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se-

04/10/2023 | ha
: RX code? ?

Corporate Office : Aakash Tower, 8, pq

a Road, Ne \
Ph.O11-47623456 Co" Delhi-110005,

TermExam2024CF+OYM(P1).Tggs Time : 200 Min-

- ime :

Topics Covered:
Physics: Electromagnetic Induction, Alternating Current, Electromagnetic Waves

Chemistry: The p-Block Elements: (Group 15-18), The d & f-Block Elements,
Coordinati

, ; ation C
Botany: Strategies for Enhancement in Food Production, Microbes in Human Welfare i
Zoology: Human Health & Disease

[ce

neral Instructions :

[=
—~
mE
[1]
—-
[1]
o
=
]
o
[72
[1
[2]
=
[]
=
[7]
=
[1]

ach subject, i.e. Section-A & Section-B. You have to attempt all 35 questions from
Section-A & only 10 questions from Section-B out of 15.

darken the appropriate circle.

- Mark should be dark and completely fill the circle.

. Dark only one circle for each entry.

. Dark the circle in the space provided only.

- Rough work must not be done on the An
Answer sheet.

~N Ou hw

swer sheetand do not use white fluid or any other rubbing material on the

PHYSICS
SECTION-A
In resonance state of LCR series circuit, or Three identical inductors are
connected as
resonance frequency of circuit is f. If the shown in the circuit. The equivalent
capacitance is made 4 times of initial value inductance hcl points A and Bis
keeping inductance same, then the new
resonance frequency will be ——— i558
1) + Ae— Tii—e8
—timese
ANGE
2 1 L
3 times (1) 3L
@ (2) 8
— times 3) L
J x
(4) 4timesé Wit
TermExam2024CF+O0YM(P1)-TEOSA

3. Acircular conducting cojl of radius ry having

resistance R is placed ip a time i
transverse uniform magnetic field g = 412 as
shown in the figure, The Current in the coil at

timet=2sis (consider Jy)

; all .
Sl units) quantities are in

1) d7r,
@ sry
(3) wry

(4) 16ar

4. An alternating current of 1.5 mA with angular

frequency 100 rad/s flows through a 10 kQ
fésistor and a 0.50 pF capacitor in series.
The RMS value of potentia) drop across the
capacitor is

(2) 48v
(2) 30v
(3) 15V
(4) 190v

4 Read the following statements and choose

the correct option.
Statement A : An emf can be induced by
moving a conductor in a magnetic field.
Statement B : An emf can be induced in a
coil by changing the magnetic field, in which
the coil is lying.
Both statements A and B are true
(2) Ais true butB is false
(3) Bistrue butAis false

(4) Both statements A and B are false

% The potential of an AC source connected in

series with an inductor of inductance L, a
capacitor of capacitance C and a resistor of
resistance R is V = (6 sin wt) volt. If current in

the circuit is / = 2 sin (wt + =) then the

power dissipated in the circuit will be

ir

(2) 3W
(3) 3v2W
@ Zw

ZZ In R-L-C SETIes ac circu as Stange,

reading of ideal volmsters yr, me

- ~
volt and 70 voli respacively, than ——
voltmeter V3 is [Given X-> Xx, J Ng =n

i]

Rr L C
WA———— TTT | —
{1
| 4
1 1 i
Vy —11 @n 11 on {
WE = =
{
-

(1) 60 volt
(2) 10volt
(3) 100 volt
(4) 130 volt

NZ If current / in the sraight wire is dacreasing

then induced current in the loop is

(1) Clockwise
(2) Anticlockwise

2 Fst clockwise then anticlockwiss

(4) Zero

& Energy stored in a pure inducior of

inductance L when a currant i flows through

it, is

@) 12 «

@ 212
sLi%.

(a 12
1

Bh If a source of power 4 KW produces 102°

photons per second, the radiations belong ©
a part of the spectrum called

X-rays
(2) Ultra violet rays
(3) Micro waves

(4) y-rays
1. w; and w, are the wo half power angular
frequencies and wp is angular resonant
frequency of an LCR series circuit then
selectincorrect relation.

(1) w»—w; = band width

@ wo = yom

3) wo = ==
R
@ fun — y= &

20
i tf SHH HT
|| SFrOYMPL)TE0S A

il

i AC source of 25 volt, 60 Hz is applied

across C-R series circuit as shown, If voltage
across resistance is 20 volt, then volar

across capacitor is *

~20V —
—A\AN =
R 0;
—(—
25V, 60 Hz
1) 20v
(2) 15V
(3) 25V
(4) 40V

$74 A light bulb and an inductor coil are

connected to an ac source through a key as
shown in the figure below. The key is closed
and after sometime an iron rod is inserted
into the interior of the inductor. The glow of
the light bulb

tL

(1) increases

U2 decreases

(3) remains unchanged

(4) will fluctuate

14. In the circuit shown, the current through

battery just after switch is closed is
6 20V

BC
ZH
40)

(1) TA

2) 2

(2) TA

(3) 4A

(4) 2A

rgy
15. L-R series circuit is shown. the die:+!
stored in inductor long time after closing
key is
240 { =100 mH
AA ——— FTI]
- —{o—
V=12V
(1) 125 mJ
(2) 215%]
(3) 25 mJ
(4) 251
16. Magnetic flux is changing through a closed
circuit as function of ime as P= (ar =3t +

6)Wb. The resistance of circuit is 10 Q. The

induced currentat 0.5 second is

(1) 0.1A

(2) 0.2A

(3) 0.3A

(4) 04A

17. The current passing through a choke coil of

self inductance 0.5 H is decreasing at the
rate of 12 Als. The emf developed across the

coil is

(1) 06V
2) 6V
(3) 10V
(4) 1.2V

18. An ideal transformer has 50 turns in its

primary winding and 25 turns in its
secondary winding. If the current in the
secondary winding in 4 A whatis the current
in primary winding if a 200 V AC is applied
across it?

