2) 36ε0
(3) 12ε0 (4) 24ε0
Answer (4)
Sol. φtotal = 2(1)2[2 × 3] – 4(2)[1 × 3] + 6(3)[1 × 2]
= 12 – 24 +36
= 24
q
⇒ = 24
ε0
Answer (00.50)
⇒ q = 24ε0
15. Find the ratio of de Broglie wavelength of proton, Sol.
when it is accelerated across v and 3v potential
difference.
(1) 3 : 1 (2) 1: 3
(3) 1 : 3 (4) 3 : 1]
Answer (4)
-5-
VB = VC f
Sol. Average kinetic energy = K BT
 x  2
2  x + 1  ( Average kinetic energy )H2 TH2  2 
then =
3 x = =  
( Average kinetic energy )O2 TO2  1 
2 1
⇒ = 25. The relation between velocity (v) and position (x) of
3 x +1
a particle moving along x-axis is given by
3 4v2 = 50 – x2. The time period of the oscillatory
x +1=
2 88
motion of the particle is seconds.
1 n
⇒x= Ω
2 22 

22. Two waves of same intensity from sources in phase Find n use π = 
 7
are made to superimpose at a point. If path
difference between these two coherent waves is Answer (07.00)
zero then resultant intensity is I0. If this path Sol. 4v2 = 50 – x2
λ 1
difference is where λ is wavelength of these v2
= (50 − x 2 )
2 4
waves, then resultant intensity is I, and if the path
1
λ =v 50 − x 2
difference is then resultant intensity is I2. Value 2
4
I +I Comparing equation of S.H.M.
of 1 2 is equal to
I0 ω A2 − x 2
v=
Answer (00.50) A2 = 50
Sol. Let individual intensity from source is I thus =
A 50 5 2
=
 2π 
I0 = I + I + 2 I × I cos  0 ×  1
 λ  w= = 0.5 rad/sec
2
⇒ I0 = 4I 2π 2π
 λ 2π  T= = = 4π second
I1 = I + I + 2 I × I cos  ×  w 0.5
2 λ 
 22 
⇒ I1 = 0 π = 
 7 
 λ 2π 
I2 = I + I + 2 I × I cos  ×  88 88
4 λ  =
T =
7 n
⇒ I2 = 2I So, n = 7
I +I 1 26. Prism A has angle of prism equal to 6° and its
So, 1 2 = or 0.5
I0 2 material has refractive index 1.5. It is used in
23. A bullet (mass 10 grams) is fired from a gun (mass combination with prism B of refractive index 1.8 to
10 kg without the bullet) with a speed of 100 m/s. produce dispersion without deviation. Prism angle
of prism B is equal to _____ degrees.
x
The recoil speed of gun is m/s. Find x. Answer (03.75°)
10
Sol. For dispersion without deviation
Answer (1)
AA(µA – 1) + AB(µB – 1) = 0
Sol. Conserving momentum
6(1.5 – 1) + A(1.8 – 1) = 0
10
10 × V
= × 100 3
1000 A=
− −3.75°
=
0.8
1
⇒ V = m/s
10
24. The ratio of temperature (in K) of hydrogen and
oxygen is 2 : 1. The ratio of their average kinetic
energy per molecule is
Answer (02.00)
-6-
CHEMISTRY
SECTION – A 4. The correct order of bond strength

Multiple Choice Questions: This section contains 20 H2O, H2S, H2Se, H2Te
multiple choice questions. Each question has 4 choices (1) H2O > H2S > H2Se > H2Te
(1), (2), (3) and (4), out of which ONLY ONE is correct. (2) H2S > H2O > H2Se > H2Te
Choose the correct answer : (3) H2Te > H2Se > H2S > H2O
(4) H2Te > H2S > H2O > H2Se
1. Maximum no. of e– in n = 4 shell
(1) 72 Answer (1)
(2) 50 Sol. The correct order of bond strength is
(3) 16
H2O > H2S > H2Se > H2Te
(4) 32
5. The correct order of acidic strength of the following
Answer (4)
compounds is
Sol. Maximum number of e– = 2n2
= 2(4)2
= 32
2. BOD value of a water sample is 3 ppm.
Select the correct option about the given sample of
water.
(1) a > b > c > d (2) c > a > b > d
(1) It is highly polluted water
(3) d > c > b > a (4) c > b > a > d
(2) It is clean water
(3) Concentration of oxygen in the given sample is Answer (2)
very less
Sol. The correct acidic order is
(4) None of these
Answer (2)
Sol. The given sample of water is clean water as BOD

value of clean water ranges between 3 to 5.
3. Which of the following chloride is more soluble in 6. What is Cl – Co – Cl bond angle in [Co(NH3)3Cl3]?
organic solvent? (1) 120° and 90°
(1) Be
(2) 90° and 180°
(2) K
(3) 90°
(3) Ca
(4) Mg (4) 180°
Answer (1) Answer (2)
Sol. Out of the given elements, the chlorides of K and
Sol.
Ca are largely ionic. So, they will be more soluble
in water and less soluble in organic solvents. BeCl2
has higher covalent character than MgCl2.
Therefore, BeCl2 is more soluble in organic
solvents than MgCl2.
-7-
7. The correct decreasing order of stability of the 9. Lead storage battery have 38% (w/w) H2SO4. Find
following compounds is
the temperature at which the liquid of battery will
freeze
K.kg
(i = 2.67); kf of water = 1.86
mole
(1) –3.1°C
(2) –31°C
(1) a > b > c > d
(2) d > b > c > a (3) –0.31°C
(3) b > d > a > c (4) –0.031°C
(4) b > a > d > c
Answer (2)
Answer (3)
Sol. Tf = ikfm
Sol. The correct stability order is
= (2.67)(1.86)(m)
38(1000)
m= = 6.25
(98)(62)
Tf = (2.67)(1.86)(6.25)
8. Which of the following is correct order of SN1 = 31.06C
reaction? Freezing point = –31.06°C
–
10. KMnO4 oxidises I in acidic & neutral medium in
which form – respectively.
(1) IO3− , IO–
(2) IO3– ,IO3–

(1) a > b > c > d (2) c > b > d > a
(3) c > a > b > d (4) d > a > b > c (3) IO3– , I3–
Answer (2)
(4) I2 ,IO3−
Sol. The reactivity order of the given aralkyl halides
towards SN1 reaction will be decided by the stability Answer (4)
of their corresponding carbocations.
Sol. : I converts to I2 in acidic medium and converts to
IO3 in neutral medium.
11. Which of the following equation is correct?
(1) LiNO3 → Li + NO2 + O2
(2) LiNO3 → LiNO2 + O2

The benzyl carbocation is stabilised by resonance.
The presence of –NH2 group at the p-position (3) LiNO3 → Li2O + NO2 + O2
promotes the resonance stabilisation due to
+R effect. The –OMe group also promotes but to a (4) LiNO3 → Li2O + N2O4 + O2
lesser extent due to higher electronegativity of
Answer (3)
O-atom than N-atom. The –NO2 group opposes the
resonance stabilisation due to its –R effect. 1

Sol. 2LiNO3 ⎯⎯ → Li2O + 2NO2 + O2
 The correct order is c > b > d > a. 2
-8-
12. The option containing correct match is 15. Nessler's reagent is
(List-I) (List-II)
(1) K2[HgI4]
A. Ni(CO)4 (i) sp3
B. [Ni(CN)4]2– (ii) sp3d2 (2) K3[HgI4]
C. [Cu(H2O)6]+2 (iii) d2sp3 (3) Hg2I2

D. [Fe(CN)6]4– (iv) dsp2
(4) HgI2
(1) A(i), B(iv), C(ii), D(iii)
(2) A(iii), B(ii), C(iv), D(i) Answer (1)
(3) A(ii), B(iii), C(iv), D(i) Sol. Nessler's reagent is K2[HgI4]

(4) A(iv), B(ii), C(i), D(iii)
16. Boric acid is present in solid state while BF3 is a gas
Answer (1) at room temperature because
Sol. Ni(CO)4 → sp3
(1) Hydrogen bonding is present in boric acid
[Ni(CN)4]2– → dsp2
+2 (2) Boric acid has more molar mass as compared
Cu (H2O )  → sp3 d 2
 6 to BF3
4−
Fe ( CN)  → d 2sp 3 (3) BF3 is polymeric in nature
 6
13. Statement 1:– Antihistamine prevents the secretion (4) Both (2) and (3)
of acid in stomach
Statement 2: – Antiallergic and antacid work on Answer (1)
same receptors
Sol. Due to H-bonding, boric acid is solid at room
(1) 1 is correct, 2 is incorrect
temperature.
(2) Both are correct
(3) 1 is incorrect, 2 is correct
(4) Both are incorrect
Answer (4)
Sol. Antihistamines do not affect the secretion of acid in
stomach. Antiallergic and antacid drugs work on
different receptors. Therefore, both the statements
are incorrect. SECTION - B
14. Statement-1: During hall-heroult process mixing of Numerical Value Type Questions: This section
CaF2 and Na3AlF6 decreases the M.P. of Al2O3.
Statement-2: During electrolytic refining Anode is
pure and cathode is impure. questions out of 10. The answer to each question is a
(1) Both are correct NUMERICAL VALUE. For each question, enter the
(2) Statement-1 is correct, statement-2 is incorrect
(3) Both are incorrect
(4) Statement-1 is incorrect, statement-2 is correct
06.25, 07.00, –00.33, –00.30, 30.27, –27.30) using the
Answer (2)
Sol. Mixture of CaF2 and Na3AlF6 decreases the melting
point of Al2O3. place designated to enter the answer.
-9-
21. For given Ecell, Answer (3)
X | X2+ (0.001M) || Y2+ (0.01M) | Y at 298 K log

100
t
Sol. 90 = 100 − 90 = 1 = 1 = 1
EX2+ / X = −0.76 t 60  100  log 10 1 − 0.6 0.4
log  
 100 − 60  4
EY2+ /Y = +0.34
540
t 90 = = 1350 sec
0.4
2.303 RT
= 0.06
F 1350 = 1.35  10x
If Ecell = t, find 5t (closest integer). x=3
Answer (6) 24. 1 mole of a gas undergoes adiabatic process given
0.06 10 −3 that CV = 20 JK–1 mol–1, w = 3 kJ, T1 = 27°C, T2 = ? (°C)

Sol. Ecell = Ecell − log −2
2 10 Answer (177)
= 1.10 – 0.03 (–1) Sol. w = + nCv(T2 – T1)
= 1.10 + 0.03 3000 = 1 × 20 × (T2 – 300)
t = 1.13 V 150 = T2 – 300
5t = 5.65 V T2 = 450 K
Nearest integer = 6  T2 = 177°C
22. Find the number of formula units of FeO per unit 25. Volume strength of H2O2 solution is 60 ‘V’, strength
cell (Round off to the nearest integer) of solution is______ g/L.
Given that density = 4.0 gm/cm3 (Round off to the nearest integer)
a = 5Å Answer (182)
NA = 6.0 × 1023 Sol. Volume strength of H2O2 = 60 volume
Answer (04) 60
Molarity of H2O2 solution = M
11.2
ZM density  NA  a3 60  34
Sol. Density = Z= Strength of H2O2 solution =
NA  a3 M 11.2
4  6.0  1023  (5  10–8 )3 = 182.14 g/L

=
(56 + 16)
 182 g/L
4  6  125  10–1
= = 4.16
72
23. For 1st order reaction, 540 s is required for 60%

completion, then the time for 90% completion is
1.35 × 10x. Find x.
(log4 = 0.6)
- 10 -
MATHEMATICS
SECTION - A Sol. h(x – 1) = 2[x – 1] + f(x – 1)

Multiple Choice Questions: This section contains 20 lt h( x − 1) = 2.0 + f (0+ )
x →1+
(1), (2), (3) and (4), out of which ONLY ONE is correct. =1
lt h( x − 1) = 2( −1) + f (0− )
Choose the correct answer : x →1−
1. Common tangent is drawn to y2 = 16x and x2 + y2 = 8. = –3
Find square of distance between point of contact of RHL
common tangent on both the curves.
sin2
(1) 78 (2) 72 lt g ( h( x − 1) ) =
+ 2
x →1
(3) 42 (4) 76
LHL
Answer (2)
sin2
Sol. y = mx + 4/m lt g ( h( x − 1) ) =
− 2
x →1
Perpendicular from (0,0)
LHL = RHL
4
sin2
m  lim g ( h( x − 1) ) =
= 8 x →1 2
m2 + 1
3. If | a | = 1, | b |= 2, a · b = 4, c = 2(a  b ) − 3b then
 m = ±1 b · c equals
 a 2a  (1) – 48 (2) – 12
Point of contact on parabola =  , 
 m2 m  (3) 12 (4) 48
= (4, ±8) Answer (2)
Point of contact in circle = (–2, 2) Sol. c = 2(a  b ) − 3b
OR (2, –2) b · c = −3 b · b
Distance between (4, 8) & (–2, 2)
= − 3 | b |2
= 72
= – 12
x
3
, x0 2 2 2
  1  2  1
2. Let f ( x ) =  x 4. lim  4 +  2 +  +  2 +  + ... +  3 −   is
 1 n → n 
  n  n  n 
 x =0
(1) 19 (2) 21
 sin( x + 1)
 x  −1 (3) –19 (4) 0
g( x ) =  x + 1
 1 x = −1 Answer (1)
3 n −1
2
r
h(x) = 2[x] + f(x) Sol. lim   2 + n 
n → n r =0 
([] denotes greatest integer function)
then limit g ( h( x − 1) ) is 1
= 3  ( 2 + x ) dx
2
x →1 0
(1)
sin1
(2)
sin2 ( 2 + x )3 1
1 2 =3
3 0
(3) –1 (4) 2 = 27 – 8
Answer (2) = 19
- 11 -
5. Let f ( x ) = 3 − x + x + 2. The range of f(x) is  a1 = 1, a2 = 2....a2022 = 2022
(1) [2 2, 10] (2) [ 5, 10] = tan−1 2022 − tan−1 1


(3) [ 2, 7] (4) [ 7, 10] = tan−1 2022 −
4
Answer (2)
 
Sol. y = 3 − x + x + 2 = − cot −1 2022 −
2 4
1 1 
y = ( −1) + =0 = − cot −1 2022
2 3−x 2 x+2 4
 x+2 = 3−x
( ) ( )
13 9
7. Let P = 8 3 + 13 ,Q = 6 2 +9 then (where [ ]
1
 x= represents greatest integer function)
2
(1) [P] = Odd, [Q] = Even
 1 5 5 (2) [P] = Even, [Q] = Odd
 y  = +
2 2 2 (3) [P] = Odd, [Q] = Odd
y max = 10 (4) [P] + [Q] = Even
y min at x = −2 or x = 3 is 5 Answer (4)
( )
13
 y   5, 10  Sol. Let P = I1 + f1, f  = 8 3 − 13
  1
( ) ( )
13 13
 1 
The value of tan−1  −1  1  I1 + f1 − f1 = 8 3 + 13 − 8 3 − 13
6.  + tan   + .... +
 1 + a1 2
a  1 + a2a3 
( ( ) ( )
12 10
= 2 13C1 8 3 (13 ) + 13 C3 8 3 (13 )3
1
 1 
tan−1  
 1 + a2021a2022 
( ) (13 )5 + ... + 13C13 ( 8 ) (13 )13 
8 0
+ 13C5 8 3 3
if a1 = 1 and ai are consecutive natural numbers 
 f1 − f  = 0
(1) − cot −1 ( 2021)
4 So, I1 is even

− cot −1 ( 2022 )
( )
9
(2)
4 Let Q = I2 + f2 , f2 = 9 − 6 2

− tan−1 ( 2021) ( ) − (9 − 6 2 )
9 9
(3) I2 + f2 − f2 = 9 + 6 2
4
  
( )
2
(4) − tan−1 ( 2022 ) = 2  9C0 99 + 9C2 97 6 2 + ...
4  
Again f2 − f2 = 0
Answer (2)
 a −a   a −a 
Sol. tan−1  2 1  + tan−1  3 2  + .... + I2 = even
 1 + a1a2   1 + a2a3 
8. Let p : I am well.
a−1  − a2021 
tan  2022  q : I will not take rest
 1 + a2021a2022 
r : I will not sleep properly, then
( ) (
= tan−1 a2 − tan−1 a1 + tan−1 a3 − tan−1 a2 + ... + ) “If I am not well then I will not take rest and I will not
sleep properly” is logically equivalent to
( tan −1
a2022 − tan−1 a2021 ) (1) (~ p → q)  r (2) ~ p → (q  r)
(3) (~ p  q) → r (4) (~ p  q) → r
= tan−1 a2022 − tan−1 a1
Answer (2)
- 12 -
Sol. ~ p : I am not well 2
y
2 2 3+ 
q : I will not take rest dy 3x + y x
Sol. =− =−
2 2 2
r : I will not sleep properly dx 3y + x y
3  + 1
I will not take rest and I will not sleep properly  q  r x
If I am not well then I will not take rest and I will not y
sleep properly  ~ p → (q  r) Let, =u
x
9. q is maximum value of p lying in interval [0, 10],
dy du
5p =u+x
roots of x 2 – px + = 0 are having rational roots. dx dx
d
Find area of region
du − 3 + u
2
( )
S : 0  y  ( x − q ) 
2 u+x =
dx 3u 2 + 1
( ) ( )
(1) 243 (2) 723 2 2
du − 3 + u − u 3u + 1
(3) 81 (4) 3 x =
dx 3u 2 + 1
Answer (1)
Sol. D = p2 – 5p must be a perfect square i.e. possible  3 2 
du − 3u + u + u + 3 
x =
( )
when p = 9
dx 3u 2 + 1
Region for 0  y  ( x − 9)2 , in 1st quadrant
x
du − ( u + 1) 3u − 2u + 3
=
2
( )
dx 3u 2 + 1
3u 2 + 1 dx
 du = − 
(u + 1) ( 3u 2
− 2u + 3 ) x
1 1
( 6u − 2) dx
 u + 1 3u 2 − 2u + 3 du = − x
9 2 + 4
A =  ( x − 9)2 dx
0
1 1
9 ln ( u + 1) + ln 3u 2 − 2u + 3 = − ln x + C
( x − 9)3 93 2 4
= =0+
3 0 3
= 243 sq. unit
1
2
1 1
ln ( x + y ) − ln x + ln 3y 2 − 2xy + 3 x 2
2 4
( )
dy 3x 2 + y 2
10. If =− , y (1) = 0, then f(x) is 1
dx 3y 2 + x 2 −  2ln x = − ln x + C
4
( )
2 xy
(1) log ( x + y ) + =0 ln ( x + y ) + ln 3 y 2 − 2 xy + 3 x 2 = C
2
(x + y ) 2
(2) log ( x + y ) −
2xy
=0 ( x + y )2 ( 3 x 2 − 2xy + 3y 2 ) = C
( x + y )2
y (1) = 0
(
(3) 3 = 3 y 2 − 2 xy + 3 x 2 ) ( x + y )2
 C=3
(4) 3 = ( 3 y 2 − 2 xy + 3 x 2 ) ( x + y )
( x + y )2 ( 3x 2 − 2xy + 3y 2 ) = 3
Answer (3)
- 13 -
11. A bag contains 3 same balls and 3 different balls of SECTION - B
three different colours. Two balls are drawn
randomly with replacement. The probability they
have same colour is m. Again four balls are drawn
one by one with replacement, then probability of questions out of 10. The answer to each question is a
getting three same balls is n. The value of m. n is NUMERICAL VALUE. For each question, enter the
3 6
(1) (2) truncated/rounded-off to the second decimal place; e.g.
49 49
06.25, 07.00, –00.33, –00.30, 30.27, –27.30) using the
43 8 mouse and the on-screen virtual numeric keypad in the
(3) (4)
147 81 place designated to enter the answer.
Answer (4)
21. Two A.P.’s are given as under
Sol. For m 3, 7, 11, ……
 1 1 1, 6, 11, 16,….
both balls is one of different colours =   ·3
6 6 Find 8th common term that is appearing in both the
series
1 1
both balls is from the same balls =  Answer (151)
2 2
Sol. First common term is 11 and common terms will
1 1 1 appear in an A.P. having common difference as
 m= + =
4 12 3 LCM of (4, 5) = 20
For n T8 = 11 + (8 – 1) 20
= 151
Same ball is from the different coloured balls
22. Using 1, 2, 2, 2, 3, 3, 5 find number of 7-digit odd
  1 3 5  numbers that can be formed
= 3 4  · 
 6 6 Answer (240)
 
6!
Or same ball is from the 3 same balls Sol. - - - - - - 1 → = 60
2!3!
  1 3 1 
= =  4  ·  6!
 2 2 ------3→ = 120
  3!
6!
 n=
10
+
1
=
8 ------5→ = 60
3!2!
63 4 27
Total = 240
8
 mn = 23. 50th root of x is 12
81
50th root of y is 18
Remainder when x + y is divided by 25.
Answer (23)
Sol. 1250 + 1850 = 14425 + 32425
= (25K1 – 6)25 + (25K2 – 1)25
= 25 – 625 – 1
625 + 1 = (65)5 + 1
= (7776)5 + 1
= (251 + 1)5 + 1 = 25p + 2
 1250 + 1850 = 25 – (25p + 2)
 Remainder = 23
- 14 -
24. Let a = {1, 3, 5, … 99} 26. If area of the region bounded by the curves y = x2,
and b = {2, 4, 6, … 100} y = (1 – x)2 and y = 2x(1 – x) is A, then find the
The number of ordered pair (a, b) such that a + b value of 540A,
when divided by 23 leaves remainder 2 is Answer (135)
Answer (108) 1 ½ 1
Sol. a + b = 23 + 2 Sol. A =  2x(1 − x )dx –  x 2dx –  (1 − x )2 dx
0 0 ½
 = 0, 1, 2, ….
But  can’t be even
 if =1 (a, b) → 12 pairs
=3 (a, b) → 35 pairs
=5 (a, b) → 42 pairs
=7 (a, b) → 19 pairs
=9 (a, b) → 0 pairs
Total = 12 + 35 + 42 + 19 = 108 ordered paris

25. Let a line parallel to x + 3y – 2z – 2 = 0 = x – y + 2z
and passes through (2, 3, 1). If distance of point
(5, 3, 8) from the line is , then 32 is
1 1 1
Answer (158) 2 2x 3  x3  (1 − x )3 
=x –  –  + 
Sol. Let a = iˆ + 3 ˆj − 2kˆ 3 0 3 0 3 ½
b = iˆ − jˆ + 2kˆ
1
=
4
Line will be parallel to a  b
540A = 135
iˆ jˆ kˆ 27. A = { 2, 4, 6, 8, 10}
ab = 1 3 – 2 = iˆ(4) − jˆ(4) + kˆ(– 4) Find total no. of functions defined on A such that
1 –1 2 f(m·n) = f(m) · f(n), m, n  A
 n = iˆ − jˆ − kˆ Answer (25)
Sol. f(4) = (f(2)2 = 4
(a2 − a1)  n
d= f(8) = (f(2)3 = 8
|n|
where a2 = 5iˆ + 3 jˆ + 8kˆ , a1 = 2iˆ + 3 jˆ + kˆ
a2 − a1 = 3iˆ + 7kˆ
iˆ ˆj kˆ
( a2 − a1 )  n = 3 0 7
1 –1 –1
For 6 and 10 we have 5 options
= iˆ(7) − jˆ(– 10) + kˆ(– 3)
Total functions = 5 × 5 = 25
100 + 49 + 9 158
d= = =
3 3
32 = 158
- 15 -
JEE Main 2023 Jan 31 Shift 2 Physics Question Paper (Memory-Based)
SECTION - A Answer (3)

Multiple Choice Questions: This section contains 20
multiple choice questions. Each question has 4 choices v 2 sin2 θ
Sol. Hmax =
(1), (2), (3) and (4), out of which ONLY ONE is correct. 2g
Choose the correct answer: sin2 30°

⇒ Ratio =
1. Match the radiations listed in column-I with their sin2 60°
uses listed in column-II correctly. 1
=
Column-I Column-II 3
4. Find ionization energy of 2nd excited state of Li2+. It
(A) UV rays (P) Physiotherapy
is given that ionization energy of ground state of
(B) Infra red rays (Q) Treatment of hydrogen atom is 13.6 eV.
cancer (1) 20.4 eV (2) 27.2 eV
(C) X-rays (R) Lasic eye surgery (3) 6.8 eV (4) 13.6 eV
(D) Microwave (S) Aircraft navigation Answer (4)

rays
2 1 
Sol. E 13.6 ( 3 )  2 − 0 
=
(1) A – S, B – P, C – R, D – Q 3 
(2) A – R, B – P, C – Q, D – S = 13.6 eV
(3) A – Q, B – P, C – S, D – R 5. A ball of mass 1 kg is hanging from 1 m long
(4) A – R, B – P, C – S, D – Q inextensible string which can withstand maximum
tension of 400 N. Find the maximum speed (u) that
Answer (2) should be given to the ball.
Sol. UV rays are used for lasik eye surgery.
IR is used for physiotherapy.
X-rays are used for cancer treatment.
and Microwaves are used for aircraft navigation.
2. During an adiabatic process performed on a
diatomic gas 725 J of work is done on the gas. The
change in internal energy of the gas is equal to (1) 390 m/s (2) 410 m/s
(1) 495 J (2) 725 J (3) 20 m/s (4) 22 m/s
(3) 225 J (4) Zero Answer (1)
Answer (2)
Sol. For adiabatic process Q = 0
∆U + W = 0
Sol.
∆U – 725 = 0
∆U = 725 J
3. Two balls are projected with equal speed (40 m/s),
one at an angle of 30° and other at 60° with
horizontal. Find the ratio of maximum heights of
both the balls. mv 2
=
T mg +
l
1 3
(1) (2)
4 1 u2
400 =
N 10 +
1 4 l
(3) (4)
3 1 u= 400 − 10= 390 m/s
-2-
6. Match the physical quantities given in column-I with Answer (3)
the physical dimensions in column-II correctly. Sol. If angle of projection for projectile 1 is 60° then
Column-I Column-II angle of projectile 2 is 30° for same range
u 2 sin2 60° u 2 sin2 30°
A. Torque (P) ML–1T–2 =H1 = , H2
2g 2g
B. Stress (Q) ML2T–2
u2 402
C. Pressure gradient (R) ML–2T–2 H1 + H2 = = = 80 m
2g 2 × 10
D. Angular momentum (S) ML2T–1 9. A body has weight W on the surface of earth. Find
(1) A(S), B(P), C(R), D(Q) the weight at a height 9 times the radius of earth.
(2) A(Q), B(P), C(R), D(S) W W
(1) (2)
(3) A(P), B(S), C(R), D(Q) 100 81
(4) A(Q), B(P), C(S), D(R) W W

(3) (4)
Answer (2) 64 121
Sol. [τ] = [r][F] = [L] [MLT–2] = [ML2T–2] Answer (1)

[F ] [MLT ] −2 g0
[Stress]
= = = [ML−1T −2 ] Sol. g ′ = 2
[ A] [L2 ] r 
 
R
[P ] [ML−1T −2 ]
[Pr essure gradient]
= = 1
= [ML−2 T −2 ] g0 g0
[Z ] [L ] = =
2
10 100
[L] = [τ][t] = [ML2T–2][T] = [ML2T–1]
W
7. The equation of two simple harmonic motions are ⇒ W′ =
100
given by y1 = 10 sin (ωt + π/3), and
10. A wire is first coiled in n circular turns and current I
=y 2 5 sin ( ωt ) + 3 cos ωt  . The amplitude of is run through it. Now the same wire is again coiled
resultant S.H.M is in N circular turns and same current I is run through
it. If B1 and B2 are the magnetic fields at centre of
(1) 10 m (2) 20 m
B
(3) 5 m (4) 15 m two coils respectively then 1 is equal to
B2
Answer (2)
2
n n
y1 5 sin ( ωt ) + 3 cos ( ωt ) 
Sol. = (1) (2)  
N N 
 π
= 10 sin  ωt +  n n3
 3 (3) (4)
N N3
 π
y 2 10 sin  ωt + 
= Answer (2)
 3 
 π  π Sol. Let the length of wire is , thus the radius of first coil
y1 = = 10 sin  ωt +  + 10 sin  ωt + 
+ y 2 y resultant
 3  3  
R1 = and the radius of second coil R2 =
 π 2πn 2πN
= 20 sin  ωt + 
y resultant
 3  µ0 nI µ0 πn 2I
So=
B1 =
Amplitude = 20 2 
8. Projectile 1 is thrown at angle 60° with horizontal 2πn
with speed 40 m/s. Projectile 2 is thrown with same µ0 nI µ0 πN 2I
speed for same range as projectile 1 but at different And=
B2 =
2 
angle. Sum of the maximum heights achieved by
2πN
two projectiles is equal to (Take g = 10 m/sec2)
(1) 40 m (2) 60 m B1 n 2
So =
(3) 80 m (4) 160 m B2 N 2
-3-
11. For a medium, it is given that Sol. When lens is placed in air,
Young’s modulus = 3.2 × 1010 N/m2 1  µ2  1 1 
= − 1  − 
Density = 8000 kg/m3 f  µ1   R1 R2 
Find speed of sound in this medium.
1  1.5   1 1 
(1) 1000 m/s = − 1  −  ...(1)
15  1   R1 R2 
(2) 2000 m/s
4
(3) 500 m/s When submerged in water  µ = 
 3
(4) 4000 m/s
 1.5 
Answer (2) 1  −1  1 1 
⇒ =  4   −  ...(2)
 
f ′      R1 R2 
Y 3 
Sol. v =
ρ
Equation (1)
3.2 × 10 10 Equation (2)
=
8000 f ′  0.5 
= × 4
= 2000 m/s 15  0.5 
12. When current of 4 amperes is made to run through f′ = 60 cm
a resistance of R ohms for 10 seconds, it produces
∆f = f′ – f = 60 – 15 = 45 cm
heat energy of H units. Now if 16 amperes of
current is made to flow through same resistance for 15. In a moving coil galvanometer, number of turns in
10 seconds than heat energy produced will be the coil are increased to increase the current
(1) 16 H (2) 4 H sensitivity by 50%. Find percentage change in
voltage sensitivity.
(3) 8 H (4) 2 H
(1) –50%
Answer (1)
(2) 50%
Sol. H = i2Rt = 42R × 10 = 160R
(3) No change
H′ = I2Rt = 162R × 10 = 2560R = 16 H
(4) 25%
13. Across an inductor of 5 mH an AC source with
potential given as 268 sin(200 πt) Volts is used. The Answer (3)
value of inductive reactance provided by inductor is Sol. Current sensitivity
equal to
θ nAB
π =
(1) 2π Ω (2) Ω I K
2
 nAB 
(3) 20π Ω (4) π Ω Voltage sensitivity =  
 KR 
Answer (4)
As current sensitivity increases by 50%
Sol. XL = ωL = 200π × 5 × 10–3
So number of turns increases by 50%
=πΩ
Resistance also increases by 50%
14. A lens of refractive index 1.5 and focal length 15 cm
Therefore, voltage sensitivity remains constant.
in air is submerged in water. Change in focal length
4
of lens is  r = 
 3
(1) 45 cm (2) 60 cm
(3) 30 cm (4) 10 cm
Answer (1)
-4-
SECTION - B 24. A ball was dropped from 20 m height from ground.
Numerical Value Type Questions: This section Find the height (in m) upto which it rises after the
1
contains 10 questions. In Section B, attempt any five collision.  use
= e =

, g 10 m/s2 
questions out of 10. The answer to each question is a  2 
Answer (05.00)
truncated/rounded-off to the second decimal place;
e.g., 06.25, 07.00, –00.33, –00.30, 30.27, –27.30) using Sol.
21. In a series RLC circuit, R = 80 Ω, XL = 100 Ω,
XC = 40 Ω. If the source voltage is 2500cos(628t)
Volts, find peak current in the circuit (in Amperes)
Answer (25.00)
v′ = ev
2
Sol. Z = R + ( X L − XC )
2
(v ′)2 e2v 2 2
h′
= = = e= h (0.5)2 × 20
=
2
802 + (100 − 40 ) = 100 Ω 2g 2g
Vo 20
⇒ Io = = 25 A = = 5m
Z 4
22. Two discs of same mass, radii r1 and r2, thickness h′ = 5 m
1 mm and 0.5 mm have densities in the ratio 3 : 1. 25. A particle is in uniform circular motion with time
The ratio of their moment of inertia about diameter
period 4 s and radius 2 m. Find the magnitude of
is 1 : x. Find x
displacement (in m) in 3 s.
Answer (06.00)
Answer (02.00)
Sol. 3 3π
Sol. θ= × 2π=
4 2
Mass of both disc is equal ⇒ Displacement =
2R
So ⇒ M1 = M2
= 2m
( ) (
⇒ πr12 h1ρ1 = πr22 h2 ρ2) 26. Two wavelengths λ1 = 600 nm and λ2 = 800 nm are
h ρ
2 used in a YDSE experiment. Their maximas
r22
⇒r × 1× 1 =
1
h2 ρ2 coincide at certain locations on the screen. Find the
minimum separation (in mm) between such a
ρ1 ρ1 ρ 1
⇒ r12 × 2 × =r22 =3 ⇒ 2 = location and central maxima. It is given that d = 0.35
ρ2 ρ2 ρ1 3 mm & D = 7 m
r 2  ρ2   1  Answer (48.00)
⇒ 1=  =  
r22  2ρ1   6  λ1D λ D
Sol. n1 = n2 2
1 2 d d
Mr1  r12   1 
4
Ratio of M.O.I = = = ⇒ 6n1 = 8n2

1 2  r22   6 
Mr2 ⇒ Minimum n1 = 4
4
23. A body moving horizontally has an initial speed of & n2 = 3
20 m/s. Due to friction, body stops after 5 seconds. 4 × 600 nm × 7 m
x ⇒ Minimum separation =
If mass of body is 5 kg, co-efficient of friction is . 0.35 mm
5
Find x. Take g = 10 m/s2. = 48
Answer (02.00)
Sol. v = u + at
⇒ 0 = 20 + (–µg) (5)
⇒ µ = 0.4
-5-
JEE Main 2023 Jan 31 Shift 2 Chemistry Question Paper (Memory-Based)
SECTION – A Sol. Calcium plays an important role in neuromuscular
Multiple Choice Questions: This section contains 20 functions.
multiple choice questions. Each question has 4 choices 4. Which of the following compound contain maximum
(1), (2), (3) and (4), out of which ONLY ONE is correct. number of chlorine atoms?
Choose the correct answer : (1) Chloropicrin
1. Which one of the following species is linear in (2) Chloral

shape?
(3) Gammexane
(1) I3– (2) I3+
(4) Freon-12
(3) ICl3 (4) ICl2+
Answer (3)
Answer (1) Sol. Compounds Number of
Sol. The shapes of the given species are Chlorine atoms

Chloropicrin 3
Chloral 3
Gammexane 6
Freon-12 2
5. Decreasing order of Lewis acid character is
(1) BF3 > BCl3 > BBr3 > BI3
(2) BI3 > BBr3 > BCl3 > BF3
2. For a given hydrocarbon, 11 moles of O2 is used
and produces 4 moles of H 2O. Then the formula of (3) BF3 > BCl3 > BI3 > BBr3
the hydrocarbon is
(4) BI3 > BCl3 > BF3 > BBr3
(1) C11H8 (2) C9H8
(3) C11H16 (4) C6H14 Answer (2)
Answer (2) Sol. Extent of back bonding
 y y BF3 BCl3 BBr3 BI3

Sol. CxHy +  x +  O2 ⎯⎯→ x CO2 + H2O   
 4 2 2p − 2p 2p − 3p 2p − 4p 2p − 5p
y 6. pH of acid rain is 5.6. Which of the following
=4  y=8
2 reaction is involved in acid rain?
8
x + = 11 (1) H2O + SO2 + O2 → H2SO4
4
 x=9 (2) N2 + O2 + H2O → HNO3
 Hydrocarbon will be = C9H8
(3) N2O + O2 + H 2O → HNO3
3. Which of the following plays an important role in
neuromuscular functions?
(4) None of these
(1) Ca (2) Mg
Answer (1)
(3) Be (4) Li
Sol. The correct answer of this equation is option 1
Answer (1)
-6-
7. Which of the following metals of F-block have half- 10. A reaction follows 1st order kinetics with rate
filled f-subshell?
constant (k) = 20 min–1. Calculate the time required
(a) Samarium (Sm)
1
(b) Gadolinium (Gd) to reach to concentration to times of initial
32
(c) Europium (Eu) concentration
(d) Terbium (Tb)
(1) 0.17325 min (2) 1.7325 min
(1) (a) and (b)
(3) 17.325 min (4) 173.25 min
(2) (b) and (c)
(3) (c) and (d) Answer (1)
(4) (a) and (c) CO CO
Sol. C = =
[Atomic numbers : Sm = 62, Eu = 63, Gd = 64, (2)n 32
Tb = 65] n=5
Answer (2) t = 5t1/2

Sol. The valence shell electronic configuration of the
given F-Block metals are 5  0.693 0.693
= =
20 4
(a) Sm : 4f66s2
(b) Gd : 4f7sd16s2 = 0.17325 min
(c) Eu : 4f76s2 11. If solubility of AgCl in aqueous solution is
1.434 × 10–3 M, then find the value of [–log Ksp],
(d) Tb : : 4f96s2 where Ksp is the solubility product of AgCl.
Therefore, Gd and Eu have half-filled f-subshell. (1) 3.7 (2) 5.7
8. If Ionisation energy of H-atom is 13.6 eV. Find out (3) 6.7 (4) 7.7
Ionisation energy of Li2+ ions.
Answer (2)
(1) 54.4 eV (2) 122.4 eV
Sol. Solubility of AgCl in water = 1.434 × 10–3 M
(3) 13.6 eV (4) 3.4 eV
Solubility product (Ksp) of AgCl = (1.434 × 10–3)2
Answer (2)  Ksp = 2 × 10–6
Sol. IE = 13.6 × Z2 –log Ksp = –log2 + 6
= 13.6 × (3)2 = 5.7
= 13.6 × 9 12. Consider the following combination of n, l and m

values.
= 122.4 eV
(i) n = 3; l = 0; m = 0
9. Which of the following compound is not a (ii) n = 4; l = 0; m = 0
disinfectant? (iii) n = 3; l = 1; m = 0
(1) Chloroxylenol (iv) n = 3; l = 2; m = 0
(2) Bithionol The correct order of energy of the corresponding
orbitals for multielectron species is
(3) Terpineol
(1) (ii) > (i) > (iv) > (iii)
(4) Peracetic acid
(2) (iv) > (ii) > (iii) > (i)
Answer (4) (3) (i) > (iii) > (iv) > (ii)
Sol. Chloroxylenol, bithionol and terpineol are the (4) (iv) > (iii) > (i) > (ii)
disinfectants. Answer (2)
-7-
Sol. (i) n = 3; l = 0; m = 0  3s orbital gives monocarboxylic acid with Br2/H2O and
(ii) n = 4; l = 0; m = 0  4s orbital tetraacetate with acetate and isopentane with
(iii) n = 3; l = 1; m = 0  3p orbital RedP/HI.
(iv) n = 3; l = 2; m = 0  3d orbital 15. Which of the following has more relative lowering in
The correct order of energy is 3d > 4s > 3p > 3s vapour pressure at the same temperature.
Hence correct answer is (2) (1) 0.1 M urea (2) 0.1 M NaCl
13. Two metals are given, (3) 0.1 M sucrose (4) 0.1 M CaCl2
Metal – 1 Work function = 4.8 ev Answer (4)
Metal – 2 Work function = 2.8 ev Sol. Relative lowering in vapour pressure is a colligative
Photons of wavelength 350 nm are incident on both property and colligative property depends only on
metals separately which metal will eject electrons the amount of solute from the given, CaCl2 will have
at this wavelength?
maximum amount, hence its solution will show
(1) Metal – 1 only
maximum relative lowering in vapour pressure
(2) Metal – 2 only hence the correct answer is option (4)
(3) Both metal – 1 and metal – 2
16. Assertion : First ionisation energy of 4d series
(4) None of metal – 1 and metal – 2 elements is always greater than those of 3d series
Answer (2) elements.
12400 Reason : 4d series elements have much more
Sol. Ephoton = = 3.54 ev
3500 nuclear charge than those of 3d series elements.
Wmetal – 1 > Ephoton > Wmetal – 2 (1) Assertion is correct but Reason is incorrect.
 Only metal – 2 will emit photons (2) Assertion is incorrect but Reason is correct.
(3) Both the Assertion and Reason are correct.
14. A biomolecule gives following observations (4) Both the Assertion and Reason are incorrect.
(i) With Br2/H2O it gives monocarboxylic acid.
Answer (2)
(ii) With acetate it gives tetraacetate.
Sol. The first ionisation energy of 4d series elements is
(iii) With HI/RedP it gives isopentane.
not always greater than those of 3d series
The correct structure of the biomolecule is
elements. So Assertion is incorrect. The Reason is
(1) (2) correct because 4d series elements have much
more nuclear charge than those of 3d series
elements.
17. What is the structural formula of compound C4H11N,
which reacts with HNO2 and is optically active?
(3) (4)
(1) (2)
Answer (4) (3) (4)

Sol.
Answer (1)
Sol.
-8-
hc 22. For the given reaction
18. Energy of a radiation  = . If  = +96 kJ/mole
 absorb C + O2 ⎯⎯→ CO2 (g)
thus find absorbed (in Å)
12 gm of C is reacted with 48 gm of O2 to give CO2.
(1) 12471Å (2) 124.71Å
If volume of CO2 gas produced at STP is t litre.
(3) 1247.1Å (4) 1.2471Å
Find out 2t (closest integer).
Answer (1) Given: Molar volume at STP = 22.4 L/mole
−34
6.626  10  3  10 8
Answer (45)
Sol.  6.023  1023 = 
96  103 C + O2 ⎯⎯→ CO2
 = 1. 2471 × 10–6 M 12 gm 48 gm ___
= 12471 Å Sol. 3
1 mole mole ___
19. 2
  
20. 0 1 mole
SECTION - B Volume = t = 22.4 litre
Numerical Value Type Questions: This section 2t = 44.8 litre
contains 10 questions. In Section B, attempt any five  45 L

23. The non-stoichiometry compounds M0.83O. M exists
in 2 states +2 and +3. Calculate the % of M2+ ion in
NUMERICAL VALUE. For each question, enter the the compound. (Round off to nearest integer)
correct numerical value (in decimal notation, Answer (59)
truncated/rounded-off to the second decimal place; e.g. Sol. Let M2+ is x.
06.25, 07.00, –00.33, –00.30, 30.27, –27.30) using the Then M3+ will be 83 – x.
mouse and the on-screen virtual numeric keypad in the  x + 2 + (83 – x) × 3 = 200
place designated to enter the answer. x = 49
49
21. How many of the following compound(s) can give  M2+ =  100 59%
83
iodoform test?
24. The resistivity of 0.8 M solution of an electrolyte is
5 × 10–3 .cm. If m is 2.5×10x. Find out x.
Answer (05.00)
103
Sol. k = S cm–1
5
103
 1000
k  1000
m = = 5
m 0.8
Answer (4) 200  103

0.8
Sol.
2
=  105 = 2.5  105
0.8
x=5
will give iodoform test
-9-
JEE Main 2023 Jan 31 Shift 2 Mathematics Question Paper (Memory-Based)
SECTION - A x 2 + 2x + 1
Sol. y =
Multiple Choice Questions: This section contains 20 x 2 + 8x + 1
multiple choice questions. Each question has 4 choices  x2(y – 1) + x(8y – 2) + y – 1 = 0, xR
(1), (2), (3) and (4), out of which ONLY ONE is correct. If y  1
Choose the correct answer : D0
4(4y – 1)2 – 4(y – 1) (y – 1)  0
1. Let a = iˆ + 2 ˆj − 3kˆ , b = iˆ − jˆ + 3kˆ and c = iˆ + 2 jˆ + 2kˆ.
 (4y – 1)2 – (y – 1)2  0
There is a u such that u  a = b  c & u  a = 0.  (4y – 1 – (y – 1)) (4y – 1 + y – 1)  0
2  (3y) (5y – 2)  0
Find 25 u
925
(1) 560 (2)
7
2 
(3) 446 (4) 330 y  ( – ,0   ,   – 1
Answer (2) 5 
If y = 1
Sol. ( u  a ) + ( u  a ) = u
2 2 2 2
a 6x = 0  x = 0
2 
bc
2
+ 0 = u  14
2  y  ( – ,0   ,  
5 
iˆ jˆ kˆ 3. If a, b  I and relation R1 is defined as a2 − b2  I

b  c = 1 −1 3 a
and relation R2 is defined as 2 +  0, then
1 2 2 b
(1) R1 is symmetric but R2 is not
= iˆ( −8) − jˆ( −1) + kˆ(3)
(2) R2 is symmetric but R1 is not
= −8iˆ + jˆ + 3kˆ (3) R1 and R2 are both symmetric
(4) R1 and R2 are both transitive
b  c = 74
Answer (1)
74 + 0 = 14|u|2
Sol. R1 → a 2 − b 2  I
2 74
 25 u =  25 as a, b  Z if a2 − b2  Z then b2 − a 2  Z
14
Also a2 − b2  Z & b2 − c 2  Z  a2 − c 2  Z
925
=  R1 is symmetric as well as transitive.
7
a a
x 2 + 2x + 1 R2 → 2 + 0   −2
2. The range of y = is (xR) b b
x 2 + 8x + 1
b a
then 2 +  0, then it is not necessary  −2

( −,0   
2 2 a b
(1)  −, −    2,  ) (2) , 
 3 5   R2 is not symmetric.
 −2  a b
(3) (– ) (4)  −,   1,  ) Now if 2 +  0 & 2+ 0
 5  b c
a
Answer (2) then 2 + can be positive or negative.
c
- 10 -
xdx 6. Foot of perpendicular from origin to a plane which
4. If  2
x +x+2
; Af ( x ) + B g ( x ) + C where C is
cuts the coordinate axes at A, B, C is (2, a, 4). Area
constant of integration, then A + 2B is equal to of tetrahedron OABC is 144 m2. Which of the
following points does not lie on plane?
(1) 1 (2) 0
(1) (2, 2, 4)
(3) –1 (4) –2
(2) (0, 3, 4)
Answer (2)
(3) (1, 1, 5)
Sol. Let x = (2 x + 1) +  (4) (5, 5, 1)
1 –1 Answer (2)
= ,=
2 2 Sol. Equation of required plane:
xdx 1 2x + 1 1 1 2(x – 2) + a(y – a) + 4(z – 4) = 0

I= =  – 
x2 + x + 2 2 x2 + x + 2 2 x2 + x + 2  2x + ay + 4z = 20 + a2
1 1 1  a2   20 + a2   20 + a2 
=  2 x2 + x + 2 –  +C A  10 + ,0,0  , B  0, ,0  ,C  0,0, 
2 2  1
2
7  2   a   4 
x +  +     
 2 4
1
Area of tetrahedron = a b c  = 144
2 1 1
= x + x + 2 – ln x + + x 2 + x + 2 + C 6
2 2
1  20 + a2  20 + a2  20 + a2 
I = A f (x ) + B g(x ) + C      = 144
6  2 
 a 
 4 
–1
 A = 1, B =  (20 + a2)3 = 144 × 48a
2
 a=2
6
 3 x 2 + 1 + 3 x 2 – 1
   Equation of plane: 2x + 2y + 4z = 24
5. limit is equal to
x→   6 6
 x + y + 2z = 12
x + x 2 – 1 +  x – x 2 – 1
   
(0, 3, 4) does not lie on plane
27 i −1
(1) 27 (2)
2 7. If z = , then z is
 
sin + i cos
(3) 18 (4) 6 6 6
   
Answer (3) (1) 2  cos + i sin 
 12 12 
6
 3 x 2 + 1 + 3 x 2 – 1 1  5 5 
  (2)  cos 12 + i sin 12 
Sol. limit
6 6 2 
x→  
x + x 2 – 1 +  x – x 2 – 1
     5 5 
(3) 2  cos + i sin
 12 12 
( 3)
6
2 x 6 + ....... ( lower power of x )
= limit 1    
x → 2 x 6 + ........ ( lower power of x )
(4)  cos 12 + i sin 12 
2 
= 27 Answer (3)
- 11 -
 10. If a = 31, 4 b = c = 2 , Given that
i −1 i −1 –
Sol. z = = = (i − 1) · e 3
   
sin + i cos
6 6
cos + i sin
3 3 ( )
2 a  b = 3 ( c  a ) . If angle between b and c is
   2 ac
 z = (i − 1)  cos − i sin 
 3 3  . Find
3 ab
1 3i 
= (i − 1)  −  (1) 3 (2) – 3
2 2 

(3) 1 (4) –3
1
(
= i + 3 − 1+ 3 i
2
) Answer (2)

3 −1
+i
 3 + 1
 
(
Sol. a  2b + 3c = 0 )
2  2 
5
a =  2b + 3c( )
 arg(z) = &|z|= 2

12
5 5 
a
2
( 2
= 2 4 b + 9 c + 12b  c
2
)
 z = 2  cos + i sin 
 12 12  31 = 312   = ± 1
Given that   [0, 2], the largest interval of values
( )
8.
of  which satisfy the inequation sin–1(sin) – cos–1 a =  2b + 3c
(sin)  0 is
ac 2 bc
  3    =
(1)  ,  (2)  , 
 4 4  4 2 ab 2b  b + 3c  b
  5 
(3) [0, ]
( )
(4)  , 2 2
 bc = b
2
c
2
– b c
2 4 
Answer (1) 2
  1   1 
Sol. sin ( sin  ) −  − sin−1 sin    0
−1 =  4 –  1 –  
2  4   2 
 1 3
 sin–1 sin   = 1– =
4 4 4
1
 sin   1 ac 3 3
2 = =
ab 1 3 –1
 3 2 –
 4 2
4 4
11. Number of 7 digit odd numbers formed using 7
9. If ( ( p  q )  (r  q ) )  ( ( p  r )  q ) is a tautology,
digits 1, 2, 2, 2, 3, 3, 5 will be
where r  p, q,~ p,~ q , then the number of values
(1) 80 (2) 420
of r is
(1) 1 (2) 2 (3) 240 (4) 140
(3) 3 (4) 4 Answer (3)
Answer (2)
Sol. Even numbers formed
Sol. ( ( p  q )  (r  q ) )  ( ( p  r )  q )
_______2
 (( p q )  (r  q ))  ( p  r  q )
6!
 (( p  r  (q  q ) )  ( p  r  q ) Number of ways =
2!2!
= 180
 T  ( p  r  q)
7! 720  7
 p r q Total numbers = = = 420
3!2! 12
For the above statement to be tautology r can be
p or q Odd numbers = 420 – 180
 Two values of r are possible = 240
- 12 -
12. The minimum value of the function Sol. 5 + 6 –  = 0
f ( x ) = x 2 – x + 1 +  x 2 – x + 1 , where [x] denotes 6 + 3 + 3 = 0
greatest integer function, is 8 + 8 = 0   = −
3 5
(1) (2) & =
4 4
1  = k,  = k,  = – k
(3) (4) 0 2(k) + 5(– k) + 3(–k) = 5
4
5
Answer (1) k=−
6
Sol. x 2 – x + 1 = g ( x ) attains minimum value
5 5 5
1  = − , = ,  =
when x = 6 6 6
2
25 45
1 6 + 5 +  = −5 + +
So, minimum value of f(x) will be at x = 6 6
2
40 20
 1 3 = =
f   = +0 6 3
2 4
3
=
4
x2 y2
13. If for = 1, ( 4, 0) are foci and e = 3 . Then
−
a2 b2
length of latus rectum is
16 SECTION - B
(1) 8 (2)
3
(3) 4 (4) 2 3 contains 10 questions. In Section B, attempt any five
Answer (2)
Sol. ae = 4
4
a= correct numerical value (in decimal notation,
3
2b2
LR = 06.25, 07.00, –00.33, –00.30, 30.27, –27.30) using the
a
2
= a2 (e2 − 1) place designated to enter the answer.
a
9
= 2a(e2 − 1)  4x 5 
21. Coefficient of x–6 in expansion of  −  is
8  5 2x 2 
= (3 − 1)
3 Answer (–5040)
9 −r r
16  4x   −5 
= Sol. Tr +1 = 9Cr    2
3  5   2x 
 5 6 8 9 – 3r = – 6
14. If [   ]  6 3 8  = [0 0 0] r =5
 –1 3 0  4 5
4  5
Where (, , ) be a point on 2x + 5y + 3z = 5 then Coefficient of x −6 = 9C5    − 
5  2
6 + 5 + 9 = ?
9! 44  −55 
20 =  
(1) 20 (2) 5!4! 54  25 
3
(3) 21 (4) 7 = 6·7·3· 8(–5)
Answer (2) = –5040
- 13 -
22. The value of sum ( 2n + 1)! ( n − 1)! 11
Sol. =
1.12 – 2.32 + 3.52 – 4.72 …+ 15.(29)2 is ( n + 2)! ( 2n – 1)! 21
Answer (6952)

( 2n + 1)( 2n ) 11
Sol. Separating odd placed and even placed terms we =
get ( n + 2)( n + 1) n 21
S = (1.12 + 3.52 + …15.(29)2) – (2.32 + 4.72 + … + 2n + 1 11
 =
14.(27)2) ( n + 1)( n + 2) 42
8 7
 ( 2n − 1)( 4n − 3 ) −  ( 2n )( 4n − 1)  n=5
2 2
S=
n =1 n =1  n2 + n + 15 = 25 + 5 + 15 = 45
Applying summation formula we get 
x 16 + 20 2
= 29856 – 22904 = 6952 25.  x+ – x
dx =
15
0
a b  then  is equal to
23. Let A =   be a 2 × 2 matrix such that a, b, c,
c d  Answer (02.00)
d  {0, 1, 2, 3, 4, }. The number of matrices A such 
( x +  + x)
x
Sol.
that sum of elements of A is a prime number lying
0
between 2 and 13 is

1
Answer (204)  ( x +  )
3/2
– ( x +  )1/2 + x 3/2 

0
Sol. As given a + b + c + d = 3 or 5 or 7 or 11

if sum = 3 1 2 2 2 
 ( x +  )5/2 –  ( x +  )3/2 + x 5/2 
 5 3 5 0
(1 + x + x2 + ....+ x4)4 ⎯→ x3
12 5/2 2 2 2 2 
(1 – x5)4 (1 – x)–4 ⎯→ x3 =  (2 ) – (2 )3/2 + 5/2 – 5/2 + 5/2 
5 3 5 5 3 
 4 + 3 –1C3 = 6C3 = 20 1  27/2 5/2 25/2 5/2 2 5/2 
=  − +  
If sum = 5   5 3 3 

(1 – 4x5) (1 – x)–4 ⎯→ x5  27/2 25/2 2 

= 3/2  − + 
 5 3 3 
 4 + 5 –1C – 4.4 + 0 –1C0 = 8C5 – 4 = 52 
5
If sum = 7 =
3/2
15
(
3  27/2 − 5  25/2 + 10 )
(1 – 4x5) (1 – x)–4 → x7
3/2 3/2
 4+7–1C
7 – 4. 4+2–1C2 = 10C7 – 4. 5C2 = 80 =
15
(
24 2 − 20 2 + 10 =
15
)
4 2 + 10 ( )
If sum = 11
(1 – 4x5 + 6x10) (1 – x)–4 → x11 16 + 20 2
=
 4 + 11 – 1C
11 – 4.4+6–1 C6 + 6.4+1–1C1 15
= 14C11 – 4.9C6 + 6.4 = 364 – 336 + 24 = 52  =2
 Total matrices = 20 + 52 + 80 + 52 = 204
2n +1
Pn −1 11
24. If = , then n2 + n + 15 equals
2n +1 21
Pn
Answer (45)
- 14 -
SECTION-A
1. An arc PQ of a circle subtends a right angle at its centre O. The mid point of the arc PQ is R. If
OP  u,O R  vand OQ  u  v , then , 2 are the roots of the equation :
(1) 3x2 – 2x – 1 = 0 (2) 3x2 + 2x –1 = 0 (3) x2 – x – 2 = 0 (4) x2 + x –2 = 0
Sol. (3)
R
Q
P
v
u
Q q
R v
P u
O(0,0)
Let OP  u  i
OQ  q  j
R is the mid point of PQ
1 1
Then OR  v  i j
2 2
Now
OQ  u v
 1 1 
j  i    i j
 2 2 

  2,    0   1
2
Now equation
x2     2  x  2  0
x2   1  2 x  (1)(2)  0
x2  x  2  0
2. A square piece of tin of side 30 cm is to be made into a box without top by cutting a square from each corner
and folding up the flaps to form a box. If the volume of the box is maximum, then its surface area (in cm2) is
equal to :
(1) 800 (2) 1025 (3) 900 (4) 675
Sol. (1)
Let the side of the square to be cut off be x cm.
Then, the length and breadth of the box will be (30 – 2x) cm each and the height of the box is x cm therefore,
J
(30 – 2x) cm
J
x cm
30 cm
The volume V(x) of the box is given by
V(x) = x(30 – 2x)2
dv
= (30 – 2x)2 + 2x × (30 – 2x) (–2)
dx
0 = (30 – 2x)2 – 4x (30 – 2x)
0 = (30 – 2x) [(30 – 2x) – 4x]
0 = (30 – 2x) (30 – 6x)
x = 15, 5
x  15 (Not possible)
{V  0}
Surface area without top of the box = b + 2(bh + h)
= (30 – 2x) (30 – 2x) + 2 [(30 – 2x) x + (30 – 2x) x]
= [(30 – 2x)2 + 4 {(30 – 2x)x}
= [(30 – 10)2 + 4(5) (30 – 10)]
= 400 + 400
= 800 cm2
3. Let O be the origin and the position vector of the point P be –iˆ – 2ˆj  3kˆ . If the position vectors of the A, B
and C are –2iˆ  ˆj – 3k,
ˆ 2iˆ  4jˆ – 2kˆ and –4iˆ  2ˆj – kˆ respectively, then the projection of the vector OP on a
vector perpendicular to the vectors AB and AC is :
10 8 7
(1) (2) (3) (4) 3
3 3 3
Sol. (4)
Position vector of the point P(1, 2,3), A(2,1, 3) B(2,4, 2), and C(4,2, 1)
AB  AC
Then OP.
(AB  AC)
i j k
AB  AC  4 3 1
2 1 2
 i(5)  j(8  2)  k(4  6)

 5i  10j  10k
Now
AB  AC (5i  10j  10k)
OP.  (i  2j  3k).
(AB  AC) (5)2  (10)2  (10)2
5  20  30

25  100  100
45 45
  3
225 15
4. If A is a 3 × 3 matrix and |A| = 2, then 3adj| 3A | A 2  is equal to :

(1) 312. 610 (2) 311.610 (3) 312.611 (4) 310.611
Sol. (2)
Given |A|= 2
Now, |3adj ( | 3A| A2) |
|3A| = 33.|A|
= 33.(2)
Adj. (|3A| A2) = adj {(33.2) A2}
= (2.33)2 (adj A)2
= 22.36 .(adj A)2
|3 adj (| 3A | A2) | = |22.3.36 (adj A)2|
= (22.37)3 | adj A|2
= 26.321 (|A|2)2
= 26.321(22)2
= 210.321
= 210.310.311
|3 adj (| 3A | A )| = 610.311
2
5. Let two vertices of a triangle ABC be (2, 4, 6) and (0, –2, –5), and its centroid be (2, 1, –1). If the image of the
third vertex in the plane x + 2y + 4z = 11 is (, , ), then  +  +  is equal to :
(1) 76 (2) 74 (3) 70 (4) 72
Sol. (2)
A(2, 4,6)
G(2,1, 1)
C(x, y, z)
B(0, 2, 5)
Given Two vertices of Triangle A(2, 4,6) and B(0, 2, 5) and if centroid G(2,1, 1)
Let Third vertices be (x, y, z)
20x 42 y 65 z
Now  2,  1,  1
3 3 3
x  4, y  1, z  1
Third vertices C(4,1, 4)
Now, Image of vertices C(4,1,–4) in the given plane is D()
C(4,1, 4)
x  2y  4z 11  0
D(, , )
Now
  4  1   4 (4  2  16  11)
   2
1 2 4 1  4  16
  4   1   4 42
   2
1 2 4 21
  6,   5,   4
Then    
 (6  5)  (5  4)  (4  6)
 30  20  24
 74
6. The negation of the statement :

(p q)  (q  (~ r)) is
(1) ((~ p) r))  (~ q) (2) ((~ p) q))  (~ r)
(3) ((~ p) (~ q))  (~ r) (4) (p  r) (~ q)
Sol. (1)
(p q)  (q (~ r))
~  p  q    q  (~ r) 
~ (p  q)  (~ q  r)
  ~ p ~ q   (~ q  r)
 (~ p  r)  (~ q)
x  2 y z 5 x  4 y 1 z  3
7. The shortest distance between the lines   and   is :
1 2 2 1 2 0
(1) 8 (2) 7 (3) 6 (4) 9
Sol. (4)
x  2 y z 5 x  4 y 1 z  3
  and  
1 2 2 1 2 0
a 2  a1 b 2  b1 c 2  c1
l1 m1 n1
l2 m2 n2
Shortest distance (d) 
i j k
l1 m1 n1
l2 m2 n2
4  2 1  0 3  5
1 2 2
1 2 0

i j k
1 2 2
1 2 0
6 1 8
1 2 2
1 2 0

i(4)  j(2)  k(2  2)
54

4i  2 j  4k
54

16  4  16
54

6
9
13 13
 1   1 
If the coefficient of x in  ax – 2  and the coefficient of x–5 in  ax  2 
7
8. are equal, then a4b4 is equal
 bx   bx 
to :
(1) 22 (2) 44 (3) 11 (4) 33
Sol. (1)
13
 1 
 ax – 2 
 bx 
We have,
Tr+1 = nCr (p)n–r (q)r
r
 1 
Tr+1 = 13Cr (ax)13–r  – 2 
 bx 
r
 1
= 13Cr (a)13–r  –  (x)13–r.(x)–2r
 b
r
 1
= 13Cr (a)13–r  –  (x)13–3r …(1)
 b
Coefficient of x7
 13 – 3r = 7
r=2
r in equation (1)
2
 1
 –  (x)
13 13–2 13–6
T3 = C2 (a)
 b
2
1
= 13C2 (a)11   (x)7
b
(a)11
Coefficient of x7 is 13C2
b2
13
 1 
Now,  ax  2 
 bx 
r
 1 
Tr+1 = 13Cr (ax)13–r  2 
 bx 
r
13 13–r 1 13–r –2r
= Cr (a)   (x) (x)
b
r
1
13
= Cr (a) 13–r
  (x)
13–3r
…(2)
b
Coefficient of x–5
 13 – 3r = –5
r=6
r in equation
6
T 13 13–6 1 13–18
7 = C6 (a)   (x)
b
6
1
T7 = 13C6 (a)7   (x)–5
b
6
1
Coefficient of x–5 is 13C6 (a)7  
b
ATQ
Coefficient of x7 = coefficient of x–5
T3 = T7
 a11  13
6
1
13
C2  2  = C6 (a)7  
b  b
13
C6
a4.b4 = 13
C2
13  12  11 10  9  8  1
= = 22
13  12  6  5  4  3
9. A line segment AB of length  moves such that the points A and B remain on the periphery of a circle of
radius . Then the locus of the point, that divides the line segment AB in the ratio 2 : 3, is a circle of radius :
2 19 3 19
(1)  (2)  (3)  (4) 
3 7 5 5
Sol. (4)
 
60°
P
A 2:3 B
Since OAB form equilateral 
  OAP = 60º
2
AP =
5
OA 2  AP 2 – OP 2
cos 60°=
2OA.AP
4 2
2  – OP 2
1 25
 =
2  2 
2  
 5 
2 2
4 2
 = 2 + – OP2
5 25
19 2
 OP2 =
25
19
 OP = 
5
19
 Therefore, locus of point P is 
5
10. For the system of linear equations
2x – y + 3z = 5
3x + 2y – z = 7
4x + 5y + z = ,
which of the following is NOT correct ?
(1) The system in inconsistent for  = –5 and  = 8
(2) The system has infinitely many solutions for  = – 6 and  = 9
(3) The system has a unique solution for   –5 and  = 8
(4) The system has infinitely many solutions for  = –5 and  = 9
Sol. (2)
Given
2x – y + 3z = 5
3x + 2y – z = 7
4x + 5y + z = 
2 –1 3
 = 3 2 –1 = 7 + 35
4 5 
 = 7 ( + 5)
For unique solution   0
–5
For inconsistent & Infinite solution
=0
 + 5 = 0  = –5
5 –1 3
1 = 7 2 –1 = – 5( – 9)
 5 –5
2 5 3
2 = 3 7 –1 = 11( – 9)
4  –5
2 –1 5
3 = 3 2 7
4 5 
3 = 7 ( – 9)
For Inconsistent system : -
At least one 1, 2 & 3 is not zero  = – 5,  = 8 option (A) True
Infinite solution:
1 = 2 = 3 = 0
From here  – 9 = 0   = 9
= – 5 & option (D) True
=9
Unique solution
  –5, = 8  option (C) True
Option (B) False
For Infinitely many solution  must be –5.
11. Let the first term a and the common ratio r of a geometric progression be positive integers. If the sum of
squares of its first three is 33033, then the sum of these terms is equal to :
(1) 210 (2) 220 (3) 231 (4) 241
Sol. (3)
Let a, ar , ar2 be three terms of GP
Given : a2 + (ar)2 + (ar2)2 = 33033
a2 (1 + r2+ r4) = 112.3.7.13
 a = 11 and 1 + r2 + r4 = 3.7.13
 r2 (1 + r2) = 273 – 1
 r2(r2 + 1) = 272 = 16 × 17
 r2 = 16
r=4 [ r > 0]
Sum of three terms = a + ar + ar2 = a (1 + r + r2)
= 11 (1 + 4 + 16)
= 11 × 21 = 231
x  3 y  2 1 z
12. Let P be the point of intersection of the line   and the plane x + y + z = 2. If the distance
3 1 2
of the point P from the plane 3x – 4y + 12z = 32 is q, then q and 2q are the roots of the equation :
(1) x2 + 18x – 72 = 0 (2) x2 + 18x + 72 = 0 (3) x2 – 18x –72 = 0 (4) x2 – 18x + 72 = 0
Sol. (4)
x3 y  2 1– z
= = =
3 1 2
x = 3– 3, y = , z = 1–2
P(3– 3,  – 2, 1–2) will satisfy the equation of plane x + y + z = 2.
3 – 3 +  – 2 + 1 – 2 = 2
2– 4 = 2
=3
P(6, 1, – 5)
Perpendicular distance of P from plane 3x – 4y + 12 z – 32 = 0 is
3(6) – 4(1)  12(–5) – 32
q=
9  16  144
q = 6.
2q = 12
Sum of roots = 6 + 12 = 18
Product of roots = 6(12) = 72
 Quadratic equation having q and 2q as roots is x2 – 18x + 72.
2
Let f be a differentiable function such that x2 f(x) – x = 4  tf (t) dt , f (1) 
x
13. . Then 18 f (3) is equal to :
0 3
(1) 180 (2) 150 (3) 210 (4) 160
Sol. (4)
x
x2f(x) – x = 4  tf (t)dt
0
Differentiate w.r.t. x
x2f’(x) + 2x f(x) – 1 = 4xf(x)
Let y = f(x)
dy
 x2 – 2xy – 1 = 0
dx
dy 2 1
– y= 2
dx x x
–2
e x
dx 1
I.F. = =
x2
Its solution is
y 1
2
=  4 dx + C
x x
y –1
2
= +C
x 3x 3
2 2
 f(1) =  y(1) =
3 3
2 1
 =– +C
3 3
C=1
1
y=– + x2
3x
1
f(x) = – + x2
3x
1 80
f(3) = – + 9 =  18f(3) = 160
9 9
m
14. Let N denote the sum of the numbers obtained when two dice are rolled. If the probability that 2 N < N! is ,
n
where m and n are coprime, then 4m –3n equal to :
(1) 12 (2) 8 (3) 10 (4) 6
Sol. (2)
2N < N! is satisfied for N  4
Required probability P (N  4) = 1 – P(N < 4)
N = 1 (Not possible)
N = 2 (1, 1)
1
 P(N = 2) =
36
N = 3 (1, 2), (2, 1)
2
P(N = 3) =
36
1 2 3
P(N < 4) = + =
36 36 36
3 33 11 m
 P(N  4) = 1 – = = =
36 36 12 n
 m = 11, n = 12
4m – 3n = 4(11) – 3 (12) = 8

If I(x)   esin
2
15. x
(cos x sin 2x –sinx) dx and I (0) = 1, then I   is equal to :
3
3 3
1 34 1 3
(1) e 4 (2) –e 4 (3) e (4) – e 4
2 2
Sol. (3)
I =  esin x sin 2x cos xdx –  esin x sin xdx
2 2
II I
= cos x  e   (– sin x) e 

sin 2xdx dx –  esin x sinxdx
sin 2 x sin 2 x 2
sin 2xdx –
sin2x = t
sin2x dx = dt
= cos x  et dt   (sinx  et dt)dx–  esin x sinxdx
2
= esin x cos x   esin x sinxdx–  esin x sinxdx

2 2 2
I= e cos x  C
sin 2 x
I (0) = 1
1=1+C
C=0
2
I= e
sin x
cos x

 
2
sin
3
I = e cos
3 3
3
e4
=
2
 2 4 8 16
16. 96cos cos cos cos cos is equal to :
33 33 33 33 33
(1) 4 (2) 2 (3) 3 (4) 1
Sol. (3)
 2 22  23  24 
96 cos cos cos cos cos
33 33 33 33 33
sin(2 n A)
 cos A cos 2A cos 22A …. Cos 2n–1 A = n
2 sin A

Here A = ,n=5
33
 
96sin  25 
=  33 
 
25 sin  
 33 
 32 
96sin  
=  33 
 
32sin  
 33 
 
3sin   – 
=  33 
=3

sin  
 33 
2z – 3i
17. Let the complex number z = x + iy be such that is purely imaginary. If x + y2 = 0, then y4 + y2 – y is
2z  i
equal to :
3 2 4 3
(1) (2) (3) (4)
2 3 3 4
Sol. (4)
z = x + iy
(2z – 3i)
= purely imaginary
2z  i
 2z – 3i 
Means Re   =0
 2z  i 
(2z – 3i) 2(x  iy) – 3i
 =
(2z  i) 2(x  iy)  i
2x  2yi – 3i
=
2x  i2y  i
2x  i(2y – 3) 2x – i(2y  1)
= ×
2x  i(2y  1) 2x – i(2y  1)
 2z – 3i  4x 2  (2y – 3)(2y  1)
Re  = =0
 2z  i  4x 2  (2y  1) 2
 4x2 + (2y – 3) (2y + 1) = 0
 4x2 + [4y2 + 2y – 6y – 3] = 0
 x + y2 = 0  x = –y2
 4(–y2)2 + 4y2 – 4y – 3 = 0
4y4 + 4y2 – 4y = 3
3
 y4 + y2 – y =
4
Therefore, correct answer is option (4).
(tan1) x  log e (123)   4 

18. If f (x)  , x > 0, then the least value of f (f(x))  f  f    is :
x loge (1234) – (tan1)   x 
(1) 2 (2) 4 (3) 8 (4) 0
Sol. (2)
(tan1) x  log123
f (x) 
x log1234  tan1
Let A  tan1, B  log123, C  log1234
Ax  B
f (x) 
xC  A
 Ax  B 
A B
 xC  A 
f f  x  
 Ax  B 
C A
 CX  A 
A 2 x  AB  xBC  AB

ACx  BC  ACx  A 2
x(A 2  BC)
 x
(A 2  BC)
f  f  x   x
  4  4
f f   
  x  x
  4 
f f  x   f  f   
  x 
AM  GM
4
x 4
x
x 2  y2
19. The slope of tangent at any point (x, y) on a curve y = y(x) is , x  0 . If y (2) = 0, then a value of y (8)
2xy
is :
(1) 4 3 (2) –4 2 (3) –2 3 (4) 2 3
Sol. (1)
dy x 2  y
=
dx 2xy
y = vx
y(2) = 0
y(8) = ?
dv dv
vx
dx dx
xdv x 2  v2 x 2
v+ =
dx 2vx 2
dv  v2  1 
x. = – v
dx  2v 
2vdv dx
=
(1 – v )
2
x
– ln (1 – v2) = ln x + C
ln x + ln (1 – v2) = C
  y2 
ln  x  1 – 2   = C
  x 
 x 2 – y 2  
ln   = C
 x  
x2 – y2 = cx
y(2) = 0 at x = 2, y = 0
4 = 2C  C = 2
x2 – y2 = 2x
Hence, at x = 8
64 –y2= 16
y= 48 = 4 3
y(8) = 4 3
Option (1)
20. Let the ellipse E : x2 + 9y2 = 9 intersect the positive x-and y-axes at the points A and B respectively. Let the
major axis of E be a diameter of the circle C. Let the line passing through A and B meet the circle C at the
m
point P. If the area of the triangle with vertices A, P and the origin O is , where m and n are coprime, then
n
m – n is equal to :
(1) 16 (2) 15 (3) 18 (4) 17
Sol. (4)
y
B(0,1)
A
x
(3,0)
x2 + y2 = 9
Equation of line AB or AP is
x y
 1
3 1
x  3y  3
x  (3  3y)
Intersection point of line AP & circle is P(x 0 , y0 )
x 2  y 2  9  (3  3y) 2  y 2  9
 32 (1  y 2  2y)  y 2  9
 5y2  9y  0  y(5y  9)  0
 y 9/5
 9  4 
Hence x  3(1  y)  3 1    3  
 5  5 
12
x
5
 12 9 
P(x 0 , y0 )   , 
 5 5
1
Area of AOP is   OA  height
2
Height  9 / 5 , OA  3
1 9 27 m
  3  
2 5 10 n
Compare both side m  27, n  10  m  n  17
Therefore, correct answer is option-D
SECTION-B
21. Some couples participated in a mixed doubles badminton tournament. If the number of matches played, so
that no couple in a match, is 840, then the total numbers of persons, who participated in the tournament, is
____.
Sol. 16
Let number of couples = n
 nC2 × n–2C2 × 2 = 840
 n(n – 1) (n– 2) (n – 3) = 840 × 2
= 21 × 40 × 2
=7×3×8×5×2
n(n– 1) (n – 2) (n – 3) = 8 × 7 × 6 × 5
n=8
Hence, number of persons = 16.
22. 
The number of elements in the set n  Z :| n 2 –10n  19 | 6 is _____.
Sol. 6
– 6 < n2 – 10 n + 19 < 6
 n2 – 10 n + 25 > 0 and n2– 10n + 13 < 0
(n – 5)2 > 0 5–3 2 <n<5+3 2
N  Z – {5} n = {2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 7, 8}
…(i) …(ii)
From (i)  (ii)
N = {2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 8,}
Number of values of n = 6
23. The number of permutations of the digits 1, 2, 3, …., 7 without repetition, which neither contain the string 153
nor the string 2467, is _____.
Sol. 4898
Numbers are 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 7
Numbers having string (154) = (154), 2, 3, 6, 7 = 5!
Numbers having string (2467) = (2467), 1,3, 5 = 4!
Number having string (154) and (2467)
= (154), (2467) = 2!
Now n (154  2467) = 5! + 4! – 2!
= 120 + 24 – 2 = 142
Again total numbers = 7! = 5040
Now required numbers = n (neither 154 nor 2467)
= 5040 – 142
= 4898
24. Let f: (–2, 2)  be defined by

 x[x] , –2  x  0
f (x)  
(x– 1)[x],0  x  2
where [x] denotes the greatest integer function. If m and n respectively are the number of points in (–2, 2) at
which y = |f(x)| is not continuous and not differentiable, then m + n is equal to ______.
Sol. 4
 –2x, –2  x  –1
 –x, –1  x  0

f(x) = 
 0, 0  x 1

 x – 1, 1  x  2
Clearly f(x) is discontinuous at x = –1 also non differentiable.
m=1
Now for differentiability
 –2 –2  x  –1
 –1 –1  x  0

f’(x) = 
0 0  x 1

 –1 1  x  2
Clearly f(x) is non-differentiable at x = –1, 0, 1
Also, f  x  remains same.
n=3
m+n=4
25. Let a common tangent to the curves y2 = 4x and (x – 4)2 + y2 = 16 touch the curves at the points P and Q.
Then (PQ)2 is equal to ____ :
Sol. 32
y 2  4x
(x  4) 2  y 2  16
Let equation of tangent of parabola
y  mx  1/ m ..(1)
Now equation 1 also touches the circle
4m  1/ m
 4
1  m2
(4m  1/ m)2  16  16m 2
16m4  8m2  1  16m2  16m4
8m2  1
m2  1/ 8 m 4
 0  m   
For distinet points consider only m  1/ 8 .
2
Point of contact of parabola

P(8, 4 2)
 PQ  S1  (PQ)2  S1
 16  32  16  32
26. If the mean of the frequency distribution

Class : 0-10 10-20 20-30 30-40 40-50
Frequency : 2 3 x 5 4
is 28, then its variance is _____.
Sol. 151
C.I. f x fixi x2i

0-10 2 5 10 25
10-20 3 15 45 225
20-30 x 25 25x 625
30-40 5 35 175 1225
40-50 4 45 180 2025
f i x i
x =
N
10  45  25x  175  130
28 =
14  x
28 × 14 + 28 x = 410 + 25 x
 3x = 410 – 392
18
x= =6
3
1
 Variance = fixi2 – ( x )2
N
1
= 18700 – (28)2
20
= 935 – 784 = 151
27. The coefficient of x7 in (1 – x + 2x3)10 is _____.

