MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS ON CHM203

COMPILED BY B.SC (07014312797) AND APOSTLE DAN

SRCTION ONE- COLLIDIAL THEORY

1. What is the size of colloidal particles?
a) 10-20 nm
b) More than 20 nm
c) Less than 10 nm
d) 30 to 50 nm

Answer: a
Explanation: Since colloidal are intermediate between powdered particles and suspension
particles, they have a size in between these particles of about 10 to 20 nm. These are considered
to be intermediate size of molecules.

2. Which of the following is a characteristic of a colloid?

a) It forms 2 layers with a solution
b) It forms turbid layers
c) It forms heterogeneous layer
d) It forms a homogeneous layer

Answer: b
Explanation: Since a colloidal particle does not from a single layer with solvents, the only
possibility is to form a turbid layer where the solution is an intermediate between a miscible and
immiscible solution.
3. Where does colloidal solution find application in?
a) In milk industries
b) In chromatic chemical industries
c) In crystallography
d) In textiles
Answer: a
Explanation: Since colloidal solutions can easily be emulsified with the help of emulsifying
agents such as ethylene dichloride, it can find its major application in the field of dairy industries.

4. Calculate the size of the colloidal particle present in the mixture of fats and milk from the
given data.
Amount of milk in liters: 20
Amount of fats in grams: 10
Time taken to mix the ingredients: 20 sec
a) 3
b) 6
c) 4
d) 61

Answer: c
Explanation: The size of the colloidal particles can be given by the formula
Size=amount of solvent x time/ amount of colloidal. Therefore, in this problem, we can see that
the size of the colloid is 20 x 20 / 10 = 4.

5. During an experiment, accidently iodine got mixed up with a biological sample of proteins and
polys. Identify the smallest colloid that can be obtained during the process of separation.
a) Fats
b) Amino acids
c) Polys
d) R molecules

Answer: b
Explanation: Given that the solution of iodine got mixed up with milk sample, we know milk is
already a colloidal solution of polymers like amino acids, proteins, fats, vitamins etc, the smallest
among all these colloidal particles is amino acids.
6. Which of the following form of colloid is considered to be the strongest colloid?
a) Gel
b) Foam
c) Solid sol
d) Liquid sol

Answer: c
Explanation: We know that solid sol is the colloidal solution of a solid and a solid. Since there
is a mixture of solid and solid, the bond between them is quite strong. Thus it is considered to be
the strongest colloid.
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7. Which of the following form of colloid is considered to be the lightest colloid?

a) Gaseous foam
b) Solid sol
c) Sol
d) Liquid sol

Answer: a
Explanation: We know that the gaseous foam is the colloidal solution of gaseous molecules and
liquid. Thus, there exists a lighter bond between the particles. Thus, this is considered as the
lightest colloid.

8. What is the size of normal an amino acid?

a) 1 to 2 nm
b) 2 to 3 nm
c) 4 to 5 nm
d) 2 to 5 nm

Answer: a
Explanation: We know that amino acids are nothing but single structure monomers of proteins.
Thus, they are visible only under an ultra-microscope due to is an extreme small size in the range
of nano meters. Their size ranges from 1 to 2 nm.
9. What is called a dispersion phase?
a) It is the main layer
b) It is the secondary layer in which the colloidal particles are dispersed
c) It is the secondary layer
d) It is the basic colloidal laye

Answer: b
Explanation: Since the colloidal particles require a layer in which it has to be dispersed, the
dispersion phase is considered to be a second layer. The dispersion phase is generally a solvent.

10. What is called a dispersion medium?

a) It is where the dispersed phase settles
b) It is where the solute particles settle
c) It is where the dispersed phase is suspended
d) It is the primary medium

Answer: c
Explanation: Since to form a stable colloidal solution, the dispersed phase requires a stable
solvent medium is required. This is the condition in which equilibrium is achieved. This medium
is called a dispersion medium.

SECTION TWO- NON-AQUEOUS SOLUTION

1. Which intermolecular forces are present in phenol, C6H5OH(s)?
A) London dispersion only
B) Dipole-dipole only
C) Hydrogen-bonding only
D) London dispersion and dipole-dipole
E) London dispersion, dipole-dipole and hydrogen bonding
2. A catalyst speeds up a chemical reaction by
A) changing the stoichiometry.
B) increasing the activation energy.
C) providing an alternative reaction mechanism of lower activation energy.
D) shifting the equilibrium towards the side of the product(s).
E) increasing the reaction enthalpy.

3. Which of the following gases can be liquefied at 25 °C?

Gas Critical point
CH3Cl 144 °C, 66 atm
SO2 158 °C, 78 atm
CH4 –82 °C, 46 atm

A) SO2 only
B) CH4 only
C) CH3Cl and SO2
D) all of them
E) none of them

4. A solid has a very high melting point, is very hard, and its liquid is non-conducting. The
compound is
A) a molecular solid.
B) a metallic solid.
C) a covalent network solid.
D) an ionic solid.
E) an amorphous solid.