1) 4A
(2) 2A
(3) 3A
(4) 8A

19. A 50 Hz a.c. current of peak value 2 A flows

through one of the pair of coils. If the mutual
inductance between pair of coils is 150 mH,
then peak value of voltage induced in the
second coil is

(1) 20mV
(2) 30mV
(3) 40nV
(4) 10mV
i ae

24CP+OVM(P1)TEOSA

——

ermexam2®

a serles LR circuit In which

i conducting rod of length | | :

A uniform : gth [is 24. Consider :
20. roving with speed Vo Ina uniform I — LH and resistance 12 = 100§2When
ans(e Se uit fold fo exist In the circuit is connected 0 ac sie gl
toe Ih across the (wo 50 Hz. The current drawn from the source I:
5
oN sas ER (1) 11V/2A
Fh x go eal 2) 7610
¢ Xa (3) LLA
FP 4 # J ve
Le @) 2A
(1) Bplvp and Ais at higher potential c circult are
. a o fs circuit als
(2) Bylvp and Bis at higher potential 25. Emfapplied and currentin a he
(3) Bol ) Fi = 10y/2sinwt volt bo
— and Bis at higher potential » i = 5v/2coswt ampere respectively.
TY i ircuit is
(4) Bolvy ’ : / Average power loss in the C
——and Ais at higher potential , :
2 JERS (1) 50W
(2) 25W
gal Radiation of energy E falls normally on a @) Ly
perfectly reflecting surface. The momentum V2
i to the surface is (4) Zero
wi) Efe 26. Voltage and current in an ac circuit are given
= py V =b5sin (100m - z) V and
ElG
I = 4sin (100m + z) A, hence
FA If a square canducting loop is taken out from (1) Voltage Jeads the current by
30°
a region of uniform magnetic field with 30°
speed v as shown in figure. Then direction of (2) Currentleads the voltage by 0°
induced current in the loop will be (3) Currentleads the voltage by 6
HE (4) Voltage leads the current by 60°
27. A transformer having efficiency of 90% is
P 5 % i = working on 200 V and 3 kW power supply. If
the current in the secondary coil is GA, the
x % A "2S & 5 voltage across the secondary coil and the
| 4 current in the primary coil respectively are
He Se G8 BS (1) 300V,15A
x b 4 x b 4 xX (2) 450V,15A
Clockwise (3) 450V, 135A
(2) Anticlockwise (4) 600V,15 A
(3) Depending on speed of loop
(4) No currentwill induce 28. For the series LCR circuit shown in figure,
the resonance frequency and the amplitude
of current at resonant frequency are
The average power dissipation in pure respectively
inductor in one complete cycle is (symbols 8 mH
have usual meaning) TT |
1) 20/2
2 zero 220V T 20 uF
(3) iL?
2 fmm]
@) Li 40
(1) 2500 rad/s and 5 A
(2) 250 rad/s and 5/2 A
(3) 2500 rad/s and ZA
Va
(4) 2500 rad/s and 5/2 A
a
oyM(P1)TEO5A

rormexam2024€F7
20. A uniform Co rod of length / js 24. Consider a series L-R circuit in which
© loving with Spee : Yo Ina uniform I — 1H and resistance R = 100Q2When
rensverse magnetic field By as shown in + citeult Is connecied to AC SOUICS 2EEH
pie dl across the two 50 Hz. The current drawn from the source 15
en
x ANE EL 1 1.1v2A
d ipeen (2) Zero
i y @ LA
rp » x ¥ V2
gle tl 4) 2A
(1) Bolvp and Ais at higher potential
; . i jrcuit are
(2) Bolvgand Bis at higher potential 25. Emfapplied and currentin an AC cir =
3) Balm NEL E = 10y/2sinwt volt :
—5 and Bis at higher potential ¢ HE 54/2 cos wr ampere respectively.
wf and Ais at higher potential Average power [0ss IN the circuitis
y (1) 50W
il (2) 25 W
i Radiation of energy E falls normally on a (3) 52
perfectly reflecting surface. The momentum SP
ni to the surface is (4) Zero
J 2E/k : ircuit iven
( 26. Voltage and currentin an ac circuitare g
3) Ec ; ~ ) v
= — = and
@ Ei by V = 5sin ( 1007 — 5
1 = 4sin (1007 + 5) A, hence
2. If a square conducting loop is taken out from (1) Voltage leads the current by
30°
a region of uniform magnetic field with o
speed v as shown in figure. Then direction of (2) Currentleads the voltage by rl
induced currentin the loop will be (3) Currentleads the voltage by 60
lg (4) Voltage leads the current by 60°
27. A transformer having efficiency of 90% is
> is is 51 2 working on 200 V and 3 kW power supply. If
the current in the secondary coil is 6A, the
2 & & & x 3 voltage across the secondary coil and the
a 4 current in the primary coil respectively are
LE (1) 300V,15A
Xx x xX xX Xx (2) 450V,15 A
Clockwise (3) 450V,13.5A
(2) Anticlockwise (4) 600 V.15A
(3) Depending on speed of loop
(4) No current will induce 28. For the series LCR circuit shown in figure,
the resonance frequency and the amplitude
of current at resonant frequency are
The average power dissipation in pure respectively
inductor in one complete cycle is (symbols 8 mH
have usual meaning) oe Dl
1) aL? |
2 zero ~~ 220V = 20 uF
(3) Lrs?
2 AA
4) LL: 40
(1) 2500 rad/sand 5 A
(2) 250 rad/s and 5v/2 A
(3) 2500 rad/s and = A
V2
(4) 2500 rad/s and 5/2 A
a
30.

31.

36.

37.

# electromagnetic wave is E= (100 N/C)

electric field associated

(300 ¢ - 1075)

associated with this el

[All units are in SI unit]

@ (1 10°°T) sin(300t 10-02);

(@) i X10 T) sin(300¢ — 10 2) j

If Alternating Current in a circuit is given / =

lpsIin(100m1), then time taken by the current

to change from zero to peak value will (Here

lis in ampere and tis in second)

Light with average flux of 50 W/cm? falls

normally on non-reflecting surface at normal

incident having surface area 10 cm?. The

energy received by the surface during time
span of one minutes is

(1) 10%

(2) 3x10%3
(3) 6x1033
(4) 5x1033

At an instant, magnetic field at a point due 9

an electromagnetic wave is along x axis and

electric field is along y axis. The direction of
propagation of the wave is along

(1) Positive z axis

(2) Negative z axis
(3) Positive y axis
(4) Negative x axis

The voltage of an A.C supply varies with

time (f) as V = 60 sin 507 cos 507t. The
maximum voltage and frequency
respectively are

(1) 30V, 50 Hz
(2) 60 V, 100 Hz
(3) 60V,50 Hz

(4) 60/2 V,50 Hz

co

with
sin

then magnetic field

ectromagnetic wave js

(4 10°°T) sin(300t 10 04);

(4 x10°°T) sin(300¢ - 10 02);

Vgms = Vo bin (wt)

32.