Sol. 960
(1 – x + 2x3)10
a b c
3 7 0
5 4 1
7 1 2
10!
Tn = (– 2x)b (x3)c
a!b!c!
10!
= (–2)b xb+3c
a!b!c!
 b  3c  7,a  b  c  10
10! 10!
 Coefficient of x7 = (– 1)7 + (– 1)4 (2)
3!7!0! 5!4!1!
10!
+ (– 1)1 (2)2
7!1!2!
= –120 + 2520 –1440 = 960
28. Let y = p(x) be the parabola passing through the points (–1, 0), (0, 1) and (1, 0). If the area of the region
(x, y) : (x  1) 2
 (y– 1) 2  1, y  p(x) is A, then 12(– 4A) is equal to _____:
Sol. 16
There can be infinitely many parabolas through given points.
Let parabola x2 = – 4a (y – 1)
(–1, 1) (0, 1)
Passes through (1, 0)

1
 b = –4a(–1)  a =
4
 x2 = – (y – 1)
0
 (1 – x )dx
2
Now area covered by parabola =
–1
b
 x3   1
=  x –  = (0 – 0) –  –1  
 3 1  3
2
=
3
Required Area = Area of sector – {Area of square – Area covered by Parabola}
  2
= – 1 – 
4  3
 1
= –
4 3
   1 
 12 (  – 4A) = 12   – 4  –  
  4 3 
 4
= 12  –   
 3
= 16
Let a, b, c be three distinct positive real numbers such that  2a    bc and bloge 2  a loge c . Then 6a +
loge a loge b
29.
5bc is equal to _____.
Sol. Bouns
(2a)ln a  (bc)ln b 2a  0, bc  0
ln a(ln 2  ln a)  ln b(ln b  ln c)
ln 2  ln b  ln c  ln a
ln 2  ,ln a  x,ln b  y,ln c  z
y  xz
x(  x)  y(y  z)
xz

y
 xz 
x   x   y(y  z)
 y 
x (z  y)  y 2 (y  z)
2
y  z  0 or x 2  y 2  x   y
bc  1 or ab  1
bc = 1 or ab = 1
a=1
lna
1 if bc = 1 ⇒ 2a =1
a = 1/2
1 1 1
(a, b, c)   , λ,  , λ  1, 2,
2 λ 2
then
6a + 5bc = 3 + 5 = 8
 1 1 1
(II)(a, b, c)   λ, ,  , λ  1, 2,
 λ 2 2
In this situation infinite answer are possible
So, Bonus.
30. The sum of all those terms, of the arithmetic progression 3, 8, 13, …., 373, which are not divisible by 3, is
equal to _____.
Sol. 9525
A.P : 3,8,13.....373
Tn  a  (n  1)d
373  3  (n 1)5
370
n
5
 n  75
n
Now Sum   a  l
2
75
 3  373  14100
2
Now numbers divisible by 3 are,
3,18,33........363
363  3  (k 1)15
360
 k 1   24  k  25
15
25
Now, sum   3  363  4575 s
2
 req. sum  14100  4575
 9525
SECTION - A
31. The equivalent capacitance of the combination shown is
5 C
(1) 4C (2) C (3) (4) 2C
3 2
Sol. (4)
Capacitor (3) & (4) are short ckt
 C1 & C2 are in parallel
Ceq. = C + C = 2C
32. Match List I with List II :

List I List II
(A) 3 Translational degrees of freedom (I) Monoatomic gases
(B) 3 Translational, 2 rotational degrees (II) Polyatomic gases
of freedoms
(C) 3 Translational, 2 rotational and 1 (III) Rigid diatomic gases
vibrational
degrees of freedom
(D) 3 Translational, 3 rotational and more (IV) Nonrigid diatomic gases
than one vibrational degrees of freedom
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
(1) (A)-(I), (B)-(III), (C)-(IV), (D)-(II)
(2) (A)-(I), (B)-(IV), (C)-(III), (D)-(II)
(3) (A)-(IV), (B)-(II), (C)-(I), (D)-(III)
(4) (A)-(IV), (B)-(III), (C)-(II), (D)-(I)
Sol. (1)
Fact Based
Type of gas No of degree of freedom
1 Monoatomic 3 (Translational)
2. Diatomic + rigid 3 (Translational + 2 Rotational = 5)
3. Diatomic + non – rigid 3 (Trans) + 2 (Rotational) + 1 (vibrational)
4. Polyatomic 3 (Trans) + 2(Rotational) + more than 1 (vibrational)
33. Given below are two statements :

Statements I : If the number of turns in the coil of a moving coil galvanometer is doubled then the current
sensitivity becomes double.
Statements II : Increasing current sensitivity of a moving coil galvanometer by only increasing the number of
turns in the coil will also increase its voltage sensitivity in the same ratio
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below :
(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are true
(2) Both Statement I and Statement II are false
(3) Statement I is true but Statement II is false
(4) Statement I is false but Statement II is true
Sol. (3)
k
I
NBA
 NBA
C S  
I K
N  2N C  S  2CS
 NBA
But V.S.  
V KR
N 2NC  S  2CS
  NBA
But V.S.   
v IR RK
As N  2N, R  2R So V.S = constant

Statement I : Maximum power is dissipated in a circuit containing an inductor, a capacitor and a resistor
connected in series with an AC source, when resonance occurs
Statement II : Maximum power is dissipated in a circuit containing pure resistor due to zero phase difference
between current and voltage.
Sol. (4)
Power is more when total impendence of ckt in minimum
Z  R 2   XL  XC 
2
X L  X C (conductor of resonance)
 Z min  R V & I in same phase
35. The range of the projectile projected at an angle of 15o with horizontal is 50 m. If the projectile is projected with
same velocity at an angle of 45o with horizontal, then its range will be
(1) 100 2m (2) 50 m (3) 100 m (4) 50 2m
Sol. (3)
u 2 sin  2  15  u 2 u2
So R =   So   100
g 2g g
2

u sin 2  45  u 2
R'   100 m
g g
36. A particle of mass m moving with velocity  collides with a stationary particle of mass 2m. After collision,
they stick together and continue to move together with velocity
  
(1) (2) (3) (4) 
2 3 4
Sol. (2)
pi = pf  mv + 2m (0) = 3m (v')
v
v' 
3
37. Two satellites of masses m and 3m revolve around the earth in circular orbits of radii r & 3 r respectively. The
ratio of orbital speeds of the satellites respectively is
(1) 3 : 1 (2) 1 : 1 (3) 3 :1 (4) 9 : 1
Sol. (3)
GM 1
v  v ; M = mass of earth, r = radius of earth
r r
v1 r2 3r
   3
v2 r1 r
R
38. Assuming the earth to be a sphere of uniform mass density, the weight of a body at a depth d  from the
2
surface of earth, if its weight on the surface of earth is 200 N, will be :
(1) 500 N (2) 400 N (3) 100 N (4) 300 N
Sol. (3)
mg = 200 N
 d  R  g
g ' = g 1    g 1  
 R  2 R  2
mg 200
weight = mg'=   100 N
2 2
39. The de Broglie wavelength of a molecule in a gas at room temperature (300 K) is  1 . If the temperature of the
gas is increased to 600 K, then the de Broglie wavelength of the same gas molecule becomes
1 1
(1) 21 (2) 1 (3) 21 (4) 1
2 2
Sol. (2)
h

3mK  T 
1 T2

2 T1
T1
 2  1
T2
300  2
 1 
600 2
40. A physical quantity P is given as

a 2 b3
P
c d
The percentage error in the measurement of a, b, c and d are 1%, 2%, 3% and 4% respectively. The percentage
error in the measurement of quantity P will be
(1) 14% (2) 13% (3) 16% (4) 12%
Sol. (2)
dP  da db dc 1 d  d  
 100   2  3     100
P  a b c 2 d 
1
= 2×1+3×2+3+ ×4
2
= 2+6+3+2
= 13%
41. Consider two containers A and B containing monoatomic gases at the same Pressure (P), Volume (V) and
1
Temperature (T). The gas in A is compressed isothermally to of its original volume while the gas in B is
8
1
compressed adiabatically to of its original volume. The ratio of final pressure of gas in B to that of gas in A
8
is
3
1
(1) 8 (2) 4 (3) (4) 8 2
8
Sol. (2)
By Isothermal Process for (A)
P1V1 = P2V2
V
PV = P2
8
P2 = 8P
5
For B adiabatically mono =
3
 
P1V1  P2 V2
5/3
V
PV 5/3  P2  
8
P2   8 
5/3
P
 /32
P2 8
  8 3  4
P1 8P

Statements I : Pressure in a reservoir of water is same at all points at the same level of water.
Statements II : The pressure applied to enclosed water is transmitted in all directions equally.
(1) Both Statements I and Statements II are false
(2) Both Statements I and Statements II are true
(3) Statements I is true but Statements II is false
(4) Statements I is false but Statements II is true
Sol. (2)
Both Statements I and Statements II are true
By Theory
By Pascal law, pressure is equally transmitted to in enclosed water in all direction.
43. The positon-time graphs for two students A and B returning from the school to their homes are shown in figure.
(A) A lives closer to the school

(B) B lives closer to the school
(C) A takes lesser time to reach home
(D) A travels faster than B
(E) B travels faster than A
(1) (A) and (E) only (2) (A), (C) and (E) only
(3) (B) and (E) only (4) (A), (C) and (D) only
Sol. (1)
(A) and (E) only
Slope of A = VA
Slope of B = VB
(slope)B > (slope)A
VB > VA
 tB < tA
44. The energy of an electromagnetic wave contained in a small volume oscillates with
(1) double the frequency of the wave
(2) the frequency of the wave
(3) zero frequency
(4) half the frequency of the wave
Sol. (1)
double the frequency of the wave
E = E0 sin (wt – kx)
1
Energy density = 0 Enet
2
1
= 0 E 0 sin2 (wt – kx)
2
2
1
= 0 E 02 (1 – cos (2wt – 2kx))
4
45. The equivalent resistance of the circuit shown below between points a and b is :
(1) 20  (2) 16  (3) 24  (4) 3.2 

Sol. (4)
1 1 1 1 Balanced WSB
  
R ab 16 8 8
1 1 2  2 5 4
=  = 4
R ab 16 16
4 4
16
Rab = = 3.2
5 a b
16
46. A carrier wave of amplitude 15 V modulated by a sinusoidal base band signal of amplitude 3 V. The ratio of
maximum amplitude to minimum amplitude in an amplitude modulated wave is
3
(1) 2 (2) 1 (3) 5 (4)
2
Sol. (4)
VC = 15
Vm = 3
Vmax = 15 + 3 = 18
Vmin = 15 – 3 = 12
18 3
Vmax = = =3:2
12 2
A
47. A particle executes S.H.M. of amplitude A along x-axis. At t = 0, the position of the particle is x  and it
2
moves along positives x-axis. The displacement of particle in time t is x = A sin ( t  ) , then the value  will
be
   
(1) (2) (3) (4)
4 2 3 6
Sol. (4)
A 1
Cos  = =
2 A 2

=
3
  
= – =
2 3 6
48. The angular momentum for the electron in Bohr's orbit is L. If the electron is assumed to revolve in second orbit
of hydrogen atom, them the change in angular momentum will be
L
(1) (2) zero (3) L (4) 2L
2
Sol. (3)
nh
Angular momentum =
2
h
n = 1, L1 = =L
2
2h
n = 2, L2 = = 2L
2
 L= 2L – L = L
49. An object is placed at a distance of 12 cm in front of a plane mirror. The virtual and erect image is formed by
the mirror. Now the mirror is moved by 4 cm towards the stationary object. The distance by which the position
of image would be shifted, will be
(1) 4 cm towards mirror (2) 8 cm away from mirror
(3) 2 cm towards mirror (4) 8 cm towards mirror
Sol. (4)
/ / // / / / / / // / / / / // / / / / /
O I
x = –12 x=0 x = 12
4
/ / / / // / / / / / // / / / / / // / /
8 cm
O 8
8 I´ I´
4 12
8 cm towards mirror
Image will be shifted 8 cm towards mirror.
50. A zener diode of power rating 1.6 W is be used as voltage regulator. If the zener diode has a breakdown of 8 V
and it has to regulate voltage fluctuating between 3 V and 10 V. The value of resistance R8 for safe operation of
diode will be
(1) 13.3  (2) 13  (3) 10  (4) 12 

Sol. (3)
P 1.6 Ps
It = t = = 0.2A
Vt 8
10 – 8 8volt
Rs = 10
I
2
Rs = = 10
0.2
51. Unpolarised light of intensity 32 Wm-2 passes through the combination of three polaroids such that the pass axis
of the last polaroid is perpendicular to that of the pass axis of first polaroid. If intensity of emerging light is 3
Wm-2, then the angle between pass axis of first two polaroids is _______o.
Sol. (30 & 60)

I0
cos2  
I I0 2 I
2
32 I0
Inet = 3 = (sin 2)2 = cos2 sin2
8 2
3 I
Sin(2) =  2 = 60 & 120° = 0 (sin 2)2
2 8
 = 30° & 60°
1
52. If the earth suddenly shrinks to th of its original volume with its mass remaining the same, the period of
64
24
rotation of earth becomes h . The value of x is _________ .
x
Sol. (16)
By AMC
2
2 2 R
MR212 = M   2
5 5 4
1 1 T T
= = 2 = 2
2 16 T1 24
24
T2 =  x = 16 Ans.
16
53. Three concentric spherical metallic shells X, Y and Z of radius a, b and c respectively [a < b < c] have surface
charge densities  ,   and  , respectively. The shells X and Z are at same potential. If the radii of X & Y are
2 cm and 3 cm, respectively. The radius of shell Z is __________ cm.
Sol. (5)
qx = 4a2
qy = – 4b2
qz = 4c2
Potential of y
qx qy qz qx qy qz
  =  
4 0 a 4 0 b 4 0 c 4 0 c 4  0 c 4  0 c
 4 a 2  4 b 2  4 c 2 (a 2  b 2  c 2 )
–  = 4
a b c C
c(a – b + c) = a – b + c
2 2 2
c(a – b) + c2 = (a + b)(a – b)
c(a – b) = (a + b)(a – b)
c=a+b =2+3
c = 5 cm Ans.
54. A transverse harmonic wave on a string is given by

y(x, t) = 5 sin (6t + 0.003 x)
where x and y are in cm and t in sec. The wave velocity is _________ ms-1.
Sol. (20)
w 6 6 60
= = = = = 20 m/s.
k .003  10 2
.3 3
55. 10 resistors each of resistance 10  can be connected in such as to get maximum and minimum equivalent
resistance. The ratio of maximum and minimum equivalent resistance will be ______.
Sol. (100)
Rmax  in series  10R = 10 × 10 = 100
R 10
Rmax  in parallel = = = 1
10 10
R max 100
= = 100 Ans.
R min 1
100
Rmin  = 100 Ans.
1
56. The decay constant for a radioactive nuclide is 1.5 × 10-5 s-1. Atomic weight of the substance is 60 g mole-1,
(NA = 6 × 1023). The activity of 1.0 g of the substance is _________ ×1010 Bq.
Sol. (15)
1  10 –6 10 –7
No. of moles = =
60 6
–7
10
No. of atom = n(NA) = × 6 × 1023 = 1016
6
at (t = 0) A0 = No= 1016 × 1.5 × 10–5 = 15 × 1010 Bq
57. Two wires each of radius 0.2 cm and negligible mass, one made of steel and the other made of brass are loaded
as shown in the figure. The elongation of the steel wire is _______ × 10-6 m. [Young's modulus for steel = 2 ×
1011 Nm-2 and g = 10 ms-2
Sol. (20)
///////////////////
T2 1.6 (steel)
2g 1m Brass (1m)
T1
1.14
1.14 = 11.4
T2 = T1 + 20 = 20 + 11.4
T2 = 31.4
 Elongation in steel wire
T L
L = 2
AY
31.4  1.6
=
(0.2  10 –2 ) 2  2  1011
= 2 × 10–5
L = 20 × 10–6 m
58. A closed circular tube of average radius 15 cm, whose inner walls are rough, is kept in vertical plane. A block
of mass 1 kg just fit inside the tube. The speed of block is 22 m/s, when it is introduced at the top of tube. After
completing five oscillations, the block stops at the bottom region of tube. The work done by the tube on the
block is ____ J. (Given : g = 10 m/s2)
Sol. (245)
Rarg = 15cm = .15 m
By WET
Wf + Wgravity = K = Kf – Ki
1
Wf + 10 × .3 = 0 – × 1 × (22)2
2
484
Wf = –3 – = 3 – 242 = – 245
2
Work by friction = – 245
By NTA (+245)
59. A 1 m long metal rod XY completes the circuit as shown in figure. The plane of the circuit is perpendicular to
the magnetic field of flux density 0.15 T. If the resistance of the circuit is 5  , the force needed to move the rod
in direction, as indicated, with a constant speed of 4 m/s will be _______ 10-3N.
Sol. (18)
e (B )B B2 2
F = IB =   B = =
R R R
(•15)  (1)  4
2 2
= = 180 × 10–4
5
=18 × 10–3 = 18 Ans.
60. The current required to be passed through a solenoid of 15 cm length and 60 turns in order to demagnetize a bar
magnet of magnetic intensity 2.4 × 103 Am-1 is ________A.
Sol. (6)
H = 2.4 × 103 A/m
N
H = nI = I
H 2.4  10 3  15  10 –2
I= =
N 60
I = 6A
SECTION - A
Q.61 The major product ‘P’ formed in the given reaction is
(1) (2)
(3) (4)
Sol. (1)
CH2–CH3
(i) alk. KMnO4,

COOCH3
(ii) H3O+
CH2–CH3 COOH
COOH
COOH
C H COOH
Alk kMnO4
Q.62 Prolonged heating is avoided during the preparation of ferrous ammonium sulphate to
(1) prevent hydrolysis (2) prevent reduction (3) prevent breaking (4) prevent oxidation
Sol. (4)
It may oxidise ferrous ion to ferric ions.
Q.63 Identify the correct order of reactivity for the following pairs towards the respective mechanism
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(1) (A), (C) and (D) only (2) (A), (B) and (D) only
(3) (B), (C) and (D) only (4) (A), (B), (C) and (D)
Sol. (4)
(A) SN 2  for SN 2 Reaction 1o  2o  3o
Br
Br >
(B) SN1 reactivity × Stability of Carbocation formed

+
> 
Br
Br
>
So,
(C) Electrophilic Substitution reaction
1
rate 
EWG
(D) Nucleophilic substitution :- rate × no. of EWG atloched at benzons
Br Br
>
NO2
Q.64 Given
(A) 2CO(g)+O2(g)  2CO2(g) H1o = –x KJ mol–1
(B) C(graphite)+O2(g)  CO2(g) Ho2 = –y KJ mol–1
The Ho for the reaction
1
C(graphite)+ O2(g)  CO(g) is
2
x  2y x  2y 2x  y
(1) (2) (3) (4) 2y – x
2 2 2
Sol. (1)
2CO(g)  O2 (g)  2CO2 (g) H1o  y kJ / mol ………(1)
C(graphite)  O2 (g)  CO2 (g) H o2
 –y k J / mol ………(2)
__________________________________________________
C(graphite)  ½O2 (g)  CO(g) H3o  ?
H1o –x
H3o  H o2 –  –y –
2 2
x x  2y
H3o   y 
2 2
Q.65 Using column chromatography mixture of two compounds ‘A’ and ‘B’ was separated. ‘A’ eluted first, this
indicates ‘B’ has
(1) high Rf, weaker adsorption (2) high Rf, stronger adsorption
(3) low Rf, stronger adsorption (4) low Rf, weaker adsorption
Sol. (3)
More Polar the compound, the more it will adhere to the adsorbent and the smaller the distance it will travel
from baseline, and Lower its Rf value.
B has Low Rf value and strong Adsoption
distance covered by substance from base line
Rf =
total distance covered by solvent form base line
Q.66 Lime reacts exothermally with water to give ‘A’ which has low solubility in water. Aqueous solution of ‘A’ is
often used for the test of CO2. a test in which insoluble B is formed. If B is further reacted with CO2 then soluble
compound is formed. ‘A’ is
(1) Quick lime (2) Slaked lime (3) White lime (4) Lime water
Sol. (2)
CaO  H 2O  Ca(OH)2
A(lesssoluble)
Ca(OH)2  CO2  CaCO3  H 2O
B(insoluble)
CaCO3  H2O  CO2  Ca(HCO3 )2
B So lub le
Q.67 Match list I with list II

List I List II
Industry Waste Generated
(A) Steel plants (I) Gypsum
(B) Thermal power plants (II) Fly ash
(C) Fertilizer industries (III) Slag
(D) Paper mills (IV) Bio-degradable
wastes
Choose the correct answer from the options given below
(1) (A)-(III), (B)-(IV), (C)-(I), (D)-(II) (2) (A)-(IV), (B)-(I), (C)-(II), (D)-(III)
(3) (A)-(II), (B)-(III), (C)-(IV), (D)-(I) (4) (A)-(III), (B)-(II), (C)-(I), (D)-(IV)
Sol. (4)
Steel plant produces slag from blast furnace. Thermal power plant produces fly ash, Fertilizer industries
produces gypsum. Paper mills produces bio degradable waste
Q.68 Suitable reaction condition for preparation of Methyl phenyl ether is

(1) Benzene, MeBr (2) PhONa, MeOH (3) Ph–Br,MeONa (4) PhONa, MeBr
Sol. (4)
Williamson;s synthasis :-
Ph – ONa+Me – Br Ph – O – Me + NaBr
Q.69 The one that does not stabilize 2o and 3o structures of proteins is
(1) H-bonding (2) –S–S–linkage
(3) van der waals forces (4) –O–O–linkage
Sol. (4)
Fact
The main forces which stabilize the secondary and tertiary structure of proteins are
 Hydrogen bonds
 S – S Linkages
 vanderwaals force
 electrostatic force of attraction
Q.70 The compound which does not exist is

(1) PbEt4 (2) BeH2 (3) NaO2 (4) (NH4)2BeF4
Sol. (3)
Sodium superoxide is not stable
Q.71 Given below are two reactions, involved in the commercial production of dihydrogen (H2). The two reactions
are carried out at temperature “T1” and “T2”, respectively
C(s)+H2O(g) 
T1
 CO(g)+H2(g)
CO(g)+H2O(g) T2
catalyst
 CO2(g)+H2(g)
The temperatures T1 and T2 are correctly related as
(1) T1 = T2 (2) T1 < T2 (3) T1 > T2 (4) T1 = 100 K, T2 = 1270 K
Sol. (3)
T1 = 1270 K T2 = 673 K
T1 > T2 on the basis of data
Q.72 The enthalpy change for the adsorption process and micelle formation respectively are
(1) Hads < 0 and Hmic < 0 (2) Hads > 0 and Hmic < 0
(3) Hads < 0 and Hmic > 0 (4) Hads > 0 and Hmic > 0
Sol. (3)
Adsorption  Exothermic  H ads  –ve 
Micelle formation  Endothermic  H mic   ve 
Hads  O and Hmic  O
Q.73 The pair from the following pairs having both compounds with net non-zero dipole moment is
(1) cis-butene, trans-butene (2) Benzene, anisidine
(3) CH2Cl2, CHCl3 (4) 1,4-Dichlorohenzene, 1,3-Dichlorobenzene
Sol. (3)
Me
(1)
Me Me Me
≠0
=0
OCH3
NH2
(2)
=0 ≠0
(3) CH 2 Cl 2 CHCl3
 0  0
Cl Cl
(4) Cl
≠0
Cl
=0
Q.74 Which of the following is used as a stabilizer during the concentration of sulphide ores?
(1) Xanthates (2) Fatty acids (3) Pine oils (4) Cresols
Sol. 4
Cresol is used as stabilizer
Q.75 Which of the following statements are correct ?

(A) The M3+/M2+ reduction potential for iron is greater than manganese
(B) The higher oxidation states of first row d-block elements get stabilized by oxide ion.
(C) Aqueous solution of Cr2+ can liberate hydrogen from dilute acid.
(D) Magnetic moment of V2+ is observed between 4.4-5.2 BM.
(1) (C), (D) only (B) (B), (C) only (C) (A), (B), (D) only (D) (A), (B) only
Sol. 2
(A) The M3 / M2 reduction potential for manganese is greater than iron
(B) E0Fe3 /Fe2  0.77
E0Mn 3 /Mn 2  1.57
(C) E0Cr 3 /Cr 2  –0.26

 Cr 2  H   Cr 3  H 2
2
2
(D) V = 3 unpaired electron
Magnetic Moment = 3.87 B.M
Q.76 Given below are two statements :
Statement I : Aqueous solution of K2Cr2O7 is preferred as a primary standard in volumetric analysis over
Na2Cr2O7 aqueous solution.
Statement II : K2Cr2O7 has a higher solubility in water than Na2Cr2O7
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:
Sol. (2)
(1) K2Cr2O7 is used as primary standard. The concentration Na2Cr2O7 changes in aq. solution.
(2) It is less soluble than Na2Cr2O7
Q.77 The octahedral diamagnetic low spin complex among the following is
(1) [CoF6]3– (2) [CoCl6]3– (3) [Co(NH3)6]3+ (4) [NiCl4]2–
Sol. (3)
(1) Paramagnetic, High Spin & Tetrahedral
(2) Paramagnetic, High Spin & Octahedral
(3) Paramagnetic, High Spin & Octahedral
(4) Diamagnetic, Low Spin & Octahedral
[Co(NH3 )6 ]3 ,CN  6 CN = 6 (Octahedral)
NH3  SFL
Co 3  [Ar]3d 6
Diamagnetic & Low spin complex
Q.78 Isomeric amines with molecular formula C8H11N given the following tests
Isomer (P)  Can be prepared by Gabriel phthalimide synthesis
Isomer (Q)  Reacts with Hinsberg’s reagent to give solid insoluble in NaOH
Isomer (R)  Reacts with HONO followed by -naphthol in NaOH to given red dye.
Isomer (P), (Q) and (R) respectively are
(P) (Q) (R)
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
Sol. (2)
P = Can be prepased by Gabriel phthalimide synthesis it should be i-amine
Q = React with Hinsberg’s reagent and insoluble in NaOH it should be 2o–amine
R = React with HNO2 followed by B–Napthol in NaOH it give red dye it must be Aromatic Amine
+
NH2 N2
HNO2
+
OH
NaCH
(pH= 9–10)
OH
Red–Dye
Q.79 The number of molecules and moles in 2.8375 litres of O2 at STP are respectively
(1) 7.527×1022 and 0.125 mol (2) 1.505×1023 and 0.250 mol
23
(3) 7.527×10 and 0.125 mol (4) 7.527×1022 and 0.250 mol
Sol. (1)
 
Moles of O2 n O2 
Volumeof O2
22.7
 0.125moles
Molecules of O2  moles  NA
= 0.125 × 6.022 × 1023
= 7.527 × 1022 molecules
Ans (1) 7.527 × 1022 and 0.125 mole
Q.80 Match list I with List II
List I List II
polymer Type/Class
(A) Nylon-2-Nylon-6 (I) Thermosetting polymer
(B) Buna-N (II) Biodegradable polymer
(C) Urea-Formaldehyde resin (III) Synthetic rubber
(D) Dacron (IV) Polyester
(1) (A)-(IV), (B)-(III), (C)-(I), (D)-(II)
(2) (A)-(II), (B)-(I), (C)-(IV), (D)-(III)
(3) (A)-(IV), (B)-(I), (C)-(III), (D)-(II)
(4) (A)-(II), (B)-(III), (C)-(I), (D)-(IV)
Sol. (4)
Fact Base
(A) Nylon–2–Nylon–6 It is  Biodegradable polymer
CN
CH2 – CH = CH – CH2 – CH2 – CH

(B) Buna – N 
n
It is a synthetic rubber
(C) Urea – formaldehyde resin
O
N N
n
It is a thermos setting polymer
(D) Dacron
O
It is a polyester.
SECTION - B
Q.81 If the degree of dissociation of aqueous solution of weak monobasic acid is determined to be 0.3, then the
observed freezing point will be_____________ % higher than the expected/theoretical freezing point. (Nearest
integer)
Sol. 30
For mono basic acid  n = 2
i  1  (n 1)  1  (2 –1)0.3
i = 1.3
(Tf )obs – (Tf )cal
%increase  100
(Tf )cal
K  i  m – Kf  m
 f 100
Kf  m
i 1
  100  30%
1
Q.82 In the following reactions, the total number of oxygen atoms in X and Y is__________
Na2O+H2O  2X
Cl2O7+H2O  2Y
Sol. 5
Na 2O  H2O  2NaOH
Cl2O7  H2O  2HClO4
1+4=5
Q.83 The sum of lone pairs present on the central atom of the interhalogen IF5 and IF7 is______
Sol. 1
IF5 = 1 lone pair
IF7 = 0 lone pair
1+0=1
Q.84 The number of bent-shaped molecule/s from the following is__________
N3 , NO2 ,I3 ,O3 ,SO2
Sol. 3
N 3– linear
NO 2– bent
I 3– linear
O 3 bent
SO2 bent
Q.85 The number of correct statement/s involving equilibria in physical from the following is__________
(1) Equilibrium is possible only in a closed system at a given temperature.
(2) Both the opposing processes occur at the same rate.
(3) When equilibrium is attained at a given temperature, the value of all its parameters
(4) For dissolution of solids in liquids, the solubility is constant at a given temperature.
Sol. 3
(A) is correct
(B) for equilibrium rf  rb
 (B) is correct
(C) at equilibrium the value of parameters become constant of a given temperature and not equal
⇒ (C) is incorrect
(D) for a given solid solute and a liquid solvent solubility depends upon temperature only
⇒ (D) is correct
Q.86 At constant temperature, a gas is at pressure of 940.3 mm Hg. The pressure at which its volume decreases by
40% is__________ mm Hg. (Nearest integer)
Sol. 1567
Pinitial = 940.3 mm Hg Vinitial = 100 (Assume)
Pfinal =?
PiVi = Pf Vf
940.3 × 100 = Pf × 60
Pf = 1567.16 mm of Hg
Pf = 1567
2.2V 0.70V
Q.87 4 
FeO2–  Fe3   Fe2 
–0.45V
 Feo
EoFeO2– /Fe2 is x×10–3 V. The value of x is___________
4
Sol. 1825
FeO 4 2  3e  Fe3 G1
Fe3  e  Fe 2 G 2
FeO 42  4e  Fo 2 G 3
G3  G1  G2
(–)4E3o F  (–)3  2.2  F  (–)1  0.7  f
4E3o  6.6  0.7  7.3
7.3
E3o   1.825  1825  10 –3
4
Q.88 A molecule undergoes two independent first order reactions whose respective half lives are 12 min and 3 min.
If both the reactions are occurring then the time taken for the 50% consumption of the reactant is__________
min. (Nearest integer)
Sol. 2
k eff  k1  k 2
n2 n2 n2
 
t eff t1 t2
1 1 1 1 4 5
   
t eff 12 3 12 12
12
teff =  2.4  2
5
Q.89 The number of incorrect statement/s about the black body from the following is_________
(1) Emit or absorb energy in the form of electromagnetic radiation.
(2) Frequency distribution of the emitted radiation depends on temperature.
(3) At a given temperature, intensity vs frequency curve passes through a maximum value.
(4) The maximum of the intensity vs frequency curve is at a higher frequency at higher temperature compared
to that at lower temperature.
Sol. 0
Q.90 In potassium ferrocyanide, there are___________ pairs of electrons in the t2g set of orbitals.
Sol. 3
K4 [Fe(CN)6 ]
Fe2  [Ar]3d 6
CN–  SFL
t 2g contain 6 electron so it become 3 pairs
SECTION - A
1. If the coefficients of x and x2 in (1 + x)p (1 x)q are 4 and  5 respectively, then 2p + 3q is equal to
(1) 60 (2) 63 (3) 66 (4) 69
Sol. (2)
(1  x)p (1  x)q
 p(p  1) 2 
1  px  x 
 2! 
 q(q  1) 
1  qx  x 2 
 2! 
pq  4
p(p  1) q(q  1)
  pq  5
2 2
p2  q 2  p  q  2pq  10
(q  4)2  q 2  (q  4)  q  2(4  q)q  10
q 2  8q  16  q 2  q  4  q  8q  2q 2  10
2q  22
q  11
p  15
2(15)  3(11)
30  33  63
2. Let A = {2, 3, 4} and B = {8, 9, 12}. Then the number of elements in the relation R= {((a1, b1), (a2,b2))  (A ×
B, A × B) : a1 divides b2 and a2 divides b1} is
(1) 18 (2) 24 (3) 12 (4) 36
Sol. (4)
a1 divides b2
Each elements has 2 choices
 3 2  6
a2 divides b1
Each elements has 2 choices
 3 2  6
Total = 6 × 6 = 36
3. Let time image of the point P(1,2,6) in the plane passing through the points A(1,2,0), B (1, 4, 1) and C (0, 5, 1)
be Q (, , ). Then (2 + 2 + 2) is equal to
(1) 70 (2) 76 (3) 62 (4) 65
Sol. (4)
Equation of plane A(x -1) + B(y - 2) + C(z - 0) = 0
Put (1,4,1)  2B  C  0
Put (0,5,1)  A  3B  C  0
Sub : B  A  0  A  B,C  2B
1(x 1)  1(y  2)  2(z  0)  0
x  y  2z  3  0
Image is (, , )pt  (1,2,6)
  1   2   6 2(1  2  12  3)
  
1 1 2 6
 1   2   6
  4
1 1 2
  5,   6,   2  2  2   2
 25  36  4  65
4. The statement ~ [pV(~ (p  q))] is equivalent to

(1) (~ (p  q))  q (2) ~ (p  q) (3) ~ (p  q) (4) (p  q)  (~p)
Sol. (4)
 [pv( (p  q))]
 p  (p  q)
    
Let S   x    ,  : 91 tan x  9 tan x  10  and
2 2
5.
  2 2 
x 1
b   tan 2   , then (  is equal to
xS 3 6
(1) 16 (2) 32 (3) 8 (4) 64
Sol. (2)
Let 9tan x  P
2
9
 P  10
P
P2 10P  9  0
(P  9)(P  1)  0
P  1,9
 1,9tan 9
2 2
9tan x x
tan x  0, tan x  1
2 2
π  π p
x  0,   x   , 
4  2 2
 π  π
β  tan 2 (0)  tan 2     tan 2   
 12   12 
 0  2  tan15 
2
2(2  3) 2
2(7  4 3)
1
Than (14  8 3  14) 2  32
6
6. If the points P and Q are respectively the circumecenter and the orthocentre of a ABC, the PA + PB + PC
is equal to
(1) 2QP (2) PQ (3) 2PQ (4) PQ
Sol. (4)
PA  PB  PC  a  b  c
abc
PG 
3
 a  b  c  3PG  PQ
Ans. (4)
7. Let A be the point (1,2) and B be any point onthe curve x2 + y2 = 16. If the centre of the
locus of the point P, which divides the line segment AB in the ratio 3 : 2 is the point C (,) then the length of
the line segment AC is
6 5 2 5 3 5 4 5
(1) (2) (3) (4)
5 5 5 5
Sol. (3)
12cos   2
 h  12cos   5h  2
5
sq & add
144  (5h  2)2  (5k  4)2
2 2
 2  4  144
x   y  
 5  5 25
2 4
Centre   ,   (α, β )
5 5
2 2
 2  4
AC  1     2  
 5   5 
9 36 45 3 5
   
25 25 5 5
8. Let m be the mean and  be the standard deviation of the distribution
where f i  62. If [x] denotes the greatest integer  x, then [2 + 2] is equal to
(1) 8 (2) 7 (3) 6 (4) 9
Sol. (1)
 fi  62
3k 2  16k 12k  64  0
16
k  4or  (rejected)
3
μ
f xi i
f i
8  2(15)  3(15)  4(17)  5 156

μ 
62 62
σ 2   fi xi2    fi xi 
2
8  12  15  13  17  16  25  156 
2
  
62  62 
2
500  156 
σ2   
62  62 
500
σ 2  μ2 
62
σ  μ   8
2 2
1
9. If Sn = 4+ 11 + 21 + 34 + 50 + ....to n terms, then (S29  S9) is equal to
60
(1) 220 (2) 227 (3) 226 (4) 223
Sol. (4)
Sn  4  11  21  34  50  n terms
Difference are in A.P.
Let Tn  an2  bn  c
T1  a  b  c  4
T2  4a  2b  c  11
T3  9a  3b  c  21
By solving these 3 equations
3 5
a  ,b  ,c  0
2 2
3 5
So Tn  n 2  n
2 2
Sn  ΣTn
3 5

2
 n 2  n
2
3 n(n  1)(2n  1) 5 (n)(n  1)
 
2 6 2 2
n(n  1)
 [2n  1  5]
4
n(n  1) n(n  1)(n  3)
Sn  (2n  6) 
4 2
1  29  30  32 9 10 12 
    223
60  2 2 
10. Eight persons are tobe transported from city A to city B in three cars different makes. If each car can accomodate
at most three persons, then the number of ways, in which they can be transported, is
(1) 1120 (2) 560 (3) 3360 (4) 1680
Sol. (4)
8!
Ways   3!
3!3!2!2!
8∣ 7  6  5  4

4
 56  30
 1680
 5! 6! 7!
11. If A =
1  6! 7! 8! , then |adj(adj(2A))| is equal to
5!6!7!  
7! 8! 9!
(1) 216 (2) 28 (3) 212 (4) 220
Sol. (1)
1 6 42
1
| A | 5!6!7!1 7 56
5!6!7!
1 8 72
R3  R3  R2
R2  R2  R1
1 8 42
| A | 0 1 14  2
0 1 16
| adjadj(2 A) || 2 A |( n 1)

2
| 2 A |4
  23 | A |
4
 212 | A |4  216
12. Let the number (22)2022 + (2022)22 leave the remainder  when divided by 3 and  when divided by 7. Then (2
+ 2) is equal to
(1) 13 (2) 20 (3) 10 (4) 5
Sol. (4)
(22)2022  (2022)22
divided byy 3
(21  1)2022  (2022)22
 3k  1
(α  1)
Divided by 7
(21  1)2022  (2023  1)22
7k  1  1 ( β  2)
7k  2
So α 2  β 2  5
13. Let g(x) = f(x) + f(1-x) and fn (x) > 0, x (0,1). If g is decreasing in the interval (0, ) and increasing in the
  1
interval (,1), then tan1 (2) + tan1   is equal to
  
5 3 3
(1) (2)   (3) (4)
4 4 2
Sol. (2)
g ( x)  f ( x)  f (1  x)&f ( x)  0, x  (0,1)
g ( x)  f ( x)  f (1  x)  0
 f ( x)  f (1  x)
x 1 x
1
x
2
g ( x)  0
1
atx 
2
g ( x)  f ( x)  f (1  x)  0
g is concave up
1
hence α 
2
1 α 1
tan 1 2α  tan 1  tan 1
α α
1 1 1
tan 1  tan 2  tan 3  π
  x 2x  e 2x  1x

x
1 e 
x 
1
14. For , , , N, if         loge x dx =       C , where e =
 e   x    e  x
 n! and C is constant
 n 0
of integration, then  + 2 + 3 4  is equal to

(1) 4 (2)  4 (3)  8 (4) 1
Sol. (1)
x  elnx
  x 2 x  e 2 x 
   e    x  loge xdx   e  e2( x ln x  x )  ln xdx
2( x ln x  x )
 
x ln x  x  t
ln x  dx  dt
 e  e2t  dt
2t
e2t e 2t
 C
2 2
2x 2x
1 x  1 e 
      C
2 e  2 x 
α β γ  δ 2
α  2β  3γ  4  4
t2
4 3  2 
0    
2
15. Let f be a continuous function satisying (f (x) x )dx t , t 0. Then f   is equal to
3  4 
 2   3   3   3 
(1) 2 1   (2)  1   (3)  1   (4) 2 1  
 16   16   16   16 
Sol. (2)
t2
  f (x)  x  dx  3 t
4
2 3
, t  0
0
 f t   t   2t
2 4
f t 2   2t  t 4
π  π 2  2π π 4
t  f  
2  4  2 16
π4  π3 
π  π 1  
16  16 
16. Let a dic be rolled n times. Let the probability of getting odd numbers seven times be equal to the probability
k
of getting odd numbers nine times. If the probability of getting even numbers twice is 15 , then k is equal to
2
(1) 60 (2) 30 (3) 90 (4) 15
Sol. (1)
P(odd number7times) =P(odd number9times)
7 n7 9 n 9
1 1 1 1
n
C7      C9    
n
2 2 2  2

C7 n C9
n
 n  16
Required
16
1
P 16 C2   
2
16 15 1 15
  16  13
2 2 2
60
 15  k  60
2
17. Let a circle of radius 4 be concentric to the ellipse 15x2 + 19y2 = 285. Then the common tangents are inclined
to the minor axis ofthe ellipse at the angle.
   
(1) (2) (3) (4)
6 12 3 4
Sol. (3)
x2 y 2
 1
19 15
Let tang be
y  mx  19m2  15
mx  y  19m2  15  0
Parallel from (0, 0) = 4
 19m 2  15
4
m2  1
19m2  15  16m2  16
3m2  1
1
m
3
π
θ with x-axis
6
π
Required angle .
3
18. Let a  2iˆ  7ˆj  k,

ˆ b  3iˆ  5kˆ and C  î  ˆj  2k,
ˆ Let d -be a vector which is perpendicular to both a , and b ,
  
and c.d  12 . The î  ˆj  kˆ . c  d -is equal to
(1) 24 (2) 42 (3) 48 (4) 44
Sol. (4)
a  2iˆ  7 ˆj  kˆ
b  3iˆ  5kˆ
c  iˆ  ˆj  2kˆ
iˆ ˆj kˆ
d  λ(a  b )  λ 2 7 1
3 0 5
d  λ(35iˆ  13 ˆj  21kˆ)
λ(35  13  42)  12
λ2
d  2(35iˆ  13 ˆj  21kˆ)
(iˆ  ˆj  kˆ)(c  d )
1 1 1
 1 1 2  44
70 26 42
 2z  3i 
19. Let S = z  x  iy : is a real number  . Then which of the following is NOT correct ?
 4z  2i 
 1  1   1
(1) y   ,     ,   (2) (x, y)   0,  
 2  2   2
1
(3) x = 0 (4) y + x2 + y2 
4
Sol. (2)
2 z  3i
R
4z  2i
2( x  iy)  3i 2 x  (2 y  3)i 4 x  (4 y  2)i
 
4( x  iy)  2i 4 x  (4 y  2)i 4 x  (4 y  2)i
4x(2 y  3)  2x(4 y  2)  0
1
x0 y
2
Ans. = 2
x 6 y z 8 x 5 y7 z  2 x 3 3 y z 6
20. Let the line =  intersect the lines   and   at the points
1 2 5 4 3 1 6 3 1
A and B respectively. Then the distance of the mid-point of the line segment AB from the plane 2x  2y + z =
14 is
10 11
(1) 3 (2) (3) 4 (4)
3 3
Sol. (3)
x y 6 z 8
   λ ….(1)
1 2 5
x5 y 7 z  2
  μ ….(2)
4 3 1
x3 y 3 z 6
  γ ….(3)
6 3 1
Intersection of (1) & (2) “A”
( λ, 2λ  6,5λ  8)&(4μ  5,3μ  7, μ  2)
λ  1, μ  1
A(1,4, 3)
Intersection (1) & (3) “B”
( λ, 2λ  6,5λ  8)&(6γ  3, 3γ  3, γ  6)
λ3
γ 1
B(3,0,7)
Mod point of A & B  (2, 2, 2)
Perpendicular distance from the plane
2x  2 y  z  14
2(2)  2(2)  2  14
4
4  4 1
SECTION - B
21. The sum of all the four-digit numbers that can be formed using all the digits 2, 1, 2, 3 is equal to _______.
Sol. (26664 )
2,1, 2,3
3!
  1 3
2!
  2 3!  6
3!
  3 3
2!
Sum of digits of unit place  3  1  6  2  3  3 = 24
Required sum
 24  1000  24  100  24  10  24  1
 24 1111
= 26664
 
22. In the figure, 1 + 2 = and 3 (BE) = 4 (AB). If the area of CAB is 2 3  3 unit2, when 2 is the largest,
2 1
thenthe perimeter (in unit) of CED is equal to _______.
Sol. (6)
3BE  4AB
Ar(CAB)  2 3  3
1 2
x tan θ1  2 3  3
2
BE  BD  DE
 x  tan θ1  tan θ2 
BE  AB  tan θ1  cot θ1 
4 1
tan θ1  cot θ1  tan θ1  3,
3 3
π π
θ1  2 
6 3
π π
θ1  θ2 
3 6
θ2 π π
as is largest θ1  θ2 
θ1 6 3
(2 3  3)  2 3(2  3)  2
 x2  
tan θ1 π
tan
6
x 2  12  6 3  (3  3) 2
x  3 3
Perimeter of CED
 CD  DE  CE
 3 3  (3  3) 3  (3  3)  2  6
Ans. (6)
1 
23. Let the tangent at any point P on a curve passing through the points (1,1) and  ,100  , intersect positive x-
 10 
axis and y-axis at the points A and B respectively . If PA : PB =1 : k and y = y (x) is the solution of the differential
dy
k
equation e = kx  , y(0) = k, then 4y then 4y(1)  5loge3 is equal to_______.
dx
2
Sol. (5)
dy
Y  y  ( X  x)
dx
Y 0
 ydx
X x
dy
k 1 dx
x  y  x
k dy
x dx
x  y  x
k dy
dy
x  ky  0
dx
dy k
 y0
dx x
y  xk  C
C 1
k
1
100     1
 10 
K2
dy
 ln(2x  1)
dx
(2x  1)
y (ln(2x  1)  1)  c
2
1
2  (0  1)  C
2
1 5
C 2 
2 2
3 5
y (1)  ( ln 3  1) 
2 2
3
 ln 3  1
2
4 y(1)  6ln3  4
4 y(1)  5ln3  4  ln3
24. Suppose a1, a2, 2, a3, a4 be in an arithemetico-geometric progression. If the common ratio of the corresponding
49
geometric progression in 2 and the sum of all 5 terms of the arithmetico-geometric progression is , then a4
2
is equal to_______.
Sol. (16)
( a  2d ) ( a  d )
, , a, 2(a  d ), 4(a  2d )
4 2
a2
1 1  49
   1  6   2  (1  2  8)d 
4 2  2
3  49
2   7   9d 
4  2
49 62 98  62
9d    9
2 4 4
d 1
 a4  4(a  2d )
 16
25. If the area of the region {(x,y) : |x2 2|  x} is A, then 6A + 16 2 is equal to _____.
Sol. (27)
   x  x 
2 2
A x   2  x 2  dx  2
 2  dx
1 2
 2 2 1 1  8   2 2 
 1  2 2      2     2   4   1   2 2 
 3  2 3  3   3 
4 2 7 10 8 2 9
 4 2     
3 6 3 3 2
6A  16 2  27 6A  16 2  27
Ans. 27
26. Let the food of perpendicular from the point A (4, 3, 1) on the plane P : x y + 2z + 3 = 0 be N. If B(5, , ),
, Z is a point on plane P such that the area of the triangle ABN is 3 2 , then 2 + 2 +  is equal to
_______.
Sol. (7)
AN  6
5  α  2β  3  0
 α  8  2β
N is given by
x  4 y  3 z  1 (4  3  2  3)
  
1 1 2 11 4
x  3, y  4,z  1
N
(3,4, 1)
BN  4  (α  4)2  ( β  1)2
 4  (2 β  4)2  ( β  1)2
1
Area of ABN  AN  BN  3 2
2
1
 6  BN  3 2
2
BN  2 3
4  (2 β  4)2  ( β  1)2  12
(2 β  4)2  ( β  1)2  8  0
5 β 2  18 β  9  0
(5 β  3)( β  3)  0
β  3
α2
α 2  β 2  αβ  9  4  6  7
27. Let S be the set of values of , for which the system of equations
6x 3y + 3z = 42,
2x + 6y + 4z = 1,
3x + 2y + 3z =  has no solution. Then 12 |  | is equal to _______.
lS
Sol. (24)
6 λ 3 3
Δ  2 6λ 4  0
3 2 3λ
2 λ 9 λ2  4  (3λ  6)  (2  9 λ)  0
18λ3 14λ  4  0
( λ  1)(3λ  1)(3λ  2)  0
 λ  1, 1 / 3, 2 / 3
6 λ 3 4 λ 2
For each values of λ,Δ1  2 6 λ 1  0
3 2 λ
 1 2
12 1     24
 3 3
 2x 
28. If the domain of the function f(x) = sec   is [, ) U (, ], then |3+10(+)+21| is equal to ______.
 5x  3 
Sol. (24)
2x
f ( x)  sec1
5x  3
2x
5x  3
2x
 1 | 2 x || 5 x  3|
5x  3
(2 x)2  (5 x  3)2  0
(7 x  3)(3x  3)  0
  
1 3

7
 3   3 3 
 domain  1,   , 
 5   5 7
3 3 3
α  1, β  , γ  , δ 
5 5 7
3α  10( β  γ)  21δ  3
 6   3 
3  10      21  24
 5   7 
29. Let the quadratic curve passing through the point (1,0) and touching the line y = x at (1,1) be y = f(x). Then
the x-intercept of the normal to the curve at the point (,  + 1) in the first quadrant is _______.
Sol. (11)
f (x)  (x  1)(ax  b)
1  2a  2b
f (x)  (ax  b)  a(x  1)
1  (3a  b)
 b  1 / 4,a  1 / 4
(x  1) 2
f (x) 
4
x 1 (  1) 2
f (x)    1  ,   1
2 2 4
 1  4
3
normal at (3, 4)
1
y  4   (x  3)
2
y 0 x 83
Ans. 11
30. Let the equations of two adjacent sides of a parallelogram ABCD be 2x3y =23 and 5x + 4y = 23. If the
equation of its one diagonal AC is 3x + 7y = 23 and the distance of A from the other diagonal is d, then 50 d2 is
equal to _______.
Sol. (529)
A & C point will be (–4, 5) & (3, 2)

 1 7
mid point of AC will be   , 
 2 2
equation of diagonal BD is
7
7
y  2  1
 x 
2  1  2
2
 7x  y  0
Distance of A from diagonal BD
23
d 
50
 50d 2  (23)2
50d 2  529
SECTION - A
31. Given below are two statements:
Statement I : Rotation of the earth shows effect on the value of acceleration due to gravity (g)
Statement II : The effect of rotation of the earth on the value of 'g' at the equator is minimum and that at the
pole is maximum.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below.
(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are true (2) Both Statement I and Statement II are false
(3) Statement I is false but statement II is true (4) Statement I is true but statement II is false
Sol. (4)
Due to rotation of earth, geff = g – 2R cos2 
Where ‘’ is angle made with equator
Also, At poles,  = 90°
g = 2R cos geff = g – 2R cos2
=  R cos 90 = 0
2 2
[no effect on poles] 

geff = g – 2R cos2
for equator  = 0°
So, geff = g – w2R
& g = 2R (Which is maximum change)
32. The ratio of intensities at two points P and Q on the screen in a Young's double slit experiment where phase
difference between two waves of same amplitude are /3 and /2, respectively are
(1) 3:2 (2) 3:1 (3) 2:3 (4) 1:3
Sol. (1)

Ires = 4Io cos2  
2
 
If  = , Ires = 4Io . cos2  
3 6
2
 3
= 4Io .  
 2 
3
I1 = (4Io)   = 3Io
4
 
If  = , Ires = 4Io . cos2  
2 2
2
 1 
= 4Io  
 2
1
= (4Io)  
2
I2 = 2Io
I1 3

I2 2
33. The time period of a satellite, revolving above earth's surface at a height equal to R will be
(Given g = 2 m/s2, R = radius of earth)
(1) 32R (2) 4R (3) 2R (4) 8R
Sol. (1)
42 r 3
T2 
GM
4  2 (2 R)3
T2 
GM
2  R 3
= 48
GM
(g) (R 3 )
= 48
GR 2
GM
At surface of earth  g 
R2
So, GM = g. R2
Also 2 = g
T2 = 32R
 T  32R
34. In a metallic conductor, under the effect of applied electric field, the free electrons of the conductor
(1) Move with the uniform velocity throughout from lower potential to higher potential
(2) Move in the curved paths from lower potential to higher potential
(3) Move in the straight line paths in the same direction
(4) Drift from higher potential to lower potential.
Sol. (2)
Electrons moves in curved path because there velocity u may make any angle  with acceleration a between
time interval of two successive collisions.
Also electron moves from lower potential to higher potential.
35. A message signal of frequency 3kHz is used to modulate a carrier signal of frequency 1.5 MHz. The bandwidth
of the amplitude modulated wave is
(1) 6 kHz (2) 3 kHz (3) 6 MHz (4) 3 MHz
Sol. (1)
Bond width of Amplitude modulated signal (AM) = 2 × f(message signal)
= 2 × 3 KHz
= 6 KHz
36. In an experiment with vernier calipers of least count 0.1 mm, when two jaws are joined together the zero of
vernier scale lies right to the zero of the main scale and 6th division of vernier scale coincides with the main
scale division. While measuring the diameter of a spherical bob, the zero of vernier scale lies in between 3.2 cm
and 3.3 cm marks, and 4th division of vernier scale coincides with the main scale division. The diameter of bob
is measured as
(1) 3.25 cm (2) 3.22 cm (3) 3.18 cm (4) 3.26 cm
Sol. (3)
The zero error in verniel scale is = 6 × 0.1mm = 0.6 mm (+ve zero error)
Note: +ve zero error will have to be subtracted
From the reading of the object.
Now, the diameter measured with the help of Vernier scale is
Given by  M.S.D + V.S.D × L.S
 3.2 cm + 0.1 mm × 4
= 3.24 cm
The actual diameter is  3.24 mm – (zero error) = 3.24 – 0.6 = 3.18 cm
37. Two projectiles are projected at 30° and 60° with the horizontal the same speed. The ratio of the maximum
height attained by the two projectiles respectively is:
(1) 2 : 3 (2) 1 : 3 (3) 3 :1 (4) 1 : 3
Sol. (4)
u 2 sin 2 
In projectile motion, H many 
2g
u 2 sin 2 30
at  = 30°, H1 
2g
u 2 sin 2 60
at  = 60°, H 2 
2g
1
H1 sin 30 2  
  2  1
H 2 sin 2 60  3  2 3
 2 
 
38. Given below are two statements : one is labelled as Assertion A and then other is labelled as Reason R
Assertion A : An electric fan continues to rotate for some time after the current is switched off.
Reason R : Fan continues to rotate due to inertia of motion.
In the light of above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below.
(1) A is not correct but R is correct
(2) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A
(3) Both A and R are correct but R is NOT the correct explanation of A
(4) A is correct but R is not correct
Sol. (2)
Inertia is the property of mass due to which the object continues to move until any external force do not stops it.
In the case of rotation of fan, if we switch off then also it moves for some time as air resistance takes time to
stop it and due to inertia of fan it moves for some time.
39. The distance between two plates of a capacitor is d and its capacitance is C1, when air is the medium between
2d
the plates. If a metal sheet of thickness and of the same area as plate is introduced between the plates, the
3
C
capacitance of the capacitor becomes C2. The ratio 2 is
C1
(1) 4 : 1 (2) 3 : 1 (3) 2 : 1 (4) 1 : 1
Sol. (2)
2d
t=
3
K =  for metals
 A 0 A 0 A 3 A
C1 = 0 C2 = = = 0
d t 2d d
dt d 0
k 3
3 0 A
C 3
= 2  d 
C1  0 A 1
d
40. The amplitude of magnetic field in an electromagnetic wave propagating along y-axis is 6.0 × 10–7 T. The
maximum value of electric field in the electromagnetic wave is
(1) 2 × 1015 Vm–1 (2) 2 × 1014 Vm–1 (3) 6.0 × 10–7 Vm–1 (4) 180 Vm–1
Sol. (4)
In electromagnetic wave, E0 = B0 C
E0 =6×10–7×3×108 E0  Amplitude of electric field
= 18×101 B0  Amplitude of magnetic field
= 180 v C  Speed of light
m
41. If each diode has a forward bias resistance of 25  in the below circuit,
Which of the following options is correct:

I I I3 I1
(1) 1  2 (2) 2  1 (3) 1 (4) 1
I2 I3 I4 I2
Sol. (1)
Here we can see that D1 and D3 conducts but D2 is reversed biased.