5. When one mole of ice melts to liquid at 0 °C,

A) the entropy of the system decreases.
B) the entropy of the system remains the same.
C) the entropy of the system increases.
D) the order of the system increases.
E) None of the above

6. The entropy of a chemical system will usually increase when

A) a molecule is broken down into two or more smaller fragments.
B) a reaction occurs that results in an increase in the moles of gas.
C) a solid change to a liquid.
D) a liquid change into a gas.
E) All of the above

7. The normal boiling point of a liquid is

A) the only temperature at which there can be equilibrium between the liquid and gas states.
B) the temperature above which the substance cannot exist as a liquid regardless of the pressure.
C) the temperature at which the entropy of the liquid is equal to zero.
D) the temperature at which the vapour pressure of the liquid equals the ambient atmospheric
pressure.
E) the temperature at which the vapour pressure of the liquid equals 1 atm.

8. What is the geometry of the [Cr (OH2)6]3+ ion?

A) tetrahedral
B) trigonal bipyramidal
C) square planar
D) octahedral
E) linear

Questions: 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8
Answer: C B D C C E E D

SECTION THREE SOLUTE AND SOLVENT INTERACTION

1. What is defined as the concentration of dissolved solute in a solvent beyond which none of it,
if added to the solvent, will increase the concentration further more?
a) Solubility
b) Saturation point
c) Solvent capacitance
d) Molar equilibrium concentration

Answer: a
Explanation: Solubility is the maximum amount of solute that can be dissolved in a given
solvent at a particular temperature and pressure. It is usually expressed in grams of solute
dissolved in 100 grams of the solvent. Any more solute added beyond this forms a supersaturated
solution as none of the particles dissolve any more.
2. Which of the following solvents would most likely dissolve 3-Aminopropan-1-ol?
a) C6H5OH
b) C2H5OH
c) H2O
d) CH3COCH3

Answer: c
Explanation: The principle of solubility states that ‘like dissolves like’. Following this, it is seen
that 3-Aminopropan-1-ol is a highly polar compound since it bears an amine group as well as a
hydroxyl group. The polarity of amine group is due to the highly electronegative nature of N
atom in N – H and C – N bonds. Since water is the most polar solvent amongst the four, it will
dissolve the solute to greatest extent.

3. “The process of dissolution of solute in the solvent takes place even after saturation”. Is this
true or false?
a) True
b) False

Answer: a
Explanation: At saturation point, a dynamic equilibrium is established between the two
processes of dissolution and crystallization. These reactions occur at the same rate. When more
solute is added beyond saturation point, dissolution of solute takes place but same amount of
solute recrystallizes at the same rate. Hence making it look like dissolution does not occur when
it actually does.

4. In a saturated solution with endothermic dissolution, how does the concentration of dissolved
solute change with increasing then decreasing temperature?
a) Keeps increasing
b) Keeps decreasing
c) Increases and decreases
d) Decreases and increases

Answer: d
Explanation: When a solution is saturated a thermodynamic equilibrium exists between the
undissolved solute and dissolved solute. Since the dissolution process here is mentioned as
endothermic increasing and decreasing temperatures will decrease and increase the concentration,
respectively, as given by Le Chatelier’s Principle of equilibrium.

5. How does the solubility of gas change in a liquid, as described?

a) Increases with decreasing pressure
b) Increases with increasing temperature
c) Decreases with increasing temperature
d) Decreases with increasing pressure

Answer: c
Explanation: In an equilibrium system of gas dissolved in solvent, when pressure over it is
increased more and more gas particles are forced into a smaller volume. This also increases the
rate at which they strike the surface of the solvent to enter it. Consequently, more gas dissolves
with increasing pressure. In the case of increasing temperature, gas particles gain sufficient
energy to escape the solvent and solubility decreases.
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6. When CO2 is introduced into aerated drinks and sealed, what is the nature of the graph
between partial pressure of CO2 and its concentration in the drink?
a) Exponentially increasing
b) Positive slope
c) Negative slope
d) Constant

Answer: b
Explanation: CO2 obeys Henry’s law, which governs the solubility of gases in liquids in
relation to its pressure. Henry’s law states that mole fraction of gas in the solution varies directly
with its partial pressure over the surface i.e., p ∝ x (mole fraction). The graph is of the form y =
mx, a positively sloped straight line passing through the origin.
7. If, at 298 K water is the solvent, and Henry’s law constant for CO2 is 1.67 kbar and the
constant of argon is 40.3 kbar, which of the following statements is true?
a) Argon is more soluble than CO2
b) Argon is less soluble than CO2
c) Argon is insoluble in water
d) Argon and CO2 are equally soluble

Answer: b
Explanation: Henry’s law is formulated asp = KH x X (mole fraction). From this, it is seen that
as KH increases, mole fraction decreases in order to compensate the increase in partial pressure
of the gas. Hence, higher the KH value lower is the solubility. Therefore, argon is less soluble in
water than CO2 at 298 K.