33.

34.

35.

SECTION-B

38.

ce the ba

In an electromagnetic wave in free spa eld iS

root mean square value of the elect

Ems = 6 Vim. The peak value ©

magnetic field is

(1) 141x108 7
(2) 283x108 7
(3) 070x108 7
(4) 423x108 7

A 200 watt bulb is connected in secondary

coil. Its primary is connected at 400 volt. If
efficiency of tranformer is 80% and the bulb
is running with its peak power then, the
current in primary coil is

1)
(2)
(3)
(C0)

>

oon Wf— ws toe

> >»
A magnetic flux of 8 x 10~4 weber is linked
with each turn of coil having 400 turns when
there is an electric current of 2 A in it Self
inductance of the coil is

(1) 80 mH b= ZrO re?

(2) 160 mH mn = hoo a
(3) 32mH ~< Ei 9 |
(4) 40mH pain Su
NIL
Unit of inductance is ¢ 4 Bi
voltampere Te LE
8? +

(2) joule/ampere
(3) volt-second/ampere
(4) volt-amperefsecond

The electric field associated with e.m wave

in vacuum is given by

E= i [40cos(kz — 6x 10%t)] where E,

Z and t are in volt/m, meter and seconds
respectively. The value of wave vector K is

(1) 2m?
(2) 05mt
3) 6m?
(4) amt
e———

YM(P1)-TEQSA

TermExam?2 02 ACF+0O

£ pimensional formula of [Li2] is fn

inductance and i is current)

1) MHLETZ A?)
AF | MELET?

(3 MOLOT0 Al]

#) MLZ T2 AY

40. In the given network, the equivalent

inductance between X and Y will be
approximately (neglect mutual inductance in
circuit)

8 H 2H

4H 1H

(1) 15H
(2) 33H
(3) 44H
(4) 11H

A A conducting rod of length [ is rotating about

/ point P in a uniform transverse magnetic

field By as shown in the figure. If angular

speed of the rod is wp then the magnitude of
induced emf across the ends of the rod will

be (Pa ~2 ang PB=1)

(4) 5Bowol”

42. Current flowing through an inductor of

inductance 2 H, is 4 A. The magnitude of flux

through the inductor is

(1) 2Wb
(2) 3Wb
(3) 8 Wb
(4) 6 Wb

43.

44.

46.

47.

The refractive index of the transparent

medium [if all symbols have their usual

meaning] is
(0) Hoe
V The

@ | JE
Hy&o

ane electromagnetic wave travels

in vacuum the average electric field energy
density is given by (here Epis the amplitude

of the electric field of the wave)

®) 1eoEf

2 1e0E;

(3) 0B}

@) 2e0 Ef

when a pl

In a circuit L, C and R are connected in

series with an alternating voltage source of
frequency f. The current leads the voltage by

60°. The value of (X¢— X.) is

1) 2rR
#V2R

3) V3R

4) RB

V3

If potential difference across the plates of

capacitor of capacitance 10 pF changes at

the rate of 105%, then displacement

Sec

current between the plates of capacitor is

1) 1A

(2) 10A

(3) 5A

(4) 0A

If two coils of self inductances 1 mH and 4

mH has coupling coefficient 0.5, then
coefficient of mutual inductance between
two coils is
(1) 1 mH
(2) 3mH
(3) 2mH
(4) 4 mH
fed an a.c. circuit V and | are given by
AY V = 50sin (100m) volt,
I=100 sin 1007t 4* 2 mA. The average
Power dissipated in the circuit is
(1) 25w
(2) 5W
(3) 05W
(4) 1.25 wW

49. The pressure exerted by an electromagnetic

wave of intensity He on a non-

m=

reflecting surface is (c is the velocity of light)

1) Ie
@) £
(3) ic?
(4) L

9
2

” Which is correctly matched?

(1) H,SO4 —Haber's process
(2) HNO; — Contact process
Cl, — Deacon's process
(4) HCI - Ostwald process

Number of P-H bonds in orthophosphoric

acid is
(1) Zero

53. White phosphorous on reaction with thionyl

chloride produces

(1) PCl3 + SO; + S3Cly

(2) PClg + SO5 only
(3) PClg + SO; + SCI,
(4) PCl3 + SO; only

XeOF,
(2) XeO;
(3) Xe
(4) XeF,

A y complete hydrolysis gives

Ca

5 ohm
56 A series LCR circuit consists of © wer
resistance and 8 ohm reactance. The PY
factor of the circuit is

@)
(2)

—
H
=

wo = Jes tfw on)

CHEMISTRY

SECTION-A

55. Which gas is obtained on reacting copper

with dilute nitric acid?

(1) NO
(2) Nz

(3) NO;
(4) NO

5& Which of the following has highest bond

dissociation enthalpy?

Fm ©
2) Clp
(3) Bry
4) lo-

57. Shape of XeOF, is

(1) Trigonal bipyramidale
(2) Square pyramidal *
(3) See-saw
(4) Square planar
TermExam2024CF+0YM(P1)-TEO5A

58. Assertion (A): Extensive H-bonding is

presentin NHa, while other hydrides of 15"
group can not form H-bonding.

Reason (R): Among the hydrides of 15M

group, NH3 has highest boiling point.

In light of above statements, choose the

correct answer

(1) Bath Assertion & Reason are true and

the reason is the correct explanation of
the assertion

(2) Both Assertion & Reason are true but

the reason is not the correct

explanation of the assertion

(3) Assertion is true statement but Reason

is false

(4) Both Assertion and Reason are false

statements

56 The hybridisation state of phosphorus in

PClg is
(1) sp
(2) sp?
(3) spd *

WW pc? .