Current I1 will be equally distributed among I3 and I4 and I3 = 0
I1 = I2 + I4 + I3
I1 = 2I2
I1
2
I2
42. A gas mixture consists of 2 moles of oxygen and 4 moles of neon at temperature T. Neglecting all vibrational
modes, the total internal energy of the system will be,
(1) 4RT (2) 11RT (3) 8RT (4) 16RT
Sol. (2)
5 5
Internal energy of O2 = nRT   2RT  5RT
2 2
3 3
Internal energy of Ne  nRT   nRT   4RT  6RT
2 2
Total energy of mixture (system) = 5RT + 6RT = 11RT
43. For a periodic motion represented by the equation y = sin t + cos t the amplitude of the motion is
(1) 0.5 (2) 1 (3) 2 (4) 2
Sol. (4)
If equation of SHM is in the form y = a sin(t) + Bcos(t)
Then its amplitude is = A 2  B2

Here A = B = 1 in equation y = sin(t) + (cost)
1  1  2
2 2
Therefore, Amplitude =
44. A person travels x distance with velocity v1 and then x distance with velocity v2 in the same direction. The
average velocity of the person is v, then the relation between v, v1 and v2 will be.
1 1 1 2 1 1 v1  v 2
(1) v = v1 + v2 (2)   (3)   (4) v 
v v1 v 2 v v1 v 2 2
Sol. (3)
x
Time taken b/w A & B  t1 =
v1
x
Time between b/w B & C  t 2 
v2
Totaldisplacement x  x 2x
Average velocity (v) =  
Total time t1  t 2 x x

v1 v 2
2v1 v 2 2 1 1
(v) = or  
v1  v 2 v v1 v 2
7
45. The half life of a radioactive substance is T. The time taken, for disintegrating th part of its original mass will
8
be:
(1) T (2) 2T (3) 3T (4) 8T
Sol. (3)
7 1
If th is disintegrated it means only th part is radioactive active no. of nuclears after ‘n’ half lives
8 8
No No
 
2n 8
2n = 8 = n = 3
So, the elapsed is 3 half lives = 3T
46. A gas is compressed adiabatically, which one of the following statement is NOT true.
(1) There is no change in the internal energy
(2) The temperature of the gas increases.
(3) The change in the internal energy is equal to the work done on the gas
(4) There is no heat supplied to the system
Sol. (1)
In Adiabatic process, Q = 0
If gas is compressed, then w (by gas)  0
Therefore by 1st law  Q = u + w
0 = u + w
u = –w  0
It implies in adiabatic compression, internal energy of gas changes.
Statement I : For diamagnetic substance, –1  X < 0, where X is the magnetic susceptibility.
Statement II : Diamagnetic substances when placed in an external magnetic field, tend to move from stronger
to weaker part of the field.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below
(2) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is true
(4) Statement I is correct but Statement II is false
Sol. (3)
Diamagnetic substances have the property due to which they tends to move away from stronger magnetic field
to weaker magnetic field, as their magnetic susceptibility is negative.
Therefore both statements are correct.
48. Young's moduli of the material of wires A and B are in the ratio of 1:4, while its area of cross sections are in
the ratio of 1:3. If the same amount of load is applied to both the wires, the amount of elongation produced in
the wires A and B will be in the ratio of
[Assume length of wires A and B are same]
(1) 12 : 1 (2) 1 : 36 (3) 1 : 12 (4) 36 : 1
Sol. (1)
W  W 
 Y. 1
 4Y. 2
A 3A
W W
l1 = l2 =
AY 12AY
 1 12

 2 1
49. The variation of stopping potential (V0) as a function of the frequency () of the incident light for a metal is
shown in figure. The work function of the surface is
(1) 2.07 eV (2) 18.6 eV (3) 2.98 eV (4) 1.36 eV

Sol. (1)
Work function () = hvth
= 6.6 × 10–34 × 5 × 1014
= 33 × 10–20
 = 3.3 × 10–19 J
3.3  10 19
= ev  2.07
1.6  10 19
50. A bar magnet is released from rest along the axis of a very long vertical copper tube. After some time the magnet
will
(1) Oscillate inside the tube
(2) Move down with an acceleration greater than g
(3) Move down with almost constant speed
(4) Move down with an acceleration equal to g
Sol. (3)
According to lenz’s law, the rate of charge of flum produced by bar magnet will be approused by the conducting
loops.
SECTION – B
51. If 917 Å be the lowest wavelength of Lyman series then the lowest wavelength of Balmer series will be
_________ Å.
Sol. (3668)
Lowest wavelength of by may sense will be obtained for trasition n =   n = 1

and for balmer series, Lyman Series n =   n = 2
hC
for Lyman, E0 =
917Å
E0 hC
for balmer, 
4  (Å)
using this
 = 917 × 4 = 3668
52. A square loop of side 2.0 cm is placed inside a long solenoid that has 50 turns per centimeter and carries a
sinusoidally varying current of amplitude 2.5 A and angular frequency 700 rad s–1. The central axes of the loop
and solenoid coincide. The amplitude of the emf induced in the loop is x × 10–4 V. The value of x is _______ .
22
(Take,   )
7
Sol. (44)
emf induced in solenoid  BAWN sin(t), w = 700 rad/s
Amplitude  BAWN
Area (A) = 2cm × 2 cm
= 4 cm2
= 4 × 10-4 m2
(B)solenoid = 0ni
= 4 × 10-7 × 5000 × 2.5
= 5 × 10-3
50 turns 5000
n= =
cm m
i = 2.5
Amplitude of emf = (5p × 10-3) (4 × 10-4) (700) (1)
22
=5× × 4 × 700 × 10-7 = 44 × 10-4
7
53. A rectangular parallelepiped is measured as 1 cm × 1 cm × 100 cm. If its specific resistance is 3 × 10 –7m,
then the resistance between its tow opposite rectangular faces will be __________ × 10–7 .
Sol. (3)
 = 3 × 10-7 -cm
l
R = .
A
=

3  10 7  10 2 m  = 3 × 10-7
100  10 4
m 2

54. A force of –P k̂ acts on the origin of the coordinate system. The torque about the point (2, –3) is P(aiˆ bj)
ˆ , The
a x
ratio of is . The value of x is -
b 2
Sol. (3)
  rF
  head  tail

=  0  2  î  0  3  ˆj 
= 2iˆ  3jˆ
   
  2iˆ  3jˆ   pkˆ
= 2pjˆ  3piˆ

=  p 3piˆ  2pjˆ  a 3 x
 
b 2 2
x=3
55. A straight wire carrying a current of 14 A is bent into a semicircular arc of radius 2.2 cm as shown in the figure.
The magnetic field produced by the current at the centre (O) of the arc. is _________ × 10–4T
Sol. (2)
II i
I II
Btotal = BI + BII + BIII

BI = 0
BIII = 0

Because dl  r  0
Now, magnetic field due to semicirclaur ring at its center is given by
 0i
BII =
4R
4   10 7  14
=
4  2.2  10 2
22 10 7  14
= 
7 22  10 3
= 2 × 10–7
=2
56. Figure below shows a liquid being pushed out of the tube by a piston having area of cross section 2.0 cm2. The
area of cross section at the outlet is 10 mm2. If the piston is pushed at a speed of 4 cm s–1, the speed of outgoing
fluid is _________ cm s–1
Sol. (80)
By equation of continuity
A1V1 = A2V2
(2 cm2) (4 cm/s) = (10 × 10–2 cm2) (v)
8cm 3
 10 1 cm 2 (v)
s
V = 80 cm/s
57. A rectangular block of mass 5 kg attached to a horizontal spiral spring executes simple harmonic motion of
amplitude 1 m and time period 3.14 s. The maximum force exerted by spring on block is __________N.
Sol. (20)
When an object executes S.H.M, its morning acceleration is given by amax = 2A
2
Where  =
T
42 A
Therefore, amax =
T2
4  3.14  3.14
(Max force) Fmax = mamax = 5   (1)
3.14  3.14
= 20 N
58. An electron revolves around an infinite cylindrical wire having uniform linear charge density 2 × 10–8 C m–1 in
circular path under the influence of attractive electrostatic field as shown in the figure. The velocity of electron
with which it is revolving is ________ × 106 m s–1. Given mass of electron = 9 × 10–31 kg
Sol. (8)
In uniform circular motion
Fc = mac
mv 2
(q)(E) =
r
 2k  mv
2
(e)   
 r  r
(e)(2 k  ) (1.6  10 19 )  2  (9  109 )  (2  10 8 )
v2 = 
m 9  10 31
= 1.6 × 4 × 1013
V2 = 16 × 4 × 1012  v = 8 × 106 m/s
Ans. 8
59. A point object, 'O' is placed in front of two thin symmetrical coaxial convex lenses L1 and L2 with focal length
24 cm and 9 cm respectively. The distance between two lenses is 10 cm and the object is placed 6 cm away
from lens L1 as shown in the figure. The distance between the object and the image formed by the system of
two lenses is __________ cm.
Sol. (34)
Due to lens L1
u = –6m
f = +24m
1 1 1
 
v u f
1 1 1 1 4
    v = –8m
v 24 6 24
Due to lens L2
U = –18m
F = +9m
1 1 1
  x
v u f
1 1 1
 
v 9 18
1 2 1
V= 
v 18
V = 18m
60. If the maximum load carried by an elevator is 1400 kg (600 kg – Passengers + 800 kg - elevator), which is
moving up with a uniform speed of 3 m s–1 and the frictional force acting on it is 2000 N, then the maximum
power used by the motor is __________ kW (g = 10 m/s2)
Sol. (48)
Tension in the string  16000 N

Maximum power = (F)(V)
= 16000 × 3
= 48000
= 48 kw
Ans. 48
SECTION – A
Solid State Easy
61. The correct relationships between unit cell edge length ' a ' and radius of sphere ' r ' for face-centred and body-
centred cubic structures respectively are:
(1) 2 2r  a and 3r  4a (2) r  2 2a and 4r  3a
(3) r  2 2a and 3r  4a (4) 2 2 r  a and 4r  3a
Sol. 4
FCC BCC
2a  4r 3a  4r
4r 2
a 
2 2
a  2 2r
Chemistry in Everyday life Medium

62. The reaction used for preparation of soap from fat is :
(1) an addition reaction (2) an oxidation reaction
(3) alkaline hydrolysis reaction (4) reduction reaction
Sol. 3
The process of making is soap is saponification.
Ester + Base Alcohol + Soap
In saponification, triglycerides are combine with strong base and form fatty acid so this is alkaline Hydrolysis
reaction.
Mole Easy
63. Match List I with List II
LIST I LIST II
A 16 g of CH4 (g) I. Weight 28 g
23
B 1 g of H2 (g) II 60.2 × 10 electrons
C 1 mole of N2 (g) III Weight 32 g
D 0.5 mol of SO2 (g) IV Occupies 11.4 L volume at STP
(1) A-II, B-IV, C-I, D-III (2) A-II, B-IV, C-III, D-I
(3) A-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I (4) A-I, B-III, C-II, D-IV
Sol. 1
16g CH4 = mole = 1
e– = 60.0 × 1023
19Hz = 0.5mole = 11.4(L) STP
1 mole N2 = 2rg
0.5 mol SO2 = weights 32g.
Periodic Table Medium

64. The correct order of metallic character is =
(1) K>Be>Ca (2) Be>Ca>K (3) K>Ca>Be (4) Ca>K>Be
Sol. 3
Be In group metallic
 character
 Ca
Increases
K
In period Metallic
Character
decreases So K > Ca > Be
Metallic character decreases
GOC Medium
65. The correct order for acidity of the following hydroxyl compound is :
A. CH3OH B. (CH3 )3 COH
C. D.
E.

(1) E > C > D > A > B (2) D > E > C > A > B
(3) E > D > C > B > A (4) C > E > D > B > A
Sol. 1
Acidity  stability of conjugate base
Stability order
– – –
O O O
CH3
CH3 C O– < CH3O– < < <

CH3
(+I Effect) NO2
OCH3
(+M Effect) (–M Effect)

Activity  E > C > D > A > B
Coordination Compound Medium

LIST I LIST II
Complex Crystal Field splitting energy (0)
A [Ti(H O) ]2 I. – 1.2
2 6
B [V(H O) ]2 II – 0.6
2 6
C [Mn(H 2O)6 ]3 III 0
D [Fe(H 2O)6 ]3 IV – 0.8

(1) A-IV, B-I, C-II, D-III (2) A-IV, B-I, C-III, D-II
(3) A-II, B-IV, C-III, D-I (4) A-II, B-IV, C-I, D-III
Sol. 1
2 2 3 3
Ti  H 2 O 6   V  H 2 O 6   Mn  H 2O 6   Fe  H 2O 6 

Ti 2 V 2 Mn 3 Fe 3
   
2 3 4
3d 3d 3d 3d 5
CFSE = –0.4 × t2g + 0.6 × eg + xp
= –0.4 × 2 + 0.6 × 0 + xp
(A) = –0.8  Ti+2
(B) V+2  3d3
CFS = –0.4 × t2g + 0.6 × eg + xp
= –0.4 × 3 + 0.6 × 0 + xp
= –1.2
(C)
Mn+3  3d4
CFSE = –0.4 × t2g + 0.6 × eg + xp

–0.4 × 3 + 0.6 × 1 + xp
= –1.2 + 0.6 = 0.6
(D)
Fe(H2O)6]+3  Fe+3  3d5
CFSE = –0.4 × t2g + 0.6 × eg + xp

= –0.4 × 3 + 0.6 × 2
= –1.2 + 1.2
=0
Qualitative analysis Medium

67. In Carius tube, an organic compound ' X ' is treated with sodium peroxide to form a mineral acid ' Y '.The
solution of BaCl2 is added to ' Y ' to form a precipitate ' Z '.' Z ' is used for the quantitative estimation of an extra
element. ' X ' could be
(1) Chloroxylenol
(2) Methionine
(3) A nucleotide
(4) Cytosine
Sol. 2
Carious method is used for quantitative analysis of sulfur
Chloroxylenol Methionine Cylosine

Nucleotide
OH Phosphate+
NH2 NH2
Sugar+
H3C OH Nitrogeneous
N
S base
O
N O
Cl H
NH2
(i) Na2O2 BaSO4
H3C OH
S (i) BaCl2 (White PPt)
O
So Methionine is correct answer
S-block Medium
68. Number of water molecules in washing soda and soda ash respectively are:
(1) 1 and 0 (2) 1 and 10 (3) 10 and 0 (4) 10 and 1
Sol. 3
Washing Soda  Na2CO3.10H2O
0.2
Soda Ash  Na2CO3
No. of water = 10 + 0 = (10)
Metallurgy Medium
69. Gibbs energy vs T plot for the formation of oxides is given below.
For the given diagram, the correct statement is –

(1) At 600 o C, C can reduce ZnO (2) At 600 o C, C can reduce FeO
(3) At 600 o C, CO cannot reduce FeO (4) At 600 o C, CO can reduce ZnO
Sol. 2
FeO  C   Fe  CO2
At 600°C G of Reaction is –Ve
70. Buna–S can be represented as:
(1) (2)
(3) (4)
Sol. 2
CH=CH2 ( CH2–C=C–CH2–CH–CH2 )n
n CH2 = HC–CH=CH2 +n
(Butadiene) Styrene (Buna–S)
Hydrogen Medium
71. Given below are two statements: one is labelled as Assertion 𝐀 and the other is labelled as Reason 𝐑
Assertion A : Physical properties of isotopes of hydrogen are different.
Reason : Mass difference between isotopes of hydrogen is very large.
(1) Both 𝐀 and 𝐑 are true but 𝐑 is NOT the correct explanation of 𝐀
(2) A is false but 𝐑 is true
(3) A is true but 𝐑 is false
(4) Both 𝐀 and 𝐑 are true and 𝐑 is the correct explanation of 𝐀
Sol. Correct – (4)
The Physical properties of isotope of Hydrogen are different due to Large mass difference
Coordination Compound Medium

72. The correct order of the number of unpaired electrons in the given complexes is
A. [Fe(CN)6 ]3–
B. [Fe F6 ]3–
C. [Co F6 ]3–
D. [Cr(oxalate)3 ]3–
E. [Ni(CO)4 ]
(1) E < A < D < C < B (2) A < E < C < B < D
(3) A < E < D < C < B (4) E < A < B < D < C
Sol. 1
–3 –3 –3 –3
(Fe(CN)6) (FeF6] (COF6) (Cr(oxalate)3) (Ni(CO)4)
Fe+3 Fe+3 Co+3 Cr+3 Ni

– – –2
3d
5
F WF2 F neF2 C2O1 WFL COSFL
– 5 6 3 u.e. = 0
CN SFL 3d 3d 3d
2 8
1 1 1 1 1 u.e. = 5 u.e. = 4 u.e. = 3 4S 3d
pairing
u.e. = 1
Topic : GOC
Medium
73. The decreasing order of hydride affinity for following carbonations is:
A. B.
C. D.

(1) C, A, D, B (2) A, C, B, D (3) A, C, D, B (4) C, A, B, D
Sol. 4

Stability of carbocation 
Hydride affinity
Chapter: carbonyl
Level : Med.
74. Incorrect method of preparation for alcohols from the following is:
(1) Ozonolysis of alkene.
(2) Hydroboration-oxidation of alkene.
(3) Reaction of alkyl halide with aqueous NaOH.
(4) Reaction of Ketone with RMgBr followed by hydrolysis.
Sol. 1
1) Ozonolysis of alkene–
2) Hydroboration – oxidation of alkene

OH
BH3
3) R – X  NaOH 
 R – OH  NaX
{Chap – Aldehyele, ketone, SO - Med}
75. In the reaction given below:
The product ‘X’ is:
(1) (2)
(3) (4)
Sol. 4
O
(i) LiAlH4
NH2 C NH2 – CH2
(ii) H3O+
O OH
s-block Medium
76. Given below are two statements: one is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R
Assertion A : The energy required to form Mg 2 from Mg is much higher than that required to produce Mg 
Reason R: Mg 2 is small ion and carry more charge than Mg 

In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below.
(1) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
(2) A is true but R is false
(3) A is false but R is true
(4) Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A
IE1 IE2
+ 2+
(A) - Mg Mg Mg
IE1+ IE2
2+ +
In formation of Mg IE1 + IE2 is required while in formation of Mg IE1 is required
2+ 
(R) Mg is small ion and carry more change than Mg
77. The major product ‘P’ formed in the given reaction is:
(1) (2)
(3) (4)
Sol. 1
Cl
CH3O CH3O
Anhy +
AcCl3
NO2 NO2
–
Cl
H
CH3O CH3O
+
NO2 NO2
78. Ferric chloride is applied to stop bleeding because -
(1) Blood absorbs FeCl3 and forms a complex.
(2) FeCl3 reacts with the constituents of blood which is a positively charged sol.
(3) Fe3 ions coagulate blood which is a negatively charged sol.
(4) Cl– ions cause coagulation of blood.
Sol. 3
3+
Fe coagulation negatively charged sol blood.
Environmental Chemistry Easy

79. The delicate balance of CO2 and O 2 is NOT disturbed by
(1) Burning of Coal (2) Deforestation (3) Burning of petroleum (4) Respiration
The balance of carbon dioxide and oxygen in atmosphere is mainly maintained by the oxygen released and
carbon dioxide consumed during photosynthesis by plants.
Assertion A : 3.1500 g of hydrated oxalic acid dissolved in water to make 250.0 mL solution will result in 0.1M
oxalic acid solution.
Reason R : Molar mass of hydrated oxalic acid is 126 g mol –1
Sol. 4
Assertion is correct.
H2C2O4 .2H2 O
3.15  1000
M
126  250
12.6
  0.1
126
Reason is correct. It is used as a fact in explanation of assertion.
SECTION - B
Chemical bonding Medium
81. The number of molecules from the following which contain only two lone pair of electrons is________
H2O, N2 ,CO,XeF4 , NH3 , NO,CO2 ,F2
Sol. 4
lp
••
•
H • 2
H
•
• N N •• 2
•
• C O •• 2
F F
Xe 2
F F
••
NH3 1
••
• N O 3
••
82. The specific conductance of 0.0025M acetic acid is 5  10 –5 S cm –1 at a certain temperature. The dissociation
constant of acetic acid is________ 10–7 . (Nearest integer)
Consider limiting molar conductivity of CH3COOH as 400 S cm2 mol –1 .
Sol. 66
k
m 1000
C
Given k = 5 × 10–5 S cm–1
C = 0.0025 M
5 10 5 103 5 10 2
m
0.0025 2.5 10 3
20Scm2 mol 1
20 1
400 20
1 1
2 0.0025
C 20 20
Ka
1 19
20
0.0025 6
6.6 10
19 20
7
66 10
83. An aqueous solution of volume 300cm3 contains 0.63 g of protein. The osmotic pressure of the solution at 300
K is 1.29 mbar. The molar mass of the protein is _______ g mol –1
Given : R = 0.083 L bar K 1 mol –1
Sol. 40535
  CRT
n
  RT
V
 RT

V M
RT
M
 V
0.63  0.083  300
M
1.29  103  300  103
M = 40535 gm/moL
p-block Medium
84. The difference in the oxidation state of Xe between the oxidised product of Xe formed on complete hydrolysis
of XeF4 and XeF4 is ____________
Sol. 2
+4 +6
XeF4 + H2O Xe + XeO3 + O2 + HF
Difference = 6 – 4 = (2)
85. The number of endothermic process/es from the following is
A. I2 (g)  2I(g)
B. HCl(g)  H(g)  Cl(g)
C. H2O(l)  H2O(g)
D. C(s) + O2 (g)  CO2 (g)
E. Dissolution of ammonium chloride in water
Sol. 4
A Endothermic (Atomisation) B Endothermic (Atomisation)
C Endothermic (Vapourisation) D Exothermic (Combustion)
E Endothermic (Dissolution)
86. The number of incorrect statement/s from the following is

A. The successive half lives of zero order reactions decreases with time.
B. A substance appearing as reactant in the chemical equation may not affect the rate of reaction
C. Order and molecularity of a chemical reaction can be a fractional number
D. The rate constant units of zero and second order reaction are mol L–1 s –1 and mol –1 Ls –1 respectively.
Sol. 1
[A]0
(A) For zero order t1/2  as concentration decreases half life decreases (Correct statement)
2K
(B) If order w.r.t. that reactant is zero then it will not affect rate of reaction. (Correct statement)
(C) Order can be fractional but molecularity can not be (Incorrect statement)
(D) For zero order reaction unit is mol L–s–1 and for second order reaction unit is mol–1Ls–1 (Correct statement)
87.
The electron in the nth orbit of Li2 is excited to ( n + 1) orbit using the radiation of energy 1.47 × 10 –17 J (as
shown in the diagram). The value of n is___________
Given: R H  2.18  10 –18 J
Sol. 1
 1 1 
E  R H Z2  2  2 
 n1 n 2 
  1 
1.47  1017  2.18  1018  9  2  
 n (n  1) 2 
1.47 3 1 1
  2
1.96 4 n (n  1)2
So, n = 1
d-block Medium
88. For a metal ion, the calculated magnetic moment is 4.90BM. This metal ion has___________ number of
unpaired electrons.
Sol. 4
  4.90BM.
  n  n  2
So, n  4
89. In alkaline medium, the reduction of permanganate anion involves a gain of electrons.
Sol. 3
+7 – +4
MnO4 Mn
(3)
90. A(g) 2B(g) C(g)

For the given reaction, if the initial pressure is 450 mmHg and the pressure at time t is 720 mmHg at a constant
temperature T and constant volume V. The fraction of A(g) decomposed under these conditions is x 10–1 . The
value of x is ____________ (nearest integer)
Sol. 3
A(g) 2B(g) C(g)
t = 0 450
time t 450 – x 2x x
PT = PA + PB + PC
720 = 450 – x + 2x + x
2x = 270
x = 135
135
Fraction of A decomposed =  0.3  3  101
450
So, x =3
SECTION-A
1. Let x1, x2, ….., x100 be in an arithmetic progression, with x1 = 2 and their mean equal to 200. If yi = i(xi –i),
1 i  100, then the mean of y1, y2, ….. y100 is :
(1) 10051.50 (2) 10100 (3) 10101.50 (4) 10049.50
Sol. (4)
Mean = 200
100 
2  2  99d 
 2  200
100
 4  99d  400
d4
yi  i  xi  1
 i  2   i  1 4  i   3i 2  2i
Mean 
y i
100
1 100 2
  3i  2i
100 i 1
1  3 100 101 201 100 101 
   
100  6 2 
 201 
 101  1  101 99.5
 2 
= 10049.50
2. The number of elements in the set S = {  [0, 2] : 3cos4  – 5 cos2  – 2 sin6  + 2 = 0} is :
(1) 10 (2) 9 (3) 8 (4) 12
Sol. (2)
3cos4   5cos2   2sin   2  0
 3cos4   3cos2   2cos2   2sin6   2  0
 3cos4   3cos2   2sin2   2sin6   0
 3cos2   cos2   1  2sin 2   sin 4   1  0
 3cos2  sin 2   2sin 2  1  sin 2   cos2   1
 sin 2  cos2   2  2sin 2   3  0
 sin 2  cos2   2sin 2   1  0
 C1 sin 2   0  3 solution;   0, ,2
 C2 cos2   0  2 solution;     , 3 

2 2 
1   3 5 7 
(C3) sin 2    4 solution;    , , , 
2 4 4 4 4 
No. of solution = 9
   dx is equal to :
loge 2
3. The value of the integral 

– loge 2
ex log e ex  1  e2x

 2 5 2 
 
2 2 5
 
2
(1) log e   5
 (2) log e  – 5
 2
 1 5  2  1 5 
   
 2 3– 5
    2 2 5
  
2 2
(3) log e   5
 2 (4) log e  – 5
 2
 1 5   1 5 
   
Sol. (4)
 e  ln  e  1  e2x  dx 
ln 2
I x x
 ln 2
Put ex  t  ex dx  dt
 ln  t  1  t 2 dt
2
I
1/2
Applying integration by parts.
  t ln  t  1  t 2   1 
 
2 2
t 2t
2
 t
1/2
21 
1 t  2 1 t2
 dt

1 1 5 
2
 2ln  2  5   ln 
t
2  2  1/2 1  t 2
  dt
1 1 5 
 2ln  2  5   ln 
5

2  2  2
  2  5 2 
 ln   5
 1
 2

  5 1  2

 
 2  
4. Let S = {M = [aij], aij  {0, 1, 2}, 1  i, j  2} be a sample space and A = {M  S : M is invertible} be an

event. Then P(A) is equal to :
16 50 47 49
(1) (2) (3) (4)
27 81 81 81
Sol. (2)
a b 
M   , where a, b, c, d, 0,1, 2
c d 
n(s) = 34 = 81
we first bound p  A
m  0  ad  bc
ad  bc  0  no. of (a, b, c, d) =  32  22   25
2
ad = bc =1  no. of (a,b,c,d) = 12 = 1
ad = bc = 2  no. of (a,b,c,d) = 22 = 4
ad = bc = 4  no. of (a,b,c,d) = 12 = 1
31 50
: P A   pA 
81 81
5. Let f : [2, 4]  be a differentiable function such that (x loge x) f ' (x) + (loge x) f(x) + f(x)  1, x [2, 4]
1 1
with f(2) = and f(4) = . Consider the following two statements :
2 4
(A) : f(x)  1, for all x  [2, 4]
1
(B) : f(x)  , for all x  [2, 4]
8
Then,
(1) Only statement (B) is true
(2) Only statement (A) is true
(3) Neither statement (A) nor statement (B) is true
(4) Both the statements (A) and (B) are true
Sol. (4)
x nxf '  x   ln xf  x   f  x   1, x  2,4
1 1
And f(2) = , f(4) =
2 4
dy 
Now xlnx,  ln  1 y  1
dx
d
 y  x ln x   1
dx
d  
 f x .x ln x   1
dx
d
  x ln xf  x   x   0, x   2, 4
dx
 The function g(x) = x ln x f(x) – x is increasing in
[2,4]
And g(2) = 2 ln 2f(2) – 2 = ln 2– 2
g(2) = 4 ln 4f(4) – 4 = ln 4 – 4
= 2(ln 2 – 2)
Now g  2  g  x   g  4 
Ln 2 – 2  x lnx f(x) – x  2(ln 2– 2)
ln 2  2 1 2  ln 2  2  1
  f x  
x ln x ln x x ln x ln x
Now for x  2,4
2  n2  2  1 2  ln 2  2  1 1
   1 1
x ln x nx 2ln 2 ln 2 ln 2
 f  x   1 for x   2, 4
ln 2  2 1 ln 2  2 1 1 1 1
     
x ln x ln x 4ln 4 ln 4 8 2ln 2 8
1
 f  x   for x  2,4
8
Hence both A and B are true.
6. Let A be a 2 × 2 matrix with real entries such that A' =  A + I, where a  – {–1, 1}. If det (A2 – A) = 4,
then the sum of all possible values of  is equal to :
5 3
(1) 0 (2) (3) 2 (4)
2 2
Sol. (2)
AT  A  I
A  AT  I
A    A  I   I
A  2 A     1 I
A 1  2      1 I
I
A= … (1)
1 
1
A … (2)
1   2
A2  A  A A  1 … (3)
I 
AI I I
I 1 
  
2
AI   … (4)
1  
Now A2  A  4
A AI  4
1 2
 4
1   2 1  2 

  2
1   2
 2 1     
2
C1  21    C2  2 1   

2 3
22  3  2  0
5
1   2  R
2
2
 x–7 
7. The number of integral solutions x of log  7     0 is :
 x    2x – 3 
 2
(1) 5 (2) 7 (3) 8 (4) 6

Sol. (4)
 x 7 
2
log 7   0
x   2x  3 
2
7 7
Feasible region: x 0x 
2 2
7 
And x   1  x 
2 2
 7   5 3 
Taking intersection: x   ,     , ,7 
 2   2 2 
Now loga b  0 if a > 1 and b  1
a   0,1 and b   0,1
 x 7 
2
7
C – I; x   1 and   1
2  2x  3 
5
x   ;  2x  3   x  7   0
2 2
2
 2x  3  x  7   2x  3  x  7   0
 3x  10  x  4  0
 10 
x   4, 
 3
 5 10 
Intersection: x   , 
 2 3
 x 7 
2
7
C – II: x +   0,1 and     0,1
2  2x  3 
 x 7 
2
7
0  x   1;   1
2  2x  3 
7 5
 x ;  x  7    2x  3
2 2
2 2
 10 
x   , 4    ,  
 3 
No common values of x.
Hence intersection with feasible region
 5 10   3 
We get x   ,    
 2 3  2
Integral value of x are {–2, –1, 0, 1, 2, 3}
No. of integral values = 6
8. For any vector a  a1î  a 2 ˆj  a 3 k,

ˆ with 10 |ai| < 1, i = 1, 2, 3, consider the following statements :
(A) : max {|a1|,|a2|,|a3|} | a |
(B) : | a | max{|a1|,|a2|,|a3|}
(1) Only (B) is true (2) Both (A) and (B) are true
(3) Neither (A) nor (B) is true (4) Only (A) is true
Sol. (2)
Without loss of generality
Let a1  a 2  a 3
a  a1  a 2  a3   a3 
2 2 2 2 2
 a  a 3 = max  a1 , a 2 , a 3 
A is true
a  a1  a 2  a 3  a 3  a 3  a 3
2 2 2 2 2 2 2
 a  3 a3
2 2
 a  3 a 3  3 max  a1 , a 2 , a 3 
 3max  a1 , a 2 , a 3 
(2) is true
9. The number of triplets (x,y,z), where x, y, z are distinct non negative integers satisfying x + y + z = 15, is :
(1) 136 (2) 114 (3) 80 (4) 92
Sol. (2)
x + y + z = 15
Total no. solution = 1531C3  136 … (1)
Let x = y  z
2x+ z = 15  z = 15 – 2t
 r 0,1, 2,7  5
7 solutions
 there are 21 solutions in which exactly
Two of x, y, z are equal … (2)
There is one solution in which x = y = z … (3)
Required answer = 136 – 21 – 1= 144
10. Let sets A and B have 5 elements each. Let mean of the elements in sets A and B be 5 and 8 respectively and
the variance of the elements in sets A and B be 12 and 20 respectively. A new set C of 10 elements is formed
by subtracting 3 from each element of A and adding 2 to each element of B. Then the sum of the mean and
variance of the elements of C is ______.
(1) 36 (2) 40 (3) 32 (4) 38
Sol. (4)
 A  a1 ,a 2 ,a 3 ,a 4 ,a 5 
B  b1 , b 2 , b3 , b 4 , b5 
5 5
Given,  ai  25,  bi  40
i 1 i 1
2 2
5
 5
 5
 5 
 a i2  i a  b 2
i   bi 
i 1
 i 1
  12, i 1
  i 1   20
5  5  5  5 
5 5
  a i2  185, b 2
i  420
i 1 i 1
Now, C  C1 ,C2 ,C10 
 Mean of C, C 
a i  15    bi  10 
10
10  50
C 6
10
10
C 2
i
 C
2
  2 i 1
10
a  3    b i  2  
2 2
   6
i 2
10

 a  b  6 a i 4 bi  65
2
i
2
i
 36
10
185  420  150  160  65
  36
10
= 32
 Mean + Variance = C  2  6  32  38
11. Area of the region {(x, y) : x2 + (y – 2)2  4, x2  2y} is :

8 16 16 8
(1)   (2) 2  (3) 2 – (4)  –
3 3 3 3
Sol. (3)
x 2   y  2  22 and x 2  2y
2
Solving circle and parabola simultaneously:

2y  y2  4y  4  4
y2  2y  0
y = 0, 2
Put y  2 in x 2  2y  x  2
 (2, 2) and (–2, 2)
1
 2  2     22  4  
4
 2 x2 
Required area = 2   dx   4    
0 2 
 x3 
 2  |02 4  
6 
4 
 2     4
3 
 8
 2   
 3
6
 2 
6
12. Let R be a rectangle given by the line x = 0, x = 2, y = 0 and y = 5. Let A (, 0) and B (0, ),  [0, 2] and
 [0, 5], be such that the line segment AB divides the area of the rectangle R in the ratio 4 : l. Then, the mid-
point of AB lies on a :
(1) straight line (2) parabola (3) circle (4) hyperbola
Sol. (4)
ar  OPQR  4

or  OAB  1
Let M be the mid-point of AB.
 
M  h, k    , 
 2 2
1
10  
 2 4
1

2
5
   10    4
2
 2h  2K  4

 Locus of M is xy = 1
Which is a hyperbola.
13. Let a be a non-zero vector parallel to the line of intersection of the two places described by î  ˆj, î  kˆ and
î – ˆj, ˆj – kˆ . If  is the angle between the vector a and the vector b  2iˆ – 2jˆ  kˆ and a.b  6 , then ordered pair
 ,| a  b | is equal to :
       
(1)  ,6  (2)  ,3 6  (3)  ,3 6  (4)  ,6 
3  4  3  4 
Sol. (4)
n1 and n 2 are normal vector to the plane î  ˆj, î  kˆ and î  ˆj, î  kˆ respectively
î ˆj ˆj
n1  1 1 0  î  ˆj  kˆ
1 0 1
î ˆj ˆj
n 2  1 1 0  î  ˆj  kˆ
1 0 1
a   n2  n2
î ˆj ˆj
  1 1 1    2ˆj  2kˆ 
1 1 1
ab   0 4 2  6
  1
  2jˆ  2kˆ
ab
cos  
a b
6 1
cos   
2 2 3 2


4
2 2
Now a.b  a  b  a b
2 2
36  a  b2  8  9  72
a  b  36
2
ab 6
14. Let w1 be the point obtained by the rotation of z1 = 5 + 4i about the origin through a right angle in the
anticlockwise direction, and w2 be the point obtained by the rotation of z2 = 3 + 5i about the origin through a
right angle in the clockwise direction. Then the principal argument of w1 – w2 is equal to :
8 8 33 33
(1)  – tan –1 (2) –   tan –1 (3)  – tan –1 (4) –   tan –1
9 9 5 5
Sol. (1)
W1  zi i   5  4i  i  4  5i … (i)
W1  z2  i    3  5i   i   5  3i … (2)
W1  W2  9  8i
8
Principal argument =   tan 1  
9
15. Consider ellipse Ek : kx2 + k2y2 = 1, k = 1, 2,…., 20. Let Ck be the circle which touches the four chords joining
the end points (one on minor axis and another on major axis) of the ellipse Ek. If rk is the radius of the circle Ck
20
1
then the value of  2 is
k 1 rk
(1) 3320 (2) 3210 (3) 3080 (4) 2870

Sol. (3)
Kx 2  K 2 y2  1
x2 y2
 1
1 / K 1 / K2
Now
Equation of
x y
A1B2 ;   1  Kx  Ky  1
1/ K 1/ K
rK  r distance of (0, 0) from line A1B1
 0  0  1 1
rK  
KK K  K2
2
 20
1 20
2
 K  K2   2   K  K2 
rK k 1 rK K 1
20 20
  K   K2
K 1 K 1
20  21 20.21.41
 
2 6
= 210 + 10 × 7 × 41
= 210 + 2870
= 3080
16. If equation of the plane that contains the point (–2,3,5) and is perpendicular to each of the planes 2x + 4y + 5z
= 8 and 3x – 2y + 3z = 5 is x + y + z + 97 = 0 then +  +  = :
(1) 15 (2) 18 (3) 17 (4) 16
Sol. (1)
The equation of plane through (–2,3,5) is
a(x+2) + b(y – 3) + c (z – 5) = 0
it is perpendicular to 2x + 4y + 5z = 8 & 3x – 2y + 3z = 5
2a + 4b + 5c =0
3a – 2b + 3c = 0
a b c
  
4 5 2 5 2 4
2 3 3 3 3 2
a b c
  
22 9 16
 Equation of plane is
22(x + 2) + 9(y – 3) –16(z – 5) = 0
 22x + 9y – 16z + 97 = 0
Comparing with x  y  x  97  0
We get       22  9  16  15
17. An organization awarded 48 medals in event ‘A’, 25 in event ‘B’ and 18 in event ‘C’. If these medals went to
total 60 men and only five men got medals in all the three events, then, how many received medals in exactly
two of three events ?
(1) 15 (2) 9 (3) 21 (4) 10
Sol. (3)
A  48
B  25
C  18
A  B  C  60 [Total]
A BC  5
ABC   A  A B  A BC
  A  B  48 + 25 + 18 + 5 – 60
= 36
No. of men who received exactly 2 medals
  AB 3 ABC
= 36 – 15
= 21
18. Let y = y(x) be a solution curve of the differential equation. (1 – x2y2)dx = ydx + xdy. If the line x = 1
intersects the curve y = y(x) at y = 2 and the line x = 2 intersects the curve y = y(x) at y = , then a value of 
is :
1  3e2 1 – 3e2 3e2 3e2
(1) (2) (3) (4)
2(3e2  1) 2(3e2  1) 2(3e2 – 1) 2(3e2  1)
Sol. (1)
1  x 2 y2  dx  ydx  xdy, y 1  2
y  2  
d  xy 
dx 
1   xy 
2
d  xy 
 dx   1   xy  2
1 1  xy
x  ln C
2 1  xy
Put x = 1 and y = 2:
1 1 2
1  ln C
2 1 2
1
C  1  ln 3
2
Now put x = 2 :
1 1  2 1
2  ln  1  ln 3
2 1  2 2
 1 1  2
1  ln 3 
2 2 1  2
1  2
2  ln 3 
1  2
1  2
 3e 2
1  2
 2
 3e 2 ,  3e 2
1  2
1  2 3e2  1
 3e2   
1  2 2  3e2  1
1  2 3e2  1
And  3e2   
1  2 2  3e2  1
19. Let (, , ) be the image of the point P (2, 3, 5) in the plane 2x + y – 3z = 6. Then  +  +  is equal to :
(1) 5 (2) 9 (3) 10 (4) 12
Sol. (3)
2 3  5  2x2  3  3  5  6 
   2   2 2
2 1 3  2  1  1  32 
2
2 3 2   5  6
2
6 5   1
      10
20. Let f(x) = [x2 – x] + |–x+[x]|, where x  and [t] denotes the greatest integer less than or equal to t. Then,
f is :
(1) not continuous at x = 0 and x = 1
(2) continuous at x = 0 and x = 1
(3) continuous at x = 1, but not continuous at x = 0
(4) continuous at x = 0, but not continuous at x = 1
Sol. (3)
Here f(x) = [x(x – 1)] + {x}
f  0   1  0  1 f 1   0  0  0
f  0  0 f 1  0
f 1   1  1  0
 f(x) is continuous at x = 1, discontinuous at x = 0
SECTION-B
680
 1 1

21. The number of integral terms in the expansion of  32  5 4  is equal to :
 
Sol. (171)
The number of integral term in the expression of
3 
2
5 4
1 680
is equal to
C 3  5 
1 680  r 1 r
General term  680
r
2 4
680  r r
 680
Cr 3 2
5 4
r
Values' s of r, where goes to integer
4
r = 0, 4, 8, 12, …… 680
680  r
All value of r are accepted for as well so
2
No of integral terms = 171.
22. The number of ordered triplets of the truth values of p, q and r such that the truth value of the statement (p
q)  (p  r)  (q  r) is True, is equal to _____:
Sol. (7)
Hence total no of ordered triplets are 7
0 1 2
23. Let A  a 0 3  , where a, c  . If A3 = A and the positive value of a belongs to the interval (n – 1, n],
1 c 0 
where n  , then n is equal to ______:
Sol. (2)
0 1 2
A  a 0 3 
1 c 0 
3
A =A
0 1 2  0 1 2 
A  a 0 3 a 0 3
2
1 c 0  1 c 0 
a  2 2c 3 
A  3
2  a  3c 2a 
 ac 1 2  3c 
a  2 2c 3  0 1 2
A  3
3  a  3c 2a  a 0 3 
 ac a 2  3c  1 c 0 
 2ac  3 a  2  3c 2a  4  6c 

A  a  a  3c   2a
3
3  2ac 6  3a  9c 
 a  2  3c ac  c  2  3c  2ac  3 
Given A3 = A
2ac + 3 = 0 … (1) and a + 2 + 3c = 1
a + 1 + 3c = 0
9
a + 1 0
2a
2a2 + 2a – 9 = 0
f(1) < 0, f(2) > 0
a  1, 2
n=2
2
24. For m, n > 0, let (m, n)   t m (1  3t)n dt . If 11(10, 6) + 18(11, 5) = p (14)6 , then p is equal to _____:
0
Sol. (32)
2
  m,n    t m 1  3t  dt
n
If 11 10,6   18 11,5   p 14  then P

6
t 1  3t 
2 10 6

 11  10 t11 1  3t  dt
2
0
II I
2
 6 t
11
t11 
2

 11 1  3t     6 1  3t   3   18 t11 1  3t  dt
5
 11 11  0 0
  t11 1  3t  
6 2
0
 211  7 
6
 25 14 
6
 32 14 
6
108 107 2 1
25. Let S = S  109   2  ....  107  108 . Then the value of (16S – (25)–54) is equal to _____:
5 5 5 5
Sol. (2175)
108 107 1
S  109   2  108
5 5 5
S 09 108 2 
  2  108  109
5 5 5 5 5
4S 1 1 1 1
 109   2  108  09
5 5 5 5 5
  1 
 1 1  5109  
 109   
 5 1  1  
   
  5 
 1 
 109   1  109 
4 5 
1 1 1
 109    109
4 4 5
5 1 1 
s   109   
4 4 4.5109 
1
16S = 20×109 – 5+ 108
5
54
16S –  25  = 2180 – 5 = 2175
x2 y2
26. Let H H n : –  1, n  N . Let k be the smallest even value of n such that the eccentricity of Hk is a
1 n 3  n
rational number. If l is the length of the latus rectum of Hk, then 21 l is equal to ____:
Sol. (306)
x2 y2
Hn   1
1 n 3  n
b2 3 n 2n  4
e  1  1 
a 2
1 n n 1
2n  4
e
n 1
n = 48 (smallest even value for which e  Q )
10
e
7
a  n 1
2
b2  n  3
=49 = 51
2b 2
l =length of LR =
a
51
L = 2
7
102
1
7
21  306
27. The mean of the coefficients of x, x2, …. x7 in the binomial expansion of (2 + x)9 is _____:
Sol. 2736
Coefficient of x = 9 C1 28
Coef. x 2  9 C2 27
Coef. x 7  9 C7  22
9
C1  28  9 C2  27  9 C7  2
Mean =
7
1  2 9  9 C0  29  9 C8  21  9 C9

7
3  2  18  1
9 9

7
9152
  2736
7
a 21  b 21  a17  b17
28. If a and b are the roots of the equation x2 –7x –1 = 0, then the value of is equal to _____:
a19  b19
Sol. (51)
a
x2 – 7x – 1 = 0
b
By newton's theorem
Sn 2  7Sn 1  Sn  0
S21  7S20  S19  0
S20  7S19  S18  0
S19  7S18  S17  0
S21  S17 S21   S19  7S18 

S19 S19
50S19   S21  7S20 

S19
S 19
 51   51
S 19
29. In an examination, 5 students have been allotted their seats as per their roll numbers. The number of ways, in
which none of the students sits on the allotted seat, is ______.
Sol. (44)
Derangement of 5 students
 1 1 1 1 1
D5  5!1      
 1! 2! 3! 4! 5! 
1 1  1 
 120     
 2 6 24 120 
= 60 – 20 + 5 – 1
= 40+ 4
= 44
30. Let a line l pass through the origin and be perpendicular to the lines
l :r î – 11jˆ – 7kˆ î 2jˆ 3kˆ , and
1
l2 : r –iˆ kˆ 2iˆ 2jˆ kˆ , .

If P is the point of intersection of l and l1, and Q (, , ) is the foot of perpendicular from P on l2 , then
9 ( +  + ) is equal to _____:
Sol. (5)
Let   0iˆ  0jˆ  0kˆ     aiˆ  bjˆ  ckˆ 
   aiˆ  bjˆ  ckˆ 
î ˆj kˆ
aiˆ  bjˆ  ckˆ  1 2 3
2 2 1
 î  2  6   ˆj 1  6   kˆ  2  4 
 4iˆ  5 ˆj  2kˆ
   4iˆ  5jˆ  2kˆ 
P is intersection of and 1
4  1  ,5  11  2,  2  7  3
By solving these equation   1, P  4, 5, 2 
Let Q  1  2, 2,1   
PQ   2iˆ  2jˆ  kˆ   0
2  4  4  1    0
9  1


9
 7 2 10 
Q , , 
 9 9 9
 7 2 0 
9       9   
 9 9 9
=5
SECTION - A
31. The radii of two planets 'A' and 'B' are 'R' and '4R' and their densities are  and  /3 respectively. The ratio of
acceleration due to gravity at their surfaces (gA : gB) will be :
(1) 1 : 16 (2) 3 : 16 (3) 3 : 4 (4) 4 : 3
Sol. (3)
4
g= GR
3
g  R
g A A R A .R 3
  
g B  B .R B  4
.4R
3
32. A coin placed on a rotating table just slips when it is placed at a distance of 1 cm from the center. If the angular
velocity of the table in halved, it will just slip when placed at a distance of ______ from the centre :
(1) 8 cm (2) 4 cm (3) 2 cm (4) 1 cm
Sol. (2)
fr = m2r
mg = m2r = const.
2r = const
12 r1  22 r2
2

 (1)    r2
2
2
r2  4cm
33. Three vessels of equal volume contain gases at the same temperature and pressure. The first vessel contains
neon (monoatomic), the second contains chlorine (diatomic) and third contains uranium hexafluoride
(polyatomic). Arrange these on the basis of their root mean square speed (vrms) and choose the correct answer
from the options given below :
(1) Vrms (mono) > vrms (dia) > vrms (poly) (2) Vrms (dia) < vrms (poly) < vrms (mono)
(3) Vrms (mono) < vrms (dia) < vrms (poly) (4) Vrms (mono) = vrms (dia) = vrms (poly)
Sol. (1)
RT
VRMS = ....(1)
m
2
=1+ so rmonochromic > rdiatomic > rpoly.
f
Vmono > Vdiatomic > Vpoly. Ans.(1)
34. Two radioactive elements A and B initially have same number of atoms. The half life of A is same as the average
life of B. If  A and  B are decay constants of A and B respectively, then choose the correct relation from the
given options.
(1)  A  2 B (2)  A   B (3)  A ln 2   B (4)  A   B ln 2
Sol. (4)
A B T  half life
t = 0 N0 N0   ang life
TA = B  given in question
ln(2) l
Now =  A = B · ln(2)
A B
35.
As per the given graph, choose the correct representation for curve A and curve B.
{Where XC = reactance of pure capacitive circuit connected with A.C. source
XL = reactance of pure inductive circuit connected with A.C. source
R = impedance of pure resistive circuit connected with A.C. source.
Z = impedance of the LCR series circuit}
(1) A = XL, B = R (2) A = XL, B = Z (3) A = XC, B = R (4) A = XC, B = XL
Sol. (4)
XL = WL = 2fL
1 1
XC = =
Wc 2fc
R = const.
A XC
B XL
36. A transmitting antenna is kept on the surface of the earth. The minimum height of receiving antenna required
to receive the signal in line of sight at 4 km distance from it is x × 10-2 m. The value of x is ______.
(Let, radius of earth R = 6400 km)
(1) 125 (2) 12.5 (3) 1250 (4) 1.25
Sol. (1)
d = 2R·h
d2 = 2Rh
(4)2 = 2 × 6400 × h h d
16 1
=h= km
2  6400 800
1000 5
h= = m
800 4
5
x × 10–2 =
4
500
x= = 125 Ans. Option  (1)
4
37. The logic performed by the circuit shown in figure is equivalent to :
(1) NAND (2) NOR (3) AND (4) OR

Sol. (3)
Y = Y  (a  b)
Y = Y  (a·b)
Y=a·b
Ans. AND gate
Option  3
a
a
(a  b)
b
b
38. The electric field in an electromagnetic wave is given as
 x
E  20sin   t   j NC 1
 c
where  and c are angular frequency and velocity of electromagnetic wave respectively. the energy contained
in a volume of 5 × 10-4 m3 will be (Given  0  8.85  10 12 c 2 / Nm 2 )
(1) 88.5 × 10-13 J (2) 17.7 × 10-13 J (3) 8.85 × 10-13 J (4) 28.5 ×10-13 J
Sol. (3)
 x
E = 20 sin w  t  
 c
Eo 2o
1
Energy density =  o E o2
2
1
= × 8.85 × 10–12 × 400
2
= 200 × 8.85 × 10–12 × 5 × 10–4
= 8.85 × 10–12 × 10–4 × 1000
Energy = 8.85× 10–13 J option  (1)
39. Two identical heater filaments are connected first in parallel and then in series. At the same applied voltage, the
ratio of heat produced in same time for parallel to series will be :
(1) 1 : 2 (2) 4 : 1 (3) 1 : 4 (4) 2 : 1
Sol. (2)
V2 2V 2
H1 = t= ........... (1)
 R / 2 R
R R
V2
H2 = t ........... (2)
2R
V
H1  2V 2 t  2R 4
= × 2 =
H2  R  V t 1
 
40. A parallel plate capacitor of capacitance 2 F is charged to a potential V, The energy stored in the capacitor is
E1. The capacitor is now connected to another uncharged identical capacitor in parallel combination. The energy
stored in the combination is E2. The ratio E2/E1 is :
(1) 2 : 3 (2) 1 : 2 (3) 1 : 4 (4) 2 : 1
Sol. (4)
+ –
C = 2F C
1
E1 = CV2 ....... (1)
2
Now
VC
+ –
+ –
C
C 
+ –
VC
C1V1  C 2 V2
VC =
C1  C 2
CV  O V
VC = =
2C 2
V2
E2 = CVC 2 = C· ........ (2)
4
 CV 2 
 
 4  2
=  
E2
= option  (4)
E1  CV 2  1
 
 2 
 
41. An average force of 125 N is applied on a machine gun firing bullets each of mass 10 g at the speed of 250 m/s
to keep it in position. The number of bullets fired per second by the machine gun is :
(1) 25 (2) 5 (3) 100 (4) 50
Sol. (4)
F = 125N
dp
F= n  No. of bullets
dt
d(nmv) dn
F= = mv
dt dt
10n dn
125 = × 250 ×
1000 dt
125  1000 dn
=
2500 dt
dn
= 50 option (4)
dt
42. The variation of kinetic energy (KE) of a particle executing simple harmonic motion with the displacement (x)
starting from mean position to extreme position (A) is given by
(1) (2)
(3) (4)
Sol. (1)
K·E =T·E–P·E
1 1
K · E = KA2 – Kx2
2 2
Graph b/w K · E and x will be parabola
Option  (1)
43. From the v – t graph shown, the ratio of distance to displacement in 25 s of motion is :
3 1 5
(1) (2) (3) (4) 1
5 2 3
Sol. (3)
Displacement = Area of graph with sign
1  1  1  1
Displacement =   10  5  + (10×5) +   5  30  +   5  20  – (5)(20)
2  2  2  2
= 25 + 50 + 75 + 50 – 50
= 150 m
Distance  Area of graph with positive value
Distance = 25 + 50 + 75 + 50 = 250
Dis tan ce 250 5
= = option  (3)
Displacement 150 3
44. On a temperature scale 'X', the boiling point of water is 65o X and the freezing point is-15o X. Assume that the
X scale is linear. The equivalent temperature corresponding to -95o X on the Farenheit scale would be :
(1) -63o F (2) -148o F (3) -48o F (4) -112o F
Sol. (3)
XT – XL T – 32
= F
XH – XL 212 – 32
–95º –(–15º ) TF – 32
=
65º –(–15º ) 180
–80º TF – 32
=
80º 180º
–180 = TF – 32
TF = – 180 + 32 = –148º F Ans. option  (2)
45. The free space inside a current carrying toroid is filled with a material of susceptibility 2 × 10-2. The percentage
increase in the value of magnetic field inside the toroid will be
(1) 0.2% (2) 1% (3) 2% (4) 0.1%
Sol. (3)
X = 2 × 10–2
r = 1 + x = 1 + 0.02 = 1.02
Bo magnetic field due to magnetic material
Bm magnetic field due to magnetic material
Bm = rB0
B – B0  B – B0
B = m × 100 = r 0 × 100
B0 B0
(X  1) – 1
B% = × 100 = X × 100
1
B% = 2×10–2 × 100 = 2% Ans. Option (3)
46. The critical angle for a denser-rarer interface is 45o. The speed of light in rarer medium is 3 × 108 m/s. The
speed of light in the denser medium is :
(1) 2.12 × 108 m/s (2) 5 × 107 m/s (3) 3.12 × 107 m/s (4) 2  108 m / s
Sol. (1)
 
Sin ic = r  sin 45º = r
d d

 r = 2 ...........(1)
d
We know
1 V 
V  d  r
 Vr  d
Vd 1
= 
3  10 8
2
3
Vd =  108 = 3 × 0.7 × 108
2
Vd = 2.12 × 108 m/sec Ans. Option (1)

Statements I : Astronomical unit (Au), Parsec (Pc) and Light year (ly) are units for measuring astronomical
distances.
Statements II : Au < Parsec (Pc) < ly
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below :
(1) Both Statements I and Statements II are incorrect.
(2) Both Statements I and Statements II are correct.
(3) Statements I is incorrect but Statements II are correct.
(4) Statements I is correct but Statements II are incorrect.
Sol. (4)
A.V., Par sec and light year are the unit of distance
Light year  distance travelled by light in one year
1 ly = 9.5 × 1015 m
parcec = 3.262 light year
A.V. = 1.58 × 10–5 light year
A.V. < 1y < Parsec.
Statement I correct and statement II incorrect.
48. The current sensitivity of moving coil galvanometer is increased by 25%.This increase is achieved only by
changing in the number of turns of coils and area of cross section of the wire while keeping the resistance of
galvanometer coil constant. The percentage change in the voltage sensitivity will be :
(1) +25% (2) -25% (3) -50% (4) Zero
Sol. (1)
 = mB A = area of coil
K = IANB B = magnetic field
 ANB
= Currect senstivity
I K
 
1.25      ........... (1)
 I  2  I 1
 AN 2 B   AN1B 
1.25  =  
 K   K 
N 5
1.25 = 1 = ...... (2)
N2 4

R= = const.
a
=a
  Current sensitivity
Voltage sensitivity = = =
V IR R
R = constant
Voltage sensitivity  current sensitivity Ans. option (A)
49. A metallic surface is illuminated with radiation of wavelength  , the stopping potential is Vo. If the same
V
surface is illuminated with radiation of wavelength 2  , the stopping potential becomes 0 . The threshold
4
wavelength for this metallic surface will be
3 
(1)  (2) 4  (3) 3  (4)
2 4
Sol. (3)
E = K.E + 0
Now
hc
= ev0 + 0 ....... (1)

hc eV0
And = + 0 ........ (2)
2 4
(2) × 4 .......... (1)
2hc hc
– = 0 + (4 0 – 0)
 
hc
= 30

hc hc
=3
 0
0 = 3  
50. 1 kg of water at 100oC is converted into steam at 100oC by boiling at atmospheric pressure. The volume of water
changes from 1.00 × 10-3 m3 as a liquid to 1.671 m3 as steam. The change in internal energy of the system during
the process will be
(Given latent heat of vaporisation = 2257 kJ/kg, Atmospheric pressure = 1 × 105 Pa)
(1) + 2476 kJ (2) -2426 kJ (3) -2090 kJ (4) +2090 kJ
V1 V2
Sol. (4)
Water  Steam
1kg 100°C
100°C
Change in volume at constant pressure and temp 
V = V2 – V1 = 1.671 – 0.001
V = 1.67 m3 ...... (1)
Q = U + w
mLv = U + (1.013 × 105) (1.67)
U = (2257 – 170)103
U = 2090 kJ (approx.) Ans. Option  4
51. The radius of curvature of each surface of a convex lens having refractive index 1.8 is 20 cm. The lens is now
immersed in a liquid of refractive index 1.5. The ratio of power of lens in air to its power in the liquid will be
x : 1. The value of x is _________
Sol. (4)
R = 20cm
1  1 1 
=  1   
f  m   R R  air  = 1.8
2  1.8  1.8
P1 =   1
R  1 
2 1.6
P1 = (0.8) = .... (1)
R R
Now,
2 1.8 
P2 =   1
R 1.5 
2  0.3  2 1 2
P2 =   =  = Liquid Liquid
R  1.5  R 5 5R
 1.6 
Pair P1  R  4
= = = Ans.  4
Pliquid P2  0.4  1
 
 R 
52. The magnetic field B crossing normally a square metallic plate of area 4 m2 is changing with time as shown in
figure. The magnitude of induced emf in the plate during t = 2s to t = 4s, is __________ mV.
Sol. (8)
d
emf =
dt
dBA AdB
Emf = =
dt dt
Emf = 4 · Slope of B.t curve
8 – 4 
=4·  =4×2
4 – 2
Emf = 8 Volt
53. The length of a wire becomes l1 and l2 when 100 N and 120 N tensions are applied respectively. If 10 l2 = 11 l1,
1
the natural length of wire will be l1 . Here the value of x is _______ .
x
Sol. (2)
F = kx
yA 0 = natural length
F= ·x .
0
Sol when F = 100 N
100 = k(1 – 0) ..... (1)
When F = 120N
120 = K ((1 – 0)
Given that 102 = 111
2 = 1.1 1
So 120 = K(1.11 – 0) .... (2)
Now (2)\(1)
120 K(1.1 1 – 0 )
=
100 K( 1  0 )
1.1 1 – 0
1.2 =
1 0
1.21 – 1.20 = 1.11 – 0
0.11 = 0.20
0 = 1
So x = 2 Ans.
2
54. A monochromatic light is incident on a hydrogen sample in ground state. Hydrogen atoms absorb a fraction of
light and subsequently emit radiation of six different wavelengths. The frequency of incident light is x × 10 15
Hz. The value of x is _______.
(Given h = 4.25 × 10–15 eVs)
Sol. (3)
n=4
n=3
n=2
n=1
Total emission lines = 6 (given)
So electron absorbed energy and jump from n = 1 to n = 4
 1 
E 13.6  –  ev
 2
42 
 1
= 13.6 1–  ev
 16 
E = hf
12.75 = 4.5 × 10–15,
12.75
f= × 1015 = 3×1015 Hz
4.25
x = 3 Ans.
55. A force F  (2  3x)iˆ acts on a particle in the x direction where F is in newton and x is in meter. The work done
by this force during a displacement from x = 0 to x = 4 m, is ______ J.
Sol. (32)
F = (2 + 3x)i
4 4
w= 0 F.dx = 0 (2  3x).dx
4
 3x 2 
w =  2x   = (8 + 24)
 2 
w = 32J
56. As shown in the figure, a configuration of two equal point charges (q0 = + 2  C) is placed on an inclined plane.
Mass of each point charge is 20 g. Assume that there is no friction between charge and plane. For the system of
two point charges to be in equilibrium (at rest) the height h = x × 10-3 m. The value of x is _________.
1
(Take  9  109 N m 2 C 2 ,g  10ms 2 )
4 0
Sol. (300)
Point charge on equilibrium is at rest.
So Fe = mg sin 
kq 0 ·q 0
= mg sin 30°
r2
kq 02 mg
2
=
 h  2
  q0
•
Fe
 sin 30 
9  109  (2  10 –6 ) 2 20  10 –3  10 mg Mg sin 
=
4h 2 2 r
9  4  109  10 –12 h
= 10–1
•q
4h 2 30° 0
2 –2
h = 9×10
h = 0.3 m = 300 × 10–3 m
x = 300 Ans.
57. A solid sphere of mass 500 g and radius 5 cm is rotated about one of its diameter with angular speed of 10 rad
s-1. If the moment of inertia of the sphere about its tangent is x × 10 -2 times its angular momentum about the
diameter. Then the value of x will be ____________ .
Sol. (35)
2
I1 = mR2
5
2 7
I2 = mR2 + mR2 = mR2
5 5
Angular moment about diameter is
2
Lcom = I1w = mR2w
5
Now,
7
mR 2
I2 7
 5 = w
L com 2 mR 2 w 2
5
I2 7 7
 
L com 2  10 20
7
Now = x × 10–2
20
7
x= × 100
20
x = 35 Ans.
58. The equation of wave is given by Y = 10-2 sin 2  (160t – 0.5x +  /4)
where x and Y are in m and t in s. The speed of the wave is _________ km h-1.
Sol. (1152)
Y = 10–2 sin 2 (160t – 0.5x + /4)
w 160 18
Speed of wave = = = 320 m/sec = 320 × = 1152 km/h Ans.
k 0.5 5
x
59. In the circuit diagram shown in figure given below, the current flowing through resistance 3  is A.
3
The value of x is _________
Sol. (1)
 3.6 
Req. = 0.5 + 1 + 4.5 +  
 9 
Req. = 6 + 2 = 8
4v 8v 1
84 1 I
I= = A = 0.5A
8 2
1 1 0.5
I1 : I2 = :
3 6 3
I1 : I2 = 2 : 1 I1
and I1 + I2 = 0.5 A
2 1
I1 = × 0.5 = A 4.5
3 3 I2 6
1 x
So =  x=1
3 3
60. A projectile fired at 30o to the ground is observed to be at same height at time 3s and 5s after projection, during
its flight. The speed of projection of the projectile is ________ ms-1.
(Given g = 10 ms–2)
Sol. (80)
Time of flight = 5 + 3 = 8 sec.
t=3
t = 5 sec
30º
t=0
2u sin 
Now, T=
g
2u·sin 30
8=
10
 u = 80 m/sec Ans.
SECTION - A
61. Which of the following complex has a possibility to exist as meridional isomer?
(1) [Co(en)2Cl2] (2) [Pt(NH3)2Cl2]
(3) [Co(en)3] (4) [Co(NH3)3(NO2)3]
Sol. 4
[MA3B3] type of compound exists as facial and meridional isomer.
62. L-isomer of tetrose X (C4H8O4) gives positive schiff’s test and has two chiral carbons. On acetylation. ‘X’ yields
triacetate. ‘X’ undergoes following reactions
'A' 
HNO3
 'X ' 
NaBH 4
 'B'
Chiralcompound
‘X’ is
(1) (2)
(3) (4)
Sol. 4
L-tetrose with two chiral centre
Optically active
(x) gives positive schiff's test due –CHO group
(x) is L-tetrose.
63. Match list I with list II:
List I List II
A. K I. Thermonuclear ractions
B. KCl II. Fertilizer
C. KOH III. Sodium potassium pump
D. Li IV. Absorbent of CO2
(1) A-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I (2) A-IV, B-III, C-I, D-II
(3) A-III, B-II, C-IV, D-I (4) A-IV, B-I, C-III, D-II
Sol. 3
K+ –Sodium- Potassium Pump
KCl – Fertiliser
KOH – absorber of CO2
Li – used in thermonuclear reactions
64. For compound having the formula GaAlCl4, the correct option form the following is
(1) Cl forms bond with both Al and Ga in GaAlCl4
(2) Ga is coordinated with Cl in GaAlCl4
(3) Ga is more electronegative than Al and is present as a cationic part of the salt
(4) Oxidation state of Ga in the salt GaAlCl4 is +3
Sol. 3
Gallous tetrachloro aluminate Ga  AlCl4–
190
2Ga  Ga  Cl4–  2Al2Cl6   4Ga  AlCl4–
Structure of Ga  AlCl4–
Ga is cationic part of salt GaAlCl4.
65. Thin layer chromatography of a mixture shows the following observation :
The correct order of elution in the silica gel column chromatography is

(1) B, A, C (2) C, A, B (3) A, C, B (4) B, C, A
Sol. 3
According to the observation, A is more mobile and interacts with the mobile phase more than C, and C is more
drawn to the mobile phase than B.
Hence, the correct order of elution in the silica gel column chromatography is - B < C <A
66. When a solution of mixture having two inorganic salts was treated with freshly prepared ferrous sulphate in
acidic medium, a dark brown ring was formed whereas on treatment with neutral FeCl3. it gave deep red colour
which disappeared on boiling and a brown red ppt was formed. The mixture contains
2– – 2– 2–
(1) C2O4 & NO3 (2) SO3 & C2O4
– – 2– –
(3) CH3COO & NO3 (4) SO3 & CH3COO
Sol. 3
CH3COO– + FeCl3 Fe(CH3COO)3 or [Fe3 (OH)2 (CH3COO)6]+
Blood red colour

Fe(OH)2 (CH3COO) 
Red-brown precipitate
2NO3– + 4H2SO4 + 6Fe2+  6Fe3+ + 2NO  + 4SO42– + 4H2O
[Fe(H2O)6]2+ + NO  [Fe(H2O)5 (NO)]2+ + H2O
Brown
67. The polymer X-consists of linear molecules and is closely packed. It prepared in the presence of
triethylaluminium and titranium tetrachloride under low pressure. The polymer X is-
(1) Polyacrylonitrile (2) Polytetrafluoroethane
(3) High density polythene (4) Low density polythene
Sol. 3
Ethene undergoes addition polymerisation to high density polythene in the presence of catalyst such as AlEt 3
and TiCl4 (Ziegler – Natta catalyst) at a temperature of 333 K to 343 K and under a pressure of 6–7 atmosphere.
68. Match list I with list II
List I Species List II Geometry/ Shape
+
A. H3O I. Tetrahedral
B. Acetylide anion II. Linera
+
C. NH4 III. Pyramidal
–
D. ClO2 IV. Bent
Choose correct answer from the options given below:
(1) A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II (2) A-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I
(3) A-III, B-I, C-II, D-IV (4) A-III, B-II, C-I, D-IV
Sol. 4
Molecule/Ion Hybridisation Shape
69. Given below are two statement :
Statement I : Methane and steam passed over a heated Ni catalyst produces hydrogen gas
Statement II : Sodium nitrite reacts with NH4Cl to give H2O, N2 and NaCl
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:
(1) Both the statement I and II are incorrect
(2) Statement I is incorrect but statement II is correct
(3) Statement I is correct but statement II is incorrect
(4) Both the statements I and II are correct
Sol. 4
CH4 (g)  H2 O(g)  Ni
1270K
 CO(g)  3H2 (g)
Steam
NaNO2(aq) + NH4Cl(aq) N2(g) + NaCl(aq) + 2H2O()
70. The set which does not have ambidentate ligand (s) is
2– – – 4– – 2–
(1) C2O4 , NO2 , NCS (2) EDTA , NCS , C2O4
– 2– 4– 2–
(3) NO2 , C2O4 , EDTA (4) C2O4 , ethylene diamine, H2O
Sol. 4
NO2– NCS– are ambidentate ligand
EDTA Ethylene diamine tetra acetate
71. Arrange the following compounds in increasing order of rate of aromatic electrophilic substitution reaction
(1) c, a, b, d (2) d, b, c, a (3) d, b, a, c (4) b, c, a, d

Sol. 1
Benzene becomes more reactive towards EAS when any substituent raises the electron density.
(+m) (+m) (–m) (+m)
(+H) (+m)
(+H) (+H) (+H) (+H)
Correct order
c<a<b<d
72.
Find out the correct statement from the options given below for the above 2 reactions.
st nd
(1) Reaction (I) is of 1 order and reaction (II) is of 2 order
nd
(2) Reaction (I) and (II) both are 2 order
st
(3) Reaction (I) and (II) both are 1 order
nd st
(4) Reaction (I) is of 2 order and reaction (II) is of 1 order
Sol. 1
Electron Donating group

SN1 Mech. : Ist order
Electron withdrawing group

SN2 Mech: 2nd order
73. o-Phenylenediamine 

HNO2
 ’X’ Major Product ‘X’ is
(1) (2)
(3) (4)
Sol. 3
o-Phenylenediamine
74. For elements B, C, N, Li, Be, O and F, the correct order of first ionization enthalpy is
(1) B>Li>Be>C>N>O>F (2) Li<Be<B<C<N<O<F
(3) Li<Be<B<C<O<N<F (4) Li<B<Be<C<O<N<F
Sol. 4
First I.E.
F > N > O > C > Be > B > Li
Li – 520 kJ/mol
Be – 899 kJ/mol
B – 801 kJ/mol
C – 1086 kJ/mol
N – 1402 kJ/mol
O – 1314 kJ/mol
F – 1681 kJ/mol
75. In the extraction process of copper, the product obtained after carrying out the reactions
(i) 2Cu2S+3O2  2Cu2O+2SO2
(ii) 2Cu2O+Cu2S  6Cu+SO2 is called
(1) Reduced copper (2) Blister copper
(3) Copper matte (4) Copper scrap
Sol. 2
2Cu2S + 3O2  2Cu2O + 3SO2
2Cu2O + Cu2S  6Cu + SO2
Blister copper
Due to evolution of SO2, the solidified copper formed has a blistered look and is referred to as blister copper.
76. 25 mL of silver nitrate solution (1M) is added dropwise to 25 mL of potassium iodide (1.05 M) solution. The
ion(s) present in very small quantity in the solution is/are
– + – + –
(1) NO3 only (2) Ag and I both (3) K only (4) I only
Sol. 2
On adding AgNO3 into KI, AgI will form and solubility of AgI is very low.
+ –
So, [Ag ] and [I ] will be present in very small quantity.