8. Which of the following best describes the difficulty in breathing as one climbs to higher
altitudes?
a) Henry’s law
b) Raoutl’s law
c) Osmotic pressure
d) Relative lowering of atmospheric pressure

Answer: a
Explanation: Henry’s law states that the partial pressure of a gas in vapor phase varies directly
with its mole fraction in the solution. At higher altitudes the partial pressure of O2 decreases
hence the decrease in its concentration which causes difficulty in breathing.

9. What is the concentration of N2 in a fresh water stream in equilibrium with air at 298 K and 1
atmosphere? Given the value of KH for N2 = 0.00060 mole/kgbar.
a) 0.0474 g/kg
b) 0.0005 g/kg
c) 1316.7 g/kg
d) 13.3 g/kg
Answer: d
Explanation: Given,
KH = 0.00060 mole/kgbar
PN2 = mole fraction of N2 x Pair (from Dalton’s law)
Air consists of 79 moles% N2 and 21 moles% O2.
PN2 = 0.79 x 1 bar= 0.79 bar
Henry’s law –PN2x KH= solubility of N2
0.79 bar x 0.00060 (mole/kgbar) = solubility of N2
Solubility of N2 = 4.74 x 10-4 moles of N2/kg water
Converting moles of N2 to kg of N2:
Solubility of N2 = 4.74 x 10-4 mole x 28 kg/mole = 0.0133 kg N2/kg water = 13.3 g N2/kg water.

10. What is the substance, present in a larger quantity that tends to establish homogenous bonds
with a foreign substance, introduced in smaller quantity?
a) Solute
b) Element
c) Solvent
d) Compound

Answer: b
Explanation: A solution is made up of two parts, the solute and the solvent. Solvent is present in
larger quantity which dissolves a solute. The process of dissolution involves formation of
homogeneous bonds between the particles of solvent and solute. E.g., salt-water solution is made
by dissolving salt, NaCl (solute) in water (solvent).

11. At NTP, the solubility of natural gas in water is 0.8 mole of gas/kg of water. What is the
Henry’s law constant for natural gas?
a) 8 kN/m2
b) 7.90 x 10-3 Pa
c) 71.36 bar
d) 105 mmHg
Answer: c
Explanation: Given,
Solubility of natural gas, S = 0.8 mole of gas/kg of water = 0.8 molal
Hence, moles of natural gas in mixture, nNG = 0.8 mole
At NTP, pressure, PNG = 1.01325 bar
Number of moles of water in 1000 g, nw = mass/molar mass
nw = 1000g / (18g/mole) = 55.56 mole
Mole fraction of natural gas in the mixture, XNG = nNG/ (nNG + nw)
XNG = 0.8/ (0.8 + 55.56) = 0.0142
Using Henry’s law PNG = KH x XNG
KH = PNG/XNG = 1.01325 bar/0.0142 = 71.36 bar.

12. What is the solubility product expression for silver chromate dissolving in water?
a) [2Ag+] [2CrO42-]
b) [Ag+]2 [Cr2O72-]2
c) [Ag+]2 [Cr2O42-]2
d) [Ag+]2 [CrO42-]2

Answer: d
Explanation: The formula for silver chromate is Ag2CrO4. On the other hand, silver dichromate
is formulated as Ag2Cr2O7. If a compound is represented as AXBY then the solubility product
expression is written in terms of its molar concentration as [A+]X [B–] Y. Similarly, the
solubility product expression for Ag2CrO4 is given as [Ag+]2 [CrO42-]2.

13. What is the molar solubility product for V3(PO4)5 in terms of KSP?
a) S = (KSP/84375)1/8
b) S = KSP1/8
c) S = (KSP/15)1/8
d) S = (KSP/108)1/8
Answer: a
Explanation: The dissociation reaction is represented as V3(PO4)5 → 3V5+ + 5PO43-
If S is the solubility of V5+ and PO43- ions then KSP = [3V5+]3 [5PO43-]5, where the square
brackets indicate the molar concentrations of the ions in the solution. KSP can then be written as
KSP = [3S] 3[5S] 5 = 33 x 55 x S8 gives KSP= 84375 x S8.
Therefore, on rearranging, S = (KSP/84375)1/8.
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14. What characteristic of water accounts for its unique properties as a solvent?
a) Flexible
b) Cohesive
c) Polar
d) Low viscosity

Answer: c
Explanation: Water is a universal solvent. It has the ability to dissolve the greatest number of
substances than any other solvent. The highly polar nature accounts for this special feature as the
water molecule bears a slightly positively charged hydrogen ion and two highly negatively
charged oxygen ions. Since, it becomes attracted to many different types of molecules it is
known as the ‘universal solvent’.