597 Most basic hydride of group 15 elements is

NH3

(2) PH3
(3) AsHj
(4) SbHj

61. Peroxide linkage is presentin

(1) HzS5,07
(2) H25206
(3) Hz2S204
(4) HzS;04

62. The brown coloured complex formed in

brown ring testis

(1) [Fe(cN)gI*~

(2) [Fe(CN)s(NOS)[*~
3) [Fe(H,0)sNOP*
(4) [Fe(CN)sNOJP~
63. IUPAC Name of Fey[Fe(CN)gl3 is
(1) Ferrous ferric cyanide
(2) Ferric ferrous hexacyanate
(3) Iron (lll) hexacyanidoferrate (11)
(4) Ferrous hexacyanidoferrate (Ill)

64.

65.

66.

68.

power 4

Correct order of oxidising

Cry 9 , MnO, and VO, is

(1) vO, > Cr; 0; ~~ MnO;

(2 MnO, > Cr, 07 > VO,
(3) Cr, 0} > MnO, ~ VO,
(4) MnO, > VO, ~ Cr; 07

Consider the following statements

(i) Manganate and permanganate ions are

tetrahedral in shape.
(ii) Manganate ion is paramagnetic in nature

(iii) Permanganate ion oxidises iodide to

iodate in alkaline medium
The correct statements are

(1) (i) and (ii) only

(2) (1) and (iii) anly
(3) (ii) and (iii) only
(4) (i). (ii) and (iii)

Correct order of basic strength of the given

lanthanoid hydroxides is

(1) Er(OH); > Gd(OH)3 > Ce(OH)3

(2) Ce(OH)z > Gd(OH)3 > Er(OH)5

(3) Gd(OH)4 > Er(OH)5 > Ce(OH)4

(4) Ce(OH)3 > Er(OH)3 > GU(OH)4

Correct order of first ionisation enthalpy of

the given metal atoms is

(1) Mn>Cr > Sc

(2) Sc>Cr>Mn
| > Sc > Mn

(4) Mn > Sc >Cr

Consider the following statements about

interstitial compounds

(i) They are chemically inert

(ii) They are very hard

(iii) They retain metallic conductivity

The correct statements are

(1) (i) and (ii) only

(2) (ii) and (iii) only
(3) (i) and (iii) only
(4) (i), (i) and (iii)

Aqueous solution of which ion 15 colourless”

(1) co?*
(2) cu?*
@f sc?

(4) v3
F+OYM(P1)TE05A

aic radii is maximum for

(1) yp3+

2) Ce3t
3) cad
(4) Tp3-

h
(2) Co
(3) Ir
(4) Tc

Rf ope present in Wilkinson catalyst is

R

# Enthalpy of atomisation is least for

(1) Mn

(4) Ni

73. Inner orbital diamagnetic complex species in

the following is

(1D) MnEeN)-
(2) [Fe(CcN)sl*~

(3) [Corel
(4) [Co(C204)3*~

74. Consider the following complex ions

BICC
I. [Cr(NH3)e**
I. [Cr{CN)gF*~
The correct order of crystal field spliting
energy is
(1) 1>nu>1
(2) 1>m=>1
(3) m>u=>1
(@) 1>m>n

75. Which of the following complexes is optically

active?
(1) [Cr(NH3)sP*
(2) [Ni(H,0)sf"
(3) [Pt(NH3)3BrINO3
(4) [Cr(en3)ICl3

76. For same central atom and ligands, correct

relation is

(1) Ap = TAY
@ A = 34,
BY A, = 3A
4) A, = 34

{1 |
77. In which of the following, ammonia 9%
formed as one of the product?

(1) NH4CI (ag) + NaNO, (aq) 7

2 i 2
@ (NH,),Cr,07 >>

(3) Ba (Ny), a

(4) (NH,),80, | NaOH

78. [Co(NH3)5504] Br and [CO(NH3)5BrISO4 Ar

(1) Linkage isomers
(2) Coordination isomers
(3) lonisalion isomers
(4) Solvate isomers

528 The primary and secondary valency of the

central atom of a schematic representation

of given complex are respectively.

|
OH, F
H,O a OH,
iy a A
yd £0 =r Cl
SAN
H,O he OH,
Cl OH,
(1) 6&6
U27 3&6
3) 6&3
4) 3&3

80. Noble gas having minimum boiling pointis

(1) He
(2) Ne
(3) Ar
(4) Xe

81. In which of the following oxoacids of

phosphorous, number of P-OH bonds is
maximum?

(1) Pyrophosphorous acid

(2) Hypophosphorous acid
(3) Hypophosphoric acid
(4) Orthophosphoric acid

82. Which of the following complexes is a

heteroleptic complex?

(1) [Fe(CN)g*
(2) [Co(NHa)e)*
(3) [Co(NHg),Cla]"
(4) (PdCl4*~
Lo
TermExam2023CF+ OYM(P1)-TEOSA

g3. wnich of the following has maximum spin

only magnetic moment value?

(1) Fe’"
iT
3) NiZt
(4) zn?*

HA Among lanthanide series, which one has

largest size?

(1) Ce
S27 Pm
(3) Eu
(4) Gd

86. Which of the following metal carbonyls has

longest M-C bond length?

(1) Mn(co)g)
(2) [CF(CO)g]
(3) [Fe(CO)s]

(4) (col

87. Which among the following is a 1 acid

ligand?
(1) HO
(2) CO
3)
(Ay NH,

88. Correct order of melting pointis

(1) N>P>As>Sb>Bi
(2) Bi>Sb>As>P>N
(3) As>Sb>Bi>P>N
(4) Sb>As>Bi>P>N

89. Strongest reducing agent among the

hydrides of group 15 elements is

(1) NH3
(2) PH3
(3) SbH3
(4) BiH3

90. The number of P-O-P linkages present in

P,40,q is equal to
(1) Three
(2) Four
(3) Five
(4) Six

85. Basic oxide among the following is

(1) V20s *
(2) EO
3 Cry03
(4) CrO3

SECTION-B

91. The spin only magnetic moment of complex,

[CoClyJ2~ is
(1) v8BM.
2 v3 BM.
3) 15 8M.
(4) 24 BM.