Statement I : If BOD is 4 ppm and dissolved oxygen is 8 ppm, it is a good quality water.
Statement II : If the concentration of zinc and nitrate salts are 5 ppm each, than it can be good quality water.
In the light of the above statements choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:
(3) Both the statements I and II are incorrect
(4) Both the statement I and II are correct
Sol. 4
Clean water would have BOD value of less than 5 ppm.
Maximum limit of Zn in clean water = 5.0 ppm or mg dm–3
Maximum limit of NO3– in clean water = 50 ppm or mg dm–3
78.
‘A’ and ‘B’ in the above reactions are :
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
Sol. 3
79. Given below are two statements : one is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R:
Assertion A : In the photoelectric effect electrons are ejected from the metal surface as soon as the beam of light
of frequency greater than threshold frequency strikes the surface.
Reason R : When the photon of any energy strikes an electron in the atom transfer of energy from the photon to
the electron takes place.
(3) Both A and R correct and R is the correct explanation of A
Sol. 1
Assertion A is correct but Reason is not correct.
80. The complex that dissolves in water is

(1) [Fe3(OH)2(OAc)6]Cl (2) Fe4[Fe(CN)6]3
(3) K3[Co(NO2)6] (4) (NH4)3[As(Mo3O10)4]
Sol. 1
Fe4[Fe(CN)6]3 Prussian Blue-water insoluble
K3[Co(NO2)6] very poorly water soluble
(NH4)3 [As(MO3O10)4] water insoluble
ammonium arseno molybdate
[Fe3 (OH)2(OAc)6] Cl is water soluble.
SECTION - B
81. Solid fuel used in rocket is a mixture of Fe2O3 and Al (in ratio 1 : 2) the heat evolved (KJ) per gram of the
mixture is _______ (Nearest integer)
–1
Givne Hf (Al2O3) = –1700 KJ mol
–1
Hf (Fe2O3) = –840 KJ mol
Sol. 4
Fe2O3 + 2Al  Al2O3 + 2Fe
Hr = (Hf) Al2O3 – Hf°(Fe2O3)
= –1700 – (–840)
= –860 kJ
Fe2O3 & Al  1 : 2
Fe2O3 = 1 mole = (2 × 25 + 48)
= 112 + 48 = 160 gm
Al = 2 mole = 2 × 27 = 54 gm
Total mass = 160 + 54 = 214 gm
–860
Heat evolved per gm = kJ = –4.01  4 kJ
214
82. KClO3 + 6FeSO4 + 3H2SO4 KCl + 3Fe2(SO4)3 + 3H2O

The above reaction was studied at 300 K by monitoring the concentration of FeSO4 in which initial concentration
–6 –1 –1
was 10 M and after half an hour became 8.8 M. The rate of production of Fe2(SO4)3 is______ ×10 mol L s
Sol. 333
–  FeSO4 10 – 8.8 1.2
 
t 30  60 1800
From given equation :
1  FeSO4 1
–  × (Rate of production of Fe2(SO4)3)
6 t 3
3 1.2
Rate of production of Fe2(SO4)3 = 
6 1800
1
=  10 –3
3
1000
=  10–6
3
–6
= 333.33 × 10
83. 0.004 M K2SO4 solution is isotonic with 0.01 M glucose solution. Percentage dissociation of K2SO4 is________
(Nearest integer)
Sol. 75
For isotonic solution
(ic)glucose  (ic) K 2 SO4
0.01 = i (0.004)
0.01 10 5
i  
0.004 4 2
5
1 + (n – 1)  =
2
5
1 + (3 – 1)  = ( n = 3 for K2SO4)
2
3
2 
2
3
   75%
4
84.
The number of hyperconjugation structures involved to stabilize carbocation formed in the above reaction
is______
Sol. 7
85. A mixture of 1 mole of H2O and 1 mole of CO is taken in a 10 litre container and heated to 725 K. At equilibrium
40% of water by mass reacts with carbon monoxide according to the equation : CO(g)+H 2O(g)
2
CO2(g)+H2(g). The equilibrium constant Kc×10 for the reaction is_________ (Nearest integer)
Sol. 44
CO(g) + H2O(g) CO2(g) + H2(g)
1mole 1mole
At equilibrium 1–0.4 1–0.4 0.4 0.4
0.4  0.4 4
Kc  
0.6  0.6 9
4 400
K c  102   100   44.44  44
9 9
–1
86. An atomic substance A of molar mass 12 g mol has a cubic crystal structure with edge length of 300 pm. The
no. of atoms present in one unit cell of A is ________ (Nearest integer)
–1 23 –1
Given the density of A is 3.0 g mL and NA = 6.02×10 mol
Sol. 4
Z
M
NA
d
a3
Z 12
3 
6.02 10 23
(300 10–10 )3
3  6.02  27  106  10 –30  1023
Z
12
–1
= 40.635 × 10 = 4.0635  4
87.
The ratio x/y on completion of the above reaction is_______

Sol. 2
 x = 2 mole
x 2
 2
y 1
The ratio of spin-only magnetic moment values eff[Cr(CN)6] /eff[Cr(H2O)6] is_____

3– 3+
88.
Sol. 1
Spin magnetic moment of [Cr(CN)6 ]3– (t 32g e0g )
1  3(3  2)  15BM
Spin magnetic moment of [Cr(H2O)6 ]3 (t 32g e0g )
2  3(3  2)  15BM
1 51
 1
2 51
89. In an electrochemical reaction of lead, at standard temperature, if
EoPb2 /Pb  m volt and EoPb4 /Pb  n volt, then the value of EoPb2 /Pb4 is given by m – xn. The value of x is
     
_______ (Nearest integer)
Sol. 2
Pb2+ + 2e–  Pb E° = m G1o  –2Fm
Pb4+ + 4e–  Pb E° = n G o2  –4Fn
Pb2+  Pb4+ + 2e– G 3o  G1o – G o2
–2FE° = –2Fm + 4Fn
E  m – 2n
x2
90. A solution of sugar is obtained by mixing 200g of its 25% solution and 500g of its 40% solution (both by mass).
The mass percentage of the resulting sugar solution is_______(Nearest integer)
Sol. 36
25
Solution (I)  Mass of sugar = 200 × = 50 gm
100
Mass of solution = 200 gm
Solution (II)  Mass of solution = 500 gm
40
Mass of sugar =  500 = 200 gm
100
Total mass of sugar
Final % w/w =  100
Total mass of solution
50  200 250
=  100 
200  500 7
= 35.71%  36
SECTION - A
1. The angle of elevation of the top P of a tower from the feet of one person standing due South of the tower is 45°
and from the feet of another person standing due west of the tower is 30°. If the height of the tower is 5 meters,
then the distance ( in meters) between the two persons is equal to
5
(1) 10 (2) 5 5 (3) 5 (4) 5
2
Sol. (1)
B
5m
A
30
Q 45°
P
Tower AB = 5 m
APB = 45°
PAB = 90°
B
45°
A
P
AB
tan 45° =
AP
AB
1=
AP
AP  5m
B
30°
A
Q
AB
tan 30° =
AQ
1 5

1 3 AQ
AQ  5 3
AP2 + AQ2 = PQ2
 
2
PQ2 = 52 + 5 3
PQ2 = 25 + 75 = 100
PQ  10cm
Option (A) 10 cm correct.
2. Let a, b, c and d be positive real numbers such that a + b + c + d = 11. If the maximum value of a 5 b3c2 d is
3750, then the value of  is
(1) 55 (2) 108 (3) 90 (4) 110
Sol. (3)
Given a + b + c + d = 11 (a, b, c, d > 0}
5 3 2
(a b c d)max. = ?
Let assume Numbers –
a a a a a b b b c c
, , , , , , , , , ,
5 5 5 5 5 3 3 3 2 2
We know A.M.  G.M.
a a a a a b b b c c
          d  5 3 2 11
1
5 5 5 5 5 3 3 3 2 2 a b c d
 5 3 2 
11  5 .3 .2 .1 
1
11  a 5 b3c 2 d 11
 
11  55.33.22.1 
a5.b3.c2.d55.33.22,
max(a5b3c2d) = 55.33.22 = 337500
= 90  3750 =  3750
  90
Option (C) 90 correct
 
2 4
3. If f : R  R be a continuous function satisfying f  sin 2x  sin xdx   f  cos 2x  cos xdx  0 , then the value
 
0 0
of  is
(1) – 3 (2) 3 (3) – 2 (4) 2
Sol. (3)
F:RR
 
2 4
  F  sin 2x  sindx    F  cos 2x  .cos xdx  0
0 0
  
4 2 4
  F  sin 2x  sin xdx   F  sin 2x  .sin xdx    F  cos 2x .cos xdx  0
0  0
4
a a
 F(x)dx   F(a  x)dx

0 0

Let x = t 
4
  
   
4 4 4
 F  cos 2 x  sin  4  x  dx   F  cos 2t  sin  t  4    F  cos 2x  cos xdx  0

0 0 0

4
    
 F  cos 2 x  sin  4  x   sin  x  4    cos x  0
0

 F  cos 2 x   
4
2   cos x dx  0
0

   F  cos 2x  cos x dx  0
4
2 
0
 
in interval  0,   F  cos 2x  & cos x is NOT Zero.
 4
 2 0
 2
 x  1, x  0  x  1, x  0
4. Let f and g be two functions defined by f  x    and g  x   
 x  1, x  0  1, x0
Then (gof ) (x) is
(1) continuous everywhere but not differentiable at x = 1
(2) continuous everywhere but not differentiable exactly at one point
(3) differentiable everywhere
(4) not continuous at x = –1
Sol. (2)
 x  1, x  0

f  x   1  x,0  x  1
 x  1,1  x

 x  1, x  0
gx  
1, x  0
 x  2, x  1
g f  x   
1, x  1
g(f (x)) is continuous everywhere
g(f (x)) is not differentiable at x = – 1
Differentiable everywhere else
5. If the radius of the largest circle with centre (2, 0) inscribed in the ellipse x 2 + 4y2 = 36 is r, then 12r2 is equal
to
(1) 69 (2) 72 (3) 115 (4) 92
Sol. (4)
C(2,0)
Ellipse x2 + 4y2 = 36
x 2 y2
 1
36 9
Equation of Normal at P(6cos, 3sin) is (6sec)x – (3cosec)y = 27
It passes through (2,0)
27 9
 sec = 
12 4
4 65
cos , sin =
9 9
 8 65 
P  , 
3 3 

 8 65 
P ,  c  2,0 
3 3 
2
  65 
2
8 69
    2     
3   3  3
2
 69 
Value of 12  
2
  12
 3 
12  69
  92
9
6. Let the mean of 6 observations 1, 2, 4, 5 x and y 5 and their variance be 10. Then their mean deviation about
the mean is equal to
7 10 8
(1) (2) (3) (4) 3
3 3 3
Sol. (3)
Mean of 1, 2, 4, 5, x, y is 5
and variance is 10
12  x  y
 mean 5
6
12 + x + y = 30
x + y = 18
x 2  y 2  46 2
and by variance  5  10
6
x2 + y2 = 164
x = 8 y = 10
xx
mean daviation =
6
4  3  1  0  3  5 16 8
  
6 6 3
7. Let A = {1, 3, 4, 6, 9} and B = {2, 4, 5, 8, 10}. Let R be a relation defined on A×B such that R ={((a1, b1), (a2,b2
)): a1  b2 and b1  a 2 }. Then the number of elements in the set R is
(1) 52 (2) 160 (3) 26 (4) 180
Sol. (2)
Let a1 =1 5 choices of b2
a1= 3 4 choices of b2
a1 = 4 4 choices of b2
a1= 6 2 choices of b2
a1 = 9 1 choices of b2
For (a1, b2) 16 ways .
Similarly, b1 = 2  4 choices of a2
b1 = 4 3 choices of a2
Required elements in R = 160
8. Let P be the plane passing through the points (5, 3, 0), (13, 3, –2) and (1, 6, 2). For N, if the distances of the
points A(3, 4, ) and B(2, , a) from the plane P are 2 and 3 respectively, then the positive value of a is
(1) 5 (2) 6 (3) 4 (4) 3
Sol. (3)
i j kˆ
8 0 2  i  6   8j  24kˆ
4 3 2
Normal of the plane  3i  4 j  12kˆ

Plane : 3x – 4y + 12z = 3
Distance from A(3,4, )
9  16  12  3
2
13
=3
 = –8 (rejected)
Distance from B(2,3,a)
6  12  12a  3
3
13
a=4
9. If the letters of the word MATHS are permuted and all possible words so formed are arranged as in a dictionary
with serial number, then the serial number of the word THAMS is
(1) 102 (2) 103 (3) 101 (4) 104
Sol. (2)
5 2 1 3 4
T H A M S
4 1 0 0 0
4! 3! 2! 1! 0!
 4  4! + 3!  1 + 0 + 0 + 0
 96 + 6 = 102
Ran k THAMS = 102 + 1 = 103
10. If four distinct points with position vectors a, b,c and d are coplanar, then abc  is equal to
(1) d c a   b d a   c d b  (2) d b a   a c d   d b c 
(3) a d b   d c a   d b c  (4)  b c d   d a c   d b a 
Sol. (1)
a, b,c,d  coplanar
a b c   ?
 
b  a,c  b,d  c  coplanar
 b  a c  b, d  c   0
 
  
 ba . cb  d c 0   
 b  a  . c  b  c  a  a  d   0
 bcd    bca    ba d   a cd   0
 a b c   d c a    b d a   c d b 
       
11. The sum of the coefficients of three consecutive terms in the binomial expansion of (1 + x) n+2, which are in the
ratio 1 : 3 : 5, is equal to
(1) 63 (2) 92 (3) 25 (4) 41
Sol. (1)
n+2
cr–1 : n+2cr : n+2cr+1 :: 1 : 3 : 5
 n  2 ! 
r! n  2  r ! 1

 r  1! n  r  3!  n  2 ! 3
r 1
  n  r  3  3r
 n – r  3 3
n  4r  3  0
 n  1!  r  1! n  r  1!  3

r! n  2  r !  n  2 ! 5
r 1 3

n2r 5
8r–1= 3n ……..(2)
By equation 1 and 2
8r  1
 4r  3 n  4r  3
3
r2 n  4 2  3
n 5
Sum : C1  C2  C3  7  21  35  63
7 7 7
 
2
dy 5 x5  1
12. Let y = y (x) be the solution of the differential equation  y , x > 0. If y(1) = 2, then
dx x x 5  1  
x7
y(2) is equal to
693 637 697 679
(1) (2) (3) (4)
128 128 128 128
Sol. (1)
5dx 5 x 6dx
 x  x5 1 
 x5 1
I.F =  e e e
Put, 1 + x = t  –5x–6 dx = dt
–5
 dt
 e
1 x5
1
 
t 1  x5
x5 x5 1  x 
5 2
y
1 x 5
  
1  x  x 7
5
dx
  x3dx   x 2dx
x5 x4 1
y   c
1  x5 4 x
Given than: x = 1  y = 2
1 1
2  1  c
2 4

c
4
x5 x4 1 7
y   
1  x5 4 x 4
Now put, x = 2
 32  21
y   
 33  4
693
y
128
13. The converse of  ~ p  q   r is

(1)  pv  ~ q     ~ r  (2)   ~ p  vq   r (3)  ~ r    ~ p  q  (4)  ~ r   p  q
Sol. (1)
 P  2  r
Converse ….
~  ~ P  q    ~ r 
 P   ~ q    ~ r 
2022
 4x 5 
14. If the 1011th term from the end in the binominal expansion of    is 1024 times 1011th term from
 5 2x 
the beginning, the |x| is equal to
(1) 8 (2) 12 (3) 10 (4) 15
Sol. (3)– Bouns
T1011 from beginning = T1010+1
012
 5 
1010
 4x 
 2022
C1010    
 5   2x 
T1011 from end
 5 
1012 1010
 4x 
 2022
C1010    
 2x   5 
 5 
1012 1010
 4x 
Given:  2022
C1010    
 2x   5 
 5 
1010 1012
 4x 
 210  2022 C1010    
 2x   5 
 5 
2 2
10  4x 
  2  
 2x   5 
54
x4 
216
5
x 
16
15. If the system of linear equations
7x + 11y + z = 13
5x + 4y + 7z = 
175x + 194y + 57z = 361
has infinitely many solutions, then  +  + 2 is equal to :
(1) 3 (2) 6 (3) 5 (4) 4
Sol. (4)
7x + 11y + z = 13
5x + 4y + 7z = 
175x + 194y + 57z = 361
4sc condition of Infinite Many solution
  0 & x, y, z  0 check.
After solving we get   13  2  4
16. Let the line passing through the point P (2, –1, 2) and Q (5, 3, 4) meet the plane x – y +z = 4 at the point T. Then
x 7 y3 z2
the distance of the point R from the plane x + 2y + 3z +2 = 0 measured parallel to the line  
2 2 1
is equal to
(1) 3 (2) 61 (3) 31 (4) 189
Sol. (1)
x 5 y3 z4
Line :   
3 4 2
R(3 + 5,4 + 3,2 + 4)
3 + 5 – 4 – 3+ 2 + 4 = 4
+6=4  = –2
R  (–1,–5,0)
x 1 y  5 z  0
Line :   
2 2 1
Point T = (2μ -1,2μ - 5,μ )
It lies on plane
2μ –1+ 2(2μ – 5) + 3μ + 2 = 0
μ =1
T = (1,–3,1)
RT = 3
17. Let the function f : [0, 2]  R be defined as

eminx 2 ,x [x] , x [0,1)

f (x)  
 e x loge x  ,
 x [1, 2)
2
where [t] denotes the greatest integer less than or equal to t. Then the value of the integral  xf  x  dx is
0
 e  1  e2 
1 3e 1
(1)  (2) 1  (3) 2e – (4) 2e –1
 2 2 2
Sol. (3)
F[0,2]  R
 min x 2 ,x ; x  0,1
F x   
 x  log e x   1; x  1, 2 
ex : x  0,1
2
F x   
 e x  1,2 
2 1
 xf (x)dx   x.e  x.e dx

2
x2
dx 
0 0 1
 
=  e  1   4  1 e
2 2
1
 2e 
2
18. For a  C, let A = z  C: Re  a  z   Im  a  z  and B = z  C: Re  a  z   Im  a  z  . The among the

two statements:
(S1) : If Re (a), Im (a) >0, then the set A contains all the real numbers
(S2) : If Re (a), Im (a) < 0, then the set B contains all the real numbers,
(1) only (S1) is true (2) both are false (3) only (S2) is true (4) both are true
Sol. (2)
Let a = x1 + iy1 z = x + iy
Now Re(a + z ) > Im( a + z)
x1 + x > –y1 + y
x1 = 2, y1 = 10, x = –12, y = 0
Given inequality is not valid for these values.
S1 is false.
Now Re(a + z ) < Im( a + z)
x1 + x < –y1 + y
x1 = –2, y1 = –10, x = 12, y = 0
Given inequality is not valid for these values.
S2 is false.
x 1 x x
9 
19. If x x x = 103x  81 , then , are the roots of the equation
8 3
x x x  2
(1) 4x2 –24x –27 = 0 (2) 4x2 +24x +27 = 0 (3) 4x2 –24x +27 = 0 (4) 4x2 +24x –27 = 0
Sol. (3)
x 1 x x
9
x xd x  103x  81
8
x x x  d2
Put x  0
1 0 0
9
0  0   81
8
0 0 2
93
3 
8
9

2
 9 3
 
3 23 2
 3

3 2
Option (C) 4x2  24x  27  0
3 9
has Root ,
2 2
1
20. The domain of the function f(x) = is (where [x] denotes the greatest integer less than or equal
[x] – 3[x] –10
2
to x )
(1)  – , –3 6,   (2)  – , –2   5,   (3)  – , –3  5,   (4)  – , –2  6,  
Sol. (4)
1
F x  
x  3 x   10
2
x  3x 10  0

2
x  2 x  5  0
+ – +
–2 5
 x   2 or  x   5
 x   3 or  x   6
x  2 or x  6
x   , 2    6,  
SECTION - B
21. If A is the area in the first quadrant enclosed by the curve C : 2x2 – y + 1 = 0, the tangent to C at the point (1,3)
and the line x + y = 1, then the value of 60 A is ______.
Sol. 16
y = 2x2 + 1
Tangenet at (1, 3)
y = 4x – 1
1
A    2x 2  1 dx  area of  QOT   area of
0
 PQR   area of  QRS

 2  1 9 9 16
A    1    
 3  2 8 40 60
22. Let A = {1, 2, 3, 4, 5} and B= {1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6}. Then the number of functions f:AB satisfying f(1) + f(2) =
f(4)–1 is equal to ______.
Sol. 360
f 1  f  2   1  f  4   6
f 1  f  2   5
Case (i) f(1) = 1  f(2) = 1, 2, 3, 4  4 mappings

Case (ii) f(1) = 2  f(2) = 1, 2, 3  3 mappings
Case (iii) f(1) = 3  f(2) = 1, 2  2 mappings
Case (iv) f(1) 4  f(2) = 1  1 mapping
f(5) & f(6) both have 6 mappings each
Number of functions = (4 + 3 + 2 + 1) × 6 × 6 = 360
23. Let the tangent to the parabola y2 = 12 x at the point (3, ) be perpendicular to the line 2x+2y = 3. Then the
square of distance of the point (6,–4) from the normal to the hyperbola 2 x2 – 9y2 = 92 at its point ( –1,  +
2) is equal to _____.
Sol. 116
P  3,   lies on y2  12x
   6
dy 6
But,   1    6    6 reject 
dx 3,  
x 2 y2
  1, normal at
Now, hyperbola 9 36
9x 36y
Q    1,   2  is   45
5 8
 2x + 5y – 50 = 0
Now, distance of (6, –4) from 2x + 5y – 50 = 0 is equal to
2  6   5  4   50 58

2 5
2 2
29
Square of distance = 116
4 8 13 19
24. For kN, if the sum of the series 1      …… is 10, then the value of k is___
k k 2 k3 k 4
Sol. 2
4 8 13 19
10  1     ......upto
k k 2 k3 k 4
4 8 13 19
9   2  3  4  ......upto
k k k k
9 4 8 13
 2  3  4  ......upto
k k k k
 1 4 4 5 6
S  9 1     2  3  4 ......upto
 k k k k k
S 4 4 5
 2  3  4  ......upto
k k k k
 1 4 1 1 1
1   S   3  4  5  .....
 k k k k k
1
2
 1 4 3
9 1     k
 k k  1
1  
 k
3
9(k – 1) = 4k(k – 1) + 1
k=2
1 y z  3
25. Let the line : x   ,   R meet the plane P : x + 2y + 3z = 4 at the point ( ). If the angle
–2 
 5 
between the line  and the plane P is cos1  , then  + 2 + 6  is equal to ____.
 14 
 
Sol. 11
y 1 z  3
:x   , 
2 
Dr's of line 1, 2, 
Dr's of normal vector of plane P : x + 2y + 3z = 4
are (1, 2, 3)
Now, angle between line and plane P is given by
1  4  3 3  5 
sin     given cos   
5   2 . 14 14  14 
2

3
 2 
Let variable point on line is  t,2t  1, t  3 
 3 
line of plane P.
 t = –1
 7
  1, 1,    , ,  
 3
   2  6  11
26. The number of points where the curve f(x) = e8x – e6x – 3e4x – e2x  1, x  R cuts x-axis, is equal to ________
Sol. 2
Let e2x = t
t4 – t3 – 3t2 - t +1= 0
1  1
 t2  t  3 0
t2  t 
2
 1  1
t   t  5 0
 t  t
1 1  21
t 
t 2
Two real values of t.
27. If the line l1 : 3y– 2x = 3 is the angular bisector of the line l2 : x –y + 1 = 0 and l3 : ax +y + 17, then 2 + 2 –
– is equal to ______.
Sol. 348
Point of intersection of 1 : 3y  2x  3
2 : x  y  1  0 is P   0,1
Which lies on 3 : x y  17  0,
   17
Consider a random point Q   1,0 
on 2 : x  y  1  0, image of Q about
 17 6 
2 : x  y  1  0, is Q'   ,  which is calculated by formulae
 13 13 
x   1 y0  2  3 
  2 
2 3  13 
Now, Q' lies in 3 : x  y  17  0
7
Now, 2  2      348
1
28. Let the probability of getting head for a biased coin be . It is tossed repeatedly until a head appears. Let N be
4
p
the number of tosses required. If the probability that the equation 64x2 + 5Nx + 1 = 0 has no real root is ,
q
where p and q are co-prime, then q – p is equal to ______.
Sol. 27
64x2  5Nx  1  0
D  25N2  256  0
256 16
 N2  N
25 5
 N  1, 2,3
1 3 1 3 3 1 37
 Pr obability       
4 4 4 4 4 4 64
q  p  27
29. Let a  î  2jˆ  3kˆ and b  î  ˆj – kˆ . If c is a vector such that a.c  11 , b.  a  c   27 and b.c  – 3 b , then
2
a  c is equal to ______.
Sol. 285
a  î  2jˆ  3k,
ˆ b  î  ˆj  kˆ
b.  a  c   27,a.b  0
b   a  c   3a
Let  be angle between b,a  c

Then b . a  c sin   3 14
b . a  c cos   27
14
 sin  
95
 b  a  c  3 95
 a  c  3  95
 z 2  8iz – 15  13
30. Let S  z  C – {i, 2i}: 2  R  . If   i  S, a  R–{0} , then 2422 is equal to ______.
 z  3iz – 2  11
Sol. 1680
 z 2  8iz  15 
 2 R
 z  3iz  2 
 1
1liz  13 R
z 2
 3iz  2 
13
Put Z =   i
11
  z2  3iz  2 is imaginary
Put z = x + iy
  x 2  y2  2xyi  3ix  3y  2  Imaginary
 Re  x 2  y2  3y  2   2xy  3x  i   0
 x 2  y2  3y  2  0
x 2  y2  3y  2
13
x 2   y  1 y  2   z    i
11
13
Put x  , y 
11
 13  13 
2    11  2
 11  11 
2 
 24  35 
121
242  48 35  1680
2
SECTION - A
31. Eight equal drops of water are falling through air with a steady speed of 10 cm/s. If the drops collapse, the new
velocity is :-
(1) 10 cm/s (2) 40 cm/s (3) 16 cm/s (4) 5 cm/s
Sol. (2)
4 4 6 rv
8 × r3 = R3 B
3 3
R = 2r
2r 2
V= (b – air)
9
mg
V  r2
2
V1  r 
  V2 = V1 × 4 = 10 × 4 = 40 km/s–1
V2  R 
32. Given below are two statements : one is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R
Assertion A : A bar magnet dropped through a metallic cylindrical pipe takes more time to come down
compared to a non-magnetic bar with same geometry and mass.
Reason R : For the magnetic bar, Eddy currents are produced in the metallic pipe which oppose the motion of
the magnetic bar.
Sol. (4)
Due to Eddy current in the metallic pice which opposes the motion of magnetic bar. So, it takes more time to
comes down compared to non-magnetic bar.
33. A space ship of mass 2 × 104 kg is launched into a circular orbit close to the earth surface. The additional
velocity to be imparted to the space ship in the orbit to overcome the gravitational pull will be (if g = 10 m/s2
and radius of earth = 6400 km):
(1) 7.9  2  1 km / s (2) 7.4  2  1 km / s (3) 11.2  2  1 km / s (4) 8  2  1 km / s
Sol. (4)
GM
V = ( 2 – 1)
R
GM
=  R ( 2 – 1)
R2
= gR ( 2 – 1) = 8000 ( 2 – 1) ms–1
= 8( 2 – 1) kms–1
34. A projectile is projected at 30° from horizontal with initial velocity 40 ms–1. The velocity of the projectile at t =
2 s from the start will be :
(Given g = 10 m/s2)
(1) Zero (2) 20 3 ms–1 (3) 40 3 ms–1 (4) 20 ms–1
Sol. (2)
Ux = 40 cos 30 = 20 3
Uy = 40 sin 30 = 20
Vx = 20 3
Vy = uy – gt = 20 – 10 × 2 = 0
V= v x 2  v y 2 = 20 3 = ms–1
35. A plane electromagnetic wave of frequency 20 MHz propagates in free space along x-direction. At a particular
space and time, E  6.6jˆ v / m . What is B at this point?
(1) –2.2 × 10–8 k̂ T (2) –2.2 × 10–8 î T (3) 2.2 × 10–8 k̂ T (4) 2.2 × 10–8 î T
Sol. (3)
E 6.6
|B| = = = 2.2 ×10–8
C 3  108
For direction of B
= EB  C
= ˆj  B  î
B  (2.2  10 –8 ) kˆ T
36. A car P travelling at 20 ms–1 sounds its horn at a frequency of 400 Hz. Another car Q is travelling behind the
first car in the same direction with a velocity 40 ms–1. The frequency heard by the passenger of the car Q is
approximately [Take, velocity of sound = 360 ms–1]
(1) 471 Hz (2) 514 Hz (3) 421 Hz (4) 485 Hz
Sol. (3)
Vc = 20 ms–1
f = 400 Hz
Q = 40 ms–1 P 20 ms–1
0 

S
 Vs – (– VQ ) 
fapp =  f
 VS – (– Vp ) 
 360  40  400
=  ×400 = × 400 = 421 Hz Ans. (3)
 360  20  380
37. A body of mass 500 g moves along x-axis such that it's velocity varies with displacement x according to the
relation  = 10 x m/s the force acting on the body is:-
(1) 25 N (2) 5 N (3) 166 N (4) 125 N
Sol. (1)
dv 10 5
v = 10 x  = =
dx 2 x x
dv
a=v
dx
5 5
a=v× = 10 x× = 50 ms–2
x x
500
F = ma = × 50 = 25 N
1000
38. The ratio of the de-Broglie wavelengths of proton and electron having same Kinetic energy:
(Assume mp = me × 1849)
(1) 1:62 (2) 1:30 (3) 1:43 (4) 2:43
Sol. (3)
h h
= =
P 2mK
P me me 1
= = =
e mp 1840me 1840
P 1
= Ans. (3)
e 43

39. If force (F), velocity (V) and time (T) are considered as fundamental physical quantity, then dimensional
formula of density will be:
(1) FV–2T2 (2) FV4T–6 (3) FV–4T–2 (4) F2V–2T6
Sol. (3)
= Fx Vy Tz
[ML-3] = [MLT-2]x [LT-1]y [T]z
1=x x=1
–3 = x + y y = –4
0 = –2x –y + z z =2x + 4 = 2 – 4 = –2
= F V T
–4 –2
Ans. (3)
40. An electron is allowed to move with constant velocity along the axis of current carrying straight solenoid.
A. The electron will experience magnetic force along the axis of the solenoid.
B. The electron will not experience magnetic force.
C. The electron will continue to move along the axis of the solenoid.
D. The electron will be accelerated along the axis of the solenoid.
E. The electron will follow parabolic path-inside the solenoid.
(1) A and D only (2) B, C and D only (3) B and E only (4) B and C only
Sol. (4)
We know that
In the solenoid magnetic field along the axis of solenoid.
When charge particle moving inside solenoid along the axis F = 0
Fm = q (V  B)
So, Fm = 
And it moves with constant velocity.
41. The Thermodynamic process, in which internal energy of the system remains constant is
(1) Isobaric (2) Isochoric (3) Adiabatic (4) Isothermal
Sol. (4)
U = nCVT, for all process
For isothermal process, T = 0
So, U = 0
That means internal energy of system remains constant.
42. In satellite communication, the uplink frequency band used is:

(1) 76 – 88 MHz (2) 420 – 890 MHz (3) 3.7 – 4.2 GHz (4) 5.925 – 6.425 GHz
Sol. (4)
uplink Downlink
5.8-6.2 Ghz 4-4.2 Ghz
I. standard
43. The logic operations performed by the given digital circuit is equivalent to:
(1) OR (2) NAND (3) NOR (4) AND

Sol. (4)
A A+B
Y =  A  B . AB B
Y = (A + B).(AB) Y
Y = AB + AB
(A • B)
Y = (A.B)
Y = AND Gate
44.
The current flowing through R2 is:

1 1 2 1
(1) A (2) A (3) A (4) A
3 4 3 2
Sol. (1)
Req = 4
8
i=  2A
4
23 2
i1 =  A
36 3
2/3 1
i2 =  A
2 3
45. When vector A  2iˆ  3jˆ  2kˆ is subtracted from vector B , it gives a vector equal to 2ˆj . Then the magnitude
of vector B will be:
(1) 3 (2) 5 (3) 13 (4) 6
Sol. (Bonus)
A  2iˆ  3jˆ  2kˆ
B – A  2ˆj
B = 2ˆj  A = 2iˆ  5jˆ  2kˆ
| B| = 2 2  52  2 2 = 4  25  4 = 8  25 = 33
46. If V is the gravitational potential due to sphere of uniform density on it's surface, then it's value at the center of
sphere will be:-
4 3V V
(1) V (2) V (3) (4)
3 2 2
Sol. (3)
GM
V= – 3
(1.5R2 – 0.5r2)
R
GM
V =– [At the surface]
R
3
3GM V
Vcentre = – = 2
2R
47. The root mean square speed of molecules of nitrogen gas at 27°C is approximately : (Given mass of a nitrogen
molecule = 4.6 × 10–26 kg and take Boltzmann constant kB = 1.4 × 10–23 JK–1)
(1) 1260 m/s (2) 91 m/s (3) 523 m/s (4) 27.4 m/s
Sol. (3)
3RT 3RT 3KT
Vrms = = =
Mw mN A m
3  1.4  10 23  300

=
4.6  10 26
9  1.4  10 5
=
4.6
= 2.73  10 5
= 27.3  10 4
= 522.4 ms–1
= 523 ms–1
48. The energy of He+ ion in its first excited state is, (The ground state energy for the Hydrogen atom is –13.6 eV):
(1) –13.6 eV (2) –54.4 eV (3) –27.2 eV (4) –3.4 eV
Sol. (4)
 13.6z 2 
E=– 
 n 2 
eV
 
First excited state
n=2
–13.6  z 2
E= = –13.6 eV
22
49. When one light ray is reflected from a plane mirror with 30° angle of reflection, the angle of deviation of the
ray after reflection is:
(1) 140° (2) 130° (3) 120° (4) 110°
Sol. (3)
30° 30°
\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\
 = – 2i =  – 2 × 30
= 180 – 60 = 120°
50. A capacitor of capacitance C is charge to a potential V. The flux of the electric field through a closed surface
enclosing the positive plate of the capacitor is :
CV 2CV CV
(1) Zero (2) (3) (4)
0 0 2 0
Sol. (2)
q
=
0
CV
 =
0
SECTION – B
51. A coil has an inductance of 2H and resistance of 4 . A 10 V is applied across the coil. The energy stored in the
magnetic field after the current has built up to its equilibrium value will be __________ × 10–2 J.
Sol. (625)
At steady state, inductor will act as a short circuit.
V 10 5
I= = = A
R 4 2
2
1 2 1 5 25
E= LI = × 2 ×   = = 6.25 = 625 × 10–2 J
2 2  
2 4
 at steady state
52. A metallic cube of side 15 cm moving along y-axis at a uniform velocity of 2 ms–1. In a region of uniform
magnetic field of magnitude 0.5T directed along z-axis. In equilibrium the potential difference between the
faces of higher and lower potential developed because of the motion through the field will be _________ mV.
Sol. (150)
qVB = qE
E = VB
V = EL = VBL
15 15
V = 2 × 0.5 × = volt
100 100
= 15 × 10–2 volt
= 150 × 10–3 v
53. In the given circuit,

C1 = 2 F, C2 = 0.2 F, C3 = 2 F, C4 = 4 F, C5 = 2 F, C6 = 2 f, The charge stored on capacitor C4 is _______
C.
Sol. (4)
Ceq = 0.5 F
Q = 0.5 × 10 = 5 C
5C  0.8
Q’ = = 4C
0.8  0.2
54. A nucleus disintegrates into two nuclear parts, in such a way that ratio of their nuclear sizes is 1 : 2 1/3. Their
respective speed have a ratio of n : 1. The value of n is __________
Sol. (2)
From LCM :
m1v1 = m2v2
3
V1 m 2 r2 3  r2 
   
V2 m1 r13  r1 
3
 1 
V1  2 3  2
  
V2  1  1
 
n= 2
55. The surface tension of soap solution is 3.5 × 10–2 Nm–1. The amount of work done required to increase the radius
of soap bubble from 10 cm to 20 cm is __________ × 10–4 J. (take  = 22/7)
Sol. (264)
W = U
W = 25 × (Af – Ai)
= 2 × 5 × 4 (rf 2 – ri 2)
22
= 2 × 3.5 × 10–2 × 4 × × 10–4 (300)
7
= 264 × 10–4 J
56. A circular plate is rotating horizontal plane, about an axis passing through its center perpendicular to the plate,
with an angular velocity . A person sits at the center having two dumbbells in his hands. When he stretches
out his hands, the moment of inertia of the system becomes triple. If E be the initial Kinetic energy of the system,
E
then final Kinetic energy will be . The value of x is
x
Sol. (3)
I11 = I22
I = 3I2

2 =
3
1 2
E= I
2
1 2
2 I
1  2
Ef = × 3I ×   =
2 3 3
x=3
57. A block of mass 5 kg starting from rest pulled up on a smooth incline plane making an angle of 30° with
horizontal with an affective acceleration of 1 ms–2. The power delivered by the pulling force at t = 10 s from the
starts is __________ W. [use g = 10 ms–2] (Calculate the nearest integer value)
Sol. F – mg sin 30 = ma 0
F = 5 × 1 + 25 = 30 N g s in3
m
V = u + at = 0 + 1 × 10 = 10
P = FV = 30 × 10 = 300 watt 30°
58. As shown in the figure, a plane mirror is fixed at a height of 50 cm from the bottom of tank containing water
 4
    . The height of water in the tank is 8 cm. A small bulb is placed at the bottom of the water tank. The
 3
distance of image of the bulb formed by mirror from the bottom of the tank is ___________ cm.
Sol. (98)
42cm
8
8cm × 3 = 6cm
I 4 4
d
Apparent depth of O = 6

Distance between O and I2 = 48 + 50 = 98 cm
59. Two identical cells each of emf 1.5 V are connected in series across a 10 resistance. An ideal voltmeter
connected across 10  resistance reads 1.5 V. The internal resistance of each cell is ___________ .
Sol. (5)
1 r 1 r
10
2 1.5
I= =
10  2r 10
20 = 15 + 3r
 20 × 1.5 = 15 + 3r
 30 = 15 + 3r
r = 5
60. A wire of density 8 × 103 kg/m3 is stretched between two clamps 0.5 m apart. The extension developed in the
wire is 3.2 × 10–4 m. If Y = 8 × 1010 N/m2, the fundamental frequency of vibration in the wire will be _________
Hz.
Sol. (80)
1 T
f=
2 
1 YA
f=
2 
1 8  1010  3.2  10 –4
f=
2  0.5 8  10 3  0.5
1
f= 6400
1
f = 80 Hz
SECTION - A
61. The magnetic moment is measured in Bohr Magneton (BM). Spin only magnetic moment of Fe in [Fe(H 2O)6 ]3
and [Fe(CN)6 ]3– complexes respectively is:
(1) 3.87 B. M. and 1.732 B.M. (2) 6.92 B.M. in both
(3) 5.92 B.M. and 1.732 B.M. (4) 4.89 B.M. and 6.92 B.M.
Sol. 3
[Fe(H2O)6]3+
Fe3+  [Ar] 3d5 4s0
No pairing
 Unpaired e– = 5
  n(n  2)
= 5(5  2)
  35  5.92B.M.
[Fe(CN)6]–3
 Unpaired e– = 1
  n(n  2)
= 1(1  2)  3  1.732B.M.
62. Which one of the following pairs is an example of polar molecular solids?
(1) SO2 (s),CO2 (s) (2) SO2 (s), NH2 (s) (3) MgO(s),SO2 (s) (4) HCl (s), AlN(s)
Sol. 2
SO2 and NH3 are polar molecules. They are constituent particles of polar molecular solids.
List I List II
Complex Colour
A. Mg(NH4 )PO4 I. Brown
B. K3[Co(NO2 )6 ] II. White
C. MnO(OH)2 III. Yellow
D. Fe4[Fe(CN)6 ]3 IV. blue

(1) A–II, B–III, C–IV, D–I (2) A–II, B–IV, C–I, D–III
(3) A–III, B–IV, C–II, D–I (4) A–II, B–III, C–I, D–IV
Sol. 4
Mg(NH4)PO4  White
K3[Co(NO2)6]  Yellow
MnO(OH)2  Brown
Fe4[Fe(CN)6]3  Blue
64. A solution is prepared by adding 2 g of "X" to 1 mole of water. Mass percent of "X" in the solution is
(1) 5% (2) 20 % (3) 2 % (4) 10%
Sol. 4
Solute (X) = 2 g
Solvent (H2O) = 1 mole = 18 g
Total mass = 2 + 18 = 20 g
2
% mass of X =  100  10%
20
65. If Ni2 is replaced by Pt 2 in the complex [NiCl2 Br2 ]2 – , which of the following properties are expected to get
changed?
A. Geometry
B. Geometrical isomerism
C. Optical isomerism
D. Magnetic properties
(1) A, B and C (2) A and D (3) B and C (4) A, B and D
Sol. 4
[NiBr2Cl2]2–  This complex species is tetrahedral as Br & Cl are weak field ligands.
[PtBr2Cl2]2–  As Pt belongs to 5d series. This complex species is square planar.
Both the complex species are optically inactive.
[NiBr2Cl2]2–, being tetrahedral does not show Geometrical Isomerism.
[PtBr2Cl2]2– shows two Geometrical Isomers.

Statement I : In the metallurgy process, sulphide ore is converted to oxide before reduction.
Statement II : Oxide ores in general are easier to reduce.
(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct
(2) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
(3) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct
(4) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
Sol. 1
2ZnS + 3O2  2ZnO + 2SO2
Oxides on carbon reduction forms CO2 while sulphide on carbon reduction gives CS2.
CO2 is more volatile compared to CS2 therefore oxides are easy to reduce.
67.
Product [X] formed in the above reaction is:

(1) H3C – CH2 – CH – CH3 (2) H3C – CH2 – CH  CH2
D
H
(3) H3C – CH  CH – CH3 (4) H3C – CH2 – C – CH3
OH
Sol. 1
(i) NaI, H3PO4
CH3 – CH2 – CH – CH3 CH3 – CH2 – CH – CH3
OH I
Mg
D2O
CH3 – CH2 – CH – CH3 CH3 – CH2 – CH – CH3
D MgI

Statement I : Ethene at 333 to 343 K and 6-7 atm pressure in the presence of AlEt3 and TiCl4 undergoes addition
polymerization to give LDP.
Statement II : Caprolactam at 533-543 K in H2O through step growth polymerizes to give Nylon 6.
Sol. 3
(Fact-Based)
Statement-I : Ethane at 333 to 343 K and 6-7 atm pressure of AlEt3 and TiCl4 undergo addition polymerization
to give HDPE not LDPE
Statement-II :
N O O H
533-543K
–C–(CH
[ 2)5–N–
]
H2O
Caprolactam Nylon-6
69. For a chemical reaction A + B  Product, the order is 1 with respect to A and B.
Rate [A] [B]

–1 –1 –1
mol L S mol L mol L–1
0.10 20 0.5
0.40 x 0.5
0.80 40 Y
What is the value of x and y?

(1) 80 and 2 (2) 40 and 4 (3) 80 and 4 (4) 160 and 4
Sol. 1
r = K[A]1[B]1
0.1 = K(20)1 (0.5)1 …(i)
1
0.40 = K(x) (0.5) 1
…(ii)
0.80 = K(40)1 (y)1 …(iii)
From (i) and (ii)
x = 80
From (i) and (iii)
y=2
70. Which of the following compounds is an example of Freon?

(1) C2 F4 (2) C2 HF3 (3) C2Cl2 F2 (4) C2 H2 F2
Sol. 3
Freons are chlorofluoro carbon.
71. Compound ‘B’ is
(1) (2)
(3) (4)
Sol. 1
ON H2N
NaNO2 NH4SH
HCl H2O
OH OH OH
72. Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R.
Assertion A: can be subjected to Wolff-Kishner reduction to give
Reason R:Wolff–Kishner reduction is used to convert into
Sol. 4
Assertion (A)
O
NH2 – NH2

OH Major
Cl
Reason (R)
O
NH2 – NH2

OH
Assertion A : [CoCl(NH3 )5 ]2 absorbs at lower wavelength of light with respect to [CoCl(NH3 )5 (H 2O)]3
Reason R : It is because the wavelength of the light absorbed depends on the oxidation state of the metal ion.
Sol. 4
Since H2O is strong field ligand compared to chloride and Co3+ ion is present.
 CFSE is higher for [Co(NH3)5H2O]+3, hence it will absorb at lower wavelength.
74. Compound from the following that will not produce precipitate on reaction with AgNO3 is :
(1) (2)
(3) (4)
Sol. 2
AgNO3
Br +
Aromatic
Br +
AgNO3
Unstable
Br
AgNO3

Benzylic
Br
AgNO3
CH = CH CH = CH – 
Allylic
Assertion A : A solution of the product obtained by heating a mole of glycine with a mole of chlorine in
presence of red phosphorous generates chiral carbon atom.
Reason R : A molecule with 2 chiral carbons is always optically active.
Sol. 3
Cl2 *
H2N – CH2 – COOH H2N – CH – COOH
Red P
Cl
76. Alkali metal from the following with least melting point is:
(1) K (2) Cs (3) Rb (4) Na
Sol. 2
On moving down the group in alkali metals melting point decreases.
77. Which hydride among the following is less stable?
(1) HF (2) NH3 (3) BeH2 (4) LiH
Sol. 3
BeH2 is hypovalent
78. The major product formed in the following reaction is
A.
B.
C.
D.

(1) C only (2) A only (3) B only (4) D only
Sol. 3
Zn(Hg)/HCl
Ph – CH – CH – CH2 – CHO Ph – CH = C – CH2 – CH3

OH CH3 CH3
79. One mole of P4 reacts with 8 moles SOCl2 to give 4 moles of A, x mole of SO2 and 2 moles of B. A, B and x
respectively are
(1) POCl3 ,S2Cl2 and 4 (2) POCl3 ,S2Cl2 and 2 (3) PCl3 ,S2Cl2 and 4 (4) PCl3 ,S2Cl2 and 2
Sol. 3
P4 + 8 SOCl2  4PCl3 + 2S2Cl2 + 4SO2
80. What weight of glucose must be dissolved in 100 g of water to lower the vapour pressure by 0.20 mmHg?
(Assume dilute solution is being formed)
Given : Vapour pressure of pure water is 54.2 mmHg at room temperature. Molar mass of glucose is 180g mol –1
(1) 2.59 g (2) 3.59 g (3) 3.69 g (4) 4.69 g
Sol. 3
P 0 – Ps n
 (for dilute solution)
P0 N
0.2 n  18

54.2 100
100
n=
271  18
100  180
w= ; w = 3.69 g
271  18
SECTION - B
81. The total number of intensive properties from the following is__________ new line volume, Molar heat
capacity, Molarity, Eθ cell, Gibbs free energy change, Molar mass, Mole
Sol. 4
Extensive  Mole, Volume, Gibbs free energy.
Intensive  Molar mass, Molar heat capacity, Molarity, E cell.
82. The volume of hydrogen liberated at STP by treating 2.4 g of magnesium with excess of hydrochloric acid is
__________ 10–2 L .
Given: Molar volume of gas is 22.4 L at STP. Molar mass of magnesium is 24 g mol–1
Sol. 224
Mg + 2HCl  MgCl2 + H2 
w = 2.4 g
2.4
N=  0.1mole
24
1 mole of gas at STP  22.4 lit.
 0.1 mole of gas = 0.1 × 22.4
= 2.24 lit. = 224 × 10–2 litre
83. The number of correct statements about modern adsorption theory of heterogeneous catalysis from the following
is
A. The catalyst is diffused over the surface of reactants.
B. Reactants are adsorbed on the surface of the catalyst.
C. Occurrence of chemical reaction on the catalyst's surface through formation of an intermediate.
D. It is a combination of intermediate compound formation theory and the old adsorption theory.
E. It explains the action of the catalyst as well as those of catalytic promoters and poisons.
Sol. 3
B, C and D are correct.
(NCERT – Surface Chemistry)
84. The number of correct statements from the following is
A. For 1 s orbital, the probability density is maximum at the nucleus
B. For 2 s orbital, the probability density first increases to maximum and then decreases sharply to zero.
C. Boundary surface diagrams of the orbitals encloses a region of 100% probability of finding the electron.
D. p and d-orbitals have 1 and 2 angular nodes respectively
E. probability density of p-orbital is zero at the nucleus
Sol. 3
A, D and E statements are correct.
For 2s orbital, the probability density first decreases and then increases.
At any distance from nucleus the probability density of finding electron is never zero and it always have some
finite value.
85. The number of correct statements from the following is____________

A. Ecell is an intensive parameter
B. A negative E⊖ means that the redox couple is a stronger reducing agent than the H+/H2 couple.
C. The amount of electricity required for oxidation or reduction depends on the stoichiometry of the electrode
reaction.
D. The amount of chemical reaction which occurs at any electrode during electrolysis by a current is proportional
to the quantity of electricity passed through the electrolyte.
Sol. 4
Given statements A, B, C and D are correct.
86. Mg(NO3 )2 XH2O and Ba(NO3 )2 YH2O , represent formula of the crystalline forms of nitrate salts. Sum of X
and Y is______________
Sol. 6
Mg(NO3)2·6H2O is a hydrated salt whereas Ba(NO3)2 is a anhydrous salt.
x+y=6
87. The number of possible isomeric products formed when 3-chloro-1-butene reacts with HCl through carbocation
formation is_____________
Sol. 4
Total Possible Isomeric product = 1 + 3 = 4
88. 4.5 moles each of hydrogen and iodine is heated in a sealed ten litre vessel. At equilibrium, 3 moles of HI were
found. The equilibrium constant for H2 (g) I2 (g) 2HI(g) is______________
Sol. 1
H2(g) + I2(g) 2HI(g)
t = 0 4.5 4.5 –
teq 3 3 3
[HI]2 (3)2 9
Kc    1
[H2 ][I2 ] 3  3 9
89. Number of compounds from the following which will not produce orange red precipitate with Benedict solution
is _______________
Glucose, maltose, sucrose, ribose, 2-deoxyribose, amylose, lactose
Sol. 2
Benedict test :
Glucose – 
maltose – 
sucrose – 
ribose – 
2-deoxyribose – 
amylose – 
lactose – 
90. The maximum number of lone pairs of electrons on the central atom from the following species is__________
ClO3– , XeF4 ,SF4 and I3–
Sol. 3
SECTION - A

6
1. e
0
3x
 6e  11e x  6
2x
dx
 32   256   512   64 
(1) loge   (2) log e   (3) log e   (4) loge  
 27   81   81   27 
Sol. 1

6
I dx
0  e  1 e  2  e  3
x xx
 1 1 
 2
1 
 6  x  x  x 2  dx
0
e 1 e  2 e  3 
 
  
e x e x dx e x
 3 dx  6 0 1  2e x 0 1  3e x dx
 3
0
1  e x
 3   ln 1  e  x    6 ln 1  2e  x  
 1 
0 2 0
  ln 1  3e  x  
3 
3 0
 3ln 2  3ln 3  ln 4
2
 3ln  ln 4
3
32
 ln
27
2. Among
1
(S1) : lim  2  4  6  .....  2n   1
n2
n 
(S2) : lim 16 115  215  315  .....  n15  

1 1
n  n 16
(1) Only (S1) is true (2) Both (S1) and (S2) are true
(3) Both (S1) and (S2) are false (4) Only (S2) is true
Sol. 2
n(n  1)
S1 : lim  1  True
n  n2
15
1 r
S2 : lim 16   r15   lim   
1
n  n n  n
n
1
1
 x15dx   True
0
16
3. The number of symmetric matrices of order 3, with all the entries from the set {0, 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 7, 8, 9}, is
(1) 109 (2) 106 (3) 910 (4) 610
Sol. 2
a b c 
A   b d e  , a, b, c, d, e, f {0,1, 2, .9} ,Number of matrices = 106
 c e f 
4. Let a  î  4jˆ  2k,

ˆ b  3iˆ  2jˆ  7kˆ and c  2iˆ  ˆj  4kˆ . If a vector d satisfies d  b  c  b and d.a  24 , then
2
d is equal to -
(1) 323 (2) 423 (3) 413 (4) 313
Sol. 3
db  cb
 (d  c)  b  0
 d  c  λb
Also da  24
 (c  λb)  a  24
24  a  c 24  6
λ  2
ba 9
 d  c  2(b)
 8iˆ  5jˆ  18kˆ
| d |2  64  25  324  413
5. A coin is biased so that the head is 3 times as likely to occur as tail. This coin is tossed until a head or three tails
occur. If X denotes the number of tosses of the coin, then the mean of X is-
21 15 81 37
(1) (2) (3) (4)
16 16 64 16
Sol. 1
3
P(H) =
4
1
P(T) =
4
3 3  1 3 
MeanX    3  
4 8  64 64 
3 3 3
  
4 8 16
 7  21
 3  
 16  16
 1 
6. max x  2sin x cosx  sin3x  
0 x 
 3 
5  2  3 3 23 3
(1) 0 (2)   (3) (4)
6 6
Sol. 3
1
f (x)  x  sin 2x  sin 3x
3
f (x)  1  2cos 2x  cos3x  0
5 
x ,
6 6
f (x)  4sin 2x  3sin 3x
 5 
f     0
 6 
 5 
   is point of maxima
 6 
 5  5  3 1
f   
 6  6 2 3
7. The set of all a  R for which the equation x |x – 1| + |x + 2| + a= 0 has exactly one real root, is
(1) (–  ,–3) (2) (–  ,  ) (3) (– 6,  ) (4) (– 6, –3)
Sol. 2
f (x)  x | x 1|  | x  2 |
x | x 1|  | x  2 | a  0
x | x 1|  | x  2 | a
All values are increasing.
8. Let PQ be a focal chord of the parabola y² = 36x of length 100, making an acute angle with the positive x-axis.
Let the ordinate of P be positive and M be the point on the line segment PQ such that PM:MQ = 3:1. Then which
of the following points does NOT lie on the line passing through M and perpendicular to the line PQ?
(1) (3, 33) (2) (6, 29) (3) (– 6, 45) (4) (– 3, 43)
Sol. 4
2
 1
9  t    100
 t
t 3
 P(81,54) &Q(1, 6)
M(21,9)
4
 L is (y  9)  (x  21)
3
3y  27  4x  84
4x  3y  111
9. For the system of linear equations

2x + 4y + 2az = b
x + 2y + 3z = 4
2x – 5y + 2z = 8
which of the following is NOT correct?
(1) It has infinitely many solutions if a = 3, b = 8
(2) It has unique solution if a = b=8
(3) It has unique solution if a = b = 6
(4) It has infinitely many solutions if a = 3, b=6
Sol. 4
2 4 2a
  1 2 3  18(3  a)
2 5 2
b 4 2a
 x  4 2 3  (64  19b  72a)
8 5 2
For unique solution  = 0
 a  3 and b  R
For infinitely many solution :
Δ  Δx  Δ y  Δz  0
a 3 Δ0
and b  8 x  0
10. Let s1, s2, s3, ......, s10 respectively be the sum to 12 terms of 10 A.P. s whose first terms are 1, 2, 3, ..., 10 and
10
the common differences are 1, 3, 5, ........., 19 respectively. Then s
i 1
i is equal to
(1) 7260 (2) 7380 (3) 7220 (4) 7360

Sol. 1
Sk  6(2k  (11)(2k  1))
Sk  6(2k  22k  11)
Sk  144k  66
10 10
Sk  144k  66  10
1 k 1
10  11
 144   660
2
 7920  660
 7260
1 1 1
11. For the differentiable function f: R - {0}  R, let 3f(x)+2f     10 , then f (3)  f '   is equal to
 
x x 4
29 33
(1) 13 (2) (3) (4) 7
5 5
Sol. 1
 1 1 
3f (x)  2f  x   x  10   3
   
 1 
 2f (x)  3f  x   x  10   2
   
3
5f (x)   2x  10
x
1 3 
f (x)    2x  10 
5 x 
1 3 
f (x)    2  2 
5 x 
1 1 1
f (3)  f     (1  6  10)  (48  2)
4 5 5
 | 3  10 | 13
12. The negation of the statement  A   B  C   A  B  A is

(1) equivalent to B  ~ C (2) a fallacy
(3) equivalent to ~ C (4) equivalent to ~ A
Sol. 4
p : ((A  (B  C))  (A  B))  A
[ (A  (B  C))  (A  B)]  A
[(A  (B  C))  (A  B)]  A
(f  A)  A
 p  A
13.  
Let the tangent and normal at the point 3 3,1 on the ellipse
x 2 y2

36 4
 1 meet the y-axis at the points A and
B respectively. Let the circle C be drawn taking AB as a diameter and the line x = 2 5 intersect C at the points
P and Q. If the tangents at the points P and Q on the circle intersect at the point (, ), then ² – ² is equal to
304 314
(1) (2) 60 (3) (4) 61
5 5
Sol. 1
x 2 y2
Given ellipse  1
36 4
x y
 1
4 3 4
y=4
x 4 2
 
4 4 3 3
y=–8
x 2  y2  4y  32  0
hx  ky  2(y  k)  32  0
k  2
hx  2k  32  0
hx  36
36
h
2 5
  k  2
304
 2  2 
5
14.  
The distance of the point (-1, 2, 3) from the plane r. î  2jˆ  3kˆ  10 parallel to the line of the shortest distance
       
between the lines r  î  ˆj   2iˆ  kˆ and r  2iˆ  ˆj   î  ˆj  kˆ is
(1) 2 5 (2) 3 5 (3) 3 6 (4) 2 6

Sol. 4
Let L1 : r  (iˆ  ˆj)  (2î  k̂)
L : r  (2iˆ  ˆj)  (î  ˆj  k)
2
ˆ
î ˆj kˆ
n 2 0 1
1 1 1
n  î  ˆj  2k̂
Equation of line along shortest distance of L1 and L2

x 1 y  2 z  3
  r
1 1 2
 (x, y, z)  (r  1, 2  r,3  2r)
 (r  1)  2(2  r)  3(3  2r)  10
 r  2
 Q(x, y,z)  (3,4,7)
 PQ  4  4  16  2 6
 1 3 
15. Let B   1 2 3  , >2 be the adjoint of a matrix A and |A|=2. then
  4 
  
 2   B 2  is equal to
  
(1) 16 (2) 32 (3) 0 (4) –16
Sol. 4
 1 3 
Given, B   1 2 3 
  4 
| B | 4
1(8  3)  3(4  3)  (  2)  4
2  6  8  0
  2, 4
Given  > 2
So,   2 is rejected
1 3 4   4 
 4 8 4 1 2 3 8  [16]11
 4 4 4   4 
16. For x R, two real valued functions f(x) and g(x) are such that, g(x)= x +1 and fog(x)=x+3 - x . Then f(0)
is equal to
(1) 5 (2) 0 (3) –3 (4) 1
Sol. 1
g(x)  x  1
fog(x)  x  3  x
 ( x  1) 2  3( x  1)  5
 g 2 (x)  3g(x)  5
 f (x)  x 2  3x  5
 f (0)  5
But, if we consider the domain of the composite function fog(x) then in that case f(0) will be not defined as
g(x) cannot be equal to zero.
17. Let the equation of plane passing through the line of intersection of the planes x+2y+az=2 and x-y+z=3 be 5x
2 ab
– 11y + bz = 6a – 1. For c Z, if the distance of this plane from the point (a, –c, c) is , then is equal
a c
to
(1) – 4 (2) 2 (3) – 2 (4) 4
Sol. 1
(x  2y  az  2)  (x  y  z  3)  0
1   2   a   2  3
  
5 11 b 6a  1
7
   , a  3, b  1
2
2 5a  11c  bc  6a  1

a 25  121  1
c  1
a  b 3 1
   4
c 1
42022
18. Fractional part of the number is equal to
15
4 8 1 14
(1) (2) (3) (4)
15 15 15 15
Sol. 3
 42022   24044   (1  15)1011  1
   
 15   15   15  15
dy
19. Let y = y1 (x) and y = y2 (x) be the solution curves of the differential equation = y+7 with initial conditions
dx
y1 (0) = 0 and y2 (0)=1 respectively. Then the curves y = y1 (x) and y = y2 (x) intersect at
(1) no point (2) infinite number of points
(3) one point (4) two points
Sol. 1
dy dy
 y7 y7
dx dx
I.F.  e x
ye x   7e x dx
 ye x  7e x  c
 y  7  cex
7  7ex  7  8ex  ex  0 .
No solution
20. The area of the region enclosed by the curve f(x)= max{sin x, cosx}, –  ≤ x ≤  and the x-axis is
(1) 2 2  2 1 (2) 4  2
(3) 4 (4) 2  2  1
Sol. 3
Area =
3   
4 2 4 
 sin xdx   cos xdx   cos xdx   sin xdx = 4

 3   
4 2 4
SECTION - B
21. The sum to 20 terms of the series 2.2 – 3 +2.42 – 52 + 2.62– ........ is equal to _______.
2 2
Sol. 1310
2 2
 32  42  52  20terms    22  42 .  10terms 
(2  3  4  5 ..  11)  4 1  22 ..102 
 21 22  10 11 21
  1  4 
 2  6
 1  231  14 1110
 1540  1  231
 1310
22. Let the mean of the data

x 1 3 5 7 9
Frequency (f) 4 24 28  8
3
be 5. If m and  are respectively the mean deviation about the mean and the variance of the data, then
m  2
is equal to ________.
Sol. 8
5 x 
x fi i

4  72  140  7  72
f i 64  
 320  5  288  7  2  32    16
fi xi  x where f  64  16  80
M.D.(x)  i
fi
4  4  24  2  28  0  16  2  8  4 8
M.D. (x)  
80 5
f  x  x 
2
Variance 
i i
f i
4  16  24  4  0  16  4  8  16 352
 
80 80
3 3 16
  8
m  2
128

352
80 80
n
 6 
23. Let  be the constant term in the binomial expansion of  x  3  , n  15 . If the sum of the coefficients of
 
 x2 
the remaining terms in the expansion is 649 and the coefficient of x–n is λ, then  is equal to ________.
Sol. 36
n k 3
k
Tk 1  Ck (x)
n 2
(6) (x) k 2
nk 3
 k0
2 2
n  4k  0
 n

(5)n   n C n (6) 4   649
 4 
By observation (625 + 24 = 649) , we get n = 4
n  4&k  1
Required is coefficient of
4
 6 
x 4 is  4  3 
 
 x2 
4
C1 (6)3
By calculating we will get   36
24. Let   zz  k1z  k 2iz   1  i  , k1 , k 2  R . Let Re() = 0 be the circle C of radius 1 in the first quadrant
touching the line y = 1 and the y-axis. If the curve Im() = 0 intersects C at A and B, then 30(AB)2 is equal to
______.
Sol. 24
  zz  k1z  k 2iz  (1  i)
Re()  x 2  y 2  k1x  k 2 y    0
 k k 
Centre   1 , 2   (1, 2)
 2 2 
 k1  2, k 2  4
radius  1    4
Im  k1y  k 2 x    0
 2x  y  2  0
2
d
5
12 4 1
 1 
4 5 5
301  24
2
Let a  3iˆ  ˆj  kˆ and c  2iˆ  3jˆ  3kˆ . If b is a vector such that a  b  c and b  50, then 72  b  c is
2 2
25.
equal to ______.
Sol. 66
| a | 11,| c | 22
| a || b  c || b || c | sin θ
11  50 22 sin θ
1
 sin θ 
10
| b  c | | b |2  | c |2 2b  c
2
| b |2  | c |2 2 | b || c | cos θ
99
 50  22  2  50  22 
10
 72  66
2
72  b  c  66
y2 x 2
26. Let m1 , and m 2 be the slopes of the tangents drawn from the point P(4,1) to the hyperbola H:   1. If
25 16
Q is the point from which the tangents drawn to H have slopes m1 and m 2 and they make positive intercepts
 PQ 
2
 and  on the x-axis, then is equal to _______.


Sol. 8
y 2 x2
Equation of tangent to the hyperbola  1
a 2 b2
y  mx  a2  b2 m2
passing through (4, 1)
1  4m  25 16m2  4m2  m  3  0
3
 m  1,
4
3
Equation of tangent with positive slopes 1 &
4
4y  3x  16 
 with positive intercept on x-axis.
y  x 3 
16
 ,  3
3
Intersection points:
Q : (–4, –7)
P : (4, 1)
PQ 2  128
PQ 2 128
 8
 16
5 5 8
27. Let the image of the point  , ,  in the plane x – 2y + z – 2 = 0 be P. If the distance of the point Q(6, –2,
 3 3 3
),  > 0, from P is 13, then  is equal to ______.
Sol. 15
5 5 8
Image of point  , , 
 3 3 3
5 5 8  5 8 8 
x y z 2 1  (2)   1  2 
  
3 3 3 3 3 3
1 2 1 1  2 1
2 2 2
1

3
 x  2, y  1, z  3
132   6  2    2  1     3
2 2 2
 (α  3)2  144  α  15( α  0)
Let for x  R, S0  x   x,Sk  x   Ck x  k  Sk 1  t  dt where C0  1, C k  1   Sk 1  x  dx , k  1, 2,3,... Then

x 1
28.
0 0
S2 (3)+6C3 is equal to ___________.