15. Which of the following compound releases heat when dissolved in water?
a) Barium chloride
b) Ammonium chloride
c) Lead chloride
d) Calcium chloride

Answer: d
Explanation: Out of the given options calcium chloride is the only salt which releases heat upon
dissolving. Barium chloride and ammonium chloride undergo endothermic dissolution which
decreases the temperature of water. However, lead chloride is an insoluble salt and does not
dissolve
SECTION FOUR- ELECTROCHEMICAL EQUILIBRIUM
1.In an electrolytic cell the electrode at which the electrons enter the solution is called the
______; the chemical change that occurs at this electrode is called _______.
(a) anode, oxidation
(b) anode, reduction
(c) cathode, oxidation
(d) cathode, reduction
(e) cannot tell unless we know the species being oxidized and reduced.

2.Which of the following statements is FALSE?

(a) Oxidation and reduction half-reactions occur at electrodes in electrochemical cells.
(b) All electrochemical reactions involve the transfer of electrons.
(c) Reduction occurs at the cathode.
(d) Oxidation occurs at the anode.
(e) All voltaic (galvanic) cells involve the use of electricity to initiate nonspontaneous chemical
reactions.

3.The half-reaction that occurs at the anode during the electrolysis of molten sodium bromide is:
(a) 2 Br- Br2 + 2 e-
(b) Br2 + 2 e- 2 Br-
(c) Na+ + e- Na
(d) Na Na+ + e-
(e) 2 H2O + 2 e- 2 OH- + H2

4. During the electrolysis of aqueous KCl solution using inert electrodes, gaseous hydrogen is
evolved at one electrode and gaseous chlorine at the other electrode. The solution around the
electrode at which hydrogen gas is evolved becomes basic as the electrolysis proceeds. Which of
the following responses describe or are applicable to the cathode and the reaction that occurs at
the cathode?
(1) the positive electrode (2) the negative electrode
(3) 2 Cl- Cl2 + 2 e- (4) Cl2 + 2 e- 2 Cl-
(5) 2 H2O O2 + 4 H+ + 4 e- (6) 2 H2O + 2 e- H2 + 2 OH-
(7) electrons flow from the electrode to the external circuit (8) electrons flow into the electrode
from the external circuit (9) oxidation (10) reduction
(a) 2, 6, 8, 9
(b) 1, 5, 7, 9
(c) 2, 5, 7, 9
(d) 1, 6, 8, 10
(e) 2, 6, 8, 10

5. What mass (in grams) of nickel could be electroplated from a solution of nickel(II) chloride by
a current of 0.25 amperes flowing for 10 hours?
(a) 12 g
(b) 5.5 g
(c) 0.046 g
(d) 2.7 g
(e) 6.0 g

6. Molten AlCl3 is electrolyzed for 5.0 hours with a current of 0.40 amperes. Metallic aluminum
is produced at one electrode and chlorine gas, Cl2, is produced at the other. How many liters of
Cl2 measured at STP are produced when the electrode efficiency is only 65%?
(a) 0.55 L
(b) 0.63 L
(c) 0.84 L
(d) 0.98 L
(e) 1.02 L

7. How long (in hours) must a current of 5.0 amperes be maintained to electroplate 60 g of
calcium from molten CaCl2?
(a) 27 hours
(b) 8.3 hours
(c) 11 hours
(d) 16 hours
(e) 5.9 hours
8. How long, in hours, would be required for the electroplating of 78 g of platinum from a
solution of [PtCl6]2-, using an average current of 10 amperes at an 80% electrode efficiency?
(a) 8.4
(b) 5.4
(c) 16.8
(d) 11.2
(e) 12.4

9. How many faradays are required to reduce 1.00 g of aluminum (III) to the aluminum metal?
(a) 1.00
(b) 1.50
(c) 3.00
(d) 0.111
(e) 0.250

10. Which of the following is the strongest oxidizing agent?

(a) Pb2+
(b) I2
(c) Ag+
(d) Pb
(e) Cu2+
11. As the cell given below operates, the strip of silver gains mass (only silver) and the
concentration of silver ions in the solution around the silver strip decreases, while the strip of
lead loses mass and the concentration of lead increases in the solution around the lead strip.
Which of the following represents the reaction that occurs at the negative electrode in the above
cell?
Pb / Pb (NO3)2 (1.0 M) || AgNO3 (1.0 M) / Ag
(a) Pb2+ + 2 e- Pb
(b) Pb Pb2+ + 2 e-
(a) Pb2+ + 2 e- Pb
(b) Pb Pb2+ + 2 e-
(c) Ag+ + e- Ag
(d) Ag Ag+ + e-
(e) none of the above

12. For a voltaic (or galvanic) cell using Ag,Ag+ (1.0 M) and Zn,Zn2+ (1.0 M) half-cells, which
of the following statements is incorrect?
(a) The zinc electrode is the anode.
(b) Electrons will flow through the external circuit from the zinc electrode to the silver electrode.
(c) Reduction occurs at the zinc electrode as the cell operates.
(d) The mass of the zinc electrode will decrease as the cell operates.
(e) The concentration of Ag+ will decrease as the cell operates.