92. find out the CFSE for high spin d*

octahedral complex

(1) - 0.689
(2) - 1.289
(3) - 1.889
(4) - 2.049

97. The hybridization and shape of the complex

[Ni(CO),4] are

(1) sp3, square planar

Jr sp?, tetrahedral

(3) sp3d?, square planar

(4) dsp? tetrahedral

4 The most common oxidation state of

lanthanoids is

(1) £2

3
(3) +4
(4) +5

” Mischmetall contains maximum percent of

Ww Lanthonoid metal
(2) Carbon
(3) Calcium
(4) Aluminium

10
bl!

the element ot

: mo siti
MS /y2- AMONG the following POSIYe

(1) Ti
(2) vy
Fe
(4) co
97. Gadolinium belangs to 47 Series. Its atomic
number is 64. Which of the following is the
correct electronic confi
gadolinium? dk b

(1) [Xelarsgl6s2
2) [xel4F5g2652
(3) [xeaBsq2
4) [xe]aPss1

101. Read the following statemen

Correct option
Statement A : Lad
and black markin
aphids.
Statement B : Dra,
rid of mosquitoes.

(1) Only statement A is correct

(2) Both statements A and B are correct

(3) Only statement B is correct

(4) Both statements A and B are incorrect

ts and mark the

ybird, a beetle with red

gs is useful in controlling

gonflies are useful to get

"a Match the following wert. sewage treatment

: and select the correct option.

5 = Jo] Floc formation

(li d [Use of reverse
2 0) ecordery [Juss ot

=
[Tertiary || ; ss|
ray! Physical process
cy rerseny [a Ed

(1) afi), bi), (iii)

(2) aii), b(i), (iii)
27 aii), bi), c(i)
(4) a(iii), b(i), c(i)

Primary
eatment

Element with valence

configuration 346452 is

(1) v
(2) cr
(3) Fe
(4) Co

of +2 oxidation state is not shown by

Gree

2) v
(3) Co
(4) Ti

electronic

100. Correct order of ligand field strength is

G CO >CN > NH; > H,0
& CN > CO > NH; > H,0

= CO>CN>H,0> NH;

i CO>NH; > CN > H,O

BOTANY |

SECTION-A

199 Select the incorrect ‘match w.rt. microbes

and their products.

(1) Aspergillus niger — Gluconic acid

(2) Lactobacillus — Lactic acid

Penicillium — Acetic acid

(4) Clostridium butylicum — Butyric acid

194. A bioactive molecule used as

immunosuppressive

transplant patients is

an
agent in organ
obtained from

(1) Clot buster, Streptococcus

(2), TPA, Streptobacillus

Cyclosporin A,
polysporum
(4) Statins, Monascus purpureus

Trichoderma

105. During sewage treatment when the BOD is

reduced significantly, the effluent is passed

to the

(1) Large aeration tank to form flocs

(2) Primary settling tank to remove primary

sludge

(3) Secondary settling tank to sediment the

flocs

(4) Anaerobic sludge digester

11
J PL Le ed
am -
rormEX

/ op which work, Ernest chain and Howard

RL ApreY were awarded Nobel prize?
7) Establishing full potential of penicillin *
as an effective antibiotic

@) Extracting the antibiotic streptomycin

from a species of Streptomyces

(3) Exploring the various benefits of

Saccharomyces

(4) Finding the use of various

microorganisms for human welfare.

wl. Read the following statements and choose

the correct option.

Statement A: Trichoderma species are free

living fungi that are very common in root

ecosystems,

Statement B: Trichoderma species are

effective biocontrol agents of several plant

pathogens,

(1) Only statement A is correct

(2) Only statement B is correct

Both statements are correct ¢

(4) Both statements are incorrect

108. Activated sludge is used as inoculum in

(1) Anaerobic sludge digesters
(2) Aeration tanks
(3) Production of biogas «
(4) Tertiary treatment

199. Which of the following is not a source of

biofertilizer?

(1) Bacteria
_(2y Virus e

(3) Fungi

(4) Cyanobacteria

110. Select the incorrect statement regarding

baculoviruses.

(1) These viruses are species-specific

(2) Majority of them used as biocontrol
agents are in the genus
Nucleopolyhedrovirus.

(3) Have no negative impacts on non-

target insects

(4) Broad spectrum insecticidal application

. Which of the following is a major component

of biogas?
(1) CO;
(2) NH3
(3) HaS

WA CH,

ar, Statin

gros Which of the following alcoholic beverage is

/ naturally fermented?

(1) Rume
(2) Whisky

Beere
(4) Brandy

133 Which of the following enzyme is used for

removing clots from blood vessels of
patients suffering from myocardial infarction
leading to heart attack?

(1) Lipase
(2) Protease

37 Streptokinase

(4) Amylase

lowers the
#= competitively inhibiting
(1) Hexaokinase -
(2) Amylase
(3) Streptokinase ¥
(2d HMG-CoA-reductase

cholesterol by

ub. During sewage treatment, methane is

# formed

Gn anaerobic sludge digester

(2) In tertiary treatment step

(3) In primary settling tank

(4) By aerobic bacteria

. Which antibiotic was extensively used to
treat American soldiers in World War 11?

JJ Penicillin
(2) Streptomycin
(3) Erythromycin
(4) Neomycin

117. Which of the following products is formed

due to fermentation activity of bacteria?

(1) Roquefortcheese
(2) Bread

(3) Beer

(4) Swiss cheese

. Select the stage of sewage treatment which

mainly invalves microbes.

(1) Primary treatment

(2) Physical treatment

(3) Secondary treatment

Tertiary treatment

12
4CF+OYM(P1)-TEOSA

<urd is more nutritious than milk as it is rich

a specially
Bis

(2) A
(3) K
(4) D

16. Lactobacillus is helpful in

~¥ Curd farmation
(2) Degradation of petroleum
(3) Vinegar production
(4) Antibiotic formation

124. Which of the following is a traditional drink of

some parts of South India and is made by
fermenting sap from palm?