Sol. 18
x
Given, Sk (x)  Ck x  k Sk 1 (t)dt 
0
put k  2 and x = 3
3
S2 (3)  C2 (3)  2S1 (t)dt ……(1)
0
x
Also, S1 ( x)  C1 ( x)  S0 (t )dt 
0
2
x
 C1 x 
2
 t2 
3
S2 (3)  3C2  2  C1t   dt
0
2
 3C2  9C1  9
Also,
1
1
C1  1  S0 ( x)dx 
0
2
1
C2  1  S1 ( x)dx  0
0
1
C3  1  S2 ( x)dx
0

1
x3  3
 1    C2 x  C1 x   dx 
2
0
3 4
x
S2 ( x)  C2 x  2S1 (t )dt
0
x3
 C2 x  C1 x  2
3
 S2 3  6C3  6C3  3C2  9C1  9  18
  x 1   x   
29. If S  x  R : sin 1    sin 1     , then
  x  2x  2   x  1  4 
2 2
is equal to _________.
Sol. 4
 ( x  1)   x  π
sin 1    sin 1  
 ( x  1)2  1  
2
  4
  x 1
t
 (1,1)
t 1
2
 (x  1)   x  π
sin 1    sin 1  
 (x  1)  1 
2

2
  4
  x 1
( x  1)  1    x  1  x 
  cos  sin 1      
( x  1) 2  1  2  
 x 1   2  x2  1 
2

1  1 x 
  2  
2  x 1 x2  1 
( x  1) 1  1 x 
  
( x  1) 2  1 2  x2  1 
After solving this equation, we get

x = - 1 or x = 0
S  {1,0}
 
xR

  sin   x 2 π
 
 x  5    cos  x 2  x  5  π 
2 
  5π     5π  
 sin    cos(5π )   sin    cos(5π )  = 4
  2     2  
30. The number of seven digit positive integers formed using the digits 1, 2, 3 and 4 only and sum of the digits
equal to 12 is _______.
Sol. 413
x1  x2  x3  x4  x5  x6  x7  12, xi {1, 2,3, 4}
5  7 1 7! 7!
No. of solutions  C7 1    413
6! 5!
SECTION - A
31. Different combination of 3 resistors of equal resistance R are shown in the figures. The increasing order for
power dissipation is:
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
(1) PC < PB < PA < PD (2) PC < PD < PA < PB (3) PB < PC < PD < PA (4) PA < PB < PC < PD
Sol. (1)
Power dissipation, P = I2R
R 3R
(A) R eq   R 
2 2
(2 R)(R) 2R
(B) R eq  
2R  R 3
R
(C) R eq 
3
(D) R eq  3R
RD > RA > RB > RC
Since, P  Req
PD > PA > PB > PC
32. For the following circuit and given inputs A and B, chose the correct option for output 'Y'
(1) (2)
(3) (4)
Sol. (3)
AAA
A
Y
BBB
B
Output, y  A.B  A  B
yAB
t1 to t2 , A = 0, B = 1, Y = 0
t2 to t3 A=1, B = 1, Y = 1
t3 to t4 A = 0, B = 0, Y = 1
t4 to t5, A = 1, B = 1, Y = 1
t5 to t6, A = 1, B = 0, Y = 1
After t6, A = 0, B = 0, Y = 1
33. A bullet of 10 g leaves the barrel of gun with a velocity of 600 m/s. If the barrel of gun is 50 cm long and mass
of gun is 3 kg, then value of impulse supplied to the gun will be:
(1) 12 Ns (2) 6 Ns (3) 3 Ns (4) 36 Ns
Sol. (2)
Impulse, | I ||  p |
= mV – 0
= (10 × 10–3 kg) (600 m/s)
I = 6 N–S
34. Which of the following Maxwell's equation is valid for time varying conditions but not valid for static
conditions:

(1)  D.dA  Q (2)  E.dl   B (3)  E.dl  0 (4)  B.dl   0 I
t
Sol. (2)
For static conditions
 E.d l  0
For time varying condition,
B
 E.d l  – t
35. Match List – I with List – II
List – I List – II
(Layer of atmosphere) (Approximate height over earth's surface)
(A) F1 – Layer (I) 10 km
(B) D – Layer (II) 170 – 190 km
(C) Troposphere (III) 100 km
(D) E – layer (IV) 65 – 75 km
(1) A – II, B – I, C – IV, D – III (2) A – II, B – IV, C – III, D – I
(3) A – II, B – IV, C – I, D – III (4) A – III, B – IV, C – I, D – II
Sol. (3)
F1  Lower part of F layer of ionosphere (170 – 190Km)
D  Lowest layer of ionosphere (65 – 75 Km)
Troposphere  Lowest layer of atmosphere (10 Km)
E  Middle part of ionosphere (100 Km)
1
 5 2
36. The rms speed of oxygen molecule in a vessel at particular temperature is  1    , where  is the average
 x
22
speed of the molecule. The value of x will be: (Take  = )
7
(1) 28 (2) 27 (3) 8 (4) 4
Sol. (1)
3RT
Vrms 
M
8RT
Vavg   
M
3
Vrms  
8
1/ 2
3 22  33 
Vrms      
8 7  28 
1/ 2
 5 
Vrms   1   
 28 
x = 28
3 x
37. The ratio of powers of two motors is , that are capable of raising 300 kg water in 5 minutes and 50 kg
x 1
water in 2 minutes respectively from a well of 100 m deep. The value of x will be
(1) 16 (2) 2 (3) 4 (4) 2.4
Sol. (1)
Work
P
Time
mgh (300)g(100)
P1  
t1 5
(50)g(100)
P2 
2
P1 600 12 3  4
  
P2 250 5 4  1
P1 3 16

P2 16  1
x = 16
38. Two trains 'A' and 'B' of length 'l' and '4l' are travelling into a tunnel of length 'L' in parallel tracks from opposite
directions with velocities 108 km/h and 72 km/h, respectively. If train 'A' takes 35s less time than train 'B' to
cross the tunnel then, length 'L' of tunnel is:
(Given L = 60 l)
(1) 2700 m (2) 1800 m (3) 1200 m (4) 900 m
Sol. (2)
 L
A
4 L
B
5
VA  108   30m / s
18
5
VB  72   20m / s
18
L 4 L
TA  ,TB 
30 20
TA  TB  35
L 4 L
  35
30 20
Given, L = 60 
61 64
  35
30 20
192  122
 35
60
70  60  35
 30m
L  60  1800m
39. Two bodies are having kinetic energies in the ratio 16 : 9. If they have same linear momentum, the ratio of their
masses respectively is:
(1) 16 : 9 (2) 4 : 3 (3) 9 : 16 (4) 3 : 4
Sol. (3)
P2
Kinetic energy, KE 
2m
k1 m 2

k 2 m1
16 m 2

9 m1
m1 9

m 2 16
40. The figure shows a liquid of given density flowing steadily in horizontal tube of varying cross – section. Cross
sectional areas at A is 1.5 cm2, and B is 25 mm2, if the speed of liquid at B is 60 cm/s then (PA – PB) is:
(Given PA and PB are liquid pressures at A and B points)
Density  = 1000 kg m–3
A and B are on the axis of tube
(1) 175 Pa (2) 36 Pa (3) 27 Pa (4) 135 Pa

Sol. (1)
By equation of continuity,
A1V1 = A2V2
(1.5 × 10–4) VA = (25 × 10–6) 60 cm/s
VA = 10 cm/s
By Bernoulli’s theorem,
1 1
PA   VA2  PB  VB2
2 2

PA  PB  (VB2  VA2 )
2
1000
PA  PB  (60 2  10 2 )  10 4
2
PA  PB  175Pa
41. 238
92 A 234
90 B  24 D  Q
In the given nuclear reaction, the approximate amount of energy released will be:
2
[Given, mass of 238
92 A = 238.05079 × 931.5 MeV/c ,
2
mass of 234
90 B = 234.04363 × 931.5 MeV/c ,
mass of 42 D = 4.00260 × 931.5 MeV/c2]

(1) 4.25 MeV (2) 5.9 MeV (3) 3.82 MeV (4) 2.12 MeV
Sol. (1)
Q  m C 2
Q  (238.05079  234.04363  4.00260)  931.5MeV
Q  0.00456  931.5MeV
Q = 4.25 MeV
42. A disc is rolling without slipping on a surface. The radius of the disc is R. At t = 0, the top most point on the
disc is A as shown in figure. When the disc completes half of its rotation, the displacement of point A from its
initial position is
(1) 2R 1  42  (2) R   2  4  (3) 2R (4) R   2  1

Sol. (2)
A
2R
A′
πR
Displacement = A ' A
A 'A  (  R) 2  (2R) 2
A 'A  R 2  4
43. Which graph represents the difference between total energy and potential energy of a particle executing SHM
vs it's distance from mean position?
(1) w (2)
(3) (4)
Sol. (2)
Total energy in SHM = E
E=K+U
E–U=K
1
E – U = m2 (A 2  x 2 )
2
E–U
–A 0 +A
x
44. Two charges each of magnitude 0.01 C and separated by a distance of 0.4 mm constitute an electric dipole. If
the dipole is placed in an uniform electric field ' E ' of 10 dyne/C making 30° angle with E , the magnitude of
torque acting on dipole is
(1) 1.5 × 10–9 Nm (2) 2.0 × 10–10 Nm (3) 1.0 × 10–8 Nm (4) 4.0 × 10–10 Nm
Sol. (2)
Dipole moment, P = qd
P = 0.01 × 0.4 × 10–3
P = 4 × 10–6 C-m
Torque,   pE sin 
  4  10 6  (10  10 5 )  sin 30 
  4  10 10 N  m
45. Under isothermal condition, the pressure of a gas is given by P = aV–3, where a is a constant and V is the volume
of the gas. The bulk modulus at constant temperature is equal to
P
(1) (2) 2P (3) P (4) 3P
2
Sol. (4)
P  aV 3
dP
 3aV 4
dV
dP
Bulk modulus, B   V
dV
 3a 
B  V  4 
 V 
a
B  3 3  3P
V
46. A planet having mass 9 Me and radius 4Re, where Me and Re are mass and radius of earth respectively, has
escape velocity in km/s given by:
(Given escape velocity on earth Ve = 11.2 × 103 m/s)
(1) 11.2 (2) 67.2 (3) 33.6 (4) 16.8
Sol. (4)
2GM
Escape velocity, ve 
R
2G(9m e ) 3
Vp = = (Ve)earth
4Re 2
3
vp   11.2 km / s
2
vp  16.8 km / s
47. A body of mass (5  0.5) kg is moving with a velocity of (20 ± 0.4) m/s. Its kinetic energy will be
(1) (1000 ± 140) J (2) (500 ± 140) J (3) (500 ± 0.14) J (4) (1000 ± 0.14) J
Sol. (1)
1
Kinetic energy, KE  mv 2
2
1
KE   5  20 2
2
KE  1000 J
K m 2 v
 
K m v
K 0.5 0.4
  2
1000 5 20
K  1000(0.1  0.04)
K  1000  0.14
K  140 J
KE  (1000  140) J
48. The difference between threshold wavelengths for two metal surfaces A and B having work function A = 9 eV
and B = 4.5 eV in nm is:
{Given, hc = 1242 eV nm}
(1) 276 (2) 264 (3) 540 (4) 138
Sol. (4)
hc


1242
A   138 nm
9
1242
B   276 nm
4.5
 B –  A  276  138  138 nm
49. The source of time varying magnetic field may be

(A) A permanent magnet
(B) An electric field changing linearly with time
(C) Direct current
(D) A decelerating charge particle
(E) An antenna fed with a digital signal
(1) (B) and (D) only (2) (C) and (E) only (3) (D) only (4) (A) only
Sol. (3)
Accelerated charge particle produces EMW which has time varying E and B.
If E is linear function of time then B will be constant.
50. A vessel of depth 'd' is half filled with oil of refractive index n1 and the other half is filled with water of refractive
index n2. The apparent depth of this vessel when viewed from above will be -
d(n1  n 2 ) d n1n 2 d n1n 2 2d(n1  n 2 )
(1) (2) (3) (4)
2n1n 2  n1  n 2  2  n1  n 2  n1 n 2
Sol. (1)
d  d n 2d
 
n 
app 1
2n1
2 1 
 n2 
d  
d
d 
app 1
 2
app 2
n2
 n2 d
  1
 1 2
n
n2
 n1  n 2  d
d 
app 2 
2n1n 2
SECTION – B
51. When a resistance of 5  is shunted with a moving coil galvanometer, it shows a full scale deflection for a
current of 250 mA, however when 1050  resistance is connected with it in series, it gives full scale deflection
for 25 volt. The resistance of galvanometer is __________ .
Sol. (50)
For ammeter,
Ig (G)  (250  Ig )5
1250
Ig  mA
5G
For voltmeter,
V  Ig R
25  Ig (G  1050)
From equation (1),
1250  10 3
25  (G  1050)
G5
20(G  5)  G  1050
19 G = 1050 – 100
950
G  50
19
52. The radius of 2nd orbit of He+ of Bohr's model is r1 and that of fourth orbit of Be3+ is represented as r2. Now the
r2
ratio is x : 1. The value of x is __________
r1
Sol. (2)
n2
r
Z
2
r2  n 2  z1
  
r1  n1  z 2
2
r2  4  2
  
r1  2  4
r2
2
r1
x2
53. A solid sphere is rolling on a horizontal plane without slipping. If the ratio of angular momentum about axis
of rotation of the sphere to the total energy of moving sphere is  : 22 the, the value of its angular speed will
be rad/s.
Sol. (4)
Angular momentum,
L  I
2
L  MR 2 
5
1 1
Energy  MV 2  I2
2 2
1 12 
E M( R) 2   MR 2  2
2 2 5 
7
 M2 R 2
10
L 4 
 
E 7 22
88 88
   4 rad / s
7 22
7
7
54. A fish rising vertically upward with a uniform velocity of 8 ms –1, observes that a bird is diving vertically
4
downward towards the fish with the velocity of 12 ms–1. If the refractive index of water is , then the actual
3
velocity of the diving bird to pick the fish, will be ______________ ms–1.
Sol. (3)
dapp  d1  d
vapp  v1  v
4
12  8  v
3
4
4 v
3
v  3m / s
55. The elastic potential energy stored in a steel wire of length 20 m stretched through 2 cm is 80 J. The cross
sectional area of the wire is ___________ mm2.
(Given, y = 2.0 × 1011 Nm–2)
Sol. (40)
1
Energy, U  kx 2
2
1
80  k(2  10 2 ) 2
2
160
k
4  10 4
k  4  10 5 N / m
yA
 4  105
4  105  20
A
2  1011
A  40  106 m 2
A  40mm 2
56. From the given transfer characteristic of a transistor in CE configuration, the value of power gain of this
configuration is 10x, for RB = 10 k , RC = 1 k . The value of x is ______________
Sol. (3)
IC
Current gain,  
I B
10mA

100A
  100
RC
Power gain  2
RB
1
 10 4 
10
 103
So, x  3
Ea
57. In the given figure, an inductor and a resistor are connected in series with a batter of emf E volt. J/s
2b
represents the maximum rate at which the energy is stored in the magnetic field (inductor). The numerical value
b
of will be _____________
a
Sol. (25)
1 2
U LI
2
I  I 0 1  e  t /  
dU
Rate of energy, P 
dt
dI
P  LI
dt
dP  d 2 I  dI  2 
 L I 2    
dt  dt  dt  

dP
For maximum rate, 0
dt
2
d2I  dI 
I     ….. (1)
 dt 
2
dt
I  I 0 1  e t /  
dI I0  t / 
 e
dt 
d2I I
  02 e  t / 
dt 2 
By equation (1),
I 0  t /   I 02 2 t / 
I 0 1  e  t /    e  2 e
2 
Let e  t /   x
x  x2  x2
1
x
2
Maximum power,
dI
P  LI
dt
 1  I 1 
P  L I0 1   0  
 2   2 
L I 02 I2 R
P  0
L 4
4
R
E2
P
4R
a  2, 2b  4R
b  2R  50
b
 25
a
58. A potential Vo is applied across a uniform wire of resistance R. The power dissipation is P 1. The wire is then
cut into two equal halves and a potential of Vo is applied across the length of each half. The total power
dissipation across two wires is P2. The ratio P2 : P1 is x :1 . The value of x is _______________
Sol. (16)
v2
P1  0
R
v 02 v2
P2   0
R R
   
2 2
P2  4P1
P2 4 x
 
P1 1 1
x  16
59. At a given point of time the value of displacement of a simple harmonic oscillator is given as y = A cos (30°).
If amplitude is 40 cm and kinetic energy at that time is 200 J, the value of force constant is 1.0 × 10x Nm–1. The
value of x is ___________
Sol. (4)
v   A2  x 2
3
y  A
2
3A 2 A
v   A2  
4 2
Given, KE  200 J
1 2 A 2
m  200
2 4
KA 2  1600  K  m 
2
1600
K
 40 10 2 2
K  10 4 N / m
x4
60. A thin infinite sheet charge and an infinite line charge of respective charge densities +  and +  are placed
3 4
parallel at 5 m distance from each other. Points 'P' and 'Q' are at m and m perpendicular distances from
 
line charge towards sheet charge, respectively. 'EP' and 'EQ' are the magnitudes of resultant electric field
E 4
intensities at point 'P' and 'Q' respectively. If P  for 2 | | = |  |, then the value of a is ___________
EQ a
Sol. (6)
λ
σ 4
+ m
+ π
+ +
+ +
+ + Q P
+
+ +
+ 3
π
m
5m
2K 
EP  –
r 2 0
 
EP  
2 0 3
2 0  

2 2 
EP   
20 60 60
 2 
Similarly, E Q   
2 0   4 0
4
2 0  

EP 4

EQ 6
a=6
SECTION - A
Statement I: Permutit process is more efficient compared to the synthetic resin method for the softening of
water.
Statement II: Synthetic resin method results in the formation of soluble sodium salts.
(1) Both the Statements I and II are correct
(4) Both the Statements I and II are incorrect
Sol. 4
Nowadays hard water is softened by using synthetic ion exchangers. This method is more efficient than zeolite
process/Permutit process
62. Which one of the following is most likely a mismatch?

(1) Zinc - Liquation (2) Copper – Electrolysis
(3) Titanium - van Arkel Method (4) Nickel - Mond process
Sol. 1
Zinc is refined by distillation method, which is used for metals having low boiling point.
63. The energy of an electron in the first Bohr orbit of hydrogen atom is –2.18  10 –18 J . Its energy in the third Bohr
orbit is__________.
1 1
(1) of this value (2) th of this value
27 9
(3) One third of this value (4) Three times of this value
Sol. 2
E1,1 = –2.18 × 10–18 J
12
E 3,1  E1,1 
32
1
E 3,1   E1,1
9
64.
In the above reaction, left hand side and right hand side rings are named as ' A ' and ' B ' respectively. They
undergo ring expansion. The correct statement for this process is:
(1) Finally both rings will become six membered each.
(2) Ring expansion can go upto seven membered rings
(3) Finally both rings will become five membered each.
(4) Only A will become 6 membered.
Sol. 1
65. Match The following

Column–A Column–B
a) Nylon 6 I. Natural Rubber
b) Vulcanized Rubber II. Cross Linked
c) cis–1, 4–polyisoprene III. Caprolactam
d) Polychloroprene IV. Neoprene
Choose the correct answer from options given below:
(1) aII, aIII, cIV, dI (2) aIV, bIII, cII, dI
(3) aIII, bII, cI, dIV (4) aIII, bIV, cI, dII
Sol. 3
Nylon-6 - Caprolactum (Monomer)
Natural rubber- Isoprene (Monomer)
Vulcanized rubber - Sulphur containing rubber
Neoprene- Chloroprene (Monomer)
66. What happens when a lyophilic sol is added to a lyophobic sol?

(1) Film of lyophobic sol is formed over lyophilic sol.
(2) Lyophilic sol is dispersed in lyophobic sol.
(3) Lyophobic sol is coagulated
(4) Film of lyophilic sol is formed over lyophobic sol.
Sol. 4
Protective film of lyophilic sol is formed over lyophobic sol.
Which protects it from coagulation.
67. In the reaction given below
‘B’ is:
(1) (2)
(3) (4)
Sol. 3
68. In the following reaction ‘X’ is

CH 3 (CH 2 ) 4 CH 3  
Anhy.AlCl
3
HCl
'X '
major product

(1) CH 3 (CH 2 ) 4 CH 2 Cl (2)
(3) Cl – CH 2 – (CH 2 ) 4 – CH 2 – Cl (4)

Sol. 4
n-alkanes on heating in this presence of anhydrous A1Cl3 and hydrogen chloride gas isomerise to branched
chain alkanes. The major product has one methyl side chain.
CH 3 – (CH 2 ) 4 – CH 3 
Anhy.AlCl3
HCl, 
 CH3 – CH – (CH2)2 – CH3
CH3
2- methylpentane
(major)
69. 2-Methyl propyl bromide reacts with C2H5 O– and gives 'A' whereas on reaction with C2 H5OH it gives 'B'. The
mechanism followed in these reactions and the products 'A' and 'B' respectively are :
(1) SN 1, A= tert-butyl ethyl ether; SN1, B= 2-butyl ethyl ether
(2) SN2, A= 2-butyl ethyl ether; SN2, B= iso-butyl ethyl ether
(3) SN2, A= iso-butyl ethyl ether; SN1, B= tert-butyl ethyl ether
(4) SN1, A= tert-butyl ethyl ether; SN2, B= iso-butyl ethyl ether
Sol. 3
C2H5OH is weak nucleophile.
70. In the reaction given below
‘A’ is
(1) (2)
(3) (4)
Sol. 2
D–(+) Glyceraldehyde  

i)HCN
71.
ii)H 2 O/H
iii) HNO3
The products formed in the above reaction are
(1) Two optically active products
(2) One optically inactive and one meso product.
(3) One optically active and one meso product
(4) Two optically inactive products
Sol. 3
72. CIF5 at room temperature is a:
(1) Colourless liquid with square pyramidal geometry
(2) Colourless gas with trigonal bipyramidal geometry
(3) Colourless gas with square pyramidal geometry
(4) Colourless liquid with trigonal bipyramidal geometry
Sol. 1
ClF5 is colourless liquid.
73. The pair of lanthanides in which both elements have high third - ionization energy is:
(1) Dy, Gd (2) Eu,Gd (3) Lu,Yb (4) Eu,Yb
Sol. 4
Eu 2 :[Xe]4f 7 
14 
2
High IE due to half filled & fully filled configurations
Yb :[Xe]4f  
74. The mismatched combinations are

A. Chlorophyll - Co
B. Water hardness - EDTA
C. Photography -[Ag(CN)2]–
D. Wilkinson catalyst - [(Ph3P)3 RhCl]
E. Chelating ligand - D-Penicillamine
(1) A and C Only (2) D and E Only (3) A and E Only (4) A, C, and E Only
Sol. 1
Mg is present in chlorophyll and in black and white photography the developed film is fixed by washing with
hypo solution which dissolves the undecomposed AgBr to form a complex ion [ Ag(S2O3)2]3–
75. Which of the following statements are not correct ?
A. The electron gain enthalpy of F is more negative than that of Cl.
B. Ionization enthalpy decreases in a group of periodic table.
C. The electronegativity of an atom depends upon the atoms bonded to it.
D. Al2O3 and NO are examples of amphoteric oxides.
Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below :
(1) A, C and D Only (2) B and D Only (3) A, B and D Only (4) A, B, C and D
Sol. 1
Electronegativity of an element depends on the atom with which it is attached.
NO = neutral oxide
Al 2 O 3 = amphoteric oxide
76. The radical which mainly causes ozone depletion in the presence of UV radiations is :

(1) NO (2) O H (3) CH 3 (4) Cl
Sol. 4
O 2 (g) 
UV
O(g)  O(g)
O 2 (g)  O(g) 
 O 3 (g)
 
CF2 Cl2 (g) 
UV
Cl(g)  CF2 Cl(g)
 
Cl(g)  O3 (g) 
 ClO(g)  O2 (g)
 
ClO(g)  O(g) 
 Cl(g)  O2 (g)
77. In which of the following processes, the bond order increases and paramagnetic character changes to
diamagnetic one?
(1) O 2  O 2 (2) O2  O22 (3) NO  NO  (4) N2  N2
Sol. 3
NO is paramagnetic with BO = 2.5, NO+ is diamagnetic with BO = 3
78. The incorrect statement from the following for borazine is:
(1) It is a cyclic compound. (2) It has electronic delocalization.
(3) It can react with water. (4) It contains banana bonds.
Sol. 4
Borazine is B3N3H6
B3N3H6 + 9H2O  3NH3 + 3H3BO3 + 3H2
79. Among the following compounds, the one which shows highest dipole moment is
(1) (2)
(3) (4)
Sol. 2
Among the given compounds, the following compound has the highest dipole moment because both the +ve
and -ve ends acquire aromaticity.
80. Be(OH)2 reacts with Sr(OH)2 to yield an ionic salt. Choose the incorrect option related to this reaction from the
following :
(1) Be is tetrahedrally coordinated in the ionic salt.
(2) The reaction is an example of acid - base neutralization reaction.
(3) The element Be is present in the cationic part of the ionic salt.
(4) Both Sr and Be elements are present in the ionic salt.
Sol. 3
Be(OH)2 is amphoteric in nature.
Sr(OH)2 is basic in nature.
These two undergo acid – base reaction to form a salt.
Be(OH) 2  Sr(OH) 2  Sr[Be(OH) 4 ]
(salt)
SECTION - B
81. Solution of 12 g of non-electrolyte (A) prepared by dissolving it in 1000 mL of water exerts the same osmotic
pressure as that of 0.05M glucose solution at the same temperature. The empirical formula of A is CH 2O. The
molecular mass of A is____________ g. (Nearest integer)
Sol. 240
 = glucose
CART = CRT
12 / M A
 0.05
1
12 1200
MA(Molar mass of A) =   240gm
0.05 5
82. KMnO4 is titrated with ferrous ammonium sulphate hexahydrate in presence of dilute H2SO4. Number of water
molecules produced for 2 molecules of KMnO4 is_________.
Sol. 68
2KMnO4 + 8H2SO4 + 10FeSO4·(NH4)2 SO4·6H2O  K2SO4 + 2MnSO4 + 5 Fe2(SO4)3 + 10 (NH4)2SO4 + 68H2O
On the basis of above equation,
68 molecules of water will be produced from 2 molecules of KMnO4.
83. 20 mL of calcium hydroxide was consumed when it was reacted with 10 mL of unknown solution of H 2SO4.
Also 20 mL standard solution of 0.5MHCl containing 2 drops of phenolphthalein was titrated with calcium
hydroxide, the mixture showed pink colour when burette displayed the value of 35.5 mL whereas the burette
showed 25.5 mL initially. The concentration of H2SO4 is____________ M.(Nearest integer)
Sol. 1
miliequivalent of Ca(OH)2 = miliequivalent of H2SO4
M1 × 2 × 20 = M2 × 2 × 10
2M1  M 2
miliequivalent of HCl = miliequivalent of Ca(OH)2
20 × 0.5 = 10 × M1 × 2
M1 = 0.5 M
Concentration of H2SO4 = M2 = 2M1
= 2 × 0.5
=1M
84. t 87.5 is the time required for the reaction to undergo 87.5% completion and t50 is the time required for the reaction
to undergo 50% completion. The relation between t 87.5 and t 50 for a first order reaction is ____________ t 87.5
= x × t 50 . The value of x is____________ . (Nearest integer)
Sol. 3
t t t
A0 1/2 A0/2 1/2 A0/4 1/2 A0/8
t7/8 = t87.5% = 3t1/2
85. A certain quantity of real gas occupies a volume of 0.15 dm3 at 100 atm and 500 K when its compressibility
factor is 1.07 . Its volume at 300 atm and 300 K (When its compressibility factor is 1.4 ) is × 10 –4 dm 3 . (Nearest
integer)
Sol. 392
PV
Z
nRT
Z1  P1V1   nRT2 
  
Z 2  nRT1   P2 V2 
1.07  100  0.15   300 
  
1.4  500   300  V2 
0.03  1.4
V2   0.03925
1.07
= 392 × 10–4 dm3
86. A metal surface of 100cm 2 area has to be coated with nickel layer of thickness 0.001 mm. A current of 2A was
passed through a solution of Ni(NO 3 ) 2 for 'x' seconds to coat the desired layer. The value of x is____________.
(Nearest integer)
( Ni (density of Nickel) is 10 g mL–1 , Molar mass of Nickel is 60 g mol –1 F = 96500 C mol –1 )
Sol. 161
Volume of nickel required = 100 × 0.001 × 10–3 × 100
= 0.01 cm3
Mass of Nickel required = 0.01 × 10
= 0.1 gm
0.1 1
Moles =  mol
60 600
Ni2+ + 2e–  Ni(s)
for coating of 1 mol Ni, charge required = 2 × 96500 C
1 1
for coating of mol, charge required = 2  96500  C
600 600
965
= C
3
q
I
t
965
t= 3 = 160.83 sec  161
2
87. 25.0 mL of 0.050 MBa(NO3)2 is mixed with 25.0 mL of 0.020 M NaF. Ksp of BaF2 is 0.5  10 –6 at 298 K. The
ratio of [Ba 2 ][F– ]2 and K sp is_______________. (Nearest integer)
Sol. 5
25  0.05
 Ba 2    0.025M
  50
25  0.02
F–    0.01M
  50
2
 Ba 2   F –   25  10 7
  
K sp  5  10 –7 (given)
2
 Ba 2   F – 
Ratio     5
K sp
88. A 2  B 2  2AB . H0f  –200kJ mol –1 new line AB, A 2 and B 2 are diatomic molecules. If the bond enthalpies
of A 2 , B 2 and AB are in the ratio 1 : 0.5:1, then the bond enthalpy of A 2 is _________kJ mol –1 . (Nearest
integer)
Sol. 800
A2 + B2  2AB H f  –200kJ / mol
Bond enthalpy of A2 = x
Bond enthalpy of B2 = 0.5 x
Bond enthalpy of AB = x
H f = x + 0.5 x – 2x = –2(200)
–0.5x = – 400
400
x=  800kJ / mol
0.5
Bond enthalpy of A2 = x = 800 kJ/mol
89. An organic compound gives 0.220 g of CO2 and 0.126 g of H2O on complete combustion. If the % of carbon is
24 then the % of hydrogen is ____________  10 –1 . ( Nearest integer)
Sol. 56
0.220
 12
% of carbon = 44  100
x
(x = mass of organic compound)
6
24 
x
x = 0.25 gm
0.126
 2 1
% of H = 18  100
0.25
= 5.6 = 56 × 10–1
90. For the given reaction
The total number of possible products formed by tertiary carbocation of A is___________.

Sol. 5
SECTION - A
1. The area of the region  x.y  : x  y  x
2 2

 4 , y  1 is:
(1)
3
4

4 2 1  (2)  4 2  1
4
3
(3)
3
4
 
4 2 1 (4)
4
3
 
4 2 1
Sol. (2)
0
–2 0 2
–2
2 4
 4
Required area = 2   ydy   4  ydy    4 2  1
1 2  3
cxe cx
eax  cos  bx  
2. If lim 2  17 , then 5a2+b2 is equal to
x 0 1  cos  2x 
(1) 76 (2) 72 (3) 64 (4) 68
Sol. (4)
cxecx
eax  cos bx 
lim 2  17
x 0 1  cos 2x
On expansion
 (ax) 2   (bx) 2  cx  (cx) 2 
1  ax   ...   1   ...   1  cx  
lim  2!   2!  2 2! 
 17
x 0  1  cos 2 x 
  (2 x)
2
 2
 (2x) 
 c  a 2 b2 c2 
x  a    x2    
 2  2 2 2
lim  17
x 0 1 2
(4x )
2
For limit to be exist
c
a   0  c  2a
2
a 2 b 2 c2
 
 2 2 2  17
2
a 2 b 2 4a 2
    34
2 2 2
 5a 2  b2  68
x  3 y 1 z  5
3. The line, that is coplanar to the line   , is
3 1 5
x 1 y  2 z  5 x 1 y  2 z  5
(1)   (2)  
1 2 5 1 2 5
x 1 y  2 z  5 x 1 y  2 z  5
(3)   (4)  
1 2 4 1 2 4
Sol. (1)
Condition of co-planarity
x 2  x1 a 1 a 2
y 2  y1 b1 b 2  0
z 2  z1 c1 c 2
Where a1, b1, c1 are direction cosine of 1st line and a2, b2, c2 are direction cosine of 2nd line.
Now. Solving options
Point (-3, 1, 5) & point (-1, 2, 5)
3 1 5
1 1 2 5
2 1 0
= –3(5) – (10) + 5(– 1 + 4)
= – 15 – 10 + 15 = – 10
(2) point (–1, 2, 5)
3 1 5
1 2 5
2 1 0
= 3(5) – (10) + 5(1 + 4)
– 25 + 5 = 0
(3) point (-1, 2, 5)
3 1 5
1 2 4
2 1 0
–3(4) – (8) + 5(1 + 4)
–12 –8 + 25 = 5
(4) point (–1, 2, 5)
3 1 5
1 2 5
4 1 0
–3(–5) – (–20) + 5(–1 – 8)
15 + 20 – 45=–10
4. The plane, passing through the points (0, -1, 2) and (-1, 2, 1) and parallel to the line passing through (5,1,-7)
and (1,-1,-1), also passes through the point
(1) (0, 5, -2) (2) (-2, 5, 0)
(3) (2, 0, 1) (4) (1, -2, 1)
Sol. (2)
Plane passing through (0, –1, 0) and (–1, 2, 1)
Then vector in plane 1,3, 1 vector parallel to plane is 4,2, 6
î ˆj kˆ
Normal vector to plane  n   1 3 1
4 2 6
 î 16   ˆj 10   kˆ  14 

n  8,5,7
Equation of plane
8(x – 0) + 5(y+1) + 7(z - 2) = 0
 8x + 5y + 7z = 9
From given options point (-2, 5, 0) lies on plane.
5. Let for a triangle ABC,

AB  2iˆ  ˆj  3kˆ
CB  î  ˆj  kˆ
CA  4iˆ  3jˆ  kˆ
If  > 0 and the area of the triangle ABC is 5 6 , then CB . CA is equal to
(1) 108 (2) 60 (3) 54 (4) 120
Sol. (2)
5.
C B
< α, β, γ >
CA  AB  CB
4,3,  .  2,1,3  CB
 CB  2, 4,3  
î ˆj kˆ
AB  AC  2 1 3
4 3 
 ˆ  9     ˆj  2  12  k 10
AB  AC   9      2  12   10 
2 2 2 2
 52  30  325

Area of ABC  5 6
1
 AB  AC  5 6
2
2
 AB  AC  600
 52  30  275  0
 S2  6  55  0
    11   5  0
5
CB  2,3,8 
CB.CA.   2, 4,8  .  4,3,5 
 8  12  40  60
 1 2 3
6. Let for A=  3 1  , A  2. If |2 adj (2 adj (2A))| = 32n, then 3n +  is equal to
 1 1 2 
(1) 10 (2) 9 (3) 12 (4) 11
Sol. (4)
|A| = 2
adj(kA) = km–1 adjA {m = order of matrix}
2
adj(2A) = 2 adjA = 4adj(A)
adj (2adj (2A)) = adj (8adj A)
= 82 adj adj (A)
|2 adj 2adj (2A)| = |27 adj adj (A)|
2
= (27 )3 | A |2
= 221 | A |4
= 221.24
 225  (32) n
 225  25n
 n=5
|A| = 2
(6 1)  2(2 1)  3(  3)  2
 5  4  2  3  9
   4
3n    11
 x2 
7. The range of f(x) = 4 sin-1  2  is
 x 1
(1) [0, π) (2) [0, π] (3) [0, 2π) (4) [0, 2π]
Sol. (3)
 x2 
f (x)  4sin 1  2 
1 x 
x2
0 1
1  x2
 x2  
 0  sin 1  2 

1 x  2
 x2 
 0  4sin 1  2 
 2
1 x 
Range : [0,2)
8. Let a1, a2, a3, .... be a G. P. of increasing positive numbers. Let the sum of its 6th and 8th terms be 2 and the
1
product of its 3rd and 5th terms be . Then 6(a2 + a4) (a4+ a6) is equal to
9
(1) 2 (2) 3 (3) 3 3 (4) 2 2
Sol. (2)
1
a 3 .a 5 
9
1
 ar 2 .ar 4 
9
  1
2
 ar 3 
9
1
 ar 3  …(i)
3
a 6  a8  2
 ar5  ar 7  2
 ar 3 (r 2  r 4 )  2
1
 r 2 (1  r 2 )  2
3
 r 2 (1  r 2 )  2  3
 r2  2  r  2
 
a  3
3 r
  1
  
3 2 2 6 2
6(a 2  a 4 )(a 4  a 6 )
 6(ar  ar 3 )(ar 3  ar 5 )
 ar 3 1   1 1 
 6 2     r2   3
 r 3  3 3 
9. If the system of equations
2x+y -z=5
2x-5y+z=
x+2y-5z=7
has infinitely many solutions, then (+)2 + (-)2 is equal to
(1) 904 (2) 916 (3) 912 (4) 920
Sol. 2
Δ0
2 1 1
 2 5 λ  0
1 2 5
 2(25  2 λ) 1(10  λ) 1(4  5)  0
 51  3x  0
 λ  17
Δx  0
5 1 1
 5 17  0
7 2 5
 5(25  34) 1(5 119) 1(2  35)  0
 45  5  119  2  35  0
 39  3  0    13
(  ) 2  (  ) 2  42  (30) 2
 916
10. The statement (p  (~q))  ((~p)  q)  ((~p)  (~q)) is equivalent to _____.

(1) (~ p)  ( ~ q) (2) (~p)  (~ q) (3) p  (~q) (4) p  q
Sol. (1)
 p ~ q    ~ p  q    ~ p ~ q 
P q
p ~ q 
P q
~ pq 
P q
~ p ~ q 
P q
 p ~ q    ~ p  q  ~ p ~ q 
 , 
(~ p)  (~ q)
Plane passing through  0, 1, 2
and  1,2,1
then vector in plane  1,3, 1 
vector parallel to plane is  4, 2, 6 
normal vector to plane L 2
ˆl ˆj kˆ
 n   1 3 1
4 2 6
 i  16  ˆj 10  kˆ  14

n  8,5,7 
Equation of plane
8  x  0  5  y  1  7  z  2  0
 8x  5y  7z  9
From given options point  2,5,0
lies on plane.
11.   
Let S  z  C : z  i z 2  Re  z  . Then  z is equal to
z S
2
7 5
(1) 4 (2) (3) 3 (4)
2 2
Sol. (1)
Let z = x + iy
z  i(z 2  Re(z))
 x  iy  i(x 2  y 2  2ixy  x)
 x  iy  2xy  i(x 2  y 2  x)
x  2xy  0 and x 2  y 2  x  y  0
x(1  2y)  0 and x 2  y 2  x  y  0
If x = 0 then  y2  y  0
 y  1,0
1 1 1
If y then x 2   x   0
2 4 2
3 1
x ,
2 2
 3 1 1 1 
 0  i0,0  i,   i,  i 
 2 2 2 2 
9 1 1 1
 | Z |2  0  1      4
ZS 4 4 4 4
12. Let ,  be the roots of the equation x2  2x +2=0, Then 14+  is equal to
(1) 128 2 (2) 64 2 (3) –128 (4) –64
Sol. (3)
x2 2x 2 0
2  6
x
2
1 i 3 
 2  
 2 
  2,  22
   2,    22
14  14  27 (14  28 )  27 (2  )  –128

   
2
13. Let a =2, b = 3 and the angle between the vectors a and b be . Then a  2b  2a  3b is equal to
4
(1) 482 (2) 841 (3) 882 (4) 441
Sol. (3)
   a.b
cos   
4 a b
1 a.b
   a.b  3 2
2  2  3
Let p  a  2b
q  2a  3b
 
2
p  a  4 b  4 a.b
2 2
 4  36  12 2
 40  12 2
 
2
q  4 a  9 b  12 a  b
2 2
 16  81  36 2
 97  36 2
2
p.q  2 a  6 b  a.b
2
 8  54  3 2
 46  3 2
p  q   p q    p.q 
2 2
    
2
 40  12 2 97  36 2  3 2  46

 3016  276 2  2134  276 2   
 882

 4

e 4
  e x tan 50 xdx
0
14. The value of 
is
 e  tan x  tan 51x  dx

4
x 49
(1) 25 (2) 51 (3) 50 (4) 49

Sol. (3)
 /4

e
x
let I 1  e 4
 tan 50 xdx
0

 e  tan x  tan 51 x  dx
4
x
I2  49
0

  e  x tan 49 x  sec 2 x  dx
4
0
 
tan 50 x 4
1 4
e
x x
e  tan 50 xdx
50 0
50 0
  /4
e 4 1 I1
e
x
  tan 50 xdx 
50 50 0
50
I1
then  50
I2
5
 1 
15. The coefficient of x5 in the expansion of  2x 3  2  is
 3x 
80 26
(1) (2) 8 (3) 9 (4)
9 3
Sol. (1)
5
 1 
general term for  2x 3  2 
 3x 
r
 1 
Tr 1  5Cr   2  (2x 3 )5 r
 3x 
 5Cr (1)r 3 r 25r.x155r
15  5r  5  r  2
Coeff. Of x 5  5C2 (1)2 32 23
1
 10   8
9
80
=
9
16. The random variable X follows binomial distribution B (n, p), for which the difference of the mean and the
variance is 1. If 2P(x = 2) = 3P(x = 1), then n2P(X > 1) is equal to
(1) 16 (2) 11 (3) 12 (4) 15
Sol. 2
2P(x  2)  3P(x  1)
2  n c 2 P 2 (1  P) n  2  3 n c1P1 (1  P) n 1
n(n  1)
2  P  3n(1  P)
2
 (n 1)P  3(1  P) (i)
nP  nPq  1
 nP  nP(1  p)  1
1
 nP 2  1  n  2
p
 put in equ (i)
 1 
 2  1 P  3(1  p)
p 
1
 P  3  3P
p
 1  P 2  3P  3p 2
 2P2  3P  1  0
 2P2  2P  P  1  0
 2P(P 1) 1(P 1)  0
1
 P  , P  1{Re jected}
2
1
n 4
(1/ 2) 2
n 2 P(x  1)  n 2 p(1  P(x  0)  P(x  1))
 n 2 P 1  (1  P)n  nP(1  P)n 1 
  1 4 2 
4
 (4) 1     4   
2
 2  2  

 16  1  4  11
17. Let the centre of a circle C be (,) and its radius r < 8. Let 3x + 4y =24 and 3x – 4y = 32 be two tangents and
4x + 3y =1 be a normal to C. Then (–  +r) is equal to
(1) 5 (2) 6 (3) 7 (4) 9
Sol. (3)
L1
 , 
L2
Centre lies on normal

 4  3  1
Distance of  ,  from L1 and L 2 are equal

3  4  24 3  4  32

5 5
3  4  24  3  4  32 3  4  24  3  4  32
 6  56 8  8
28 109
   ,    1,   1
3 3
  109
2 2
 28 
r    4    5  8   4 1   5  1 5
2 2
 3   3 
(reject)      7
18. Let N be the foot of perpendicular from the point P (1, –2, 3) on the line passing through the points (4, 5, 8) and
(1, –7. 5). Then the distance of N from the plane 2x–2y+z+5=0 is
(1) 6 (2) 7 (3) 9 (4) 8
Sol. (2)
P 1,  2,3
x−1 y+7 z−5

L: = = =λ
1 4 1
N ሺℓ + 1, 4ℓ − 7, ℓ + 5ሻ
PN  , 4  5,   2
PN.  1, 4,1  0
   16  20    2  0
  1
N  2, 3,6
Distance of N from 2x  2y  z  5  0 is
2  2   2  3  6  5
d
22   2   1
2 2
21
 7
3
19. All words, with or without meaning, are made using all the letters of the word MONDAY. These words are
written as in a dictionary with serial numbers. The serial number of the word MONDAY is
(1) 328 (2) 327 (3) 324 (4) 326
Sol. (2)
5!
A 120
5!
D 120
4!
M A 24
4!
M D  24
4!
M N  24
3!
M O A 6
3!
M O D 6
2!
M O N A 2
M O N D A Y 1
Rank = 120 + 120 + 24 + 24 + 24 + 6 + 6 + 2 + 1
= 327
20. Let (, ) be the centroid of the triangle formed by the lines 15x–y = 82, 6x–5y= –4 and 9x + 4y =17. Then
 + 2 and  –  are the roots of the equation
(1) x2–13x+42=0 (2 )x2–10x+25=0 (3) x2–7x+12=0 (4) x2–14x+48=0
Sol. (1)
A (6,8)
Cሺ1,2ሻ Bሺ5, −7ሻ

9𝑥 + 4𝑦 = 17
 6 1 5 8  7  2 
Centroid  ,     ,    4,1
 3 3 
  2  4  2  6
2   8 1  7
Quadratic equation
x2   6  7 x  6  7  0
 x 2 13x  42  0
SECTION - B
21. Let A={-4,-3,-2,0,1,3,4} and R = {(a, b) A×A: b = |a| or b2 = a+ 1} be a relation on A. Then the minimum
number of elements, that must be added to the relation R so that it becomes reflexive and symmetric, is
_________
Sol. (7)
R = [(–4, 4), (–3, 3), (3, –2), (0, 1), (0, 0), (1, 1),
(4, 4), (3, 3)}
For reflexive, add  (–2, –2), (–4, –4), (–3, –3)
For symmetric, add  (4, –4), (3, –3), (–2, 3), (1, 0)
 n 2
 n 
22. Let f n     sin k 1x    2k  1 sin k 1x  cos xdx,n  N. Then f21 – f20 is equal to _______
0  k 1  k 1 
Sol. (41)
 /2  n k 1 
n
k 1 
fn     sin x   2k  1 sin x  cosxdx
0
 k 1  k 1 
sinx  t
cos xdx  dt
1 n  n 
fn    tk 1    2k  1 tk 1  dt
0
 k 1  k 1 
  1  t  t2  ...tn1  1  3t  5t2  ....   2n  1  tn1  dt
1
1  n1  n1 
fn1     tk 1   2k  1 tk 1 dt
0
 k 1  k 1 
  1  t  t2 ...tn  1  3t  5t2  ....  2n  1  tn  dt
1
  1  t  t2  ...tn1  1  3t  5t2  ...  2n  1  tn1  dt

1
  1  3t  5t2  ... 2n  1   tndt

1
  1  t  t2  ...  tn1   2n  1 tndt

1
fn1  fn   1  3t  5t2  ...  2n  1  tn  tndt

1
  1  t  t2  ...tn1    2n  1  tn  dt
1
put n  20
f21  f20   1  3t  5t2 ...41.t20 t20dt   1  t  t2 ...t19  41.t20  dt
1 1
0 0
1 3 5 39 41   41 41 41 
        
 21 22 23 40 41   21 22 40 
1  41 3  41 39  41
   ...   1  40  1  41
21 22 40
dy 4x x2
23. If y = y(x) is the solution of the differential equation  2 y , x  1 such that
dx  x – 1 5
x 2
 1 2
2
     
y  2   log e 2  3 and y 2   log e        ,  Nthen  is equal to ___.
9
Sol. (6)
dy 4x x 2
given differential equation  2 y is linear D.E.
dx  x  1  x  1
2 5/2
dx  e 2ln  x   1  e ln  x 2  1    x 2  1 
4x 2 2
I.F. 
e
x 2
1
x 2
y  x 2  1   x  1 dx
2 2 2
x  1
2 5/2
x 2dx
 dx  
x2  1 x2  1
 x2  1  2ln x  x2  1   C
 
2
put y  2   ln 2  3
9
 
2
9
 
ln 2  3  9   3  2ln 2  3   C
C 3
put x  2
y  1  2ln  2  1  3
  2,  1    3
  2 1 3  6
24. Total numbers of 3-digit numbers that are divisible by 6 and can be formed by using the digits 1, 2, 3, 4, 5 with
repetition, is _____.
Sol. 16
a b 2
(a,b) = (1,3), (3,1), (2,2), (2,5), (5,2), (3,4), (4,3), (5,5)

= 8 numbers
a b 4
(a,b) = (1,1), (1,4), (4,1), (2,3), (3,2)

(4,4), (3,5), (5,3) = 8 numbers
total 8 + 8 = 16
25. The remainder, when 7103 is divided by 17, is ______.
Sol. 12
7103  7.7102
 7  72 
51
 7(51  2)51  remainder  7(2)51

7  23  (16)12  56(17  1)12  remainder  56(1)12
Remainder = – 56 + 17k
= –56 + 68
= 12
10
26. Let f  x    k x k , x  R If 2 f(2) –f ' (2) = 119(2)n + 1 then n is equal to ____
k 1
Sol. 10
10
f (x)  kx k
k 1
 f (x)  x  2x 2  3x 3   9x 9  10x10  (i)

xf (x)  x 2  2x 3  9x10  10x11 (ii)
"(i) - (ii)"
f (x)(1  x)  x  x 2  x 3   x10  10x11
x 1  x10 
f (x)(1  x)   10x11
1 x
x 1  x10  10x11
f (x)  
(1  x)2 (1  x)
f (2)  2  g(2)11
(1 – x)2 f(x) = x(1 – x10) –10x11 (1 – x)
diff. w.r.t. x
(1  x) 2 f (2)  f (2)2(1  x)( 1)
 x  10x 9   1  x10   10x11 (1)  (1  x)(110)x10

put x = 2
f (2)  f (2)(2)  10(2)10  1  210  10(2)11  110(2)10  110(2)11
 (121)210  (120)211  1
 210 (240  121)  1
 119(2)10  1
n  10
27. For x  (-1, 1], the number of solutions of the equation sin–1 x = 2 tan–1 x is equal to ____.
Sol. 2
sin 1 x  2tan 1 x
 2x 
sin 1 x  sin 1  2 
1 x 
2x
x
1  x2
 2 
 x  1  0
1 x 
2
 x  0,1, 1 but – 1 is not included.

Answer 2 solutions
28. The mean and standard deviation of the marks of 10 students were found to be 50 and 12 respectively, Later, it
was observed that two marks 20 and 25 were wrongly read as 45 and 50 respectively. Then the correct variance
is ______.
Sol. 269
x
Mean  i
10
x
 50  i
10
 xi  500
correct xi  500  45  50  20  25  450
xi2

2
2   x
10
x 2
 144  i  2500
10
 xi2  26440
correct xi2  26440   45   50  20  25
2 2 2 2
= 26440-2025-2500+400+625
= 22940
2
correctxi2  correctx i 
2   
10  10 
2
22940  450 
   = 2294 – 2025
10  10 
 269
3
29. The foci of a hyperbola are (  2, 0) and its eccentricity is . A tangent, perpendicular to the line 2x + 3y = 6,
2
is drawn at a point in the first quadrant on the hyperbola. If the intercepts made by the tangent on the x and y -
axes are a and b respectively, then |6a| + |5b| is equal to ______.
Sol. 12
2ae  4
3
2a    4
2
4
a
3
b2
e2  1 
a2
9 9
  1  b2  
4  16 
 5  16  20
 b2     
 4  9  9
3
slope of tangent m 
2
equation of tangent is
y  mx  a2m2  b2
3 16  9  20
y x  
2 9 4 9
3x 4
y 
2 3
8
y 0a
9
4
x  0 b  
3
16 20
6a  5b    12
3 3
30. Let [] denote the greatest integer  . Then  1   2    3   ....   120  is equal to ____.
Sol. 825
S   1   2    3   ....   120 
 1   3   1 3
   
 4   8  2 5
   
 9    15   3  7
   
 100    120   10  21
   
S  1 3  2  5  3  7  ...  10  21
10
  r(2r  1)
r 1
10 10
 2 r2   r
r 1 r 1
2  10  11  21 10 11
 
6 2
= 770 + 55
= 825
SECTION - A
Statements I : An AC circuit undergoes electrical resonance if it contains either a capacitor or an inductor.
Statement II : An AC circuit containing a pure capacitor or a pure inductor consumes high power due to its
non-zero power factor.
In the light of above statements, choose the correct answer form the options given below :
Sol. (3)
Statement-I: An AC circuit for resonance inductor and capacitor both should required.
Statement-II: An AC circuit containing a pure capacitor and pure inductor have no power loss
For resonance,  = 0
means both capacitor and inductor must be present.
32. A passenger sitting in a train A moving at 90 km/h observes another train B moving in the opposite direction
for 8 s. if the velocity of the train B is 54 km/h, then length of train B is :
(1) 120 m (2) 200 m (3) 320 m (4) 80 m
Sol. (3)
90km
VA   25ms 1
hr
54km
VB   15ms 1
hr
VBA  VB  VA  40ms 1
Length of train
Time of crossing 
Re lative velocity
8
40
 8  40  320 meter
33. The output from a NAND gate having inputs A and B given below will be,
(1) (2)
(3) (4)
Sol. (1)
Truth table for NAND gate is
A B Y  A.B
0 0 1
0 1 1
1 0 1
1 1 0
On the basis of given input A and B the truth table is
A B Y
1 1 0
0 0 1
0 1 1
1 0 1
1 1 0
0 0 1
0 1 1
34. The distance travelled by an object in time t is given by s = (2.5)t2. The instantaneous speed of the object at t =
5 s will be :
(1) 25 ms-1 (2) 12.5 ms-1 (3) 5 ms-1 (4) 62.5 ms-1
Sol. (1)
S  2.5t 2
ds
Speed  v    5t
dt
At, t  5sec.
v  5  5  25ms 1
35. In a Young's double slits experiment, the ratio of amplitude of light coming from slits is 2 : 1. The ratio of the
maximum to minimum intensity in the interference pattern is :
(1) 9 : 1 (2) 9 : 4 (3) 2 : 1 (4) 25 : 9
Sol. (1)
Given that
A1 2

A2 1
I max  A1  A 2 
2
9
 
I min  A1  A 2  2
1
 9 :1
Assertion A : The binding energy per nucleon is practically independent of the atomic number for nuclei of
mass number in the range 30 to 170.
Reason R : Nuclear force is short ranged.
Sol. (2)
37. Two planets A and B of radii R and 1.5 R have densities  and  /2 respectively. The ratio of acceleration due
to gravity at the surface of B to A is :
(1) 2 : 3 (2) 2 : 1 (3) 4 : 3 (4) 3 : 4
Sol. (4)
4
G  R 3  
GM 3 4
g 2  2
 GPR
R R 3
g 2 R 2 2 1 3
   1.5  
g1 R 1 1 2 4
38. The mean free path of molecules of a certain gas at STP is 1500d, where d is the diameter of the gas molecules.
While maintaining the standard pressure, the mean free path of the molecules at 373 K is approximately :
(1) 750d (2) 1500d (3) 1098d (4) 2049d
Sol. (4)
mean free path 
RT

2 d 2 N A P
T
1500d 273

 373
  2049d
39. To radiate EM signal of wavelength  with high efficiency, the antennas should have a minimum size equal to:
 
(1)  (2) (3) 2 (4)
2 4
Sol. (4)
Minimum length of antenna

Should be
4
40. A particle executes SHM of amplitude A. The distance from the mean position when its's kinetic energy
becomes equal to its potential energy is :
1 1
(1) 2A (2) A (3) A (4) 2A
2 2
Sol. (3)
K.E = P.E
1 1
M  2 ( A2  x 2 )  M  2 x 2
2 2
( A2  x 2 )  x 2
2x 2  A2
A
x
2
41. In an electromagnetic wave, at an instant and at a particular position, the electric field is along the negative z
axis and magnetic field is along the positive x-axis. Then the direction of propagation of electromagnetic wave
is :
(1) negative y-axis (2) at 45o angle from positive y-axis
(3) positive y-axis (4) positive z-axis
Sol. (1)
Direction of propagation of EM wave will be in the direction of  E  B 
Statement I : Out of microwaves, infrared rays and ultraviolet rays, ultraviolet rays are the most effective for
the emission of electrons from a metallic surface.
Statement II : Above the threshold frequency, the maximum kinetic energy of photoelectrons is inversely
proportional to the frequency of the incident light.
In the light of above statements, choose the correct answer form the options given below
(1) Statement I is false but statement II is true
(3) Statement I is true but statement II is false
Sol. (3)
UV rays have maximum frequency hence are most effective for emission of electrons from the metallic surface.
KEmax  hf  hf0

Statement I : For a planet, if the ratio of mass of the planet to its radius increases, the escape velocity from the
planet also increases.
Statement II : Escape velocity is independent of the radius of the planet.
In the light of above statements, choose the most appropriate answer form the options given below
Sol. (2)
2GM
Ve 
R
M
As, increases  Ve increases
R
1
Ve 
R
As, Ve depends on R
44. A vehicle of mass 200 kg is moving along a levelled curved road of radius 70 m with angular velocity of 0.2
rad/s. The centripetal force acting on the vehicle is:
(1) 2800 N (2) 560 N (3) 2240 N (4) 14 N
Sol. (2)
Fc  m2r  200   0.2   70
2
 560N
45. A 10  C charge is divided into two parts and placed at 1 cm distance so that the repulsive force between them
is maximum. The charges of the two parts are:
(1) 7  C, 3  C (2) 8  C, 2  C (3) 9  C, 1  C (4) 5  C, 5  C
Sol. (4)
Divide q  10c into parts  x  and  q  x 
K  x  q  x 
F
r2
For F to be maximum
dF
0
dx
q 10C
x =  5 C
2 2
q – x = 10C – 5C = 5 C
 a 
46. In the equation  x  2  [Y – b] = RT, X is pressure, Y is volume, R is universal gas constant ant T is
 y 
a
temperature. The physical quantity equivalent to the ratio is :
b
(1) Coefficient of viscosity (2) Energy
(3) Impulse (4) Pressure gradient
Sol. (2)
a
x and 2 have same dimensions
y
y and b have same dimensions
a  ML5 T 2 
b   L3 
a  ML2 T 2
has dimension of energy
b 
47. An electron is moving along the positive x-axis. If the uniform magnetic field is applied parallel to the negative
z-axis, then
A. The electron will experience magnetic force along positive y-axis
B. The electron will experience magnetic force along negative y-axis
C. The electron will not experience any force in magnetic field
D. The electron will continue to move along the positive x-axis
E. The electron will move along circular path in magnetic field
(1) B and E only (2) A and E only (3) B and D only (4) C and D only
Sol. (1)
F  q V B
F  e  V  B 
Force will be along ve y axis As magnetic force is r to velocity, path of electron must be circle.
Assertion A : A spherical body of radius (5  0.1) mm having a particular density is falling through a liquid
of constant density. The percentage error in the calculation of its terminal velocity is 4%
Reason R : The terminal velocity of the spherical body falling through the liquid is inversely proportional to
its radius.
(2) Both A and R true and R is the correct explanation of A
Sol. (4)
Terminal velocity of a spherical body in liquid
Vt  r 2
Vt r
2
Vt r
Vt 0.1
 100%  2   100  4%
Vt 5
Also, Vt  r 2
Reason (R) is false
49. The initial pressure and volume of an ideal gas are Po and Vo. The final pressure of the gas when the gas is
Vo
suddenly compressed to volume will be :
4
(Given  = ratio of specific heats at constant pressure and at constant volume)
1
(1) P0 (4)  (2) 4P0 (3) P0 (4) P0 (4) 

Sol. (4)
As, gas in suddenly compressed, the process is adiabatic
So equation of gas for adiabatic process is:
PV   constant

V 
P0 V0  P2  0 
 4 
P2  P0  4 

50. In the network shown below, the charge accumulated in the capacitor in steady state will be :
(1) 4.8  C (2) 12  C (3) 7.2  C (4) 10.3  C

Sol. (3)
3V 4Ω i1
i1 i1
i2
4𝜇F 6Ω
i1 6Ω i1
In steady state, no current will pass through capacitor hence capacitor will act as open circuit.
i2 = 0
3 3
i1   A
6  4 10
3
Potential difference on 6 resistor  6   1.8 volt capacitor will have same potential so charge
10
 cv  4  1.8  7.2c
SECTION - B
51. In an experiment with sonometer when a mass of 180 g is attached to the string, it vibrates with fundamental
frequency of 30 Hz. When a mass m is attached, the string vibrates with fundamental frequency of 50 Hz. The
value of m is _______ g.
Sol. (500)
1 T
f
2 
f2 T
 2
f1 T1
2
 50  mg
  
 30  180g
25
m   180  500gram
9
52. Two plates A and B have thermal conductivities 84 Wm-1 K-1 and 126 Wm-1K-1 respectively. They have same
surface area and same thickness. They are placed in contact along their surfaces. If the temperatures of the outer
surfaces of A and B are kept at 100 oC and 0 oC respectively, then the temperature of the surface of contact in
steady state is ______ oC.
Sol. (40)
A B
TA = 100°C T TB = 0°C
Let the temperature of contact surface is T then,

K A A  TA  T  KB A  T  TB 

L L
84 100  T   126  T  0 
T  40C
53. In the circuit shown, the energy stored in the capacitor is n  J. The value of n is
Sol. (75)
A
4Ω
I1
3Ω I2
12v
6𝜇F
C D
9Ω 2Ω
I1
I2
B
12
I1   1A
39
12
I2   2A
42
VA  VC  3I1  3V
VA  VD  2  4  8V
So, VA  VD  5V
1 1
U  CV 2   6  52  75J
2 2
54. A light rope is wound around a hollow cylinder of mass 5 kg and radius 70 cm. The rope is pulled with a force
of 52.5 N. The angular acceleration of the cylinder will be ________ rad s-2.
Sol. (15)
  I
FR  mR 2 
F 52.5
   15rads 2
mR 5  0.7
55. A straight wire AB of mass 40 g and length 50 cm is suspended by a pair of flexible leads in uniform magnetic
field of magnitude 0.40 T as shown in the figure. The magnitude of the current required in the wire to remove
the tension in the supporting leads is _______A. (Take g = 10 ms-2)
Sol. (2)
For equilibrium :
Mg  IlB
Mg 40  10 3  10
I   2A
lB 50  10 2  0.4
56. An insulated copper wire of 100 turns is wrapped around a wooden cylindrical core of the cross-sectional area
24 cm2. The two ends of the wire are connected to a resistor. The total resistance in the circuit is 12  . If an
externally applied uniform magnetic field in the core along its axis changes from 1.5 T in one direction to 1.5 T
in the opposite direction, the charge flowing through a point in the circuit during the change of magnetic field
will be ______ mC.
Sol. (60)
 2NBA
Q  
R R
2  100  1.5  24  10 4

12
 6  102 c
 60mc
57. A bi convex lens of focal length 10 cm is cut in two identical parts along a plane perpendicular to the principal
axis. The power of each lens after cut is _______ D.
Sol. (5)
1
P1  P1  P 
f
1
2P1 
0.1
P1  5D
3
58. Three point charges q, -2q and 2q are placed on x-axis at a distance x = 0, x  R and x = R respectively from
4
origin as shown. If q = 2 × 10-6 C and R = 2 cm, the magnitude of net force experienced by the charge -2q is
____N.
Sol. (5440)
3𝑅
4
2q
B c
A
q FBA -2q FBC
32kq 2 64kq 2
FBA  FBC 
9q 2 R2
544kq 2
FB  FBC  FBA 
9R 2
 5440N
59. An atom absorbs a photon of wavelength 500 nm and emits another photon of wavelength 600 nm. The net
energy absorbed by the atom in this process is n × 10-4 eV. The value of n is ______.
[Assume the atom to be stationary during the absorption and emission process]
(Take h = 6.6 × 10-34 Js and c = 3 × 108 m/s)
Sol. (4125)
 1 1 
E  E1  E 2  hc   
 1  2 
E  6.6  1020 J
E  4.125  101 eV
E  4125  10 4 eV
60. A car accelerates from rest to u m/s. The energy spent in this process is E J. The energy required to accelerate
the car from u m/s to 2 u m/s is nE J. The value of n is ______.
Sol. (3)
1 1
E1  mu 2  0  mu 2  E
2 2
1 1
m  24   mu 2
2
E2 
2 2
3
 mu 2  3E
2
SECTION - A
61. Which of the following are the Green house gases ?
(A) Water vapour (B) Ozone (C) I2 (D) Molecular hydrogen
Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below :
(1) C and D only (2) A and B only (3) B and C only (4) A and D only
Sol. 2
Green house gases are CO2, CH4, water vapour, nitrous oxide, CFCs and ozone.
62. The major product for the following reaction is :
(1) (2)
(3) (4)
Sol. 2
It a better Nu– than OH and it soft

Nu– soft will attack an soft electrophile size
63. In the wet tests for detection of various cations by precipitation, Ba2+ cations are detected by obtaining
precipitate of :
(1) Ba(OAc)2 (2) BaCO3 (3) BaSO4 (4) Ba(ox) : Barium oxalate
Sol. 2
In wet testing, (NH4)2CO3 is used as group reagent for 5th group cations (Ba2+, Ca2+, Sr2+)
Ba 2  (NH4 )2 CO3  BaCO3   NH4
(white precipitate)
64. Compound A from the following reaction sequence is :
(1) Phenol (2) Benzoic Acid (3) Aniline (4) Salicylic Acid
Sol. 3
Assertion A : Isotopes of hydrogen have almost same chemical properties, but difference in their rates of
reaction.
Reason R : Isotopes of hydrogen have different enthalpy of bond dissociation.
(2) Both A and R correct but R is NOT the correct explanation of A
Sol. 3
Source NCERT
Since the isotopes have the same electronic configuration, they have almost same chemical properties. The only
difference is in their rates of reactions, mainly due to their different enthalpy of bond dissociation.
66. Given below are statements related to Ellingham diagram :

Statement I : Ellingham diagram can be constructed for oxides, sulfides and halides of metals.
Statement II : It consists of plosts of fH0 vs for formation of oxides of Clements.
(2) Statements I is incorrect but Statement II is correct
Sol. 1
Statement I is correct, Ellingham diagram can be constructed for formation of oxides, sulphides and halides of
metals. (Ref: NCERT)
Statement II is incorrect because Ellingham diagram consists of fG0 vs T for formation of oxides of elements.
67. Better method for preparation of BeF2, among the following is

 
(1) BeH2 + F2   BeF2 (2) Be + F2   BeF2
 
(3) (NH4)2BeF4   BeF2 (4) BeO + C+ F2   BeF2
Sol. 3
As per NCERT (s block), the better method of preparation of BeF2 is heating (NH4)2BeF4

(NH4 )2 BeF4   BeF2  NH 4 F
68. Identify the correct order of standard enthalpy of formation of sodium halides.
(1) NaI < NaBr < NaF < NaCl (2) NaF < NaCl < NaBr < Nal
(3) NaCl < NaF < NaBr < Nal (4) Nal < NaBr < NaCl < NaF
Sol. 4
For a given metal fH0 always becomes less negative from fluoride to iodide.
69. Which of the following complexes will exhibit maximum attraction to an applied magnetic field ?
(1) [Zn (H2O)6]2+ (2) [Ni (H2O)6]2+ (3) [Co(en)3]3+ (4) [Co (H2O)6]2+
Sol. 4
Complex with maximum number of unpaired electron will exhibit maximum attraction to an applied magnetic
field
[Zn(H2O)6]2+  d10 system  t 62g eg4, 0 unpaired e–
[Co(H2O)6]2+  d7 system  t 52g eg2, 3 unpaired e–
[Co(en)3]3+  d6 system  t 62g eg0, 0 unpaired e–
[Ni(H2O)6]2+  d8 system  t 62g eg2, 2 unpaired e–
70. The correct group of halide ions which can be oxidized by oxygen in acidic medium is
(1) Cl–, Br– and I– only (2) Br– only (3) Br– and I–only (4) I–only
Sol. 4
Only I– among halides can be oxidised to Iodine by oxygen in acidic medium
4I–(aq) + 4H+(aq) + O2(g)  2I2(s) + 2H2O(l)
71. The total number of stereoisomers for the complex [Cr(ox)2ClBr]3– (where ox = oxalate) is :
(1) 3 (2) 1 (3) 4 (4) 2
Sol. 1
[Cr(Ox)2 ClBr]–3
 No. of isomers-
 This structure has plane of symmetry, So no optical isomerism will be shown.
 This structure does not contain plane of symmetry, So two forms d as well as 1 will be shown.

I – Bromopropane is reacted with reagents in List I to give product in List II
LIST I-Reagent LIST II – Product

A KOH (alc) I. Nitrile
B. KCN (alc) II. Ester
C. AgNO2 III. Alkene
D. H3CCOOAg IV. Nitroalkane
(1) A–IV, B-III, C-II, D-I (2) A–I, B-III, C-IV, D-II
(3) A–I, B-II, C-III, D-IV (4) A–III, B-I, C-IV, D-II
Sol. 4
CH3 – CH2 – CH2 – Br + KOH(Alc)  CH3 – CH = CH2
(Alkene)
CH3 – CH2 – CH2 – Br + KCN(Alc)  CH3 – CH2 – CH2 – CN

(Nitrile)
CH3 – CH2 – CH2 – Br + AgNO2 + CH3 – CH2 – CH2 –NO2 + AgBr 

(Nitroalkane)
CH3 – CH2 – CH2 – Br + CH3 – COOAg CH3 – COO – CH 2 – CH2 – CH3 + AgBr 
(Ester)
73. The covalency and oxidation state respectively of boron in [BF4]–, are :
(1) 3 and 5 (2) 4 and 3 (3) 4 and 4 (4) 3 and 4
Sol. 2
Number of covalent bond formed by Boron is 4
Oxidation number of fluorine is –1,
Oxidation number of B + 4 × (–1) = –1,
Thus, Oxidation number of B = + 3
74. What happens when methance undergoes combustion in systems A and B respectively ?
(1)
System A System B
Temperature remains same Temperature rises
(2)
System A System B
Temperature falls Temperature rises
(3)
System A System B
Temperature falls Temperature remains same
(4)
System A System B
Temperature rises Temperature remains same
Sol. 4
Adiabatic boundary does not allow heat exchange thus heat generated in container can't escape out thereby
increasing the temperature. In case of Diathermic container, heat flow can occur to maintain the constant
temperature.
75. The naturally occurring amino acid that contains only one basic functional group in its chemical structure is :
(1) histidine (2) lysine (3) asparagine (4) arginine
Sol. 3
1. histidine
2. Lysine
3.
4. Arginine

Statement I : SO2 and H2O both possess V-shaped structure.
Statement II : The bond angle of SO2 less than that of H2O
(1) Both Statements I and Statement II are incorrect
(2) Both Statement I and Statements II are correct
(4) Statements I is incorrect but Statement II is correct
Sol. 3
Both are bent in shape.