13. Consider the standard voltaic (or galvanic) cell: Fe,Fe2+ versus Au,Au3+. Which answer
identifies the cathode and gives the Eo for the cell?
(a) Fe, -0.44 V
(b) Au, 1.94 V
(c) Fe, 1.06 V
(d) Au, 1.06 V
(e) Fe, 1.94 V
14. What is the reduction potential for the half-reaction at 25o C:
Al3+ + 3e- Al, if [Al3+] = 0.10 M and Eo = -1.66 V?
(a) -1.84 V
(b) -1.60 V
(c) -1.68 V
(d) -1.66 V
(e) -1.72 V

15.What is the value of E for the half-cell:

MnO4- (0.010 M) + 8H+ (0.20 M) + 5e- Mn2+ (0.020 M) + 4H2O?
(a) 1.50 V
(b) 1.86 V
(c) 1.44 V
(d) 1.58 V
(e) 1.52 V

16. Calculate the potential (in volts) for the voltaic (or galvanic) cell indicated at 25oC.
Ga / Ga3+ (10-6 M) || Ag+ (10-4 M) / Ag
(a) 1.29 V
(b) 0.97 V
(c) 1.45 V
(d) 1.21 V
(e) 1.37 V
17. A concentration cell is constructed by placing identical Cu electrodes in two Cu2+ solutions.
If the concentrations of the two Cu2+ solutions are 1.0 M and 0.0020 M, calculate the potential
of the cell.
(a) 0.020 V
(b) 1.2 V
(c) 0.030 V
(d) 1.0 V
(e) 0.080 V

18. What is Go per mole of dichromate ions for the reduction of dichromate ions, Cr2O72-, to
Cr3+ by bromide ions, Br-, in acidic solution? (Hint: Use the standard cell potential.)
(a) +26.3 kJ
(b) -145 kJ
(c) +145 kJ
(d) -26.3 kJ
(e) -53.6 kJ

19. Estimate the equilibrium constant for the system indicated at 25oC.
3 Mg2+ + 2Al 3Mg + 2Al3+
(a) ~1069
(b) ~1023
(c) ~10-24
(d) ~10-36
(e) ~10-72

20. In voltaic cells, such as those diagrammed in your text, the salt bridge _______.
(a) is not necessary in order for the cell to work
(b) acts as a mechanism to allow mechanical mixing of the solutions
(c) allows charge balance to be maintained in the cell
(d) is tightly plugged with firm agar gel through which ions cannot pass
(e) drives free electrons from one half-cell to the other
21. Which of the following statements is(are) true for all voltaic (or galvanic) cells?
(I) Reduction occurs at the cathode.
(II) The anode gains mass during discharge (note: this means operation of the cell.)
(III) The voltage is less than or equal to zero.
(a) only III
(b) only II
(c) only I
(d) II and III
(e) I, II, and III

22. In the standard notation for a voltaic cell, the double vertical line "||" represents:
(a) a phase boundary
(b) gas electrode
(c) a wire (metal) connection
(d) a salt bridges
(e) a standard hydrogen electrode
Answers:

1. (d) 2. (e) 3. (a) 4. (e) 5. (d) 6. (a) 7. (d) 8. (b) 9. (d) 10. (c) 11. (b) 12. (c) 13. (b) 14. (c) 15. (c)
16. (d) 17. (e) 18. (b) 19. (e) 20. (c) 21. (c) 22. (d)

SECTION FIVE- DIPOLE DIPOLE INTERACTION

1. What are the forces of attraction and repulsion between interacting molecules known as
_________
a) attractive forces
b) repulsive forces
c) intermolecular forces
d) intramolecular forces
Answer: c
Explanation: Intermolecular means between molecules and intramolecular means within in
molecule. Both attractive and repulsive forces include intermolecular forces. Therefore, the
forces of attraction and repulsion between interacting molecules are known as Intermolecular
forces.

2. Deviation of real gas behavior from ideal gas is discovered by _____________

a) Jonathan
b) Van der Waals
c) Boyle
d) Newland

Answer: b
Explanation: A Dutch scientist named Johannes’s van der Waals found out the reason for real
gas behavior’s deviation from ideal gas behavior. And he said that those forces which were
named van der Waals were responsible.
3. London force is also known as _____________
a) dispersion force
b) van der Waals forces
c) hydrogen bonding
d) covalent bonds

Answer: a
Explanation: Electrically symmetrical atoms and non-polar molecules having zero dipole
movement due to their electron distribution may sometimes develop a momentary dipole also
known as London force or the Dispersion forces.