(1) Tempeh

(2) Sofu

(3) Tofu
Toddy

194 Ganga action plan (1985) and Yamuna

Action plan was initiated by

The Ministry of Environment and Forest

(2) The Ministry of Agriculture and Co-
operation
(3) The Ministry of Rural Development
(4) The Ministry of Health and Medicine

1227 The greater the BOD of waste water,

(1) Lesser the amount of organic matter
42] More is its polluting potential
(3) More the number of anaerobic bacteria
are required to reduce BOD

(4) More itis suitable for drinking

i Single cell protein is obtained from

7 (a) Yeast
(b) Mushroom «+
(c) Cyanobacteria ~~
(d) Viruses
(e) Mycoplasma
G7 (a). 0) &(©
(2) (b),(c)é&(d)
(3) (a). (d)é&(e)
(4) (b),(d)&(e)

oF the blank spaces in the given table by

selecting the right option.
Resistance to
crop Mare diseases

Wheat A Hill bunt

Cowpea a
p Komal
Brassica C White rust
A B Cc
A Pusa
(1) Himgiri Black rot Shubhra
Pusa Snow - .
(2) Ball Leaf curl Himgiri
2 Him ii Bacterial Pusa
gn e plight T Swarnim
“) Pusa Leafand Pusa
Sadabahar stripe rust Komal
1) (2)

(2) £2)
) (3)

(4) 4

194 war the correctly maiched pair wrt

biofortification
(1) Alas 66 — Donor for improving ®
cultivated wheat
(2) Protina — Tryptophan rich maize variety
(3) Spinach — Ca and Mg enriched

HR — Fe enriched rice®

7. Jaya and Ratna are

(1) Semi dwarf varieties of wheat

NK Semi dwarf varieties of rice

(3) Mexican varieties of wheat
(4) Developed in Japan

128. Methylophilus methylotrophus can be

expected to produce about

(1) 2 tonnes of protein

J2Y 25 tonnes of protein

(3) 12 tonnes of protein

(4) 0.2 tonnes of protein

9. Which of the given vegetable crops

vd developed by IARI is vitamin A enriched?

(1) Pumpkin
(2) Biter gourd
Bathua ¢

(4) Mustard

13
or Ey
Ack rovmp)Te0sa

me

ey IS more nutritious than milk as it is rich

lamin specially

) Bip
2) A
(3) K
(4) D

- Lactobacillus is helpful in
~J¥ Curd formation
(2) Degradation of petroleum
(3) Vinegar production
(4) Antibiotic formation

124. Which of the following is a traditional drink of

some parts of South India and is made by
fermenting sap from palm?

(1) Tempeh

(2) Sofu

(3) Tofu
Toddy

. Ganga action plan (1985) and Yamuna

Action plan was initiated by
JB The Ministry of Environment and Forest
(2) The Ministry of Agriculture and Co-
operation
(3) The Ministry of Rural Development
(4) The Ministry of Health and Medicine

1237 The greater the BOD of waste water,

(1) Lesser the amaunt of organic matter
More is its polluting potential

(3) More the number of anaerobic bacteria

are required to reduce BOD

(4) More itis suitable for drinking

Single cell protein is obtained from

Vd (a) Yeast
(b) Mushroom +~
(c) Cyanobacteria «
(d) Viruses
(e) Mycoplasma
(a), (b) &(c)
(2) (b). (c) &(d)
(3) (a) (d)&(e)
(4) (b), (d) &(e)
7. Jaya and Ratna are

oe the blank spaces in the given table by

selecting the right option.

Resistance to
on VELL diseases

Wheat A Hill bunt

| Pusa
Cowpea Komal |

Brassica. cl white rust

” — Pusa
w Himgiri * Black rot Shubhra

Ee Cron

@ Ball ei Himgiri
a Bacterial ye Eo i i
fh mon + blight" swamim _
@ Pusa Leafand Pusa
iL ’ 'sadabahar stripe 1 rust Komal
(0)
(2) £2)
) (3)
4 @

uf Mark the correctly matched pair wrt.

biofortification

(1) Alas 66 -— Donor for improving ®

cultivated wheat

(2) Protina — Tryptophan rich maize variety

(3) Spinach - Caand Mg enriched
RGA |R-8 — Fe enriched rice®

(1) Semi dwarf varieti

Semi dwarf vari

(3) Mexican varieties
(4) Developed in Ja

128. Methylophilus meth OF

expected to produce abou

(1) 2 tonnes of protei

J2Y25 tonnes of prote
(3) 12 tonnes of protein
(4) 0.2 tonnes of prot:

9, Which of the
7 developed by
TermExam2024CF+0YM(P1)-TEQSA

136 solid stem of wheat leads to non-preference

by
&f stem saw flye
(2) Aphid

(3) Jassid
(4) Fruitborer

131. The crucial step for the success of breeding

experiment is

(1) Selection and testing of superior

recombinants

(2) Release and commercialisation of new

cultivars

Evaluation and selection of parents

(4) Cross hybridisation among the

selected parents

Jt. In mung bean, resistance to yellow mosaic

virus and powdery mildew were

J Induced by mutations
(2) Introduced by conventional breeding
(3) Carried out by pure line selection
(4) Both (1) and (3)

138 statins re produced by

foe

(2) Bacteria
(3) Viruses
(4) Cyanobacteria

id, Bacteria which can fix nitrogen while free

4 living in the soil are
Frankia and Rhizobium
(2) Azospirillum and Azotobacter
(3) Azospirillum and Rhizobiume
(4) Azotobacter and Rhizobium

2h Large holed swiss cheese is ripened by

(1) Penicillium
L2r Propionibacterium
(3) Leuconostoc
(4) Streptococcus

139. 'Flocs’ in STP include.

(1) Filaments of anaerobic bacteria
(2) Filaments of fungi and anaerobic
bacteria
(3) Filaments of fungi and aerobic bacteria
(4) Filaments of anaerobic and aerobic
bacteria

1343. Propagation of large number of plants in

very short duration is called

(1) Biofortification
{Micropropagation
(3) Protoplast fusion

(4) Somatic hybridisation

14. International Rice Research Institute (IRR)

is situated in

(1) Taiwan
(2) Japan

Philippines
(4) Mexico

135 Breeaing of crops with higher levels of

vitamins and minerals or higher protein and
healthier fats is called

(1) Biomagnification
2 Biofortification
(3) Bioprospecting
(4) Bioremediation

SECTION-B

144. In the production of which of the following,

yeast is not used?