Bond angle of SO2 (sp2) is greater than that of H2O (sp3) due to higher repulsion of multiple bonds.
Assertion A : The diameter of colloidal particles in solution should not be much smaller than wavelength of
light to show Tyndall effect.
Reason R: The light scatters in all direction when the size of particles is large enough.
Sol. 3
Tyndall effect is observed only when the following two conditions are satisfied
(a) The diameter of the dispersed particle is not much smaller than the wave length of light used.
(b) Refractive indices of dispersed phase and dispersion medium differ greatly in magnitude.
LIST I LIST II
A. Weak intermolecular farces of attraction I. Hexamethylenendiamine + adipic
B. Hydrogen bonding II. AlEt3 + TiCl4
C. Heavily branched polymer III. 2–chloro –1, 3 – butadiene
D. High density polymer IV. Phenol + formaldehyde

(1) A–IV, B-I, C-III, D-II (2) A–III, B-I, C-IV, D-II
(3) A–II, B-IV, C-I, D-III (4) A–IV, B-II, C-III, D-I
Sol. 2
• Hexamethylenediamine on reaction with adipic acid forms Nylon 6, 6 which shows H-bonding due to
presence of amide group.
• AlEt3 + TiCl4 is Ziegler-Natta catalyst used to prepare high density polyethylene.
• 2-chloro-1, 3-butadiene (chloroprene) is monomer of neoprene which is a rubber (an elastomer)
• Phenol - formaldehyde forms Bakelite which is heavily branched (cross-linked) polymer

Statement I : Tropolone is an aromatic compound and has 8  electrons.
Statement II :  electrons of > C = O group in tropolone is incolved in aromaticity
(1) Statement I is false but Statement II is true (2) Statement I is true but Statement II is false
Sol. 2
Tropolone is an aromatic compound and has 8 electrons (6e– are endocyclic and 2e– are exocyclic) and 
electrons of group in tropolone is not involved in aromaticity.
Assertion A : Order of acidic nature of the following compounds is A > B > C.
Reason R : Fluoro is a stronger electron withdrawing group than Chloro group.

Sol. 3
Acidic strength  –I effect
I
 effect
I
F, Cl exerts -1 effect, Methyl exerts +I effect, C is least acidic.
Among A and B; since inductive effect is distance dependent, Extent of –I effect is higher in A followed by B
even though F is stronger electron withdrawing group than Cl. Thus, A is more acidic than B.
SECTION - B
81. If the formula of Borax is Na2B4Ox (OH)y. zH2O, then x + y + z = _____.
Sol. 17
Formula of borax is Na2B4O5 (OH)4 · 8H2O
82. Sea water contains 29.25% NaCl and 19% MgCl2 by weight of solution. The normal boiling point of the sea
water is _____°C(Nearest integer)
Assume 100% ionization for both NaCl and MgCl2
Given : Kb(H2O) = 0.52 K kg mol–1
Molar mass of NaCl and MgCl2 is 58.5 and 95 g mol–1 respectivley.
Sol. 116
Amount of solvent = 100 – (29.25 + 19) = 51.75g
 2  29.25 1000 3 19 1000 
Tb     0.52
 58.5  51.75 95  51.75 
Tb = 16.075
Tb = (Tb)solution – (Tb)solvent
(Tb)solution = 100 + 16.07
= 116.07°C
83. 20 mL of 0.1 M NaOH is added to 50 mL of 0. 1 M acetic acid solution. The pH of the resulting solution is
____ × 10–2 (Nearest integer)
Given : pKa (CH3 COOH) = 4.76
log 2 = 0.30
log 3 = 0.48
Sol. 458
CH3COOH + NaOH  CH3COONa + H2O
Initially 5mmol 2mmol 0 0
after Rxn 3mmol 0 2 mmole 2 mmole
[salt]
pH = pKa + log10
[acid]
2
pH = 4.76 + log10
3
pH = 4.58 = 458 × 10–2
84. At 298 K, the standard reduction potential for Cu2+/Cu electrode is 0.034 V.
Given : Ksp Cu(OH)2 = 1 × 10–20
2.303RT
Take  0.059V
F
The reduction potential at pH = 14 for the above couple is (–) x × 10–2 V.
The value of x is _____.
Sol. 25
Cu(OH)2(s) Cu2+(aq) + 2OH–(aq)
Ksp = [Cu2+] [OH–]2
pH = 14; pOH = 0; [OH–] = 1M
Ksp
 [Cu 2  ]   10 –20 M
[1]2
Cu2+(aq) + 2e–  Cu(s)
0.059 1
E  E – log10
2 [Cu 2  ]
0.059 1
= 0.34 – log10 –20
2 10
–2
= –0.25 = –25 × 10
85. Sodium metal crystallizes in a body centred cubic lattice with unit cell edge length of 4 Å. The radius of
sodium atom is ____×10–1 Å (Nearest integer)
Sol. 17
3a  4r
3  4  4r
r = 1.732Å
= 17.32 × 10–1
86. A (g)  2B (g) + C (g) is first order reaction. The initial pressure of the system was found to be 800 mm Hg
which increased to 1600 mm Hg after 10 min. The total pressure of the system after 30 min will be ____ mm
Hg. (Nearest integer)
Sol. 2200
t 1 = 10 minutes
2
30/10
1
(PA )30 min  (PA )0  
2
(PA)30 min = 100 mm Hg
A(g)  2B(g) + C(g)
at t = 0 800 mm 0 0
at t = 30 l00 mm 1400 mm 700 mm
Total pressure after 30 minutes = 2200 mm Hg
87. 1g of a carbonate (M2CO3) on treatment with excess HCl produces 0.01 mol of CO2. The molar mass of
M2CO3 is ____ g mol–1. (Nearest integer)
Sol. 100
M2CO3  2HCl  2MCl H2O  CO2
1gm Excess 0.02mole 0.01mole
From principle of atomic conservation of carbon atom,

Mole of M2CO3 × 1 = Mole of CO2 × 1
1gm
 0.011
molar mass of M 2CO3
 Molar mass of M2CO3 = 100 gm/mole
88. 0.400 g of an organic compound (X) gave 0.376 g of AgBr in Carius method for estimation of bromine. % of
bromine in the compound (X) is ____. (Given : Molar mass AgBr = 188 g mol–1, Br = 80 g mol–1)
Sol. 40
0.376
mole of AgBr =
188
0.376
mole of Br– = mole of AgBr =
188
0.376
mass of Br– =  80
188
0.376  80
% of Br– =  100  40%
188  0.4
xh
89. The orbital angular momentum of an electron in 3s orbital is . The value of x is ____ (nearest integer)
2
Sol. 0
h
Orbital angular momentum = 1(1  1)
2
Value of 1 for s = 0
90. See the following chemical reaction :
Cr2 O72–  XH  6Fe2  YCr 3  6Fe3  ZH 2O
The sum of X, Y and Z is _____
Sol. 23
Cr2O72– + 14H+ + 6Fe2+  6Fe3+ + 2Cr3+ + 7H2O
x = 14
y=2
z=7
Hence (x + y + z) = 14 + 2 + 7 = 23
SECTION-A
1. The straight lines 11 and 12 pass through the origin and trisect the line segment of the line L : 9x + 5y = 45
between the axes. If m1 and m2 are the slopes of the lines 11 and 12, then the point of intersection of the line y
= (m1 + m2) x with L lies on.
(1) 6x + y = 10 (2) 6x – y = 15 (3) y – 2x = 5 (4) y – x = 5
Sol. (4)
B 2
Q
1
P
A
L : 9x + 5y = 45

A(5,0) , B : (0,9)
A P Q B
(5,0) (0,9)

2  5  1  0 10
 Px  
1 2 3
0  2  9 1
Py  =3
1 2
 10 
P :  ,3 
3 
1 5  2  0 5
Similarly → Q x  
1 2 3
1 0  2  9
Qy  =6
1 2
5 
Q:  ,6 
3 
3–0 9
Now m1= =
10 10
–0
3
6  0 18
m2 = 
5
0 5
3
9
Now L1 : y (m1 + m2)x  y =   x  9x = 2y ...(2)
2
from (1) & (2) 9x + 5y = 45
9x – 2y = 0
– + –
45
7y = 45  y 
7
10
 x
7
which satisfy y – x = 5 Ans. 4
2. Let the position vectors of the points A, B, C and D be 5iˆ  5jˆ  2k,i ˆ ˆ  2jˆ  3k,
ˆ –2iˆ  ˆj  4kˆ and
–iˆ  5jˆ  6k.
ˆ Let the set S { : the points A, B, C and D are coplanar}. Then  (  2) 2 is equal to :
S
37
(1) (2) 13 (3) 25 (4) 41
2
Sol. (4)
A, B, C, D are coplanar
 –4 –3 3 – 2 
  ABACAD  = 0   –7  – 5 4 – 2  = 0
   
 –6 0 6 – 2 
–6 [6 – 12 – ( – 5) (3 – 2)] + 0 [ ] + (6 – 2) [20 – 4 – 21]

–6 [6 – 12 + 22 + 15 – 13 ]+ (6 – 2) [–4 – 1] = 0
–122 + 42 – 18 + 82– 22– 6 = 0
–42 + 20 – 24 = 0 2 – 5 + 6 = 0
λ=2
  – 3  – 2  0
λ=3
Now Σ    2  = 16 + 25 = 41
2
s
x 2  x sec2 x  tan x  
3. Let I(x)   dx . If I(0) = 0, then I   is equal to :
 x tan x  1
2
4
(  4) 2
2 (  4)2 2
(1) log e  (2) log e –
16 4(  4) 32 4(  4)
(  4)2 2 (  4)2 2
(3) log e – (4) log e 
16 4(  4) 32 4(  4)
Sol. (2)
Ix  

x 2 xsec2 x  tanx  dx
 xtanx  1
2
Let xtan x + 1 = t
 1  2x
I  x2   dx
 x tan x  1  x tan x  1
 1  2x
I  x2    2 dx
 x tan x  1  x tan x  1
 1 
I  x2    2ln x sin x  cos x  C
 x tan x  1 
As I (0) = 0  C = 0
     4 2  2
I    ln  
4  32  4    4 
 
4. The sum of the first 20 terms of the series 5 + 11 + 19 + 29 + 41 + ….. is :

(1) 3450 (2) 3420 (3) 3520 (4) 3250
Sol. (3)
s n  5  11  19  29  41 ..  Tn
Sn  5  11  19  29  Tn –1  Tn
 
0  5  6  8  10  12  .... – Tn
 (n –1)terms 
 n –1 2  6  n – 2  2
Tn  5    
2 
Tn = 5 + (n – 1) (n + 4) = 5 + n2 + 3n – 4 = n2 + 3n + 1
20 20
Now S20 = T
n 1
n = n
n 1
2
 3n  1
20.21.41 3.20.21
S20 = + + 20
6 2
S20 = 2870 + 630 + 20
S20 = 3520
5. A pair of dice is thrown 5 times. For each throw, a total of 5 is considered a success. If probability of at least 4
k
successes is 11 , then k is equal to :
3
(1) 164 (2) 123 (3) 82 (4) 75
Sol. (2)
n(total 5) = {1, 4), (2, 3), (3, 2),(4, 1)} = 4
4 1
P(success) = =
36 9
P(at least 4 success) = P (4 success) + P(5 success)
4
1 8
5
= 5C4.   . + 5C5   = 5 = 10 = 11 = 11
1 41 41 123 k
9 9 9 9 3 3 3
K = 123
6. Let A = [aij]2×2, where aij  0 for all i, j and A2 = I. Let a be the sum of all diagonal elements of A and b = |A|.
Then 3a2 + 4b2 is equal to :
(1) 14 (2) 4 (3) 3 (4) 7
Sol. (2)
A2 = I  |A|2 = 1  |A| = ±1 = b
 
Let A =  
  
   
A2 =     =I
     
 2       1 0 
 2 
=    2 +  = 1
        0 1 
( + ) = 0   +  = 0 = a
( + ) = 0
 + 2 = 0
Now 3a2 + 4b2 = 3(0)2 + 4 (1) = 4
7. Let a1, a2, a3, …., an be n positive consecutive terms of an arithmetic progression. If d > 0 is its common
d 1 1 1 
difference, then : lim    .......   is
n  n  a1  a 2 a 2  a3 a n –1  a n 
1
(1) (2) 1 (3) d (4) 0
d
Sol. (2)
d  a1 – a 2 a – a3 a – an 
Lt   2  ......  n –1 
n  n  a1 – a 2 a2 – a3 a n –1 – a n 
d  a1 – a 2  a 2  a 3  ......  a n–1 – a n 
= Lt  
n  n  –d 
 
d  a n – a1 
= Lt  
n  n  d 

1  a1  (n – 1)d – a1 
= Lt  
n  n  d 
 
1  a1 d a 
= Lt  d– – 1 
n  d  n n n 

=1
8. If 2nC3 : nC3 : 10 : 1, then the ratio (n2 + 3n) : (n2 –3n + 4) is :

(1) 27 :11 (2) 35 : 16 (3) 2 : 1 (4) 65 : 37
Sol. (3)
2n
C3 2n!(n – 3)!
n
= 10  = 10
C3 (2n – 3)!n!
2n(2n –1)(2n – 2)
= 10
n(n –1)(n – 2)
4(2n– 1)
= 10  8n – 4 = 10 n – 20
n–2
2n = 16
n 2  3n
Now 2
n – 3n  4
64  24 88
= = =2
64 – 24  4 44
Ans. 3
9. Let A = {x  : [x + 3] + [x + 4] 3},
x –3
x 3
B x :3 r
3–3x. , where [t] denotes greatest integer function. Then,
r 1 10
(1) A  B, A  B (2) A B =  (3) A = B (4) B  C, A  B

Sol. (3)
A = {x  : [x + 3] + [x + 4] 3},
2[x]+7  3
2[x]  –4
[x]  –2 x < –1 ...(A)
x –3
3
B x : 3x r
3–3x.
r 1 10
x 3
  3 
3x   r   33x
 r 1 10 
x 3
 1 
 
32x 3  10   33x
1 1 
 10 
x 3
1
    35x  3
9
 36  2x  335x
 6  2x  3  5x
 3  3x
 x  1 ...(B)
A=B
10. One vertex of a rectangular parallelepiped is at the origin O and the lengths of its edges along x, y and z axes
are 3, 4 and 5 units respectively. Let P be the vertex (3, 4, 5). Then the shortest distance between the diagonal
OP and an edge parallel to z axis, not passing through O or P is :
12 12 12
(1) (2) 12 5 (3) (4)
5 5 5 5
Sol. (3)
x y z
Equation of OP is  
3 4 5
a1 = (0, 0, 0) a2 = (3, 0, 5)
b1 = (3, 4, 5) b2 = (0, 0, 1)
Equation of edge parallel to z axis
x 3 y0 z 5
 
0 0 1
 a 2  a1    b1  b2 
S.D 
b1  b2
3 0 5
3 4 5
0 0 1 3 4 12
 
i j kˆ 4i  3j 5
3 4 5
0 0 1
11. If the equation of the plane passing through the line of intersection of the planes 2x – y + z = 3, 4x – 3y + 5z +
x 1 y  3 z – 2
9 = 0 and parallel to the line   is ax + by + cz + 6 = 0, then a + b + c is equal to :
–2 4 5
(1) 15 (2) 14 (3) 13 (4) 12
Sol. (2)
Using family of planer
P :P1 + P2 = 0  P(2 + 4) x – (1 + 3) y + (1 + 5) z = (3 – 9)
x 1 y3 z–2
P is || to = =
–2 4 5
Then for  : n p . vL = 0
–2 (2 + 4) – 4(1 + 3) + 5 (1 + 5) = 0
3
–3 + 5 = 0   =
5
Hence : P : 22x –14 y + 20 z = –12
P : 11 x – 7y + 10z + 6 = 0
 a = 11
b=–7
c = 10
a + b + c = 14
Ans. 2
12. If the ratio of the fifth term from the beginning to the fifth term from the end in the expansion of
n
 1 

4
2  is 6 :1 , then the third term from the beginning is :
 3
4
(1) 30 2 (2) 60 2 (3) 30 3 (4) 60 3

Sol. (4)
4
 1  1
n
C4 .((2) )  4 n–4 
  14
T5
=  = 6 3
n–4
T5 '  1   1 4 1
n 
C4 1  2 
4
 4  
3 
–4–4  n
n –8
 1
2 4 .  34  = 6
 
n –8 n –8
4
2 .34 = 6
n –8 1
=  n – 8 = 2  n = 10
4 2
2
 1
8  1 
T3 = 10C2  2 4   
   14 
3 
1
10.9 – 1
= 10C2.22. 3 .4. 2
=
= 60 3
2 3
13. The sum of all the roots of the equation |x2 – 8x + 15| – 2x + 7 = 0 is :
(1) 11 – 3 (2) 9 – 3 (3) 9  3 (4) 11  3
Sol. (3)
|x2 – 8x + 15| = 2x – 7
x2 – 8x + 15 = 2x – 7 & x2 – 8x + 15 = 7 – 2x
x2 – 10 x + 22 = 0 & x2 – 6x + 8 = 0
x1 = 5 + 3 x2 = 5 – 3 (reject) x3 = 4 x4 = 2 (reject)
Sum of of roots is = 5 + 3 +4=9+ 3
Ans. 3
y
|x2 –8x + 15|
A x
3 4 5 5+
14. From the top A of a vertical wall AB of height 30 m, the angles of depression of the top P and bottom Q of a
vertical tower PQ are 15° and 60° respectively, B and Q are on the same horizontal level. If C is a point on
AB such that CB = PQ, then the area (in m2) of the quadrilateral BCPQ is equal to :

(1) 200 3 – 3  (2) 300  3 1  (3) 300  3 –1  (4) 600  
3 –1
Sol. (4)
ABQ
15º
60º
30 C P
  x
B
y Q
AB 
= tan 60°
BQ
30
BQ = = 10 3 = y
3
& ACP
AC (30 – x)
= tan 15°  = (2– 3 )
CP y
30 – x = 10 3 (2 – 3)
30 –x = 20 3 – 30
x = 60 – 20 3
Area = x.y = 20 (3– 3 ).10 3
= 600 ( 3 –1)
Ans. (4)
15. Let a  2iˆ  3jˆ  4k,

ˆ b  î – 2jˆ – 2kˆ and c  –iˆ  4ˆj  3k.
ˆ If d is a vector perpendicular to both b and c , and
a.d = 18, then [a  d]2 is equal to :
(1) 760 (2) 640 (3) 720 (4) 680
Sol. (3)
d =  (b × c )
For  : a . d = 18   [ a b c ] = 18
2 3 4
  1 –2 –2 = 18
–1 4 3
  (4 –3 + 8) = 18   = 2
 d = 2 ( 2iˆ – ˆj + 2 k̂ )
Hence | a × d |2 = a2d2 – ( a . d )2
= 29  36 – (18)2 = 18 (58 – 18)
= 18  40 = 720
Ans. 3
dy
16. If 2xy + 3yx = 20, then at (2, 2) is equal to :
dx
 3  log e 8   2  log e 8   3  log e 4   3  log e 16 
(1)    (2)    (3)    (4)   
 2  log e 4   3  log e 4   2  log e 8   4  log e 8 
Sol. (2)
2xy +3yx = 20
 1 
v1v2  v 2  lnv1 .v12 
 v1 
 1 dy   1 dy 
2xy  y.  ln x  + 3yx  x .  ln y.1 = 0
 x dx   y dx 
Put (2, 2)
 dy   dy 
2.4 1  ln2  + 3.4 1.  ln 2  = 0
 dx   dx 
dy
[8ln2 + 12] + 8 + 12 ln 2 = 0
dx
dy  2  3ln 2   2  ln8 
=–   =–  
dx  3  2ln 2   3  ln 4 
17. If the system of equations

x + y + az = b
2x + 5y + 2z = 6
x + 2y + 3z = 3
has infinitely many solutions, then 2a + 3b is equal to :
(1) 28 (2) 20 (3) 25 (4) 23
Sol. (4)
x + y + az = b
2x + 5y + 2z = 6
x + 2y + 3z = 3
For  solution
 = 0, x = 0, y = 0, z = 0
1 1 a
 = 2 5 2 = 0  11 – 4 – a = 0  a = 7
1 2 3
1 1 b
z = 2 5 6 = 0 3 – 0 – b = 0  b = 3
1 2 3
Hence 2a + 3b = 23
Ans. 4
18. Statement (P Q)  (R  Q) is logically equivalent to:

(1) (P R)  Q (2) (P  R) (Q  R) (3) (P  R)  (Q  R) (4) (P  R)  Q
Sol. (1)
(PQ) (R Q)
We known that PQ ≡ ~ P Q
⇒ (~ P Q) (~ R Q)
⇒ (~ P ~ R) Q
⇒ ~ (P  R) Q
⇒ (P R)Q
1 1
2
19. Let 5f (x)  4f     3, x  0 . Then 18  f (x)dx is equal to :
x x 1
(1) 10 loge 2 – 6 (2) 10 loge 2 + 6 (3) 5 loge 2 – 3 (4) 5 loge 2 + 3

Sol. (1)
1 1
5f(x) + 4f   = +3 …(1)
 
x x
1
x
x
5f   + 4 f(x) = x + 3
1
…(2)
x
(1) × 5 – (2) × 4
5 4 1
f(x) = – x+
9x 9 3
5 4 3 1
2
 18  f (x) dx = 18  ln 2 –   
1 9 9 2 3
= 10 ln 2 – 6
20. The mean and variance of a set of 15 numbers are 12 and 14 respectively. The mean and variance of another
set of 15 numbers are 14 and 2 respectively. If the variance of all the 30 numbers in the two sets is 13, then
2 is equal to :
(1) 12 (2) 10 (3) 11 (4) 9
Sol. (2)
n 2  n 2 2 n1n 2  m1  m2 
2
Combine var. = 1 
n1  n 2  n1  n 2 
15 14  15  2 15 15 12  14 
2
13  
30 30  30
14   2
4
13  
2 4
2 = 10
SECTION-B
21. Let the tangents to the curve x2 + 2x –4y + 9 = 0 at the point P(1, 3) on it meet the y-axis at A. Let the line
passing through P and parallel to the line x – 3y = 6 meet the parabola y2 = 4x at B. If B lies on the line 2x –
3y = 8, then (AB)2 is equal to ______.
Sol. (292)
C : x2 + 2x – 4y + 9 = 0
C : (x + 1)2 = 4(y – 2)
TP(1,3) : x.1 + (x + 1) – 2(y + 3) + 9 =0
: 2x – 2y + 4 = 0
Tp : x – y + 2 = 0
A : (0, 2)
Line || to x–3y = 6 passes (1, 3) is x – 3y + 8 = 0
Meet parabola : y2 = 4x
 y2 = 4(3y – 8)
 y2 – 12y + 32 = 0
 (y – 8) (y – 4) = 0
 point of intersection are
(4, 4) & (16,8) lies on 2x – 3y = 8
B
Hence A : (0, 2)
B : (16, 8)
(AB)2 = 256 + 36 = 292
22.  
Let the point (p, p + 1) lie inside the region E  (x, y) : 3 – x  y  9 – x 2 ,0  x  3 . If the set of all values
of p is the interval (a, b), then b2 + b – a2 is equal to _____.
Sol. (3)
3–xy 9 – x2 ; 0  x  3
L:x+y=3 A : (P, P + 1)
S:y=
A
B y 
L(A) > 0  P + P + 1 – 3 > 0  P > 1 …(1)

S(A) < 0  P + 1 – 9 – P2 < 0
 P + 1 < 9 – P2
 P + 2P + 1 < 9– P2
 2P2 + 2P – 8 < 0
 P2 + P – 4 < 0
 –1 – 17 –1  17 
P  ,  …(2)
 2 2
 
 17 – 1 
(1)  (2) P  1,  (a, b)
 2 

b2 + b – a 2 = 4 – 1 = 3

23. Let y = y(x) be a solution of the differential (xcos x)dy + (xysin x + ycos x – 1)dx = 0, 0 < x < . If
2
     
y    3 , then y ''    2y '   is equal to _____.
3 3 6 6 6
Sol. (2)

(x cos x) dy + (xysinx + ycos x –1) dx = 0, 0 < x <
2
dy  x sin x  cos x  1
 y 
dx  x cos x  x cos x
IF = x secx
x secx
y.x sec x   dx  tan x  c
x cos x
  3 3
Since y    Hence c  3
3 
  
Hence y''    y'    2  2
6 6 6
24. Let a  and [t] be the greatest integer  t. Then the number of points, where the function f(x) = [a + 13 sin
x], x  (0, ) is not differentiable, is _____.
Sol. (25)
f(x) = [a+ 13 sin x] = a + [13 sin x] in (0, )
x  (0, )
 0 < 13 sin x  13
 [13 sin x] = {0, 1, 2, 3,… 12,13,}
  
2 2 1
Total point of N.D. = 25.
n2 
25. If the area of the region S = {(x, y) : 2y – y2  x2 2y, x y} is equal to – , then the natural
n 1 n –1
number n is equal to ____.
Sol. (5)
x2 + y2 – 2y  0 & x2 – 2y  0 , x  y
 1
2
1 x2
Hence required area =  2  2   dx    
2 0
2  4 2
7 
  n 5
6 4
26. The number of ways of giving 20 distinct oranges to 3 children such that each child gets at least one orange is
_____.
Sol. 3483638676
Total – (one child receive no orange + two child receive no orange)
= 320 –( 3C1 (220 –2) + 3C2 120) = 3483638676
27. Let the image of the point P (1, 2, 3) in the plane 2x – y + z = 9 be Q. If the coordinates of the point R are (6,
10, 7). then the square of the area of the triangle PQR is ____.
Sol. (594)
Let Q () be the image of P, about the plane
2x – y + z = 9
 1   2   3
  2
2 1 1
 = 5,  = 0,  = 5
1
Then area of triangle PQR is = PQ  PR
2
 12i  3j  21kˆ  144  9  441  594
Square of area = 594
28. A circle passing through the point P(. ) in the first quadrant touches the two coordinate axes at the points A
and B. The point P is above the line AB. The point Q on the line segment AB is the foot of perpendicular
from P on AB. If PQ is equal to 11 units, then value of is ____.
Sol. (121)
Let equation of circle is (x – a)2 + (y – a)2 = a2

which is passing through P ()
then ( – a)2 + ( – a)2 = a2
2 + 2 – 2a – 2 + a2 = 0
Here equation of AB is x + y = a
Let Q (',') be foot of perpendicular of P on AB
 '   '        a 
 
1 1 2
1 1
PQ2 = (' – ) + (' – ) = ( +  – a)2+ ( +  – a)2
4 4
1
121       a 
2
2
242 = 2 + 2 – 2a – 2a + a2 + 2
242 = 2
 = 121
15
 1 
29. The coefficient of x18 in the expansion of  x 4 – 3  is _____.
 x 
Sol. (5005)
15
 4 1 
x  3 
 x 
 1 
r
Tr 1 15 Cr  x 4 
15 r
 3
x 
60 –7r = 18
r=6
Hence coeff. of x18 = 15C6 = 5005
30. Let A = {1, 2, 3, 4, …., 10} and B = {0, 1, 2, 3, 4}. The number of elements in the relation R = {(a, b)  A ×
A: 2 (a – b)2 + 3 (a – b)  B} is _____.
Sol. (18)
A = {1,2,3,......10}
B = {0,1, 2,3, 4}
R = {(a, b)  A × A: 2(a – b)2 + 3(a – b)  B}
Now 2 (a – b)2 + 3 (a – b) = (a – b) (2 (a – b) + 3)
 a = b or a – b = –2
When a = b  10 order pairs
When a– b = –2  8 order pairs
Total = 18
SECTION - A
31. The kinetic energy of an electron,  -particle and a proton are given as 4 K, 2 K and K respectively. The
de-Broglie wavelength associated with electron ( e) ,  -particle ( ) and the proton ( p) are as follows :
(1)   p  e (2)   p  e
(3)   p  e (4)   p  e
Sol. (4)
h
According to De-Broglie, Momentum P = λ , where h is plank’s constant and λ is wavelength.
Also, relation between Kinetic energy(KE) and momentum(P) is given by: P = √2mKE
h h
Now, λ = P = √2mKE
h h h
λe = = =
√2me KEe √2me × 4k √8me k
h h
λp = =
√2mp KEp √2mp k
h h h h
λα = = = =
√2mα KEα √2mα . 4k √2 × 2mp . 2k √8mp k
From the above data, 𝜆𝛼 < 𝜆𝑃 < 𝜆𝑒
32. Given below are two statements : one is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R.
Assertion A : Earth has atmosphere whereas moon doesn't have any atmosphere.
Reason R : The escape velocity on moon is very small as compared to that on earth.
In the light of the above statements. choose the correct answer from the options given below:
Sol. (1)
2𝐺𝑀
𝑉𝑒𝑠𝑐 = √ = √2𝑔𝑟
𝑟
Radius of moon is less than that of earth and acceleration due to gravity is also less on moon as compared to
that on earth.
Thus , Vesc of Moon < Vesc of Earth
This is also the reason behind escape of atmosphere from moon.
33. A source supplies heat to a system at the rate of 1000 W. If the system performs work at a rate of 200 W. The
rate at which internal energy of the system increase is
(1) 500 W (2) 600 W (3) 800 W (4) 1200 W
Sol. (3)
From Ist law of thermodynamics,
𝑑𝑄 = 𝑑𝑈 + 𝑑𝑊
𝑑𝑄 𝑑𝑈 𝑑𝑊
Also, we can write this as, = +
𝑑𝑡 𝑑𝑡 𝑑𝑡
𝑑𝑈
⟹ 1000𝑊 = + 200𝑊
𝑑𝑡
𝑑𝑈
⟹ = 800𝑊
𝑑𝑡
34. A small ball of mass M and density  is dropped in a viscous liquid of density  o . After some time, the ball
falls with a constant velocity. What is the viscous force on the ball?
        
(1) F  Mg 1  0  (2) F  Mg  1   (3) F  Mg 1  o  (4) F  Mg (1   o )
    o    
Sol. (3)
At terminal velocity, net force on the ball is Zero.
B
f
Mg
𝑀𝑔 = 𝑓 + 𝐵
⟹ 𝑀𝑔 = 𝑓 + 𝑉𝑏𝑎𝑙𝑙 𝜌𝑜 𝑔 … . (𝑖)
𝑀
Volume of ball = 𝜌
From eq (i),
𝑀
𝑀𝑔 = 𝑓 + 𝜌𝑜 𝑔
𝜌
𝑀
⟹ 𝑓 = 𝑀𝑔 − 𝜌𝑜 𝑔
𝜌
𝜌𝑜
⟹ 𝑓 = 𝑀𝑔(1 − )
𝜌
35. A small block of mass 100 g is tied to a spring of spring constant 7.5 N/m and length 20 cm. The other end of
spring is fixed at a particular point A. If the block moves in a circular path on a smooth horizontal surface with
constant angular velocity 5 rad/s about point A, then tension in the spring is –
(1) 0.75 N (2) 1.5 N (3) 0.25 N (4) 0.50 N
Sol. (1)
𝑘𝑥 = 𝑚𝜔2 𝑟
⟹ 𝑘𝑥 = 0.1 × 25 × (0.2 + 𝑥)
⟹ 7.5𝑥 = 2.5(0.2 + 𝑥)
⟹ 3𝑥 = 0.2 + 𝑥
⟹ 2𝑥 = 0.2
⟹ 𝑥 = 0.1𝑚
Now, tension in the spring = 𝑘𝑥 = 7.5 × 0.1 𝑁 = 0.75 𝑁
36. A particle is moving with constant speed in a circular path. When the particle turns by an angle 90o , the ratio of
instantaneous velocity to its average velocity is  : x 2. The value of x will be -
(1) 7 (2) 2 (3) 1 (4) 5
Sol. (2)
𝑉𝐴 = 𝑣𝑗̂ v
And 𝑉𝐵 = −𝑣𝑖̂ B
2𝜋𝑅 1 𝜋𝑅
Time to reach from A to B = 4 × 𝑣 = 2𝑣
Displacement from A to B = 𝑅√2
𝐷𝑖𝑠𝑝𝑙𝑎𝑐𝑒𝑚𝑒𝑛𝑡 𝑅√2 2√2𝑣
Now, Average velocity from A to B = = 𝜋𝑅 =
𝑇𝑖𝑚𝑒 𝜋
2𝑣
Instantaneous velocity at B is −𝑣𝑖̂ A
𝑖𝑛𝑠𝑡𝑎𝑛𝑡𝑎𝑛𝑒𝑜𝑢𝑠 𝑣𝑒𝑙𝑜𝑐𝑖𝑡𝑦 𝜋
According to question, 𝑎𝑣𝑒𝑟𝑎𝑔𝑒 𝑣𝑒𝑙𝑜𝑐𝑖𝑡𝑦 = 𝑥√2
𝑣 𝜋
2√2𝑣
=
𝑥√2
𝜋
𝜋 𝜋
⟹ =
2√2 𝑥√2
⟹𝑥=2
37. Two resistances are given as R 1  (10  0.5)  and R 2  (15  0.5). The percentage error in the measurement
of equivalent resistance when they are connected in parallel is -
(1) 2.33 (2) 4.33 (3) 5.33 (4) 6.33
Sol. (2)
1 1 1
In parallel combination, 𝑅 = 𝑅 + 𝑅
𝑒𝑞 1 2
1 1 1 5 1
⟹ = + = =
𝑅𝑒𝑞 10 15 30 6
Now, for error calculation,
𝑑𝑅𝑒𝑞 𝑑𝑅1 𝑑𝑅2
2 = +
𝑅𝑒𝑞 𝑅12 𝑅22
𝑑𝑅𝑒𝑞 0.5 0.5
⟹ = +
36 100 225
13 13 26
𝑑𝑅𝑒𝑞 = 36 × 0.5 × ( ) = 18 × = = 0.26
900 900 100
𝑑𝑅𝑒𝑞 0.26 26
Now , × 100 = × 100 = = 4.33
𝑅𝑒𝑞 6 6
38. For a uniformly charged thin spherical shell, the electric potential (V) radially away from the entre (O) of shell
can be graphically represented as –
(1) (2)
(3) (4)
Sol. (4)
𝐾𝑄
For 𝑟 ≤ 𝑅, 𝑉 = 𝑅 , i.e., Constant everywhere inside.
𝐾𝑄
For 𝑟 > 𝑅, 𝑉 = 𝑟
, i.e., Decreases with r.
39. A long straight wire of circular cross-section (radius a) is carrying steady current I. The current I is uniformly
distributed across this cross-section. The magnetic field is
(1) zero in the region r < a and inversely proportional to r in the region r > a
(2) inversely proportional to r in the region r < a and uniform throughout in the region r > a
(3) directly proportional to r in the region r < a and inversely proportional to r in the region r > a
(4) uniform in the region r < a and inversely proportional to distance r from the axis, in the region r > a
Sol. (3)
It is a case of solid infinite current carrying wire.
Using ampere circuital law,
CASE I: if r ≤ R
𝜇0 𝑖
𝐵= 𝑟
2𝜋𝑅 2
CASE II: r>R
𝜇0 𝑖
𝐵=
2𝜋𝑟
40. By what percentage will the transmission range of a TV tower be affected when the height of the tower is
increased by 21% ?
(1) 12% (2) 15% (3) 14% (4) 10%
Sol. (4)
New range is given by √2𝑅(ℎ + 0.21ℎ)
= √2𝑅ℎ × 1.21
= 1.1√2𝑅ℎ
It means new range increases by 10 %.
41. The number of air molecules per cm3 increased from 3 × 1019 to 12 × 1019. The ratio of collision frequency of
air molecules before and after the increase in the number respectively is :
(1) 0.25 (2) 0.75 (3) 1.25 (4) 0.50
Sol. (1)
Collision frequency is given by 𝑍 = 𝑛𝜋𝑑 2 𝑉𝑎𝑣𝑔 , where n is number of molecules per unit volume.
𝑍1 𝑛1 3 1
= = = = 0.25
𝑍2 𝑛2 12 4
42. The energy levels of an hydrogen atom are shown below. The transition corresponding to emission of shortest
wavelength is
(1) A (2) D (3) C (4) B

Sol. (2)
ℎ𝑐
𝐸=
𝜆
ℎ𝑐
⟹𝜆=
𝐸
For 𝜆𝑚𝑖𝑛 , E must be maximum.
And E is maximum for D.
43. For the plane electromagnetic wave given by E = Eo sin (t  kx) and B = Bo sin (t  kx) , the ratio of average
electric energy density to average magnetic energy density is
(1) 2 (2) 1/2 (3) 1 (4) 4
Sol. (3)
In EM waves, average electric energy density is equal to average magnetic energy density.
1 1 2
𝜖0 𝐸02 = 𝐵
4 4𝜇0 0
44. A planet has double the mass of the earth. Its average density is equal to that of the earth. An object weighing
W on earth will weigh on that planet:
(1) 21/3 W (2) 2 W (3) W (4) 22/3 W
Sol. (1)
Average Density of planet = average density of earth
𝑀𝑒 𝑀𝑝
4 =4
𝜋𝑅𝑒3 3
𝜋𝑅𝑝
3 3
𝑀𝑒 2𝑀𝑒
⟹ =
𝑅𝑒3 3
𝑅𝑝
1
⟹ 𝑅𝑝 = 23 𝑅𝑒 − − − − − − − − − (𝑖)
𝐺𝑀
Now, 𝑔 = 𝑅2
2
𝑅𝑝 2 1
𝑔𝑒 𝑀𝑒
= × = 23−1 = 2−3
𝑔𝑝 𝑅𝑒2 2𝑀𝑒
1
⟹ 𝑔𝑝 = 23 𝑔𝑒
1
⟹ 𝑊𝑝 = 23 𝑊𝑒
45. The resistivity (  ) of semiconductor varies with temperature. Which of the following curve represents the
correct behavior
(1) (2)
(3) (4)
Sol. (3)
A semiconductor starts conduction more as the temperature increases. It means resistance decreases with
increase in temperature. So, if temperature increases, its resistivity decreases.
𝑚
Also, 𝜌 = 𝑛𝑒 2 𝜏
As Temperature increase, 𝜏 decreases but n increases and n is dominant over 𝜏.
46. A monochromatic light wave with wavelength  1 and frequency 1 in air enters another medium. If the angle
of incidence and angle of refraction at the interface are 45o and 30o respectively, then the wavelength  2 and
frequency  2 of the refracted wave are :
1 1
(1)  2  1 ,  2  1 (2)  2  1 ,  2  1
2 2
(3)  2  1 ,  2  21 (4)  2  21 ,  2  1
Sol. (1)
1 × 𝑠𝑖𝑛45 = 𝜇𝑠𝑖𝑛30
1 1
⟹ =𝜇×
√2 2
⟹ 𝜇 = √2 − − − −(𝑖)
𝜇 𝑉 𝜆
Now, 1 = 2 = 2 − − − − − (𝑖𝑖)
𝜇2 𝑉1 𝜆1
Using eq (i) and (ii),
1
𝜆2 = 𝜆
√2 1
1
And 𝑉2 = √2 𝑉1
Now, for relation between frequencies,
𝑉
Frequency, 𝑣 = 𝜆
𝑣 𝑉 𝜆
Or 𝑣1 = 𝑉1 × 𝜆2 = 1
2 2 1
𝑣1 = 𝑣2
47. A mass m is attached to two strings as shown in figure. The spring constants of two springs are K 1 and K2. For
the frictionless surface, the time period of oscillation of mass m is
m 1 K1  K 2 1 K1  K 2 m
(1) 2  (2) (3) (4) 2 
K1  K 2 2 m 2 m K1  K 2
Sol. (4)
Both the springs are in parallel.
𝐾𝑒𝑞 = 𝐾1 + 𝐾2
𝑚 𝑚
𝑇 = 2𝜋√ = 2𝜋√
𝐾𝑒𝑞 𝐾1 +𝐾2
48. Name the logic gate equivalent to the diagram attached
(1) NOR (2) OR (3) NAND (4) AND

Sol. (1)
A B Y
0 0 1
1 0 0
0 1 0
1 1 0
NOR gate
49. The induced emf can be produced in a coil by

A. moving the coil with uniform speed inside uniform magnetic field
B. moving the coil with non uniform speed inside uniform magnetic field
C. rotating the coil inside the uniform magnetic field
D. changing the area of the coil inside the uniform magnetic field
(1) B and D only (2) C and D only (3) B and C only (4) A and C only
Sol. (2)
Induced emf can be induced in a coil by changing magnetic flux.
⃗⃗⃗⃗⃗
And 𝜙 = 𝐵⃗. 𝑑𝐴
By rotating coil, angle between coil and magnetic field changes and hence flux changes.
By changing area, magnetic flux changes.
50. Given below are two statements : one is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R.
Assertion A : When a body is projected at an angle 45o , it’s range is maximum.
Reason R : For maximum range, the value of sin 2  should be equal to one.
Sol. (3)
𝑢2 𝑠𝑖𝑛2𝜃
For a ground to ground projectile, Horizontal range is given by 𝑅 = 𝑔
And for 𝑅𝑚𝑎𝑥 , 𝑠𝑖𝑛2𝜃 must be maximum.
SECTION - B
51. Two identical circular wires of radius 20 cm and carrying current 2 A are placed in perpendicular planes as
shown in figure. The net magnetic field at the centre of the circular wires is _________ × 10-8 T.
Sol. (628)
𝜇 𝑖 𝜇 𝑖
⃗⃗⃗⃗⃗⃗⃗⃗
𝐵𝑛𝑒𝑡 = 0 𝑖̂ + 0 𝑗̂
2𝑟 2𝑟
𝜇0 𝑖 1
⟹ 𝐵𝑛𝑒𝑡 =
2𝑟
√2 = 4𝜋 × 10−7 × √2 × √2 × 2×0.2 = 2 × 3.14 × 10−6 = 628 × 10−8 𝑇
52. A steel rod bas a radius of 20 mm and a length of 2.0 m. A force of 62.8 kN stretches it along its length. Young's
modulus of steel is 2.0 × 1011 N/m2 . The longitudinal strain produced in the wire is _______ × 10-5
Sol. (25)
𝑠𝑡𝑟𝑒𝑠𝑠
𝑌=
𝑠𝑡𝑟𝑎𝑖𝑛
𝑠𝑡𝑟𝑒𝑠𝑠 𝐹 62.8×1000 62.8×1000 200
⟹ 𝑠𝑡𝑟𝑎𝑖𝑛 = = = = = × 10−5 = 25 × 10−5
𝑌 𝐴𝑌 𝜋𝑟 2 ×2×1011 3.14×400×10−6 ×2×1011 8
53. The length of a metallic wire is increased by 20% and its area of cross section is reduced by 4%. The percentage
change in resistance of the metallic wire is ______
Sol. (25)
𝜌𝑙
𝑅=
𝐴
𝜌×1.2𝑙 10
𝑅′ = = × 𝑅 = 1.25 𝑅
0.96𝐴 8
It means 25 % increase in Resistance.
54. The radius of fifth orbit of the Li++ is __________ × 10-12 m.
Take : radius of hydrogen atom = 0.51 Å
Sol. (425)
0.51𝑛2
𝑟𝑛 = 𝐴0
𝑍
++
For Li , z=3.
25
So 𝑟5 = 0.51 × 3 × 10−10 𝑚 = 17 × 25 × 10−12 𝑚 = 425 × 10−12 𝑚
55. A particle of mass 10 g moves in a straight line with retardation 2x, where x is the displacement in SI units. Its
n
 10 
loss of kinetic energy for above displacement is   J. The value of n will be ____________
 x 
Sol. (2)
Given, 𝑎 = −2𝑥
𝑣𝑑𝑣
⟹ = −2𝑥
𝑑𝑥
⟹ 𝑣𝑑𝑣 = −2𝑥𝑑𝑥
𝑣 𝑥
⟹ ∫𝑣 2 𝑣𝑑𝑣 = −2 ∫0 𝑥𝑑𝑥
1
𝑣22 𝑣12 2𝑥 2
⟹ − =−
2 2 2
𝑚𝑣12 𝑚𝑣22 10 2 10 −2
⟹ − = 𝑚𝑥 2 = 𝑥 = 10−2 𝑥 2 = ( )
2 2 1000 𝑥
n=2.
56. An ideal transformer with purely resistive load operates at 12 kV on the primary side. It supplies electrical energy
to a number of nearby houses at 120 V. The average rate of energy consumption in the houses served by the
transformer is 60 kW. The value of resistive load (Rs) required in the secondary circuit will be ________ m  .
Sol. (240)
𝑉𝑠 𝑁𝑠
=
𝑉𝑝 𝑁𝑝
120 𝑁𝑠
⟹ =
12000 𝑁𝑝
𝑁𝑠 1
⟹ = − − − (𝑖)
𝑁𝑝 100
For an ideal transformer, input power = Output power
And power is given by 𝑃 = 𝑖𝑉
𝑖𝑝 𝑉𝑝 = 𝑖𝑠 𝑉𝑠 = 60000𝑊
60000
𝑖𝑝 = =5
12000
𝑉𝑝 12000
Now, 𝑅𝑝 = = = 2400 Ω
𝑖𝑝 5
𝑉𝑠 120 120 120
𝑅𝑠 = = = 120 × = = 0.240Ω = 240 𝑚Ω
𝑖𝑠 60000/120 60000 500
57. A parallel plate capacitor with plate area A and plate separation d is filed with a dielectric material of dielectric
constant K = 4. The thickness of the dielectric material is x, where x < d.
1 2d
Let C1 and C2 be the capacitance of the system for x  d and x  , respectively. If C1 = 2F the value of
3 3
C2 is __________ F
Sol. (3)
𝜖0 𝐴 4𝜖0 𝐴
2𝑑 × 𝑑
3 3 18 𝜖0 𝐴 2 𝜖0 𝐴 4 𝜖0 𝐴
𝐶1 = 𝜖0 𝐴 4𝜖0 𝐴 =3 = 18 × =
+ +12 𝑑 27 𝑑 3 𝑑
2𝑑/3 𝑑/3 2
4 𝜖0 𝐴 𝜖0 𝐴 3
According to qn, 3 =2⟹ = − − − − − (𝑖)
𝑑 𝑑 2
𝜖0 𝐴 4𝜖0 𝐴
𝑑 × 2𝑑
3 3 18 𝜖0 𝐴 𝜖0 𝐴 3
Now, 𝐶2 = 𝜖0 𝐴 4𝜖0 𝐴 =
3+6 𝑑
=2×
𝑑
=2× =3
2
+
𝑑/3 2𝑑/3
58. Two identical solid spheres each of mass 2 kg and radii 10 cm are fixed at the ends of a light rod. The separation
between the centres of the spheres is 40 cm. The moment of inertia of the system about an axis perpendicular
to the rod passing through its middle point is __________ × 10-3 kg-m2
Sol. (176)
Using parallel axix theorem,
2
𝐼𝑠𝑦𝑠 = ( 𝑚𝑟 2 + 𝑚𝑑 2 ) × 2
5
2
⟹ 𝐼𝑠𝑦𝑠 = ( × 2 × 0.01 + 2 × 0.04) × 2 = (0.008 + 0.08) × 2 = 0.088 × 2 = 176 × 10−3
5
59. A person driving car at a constant speed of 15 m/s is approaching a vertical wall. The person notices a change
of 40 Hz in the frequency of his car's horn upon reflection from the wall. The frequency of horn is ______ Hz.
Sol. (420)
𝑓 ′ = 𝑓0 + 40
330+15
⟹ 𝑓0 ( ) = 𝑓0 + 40
330−15
345
⟹ 𝑓0 × = 𝑓0 + 40
315
30
⟹ 𝑓0 × = 40
315
315
⟹ 𝑓0 = 40 × = 420 𝐻𝑧
30
60. A pole is vertically submerged in swimming pool, such that it gives a length of shadow 2.15 m within water
when sunlight is incident at an angle of 30o with the surface of water. If swimming pool is filled to a height of
1.5 m, then the height of the pole above the water surface in centimeters is (nw = 4/3) ____________
Sol. (50)
4
𝑠𝑖𝑛60 = 𝑠𝑖𝑛𝑟
3
3 √3 3√3
⟹ 𝑠𝑖𝑛𝑟 = × = − − − (𝑖) y
4 2 8 600
27 √37
𝑐𝑜𝑠𝑟 = √1 − = = 0.75
64 8
27 r
⟹ 𝑡𝑎𝑛𝑟 = √
37
𝑥 1.5m
⟹ = 0.85
1.5
⟹ 𝑥 = 0.85 × 1.5 = 1.275𝑚
𝑦 𝑦 x
𝑡𝑎𝑛30 = =
2.15−1.275 0.875
0.875 2.15m
𝑦= = 0.50
1.732
So length of pole above water surface = 0.50m=50cm
SECTION - A
List I List II
(Natural Amino acid) (One Letter Code)
(A) Arginine (I) D
(B) Aspartic acid (II) N
(C) Asparagine (III) A
(D) Alanine (IV) R
(1) (A) – III, (B) – I, (C) – II (D) –IV (2) (A) – IV, (B) – I, (C) – II (D) –III
(3) (A) – IV, (B) – I, (C) – III (D) –II (4) (A) – I, (B) – III, (C) – IV (D) –II
Sol. 2
Natural Amino acid One Letter Code
(i) Arginine R
(ii) Aspartic acid D
(iii) Asparagine N
(iv) Alanine A
62. Formation of which complex, among the following, is not a confirmatory test of Pb2 ions
(1) lead sulphate (2) lead nitrate (3) lead chromate (4) lead iodide
Sol. 2
 Pb(NO3)2 is a soluble colourless compound so it cannot be used in confirmatory test of Pb+2 ion.
63. The volume of 0.02 M aqueous HBr required to neutralize 10.0 mL of 0.01 M aqueous Ba(OH)2 is (Assume
complete neutralization)
(1) 5.0 mL (2) 10.0 mL (3) 2.5 mL (4) 7.5 mL
Sol. 2
m.eq. of HBr = m.eq. of Ba(OH)2
M1 × n1 × V1(mL) = M2 × n2 × V2(mL)
0.02 × 1 × V1(mL) = 0.02 × 2 × 10
V1(mL) = 10 mL
64. Group–13 elements react with O 2 in amorphous form to form oxides of type M2O3 (M = element). Which
among the following is the most basic oxide?
(1) Al2O3 (2) Tl2O3 (3) Ga 2 O3 (4) B2 O3
Sol. 2
As electropositive character increases basic character of oxide increases.
B2O3 Al2O3 Ga 2O3 In 2O3 Tl2O3
acidic amphoteric basic
65. The IUPAC name of K3[Co(C2O4 )3 ] is -

(1) Potassium tris(oxalate) cobaltate(III) (2) Potassium trioxalatocobalt(III)
(3) Potassium trioxalatocobaltate(III) (4) Potassium tris(oxalate)cobalt(III)
Sol. 3
IUPAC name of K3[Co(C2O4)3] is Potassium trioxalatocobaltate(III)
66. If the radius of the first orbit of hydrogen atom is a0, then de Broglie’s wavelength of electron in 3rd orbit is
a a
(1) 0 (2) 0 (3) 6a 0 (4) 3a 0
6 3
Sol. 3
By De-Broglie principle
2r = n
n2
2  a 0  n
z
n
2  a 0  
z
3
  2  a 0  6a 0
1
67. The group of chemicals used as pesticide is

(1) Sodium chlorate, DDT, PAN (2) DDT, Aldrin
(3) Aldrin, Sodium chlorate, Sodium arsinite (4) Dieldrin, Sodium arsinite, Tetrachlorothene
Sol. 2
(Fact base) DDT & Aldrin are used as pesticide
68. From the figure of column, chromatography given below, identify incorrect statements.
A. Compound ‘c’ is more polar than ‘a’ and ‘b’

B. Compound ‘a’ is least polar
C. Compound ‘b’ comes out of the column before ‘c’ and after ‘a’
D. Compound ‘a’ spends more time in the column
(1) A, B and D only (2) A, B and C only (3) B and D only (D) B, C and D only
Sol. 2
a
b
c
Adsorption of compound  Attraction

 Polarity
 Spend time in column
1

come out from column
Order of polarity  a > b > c
Come out from column order  c > b > a
Spend time in column  a > b > c
69. Ion having highest hydration enthalpy among the given alkaline earth metal ions is:
(1) Be2 (2) Ba 2 (3) Ca 2 (4) Sr 2
Sol. 1
1
Hydration enthalpy 
size
Down the group as size increases hydration enthalpy decreases
Order: Be2+ > Mg+2 > Ca+2 > Sr+2 > Ba+2
70. The strongest acid from the following is
(1) (2) (3) (4)
Sol. 4
OH OH OH OH
Cl CH3 NO2
–I +I –I
Since –I of –NO2 > Cl
So, most acidic will be (4)
71. In the following reaction, ‘B’ is
(1) (2)
(3) (4)
Sol. 4
H
OH OH2

–CH3–Shift
H


72. Structures of BeCl2 in solid state, vapour phase and at very high temperature respectively are:
(1) Polymeric, Dimeric, Monomeric (2) Dimeric, Polymeric, Monomeric
(3) Monomeric, Dimeric, Polymeric (4) Polymeric, Monomeric, Dimeric
Sol. 1
In solid state BeCl2 as polymer, in vapour state it form chloro-bridged dimer while above 1200K it is monomer.
73. Consider the following reaction that goes from A to B in three steps as shown below:
Choose the correct option

Number of intermediates Number of Activated complex Rate determining step
(1) 2 3 II
(2) 3 2 II
(3) 2 3 III
(4) 2 3 I
Sol. 1
AC-2
AC-1 AC-3
A
Inter- Inter- B
mediate-1 mediate-2
Number of Intermediate  2
Number of Activated complex  3
Rate determining step  II
74. The product, which is not obtained during the electrolysis of brine solution is
(1) HCl (2) NaOH (3) Cl2 (4) H 2
Sol. 1
Brine solution (NaCl + H2O)
NaCl  Na+ + Cl–
Electrolyte
H2O  2H+ + OH–
At Cathode  2H + 2e  H2
At Anode  2Cl–  Cl2 + 2e
Na+ + OH–  NaOH
Answer 1 (HCl)
75. Which one of the following elements will remain as liquid inside pure boiling water?
(1) Li (2) Ga (3) Cs (4) Br
Sol. 2
Li, Cs reacts vigorously with water.
Br2 changes in vapour state in boiling water (BP = 58°C)
Ga reacts with water above 100°C (MP = 29°C, BP = 2400°C)
76. Given below are two statements: one is labelled as “Assertion A” and the other is labelled as “Reason R”
Assertion A: In the complex Ni(CO)4 and Fe(CO)5 , the metals have zero oxidation state.
Reason R: Low oxidation states are found when a complex has ligands capable of  –donor character in addition
to the  – bonding.
In the light of the above statement, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below
(1) A is not correct but R is correct.
(2) A is correct but R is not corret
(4) Both A and R are correct but R is NOT the correct explanation of A.
Sol. 2
Low oxidation state of metals can stabilized by synergic bonding so ligand has to be -acceptor.
Statement I: Morphine is a narcotic analgesic. It helps in reliving pain without producing sleep.
Statement II: Morphine and its derivatives are obtained from opium poppy.
(1) Statement I is true but statement II is false (2) Both statement I and statement II are true
(3) Statement I is false but statement II is true (4) Both Statement I and Statement II are false
Sol. 3
Fact
Morphine
(i) Morphine is a narcotic analgesic, it help in relieving plan and producing sleep.
(ii) Morphine and its derivatives are obtained from opium.
78. Find out the major product from the following reaction.

(1)MeMgBr/CuI
(2)n Pr l
(1) (2)
(3) (4)
Sol. 3
O O
 
Me + MgBr n—Pr—I
CuI
79. During the reaction of permanganate with thiosulphate, the change in oxidation of manganese occurs by value
of 3. Identify which of the below medium will favour the reaction
(1) aqueous neutral (2) aqueous acidlic
(3) both aqueous acidic and neutral (4) both aqueous acidic and faintly alkaline
Sol. 1
In neutral or weakly alkaline solution oxidation state of Mn changes by 3 unit
7 4
Mn O4–1  Mn O2
80. Element not present in Nessler’s reagent is
(1) K (2) N (3) I (4) Hg
Sol. 2
Nessler reagent is- K2[HgI4]
SECTION - B
81. The standard reduction potentials at 298 K for the following half cells are given below:
NO3–  4H  3e –  NO(g)  2H2O E  0.97V
V2 (aq)  2e –  V E  –1.19V
Fe3 (aq)  3e –  Fe E  –0.04V
Ag  (aq)  e –  Ag(s) E  0.80V
Au 3 (aq)  3e –  Au(s) E  1.40V
The number of metal(s) which will be oxidized by NO3– in aqueous solution is ____________
Sol. 3
Metal + NO3–  Metal Nitrate
(V, Fe, Ag)

Less value of reaction potential then 0.97 volt.
Answer 3
82. Number of crystal system from the following where body centred unit cell can be found, is__________
Cubic, tetragonal, orthorhombic, hexagonal, rhombohedral, monoclinic, triclinic
Sol. 3
BCC present in  Cubic, Tetragonal orthorhombic
83. Among the following the number of compounds which will give positive iodoform reaction is________
(a) 1–Phenylbutan–2–one (b) 2–Methylbutan–2–ol
(c) 3–Methylbutan–2–ol (d) 1–Phenylethanol
(e) 3,3–dimethylbutan–2–one (f) 1–Phenylpropan –2–ol
Sol. 4
Iodo form test
(a) Ph –NO
O
(b) –NO
OH
(c) –Yes
OH
Ph
(d) –Yes
OH
(e) –Yes
O
OH
(f) –Yes
Ph
For carbonyl compound —C—CH3 for alcohol —CH—CH3 should be present for idoform test.
O OH
84. Number of isomeric aromatic amines with molecular formula C8 H11 N , which can be synthesized by Gabriel
Phthalimide synthesis is_________
Sol. 6
By Gabriel phthalimide synthesis  i-amine is prepared
C8H11N  Should be aromatic & i-amine
H–N
Du = C + 1 –
2
11 – 1
=8+1–
2
10
= 9– = 9 – 5 = 4  it means benzene ring
2
NH2 NH2 NH2
NH2 *
(i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
NH2
(v)
85. Consider the following pairs of solution which will be isotonic at the same temperature. The number of pairs of
solutions is/are______________
A. 1 M aq. NaCl and 2 M aq. Urea
B. 1 M aq. CaCl2 and 1.5 M aq. KCl
C. 1.5 M aq. AlCl3 and 2 M aq. Na 2SO4
D. 2.5 M aq. KCl and 1 M aq. Al2 (SO4 )3
Sol. 4
A. 1 M aq. NaCl  2 M aq. Ions
Isotonic
2 M aq. Urea  2 M aq. Urea
B. 1 M aq. CaCl2  3 M aq. Ions

Isotonic
1.5 M aq. KCl  3 M aq. Ions
C. 1.5 M aq. AlCl3  6 M aq. Ions

Isotonic
2 M aq. Na 2SO4  6 M aq. Ions
D. 2.5 M aq. KCl  5 M aq. Ions

Isotonic
1 M aq. Al2 (SO4 )3  5 M aq. Ions
86. The number of colloidal systems from the following, which will have ‘liquid’ as the dispersion medium,
is_________
Gem stones, paints, smoke, cheese, milk, hair cream, insecticide sprays, froth, soap lather
Sol. 5
Liquid dispersion medium
Paints, milk, hair cream, froth, soap lather
87. In an ice crystal, each water molecule is hydrogen bonded to neighbouring molecules.
Sol. 4
O
H H
H O H
O H H O
H H
H
O H
88. Consider the following date

Heat of combustion of H2 (g) = –241.8 kJ mol–1
Heat of combustion of C(s) = –393.5 kJ mol–1
Heat of combustion of C2 H5OH(l) = –1234.7 kJ mol–1
The heat of formation of C2 H5OH(l) is (–) __________________kJ mol–1 (Nearest integer).
Sol. 278
2C(s) + O2  2CO2 –393.5 × 2 = –787 kJ …(1)
3
3H2 + O2  3H2O –241.5 × 8 × 3 = –725.4 kJ …(2)
2
C2H5OH + 3O2  2CO2 + 3H2O –1234.7 kJ …(3)
3H2O + 2CO2  C2H5OH + 3O2 +1234.7 kJ …(4)
1
2C(s) + 3H2(g) + O2 C2H5OH …(5)
2
eq (5) = eq (1) + eq (2) + eq (4)
= (–787) + (–72537) + (1234.7)
= –277.7 = 278
89. The equilibrium composition for the reaction PCl3 Cl2 PCl5 at 298 K is given below:
[PCl3 ]eq  0.2mol L–1 ,[Cl 2 ]eq = 0.1 mol L–1 ,[PCl5 ]eq = 0.40 mol L–1
If 0.2 mol of Cl2 is added at the same temperature, the equilibrium concentrations of PCl5 is _____×
10–2 mol L–1
Given: K C for the reaction at 298 K is 20
Sol. 49
NTA answer 48
[PCl5 ] 0.4
Kc    20
[PCl3 ][Cl2 ] 0.2  0.1
PCl3 + Cl2 PCl5
teq1 0.2 M 0.1 M 0.4 M
teq2 0.2 – x 0.1 + 0.2 – x 0.4 + x
0.4  x
K c  20 
(0.2  x)(0.3  x)
After solving by quadratic equation. We can get value of x.
X = 0.086
[PCl5] = 0.4 + x
= 0.4 + 0.086
= 0.486 = 48.6  10–2
Ans. 49
90. The number of species having a square planar shape from the following is___________________
XeF4 ,SF4 ,SiF4 ,BF4– ,BrF4– [Cu(NH3 ) 4 ]2 ,[FeCl4 ]2– ,[PtCl 4 ]2–
Sol. 4
XeF4 ,BrF4– [Cu(NH3 )4 ]2 ,[PtCl4 ]2– has square planar shape.
SECTION-A
1. If gcd (m, n) = 1 and
12 – 22 + 32 – 42 + ….. + (2021)2 – (2022)2 + (2023)2 = 1012 m2n
then m2 – n2 is equal to :
(1) 180 (2) 220 (3) 200 (4) 240
Sol. (4)
(1 – 2) (1 + 2) + (3 – 4) (3 + 4) +……+ (2021 – 2022) (2021 + 2022) + (2023)2 = (1012) m2n
(– 1) [1 + 2 + 3 + 4 + … + 2022] + (2023)2 = (1012) m2n
 2022  2023
( – 1) + (2023)2 =(1012) m2n
2
(2023) [ 2023 – 1011 ] = (1012) m2n
(2023) (1012) = (1012) m2n
m2n = 2023
m2n = (17)2 × 7
m = 17, n = 7
m2 – n2 = (17)2 –72 = 289 – 49 = 240
Ans. Option 4
2. The area bounded by the curves y = |x –1| + |x – 2| and y = 3 is equal to :

(1) 5 (2) 4 (3) 6 (4) 3
Sol. (2)
y = |x – 1| + |x – 2|
1
A= [1+3] [2]
2
=4
Ans. Option 2
3. For the system of equations

x+y+z=6
x + 2y + z = 10
x + 3y + 5z = , which one of the following is NOT true :
(1) System has a unique solution for  = 3,   14.
(2) System has a unique solution for  = –3,  = 14.
(3) System has no solution for  = 3,  = 24.
(4) System has infinitely many solutions for  = 3,  = 14.
Sol. (1)
1 1 1
1 2 
1 3 5
= (10 – 3) – (5 – ) + (3 – 2)
= 6 – 2
6 1 1
x  10 2 
 3 5
= 6(10 – 3) – (50 – 13) + (30 – 2)
= 40 – 18+  – 2
1 6 1
 y  1 10 
1  5
= (50 – ) – 6(5 – ) + ( – 10)
= 10 + 6 – 
1 1 6
 z  1 2 10
1 3 
= (2 – ) – ( – 10) + 6 (1)
= –
 for Infinite solution  = 0, x = y = z = 0
 = 3,  = 14
For unique solution   3
Ans. Option 1
4. Among the statements :

(S1): (p q)  ((~ p)  q) is a tautology
 (S2): (q p) ((~ p)  q) is a contradiction
(1) only (S2) is True (2) only (S1) is True
(3) neigher (S1) and (S2) is True (4) both (S1) and (S2) are True
Sol. (3)
S1
P Q ~p ~p^q pq (pq) v (~p^q)
T T F F T T
T F F F F F
F T T T T T
F F T F T T
S2
P Q qp ~p (~p)^q (qp)  (~p^q)
T T T F F F
T F T F F F
F T F T T T
F F T T F F
Ans. Option 3


1 1
 1 1
  1 1

5. lim  2 2 – 2 3  2 2 – 2 5  ......  2 2 – 2 2n 1   is equal to
n 

    
1
(1) (2) 2 (3) 1 (4) 0
2
Sol. (4)
 12 1
 12 1
  12 1

P= lim  2  2 3
 2  2 5
 .........  2  2 2n 1

n 
    
Let
1 1
2 2  23 Smallest
1 1
2 2
2 2n 1 Largest
Sandwich th.
n n
 12 1
  1 1

 2  2 3   P   2 2  2 2n 1 
   
n
 lie b / w 
 
 0 and 1 
n
 1 1

lim  2 2  2 3   0
n 
 
n
 1 1

lim  2 2  2 2n 1   0
n 
 
P = 0
6. Let P b a square matrix such that P2 = I – P. For , , ,  N, if

P + P = I – 29P and P – P = I – 13P, then  +  +  –  is equal to :
(1) 40 (2) 22 (3) 24 (4) 18
Sol. (3)
P2 = I – P
P + P = I – 29P
P – P = I – 13P
P = (I – P)2 = I + P2 – 2P
P = I + I – P – 2P = 2I – 3P
P = (P)2 = (2I – 3P)2 = 4I + 9P2 – 12P
= 4I + 9(I – P) – 12P
P8 = 13I – 21P ….(1)
6 4 2
P = P .P = (2I – 3P) (I – P)
= 2I – 5P + 3P2
= 2I – 5P + 3(I – P)
= 5I – 8P ….(2)
(1) + (2) (1) – (2)
P8 + P6 = 18I – 29P P8  P6  8I  13P
From (A)  = 8,  = 6
 = 18
=8
 +  +  –  = 32 – 8 = 24
7. A plane P contains the line of intersection of the plane r.(iˆ ˆj k)ˆ = 6 and r.(2iˆ 3 ˆj 4k)
ˆ  –5. If P passes
through the point (0, 2, –2), then the square of distance of the point (12, 12, 18) from the plane P is :
(1) 620 (2) 1240 (3) 310 (4) 155
Sol. (1)
eqn of plane P1 + P2 = 0
(x + y + z – 6) +  (2x + 3y + 4z +5) = 0
pass th. (0, 2, – 2)
(– 6) +  (6 – 8 + 5) = 0
(– 6) +  [3] = 0  = 2
eqn of plane
5x + 7y + 9z + 4 = 0
distance from (12, 12, 18)
60  84  162  4
d
25  49  81
310
d
155
310  310
d2 
155
d2  620
Ans. Option 1

8. Let f(x) be a function satisfying f(x) + f ( – x) = 2, x . Then  f (x)sin x dx is equal to :
0
 2
2
(1) (2) 2 (3) 22 (4)
2 4
Sol. (2)

I   f  x  sin x dx …..(1)
0
Apply king property


I   f    x  sin    x  dx …..(1)
0
Add

2I   f  x   f    x  sinx dx
0

2I   2 sinx dx
0
2 I  2  2 
I  2
Ans. Option 2
11 11
 1   1 
9. If the coefficients of x7 in  ax 2  –7
 and x in  ax – 2 
are equal, then :
 2bx   3bx 
(1) 64 ab = 243 (2) 32 ab = 729 (3) 729 ab = 32 (4) 243 ab = 64
Sol. (3)
11
 2 1 
 ax  
 2bx 
11 2  7
r 5
3
5
6 1 
Coefficient of x7 is  11 C5  a   
 2b 
11
 1 
 ax  
 3bx 2 
11  1   7 
r 6
3
a5
Coefficient of x–7 is  11 C6 
36 b6
 1  a5
 11 C5 (a 6 )  5 5   11 C6  6 6
2 b  3b
25
 ab 
36
 729 ab  32
Ans. Opiton 3
9 
10. If the tangents at the points P and Q are the circle x2 + y2 –2x + y = 5 meet at the point R  ,2  , then the area
4 
of the triangle PQR is :
5 13 5 13
(1) (2) (3) (4)
4 4 8 8
Sol. (3)
x2 + y2 – 2x + y = 5
R P' P
(9/4, 2)
Q
with resperct to R PQ is C.O.C

eqn of C.O.C is T = 0
9  9 1
x  2y –  x     y  2  – 5  0
4  4 2
5 5 25
x y 0
4 2 4
5x + 10y – 25 = 0
x  2y  5
1
Area   P ' PQ   PQ  2 r 2  p2 = 5
2
9
4–5
1 5
  
2 4 
 5 P'  4
5
5  5  5
   4
8 4 5
Method II
RL3
area =
R 2  L2
5
R
2
81 9
L  4  25
16 2
5

4
5
area = 
8
Ans. Option 3
p
11. Three dice are rolled. If the probability of getting different numbers on the three dice is , where p and q are
q
co-prime, then q – p is equal to :
(1) 1 (2) 2 (3) 4 (4) 3
Sol. (3)
Fav. 
 6
C3   3!
666

 20  6   20  5  p
6  6  6 36 9 q
p  5
 qp4
q  9
Ans. Option 3
12. In a group of 100 persons 75 speak English and 40 speak Hindi. Each person speaks at least one of the two
languages. If the number of persons, who speak only English is  and the number of persons who speak only
 
Hindi is , then the eccentricity of the ellipse 25 2 x 2  2 y2  22 is :
129 117 119 3 15

(1) (2) (3) (4)
12 12 12 12
Sol. (3)
n(AB) = n(A) + n(B) – n(AB)
n(AB) = 75 +40 – 100
n(AB) = 15
Only E  60  = 60
Only H  25  = 25
Both = 15
2
25x 25y2
 1
2 2
25x 2

 25y   1
2
 60   25
2 2
 25  25 
e2  1   
  60  
2
 60    25
2 2
e 
2
 60 
2
e2 
 60  25  60  25 
60  60
e2 
 35 85   119
60  60 144
119
e
12
dx
13. If the solution curve f(x, y) = 0 of the differential equation (1 + loge x) – x loge x  e y , x  0, passes through
dy
the points (1, 0) and (, 2), then  is equal to :
2 e2 2 2 2
(1) e (2) e e (3) e 2e (4) e2e
Sol. (4)
dx
1  n x  x n x  ey
dy
Let x nxt
dx dt
1  n x 
dy dy
dt
 t  ey P = – 1, Q = ey
dy
I  F  e
 dy
 e y
Solution -
 t   e y     e y  ey  dy
t(e–y) = y + c
(x n x) e–y = y + c  pass (1, 0) c = 0
pass (, 2)
  e2e
2
Ans. Option 4
1
14. Let the sets A and B denote the domain and range respectively of the function f (x)  , where [x]
[x] – x
denotes the smallest integer greater than or equal to x. Then among the statements :
(S1) : A  B = (1, ) – N and
(S2) : A  B = (1, )
(1) only (S1) is true (2) neither (S1) nor (S2) is true
(3) only (S2) is true (4) both (S1) and (S2) are true
Sol. (1)
1
f x 
x  x
If x  I  x  = [x] (greatest integer function)
If x I  x   [x]  1
 1
 [x]  x , x  I

 f (x)  
 1
, x I
 [x]  1  x
 1
 {x} , x  I,(does not exist)

 f (x)  
 1
, x I
 1  {x}
 domain of f(x) = R –I
1
Now, f(x) = , x I
1  {x}
 x < {x} < 1
 0  1 1  {x}  1
1
 1
1  {x}
 Range (1,  )
 A=R–I
B = (1  )
So, A  B  (1, )  N
A  B  (1, )
 S1 is only correct.
15. Let a  b be two-zero real numbers. Then the number of elements in the set
X {z : Re(az2 bz) a and Re(bz 2 az) b} is equal to :
(1) 0 (2) 2 (3) 1 (4) 3
Sol. (1) Bonus
 z  z  2Re  z  If z = x + iy  z  z  2x z2 + ( z )2 = 2 (x2 – y2)
(az2 + bz) + (a z 2 + b z ) = 2a ……….(1)
(bz2 + az) + (b z 2 + a z ) = 2b ……….(2)
add (1) and (2)
(a + b) z2 + (a + b) z + (a +b) z 2 + (a + b) z =2(a + b)
(a + b) [z2 + z + ( z )2 + z ] = 2(a + b) ……….(3)
sub. (1) and (2)
(a – b) [z2 – z + z 2 – z ] = 2(a – b) ……….(4)

z + z –z–z =2
2
Case I: If a + b  0
From (3) & (4)
2x + 2 ( x2 – y2) = 2 x2 – y2 + x =1 ……….(5)
2( x – y ) – 2x = 2
2 2
x – y – x =1
2 2
……….(6)
(5) – (6)
2x = 0 x = 0
from (5) y2 = – 1 not possbible
Ans = 0
Case II: If a + b = 0 then infinite number of solution.
So, the set X have infinite number of elements.
16. The sum of all values of , for which the points whose position vectors are i  2j  3k, 2i  3j  4k,    1 i  2k
and 9iˆ  ( – 8)ˆj  6kˆ are coplanar, is equal to :
(1) –2 (2) 2 (3) 6 (4) 4
Sol. (2)
A  1, 2,3 

B   2, 3, 4  
C     1,0, 2  

D   9,   8,6  
AB AC AD   0
 
1 1 1
 2 1  0
8 6 3
(6 +  – 6) + 1 (3 + 8) + (2 – 6 – 16) = 0
2 – 2 –8 = 0
 = 4, –2
 sum of all values of  = 2
Ans. option 2
x –1 y – 2 z – 3
17. Let the line L pass through the point (0, 1, 2), intersect the line   and be parallel to the
2 3 4
plane 2x + y – 3z = 4. Then the distance of the point P(1, –9, 2) from the line L is :
(1) 9 (2) 54 (3) 69 (4) 74
Sol. (4)
(2, 1, –3)
P(0, 1, 2)
Q [2+1, 3 + 2, 4 +3]
line
x 1 y  2 z  3
  
2x + y – 3z = 4 2 3 4
PQ = (2 +1, 3 +1, 4 + 1)
PQ  n  0 (2 +1).(2) +( 3 +1) (1) + (4 + 1) (–3) = 0
– 5 = 0
 = 0
Q = (1, 2, 3)
eqn of line
x  0 y 1 z  2
  
1 1 1
distance of line from (1, –9, 2)
(P'Q').(1, 1, 1) = 0
–+ = 0
–+=
 –
 Q' = (– 3, –2, 1)
P'Q' = 16  49  9  74
18. All the letters of the word PUBLIC are written in all possible orders and these words are written as in a
dictionary with serial numbers. Then the serial number of the word PUBLIC is :
(1) 580 (2) 578 (3) 576 (4) 582
Sol. (4)
B ––––––––––––––––– = 5! = 120
C ––––––––––––––––– = 5! = 120
I –––––––––––––––––– = 5! = 120
L ––––––––––––––––– = 5! = 120
PB –––––––––––––––– = 4! = 24
PC –––––––––––––––– = 4! = 24
PI ––––––––––––––––– = 4! = 24
PL –––––––––––––––– = 4! = 24
PUBC ––––––––––––– = 2! = 2
PUBI –––––––––––––– = 2! = 2
PUBLC –––––––––––– = 1
PUBLIC ––––––––––– = 1
582
Rank = 582
Ans. Option 4
19. Let the vectors a, b,c represent three coterminous edges of a parallelepiped of volume V. Then the volume of
the parallelepiped, whose coterminous edges are represented by a,b  c and a  2b  3c is equal to :
(1) 2 V (2) 6 V (3) 3 V (4) V
Sol. (4)
v  a b c 
v1  a b+c a + 2b + 3c 
1 0 0
v1  0 1 1 a b c 
1 2 3
v1 = (3–2)v
=v
Ans. Option 4
20. Among the statements :

(S1) : 20232022 –19992022 is divisible by 8
(S2) : 13(13)n –11n – 13 is divisible by 144 for infinitely many n 
(1) only (S2) is correct (2) only (S1) is correct
(3) both (S1) and (S2) are incorrect (4) both (S1) and (S2) are correct
Sol. (4)
xn-yn = (x – y) [xn–1+xn–2y+xn–3y2+……+yn–1]
xn–yn is divisible by x – y
Stat 1  (2023)2022 – (1999)2022
(2023) – (1999) = 24
 (2023)2022 – (1999)2022
   is divisible by 8
Stat 2  13 (1 + 12)n – 11n – 13
13 1  n C1 , 12   n C2 12   ...  11n  13
2
 
 156n  11n   13  n C2 12  13  n C3 12  ....
2 3
 145n  13  n C2 12  13  n C3 12  ....