4. Dispersion force’s interaction energy is proportional to (take “r” as the distance between the
two particles) ___________
a) r6
b) 1/r-6
c) r2
d) 1/r6
Answer: d
Explanation: The interaction energy between two atoms or molecules experiencing dispersion
or London forces is inversely proportional to the sixth power of the distance between those
molecules when found, experimentally.

5. Dipole-Dipole forces are stronger than _______ and weaker than _________ interactions.
a) dipole-induced dipole, London
b) ion-ion, dispersion
c) ion-ion, London
d) London, ion-ion
Answer: d
Explanation: Dipole-Dipole forces are stronger than London forces and weaker than ion-
interactions. As only the partial charges are involved. London forces have no charges, and ion-
ion forces have full charges.

6. HCl is an example of __________

a) dipole-dipole interactions
b) dipole-induced dipole interactions
c) London interaction
d) van der waals interaction

Answer: a
Explanation: Dipole-Dipole interactions occur between molecules having permanent dipoles.
And also, the ends of dipoles possess partial charge which represented by a Greek letter δ. In an
HCl molecule, the same type of interactions occur.

7. Take “r” as the distance between two molecules. The energy between stationary polar
molecules is proportional to ____________ in the case of dipole-dipole interactions.
a) 1/r3
b) r3
c) r2
d) 1/r2
Answer: a
Explanation: The energy between two polar molecules which are stationary, is inversely
proportional to the cube of the distance between the molecules, in the case of dipole-dipole
interactions. This interaction is stronger than the London forces.

8. Which of the following interaction occurs between a permanent dipole and a neutral molecule?
a) Dipole-Dipole interactions
b) Dipole-induced dipole interactions
c) London interaction
d) Van der Waals interaction

Answer: b
Explanation: Dipole-induced dipole interactions occur between a molecule of permanent dipole
and molecule lacking permanent dipole. The dipole gets induced to the other molecule in this
particular interaction.

9. Hydrogen bond plays a vital role in determining substance properties and structure. Which of
the following may not an example?
a) Proteins
b) Nucleic acids
c) Methane molecule
d) Water

Answer: c
Explanation: As per the above statement, substance properties and structure is determined as per
the hydrogen bond present in them, but in a methane molecule, there is no hydrogen bond. So it
may not be an example.
10. Molecules do exert repulsive forces on one other.
a) True
b) False

Answer: a
Explanation: When two molecules come closer, the electron clouds between them they repel.
This is the reason why solids and liquids cannot be easily compressed. As the distance between
molecules decreases, the repulsive forces become much stronger.

SECTION SIX- COMPLEX REACTIONS

1. For reaction system given below, volume is suddenly reduced to half of its value by
increasing the pressure on it. If the reaction is of first order with respect to O2 and second order
with respect to NO, what will be the change in the rate of reaction?
2NO(g) + O2(g) + 2NO2(g)
a) diminish to one-fourth of its initial value
b) diminish to one-eight of its initial value
c) increase to eight times of its initial value
d) increase to four times of its initial value
Answer: c

2. The rate law for a reaction between the substances A and B is given by rate = K[A]n [B]m. On
doubling the concentration of A and halving the concentration of B. What will be the ratio of the
new rate of the earlier rate of the reaction?
a) (12)m+n
b) m+n
c) n-m
d) 2n-m

Answer: d
3. Rate = If the volume of reaction vessel is suddenly reduced to 14th of initial value. How new
rate will be affected?
a) 110
b) 18
c) 8
d) 16

Answer: d

4. On which factor the rate constant of a reaction does not depend upon?
a) temperature
b) activation energy
c) catalyst
d) concentration of reactants and products

Answer: d
Explanation: The rate constant of reaction does not depend on concentration of reactant &
product (only on nature of reactant & product).

5. The rate of reaction, A + B Products, is given by the equation, r = k[A][B]. If B is taken in

excess, what would be the order of reaction?
a) 2
b) 1
c) zero
d) unpredictable

Answer: b
Explanation: A + B → Products
H = k[A][B] [if B is taken in large excess then according to pseudo first order reaction. B is
taken as constant]. So, order = 1.
6. In a reaction, 2A2 + B2 → 2A2B, when the reactant A will disappear?
a) half the rate that B will decrease
b) the same rate that B will decrease
c) double the rate that A2B will form
d) twice the rate that B will decrease

Answer: d

7. The rate of reaction that does not involve gases, is not dependent on _____________
a) pressure
b) temperature
c) concentration
d) catalyst

Answer: a
Explanation: The rate of reaction that does not involve gases does not depend on pressure.

8. Which is not true for a second order reduction?

a) It can have rate constant 1 x 10-2 L mol-1 s-1
b) Its half-life is inversely proportional to its initial concentration
c) Time to complete 75% reaction is twice of half-life

d) T50 = 1/(ka⋅A0)

Answer: c
9. The rate of decomposition of a substance increases concentration of substance at same
temperature. Find out order of reaction.
a) 1
b) 2
c) 3
d) 0

Answer: b
Explanation: Rate = k [A]α
R1 = k[A]n
R2 = k [1.5 A] n = 2.25 R1
k (1.5A) n = 2.25*k*[A]n
(1.5) n * [A]n = 2.25*[A]n
n log (1.5) = log (2.25)
n = 2.