(1) Bread
2) Toddy
(3) Beer
(4) Dosa

1. The technology of biogas production was

developed in India mainly due to the efforts
of
(1) Ministry of Environment and Forest

(2) Indian Agricultural Research Institute

(IARI) only

(3) Khadi and Village Industries

Commission (KVIC) only

NC Both IARI and KVIC

142. The turbidity of bottled fruit juices is cleared

with the help of enzyme

Pectinases

(2) Lipases
(3) Amylases
(4) Streptokinase

143. Cereals are commonly deficient in

(1) Lysine and methionine
(2) Lysine and tryptophan
(3) Methionine and Cysteine
(4) Methionine and tryptophan

14
4CF+OYM(P1)-TEQ5A

Shoot and fruit borer resistant variety of Oks

is

Pusa Sawani
(2) Pusa Gaurav
(3) Pusa Sem-2
(4) Pusa Komal

145. In India, green revolution occurred during

(1) 1960s«

(2) 1950s
(3) 1980s
(4) 1990s

19 The capacity to generate whole plant from its

cell is, called

(1) Micropropagation

(2) Biofortification

(3) Somatic hybridisation

Totipotency

147. From 1960 to 2000 wheat production in

India increased from A million tonnes to

B million tonnes

Select the option which correctly fills A and

B.

(1) A-1,8-75"*

(2) A-35,B-895
A-11,B-895 q

(4) A-35,B-75 bo

194. Infective stage of Plasmodium to human is

Sporozoite
(2) Merozoite
(3) Gametocyte
(4) Cryptozoite

7% An endoparasite of humans, that causes

r blockage of intestinal passage and causes
internal bleeding is

(1) Wuchereria
(2) Microsporum

(3) Trichophyton
gine

le
- Karan Rai bred by nybndisaton and
selecuon for resistance to white rust. 1S a
variety of

(1) Wheat
(2) Cowpea
(3) Chills

By Brassica

- Pomato was produced by

(1) Mutaton
Samatic hybridization
(3) Pollen culre
(4) Biofortification

150. Mark the odd one w.r.t fungal diseases.

(1) Brown rust of wheat §
(2) Black rot of crucifers £=
(3) Late blight of potato
(4) Red rot of sugarcane
ETE SPR Oh SFM J 1) moet hcencitad. Redline. BELLE 2 ae

~ aN
1585. The pathogen Causing amoabic dysentery is

156. in all of the given dioaasas. Mosques ad

Ne &S & vedlor or the ransmession of pathogen
0 & healthy parson, exept
(1) Dengax
R) Ranass
{R) Elephantass
Ana EE
ot Amoedians

Z, Which of the following does not spread

> ure > >a ~

through facco-osal route?

159. Select the odd one wut viral diseases.

(1) Poliomyelitis
(2) Dengue fever
(3) Chikungunya
(4) Hilarniasis

1668. Asserton (A) : AIDS and hepatitis B are

chronic infections and nan-curable.
Reason (R) : AIDS and hepatitis B can be
ransmited through sexual contact or
infected blood.

JH Both Assertion & Reason are true and

the reason is the correct explanation of
the assertion

(2) Both Assertion & Reason are true but

the reason is nat the correct
explanation of the assertion

(3) Assertion is true statement but Reason

is false

(4) Both Assertion and Reason are false

statements

16 of Ascariasis include all, except

(1) Internal bleeding

(2) Muscular pain

Intestinal perforation
(4) Anaemia

162. Mechanical carriers that serve to transmit the

parasite of amoebiasis is
(1) Mosquito
J2) Housefly
(3) Helminths
(2) Protozoan
363 Select the factor responsible for the chill and
high fever recurring every 3 to 4 days 0
case of malana.

(1) Rapid multiplication of sporozoites

within hepatocytes
(2) When mosquito bites host and inject
sporozoites
3) When ruptured RBCs release
hemozoin

(4) Released parasite infect new RBCs in

human blood

1 Select he odd one w.r.t. allergy

an Rheumatoid arthritis
(2) Asthma
& Anaphylactic shock
{2) Hay fever

18% Choose the correct option to complete the

analogy.
« Microsporum : Ringworm : Haemophilus

influenzae :
Common cold

(2) Typhoid

(3) Elephantiasis
Pneumonia

Choose the correct option for the blanks (A,

B,C& D) given below.

fi \C ( i -
Disease pathogen Transmission

un IO

Pneumonia A
Treponema | Sexual
pallidum ‘contact
Salmonella |,
Typhoid loo hi lc

(1) A — Streptococcus, B — Syphilis, C —

Droplet, D — Faeco-oral

(2) A — Streptococcus, B — Syphilis, C —

Droplet, D —- Droplet
A — Haemophilus, B — Syphilis, C —
Faeco-oral, D ~ Droplet

(4) A — Haemophilus, B - Plague, C -

Faeco-oral, D —- Faeco-oral

"
16
CF+OYM(P1)TEOSA

TT

* The pathogens gansmite

Sy d through the bite

~~ Mosquito causin chroni

dole in the To i of
(1) W.malayi

(2) E. histolytica

(3) P vivax

(4) Epidermophyton

168. The sporozoites that cause infection when a

female Anopheles bites a human being are

stored in

(1) Liver of human

(2) RBCs of mosquito *

(3) Salivary glands of mosquito

(4) Gutwall of mosquito «

16€, which of the following is a fungal disease?

(1) Ascariasis

rae
Ringworm
(4) Kala-azar

176 which of the following viral diseases are

transmitted by mosquitoes?

(1) Elephantasis and dengue

(2) Malaria and yellow fever

Malaria and dengue

(4) Chikungunya and dengue

B78 Select the incorrect statement.

(1) Among non-infectious diseases, cancer

is the major cause of death

Bacteria of pneumonia infects the nose

and the respiratory passage but not the
lungs

(3) Mary Mallon was the biological carrier

of typhoid
(4) Female Aedes is the vector of diseases
like dengue and chikungunya

172. Which of the following is a primary lymphoid

organ?

(xf Thymus r

(2) Thyroid

(3) Spleen

(4) Lymph nodes «

173. The exaggerated response of immune

system to certain antigens present in the
environment results in

(1) Withdrawal syndrome

of Allergic response

(3) Auto-immune disease

(4) Amnestic immune response only

uh All of the following are properties of

malignant tumor cells except

(1) Tumor cells grow very rapidly. invade

and damage the surrounding tissue

(2) Compete with the normal cells for vital ge

nutrients
(3) They show property of metastasis
ose show property of contact 4,
inhibition 7 6

we A gland that is large at birth but keeps

reducing in size with age reaching a very

small size by puberty is

(1) Thyroid
(2) Pituitary

31 Thymus

(4) Parathyroid

176. salve and tears belong to which barrier

under innate immunity?