2 3
If (n = 144m, mN) then it is divisible by 144 for infinite values of n.

Ans. Option 4
SECTION-B
21. The value of tan 9° – tan 27° – tan 63° + tan 81° is ____ :
Sol. 4
(tan 9º + cot 9º) – (tan 27º + cot 27º)
1 1

sin 9º cos9º sin 27º cos 27º
2 2

sin18º sin 54º
2  4 2  4

5 1   5 1
8  5  1 8  5  1

4 4

2 5 1 
   5 1 

=4
22. If (20) 19 + 2(21)(20)18 + 3(21)2 (20)17 + …. + 20(21)19 = k(20)19, then k is equal to _____ :
Sol. 400
S = (20)19 + 2(21) (20)18 + ……. + 20(21)19
21
S = 21(20)18 + 2(21)9 (20)17 + ……. + (21)20
20
Subtract
 21 
1   S = (20) + (21) (20) + (21) (20) + ……. + (21) – (21)
19 18 2 17 19 20
 20 
  21 20 
1    
 1  19   20   – (21)20
  S = (20)  21 
 20 
 1  20 
 
 1 
  S = (21) – (20) – (21)
20 20 20
 20 
S = (20)21 = K (20)19 (given)
K = (20)2 = 400
x 2 y2
23. Let the eccentricity of an ellipse   1 is reciprocal to that of the hyperbola 2x2 –2y2 = 1. If the ellipse
a 2 b2
intersects the hyperbola at right angles, then square of length of the latus-rectum of the ellipse is _____:
Sol. 2
x 2 y2
E : 2  2 1 e
a b
1
H : x 2  y 2   e'  2
2
1
e
2
1
e2 
2
b2 1 b2 1
1 2
  2 
a 2 a 2
a 2  2b2
E & H are at right angle
they are confocal
Focus of Hyperbola = focus of ellipse
 1   a 
  2,0     ,0 
 2   2 
a 2
a 2  2b2  b2  1
2b 2  1
Length of LR  
a 2
= 2
Square of LR = 2
24. For , , z  and  > 1, if  – 1 is the radius of the circle |z –|2 + |z –|2 = 2, then | – | is equal to
____:
Sol. 2
z  z1  z  z2  z1  z2
2 2 2
z1  , z2  
   2
2
    2
2r  2
2   1  2
 4    1  2
2
   2
 3  1
25. Let a curve y = f(x), x  (0, ) pass through the points P 1,  and Q  a,  . If the tangent at any point
 2  2
R (b,f(b)) to the given curve cuts the y-axis at the points S(0, c) such that bc = 3, then (PQ)2 is equal to _____:
Sol. 5
Equation of tangent at R(b, f(2)) is

y – f (b) = f '(b).(x – b)
which passes through (0, c)
c – f (b) = f '(b).(–b)
3
 – f (b) = f (b).(–b)
b
bf '  b  – f  b  3
 2
=– 3
b b
 f b  3 f b 3
 d  3   2 
 b  b b 2b
Which passes through (1, 3/2)
3 3
  0
2 2
3
 f b 
2b
1 1 3
f a     b3
2 2 2b
 c  1  Q  3,1/ 2 
 PQ2  22  1  5
2
x –1 2 – y z – 3 x – 4 y –1 z
26. If the lines   and   intersect, then the magnitude of the minimum value of
2 –3  5 2 
8 is _____:
Sol. 18
x –1 2 – y z – 3 x – 4 y –1 z
If the lines   and   intersect Point of first line (1, 2, 3) and point on second
2 –3  5 2 
line (4, 1, 0).
Vector joining both points is 3i  j  3k
Now vector along second line is 2i  3j   k
Also vector along second line is 5i  2 j  k
Now these three vectors must be coplanar
2 3 
 5 2 
3 1 3
 2(6 – ) –3(15 + 3) + (11) = 0
 –  = 3
Now  = 3 + 
 Given expression 8(3 + ). = 8 (2 + 3)
2
 9 9  3
 8  2  3     8      18
 4 4  2
So magnitude of minimum value = 18
x
27. Let f (x) 1
,x – {–1}, n ,n 2. If fn (x) =n (fofof….. upto n times) (x), then
n n
1 x
1
lim  x n –2  f n (x)  dx is equal to _____:
n 
0
Sol. 0
x
Let f (x) 1
,x – {–1}, n ,n 2.
n n
1 x
If f (x) =n (fofof….. upto n times) (x)
n
1
then lim  x n –2  f n (x)  dx
n 
0
f  f  x  
x
1  2x  n 1/n

f f  f  x    x
1  3x  n 1/n
x
Similarly f n  x  
1  n  x  n 1/n
x n  2  xdx x n 1  dx
Now lim   lim 
n 
1  n  x  n 1/n n 
1  n  x n 1/n
Now 1 + nxn = t
n2  xn 1dx  dt
dt
x n 1dx  2
n
1 1 n dt
 lim 2 
n  n 1 t1/n
1 n
 1 1 
1 t n 
 lim 2 
n  n 1
1  
 n 1
1  n 1
 1
 lim
n  n  n  1
 1  n  n  1 Now let n 

  h
1 h
 1
1    1
 lim 
h
h 0 1 1 h

h h
Using series expansion
0
28. If the mean and variance of the frequency distribution.

xi 2 4 6 8 10 12 14 16
fi 4 4  15 8  4 5
are 9 and 15.08 respectively, then the value of 2 + 2 –  is _____:
Sol. 25
N   f i  40    
f x i i  360  6  12
f x i
2
i  3904  36  144
Mean  x  
f xi i
9
f i
 360 + 6 + 12 = 9 (40 +  + )

3 = 3   = 
f x   fi x i 
2 2
   
  f 
2 i 1
fi  i 
3904  36  144

   x   15.08
2
40    
3904  180
   9   15.08
2
40  2
 = 5
Now,  + 2 –  = 2 = 25
29. The number of points, where the curve y = x5 –20x3 + 50x + 2 crosses the x-axis is ____:
Sol. 5
y = x5 – 20x3 + 50x + 2
dy
= 5x4 – 60x2 + 50 = 5(x4 – 12x2 + 10)
dx
dy
= 0  x4 – 12x2 +10 = 0
dx
12  144  40
x2 =
2
 x 2  6  26  x 2  6  5.1
 x 2  11.1,0.9
 x  3.3, 0.95
f(0) = 2, f (1) = + ve, f (2) = – ve
f(–1) = – ve, f (–2) = +ve
The number of points where the curve cuts the x-axis = 5.
30. The number of 4-letter words, with or without meaning, each consisting of 2 vowels and 2 consonants, which
can be formed from the letters of the word UNIVERSE without repetition is _____:
Sol. 432
UNIVERSE
Vowels Consonant
E, E N, V,
I, U R, S
Case I 2 vowels different, 2 consonant different
 3
C2  4 C2   4!
= (3) (6) (24)
= 432
SECTION - A
31. The temperature of an ideal gas is increased from 200 K to 800 K. If r.m.s. speed of gas at 200 K is v 0 . Then,
r.m.s. speed of the gas at 800 K will be:
v0
(1) 4v 0 (2) 2v 0 (3) v 0 (4)
4
Sol. (2)
3RT
using vrms =
m
3R  200
v0 = ….(1)
m
3R  800
(v’) = ….(2)
m
dividing (2) by (1)
v' 800
= = 4 =2
v0 200
or v’ = 2v0
32. Given below are two statements : one is labelled as assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R
Assertion A : The phase difference of two light wave change if they travel through different media having same
thickness, but different indices of refraction
Reason R : The wavelengths of waves are different in different media.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below
Sol. (1)
Both the statements are true
As we know speed of light in a medium
c c
v= or f =
 
1
therefore 

when light will travel through two different mediums their phase difference will change
2
Q = x

and R is correction explanation
33. For an amplitude modulated wave the minimum amplitude is 3 V, while the modulation index is 60%. The
maximum amplitude of the modulated wave is :
(1) 10 V (2) 12 V (3) 15 V (4) 5 V
Sol. (2)
Given, modulation index = 60% = 0.6
A m 0.6

Ac 1
Using componendo – dividendo, we can write
Am  Ac 0.6  1 1.6
= =
Am  Ac 0.6  1 0.4
1.6
Am + Ac = × (Am – Ac)
0.4
1.6
= × (-3) = 12 V
0.4
34. The ratio of speed of sound in hydrogen gas to the speed of sound in oxygen gas at the same temperature is :
(1) 1 : 4 (2) 1 : 2 (3) 1 : 1 (4) 4 : 1
Sol. (4)
RT
Using v =
m
U H2 m O2 32 16
= = = =4:1
v O2 m H2 2 1
(since both hydrogen and oxygen are di-atomic,  will be same)
35. A dipole comprises of two charged particles of identical magnitude q and opposite in nature. The mass 'm' of
the positive charged particle is half of the mass of the negative charged particle. The two charges are separated
by a distance 'l'. If the dipole is placed in a uniform electric field ' E '; in such a way that dipole axis makes a
very small angle with the electric field, ' E '. The angular frequency of the oscillations of the dipole when
released is given by :
4qE 8qE 8qE 4qE
(1) (2) (3) (4)
3ml ml 3ml ml
Sol. (1)
In this case, since masses of both charges are not same, therefore, we need to find center of mass (COM), about
which dipole will oscillate and then we will find moment of Inertia about this axis, to find torque & hence .
As we know, COM will divide length in the inverse ratio of the masses, therefore, COM will be at a distance of
L 2L
from 2m & from m.
3 3
MI about this axis E
2 2 q1 m
L  2L  L q
I = 2m   +  
3  3  –q2 m
2mL2 4mL2 6mL2 2mL2
Or I = + = =
a a a 3
2mL2
Using  = & p = qL
3
qLE 3qE
= 2
= None of these given option is correct. (BONUS)
2L 2mL
3
Assertion A : When you squeeze one end of a tube to get toothpaste out from the other end. Pascal's principle
is observed.
Reason R : A change in the pressure applied to an enclosed incompressible fluid is transmitted undiminished
to every portion of the fluid and to the walls of its container.
Sol. (2)
As per pascal’s law, when we apply pressure to an ideal liquid it is equally distributed in the entire liquid and
to the walls as well.
Since due to applied pressure, every morning, the tooth paste does not get compressed and we can safely
consider it on incompressible liquid.
Therefore both statements are true and R is correct explanation of A.
37. A student is provided with a variable voltage source V, a test resistor R T  10 , two identical galvanometers
G 1 and G 2 and two additional resistors, R 1  10M  and R 2  0.001 . For conducting an experiment to
verify ohm's law, the most suitable circuit is :
(1) (2)
(3) (4)
Sol. (2)
This question is based on the conceptual clarity that we should connect ammeter in series and voltmeter in
parallel to measure current and potential difference, respectively
Also, when we use a galvanometer to create an ammeter, shunt resistance should be very small and should be
in parallel.
When we create a voltemeter shunt should be large and in series with galvanometer.
All these criteria are satisfied in option (2)
38. A body cools in 7 minutes from 60 o C to 40 o C . The temperature of the surrounding is 10o C . The temperature
of the body after the next 7 minutes
(1) 30 o C (2) 34 o C (3) 32 o C (4) 28o C
Sol. (4)
Method-1
Using exact law of cooling
T – Ts = (T0 – Ts) e-Kt
Case-I: (40 – 10) = (60 – 10) e-7K
30 = 50e-7K ….(1)
Case-II: (T – 10) = (40 – 10) e-7K or T - 10 = 30 e–7K
Dividing (2) by (1)
T  10 30
=
30 50
30  30
 T – 10 = = 18
50
or T = 28 °C
Methode-2
Using newton’s average law of cooling
Ti  Tf  T  Tf 
=k  i  Ts 
t  2 
60  40  60  40  20
Case-I:- =R   10   = k [40] ….(i)
7  2  7
40  T  20  T 
Case-II:- =R   ….(2)
7  2 
Dividing (2) by (1)
40  T 20  T
=
20 80
160 – 4T = 20 + T
5T = 140
T = 28 °C
39. The energy density associated with electric field E and magnetic field B of an electromagnetic wave in free
space is given by ( 0  permittivity of freespace,  0  permeability of freespace)
0 E 2 B2 E2  B2
(1) U E  , UB  (2) U E  , UB  0
2 2 0 2 0 2
E2 B2 0 E 2  B2
(3) U E  , UB  (4) U E  , UB  0
2 0 2 0 2 2
Sol. (1)
By theory of electromagnetic waves
1
UE = 0E2 and
2
1 B2
UB =
2 0
40. The weight of a body on the surface of the earth is 100 N. The gravitational force on it when taken at a height,
from the surface of earth, equal to one-fourth the radius of the earth is :
(1) 64 N (2) 25 N (3) 100 N (4) 50 N
Sol. (1)
GMm
using newton’s formula F =
r2
GM e m
at surface of earth, 100 = ….(1)
Re 2
R 5
at r = Re + e = Re
4 4
GM e m 16 GM e m
F’ = 2
= ×
5  25 R e2
 R e 
4 
16
F’ = × 100 = 64 N
25
41. A capacitor of capacitance 150.0 F is connected to an alternating source of emf given by E = 36 sin(120t) V.
The maximum value of current in the circuit is approximatively equal to :
1
(1) 2A (2) 2 2A (3) A (4) 2A
2
Sol. (4)
Given alternating AC source E = 36 sin (120 t) v & capacitor C = 150 F
using Q = CV
we can write Q = (CE0 sin t)
dQ
Current i = = (CE0  cos t)
dt
max. value of current i0 = CE0 
or i0 = 150 × 10-6 × 36 × 120
= 2.03 A
42. A 2 meter long scale with least count of 0.2 cm is used to measure the locations of objects on an optical bench.
While measuring the focal length of a convex lens, the object pin and the convex lens are placed at 80 cm mark
and 1 m mark., respectively. The image of the object pin on the other side of lens coincides with image pin that
is kept at 180 cm mark. The % error in the estimation of focal length is :
(1) 0.51 (2) 1.02 (3) 0.85 (4) 1.70
Sol. (4)
Based on the data provided
U = 100 – 80 = 20 cm
V = 180 – 100 = 80 cm
1 1 1 uv 20  80
Using   or f = = or f = 16 cm
f v u u  v 20  80
For error analysis,
1 1 1
 
f v u
Differentiating
Df Dv u
–
2
= – 2
–
f v u2
To calculate u & v
U = (100 ± 2) – (80 ± 0.2) = (20 ± 0.4) cm
Therefore u = 0.4 cm,
Similarly v = 0.4 cm.
f  v u 
Now = f 2  2 80
f v u 
 0.4 100
f 0.4 
= 16    180 cm
f   80  2 (20) 2 
 
(Note: every data is in cm)
f 16  0.4  1 
=  2  1
f  20   4 
2
16  0.4 17 17  0.4
=  =
2 16 400
20
f 17  0.4
% Error : × 100 =  1000
f 400
= 1.7
43. Figure shows a part of an electric circuit. The potentials at points a, b and c are 30 V, 12 V and 2 V respectively.
The current through the 20  resistor will be
(1) 1.0 A (2) 0.2 A (3) 0.4 A (4) 0.6 A

Sol. (3)
Let potential of the junction be x volts
using junction law ii + i2 + i3 = 0
x  30 x  12 x2
or + + =0
10 20 30

or 6x  180  3x  36  2x  4   0
60
1
or [11x  220]  0
60
220
or x =  20V
11
x  12
current through 20  is =
20
20  12
i2 =  0.4A
20
1
44. A small particle of mass m moves in such a way that its potential energy U  m 2 r 2 where  is constant
2
and r is the distance of the particle from origin. Assuming Bohr's quantization of momentum and circular orbit,
the radius of nth orbit will be proportional to,
1
(1) n (2) n2 (3) (4) n
n
Sol. (4)
1
Given U = m2r2, to find radius r as f (n), where n is orbit
2
nh
Using Bohr’s postulate : angular momentum L = mvr =
2
nh
or mr2 =
2
r n
Assertion A : Diffusion current in a p-n junction is greater than the drift current in magnitude if the junction is
forward biased.
Reason R: Diffusion current in a p-n junction is from the n-side to the p-side if the junction is forward biased.
Sol. (4)
Statement A is correct and Statement R is wrong as per the theory of p-n junction.
46. Choose the incorrect statement from the following :

(1) The linear speed of a planet revolving around the sun remains constant.
(2) The speed of satellite in a given circular orbit remains constant.
(3) When a body falls towards earth, the displacement of earth towards the body is negligible.
(4) For a planet revolving around the sun in an elliptical orbit, the total energy of the planet remains constant.
Sol. (1)
Since planets revolve around the sun in an elliptical orbit its linear speed is not constant, hence option 1 not
correct (and right choice).
Other statement are correct as per theory.
47. A child of mass 5 kg is going round a merry-go-round that makes 1 rotation in 3.14 s. The radius of the merry-
go-round is 2 m. The centrifugal force on the child will be
(1) 40 N (2) 100 N (3) 80 N (4) 50 N
Sol. (1)
Given, m = 5kg, R = 2 m
time t for 1 rev = 3.14 sec or  sec
q for 1 rev = 2  rad
q 2
Therefore  = = = 2 rad/s
t 
centrifugal force F = mR2
or F = 5 × 2 × 22 = 40 N
48. As shown in the figure, a particle is moving with constant speed  m/s. Considering its motion from A to B, the
magnitude of the average velocity is :
(1)  m / s (2) 2 3 m / s (3) 3m /s (4) 1.5 3 m / s

Sol. (4)
Given speed v =  m/s
or R = 

or  = rad / s
R
2
angular displacement q = 120° or
3
uising q = t
q 2 / 3 2R
t= = =
 /R 3
linear displacement d = 2 R sin (q/2)
 120 
d = 2R sin  
 2 
3
=2R × sin 60 = 2R ×
2
= R 3
d R 3 3 3
average velocity = = =
t 2R / 3 2
49. The work functions of Aluminium and Gold are 4.1 eV and and 5.1 eV respectively. The ratio of the slope of
the stopping potential versus frequency plot for Gold to that of Aluminium is
(1) 1 (2) 2 (3) 1.24 (4) 1.5
Sol. (1)
Using KEmax = eVs = hf –0
where 0 is work function, Vs is stopping potential and f is frequency
h 
or Vs = f  0
e e
therefore the slope m will be same for all graphs and will be independent of 0.
50. A particle starts with an initial velocity of 10.0 ms-1 along x-direction and accelerates uniformly at the rate of
2.0 ms-2. The time taken by the particle to reach the velocity of 60.0 ms-1 is __________.
(1) 3s (2) 6s (3) 25s (4) 30s
Sol. (3)
Using Ist equation of motion
vu
t=
a
60  10 50
t= = = 25 sec
2 2
SECTION - B
51. A simple pendulum with length 100 cm and bob of mass 250 g is executing S.H.M. of amplitude 10 cm. The
x
maximum tension in the string is found to be N . The value of x is __________.
40
Sol. (99)
For pendulum
mv 2
Tmax = mg + ….(1)
L
1
Given m = kg, L = 1m, g = 9.8 m/s2
4
1
and amplitude A = m
10
1 1
For SHM, KEmax = mv2 = m2A2
2 2
g
using  =
L
2
 g  2 mgA 2
mv = m 
2
 A = ….(2)
 L L
using (2) in (1)
mgA 2
Tmax = 2 mg +
L2
 1  1 01
= mg 1  2  = × 9.8 ×
 10  4 100
98.98
or Tmax =
40
Therefore x = 99
52. Experimentally it is found that 12.8 eV energy is required to separate a hydrogen atom into a proton and an
9
electron. So the orbital radius of the electron in a hydrogen atom is  10 10 m . The value of the x is : _______.
x
1
(1 eV = 1.6 × 10-19 J,  9  109 Nm 2 / C2 and electronic charge = 1.6 × 10-19 C)
40
Sol. (16)
ke 2
Using E =
2r
Re 2
r=
2E
Given E = 12.8 eV = 12.8 × e Joule
9  109 e 2 9  109  1.6  10 19
r= =
2  12.8e 2  12.8
9  10 10
9  10 10
r= = m
(2  12.8 / 1.6) 10
Therefore x = 16
53. A beam of light consisting of two wavelengths 7000 Å and 5500 Å is used to obtain interference pattern in
Young's double slit experiment. The distance between the slits is 2.5 mm and the distance between the place of
slits and the screen is 150 cm. The least distance from the central fringe, where the bright fringes due to both
the wavelengths coincide, is n × 10-5 m. The value of n is ______.
Sol. (462)
Let n1 maxima of 7000 Å coincides with n2 maxima of 5500 Å
therefore n11 = n22
n  5500 11
or 1  2 = =
n 2 1 7000 14
therefore 11 maxima of 7000 Å will coincide with 14th maximum of 5500 Å
th
To find the least distance of this

y = n11
n  D 11  7000  10 10  150  10 2
or y = 1 1 =
d 2.5  10 3
11  7  5
= × 10-5 m
2.5
or y = 462 × 10-5 m
therefore n = 462
54. Two concentric circular coils with radii 1 cm and 1000 cm, and number of turns 10 and 200 respectively are
placed coaxially with centers coinciding. The mutual inductance of this arrangement will be _______ × 10-8 H.
(Take,  2  10)
Sol. (4)
Given
a = 1000 cm
b = 1 cm
or b << a
we will take larger coil as primary
 0i p N
B=
2a
 0i p N
flux s = BA = × b2 × n
2a
s
Mutual inductance M =
ip
 0 Nnb 2
M=
2a
4   10 7  200  10    1  10 4
or M =
2  1000  10 2
2 -9
= 4 × 10
or M = 4 × 10-8 (using 2 = 10)
55. As shown in the figure, two parallel plate capacitors having equal plate area of 200 cm2 are joined in such a way
that   b. The equivalent capacitance of the combination is x 0 F. The value of x is _______.
Sol. (5)
As per the arrangement given, distance between the capacitor plates are a and b and a  b
using the diagram we can write
b = 5 – a – 1 = (4 – a) in mm
 A
as we know capacitance of capacitor C = 0
d
and in series arrangement
1 1 1
 
Ceq C1 C 2
1 a 4a 4(in mm)
= + =
C eq 0 A 0 A 0 A
0 A
or Ceq =
4(mm)
Given A = 200 cm2
  200  10 4
Ceq = 0
4  10 3
= 0 50 × 10-1
or Ceq = 50 farad
therefore n =5

56. A proton with a kinetic energy of 2.0 eV moves into a region of uniform magnetic field of magnitude  10 3 T.
2
The angle between the direction of magnetic field and velocity of proton is 60 o. The pitch of the helical path
taken by the proton is ______ cm.
(Take, mass of proton = 1.6 × 10-27 kg and Charge on proton = 1.6 × 10-19 C).
Sol. (40)

B= × 10-3
2
1
K.E. = mV2
2
2KE
V=
m
PItch = v cos 60° × time period of one rotation

2m
= v cos 60° ×
eB
2  2  1.6  10 9 2   1.6  10 27
= × cos 60° ×
1.6  10 27 
1.6  10 19   10 3
2
1
= 2 × 104 × × 4 × 10-5
2
= 4 × 10-1 m = 40 cm
57. A body is dropped on ground from a height 'h1' and after hitting the ground, it rebounds to a height 'h2'. If the
ratio of velocities of the body just before and after hitting ground is 4, then percentage loss in kinetic energy of
x
the body is . The value of x is ________.
4
Sol. (375)
Let u and v be speeds, just before and after body strikes the ground.
u 4
Given 
v 1
1 1
mu 2  mv 2
loss in KE: KE = 2 2
1
mu 2
2
2
v 1 15
KE = 1 -   = 1  
u 16 16
15
Percentage loss = × 100 = 375
16
58. A ring and a solid sphere rotating about an axis passing trough their centers have same radii of gyration. The
2
axis of rotation is perpendicular to plane of ring. The ratio of radius of ring to that of sphere is . The value
x
of x is ______.
Sol. (5)
Given radius of gyration is same for ring and solid sphere
KR = Kss
2
RR = R ss
5
R 2
or R =
R ss 5
therefore x = 5
59. As shown in the figure, the voltmeter reads 2 V across 5  resistor. The resistance of the voltmeter is ___  .
Sol. (20)
Method-I:
5R 10  7R
Req = 2 + =
5R 5R
3 3(5  R)
i= =
R eq 10  7R
2 2
i1 = , i2 =
5 R
i = i1 + i2
3(5  R) 2 2 2(5  R)
=  =
10  7R 5 R 5R
15R (5 + R) = 2 (5 + R) (10 + 7R)
75R + 15R2 = 2 (50 + 35R + 10R + 2R2)
15R2 + 75R = 14R2 + 90R + 100
R2 – 15 R – 100 = 0
15 225  1  100
R=
2
15  625 15  25
= =
2 2
R = 20 
Method-II:
Given potential across 5and voltmeter is 2V. To find resistance R of voltmeter.
Let current in 5 be i1, and in R i2.
2 2
i1 = and i2 =
5 R
1
V across 2will be 1 volt and i = A.
2
Using junction law: i = i1 + i2
1 2 2
= +
2 5 R
2 1 2 1
= – =
R 2 5 10
R = 20
60. A metal block of mass m is suspended from a rigid support through a metal wire of diameter 14 mm. The tensile
stress developed in the wire under equilibrium state is 7 × 105 Nm-2 . The value of mass m is _____kg.
22
(Take, g = 9.8 ms-2 and   )
7
Sol. 11
force mg
Using stress = 
area A
S A 7  105  R 2
m= =
g g
22
7  105   (7  10 3 ) 2
  7 (Note: 14 mm is diameter)
9.8
= 11 kg
SECTION - A
List I List II
(Natural Amino acid) (One Letter Code)
(A) Arginine (I) D
(B) Aspartic acid (II) N
(C) Asparagine (III) A
(D) Alanine (IV) R
(1) (A) – III, (B) – I, (C) – II (D) –IV (2) (A) – IV, (B) – I, (C) – II (D) –III
(3) (A) – IV, (B) – I, (C) – III (D) –II (4) (A) – I, (B) – III, (C) – IV (D) –II
Sol. 2
Natural Amino acid One Letter Code
(i) Arginine R
(ii) Aspartic acid D
(iii) Asparagine N
(iv) Alanine A
62. Formation of which complex, among the following, is not a confirmatory test of Pb2 ions
(1) lead sulphate (2) lead nitrate (3) lead chromate (4) lead iodide
Sol. 2
 Pb(NO3)2 is a soluble colourless compound so it cannot be used in confirmatory test of Pb+2 ion.
Topic : Redox Reaction

Sub Topic : Titration
Level : Easy
63. The volume of 0.02 M aqueous HBr required to neutralize 10.0 mL of 0.01 M aqueous Ba(OH)2 is (Assume
complete neutralization)
(1) 5.0 mL (2) 10.0 mL (3) 2.5 mL (4) 7.5 mL
Sol. 2
m.eq. of HBr = m.eq. of Ba(OH)2
M1 × n1 × V1(mL) = M2 × n2 × V2(mL)
0.02 × 1 × V1(mL) = 0.02 × 2 × 10
V1(mL) = 10 mL
64. Group–13 elements react with O 2 in amorphous form to form oxides of type M2 O3 (M = element). Which
among the following is the most basic oxide?
(1) Al2O3 (2) Tl2 O3 (3) Ga 2 O3 (4) B2O3
Sol. 2
As electropositive character increases basic character of oxide increases.
B2 O3 Al2 O3 Ga 2 O3 In 2 O3 Tl2 O3
acidic amphoteric basic
65. The IUPAC name of K3[Co(C2O4 )3 ] is -

(1) Potassium tris(oxalate) cobaltate(III) (2) Potassium trioxalatocobalt(III)
(3) Potassium trioxalatocobaltate(III) (4) Potassium tris(oxalate)cobalt(III)
Sol. 3
IUPAC name of K3[Co(C2O4)3] is Potassium trioxalatocobaltate(III)
Topic : Atomic Structure
Sub Topic : De-Broglie Principle
Level : Moderate
66. If the radius of the first orbit of hydrogen atom is a0, then de Broglie’s wavelength of electron in 3rd orbit is
a a
(1) 0 (2) 0 (3) 6a 0 (4) 3a 0
6 3
Sol. 3
By De-Broglie principle
2r = n
n2
2  a 0  n
z
n
2  a 0  
z
3
  2  a 0  6a 0
1
Topic : Chemistry in everyday life

Sub Topic : Pesticides
Level : Easy
67. The group of chemicals used as pesticide is
(1) Sodium chlorate, DDT, PAN (2) DDT, Aldrin
(3) Aldrin, Sodium chlorate, Sodium arsinite (4) Dieldrin, Sodium arsinite, Tetrachlorothene
Sol. 2
(Fact base)
DDT & Aldrin are used as pesticide
Topic : Surface Chemistry

Sub Topic : Chromatography
Level : Moderate
68. From the figure of column, chromatography given below, identify incorrect statements.
A. Compound ‘c’ is more polar than ‘a’ and ‘b’

B. Compound ‘a’ is least polar
C. Compound ‘b’ comes out of the column before ‘c’ and after ‘a’
D. Compound ‘a’ spends more time in the column
(1) A, B and D only (2) A, B and C only (3) B and D only (D) B, C and D only
Sol. 2
a
b
c
(i) Since C is eluting first and a is last that means C is least power and a is most polar.
(ii) So incorrect options will be (A), (B), (C)
Adsorption of compound  Attraction

 Polarity
 Spend time in column
1

come out from column
Order of polarity  a > b > c
Come out from column order  c > b > a
Spend time in column  a > b > c
69. Ion having highest hydration enthalpy among the given alkaline earth metal ions is:
(1) Be2 (2) Ba 2 (3) Ca 2 (4) Sr 2
Sol. 1
1
Hydration enthalpy 
size
Down the group as size increases hydration enthalpy decreases
Order: Be2+ > Mg+2 > Ca+2 > Sr+2 > Ba+2
Topic : Alcohol
Sub Topic : Acidic Strength
Level : Easy
70. The strongest acid from the following is
(1) (2) (3) (4)
Sol. 4
OH OH OH OH
Cl CH3 NO2
–I +I –I
Since –I of –NO2 > Cl
So, most acidic will be (4)
Topic : Hydrogen
Sub Topic : Alkene-Chemical Properties
Level : Moderate
71. In the following reaction, ‘B’ is
(1) (2)
(3) (4)
Sol. 4
H
OH OH2

–CH3–Shift
H


72. Structures of BeCl2 in solid state, vapour phase and at very high temperature respectively are:
(1) Polymeric, Dimeric, Monomeric (2) Dimeric, Polymeric, Monomeric
(3) Monomeric, Dimeric, Polymeric (4) Polymeric, Monomeric, Dimeric
Sol. 1
In solid state BeCl2 as polymer, in vapour state it form chloro-bridged dimer while above 1200K it is monomer.
Topic : Chemical Kinetic
Sub Topic : Complex Reaction/Activation energy
Level : Moderate
73. Consider the following reaction that goes from A to B in three steps as shown below:
Choose the correct option

Number of intermediates Number of Activated complex Rate determining step
(1) 2 3 II
(2) 3 2 II
(3) 2 3 III
(4) 2 3 I
Sol. 1
AC-2
AC-1 AC-3
A
Inter- Inter- B
mediate-1 mediate-2
Number of Intermediate  2
Number of Activated complex  3
Rate determining step  II
Topic : Electrochemistry
Sub Topic : Electrolyte Cell
Level : Easy
74. The product, which is not obtained during the electrolysis of brine solution is
(1) HCl (2) NaOH (3) Cl2 (4) H 2
Sol. 1
Brine solution (NaCl + H2O)
NaCl  Na+ + Cl–
Electrolyte
H2O  2H+ + OH–
At Cathode  2H + 2e  H2
At Anode  2Cl–  Cl2 + 2e
Na+ + OH–  NaOH
Answer 1 (HCl)
75. Which one of the following elements will remain as liquid inside pure boiling water?
(1) Li (2) Ga (3) Cs (4) Br
Sol. 2
Li, Cs reacts vigorously with water.
Br2 changes in vapour state in boiling water (BP = 58°C)
Ga reacts with water above 100°C (MP = 29°C, BP = 2400°C)
76. Given below are two statements: one is labelled as “Assertion A” and the other is labelled as “Reason R”
Assertion A: In the complex Ni(CO)4 and Fe(CO)5 , the metals have zero oxidation state.
Reason R: Low oxidation states are found when a complex has ligands capable of  –donor character in addition
to the  – bonding.
(1) A is not correct but R is correct.
(2) A is correct but R is not corret
(4) Both A and R are correct but R is NOT the correct explanation of A.
Sol. 2
Low oxidation state of metals can stabilized by synergic bonding so ligand has to be -acceptor.
Topic : Chemistry in everyday life

Sub Topic : Chemical in medicines
Level : Easy
Statement I: Morphine is a narcotic analgesic. It helps in reliving pain without producing sleep.
Statement II: Morphine and its derivatives are obtained from opium poppy.
(1) Statement I is true but statement II is false (2) Both statement I and statement II are true
(3) Statement I is false but statement II is true (4) Both Statement I and Statement II are false
Sol. 2
Fact
Morphine
(i) Morphine is a narcotic analgesic, it help in relieving plan and producing sleep.
(ii) Morphine and its derivatives are obtained from opium.
78. Find out the major product from the following reaction.

(1) MeMgBr/CuI
(2)n Pr l
(1) (2)
(3) (4)
Sol. 3
O O
 
Me + MgBr n—Pr—I
CuI
O
79. During the reaction of permanganate with thiosulphate, the change in oxidation of manganese occurs by value
of 3. Identify which of the below medium will favour the reaction
(1) aqueous neutral (2) aqueous acidlic
(3) both aqueous acidic and neutral (4) both aqueous acidic and faintly alkaline
Sol. 1
In neutral or weakly alkaline solution oxidation state of Mn changes by 3 unit
7 4
Mn O4–1  Mn O2
80. Element not present in Nessler’s reagent is

(1) K (2) N (3) I (4) Hg
Sol. 2
Nessler reagent is- K2[HgI4]
SECTION - B
Topic : Electrochemistry
Sub Topic : Reactivity Series of Metal
Level : Moderate
81. The standard reduction potentials at 298 K for the following half cells are given below:
NO3–  4H  3e –  NO(g)  2H2O E  0.97V
V2 (aq)  2e –  V E  –1.19V
Fe3 (aq)  3e –  Fe E  –0.04V
Ag  (aq)  e –  Ag(s) E  0.80V
Au 3 (aq)  3e –  Au(s) E  1.40V
The number of metal(s) which will be oxidized by NO3– in aqueous solution is ____________
Sol. 3
Metal + NO3–  Metal Nitrate
(V, Fe, Ag)

Less value of reaction potential then 0.97 volt.
Answer 3
Topic : Solid State

Sub Topic : Types of Crystal System
Level : Tough
82. Number of crystal system from the following where body centred unit cell can be found, is__________
Cubic, tetragonal, orthorhombic, hexagonal, rhombohedral, monoclinic, triclinic
Sol. 3
BCC present in  Cubic, Tetragonal orthorhombic
Topic : Carbonyl
Sub Topic : Chemical Properties
Level : Easy
83. Among the following the number of compounds which will give positive iodoform reaction is________
(a) 1–Phenylbutan–2–one
(b) 2–Methylbutan–2–ol
(c) 3–Methylbutan–2–ol
(d) 1–Phenylethanol
(e) 3,3–dimethylbutan–2–one
(f) 1–Phenylpropan –2–ol
Sol. 4
Iodo form test
(a) Ph –NO
O
(b) –NO
OH
(c) –Yes
OH
Ph
(d) –Yes
OH
(e) –Yes
O
OH
(f) –Yes
Ph
For carbonyl compound —C—CH3 for alcohol —CH—CH3 should be present for idoform test.
O OH
Topic : Nitrogen Contain

Sub Topic : Isomerism
Level : Moderate
84. Number of isomeric aromatic amines with molecular formula C8 H11N , which can be synthesized by Gabriel
Phthalimide synthesis is_________
Sol. 5
By Gabriel phthalimide synthesis  i-amine is prepared
C8H11N  Should be aromatic & i-amine
H–N
Du = C + 1 –
2
11 – 1
=8+1–
2
10
= 9– = 9 – 5 = 4  it means benzene ring
2
NH2 NH2 NH2
NH 2
(i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
NH2
(v)
Topic : Liquid Solution
Sub Topic : Osmotic Pressure
Level : Easy
85. Consider the following pairs of solution which will be isotonic at the same temperature. The number of pairs of
solutions is/are______________
A. 1 M aq. NaCl and 2 M aq. Urea
B. 1 M aq. CaCl2 and 1.5 M aq. KCl
C. 1.5 M aq. AlCl3 and 2 M aq. Na 2SO4
D. 2.5 M aq. KCl and 1 M aq. Al2 (SO4 )3
Sol. 4
A. 1 M aq. NaCl  2 M aq. Ions
Isotonic
2 M aq. Urea  2 M aq. Urea
B. 1 M aq. CaCl2  3 M aq. Ions

Isotonic
1.5 M aq. KCl  3 M aq. Ions
C. 1.5 M aq. AlCl3  6 M aq. Ions

Isotonic
2 M aq. Na 2SO4  6 M aq. Ions
D. 2.5 M aq. KCl  5 M aq. Ions

Isotonic
1 M aq. Al2 (SO4 )3  5 M aq. Ions
Topic : Surface Chemistry

Sub Topic : Classification of Colloids
Level : Easy
86. The number of colloidal systems from the following, which will have ‘liquid’ as the dispersion medium,
is_________
Gem stones, paints, smoke, cheese, milk, hair cream, insecticide sprays, froth, soap lather
Sol. 5
Liquid dispersion medium
Paints, milk, hair cream, froth, soap lather
Topic : Solid State

Sub Topic : Classification of Solid
Level : Moderate
87. In an ice crystal, each water molecule is hydrogen bonded to_____________ neighbouring molecules.
Sol. 2
O
H H
H O H
O H H O
H H
H
O H
Topic : Thermochemistry
Sub Topic : Heat of Combustion
Level : Moderate
88. Consider the following date
Heat of combustion of H2 (g) = –241.8 kJ mol–1
Heat of combustion of C(s) = –393.5 kJ mol–1
Heat of combustion of C2 H5OH(l) = –1234.7 kJ mol–1
The heat of formation of C2 H5OH(l) is (–) __________________kJ mol–1 (Nearest integer).
Sol. 278
2C(s) + O2  2CO2 –393.5 × 2 = –787 kJ …(1)
3
3H2 + O2  3H2O –241.5 × 8 × 3 = –725.4 kJ …(2)
2
C2H5OH + 3O2  2CO2 + 3H2O –1234.7 kJ …(3)
3H2O + 2CO2  C2H5OH + 3O2 +1234.7 kJ …(4)
1
2C(s) + 3H2(g) + O2 C2H5OH …(5)
2
eq (5) = eq (1) + eq (2) + eq (4)

= (–787) + (–72537) + (1234.7)
= –277.7 = 278
Topic : Chemical Equilibrium

Sub Topic : Dissociation
Level : Tough
89. The equilibrium composition for the reaction PCl3  Cl2 PCl5 at 298 K is given below:
[PCl3 ]eq  0.2mol L ,[Cl2 ]eq = 0.1 mol L ,[PCl5 ]eq = 0.40 mol L–1
–1 –1
If 0.2 mol of Cl2 is added at the same temperature, the equilibrium concentrations of PCl5 is _____×
10–2 mol L–1
Given: K C for the reaction at 298 K is 20
Sol. 48
[PCl5 ] 0.4
Kc    20
[PCl3 ][Cl2 ] 0.2  0.1
PCl3 + Cl2 PCl5
teq1 0.2 M 0.1 M 0.4 M
teq2 0.2 – x 0.1 + 0.2 – x 0.4 + x
0.4  x
K c  20 
(0.2  x)(0.3  x)
After solving by quadratic equation. We can get value of x.
X = 0.084
[PCl5] = 0.4 + x
= 0.4 + 0.084
= 0.484 = 48.4  10–2
Ans. 48
90. The number of species having a square planar shape from the following is___________________
XeF4 ,SF4 ,SiF4 ,BF4– ,BrF4– [Cu(NH3 ) 4 ]2 ,[FeCl 4 ]2– ,[PtCl 4 ]2–
Sol. 4
XeF4 ,BrF4– [Cu(NH3 ) 4 ]2 ,[PtCl4 ]2– has square planar shape.
SECTION – A
1.  
The area of the region (x, y) : x 2  y  8  x 2 , y  7 is.
(1) 24 (2) 21 (3) 20 (4) 18
Sol. (3)
y  x2 y  8  x2 y7
x2 = 8 – x2
x2 = 4
x=+2
 2
 1
2 1.7    8  2x 2  dx   2   x 2 dx
 1  0
  2x 3    x 3 
2 1

 2 7   8x  
  2 
  3 1   3 0

  16   2   1 
 2 7  16     8     2  
  3  3   3 
 32 22   10  2
 2 7     2 7  
 3 3  3 3
60
  20
3
 3 1 
 
Let P =  2 2  , A = 1 1 a b 
2.   and Q = PAPT. If PT Q2007 P    , then 2a+ b -3c – 4d equal to
 1 3 0 1  c d
- 
 2 2 
(1) 2004 (2) 2007 (3) 2005 (4) 2006
Sol. (3)
Q = PAPT
PT. Q2007. P = PT. Q.Q … Q.P
= PT(PAPT) (P.APT) … (PAPT)P.
 (PTP)A(PTP)A … A(PTP)
 3 1    3 1 
 2 2  2 2   1 0   I
PT.P =     
 1 2 3   1 3  0 1 
2  2 2
 PT. Q2007. P = A2007
1 1 1 1 1 2
A2 =    
0 1 0 1 0 1 
1 2007  a b 
A2007 =  
0 1   c d 
a = 1, b = 2007, c = 0, d = 1
2a + b – 3c – 4d = 2 + 2007 – 4 = 2005
3. Negation of (p  q)  (q  p) is
(1) (-q) p (2) p  (~ q) (3) (~ p) q (4) q  (~ p)
Sol. (4)
p  q  q  p
p q q p
p q q p
p q q p
q p.
4. Let C(, ) be the circumcenter of the triangle formed by the lines

4x + 3y = 69,
4y – 3x = 17 and
x + 7y = 61.
Then ( 2 +  +  is equal to
(1) 18 (2) 15 (3) 16 (4) 17
Sol. (4)
4x + 28y = 244
4x + 3y = 69
– – –
_________
25y = 175
y = 7, x = 12
A(12, 7)
– 3x + 4y = 17
3x + 21y = 183
___________
25y = 200
y = 8, x = 5
B(5, 8)
Circumcenter
17 15
 
2 2
 17 15 
 , 
 2 2
    
2
1+16 = 17
5. Let , , , be the three roots of the equation x3 + bx + c = 0. If  = 1= -, then b3 + 2c3 – 33 – 63 – 83 is
equal to
155 169
(1) (2) 21 (3) 19 (4)
8 8
Sol. (3)
 = 1
= – 1
Put  = –1
–1–b+c=0
c–b=1
also
.. = – c
–1=–c  c=1
b=0
x3 + 1 = 0
 = – 1,  = – w,  = – w2
b3 + 2c3 – 33 – 63 – 83
0 + 2 + 3 + 6 + 8 = 19
6. Let the number of elements in sets A and B be five and two respectively. Then the number of subsets of A × B
each having at least 3 and at most 6 elements is:
(1) 752 (2) 772 (3) 782 (4) 792
Sol. (4)
n  A  B  10
10
C3  10 C4  10 C5  10 C6  792
7. If the coefficients of three consecutive terms in the expansion of (1 + x)n are in the ratio 1 : 5 : 20, then the
coefficient of the fourth term is
(1) 5481 (2) 3654 (3) 2436 (4) 1817
Sol. (2)
n n
Cr Cr 1
n
 5 n
4
Cr 1 Cr
n  r 1
5 n  5r  4 …(2)
r
n = 6r – 1 … (1)
n  29,r  5
29
Coeff of 4th term = C3
= 3654
8. Let R be the focus of the parabola y2 = 20x and the line y = mx + c intersect the parabola at two points P and Q.
Let the point G(10, 10) be the centroid of the triangle PQR. If c – m = 6, then (PQ)2 is
(1) 325 (2) 346 (3) 296 (4) 317
Sol. (1)
y2 = 20x , y = mx + c
 yc
y2 = 20  
 m 
20y 20c y1  y 2  y3
y2 –  0  10
m m 3
20
 30
m
m2
3
and c – m = 6
2 20
c= 6 c
3 3
20  20
y2 – 30y + 3 0 y2 – 30y + 200 = 0
2
3
y = 10, y = 20
y = 20, x = 20 P(5, 10); (20, 20)Q
20  5  x
 10  x = 5 PQ2 = 152 + 102 = 225 + 100 = 325
3
1+ 2 + ... + K n n
9. Let SK and  S2 = (Bn2 + Cn+D), where A, B, C, D N and A has least value. Then
K j=1 j A
(1) A + B is divisible by D (2) A + B = 5 (D –C)
(3) A + C + D is not divisible by B (4) A + B + D is divisible by 5
Sol. (1)
k 1
Sk 
2
k 2
 1  2k
S2k 
4
n
1  n  n  1 2n  1 
 S2j    n  n  n  1 
j1 4 6 
n   n  1 2n  1 
   1  n  1
4 6 
n  2n 2  3n  1 
   n  2
4 6 
n  2n 2  9n  13  n
    2n  9n  13
2

4 6  24
A = 24, B = 2, C = 9, D = 13
x-4 y+2 z+3 x -1 y - 3 z - 4

10. The shortest distance between the lines = = and = = is
4 5 3 3 4 2
(1) 2 6 (2) 3 6 (3) 6 3 (4) 6 2
Sol. (2)
Sd 
a  b   n  n
1 2 
n1  n 2
a   4, 2, 3
b  1,3, 4 
n1   4,5,3
n 2   3, 4, 2 
i j k
n1  n 2  4 5 3  î  2   ˆj  1  kˆ 1   2,1,1
3 4 2
Sd 
 3, 5, 7    2,1,1  6  5  7  3 6
6 6
11. The number of arrangements of the letters of the word "INDEPENDENCE" in which all the vowels always
occur together is.
(1) 16800 (2) 14800 (3) 18000 (4) 33600
Sol. (1)
IEEEE,
NNN, DD, P, C
8! 6!
  16800
3!2! 41
12. If the points with position vectors î  10jˆ  13k, ˆ 9 î  ˆj  8kˆ are collinear, then (19 - 6)2 is
ˆ 6iˆ  11jˆ  11k,
2
equal to
(1) 49 (2) 36 (3) 25 (4) 16
Sol. (2)
 ,10,13 ;  6,11,11 ,  , , 8 
9
2 
6 1 2
 
3 11   19
2
3
6 19  22  2
19
3 117
 6  2  41
19 19
19  6  117  123  36
2 2
13. In a bolt factory, machines A, B and C manufacture respectively 20%, 30% and 50% of the total bolts. Of their
output 3, 4 and 2 percent are respectively defective bolts. A bolt is drawn at random form the product. If the
bolt drawn is found the defective, then the probability that it is manufactured by the machine C is.
5 3 9 2
(1) (2) (3) (4)
14 7 28 7
Sol. (1)
 3 5
P(A) = P(B) = P(C) =
10 10 10
P(Defective/A) =
3
100

, P Defective
B

4
100
 
, P Defective
C

2
100

5 2
10 100 10
P(E) = 
2

3
 
3 4
 
5 2 6  12  10
10 100 10 100 10 100
10

28
5

14
14. If for z =  + i, |z + 2| = z + 4(1 +i), then  +  and  are the roots of the equation
(1) x2 + 3x -4 = 0 (2) x2 + 7x + 12= 0
2
(3) x + x -12 = 0 (4) x2 + 2x -3 = 0
Sol. (2)
|z + 2| = |+ i+ 2|
   i  4  4i
   2   2     4  i   4 
2
+4=0
   2  16     4 
2 2
=–4
2  4  4  16  2  16  8
4 = 4
=1
 = 1,  = – 4
 +  = – 3,  = – 4
Sum of roots = – 7
Product of roots = 12
x2 + 7x + 12 = 0
  (1  cos2 (3x)   sin 3 (4x)  

15. lim    5 
is equal to ______
x 0
  cos 3
(4x)  (log e (2x  1)  
(1) 24 (2) 9 (3) 18 (4) 15
Sol. (3)
3
 sin 4x 
  64x
3
1  cos 3x  9x
2 2 
 4x 
lim   cos3 4x 
 ln 1  2x  
x 0 2 5
 9x 
  32x
5

 2x 
 1 9 1 64 
lim2      18
x 0
 2 1 1 32 
16. The number of ways, in which 5 girls and 7 boys can be seated at a round table so that no two girls sit together,
is
(1) 7(720)2 (2) 720 (3) 7(360)2 (4) 126(5!)2
Sol. (4)
6! 7 C5  5!
 720  21  120
 2  360  7  3  120
 126  5!
2
sinx  cosx  2   7   7 

17. Let f (x)  , x [0.]   . Then f   f "  is equal to
sin x  cos x 4  12   12 
2 2 1 2
(1) (2) (3) (4)
3 9 3 3 3 3
Sol. (2)
x 
f  x    tan   
2 8
1 x 
f ' x   sec2   
2 2 8
x   x   1
f "  x    sec2     tan  
2 8 2 8  2
 7   1
f    tan    
 12  6 3
 7  1   1 4 1 2
f "    sec2 .tan    
 12  2 6 6 2 3 3 3 3
 7   7  2
f   f " 
 12   12  9
18. If the eqation of the plane containing the line x + 2y + 3z – 4 = 0 2x + y –z + 5 and perpendicular to the plane
r  (iˆ  ˆj)  (iˆ  ˆj  k)
ˆ  (iˆ  2jˆ  3k)
ˆ is ax+by +cz = 4, then (a-b+c) is equal to
(1) 22 (2) 24 (3) 20 (4) 18
Sol. (1)
D.R’s of line n1  5iˆ  7j ˆ
ˆ  3k
D.R’s of normal of second plane
n2  5iˆ  2j ˆ
ˆ  3k
n1  n2  27iˆ  30j ˆ
ˆ  25k
 11 14 
A point on the required plane is  0,  ,
 5 5 
The equation of required plane is
27x + 30y + 25z = 4
 a – b + c = 22
2 1 0 
19. Let A =  1 2 1 . If |adj(adj(adj2A))| =(16)n, then n is equal to
 
 0 1 2 
(1) 8 (2) 9 (3) 12 (4) 10
Sol. (4)
|A| = 2[3] – 1[2] = 4
 adj  adj  adj2A  
3
n1 8
 2A  2A  16n
 
8
 23 A  16n
 2 
8
3
 22  16n
 240  16n
 1610  16n  n  10
(x  1)
20. Let I(x) =  dx, x > 0. If lim I(x)  0, then I(1) is equal to
x(1  x ex )2 x 
e 1 e2
(1)  log e (e  1) (2)  log e (e  1)
e2 e 1
e2 e 1
(3)  log e (e  1) (4)  log e (e  1)
e 1 e2
Sol.
Ix  
 x  1 dx
x 1  xe x 
2
1  xex  t
 xex  ex  dx  dt
1
 x  1 dx  dt
ex
dt dt dt t   t  1
    t  1 t   t  t  1  t   t  t  1 t dt
xex.t2 2
dt dt t   t  1 1
  t  t  1  t2   t  t  1 dt  t  c
1
 ln t  1  ln t  c
t
1
 ln xex  ln 1  xex  c
1  xex
xex 1
I(x) = ln x
 c
1  xe 1  xex
lim I  x   c  0
x 
e 1
I 1  ln 
1e 1e
1
 lne  ln 1  e  
1e
e2
  ln 1  e
e 1
SECTION - B
21. Let A = {0,3 4, 6, 7, 8, 9, 10} and R be the relation defined on A such that R ={x,y)  A × A: x – y is odd
positive integer or x – y = 2}. The minimum number of elements that must be aadded to the relation R, so that
it is a symmetric relation, is equal to ______.
Sol. (19)
A = {0, 3, 4, 6, 7, 8, 9, 10} 3, 7, 9  odd
R  x  y  odd  veor x  y  2 0, 4, 6, 8, 10  even
3
C1  5 C1  15  (6, 4), (8, 6), (10, 8), (9, 7)
Minm ordered pairs to be added must be
: 15 + 4 = 19
7
 1 
22. Let (t) denote the greatest integer  t, If the constant term in the expansion of  3x 2  5  is , then [  ] is
 2x 
equal to ______.
Sol. (1275)
7
 2 1 
 3x  5 
 2x 
r
 1 
Tr 1  Cr  3x
7

2 7r
 5 
 2x 
14 – 2r – 5r = 14 – 7r = 0
r  2
 1  21 243
2

T3  C2 .3    
7
 1275.75
 2 4
   1275
5 
23. Let 1, 2 be the values of  for which the points  ,1,   and (–2, 0, 1) are at equal distance from the plane 2x
2 
x  5 y 1 z  7
+ 3y – 6z + 7 = 0. If 1 > 2, then the distance of the point (12, 2, 1) from the line   is
1 2 2
______.
Sol. 9
5 
2x + 3y – 6z + 7 = 0  ,1,   ,  2, 0,1
2 
5  3  6  7 4  6  7
d1   d2 
7 7
 15  6  3
15 – 6 = 3 or 15 – 6 = – 3
6 = 12 6 = 18
=2 =3
1 = 3, 2 = 2
x  5 y 1 z  7
P 1, 2,3  
1 2 2
d
 4, 1, 10   1, 2, 2  
18i  18j  9kˆ
9
3 3
24. If the solution curve of the differential equation (y-2 loge x)dx + (x loge x2) dy = 0, x > 1 passes through the
 4
 
points  e,  and e4 , , then  is equal to ______.
 3
Sol. (3)
 y  2ln x  dx   2x ln x  dy  0
dy  2x ln x    2ln x   y  dx
dy 1 y
 
dx x 2x ln x
dy y 1
 
dx 2x ln x x
1
 dx
I.F = e 2x ln x
1 dt 1
 ln  ln x 
= e2 t
= e2
 I.F   lnx 
1
2
y ln x  
ln x
x
dx  Let , lnx  u 
2
1
 2 u2du dx  2udu
x
 ln x  2  c   e, 
2 3 4
y ln x 
3  3
4 2 2
 cc
3 3 3
y ln x   ln x  2    e 4 ,  
2 3 2
3 3
2 2
 2  8 
3 3
3
25. Let a  6iˆ  9jˆ  12k,
ˆ b  î  11jˆ  2kˆ and c be vectors such that a  c  a  b . If a.c  12,c.(iˆ  2jˆ  k)
ˆ 5,
then c.(iˆ  ˆj  k)
ˆ is equal to ___.
Sol. (11)
a  c  a 5
 a c  b  0  

a ||rl c  b 

a   c  b 
 6,9,12     x  , y  11, z  2
x   y  11 z  2
 
2 3 4
4y – 44 = 3z + 6
4y – 3z = 50
6x + 9y + 12z = – 12
2x + 3y + 4z = – 4 ( x – 2y + z = 5)
2x – 4y + 2z = 10
+ – –
_______________
7y + 2z = – 14 …(2)
8y – 6z = 100
21y + 6z = – 42
____________
29y = 58
y = 2, z = – 14
 x – 4 – 14 = 5
x = 23
c   23, 2, 14 
c  1,1,1  23  2  14  11
26. The largest natural number n such that 3n divides 66! is ______.
Sol. (31)
 66   66   66 
 3    9    27 
     
22 + 7 + 2 = 31
n3
27. If aa is the greatest term in the sequence an= , n = 1,2,3,..., then a is equal to ______.
n 4  147
Sol. (0.158)
x3
f(x) =
x 4  147
f ' (x) =
x 4
 147  3x 2  x 3  4x 3 
x  147 
4 2
3x 6  147  3x 2  4x 6
  x 2  44  x 4 
 ve
f '  x   0 at x6 = 147 × 3x2
x2 = 0, x4 = 147 × 3
x = 0, x2 = + 147  3
x2 = + 21
x = + 21
fmax at f(4) or f(5)

64 125
f(4)  0.158 f(5) = 0.161
403 772
 a 5
28. Let the mean and variance of 8 numbers x, y, 10, 12, 6, 12, 4, 8 be 9 and 9.25 respectively. If x > y, then 3x -2y
is equal to _________.
Sol. (25)
x  y  52
 9  x + y = 20
8
For variance
x – 9, y – 9, 3, 3, 1, –5, –1, –3
x =0
 x  9   y  9   54
2 2
  0 2  9.25
8
 x  9  11  x 
 20
2 2
x = 7 or 13  y = 13, 7
3x – 2y = 3 × 13 – 2 × 7 = 25
29. Consider a circle C1 : x2 + y2 – 4x –2y = – 5. Let its mirror image in the line y = 2x +1 be another circle C2 :
5x2 + 5y2 –10fx – 10gy + 36 = 0. Let r be the radius of C2. Then  + r is equal to ______.
Sol. (2)
x 2  y2  4x  2y  5    0 ,
C1  2,1 r1  
2x – y + 1 = 0
Image of (2, 1)
x2 y  1 2  4  1  1
 
2 1 5
x2 y  1 8
 
2 1 5
16 6 8 13
x  2   , y 1 
5 5 5 5
36
x2 + y2 – 2fx – 2gy + =0
5
C2(f, g)
36
r2  f 2  g 2 
5
36
  f 2  g2 
5
6 3
f   ,g 
5 5
36 169 36
  
25 25 5
36  169  180
   1 r 1
25
  r  2
5  /6
2
30. Let [t] denote the greatest integer  t. The
 
 /6
(8[cosec x]  5[cotx])dx is equal to _____.
Sol. (14)
5
6
8  cosecx dx

6
5
6 16
8  dx  3

16
6
3
5
6
I  cot x dx

6
x x
5
6
I    cotx  dx

6
5
6
2I   cot x     cot x  dx

6
5
1 6
1  4 
I
2  dx   2 


6 
6
  .
3
2 16 5  2  21 
     
 3 3   3 
= 14
SECTION - A
31. A cylindrical wire of mass (0.4  0.01)g has length (8 ± 0.04) cm and radius (6 ± 0.03) mm. The maximum error
in its density will be:
(1) 4% (2) 1% (3) 3.5% (4) 5%
Sol. (1)
Cylindrical wire m = (0.4 ± 0.01) g
 = (8 ± 0.04) cm
r = (6 ± 0.03) mm
m 1
Density  = 2 r2m-1 = = const.
r 
Differentiating after taking log on both side
d 2dr d dm
+ + - =0
 r m
 m  2 r
= - -
 m r
    0.01 0.04  0.03  
  =    2 
   max  0.4 8  6 
  
  = 0.04
   max
Percentage error = 0.04 × 100 = 4%
32. The engine of a train moving with speed 10 ms–1 towards a platform sounds a whistle at frequency 400 Hz. The
frequency heard by a passenger inside the train is : (neglect air speed. Speed of sound in air = 330 ms–1)
(1) 400 Hz (2) 388 Hz (3) 200 Hz (4) 412 Hz
Sol. (1)
The passenger inside the train is at rest wrt train so frequency heard by passenger inside the train is same as the
source frequency i.e., 400 Hz.
33. The weight of a body on the earth is 400 N. Then weight of the body when taken to a depth half of the radius of
the earth will be:
(1) 300 N (2) Zero (3) 100 N (4) 200 N
Sol. (4)
Weight on the earth surface = mg
mg = 400 N (given)
 GM(R  d) 
Weight at a depth d w = m  
 R3 
 d 
W = mg 1  
 R 
R  1 mg
d=  w = mg  1    w =
2  2 2
w = 200 N
34. A TV transmitting antenna is 98 m high and the receiving antenna is at the ground level. If the radius of the
earth is 6400 km, the surface area covered by the transmitting antenna is approximately:
(1) 1240 km2 (2) 1549 km2 (3) 4868 km2 (4) 3942 km2
Sol. (4)
Max. distance covered d = 2Rh T
(R = radius of earth, hT = height of antenna)
Area A = d2
A =  (2RhT)
A = 2 × 3.14 × 6400 × 98 × 10-3
A  3942 km2
35. Certain galvanometers have a fixed core made of non magnetic metallic material. The function of this metallic
material is
(1) To produce large deflecting torque on the coil
(2) To bring the coil to rest quickly
(3) To oscillate the coil in magnetic field for longer period of time
(4) To make the magnetic field radial
Sol. (2)
To bring the coil at rest quickly
1
36. Dimension of should be equal to
 0 0
(1) T/L (2) T2 / L2 (3) L/T (4) L2/T2
Sol. (4)
1
Dimension of
0 0
1 1
C=  = c2
0 0 0 0
 1  2
  = [c ]
 