10. If a reaction is nth order the half-life period ________ of the initial concentration of the
reactants.
a) is independent
b) varies inversely as (n-1) th power
c) varies inversely as nth power
d) varies directly as (n-1) th power

Answer: b
Explanation: For nth order; organic-chemistry-questions-answers-reaction-kinetics-q10 So,
varies inversely as (n – 1) th power.
SECTION SEVEN- CATALYSIS
1. Which of the following is not a category of catalysis?
a) Homogeneous
b) Heterogeneous
c) Artificial
d) Enzymatic

Answer: c
Explanation: The four categories of catalysis are: homogeneous, heterogeneous, auto and
enzymatic. Artificial is not a category of catalysis.

2. Which of the following is an example of homogeneous catalysis?

a) Enzyme catalysis
b) Hardening of animal and vegetable oils
c) Haber’s process
d) Cracking of heavy oils for a synthesis of gasoline

Answer: a
Explanation: Enzyme catalysis is an example of homogeneous catalysis. All the other options
are not examples of homogeneous catalysis.

3. Which of the following act as catalysis for Williamson’s etherification process?

a) HCl
b) NaCl
c) KMnO4
d) H2SO4

Answer: d
Explanation: H2SO4 act as catalysis for Williamson’s etherification process. The Williamson
ether synthesis is an organic reaction, forming an ether from an organohalide and a deprotonated
alcohol.
4. Select the incorrect statement from the following option.
a) Intermediate compound formation theory fails to explain the action of promoters
b) Intermediate compound formation theory fails to explain the function of a catalyst in
homogeneous reactions
c) Intermediate compound formation theory fails to explain the action of catalytic poisons
d) Intermediate compound formation theory fails to explain the function of catalyst in
heterogeneous reactions

Answer: b
Explanation: Intermediate compound formation theory explains the function of a catalyst in
homogeneous reactions. All the other options are correct. But it fails to explain the action of
promoters, action of catalytic poisons and function of catalyst in heterogeneous reactions.
,

5. Select the incorrect statement about the adsorption theory from the following option.
a) The surface of the solid catalyst possess some isolated active centres having residual affinity
b) Due to these centres, the molecules of the gaseous reactants get adsorbed in unimolecular
thick layer
c) The adsorbed reactants get activated and then react
d) The energy required for activation is more than that required for uncatalyzed reaction

Answer: d
Explanation: The energy required for activation is less than that required for uncatalyzed
reaction, and hence the reaction goes faster. All the other options are correct.

6. No definite intermediate compound formation takes place in contact theory.

a) True
b) False

Answer: a
Explanation: No definite intermediate compound formation takes place in contact theory. The
contact hypothesis has been described as one of the best ways to improve relations among groups
that are experiencing conflict.
7. Which of the following step is the rate determining step of contact theory?
a) Diffusion of reactants to surface
b) Adsorption of reactants at the surface
c) Chemical reaction at the surface
d) Desorption of products from the surface

Answer: c
Explanation: Chemical reaction at the surface is the slowest and rate determining step of contact
theory. The contact hypothesis has been described as one of the best ways to improve relations
among groups that are experiencing conflict.

8. Which of the following statement is incorrect about the adsorption theory?

a) The catalyst is more efficient in finely divided state
b) Action of promoters is not explained
c) Enhanced activity of a rough surfaced catalyst is explained
d) Specific action of catalyst is explained

Answer: b
Explanation: Action of promoters and catalytic poisons is also explained. All the other options
are correct. The catalyst is more efficient in the finely divided state.

9. The factor which determines the activity of a heterogeneous catalyst is ___________

a) Total surface area only
b) The number of active sites per unit amount of catalyst only
c) Method of preparation, prior treatment only
d) Total surface area, number of active sites and method of preparation

Answer: d
Explanation: The factors which determine the activity of a heterogeneous catalyst are – Total
surface area, the number of active sites per unit amount of catalyst and method of preparation,
prior treatment.
10. What is the optimum temperature for Haber’s process?
a) 4500C
b) 450C
c) 1500C
d) 3000C

Answer: a
Explanation: The optimum temperature for Haber’s process is 4500C. Haber’s process is an
industrial process for producing ammonia from nitrogen and hydrogen, using an iron catalyst at
high temperature and pressure.

11. Which of the following process is used for the manufacturing of acetic acid?
a) Bosch’s process
b) Deacon’s process
c) Vinegar process
d) Chamber process

Answer: c
Explanation: Vinegar process is used for the manufacturing of acetic acid. The term “vinegar”
actually refers to the two-step process of fermentation from carbohydrate to alcohol to acetic acid.