(1) Physical
(2) Cytokine
(3) Cellular

I# Physiological

wf After snake bite, the antivenom injected into

the body of the patient is an example of

(1) Natural active immunity

(2) Natural passive immunity

(3) Artificial active immunity

#Y Artificial passive immunity

fb: 4 Complete the analogy wrt causes of

cancer. Grae :

Chemical carcinogen : Tobacco :: Biological

carcinogen : fi :

(1) X-rays

Oncogenic viruses

(3) UVrays

(4) Gamma rays

. Memory based acquire

# in higher vertebrates
differentiate foreign or
cells.
Sometimes, due
unknown reasons
and this results
180. Assertion(a): Tobacco can raise BP and 194 visopatvolagical examinations Is
also

Increases heart rate. known as

Reason(R): Tobacco contains nicotine (1) Chemotherapy
which stimulates adrenal cortex to release (2) MRI
epinephrine and nor-epinephrine. (3) X-rays

In the light of the above statements, select

the correct option.

(1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the
correct explanation of (A)

(2) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not by :
the correct explanation of (A) (1) Vvanable regions of heavy chains only

(3) (A)is true but (R) is false (2) Variable regions of light chain and

(4) (A)is false but (R) is true heavy chain

(3) Constant regions of light chains and

. hain
Lt Choose the odd one w.rt. drugs that quickly four heavy ¢ :
reduce symptoms of allergy. (4) Constantregions of light chains only

(1) Antihistamine

(Biopsy

184. Antigen binding site in an antibody is formed

5. Which of the following drug is not used as

Histamine ot
(8) Adrenaline — medicine to help es cope with illnesses
(4) Steroids like pain or insomnia’
Cannabinoids
Barbiturates
154. How many of the statements given below ) :
w.rt. health are incorrect? (3) Morphine
(1) When people are healthy, they are more (4) Benzodiazepines

efficient at work.

(2) Health increases longevity of people.

(3) It reduces maternal mortality rate and

Increases infant mortality rate.

(4) Early Greeks like William Harvey

asserted that health is defined by balance
between “humors”.

Select the correct option.

(1) One
Two
(3) Three
(4) Four
SECTION-B
156 a drug 'X' is a white, odourless, bitter (Frese statements A and B and select
the
crystalline compound which is obtained by correct answer from the opion given
below.

A: The colostrum secreted by mother during +

initial days of pregnancy is an efficient way
to provide active immunity to the neonate.

acetylation of 'Y' extracted from latex of ‘Z’

plant.
Select the correct option for ‘X', 'Y' and ‘Z'.

B: Colostrum contains IgA which protects

HE Ji llz_ | the neonate. v~ : :

(1)|[Hashish[|cannabis{|=Yrexyium (1) (A)is tue, (B) is false

: 2) (A)is false, (B)

[(2)|[patura [cocaine | Atropa belladona| (3) Both (A) and ;

) ) P.
Heroin |[Morphine ar (4) Both (A) and

[@)][Morphine][cannabis][Cannabis sativa |
(fab) (eh)
(2) (2)

3
(4) (4)
compound given below and

ld : i
ne option with only incorrect

he

A. tis extracted from poppy plant.

B. They are known for their effects on central

nervous system and GIT,

C. Obtained from inflorescences of the plant.

D. Generally taken only by inhalation and
1 ingestion,

A (1) Aand C

(2) Aand BB

(3) Cand D

(4) A,CandD

189. Which one is an incorrect match?

(I) Morphine : Analgesic
(2) Marljuana : Hallucinogen
(3) Amphetamines : Stimulant
(4) Nicotine : Hallucinogen

oh Read the statements given below w.rt.

# HIVIAIDS.

a. HIV is a retrovirus having an envelope

enclosing the RNA genome.
b. Treatment of AIDS with anti-retroviral
drugs is very effective and can completely
cure iLy-
¢. The RNA genome of HIV replicates in
host, forming viral DNA by reverse
transcriptase.
d. The incubation period of HIV may vary
from few months to many years.
How many of the given statements are
incorrect?

One
(2) Two
(3) Three
(4) Four

191. What is the primary nature of the drug that is

obtained from the plant Atopa belladona?

(1) Painkiller
(2) Antipyretic
(3) Depressant *

4 Hallucinogenic
182. Vaccination and immunisation programmes
have enabled us to completely eradicate
which deadly disease from world?

Small poxe
(2) AIDS
(3) Hepatitis-B*
(4) Genital herpes

Given below are some barriers of innate

immunity in a box.

PMNL, NK cell, HCI in storffach, Skin,

saliva, Mucus coating, Interferons, Teafs

How many of them are physiological

barriers? 1 i

(1) Two 7
Threee % y

(3) Four ¢

(4) Five

pra Modern day life style has resulted in

___A___ of immunity and more sensitivity to

__B___ which could be due to protected

environment, Here A and B are

UWA — lowering ; B — allergens

(2) A-increase ;B- antibodies
(3) A- lowering ; B — antibodies
(4) A~-increase;B — allergens

9. In recombinant DNA technology, hepatitis B

vaccine is produced from

(1) Bacteria
2 Yeast

(3) Protozoa

(4) Virus

9. Mostly virus infected cells secrete proteins

which protect the non-infected cells from
further viral infection. The proteins secreted

are
2 Immunoglobulins

(2) Interferons
(3) Albumin
(4) Serotonin
7. MALT constitute about 50% of the total
(1) Blood
Lymphoid tissue
(3) Neural tissue
(4) Connective tissue

19
Ll HE ERE

TermExam2024CF+0YM( P1)-TEO5A

ABT RR —— rr eer —

198. Primary lymphoids organs

(1) Provides the sites of interaction of

lymphocytes with the antigen

(2) Are sites where immature lymphocyte

differentiate into antigen sensitive
lymphocytes

(3) Are spleen and Peyer's patches

(4) Are sites where lymphocyte proliferate

to become effector cells

199. Smack and crack are respectively the

common names of

(1) Cocaine, morphine

(2) Morphine, heroin

(3) Heroin, cannabinoids

Heroin and coca alkaloid

Ho

Anabolic steriods are mostly used by Sports

persons. They are synthetic 1estoslerone
hormone. The side effects of use of anabolic
steroids in females include all, except

1) Abnormal menstrual cycle

2f Decrease aggressiveness

(3) Enlarged clitoris

(4) Excessive hair growth

El