 0 0
 L2 
=  2
T 
37. Two projectiles A and B are thrown with initial velocities of 40 m/s and 60 m/s at angles 30° and 60° with the
horizontal respectively. The ratio of their ranges respectively is (g = 10 m/s2)
(1) 2 : 3 (2) 3 : 2 (3) 4 : 9 (4) 1 : 1
Sol. (3)
u 2 sin 2
R=
g
{u1 = 40 m/s, 1 = 30°, u2 = 60 m/s, 2 = 60°}
2
R1 u  sin 21
= 1
R2  u2  sin 22
sin 60
2
R1  40  R 4
=  ×  1 =
R2  60  sin120 R2 9
38. In this figure the resistance of the coil of galvanometer G is 2 . The emf of the cell is 4 V. The ratio of potential
difference across C1 and C2 is:
5 4 3
(1) (2) 1 (3) (4)
4 5 4
Sol. (3)
At steady state current will not be in the capacitor branch.
4
i= i
6 28 2
1 i
i= A
4 i i
VC1  i(6  2)
VC2  i(2  8)
 VC1 4

 VC 2 5
39. A charge particle moving in magnetic field B, has the components of velocity along B as well as perpendicular
to B. The path of the charge particle will be
(1) Helical path with the axis along magnetic field B
(2) Straight along the direction of magnetic field B
(3) Helical path with the axis perpendicular to the direction of magnetic field B
(4) Circular path
Sol. (1)
Path will be helical with axis along uniform B -.
40. Proton (P) and electron (e) will have same de-Broglie wavelength when the ratio of their momentum is (assume,
mp = 1849 me):
(1) 1 : 43 (2) 43 : 1 (3) 1 : 1849 (4) 1 : 1
Sol. (4)
h
Debroglie wavelength  =
p
p = e
h h pp
=  =1
pp pe pe
41. Graphical variation of electric field due to a uniformly charged insulating solid sphere of radius R, with distance
r from the centre O is represented by:
(1) (2) (3) (4)
Sol. (4)
Electric field due to uniformly charged insulating solid sphere
 kQr
 R 3 r  R
E
 kQ r  R
 r 2
42. For a nucleus AZ X having mass number A and atomic number Z

A. The surface energy per nucleon (bs) = –a1 A2/3.
Z(Z  1)
B. The Coulomb contribution to the binding energy bc = a 2
A 4/3
C. The volume energy bv = a3A
D. Decrease in the binding energy is proportional to surface area.
E. While estimating the surface energy, it is assumed that each nucleon interacts with 12 nucleons. (a1, a2 and
a3 are constants)
Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:
(1) B, C only (2) A, B, C, D only (3) B, C, E only (4) C, D only
Sol. (4)
 A  2Z 
2
Z(Z  1)
EB = avA – as A2/3 – aA - ac +  (A,Z)
A 1/3
A1/3
Volume Surface Asymmetry Coulomb Pairing
term term term term term
Most appropriate is option (4)
43. At any instant the velocity of a particle of mass 500 g is  2tiˆ  3t 2 ˆj ms–1 . If the force acting on the particle at
t = 1s is  î  xjˆ  N . Then the value of x will be:
(1) 2 (2) 6 (3) 3 (4) 4
Sol. (3)
V  (2tiˆ  3t 2 ˆj) m/ s , mass m = 500 gm
Force, F  ma -
F
1  dv  1 ˆ ˆ
   F  2i  6tj
2  dt  2
 

F  î  3tjˆ 

At t = 1 s  F  î  3jˆ 
x=3
E
Statement I : If E be the total energy of a satellite moving around the earth, then its potential energy will be
2
Statement II : The kinetic energy of a satellite revolving in an orbit is equal to the half the magnitude of total
energy E.
Sol. (1)
2
1 1  GM 
For satellite K.E. = mv2 = m  
2 2  r 

GMm
K.E. =
2r
GMm
Potential energy U = –
r
Total energy = K.E + U
GMm
E=–
2r
U = 2E St I – incorrect
K.E. = |E| St II - incorrect
A
45. Two forces having magnitude A and are perpendicular to each other. The magnitude of their resultant is:
2
5A 5A 2 5A 5A
(1) (2) (3) (4)
2 2 4 2
Sol. (4)
A 
F1  A , F2  =
2 2
Fnet = F12  F22
2
A
= A  
2
2
5A
Fnet =
2
46. For the logic circuit shown, the output waveform at Y is:
(1) (2)
(3) (4)
Sol. (2)
A
= A.B
y = A.B  y = A + B
y=A+B
1 1
A B yAB
0 0 1 1 1
0 0 0
0 1 1 0
1 1
0 0 1 0 1
1 1 1
47. An aluminium rod with Young's modulus Y = 7.0 × 1010 N/m2 undergoes elastic strain of 0.04%. The energy
per unit volume stored in the rod in SI unit is:
(1) 5600 (2) 2800 (3) 11200 (4) 8400
Sol. (1)
Aluminium rod Young’s modulus
N
y = 7.0 × 1010 2
m
strain 0.04%
0.04
strain =
100
1
Energy per unit volume = stress × strain
2
1
= y strain × strain
2
1
= y (strain)2
2
2
1  0.04 
= × 7 × 1010 ×  
2  100 
J
Energy per unit volume = 5600 3
m

Statement I : If heat is added to a system, its temperature must increase.
Statement II : If positive work is done by a system in a thermodynamic process, its volume must increase.
(3) Statement I is true but Statement II is false (4) Statement I is false but Statement II is true
Sol. (4)
St I False
Ex. in isothermal process temp. is constant but heat can be added.
ST II True
w =  PdV
If volume increases the w = +ve
49. An air bubble of volume 1 cm3 rises from the bottom of a lake 40 m deep to the surface at a temperature of
12°C. The atmospheric pressure is 1 × 105 Pa, the density of water is 1000 kg/m3 and g = 10 m/s2. There is no
difference of the temperature of water at the depth of 40 m and on the surface. The volume of air bubble when
it reaches the surface will be:
(1) 3 cm3 (2) 4 cm3 (3) 2 cm3 (4) 5 cm3
Sol. (4)
Pressure at surface = Patm = 1 × 105 Pa
vsurface = ?
Pressure at h = 40 m depth
P = Patm + gh
P = 105 + 103 × 10 × 40
P = 5 × 105 Pa
 = 1 cm3
Temp. is constant
P1V1 = P2V2
105 ×  = 5 × 105 × 1
 = 5 cm3
50. In a reflecting telescope, a secondary mirror is used to:

(1) Make chromatic aberration zero
(2) Reduce the problem of mechanical support
(3) Move the eyepiece outside the telescopic tube
(4) Remove spherical aberration
Sol. (3)
To move the eye piece outside the telescopic tube
SECTION – B
51. The momentum of a body is increased by 50%. The percentage increase in the kinetic energy of the body is
_________ %.
Sol. (125)
P2
Ki  i
2m
2
 Pi 
 Pi   9 Pi2
Kf  
2
 Kf 
2m 4 2m
K  Ki
Percentage increase in K.E. = f  100
Ki
9
1
= 4  100
1
5
=  100 = 125%
4
52. A nucleus with mass number 242 and binding energy per nucleon as 7.6 MeV breaks into two fragment each
with mass number 121. If each fragment nucleus has binding energy per nucleon as 8.1 MeV, the total gain in
binding energy is __________ MeV.
Sol. (121)
Gain in binding energy = B.Ef – BEi
= 2(121 × 8.1) – 242 × 7.6
= 121 MeV
53. An electric dipole of dipole moment is 6.0 × 10–6 C m placed in a uniform electric field of 1.5 × 103 NC–1 in
such a way that dipole moment is along electric field. The work done in rotating dipole by 180° in this field will
be __________ mJ.
Sol. (18)
Wext = Uf – Ui U  –P.E
= –PE cos – (–PE cos 0)
= 2PE
= 2 × 6 × 10–6 × 1.5 × 103
= 18 mJ
54. An organ pipe 40 cm long is open at both ends. The speed of sound in air is 360 ms –1. The frequency of the
second harmonic is __________ Hz.
Sol. (900)
Open organ pipe  = 40 cm
Speed of sound v = 360 m/s
2v
Frequency of second harmonics f 2 
2
v 360
f2   f2 
0.4
f 2  900 Hz
55. The moment of inertia of a semicircular ring about an axis, passing through the center and perpendicular to the
1
plane of ring, is MR2, where R is the radius and M is the mass of the semicircular ring. The value of x will
x
be __________.
Sol. (1)
R
I
axis
I   dmR 2  R 2  dm  MR 2
I = MR2
1
Given I = MR 2
x
x=1
56. Two vertical parallel mirrors A and B are separated by 10 cm. A point object O is placed at a distance of 2 cm
from mirror A. The distance of the second nearest image behind mirror A from the mirror A is _________ cm.
Sol. (18)
IA2 IA1 IB1

2cm 8cm 8cm
16cm
d = 2 + 16
d = 18 cm
57. The magnetic intensity at the center of a long current carrying solenoid is found to be 1.6 × 10 3 Am–1. If the
number of turns is 8 per cm, then the current flowing through the solenoid is __________ A.
Sol. (2)
H = 1.6 × 103 A/m, n = 8 per cm = 800 per m
H
H = nI  I =
n
1.6  103
I= I=2A
8  10 2
58. A current of 2 A through a wire of cross-sectional area 25.0 mm2. The number of free electrons in a cubic meter
are 2.0 × 1028. The drift velocity of the electrons is ________ × 10–6 ms–1
(given, charge on electron = 1.6 × 10–19 C).
Sol. (25)
I = neAVd
I 2
Vd =  Vd =
neA 2  10  1.6  10 19  25  10 6
28
Vd = 25 m/s
59. An oscillating LC circuit consists of a 75 mH inductor and a 1.2 F capacitor. If the maximum charge to the
capacitor is 2.7 C. The maximum current in the circuit will be __________ mA.
Sol. (9)
LC oscillation L = 75 mH
C = 1.2 F
Umax L = Umax C
1 1 q 2max
LI2max =
2 2 C
q 2.7  10 6
Imax = max  Imax =
LC 75  10 3  1.2  10 6
Imax = 9 × 10-3 A
Imax = 9 mA
60. An air bubble of diameter 6 mm rises steadily through a solution of density 1750 kg/m3 at the rate of 0.35 cm/s.
TGe co-efficient of viscosity of the solution (neglect density of air) is __________ Pas (given, g = 10 ms–2).
Sol. (10)
Fv=6prv
For uniform velocity net force = 0
B = 6rv
4
 r3g = 6rv
3
2 r 2 g
 =
9v
2  1750  (3  10 3 ) 2  10
 =
9  0.35  10 2
 = 10 Pa-s
SECTION - A
61. The reaction
1
H2(g)+Ag(Cl)(s) H+(aq)+Cl–(aq)+Ag(s)
2
occurs in which of the given galvanic cell.
(1) Pt H2(g)HCl(soln)AgNO3(soln)Ag (2) Pt H2(g) HCl(soln)AgCl(s) Ag
(3) Pt H2(g)KCl(soln)AgCl(s)Ag (4) Ag AgCl(s) KCl(soln)AgNO3 Ag
Sol. 2
Anode  H2  2H+ + 2e–
Cathode  AgCl + e–  Ag + Cl–
62. Sulphur (S) containing amino acids from the following are:
(a) isoleucine (b) cysteine (c) lysine (d) methionine
(e) glutamic acid
(1) b, c, e (2) a, d (3) a, b, c (4) b, d
Sol. 4
(a) isoleucine : CH3 CH2 CH CH COOH
CH3 NH2
(b) cysteine : HS CH2 CH COOH
NH2
(c) lysine H
: 2N—(CH )
2 4—CH—COOH
NH2
(d) methionine : CH3—S—CH2—CH2—CH—COOH
NH2
(e) glutamic acid : HOOC—CH2—CH2—CH—COOH
NH2
63. Which of the following complex is octahedral, diamagnetic and the most stable?
(1) K3[Co(CN)6] (2) [Ni(NH3)6]Cl2 (3) [Co(H2O)6]Cl2 (4) Na3[CoCl6]
Sol. 1
K3[Co(CN)6]
+3+x–6=0
x  3

Co+3  3d6
CN– is SFL so pairing occur so
u-e = 0

So diamagnetic
64. Which of the following metals can be extracted through alkali leaching technique?
(1) Cu (2) Au (3) Pb (4) Sn
Sol. 4
Sn due to Amphoteric nature.
65. The correct order of spin only magnetic moments for the following complex ions is
(1) [CoF6]3–<[MnBr4]2–< [Fe(CN)6]3–<[Mn(CN)6]3–
(2) [Fe(CN)6]3–<[CoF6]3–< [MnBr4]2–<[Mn(CN)6]3–
(3) [MnBr4]2–<[CoF6]3–< [Fe(CN)6]3–<[Mn(CN)6]3–
(4) [Fe(CN)6]3–<[Mn(CN)6]3–< [CoF6]3–<[MnBr4]2–
Sol. 4
[CoF6]3– [MnBr4]2– [Fe(CN)6]3– [Mn(CN)6]3–
   
+3 +2 5
CO Mn 3d Mn+3
– – –
F WFL Br WFL CM SFL CN– is SFL
So no pairing So no pairing Pairing occur So pairing occur
u.e. = 4 u.e. = 5 u.e. = 1 u.e. = 2

[Fe(CN)6]–3 < [Mn(CN)6]–3 < [CoF6]–3 < [MnBr4]–2
66. The water gas on reacting with cobalt as a catalyst forms

(1) Methanoic acid (2) Methanal (3) Ethanol (4) Methanol
Sol. 4
700K
(CO + H2) + H2 CH3OH
ZnO, Cr2O3

Catalyst
67. 2IO3  xI  12H  6I2  6H2 O

What is the value of x?
(1) 12 (2) 10 (3) 2 (4) 6
Sol. 2
n factor of IO3– and I– in the given redox reaction are 5 and 1 respectively. Therefore, IO3– will always react in
the molar ratio 1 : 5 to get I2.
IO3  6H  5I –  3I2  3H2O
To get 6 molar I2, multiple equation by 2
2IO3  12H  10I –  6I2  6H2O
So, x = 10
68. What is the purpose of adding gypsum to cement?

(1) To give a hard mass (2) To speed up the process of setting
(3) To facilitate the hydration of cement (4) To slow down the process of setting
Sol. 4
CaSO4 · 2H2O Gypsum
To slow down the process of setting.
Gypsum is added to control the ‘setting of cement’. If not added, the cement will set immediately after miximg
of water leaving no time the concrete placing.
69. The major product formed in the following reaction is:

(1) (2)
(3) (4)
Sol. 4
COOH COOH
(i) LiBH4/EtOH
C—O—Et (ii) H3O+
CH2—CH2—OH
O
Note: Lithium borohydride is commonly used for selective reduction of esters and lactones to the corresponding
alcohol.
70. Match list I with list II:
List I (species) List II (Maximum allowed

concentration in ppm in drinking
water)
A. F– I. < 50 ppm
B. SO2–
4
II. < 5 ppm
C. NO3– III. < 2 ppm
D. Zn IV. < 500 ppm
(1) A-III, B-II, C-I, D-IV (2) A-II, B-I, C-III, D-IV
(3) A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I (4) A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV
Sol. Bouns
Data based
Maximum allowed (ppm)
F– < 2 ppm
SO2–
4
< 5 ppm
–
NO3 < 50 ppm
Zn < 500 ppm
71. In chromyl chloride, the number of d-electrons present on chromium is same as in (Given at no. of Ti : 22, V :
23, Cr : 24, Mn : 25, Fe : 26)
(1) Fe (III) (2) V (IV) (3) Ti (III) (4) Mn (VII)
Sol. 4
CrO2Cl2  Chromyl chloride

Cr+6  4s0 3d0
Mn(vii)  Mn+7 Same

4s0 3d0
72. Given below are two statements: One is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R.
Assertion A : Butan-1-ol has higher boiling point than ethoxyethane.
Reason R : Extensive hydrogen bonding leads to stronger association of molecules.
(1) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A
Sol. 2
At comparable molecular mass, alcohol has higher b.p. than ether due to H-bond, because H-bond leads to
stronger associated of molecules.
73. Match List I with List II:

List I (Reagents used) List II (Compound with
Functional group detected)
A. Alkaline solution of copper
sulphate and sodium cirate
I.
B. Neutral FeCl3 solution
II.
C. Alkaline chloroform
solution
III.
D. Potassium iodide and
sodium hypochlorite
IV.

(1) A-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I (2) A-II, B-IV, C-III, D-I
(3) A-IV, B-I, C-II, D-III (4) A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II
Sol. 1
CH2—CHO
Alkaline solution of copper
Red PPt
(A) Sulphate and sodium citrate
OH
(B) Neutral FeCl3 Voilet colour

NH2
(C) Alkaline chloroform solution Carbyl amine reaction

OH
+ CH3 —CH—Ph
(D) KI + NaOCl Haloform reaction

is reacted with reagents in List I to form products in List II.
List I (Reagent) List II (Product)
A. I.
B. HBF4, 
II.
C. Cu, HCl
III.
D. CuCN/KCN
IV.

(1) A-I, B-III, C-IV, D-II (2) A-III, B-I, C-II, D-IV
(3) A-III, B-I, C-IV, D-II (4) A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I
Sol. 3
NH2 N2Cl
(A) + N N NH2
N2Cl HBF4, F
(B) + BF3 + N2
(Bolz-schimann reaction)
N2Cl (Cu, HCl) Cl
(C) (Gattermann synthesis)
N2Cl CuCN/KCN CN
(D)

List I List II
A. Saccharin I. High potency sweetener
B. Aspartame II. First artificial sweetening agent
C. Alitame III. Stable at cooking temperature
D. Sucralose IV. Unstable at cooking temperature
(1) A-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I (2) A-II, B-IV, C-I, D-III
(3) A-IV, B-III, C-I, D-II (4) A-II, B-IV, C-III, D-I
Sol. 2
(A) Saccharin  First artificial sweetening agent
(B) Aspartame  Unstable at cooking temperature used in soft drink and cold drink.
(C) Alitame  High potency sweetener (2000 more sweeter than cane sugar)
(D) Sucralose  Stable at coocking temperature. Also it does not provide calories.
76. The correct order of electronegativity for given elements is:
(1) P > Br > C > At (2) C > P > At > Br (3) Br > P > At > C (4) Br > C > At > P
Sol. 4
C (2.5)
P (2.1)  Br > C > At > P
Br (2.8)
At (2.2)
Statement I : Lithium and Magnesium do not form superoxide
Statement II : The ionic radius of Li+ is larger than ionic radius of Mg2+
(3) Both statement I and Statement II are correct
(4) Both statement I and Statement II are incorrect
Sol. 3 (Fact-based)
Due to small in size Li and Mg do not from superoxide.
Li+  Mg+2 - radius
2e– 10e–

Due to diagonal relationship.
78. Which of the following represent the Freundlich adsorption isotherms?

(1) A, C, D only (2) A, B only (3) A, B, D only (4) B, C, D only
Sol. 3
x 1 x 1
 Kp n log  log K  log P
m m n
x x
log
m m 1
Slope=
n
P log P
79. Which halogen is known to cause the reaction given below:
2Cu2+ + 4X– Cu2X2(s) + X2
(1) All halogens (2) Only chlorine (3) Only Bromine (4) Only Iodine
Sol. 4
(Only iodine)
2Cu2+ + 4I– Cu2I2 + I2
80. Choose the halogen which is most reactive towards SN1 reaction in the given compounds (A, B, C, & D)
(1) A-Br(a) ; B-I(a) ; C-Br(b) ; D-Br(a)

(2) A-Br(b) ; B-I(a) ; C-Br(a) ; D-Br(a)
(3) A-Br(b) ; B-I(b) ; C-Br(b) ; D-Br(b)
(4) A-Br(a) ; B-I(a) ; C-Br(a) ; D-Br(a)
Sol. 1
Br(a)
(A) Because formed intermediate carbocation formed by Br(a) get stabilised by

Br(b)
conjugation with phenyl
ring
(B) I(a) I(b)  Because the intermediate carbocation formed by I(a) become more stable by
conjugation
(C)
Br(a) Br(b)  Becouse, we con’t remove Br(a) from bridge head carbon (Bredt’s rule)
Me
Br(b)
(D)  Becouse, formed intermediate by Br(a), 3o carbocation is more stable (stability of
Br(a)
carbocation 3o > 2o > 1o)
SECTION - B
81. Molar mass of the hydrocarbon (X) which on ozonolysis consumes one mole of O3 per mole of (X) and gives
one mole each of ethanol and propanone is ___________g mol–1 (Molar mass of C : 12 g mol–1, H : 1 gmol–1)
Sol. 70
O
O3
Reactant + CH3CHO
CH3
CH3 C CH CH3
(C5H10)
Molecular Mass = 70
82. XeF4 reacts with SbF5 to form

[XeFm]n+ [SbFy]z–
m+n+y+z =_________
Sol. 11
XeF4 + SbF5  [XeF3]+ (SbF6)–
m + n + x + y = 3 + 1 + 6 + 1 = 11
Xenon fluoride act as F– donor and F– acceptor.
83. The number of following statements which is/are incorrect is_________

(1) Line emission spectra are used to study the electronic structure
(2) The emission spectra of atoms in the gas phase show a continuous spread of wavelength from red to violet
(3) An absorption spectrum is like the photographic negative of an emission spectrum
(4) The element helium was discovered in the sun by spectroscopic method
Sol. 1
Fact
84. The titration curve of weak acid vs. strong base with phenolphthalein as indictor) is shown below. The
Kphenolphthalein = 4×10-10
Given : log 2 = 0.3
The number of following statements/s which is/are correct about phenolphthalein is__________
(1) It can be used as an indicator for the titration of weak acid with weak base.
(2) It begins to change colour at pH = 8.4
(3) It is a weak organic base
(4) It is colourless in acidic medium
Sol. 2
(B) pk n log(4 10 10 ) 9.4
Indicator range
pkIn 1
i.e. 8.4 to 10.4
(D) In acidic medium, phenolphthalein is in unionized form and is colourless.
85. When a 60 W electric heater is immersed in a gas for 100s in a constant volume container with adiabatic walls,
the temperature of the gas rises by 5oC. The heat capacity of the given gas is_______J K–1 (Nearest integer)
Sol. 1200
Adiabatic wall {no heat exchange between system and surrounding}
Cv × T = P × t/sec
Cv × 5 = 60 × 100
Cv = 1200
86. The vapour pressure vs. temperature curve for a solution solvent system is shown below:
The boiling point of the solvent is______oC

Sol. 82
Boiling point of solvent is 82oC
Boiling point of solvent is 83oC
87. 0.5 g of an organic compound (X) with 60% carbon will produce______×10–1 g of CO2 on complete combustion.
Sol. 11
0.5  0.6
Moles of carbon =
12
0.5  0.6
Moles of CO2 =
12
0.5  0.6
Mass of CO2 =  44  11 10 –1 gram
12
88. The number of following factors which affect the percent covalent character of the ionic bond is_____
(1) Polarising power of cation (2) Extent of distortion of anion
(3) Polarisability of the anion (4) Polarising power of anion
Sol. 3
Percent covalent character of the ionic bond
(1) Polarising power of cation (2) Extent of distortion of anion
(3) Polarisability of the anion
89.
Three bulbs are filled with CH4, CO2 and Ne as shown the picture. The bulbs are connected through pipes of
zero volume. When the stopcocks are opened and the temperature is kept constant throughout, the pressure of
the system is found to be________atm. (Nearest integer)
Sol. 3
Pf Vf = P1 V1 + P2 V2 + P3 V3
Pf × 9 = 2 × 2 + 4 × 3 + 3 × 4
28
Pf 3.11 3
9
90. The number of given statements/s which is/are correct is______

(1) The stronger the temperature dependence of the rate constant, the higher is the activation energy.
(2) If a reaction has zero activation energy, its rate is independent of temperature.
(3) The stronger the temperature dependence of the rate constant, the smaller is the activation energy
(4) If there is no correlation between the temperature and the rate constant then it means that the reaction has
negative activation energy.
Sol. 2
Clearly, if Ea = 0, K is temperature independent
if Ea > 0, K increase with increase in temperature
if Ea < 0, K decrease with increase in temperature
SECTION - A
 1  2isin  
1. Let A =  (0,2) : is purely imaginary  . Then the sum of the elements in A is.
 1  isin  
(1)  (2) 3  (3) 4 (4) 2
Sol. (3)
1  2isin  1  isin 
z 
1  isin  1  isin 
1  2sin 2   i  3sin  
z
1  sin 2 
Re(z) = 0
1  2sin 2 
0
1  sin 2 
1
sin  
2
  3 5 7 
A , , , 
4 4 4 4 
sum = 4 (Option 3)
x 1 y  2 z  5
2. Let P be the plane passing through the line   and the point (2, 4, –3). If the image of the
1 3 7
point (-1, 3, 4) in the plane P is (, , ) then  +  +  is equal to
(1) 12 (2) 9 (3) 10 (4) 11
Sol. (3)
Equation of plane is given by
x 1 y  2 z  5
1 2 2 =0
1 3 7
4x – y – z = 7
  1   3   4 2  4  3  4  7 
   2
4 1 1 16  1  1
 = 7,  = 1,  = 2
 +  +  = 10 (Option 3)
 1 5  -1
If A    , A =  A + I and  +  = -2, then 4 +  +  is equal to :
2 2 2
3.
 10
(1) 14 (2) 12 (3) 19 (4) 10
Sol. (1)
1 x 5
A  xI  0   0  x2 – 11x + 10 – 5 = 0
 10  x
 10  5  A 1  A  11I
1 11
  and 
10  5 10  5
10
    2   2  10-5 = –5  =3
10  5
1 11
  & 
5 5
4 121 2
 4a 2  2   2    3  14 Ans.
25 25
4. The area of the quadrilateral ABCD with vertices A(2,1,1), B (1,2, 5), C(–2,–3, 5) and D (1, -6, -7) is equal to
(1) 54 (2) 9 38 (3) 48 (4) 8 38
Sol. (4)
Vector Area = v
1 1
 AB  AC  AC  AD
2 2
 AB  i  j  4kˆ 
 

1
2
AB  AD  AC  AD  i  7 j  8kˆ 
 
 AC  4i  4 j  4kˆ 
 

1
2
  
8j  12kˆ   4  i  j  kˆ 
i j kˆ
1
 0 8 12
2
1 1 1

= (–2) 20i  12j  8kˆ 

 8 5i  3j  2kˆ 
 Area = v  8 25  9  4  8 38 Ans.
5. 25190  19190  8190 + 2190 is divisible by

(1) 34 but not by 14 (2) 14 but not by 34 (3) Both 14 and 34 (4) Neither 14 nor 34
Sol. (1)
25190 – 8190 is divisible by 25 – 8 = 17
19190 – 2190 is divisible by 19 – 2 = 17
25190 – 19190 is divisible by 25 – 19 = 6
8190 – 2190 is divisible by 8 – 2 = 6
L.C.M. of 1746 = 34
 divisible by 34 but not by 14
6. Let O be the origin and OP and OQ be the tangents to the circle x2 +y2-6x + 4y + 8 = 0 at the points P and Q on
 1
it. If the circumcircle of the triangle OPQ passes through the point  ,  , then a value of  is.
 2
1 5 3
(1)  (2) (3) 1 (4)
2 2 2
Sol. (2)
Circumcircle of OPQ
(x – 0) (x–3) + (y–0) (y + 2) = 0
x2 + y2 – 3x + 2y = 0
 1
passes through  , 
 2
1
 2 + – 3 + 1 = 0
4
5
2 – 3 + = 0  42 – 12 + 5 = 0
4
 42 – 10 – 2 + 5 = 0
1 5
(2 – 1) (2 – 5) = 0   , Ans.
2 2
n
7. Let an be the nth term of the series 5 + 8 + 14 + 23 + 35 + 50 +.... and Sn   a K . Then S30  a40 is equal to
k 1
(1) 11260 (2) 11280 (3) 11290 (4) 11310

Sol. (3)
Sn = 5 + 8 + 14 + 23 + 35 + 50 + ...+ an
Sn = 5 + 8 + 14 + 23 + 35 + ...+ an
O = 5 + 3 + 6 + 9 + 12 + 15 + .... – an
an = 5 + (3 + 6 + 9 + ... (n–1) terms)
3n 2  3n  10
an 
2
3  40   3  40   10
2
a 40   2345
2
30 30 30
3 n 2  3 n  101
S30  n 1 n 1 n 1
2
3  30  31  61 3  30  31
  10  30
 6 2
2
S30 = 13635
S30 – a40 = 13635 – 2345
= 11290 (Option (3))
1
 1  cos(x 2  bx  a)  2 1  1 1 
8. If  >  > 0 are the roots of the equation ax2 + bx + 1 = 0, and lim       , then k
x 
1 2(1  ax)2  k 

is equal to
(1)  (2) 2 (3) 2 (4) 
Sol. (2)
1
ax2 + bx + 1 = a(x – )(x – )  
a
 x2 + bx + a = a (1 – x) (1 –x)
1 1
1  cos  x 2  bx  a   2 1  cosa 1  x 1  x  2 2
2
 lim    lim1   a 1  x  
    x   2 a 1  x 1  x 
1 2 2
x  2 1 x  
  2
1
 1 1   2  2
   a 2 1   
 2 2    
1 1    1 1 1 
 1      2
2     2    
1 1 1  11 1 
      
2     k    
 k  2 Ans.
9. If the number of words, with or without meaning, which can be made using all the letters of the word
MATHEMATICS in which C and S do not come together, is (6!)k, is equal to
(1) 1890 (2) 945 (3) 2835 (4) 5670
Sol. (4)
M2A2T2HEICS
= total words – when C & S are together
11 10
 2
2 2 2 2 2 2
10
9
2 2 2
9  10  9  8  7
 6
8
= 5670 6
k = 5670 (Option 4)
10. Let S be the set of all values of [–,] for which the system of linear equations
x  y  3z  0
 x   tan   y  7z  0
x  y   tan   z  0
120
has non-trivial solution. Then   is equal to
 S
(1) 20 (2) 40 (3) 30 (4) 10
Sol. (1)
For non trivial solutions
D=0
1 1 3
1 tan  7 0
1 1 tan 
tan 2    
3 1  3  0
tan   3, 1
  2  3 
 , , , 
3 3 4 4 
120 120 
      20 (Option 1)
  6
11. For a, b Z and |a  b|  10, let the angle between the plane P : ax + y  z = b and the line l : x 1 = a  y = z
1
+1 be cos 1   . If the distance of the point (6, 6, 4) from the plane P is 3 6 , then a4 + b2 is equal to
 3
(1) 85 (2) 48 (3) 25 (4) 32
Sol. (4)
1 1 2 2
  cos1 sin   1  
3 9 3
a 1  1 1   1 1 2 2
sin   
a2 11  3 3
 3  a  2   24  a 2  2 
2
 3 a 2  4a  4  8a 2  16
 5a 2  12a  4  0
 5a 2  10a  2a  4  0
2
 a  2, az
5
 a  2
Distance of (6, –6, 4) from
–2x + y – z – b = 0 is 3 6
12  6  4  b
 3 6
4 11
 b  22  18 b  40, 4
a  b  10
 b  4
a 4  b2
= 32 Ans.
12. Let the vectors u1  î  ˆj  ak,
ˆ   î  bjˆ  kˆ and u  ciˆ  ˆj  kˆ be coplanar. If the vectors
2 3
v1  (a  b)i  cj  ck, v2  ai  (b  c) j ak and v3  bi  bj  (c a) kˆ are also coplanar, then 6 (a + b + c) is

ˆ ˆ ˆ ˆ ˆ ˆ ˆ ˆ
equal to
(1) 4 (2) 12 (3) 6 (4) 0
Sol. (2)
1 1 a
 u1 u 2 u 3   0  1 b 1  0
c 1 1
 b – 1 + c – 1 + a (1 – bc) = 0
 abc = a + b + c – 2
ab c c
 v1 v2 v3   0  a b  c a  0
b b ca
ab c c
R3  R3  (R1 + R2)  a bc a 0
2a 2c 0
 –2a (ac – bc – c2) + 2c(a2 + ab – ac) = 0
 –2a2c + 2abc + 2ac2 + 2a2c + 2abc – 2ac2 = 0
 4abc = 0  abc = 0
 a + b + c =2 6(a+b+c) = 12 Ans.
11
 1 
13. The absolute difference of the coefficients of x10 and x7 in the expansion of  2x 2   is equal to
 2x 
(1) 103 10 (2) 113 11 (3) 123 12 (4) 133 13
Sol. (3)
r
 1 
Tr+1 = 11Cr(2x2)11–r  
 2x 
11 11–2r 22–3r
= Cr 2 x
22 – 3r = 10 and 22 – 3r = 7
r = 4 and r=5
Coefficient of x10 = 11C4  23
Coefficient of x7 = 11C5  21
difference = 11C4  23 – 11C5  2
11  10  9  8 11  10  9  8  7
 8  2
24 120
= 11  10  3  8 – 11  3  4  7
= 11  3 4  (20 – 7)
= 11  12  13
= 12 (12 – 1) (12 + 1)
= 12 (122 – 1)
= 123 – 12 (Option 3)
14. Let A = {1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 7}. Then the relation R = {(x,y) A × A : x + y =7} is
(1) Symmetric but neither reflexive nor transitive
(2) Transitive but neither symmetric nor reflexive
(3) An equivalence relation
(4) Reflexive but neither symmetric nor transitive
Sol. (1)
R = {(1,6), (2,5), (3,4), (4,3),(5,2), (6,1)}
15. If the probability that the random variable X takes values x is given by P(X=x) = k (x+1)3-x, x = 0, 1,2, 3, ...,
where k is a constant, then P(X  2) is equal to
7 11 7 20
(1) (2) (3) (4)
27 18 18 27
Sol. (1)

 PX  x 1
x 0
k(1 + 23–1 + 33–2 + 43–3 + ... ) = 1

2 3 4
Let s  1   2  3  ...
3 3 3
s 1 2 3
    ...
3 3 32 32
2s 1 1 1
 1   2  2  ...
3 3 3 3
2s 1 3
 
3 1 1 2
3
9
s
4
4
so k
9
P  X  2   1  P  x  0   P  x  1
4 2
 1  1  
9 3
7
 (Option 1)
27
  x x  2 x 
16. The integral         log2 x dx is equal to
 2   x  
 
x x x
x 2 x 2
(1)   log 2    C (2)       C
2 x 2 x
x x x
x x x 2
(3)   log 2    C (4)       C
 
2 2 2 x
Sol. (2) Bonus

 x 2  2 x log2 dx
x x x x x

 e  e x ln 2  ex ln 2  e x ln x  dx
x ln x
 e  e x ln 2  x ln x 
x ln x  x ln 2 ln x
dx
ln 2
let xlnx – xln2 = t
(lnx + 1 – ln2) dx = dt
17. The value of 36 (4cos2 9º  1)(4 cos2 27º  1) (4 cos2 81º  1) (4 cos2 243º  1) is
(1) 27 (2) 54 (3) 18 (4) 36
Sol. (4)
sin 3
4cos2 – 1 = 4(1–sin2) – 1 = 3 – 4 sin2 =
sin 
so given expression can be written as
sin 27o sin 81o sin 243o sin 729o
36    
sin 9o sin 27o sin 81o sin 243o
sin 729o
36   36
sin 9o
18. Let A (0, 1), B(1,1) and C (1,0) be the mid-points of the sides of a triangle with incentre at the point D. If the

 
focus of the parabola y2 = 4ax passing through D is    3,0 , where  and  are rational numbers, then 2

is equal to
9
(1) 6 (2) 8 (3) (4) 12
2
Ans. (2)
a = OP = 2 b = OQ = 2 c = PQ = 2 2
(2,0) (0,2) (0,0)
 4 4   2 2 
D ,   D , 
222 2 222 2  2 2 2 2 
2
 2   2 
y  4ax  
2
  4a   
2 2  2 2 
1 2 2 1
 4a 
2
2 2
a  
2 42
 2 2
4
 
2 1 1
   
4 2 4

 2  8 Ans.

19. The negation of (p  (~ q))  (~ p) is equivalent to

(1) p  (~ q) (2) p  (q  (~p)) (3) p  (q  (~p)) (4) p  q
Sol. 4
9
20. Let the mean and variance of 12 observations be and 4 respectively. Later on, it was observed that two
2
m
observations were considered as 9 and 10 instead of 7 and 14 respectively. If the correct variance is , where
n
m and n are coprime, then m + n is equal to
(1) 316 (2) 317 (3) 315 (4) 314
Sol. 2
x 9

12 2
x = 54
x 2  9 
2
   4
12  2 
x2 = 291
xnew = 54 – (9 + 10) + 7 + 14 = 56
x2new = 291 – (81 + 100) + 49 + 196 = 355
2
355  56 
2new   
12  12 
281 m
2new  
36 n
m  n  317 Option (2)
SECTION - B
21. Let R = {a, b, c, d, e} and S = {1, 2, 3, 4}. Total number of onto functions f : R  S such that f(a)  1, is equal
to _______.
Sol. 180
Total onto function
5
 4  240
3 2
Now when f(a) = 1
4
4  3 = 24 + 36 = 60
2 2
so required fn = 240 – 60 = 180
22. Let m and n be the numbers of real roots of the quadratic equations x2 12x + [x] + 31 = 0 and x2 5 |x + 2 | 4
= 0 respectively,where [x] denotes the greatest integer  x. Then m2 +mn + n2 is equal to ________.
Sol. 9
x2 – 12x + [x] + 31 = 0
{x} = x2 – 11 x + 31
0  x 2  11x  31  1
x2 – 11x + 30 < 0
x (5, 6)
so [x] = 5
x2 – 12x + 5 + 31 = 0
x2 – 12x + 36 = 0
x  6 but x(5, 6)
so x
  m0
Now
x2 –5x–14=0 x2 + 5x +6 = 0
(x–7)(x+2)=0 (x+3)(x+2) =0
x = 7, –2 x = –3, –2
x = {7, –2, –3}

n=3
m + mn + n2 = n2 = 9
2
23. Let P1 be the plane 3x y 7z = 11 and P2 be the plane passing through the points (2,1,0), (2,0,1), and (5, 1,
1). If the foot of the perpendicular drawn from the point (7, 4, 1) on the line of intersection of the planes P1
and P2 is (, , ), then + + is equal to _____.
Sol. 11
P2 is given by
x  5 y 1 z 1
3 2 1 0
3 1 2
xyz 3
DR of line intersection of P1 & P2
i j k
1 1 1
3 1 7
6i  4j  2kˆ
Let z = 0, x – y = 3
3x – y = 11
2x = 8
x=4
y=1
So Line is
x  4 y 1 z  0
  r
6 4 2
() = (6r +4, 4r + 1, 2r)
6    7   4   4   2    1  0
6  42  4 16  2  2  0
36r  24  16r  4  4r  56  0
56r  28
1
r
2
 +  +  = 12r + 5
= 6 + 5 = 11
 6x 2  5x  1  1  2x  3x  4 
2
24. If domain of the function loge    cos   is (,)  (,], then, 18( +  +  +  )
2 2 2 2
 2x  1   3x  5 
is equal to
Sol. 20
6x 2  5x  1
0
2x  1
 3x  1 2x  1  0
2x  1
 1 1   1 
x  ,    ,  ....(A)
 2 3  2 
and
2x 2  1 2x 2  6x  9
0 and 0
3x  5 3x  5
and 3x – 5 < 0
 1 1   5 
x ,    , ...(B)
 2 2 3 
5
x ...(C)
3
 1 1   1 1 
A BC   ,  , 
 2 3  2 2
1 1 1 1
So 18  2  2   2  2   18     
4 9 4 2
= 18 + 2 = 20
 3 
25. Let the area enclosed by the lines x + y = 2, y = 0 x = 0 and the curve f (x)  min x 2  ,1  [x] where [x]
 4 
denotes the greatest integer  x, be A. Then the value of 12A is______.
Sol. 17
 3 1 3 1
2
  x   dx       1
2
0
4 2 2 2
1
 x 3 3x  2
    1
3 4 0
1 3
A  1
24 8
1 36
12A    12
2 8
1 9
   12
2 2
= 5 + 12
= 17
1 1 1
26. Let 0 < z < y < x be three real numbers such that , , are in an arithmetic progression and x, 2y, z are in
x y z
3
a geometric progression. If xy + yz + zx = xyz , then 3(x + y + z)2 is equal to______.
2
Sol. 150
2 1 1
 
y x z
2y2  xz
2 xz xz
 
y xz 2y2
x + z = 4y
3
xy + yz + zx = xyz
2
3
y(x+z) + zx = xz  y
2
3
4y 2  2y 2  y  2y 2
2
6y 2  3 2y3
y 2
x + y + z = 5y = 5 2
3(x + y + z)2 = 3  50 = 150

27. Let the solution curve x = x (y), 0 < y < , of the differential equation (loge (cos y))2 cos y dx  (1 + 3x loge
2
  1   1
(cos y)) sin y dy = 0 satisfy x    . If x    , where m and n are co-prime, then mn
 3  2log e 2  6  log e m  log e n
is equal to
Sol. 12
Cos yln2cosydx = (1 + 3x ln cosy)sin y dy
dx  3x 1 
 tan y   2 
dy  ln cos y ln cos y 
dx  3tan y  tan y
 x  2
dy  ln cos y  ln cos y
3 sin y
 dy
ln cos y cos y
If = e
ln cosy = t
1
 sin ydy  dt
cos y
3
dt
If = e t  e3ln t  t 3  ln 3 cos y
 sin y
solution is x  ln 3 cos y    ln cos ydy  C
 cos y
 ln 2 cos y
x ln 3 cos y  C
2
1
ln 3  
  1
 ln 3   =     C
1 1 2
x   so
 3  2ln 2 2ln 2 2 2
C=0
 3 1 3
y x ln 3   ln 2 0
6 2 2 2
1
x
 3
2ln  
 2 
1 1
x 
4 ln 4  ln 3
ln
3
mn = 12
2.4
 [x ]dx     2   3   5, then  +  +  +  is equal to

2
28. Let [t] denote the greatest integer function. If
0
_______.
Sol. 6
1 2 3 2 5 2 4
 0dx   1dx 
0 1
 2dx   3dx   4dx 
2
 5dx
2 3 5
2 1  2   
3  2 3 2 3 4    
5  2  5 2  4  5 
9 2  3  5
        9 111  6
29. The ordinates of the points P and Q on the parabola with focus (3.0) and directrix x=3 are in the ratio 3 : 1 :.
2
If R (,) is the point of intersection of the tangents to the parabola at P and Q, then is equal to ________.

Sol. 16
Parabola is y2 = 12x
Let Q(3t2, 6t)
so P(27t2, 18t)
R  ,    at1t 2 ,a  t1  t 2 
= (3t3t, 3(t + 3t))
R() = (9t2, 12t)
2 12t  144
2
   16
 9t 2 9

3x 2  k x  1, 0  x  1

30. Let k and m be positive real numbers such that the function f  x     is differentiable
 mx  k ,

2 2
x  1 

8f '(8)
for all x > 0. Then is equal to_______.
1
f ' 
8
Sol. 309
function is differentiable x < 0
so f(1–) = f(1)
3  2k  m  k 2 ...(1)
and f 1 1   f –1 1 
k
2mx x 1  6x  x 1
2 x 1
k
2m  6 
2 2
k
m  3 ...(2)
4 2
k
k2  3   3  2k
4 2
7
k ,0
4 2
7
m  3
32
103
m
32
8f '  8  2mx x 8
So  8
1 k
f '  6x 
8 2 x 1 x
1
8
103
8 28
 32
16
12
= 103  3 = 309
SECTION - A
31. A hydraulic automobile lift is designed to lift vehicles of mass 5000 kg. The area of cross section of the cylinder
carrying the load is 250 cm2. The maximum pressure the smaller piston would have to bear is
[Assume g = 10 m/s2] :
(1) 2 × 10+5 Pa (2) 20 × 10+6 Pa (3) 200 × 10+6 Pa (4) 2 × 10+6 Pa
Sol. (4)
5000 kg
A=250 cm2
From pascal law same P transmitted through out liquid

F 5000  10
P = =
A 250  10 4
= 2 × 106 Pa
32. The orbital angular momentum of a satellite is L, when it is revolving in a circular orbit at height h from earth
surface. If the distance of satellite from the earth center is increased by eight times to its initial value, then the
new angular momentum will be-
(1) 8L (2) 3L (3) 4L (4) 9L
Sol. (2)
 GM 
L = mv0r  v 0  
 h 

L  m GMh …….(1)
m v0
h’  h + 8h = 9h
L’ = m GM9h ……..(2)
h
L'
3
L M
L’ = 3L
33. The waves emitted when a metal target is bombarded with high energy electrons are
(1) Microwaves (2) X-rays (3) Radio Waves (4) Infrared rays
Sol. (2)
By theory

LIST – I LIST – II
–2 –2
A. Torque I. ML T
B. Stress II. ML2T–2
C. Pressure gradient III. ML–1t–1
D. Coefficient of viscosity IV ML–1T–2
(1) A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II (2) A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III
(3) A-IV, B-II, C-III, D-I (4) A-II, B-IV, C-I, D-III
Sol. (4)
[Torque] = F.L
MLT 2 .L  ML2T 2
F
[Stress] =
A
MLT 2
2
 ML1T 2
L
P F
[Pressure gradient] =  2
L A .L
MLT 2
=
L3
 ML2T 2
dv
F  nA
dy
 = ML1T 1
35. Give below are two statements

Statement I : Area under velocity- time graph gives the distance travelled by the body in a given time.
Statement II : Area under acceleration- time graph is equal to the change in velocity- in the given time.
In the light of given statement, choose the correct answer from the options given below.
(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are true.
(2) Statement I is correct but Statement II is false.
(3) Both Statement I and and Statement II are false.
(4) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is true.
Sol. (Official Ans. (1))
(Motion Ans. (4))
ds
v   ds   v dt
dt
Area of v vs time gives displacement
dv
a   dv   a dt
dt
Area of a vs t graph gives change in velocity
36. The power radiated from a linear antenna of length l is proportional to (Given,  = Wavelength of wave):
2
l l2 l l
(1) (2) (3) 2 (4)  
   
Sol. (4)
37. Electric potential at a point 'P' due to a point charge of 5 × 10–9C is 50 V. The distance of 'P' from the point
charge is:
1
(Assume, = 9 × 10+9 Nm2C–2)
4 0
(1) 3 cm (2) 9 cm (3) 0.9 cm (4) 90 cm
Sol. (4)
1 q
V
40 r
9  109  5  109
r=
50
9
r=  100cm
10
r = 90 cm
38. The acceleration due to gravity at height h above the earth if h<<R (Radius of earth) is given by
 h2   h   2h 2   2h 
(1) g '  g 1   (2) g '  g  1   (3) g '  g 1  2  (4) g '  g  1  
 2R  2
 2R   R   R 
Sol. (4)
GM
g’ =
(R  h)2
GM
g’ = 2
 h
R2  1  
 R
using binomial expansion & neglect higher order term
 2h 
 g’ = g  1  
 R 
39. An emf of 0.08 V is induced in a metal rod of length 10 cm held normal to a uniform magnetic field of 0.4 T,
when moves with a velocity of:
(1) 2 ms–1 (2) 20 ms–1 (3) 3.2 ms–1 (4) 0.5 ms–1
Sol. (1)
 = Blv
10
 0.08  v  0.4 
100
 v = 2 m/s
40. Work done by a Carnot engine operating between temperatures 127°C and 27°C is 2 kJ. The amount of heat
transferred to the engine by the reservoir is:
(1) 2 kJ (2) 4 kJ (3) 2.67 kJ (4) 8 kJ
Sol. (4)
T1
(400 k) 127°C = 127 + 273 = 400 k
Q1
H.E  w = 2kJ
Q2
T2 27°C + 273 = 300 k

(300 k)
300 1
n=1– 
400 4
w 1
n=   Q 1  8kJ
Q1 4
41. The width of fringe is 2 mm on the screen in a double slits experiment for the light of wavelength of 400 nm.
The width of the fringe for the light of wavelength 600 nm will be:
(1) 1.33 mm (2) 3 mm (3) 2 mm (4) 4 mm
Sol. (2)
D
=
d
  
1 1 2 400
  
2  2  600
 = 3 mm
42. The temperature at which the kinetic energy of oxygen molecules becomes double than its value at 27°C is
(1) 1227°C (2) 627°C (3) 327°C (4) 927°C
Sol. (3)
1 
KE of O2 molecules = 5 ×  KT 
2 
1 5
(KE)27°C = 5 × k(27  273)  k  300
2 2
5  5
(KE)T = 2  k   300  k(600)
2  2
i.e. T = 600 K
= 600 – 273
T = 327°C
Assertion A : Electromagnets are made of soft iron.
Reason R : Soft iron has high permeability and low retentivity.
In the light of above, statements, chose the most appropriate answer from the options given below.
Sol. (2)
x2
44. The trajectory of projectile, projected from the ground is given by y = x  . Where x and y are measured in
20
meter. The maximum height attained by the projectile will be.
(1) 10 m (2) 200 m (3) 10 2 m (4) 5 m
Sol. (4)
x2
y=x–
20
 dy  x dy
  1– for ymax ;
dx
=0
 dx  10
x = 10
100
ymax = 10 –  5m
20
45. A bullet of mass 0.1 kg moving horizontally with speed 400 ms–1 hits a wooden block of mass 3.9 kg kept on a
horizontal rough surface. The bullet gets embedded into the block and moves 20 m before coming to rest. The
coefficient of friction between the block and the surface is _______.
(Given g = 10 m/s2)
(1) 0.90 (2) 0.65 (3) 0.25 (4) 0.50
Sol. (3)
0.1kg
3.9kg
kg
400 m/s kg 
Before collision
u’ v=0
4kg
20m
After collision
Apply momentum conservation just before and just after the collision
0.1 × 400 = (3.9 + .1) u’
 u = 10 m/s
KE = w all FORCE
 f = mg (kinetic friction)
1
0– (4)(10)2  (4)g  20
2
  = 0.25
46. For a given transistor amplifier circuit in CE configuration V CC = 1 V, RC = 1 k, Rb = 100 k and  = 100.
Value of base current Ib is
(1) Ib = 100 A (2) Ib = 10 A (3) Ib = 0.1 A (4) Ib = 1.0 A
Sol. (2)
Vcc = 1 V
Rc Ic = 1
1
Ic = 3 A = 1 mA
10
I
= c
I
IC
I 

= 1 × 10-5 A
= 10 A
47. For particle P revolving round the centre O with radius of circular path r and angular velocity , as shown in
below figure, the projection of OP on the x-axis at time t is
    
(1) x(t) = rcos   t   (2) x(t) = rcos   t   
 6  6 
 
(3) x(t) = rcos (t) (4) x(t) = rsin   t  
 6
Sol. (1)
 = t
y

30°
r

Angle from x axis = t +
6
 
Projection of OP on x axis = r cos  t  
 6
48. A radio active material is reduced to 1/8 of its original amount in 3 days. If 8 × 10 –3 kg of the material is left
after 5 days the initial amount of the material is
(1) 64 g (2) 40 g (3) 32 g (4) 256 g
Sol. (4)
m = m0 e-t
m0
= m0 e-t
8
–ln8 = –t
ln 8
== per day
3
m = m0 e-t
ln 8
 5
3
8 = m0 e
3ln 2
 5
 8 = m0 e 3
5
8 = m0 e ln 2
 1 
= 8 m0  5 
2 
m0 = 8 × 25
= 8 × 32
m0 = 256 gm
49. The equivalent resistance between A and B as shown in figure is:
(1) 20 k (2) 30 k (3) 5 k (4) 10 k

Sol. (3)
Potential different across all resistor is same
So they are in parallel
1 1 1 1
  
R 20 20 10
Req = 5k
50. In photo electric effect

A. The photocurrent is proportional to the intensity of the incident radiation.
B. Maximum Kinetic energy with which photoelectrons are emitted depends on the intensity of incident light.
C. Max K.E with which photoelectrons are emitted depends on the frequency of incident light.
D. The emission of photoelectrons require a minimum threshold intensity of incident radiation.
E. Max. K.E of the photoelectrons is independent of the frequency of the incident light.
(1) B and C only (2) A and C only (3) A and E only (4) A and B only
Sol. (2)
h =  + (KE)max
(KE)max = hv – 
SECTION - B
51. A 600 pF capacitor is charged by 200 V supply. It is then disconnected from the supply and is connected to
another uncharged 600 pF capacitor. Electrostatic energy lost in the process is _________ J
Sol. (6)
1 cc
loss of strength = (v 1  v 2 )2
2 cc
1  600  1012  2
=    (200)
2  2 
= 600 × 10–12  104  6  106  6J
52. A series combination of resistor of resistance 100 , inductor of inductance 1 H and capacitor of capacitance
6.25 F is connected to an ac source. The quality factor of the circuit will be __________
Sol. (4)
1 L
Q=
R C
1 1
=
100 6.25  106
=4
53. The number density of free electrons in copper is nearly 8 × 1028 m–3. A copper wire has its area of cross section
= 2 × 10–6 m2 and is carrying a current of 3.2 A. The drift speed of the electrons is ________ ×10–6 ms–1
Sol. (125)
I = neAvd
 3.2 = 8 × 1028 × 1.6 × 10–19 × 2 × 10–6 (vd)
1
 vd = 6
8  10  109
 vd = 125 × 10–6 m/s
54. A hollow spherical ball of uniform density rolls up a curved surface with an initial velocity 3 m/s (as shown in figure).
Maximum height with respect to the initial position covered by it will be _________ cm (take, g = 10 m/s2)
Sol. (75)
For pure rolling
0=v0/R B
 Hmax
v
A
(M.E)A = (M.E)B
2
1 1 2  v 
 mv 20    mR 2  0   mg H max
2 2 3  R 
5 v 20 5 32
 H max     0.75m
6 g 6 10
 Hmax  75cm
55. A steel rod of length 1 m and cross sectional area 10–4 m2 is heated from 0°C to 200°C without being allowed
to extend or bend. The compressive tension produced in the rod is __________ × 104N. (Given Young's modulus
of steel = 2 × 1011 Nm–2, coefficient of linear expansion = 10–5K–1)
Sol. (4)
Thermal stress = Y  T
F = Y A  T
= 2 × 1011 × 10–4 × 10– 5 × 200
= 4 × 104
x=4
56. The ratio of magnetic field at the centre of a current carrying coil of radius r to the magnetic field at distance r
from the centre of coil on its axis is x :1 . The value of x is ________
Sol. (8)
0iR 2
Baxis =
2(R 2  x 2 )3/2
 0 iR 2
(Baxis )x  R 2(R 2  R 2 )3/2 R3 1
 2
 
(Baxis )x  0  0 iR 3/2 3
2 R 8
2 3/2
2(R )
(B)At centrs 8

(B)At x  R 1
x=8
x
57. The ratio of wavelength of spectral lines H and H in the Balmer series is . The value of x is _______
20
Sol. (27)
58. Two transparent media having refractive indices 1.0 and 1.5 are separated by a spherical refracting surface of
radius of curvature 30 cm. The centre of curvature of surface is towards denser medium and a point object is
placed on the principle axis in rarer medium at a distance of 15 cm from the pole of the surface. The distance of
image from the pole of the surface is __________ cm.
Sol. (30)
=1
 = 1.5
u
15 cm
R = 30 cm
1.5 1 1.5  1
– 
v (–15) 30
1.5 1 1 14
 – – 
v 60 15 60
V = – 30 cm
= 30 cm
59. A guitar string of length 90 cm vibrates with a fundamental frequency of 120 Hz. The length of the string
producing a fundamental frequency of 180 Hz will be __________ cm.
Sol. (60)
v
f= (Fundamental Frequency)
2L
v
120 = …….(1)
2L
v
180 = …….(2)
2L'
L' 120

L 180
2
L’ = × 90
3
L’ = 60 cm
60. A body of mass 5 kg is moving with a momentum of 10 kg ms–1. Now a force of 2 N acts on the body in the
direction of its motion for 5 s. The increase in the Kinetic energy of the body is _________ J.
Sol. (30)
P2
(KE) =
2M
10 
2
1
 mu2 =
2 25
1 100
= × 5 × u2 =
2 10
Initial speed u = 2 m/s
KE = wall forces
= F.S ( = 0°)
 1 
= F  ut  at 2 
 2 
 1 2 
= 2.  2  5    52 
 2 5 
= 30 J
SECTION - A
Topic: Chemistry in everyday life
Level: Med
61. The statement/s which are true about antagonists from the following is/are :
A. They bind to the receptor site
B. Get transferred inside the cell for their action
C. Inhibit the natural communication of the body
D. Mimic the natural messenger.
(1) A and B (2) A and C (3) A, C and D (4) B only
Sol. 2
Antagonists bind to receptor site and inhibit the natural communication of both
Topic: Chemical kinetics

Sub: collision theory
Level: Easy
62. The correct reaction profile diagram for a positive catalyst reaction.
(1) (2)
(3) (4)
Sol. 4
Catalysts decrease activation energy only.
Topic :
Sub Topic :
Level :
63. Given below are two statements : One is labelled as Assertion A and other is labelled as Reason R
Assertion A : Sodium is about 30 times as abundant as potassium in the oceans.
Reason R : Potassium is bigger in size than sodium.
Sol. 1
Due to bigger size of potassium, it forms more efficient lattices as compared to sodium with silicates.
The abundance of sodium in ocean is more due to the more soluble nature of salt of sodium as compared to
potassium salts.
Topic :
Sub Topic :
Level :
64. Which of these reactions is not a part of breakdown of ozone in stratosphere?
   
(1) CF2Cl2(g) 
uv
 Cl(g)  C F2 Cl(g) (2) C l(g) +O3(g)  ClO(g) +O2(g)
   
(3) 2 ClO  ClO2(g)+ C l (g) (4) ClO (g)+O(g)  C l (g)+O2(g)
Sol. 3
Ozone destruction
 
CF2Cl2 
hv
 C l  C F2 Cl(g)
 
C l + O3  ClO + O2
  
ClO + O  C l  O 2
Topic: Nomenclature
Level: Easy
65. The correct IUPAC nomenclature for the following compound is :
(1) 2-Methyl-5-oxohexanoic acid (2) 2-Formyl-5-methylhexan-6-oic acid

(3) 5-Formyl-2-methylhexanoic acid (4) 5-Methyl-2-oxohexan-6-oic acid
Sol. 1
O
CH2 CH3
5 2
3
CH2 CH
H3C 4
6
1 COOH
2-Methyl-5-oxohexanoic acid
Topic :
Sub Topic :
Level :
66. Henry Moseley studied characteristic X-ray spectra of elements. The graph which represents his observation
correctly is
Given  = frequency of X-ray emitted
Z = atomic number
(1) (2)
(3) (4)
Sol. 2
v Z
Topic :
Sub Topic :
Level :
List I List II
Coordination complex Number of
unpaired electrons
A. [Cr(CN)6]3– I. 0
2+
B. [Fe(H2O)6] II. 3
C. [Co(NH3)6]3+ III. 2
D. [Ni(NH3)6]2+ IV. 4
(1) A-II, B-IV, C-I, D-III (2) A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I
(3) A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III (4) A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II
Sol. 1
For option (A)
Cr+3 : 3d3
CN–  SFL
 No. of unpaired electrons = 3
For option (B)
Fe+2 : 3d6
H2O : WFL
No. of unpaired electrons = 4
For option (C)
Co+3 : 3d6
NH3 : SFL
For option (D)
Ni+2 : 3d8
NH3 : SFL
Topic: Hydrocarbon
Level: Med
68. Major product ‘P’ formed in the following reaction is :
(1) (2)
(3) (4)
Sol. 3
••
OH O H
••
Br2
Br
O O
NaHCO3
Br O
O
Topic :
Sub Topic :
Level :
69. For a good quality cement, the ratio of lime to the total of the oxides of Si, Al and Fe should be as close as to
(1) 2 (2) 1 (3) 3 (4) 4
Sol. 1
%CaO
 1.9 – 2.1
%SiO2  %Al2O3  %Fe2O3
Option (1) is correct.
Topic: Biomolecule
Level: Easy
List I List II
Natural amino acid One letter code
A. Glutamic acid I. Q
B. Glutamine II. W
C. Tyrosine III. E
D. Tryptophan IV. Y
(1) A-III, B-I, C-IV, D-II (2) A-IV, B-III, C-I, D-II
(3) A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III (4) A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II
Sol. 1
A-III, B-I, C-IV, D-II
Fact
Topic: Mole concept

Sub: Significant figares
Level: F
71. Which of the following have same number of significant figures ?
A. 0.00253
B. 1. 0003
C. 15.0
D. 163
Choose the correct answer from the options given below
(1) B and C only (2) A, B and C only
(3) A, C and D only (4) C and D only
Sol. 3
0.00253, 15.0, 163
All have three significant figures.
Topic: Qualitative
Sub:
Level:M
Statement I : Methyl orange is a weak acid.
Statement II : The benzenoid form of methyl orange is more intense/deeply coloured than the quinonoid form.
In the light of the above statement, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:
(1) Both statement I and statement II are incorrect
(2) Both statement I and Statement II are correct
Sol. 1
(i) Methy orange is weak base
+ –
CH3
Na O3 S N N N
CH3
H
+
+ – +
CH3
Na O3 S N N N
H CH3
(ii) Red color (quinonoid form)

So both statement are false
Topic: GOC
Level: Easy
73. The descending order of acidity for the following carboxylic acid is –
A. CH3COOH B. F3C – COOH C. ClCH2 – COOH D. BrCH2 – COOH
(1) D > B > A > E > C (2) B > D > C > E > A
(3) E > D > B > A > C (4) B > C > D < E > A
Sol. 2
Acidity  stability of conjugate base
Stability order
F3C – COO F – CH2 – COO Cl – CH2 – COO– Br – CH 2 – COO CH3COO
Topic :
Sub Topic :
Level :
74. In Hall-Heroult process, the following is used for reducing Al2O3 :-
(1) Magnesium (2) Graphite (3) Na3AlF6 (4) CaF2
Sol. 2
In case of Hall’s process, reduction of Al2O3 to Al can be done using graphite.
Topicp: Real gas
Sub: Vanderwals costant
Level: M
75. Arrange the following gases in increasing order of van der waals constant ‘a’
A. Ar B. CH4 C. H2O D. C6H6
Choose the correct options from the following
(1) A, B, C and D (2) B, C, D and A (3) C, D, B and A (4) D, C, B and A
Sol. 1
A  force of attraction vanderwaal force depends on molecular size and molecular mass and there is H-bonding
in water, so correct option will be A < B < C < D.
Topic: Stoichiometry-II
Sub: titration
Level: M
76. Given below are two statement :
Statement I : In redox titration, the indicators used are sensitive to change in pH of the solution.
Statement II : In acid-base titration, the indicators used are sensitive to change in oxidation potential.
(1) Both statement I and Statement II are incorrect
Sol. 1
Fact
Topic :
Sub Topic :
Level :
77. Which of the following can reduce decomposition of H2O2 on exposure to light
(1) Dust (2) Urea
(3) Glass containers (4) Alkali
Sol. 2
Urea acts as a stabilizer in the decomposition of H2O2
Topic: Alkyl Halide

Level: M
78. The correct order of reactivity of following haloarenes towards nucleophilic substitution with aqueous NaOH
is

(1) D > B > A > C (2) A > B > D > C
(3) C > A > D > B (4) D > C > B > A
Sol. 1
1
Rate EWG
EDG
NO2 Meffect
OMe M effect
Topic :
Sub Topic :
Level :
79. A compound ‘X’ when treated with phthalic anhydride in presence of concentrated H2SO4 yields ‘Y’. ‘Y’ is
used as an acid/base indicator. ‘X’ and ‘Y’ are respectively:
(1) Anisole, methyl orange (2) Toludine, Phenolphthalein
(3) Carbolic acid, Phenolphthalein (4) Salicylaldehyde, Phenolphthalein
Sol. 3
Topic: Nitrogen containg compound

Level: M
80. The product (P) formed from the following multistep reaction is :
(1) (2) (3) (4)

Sol. 4
N2Cl–
+
NO2 NO2 NH2
Br2 H2/Pd NaNO2,HCl

OoC
Br Br Br
CH3 CH3 CH3 CH3
H3PO2
Br
CH3
SECTION - B
Topic :
Sub Topic :
Level :
81. The observed magnetic moment of the complex [Mn(NCS)6]x– is 6.06 BM. The numerical value of x is________
Sol. 4
[Mn(NCS)6]x–
Number of unpaired electron = 5
So, Mn must be in +2 oxidation state (Mn+2)
 2 + (–6) = –x  –4 = –x x=4
Topic: Thermochemistry
Sub: bomb calorimetery
Level: M
82. For complete combustion of ethane,
C2H4(g)+3O2(g) 2CO2(g)+2H2O(l)
The amount of heat produced as measured in bomb calorimeter is 1406 KJ mol–1 at 300K. The minimum value
of TS needed to reach equilibrium is (–)__________KJ (Nearest integer)
Given : R = 8.3 JK–1mol–1
Sol. 1411
G H T S at equilibrium:-
G 0
3
T S H U ngRT = 1406 ( 2) 8.3 300 10 = 1410.98 1411
Topic: Ionic equilibrium

Sub: solubility produce
Level: Easy
83. The solubility product of BaSO4 is 1×10–10 at 298 K. The solubility of BaSO4 in 0.1 M K2SO4(aq) solut
is________×10–9 g L–1 (Nearest integer)
Given: Molar mass of BaSO4 is 233 g mol–1
Sol. 233
10
K sp x(x 0.1) 10
10
0.1x 10
x 10 9 M
9
x(in g/ l) 233 10
Topic: Atomic Structure

Sub: wave mechanical model
Level: Easy
84. The number of atomic orbitals from the following having 5 radial nodes is_________
7s, 7p, 6s, 8p, 8d
Sol. 3
No. of radial node
= n – –1
For 6S  6 – 0 – 1 = 5,
7P  7 – 1 – 1 = 5
8d  8 – 2 – 1 = 5
Topic: Electrochemistry
Sub: Thermodynamics of cell
Level: T
85. The number of incorrect statement from the following is________
(1) The electrical work that a reaction can perform at constant pressure and temperature is equal to the reaction
Gibbs energy
(2) E ocell is dependent on the pressure
dE ocell  r So
(3) 
dT nF
(4) A cell is operating reversibly if the cell potential is exactly balanced by an opposing source of potential
difference
Sol. 1
dG = vdp – sdT
dG = – sdT
dG d G
–S – S
dT dT
dE o – S
dT –nF
Topic: Surface chemi.

Sub: coagulation
Level:E
86. Coagulating value of the electrolytes AlCl3 and NaCl for As2S3 are 0.09 and 50.04 respectively. The coagulating
power of AlCl3 is x times the coagulating power of NaCl. The value of x is______
Sol. 556
1
Coagulating power
coagulation value
(CP) AlCl3 50.04
556
(CP) NaCl 0.09
Topic:Liquid solution
Sub: elvation ir boiling point
Level:E
87. If the boiling points of two solvents X and Y (having same molecular weights) are in the ratio 2 : 1 and their
enthalpy of vaporizations are in the ratio 1 : 2, then the boiling point elevation constant of X is m times the
boiling point elevation constant of Y. The value of m is________(nearest integer)
Sol. 8
RTb2 m
Kb
1000 H vap
2
(K b ) x (Tb2 M) x ( H) y 2 2 8
(K b ) y (Tb2 M) y ( H) x 1 1 1
Topic :
Sub Topic :
Level :
88. The number of species from the following carrying a single lone pair on central atom Xenon is_______
XeF5+, XeO3, XeO2F2, XeF5–, XeO3F2,XeOF4, XeF4
Sol. 4
So, Answer is 4
Topic :
Sub Topic :
Level :
89. The ratio of sigma and  bonds present in pyrophosphoric acid is________
Sol. 6
 12
 6
 2
So, Answer is 6
Topic :
Sub Topic :
Level :
90. The sum of oxidation state of the metals in Fe(CO)5, VO2+ and WO3 is_______
Sol. 10
(0) ( 4) ( 6)
Fe(CO)5 V O2 W O3
So, Sum of oxidation state = 0 + 4 + 6 = 10

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02/02/2023, 21:53 https://cdn3.digialm.

JEE 2023 Session-1 24th Jan to 1st Feb 2023

Section : Physics Section A

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Section : Physics Section B

Section : Chemistry Section A

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Section : Chemistry Section B

Section : Mathematics Section A

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