12. Which of the following process is used for the preparation of sulphuric acid?
a) Ostwald’s process
b) Bergius process
c) Deacon’s process
d) Chamber process

Answer: d
Explanation: Chamber process is used for the preparation of sulphuric acid. Chamber process,
also called Lead-chamber Process, method of producing sulfuric acid by oxidizing sulfur dioxide
with moist air, using gaseous nitrogen.
SECTION EIGHT- IDEAL AND NON-IDEAL SOLUTIONS
1. Which of the following statements regarding Ideal solutions is false?
a) Ideal solutions obey Raoul’s law under all conditions of temperature and concentrations
b) There will be some change in volume on mixing the components, i.e., ΔVmixing ≠ 0
c) There will be no change in enthalpy when the two components are mixed, i.e., ΔHmixing = 0
d) There will be no change in volume on mixing the components, i.e., ΔVmixing = 0

Answer: b
Explanation: An ideal solution is the solution in which each component obeys Raoult’s law
under all conditions of temperature and concentrations. An ideal solution will satisfy the
following conditions:
I. There will be no change in volume on mixing the components, i.e., ΔVmixing = 0.
II. There will be no change in enthalpy (i.e., no heat is evolved or absorbed) when the two
components are mixed, i.e., ΔHmixing = 0.

2. Which of the following is not an example of an Ideal solution?

a) Benzene + Toluene
b) n-Hexane + n-Heptane
c) Ethyl alcohol + Water
d) Ethyl bromide + Ethyl chloride

Answer: c
Explanation: An ideal solution may be defined as the solution in which no volume change and
no enthalpy change take place on mixing the solute and the solvent in any proportion. Ethyl
alcohol + Water is a Non-Ideal solution.
3. A solution which does not obey Raoutl’s law is called a non-ideal solution.
a) True
b) False

Answer: a
Explanation: A non-ideal solution is the solution in which solute and solvent molecules interact
with one another with a different force than the forces of interaction between the molecules of
the pure components. Non-Ideal solutions do not obey Raoult’s law.

4. Which of the following is false regarding Non-Ideal solutions?

a) They do not obey Raoult’s law
b) ΔVmixing ≠ 0
c) ΔHmixing = 0
d) They form azeotropes

Answer: c
Explanation: Non-Ideal solutions do not obey Raoult’s law. For Non-Ideal solutions, ΔVmixing
≠ 0, ΔHmixing ≠ 0. Non-ideal solutions form azeotropes or constant boiling mixtures, i.e., they
have the same concentration in the vapour phase and the liquid phase.

5. Which of the following is an example of a non-ideal solution showing positive deviation?

a) Acetone + Carbon disulphide
b) Chlorobenzene + Bromobenzene
c) Chloroform + Benzene
d) Acetone + Aniline

Answer: a
Explanation: Chlorobenzene + Bromobenzene is an example of an ideal solution. Chloroform +
Benzene and Acetone + Aniline are examples of non-ideal solutions but they show negative
deviations. Acetone + Carbon disulphide is an example of a non-ideal solution showing positive
deviation.
6. Ideal solutions do not form azeotropes.
a) True
b) False

Answer: a
Explanation: An azeotrope or a constant boiling mixture is a mixture that has the same
concentration in the vapour phase and the liquid phase. In azeotropes, the component ratio of
unvaporized solution is equal to that of the vaporized solution when boiling. Hence, Ideal
solutions don’t form azeotropes.

7. Which of the following is not an example of a non-ideal solution showing negative deviation?
a) HNO3 + Water
b) HCl + Water
c) Acetic acid + Pyridine
d) Carbon tetrachloride + Toluene

Answer: d
Explanation: HNO3 + Water, HCl + Water and Acetic acid + Pyridine are non-ideal solutions
showing negative deviations. Carbon tetrachloride + Toluene is an example of non-ideal solution
showing positive deviation.

8. Which of the following is true regarding non-ideal solutions with negative deviation?
a) The interactions between the components are lesser than in the pure components
b) ΔVmixing = +ve
c) ΔHmixing = +ve
d) They form maximum boiling azeotropes

Answer: d
Explanation: The interactions between the components of a non-ideal solution showing negative
deviation are greater than the pure components. The change in volume and enthalpy after mixing
is negative, i.e., ΔVmixing = -ve, ΔHmixing = -ve.
9. Which of the following cannot form an azeotrope?
a) H2O + C2H5OH
b) CHCl3 + C2H5OH
c) HCl + H2O
d) Benzene + Toluene

Answer: d
Explanation: H2O + C2H5OH forms an azeotrope with a boiling point of 351.15 K. CHCl3 +
C2H5 OH forms an azeotrope with a boiling point of 332.3 K. HCl + H2O forms an azeotrope
with a boiling point of 383 K. Benzene + Toluene is an ideal solution and hence does not form an
azeotrope.

10. Which of the following is true regarding azeotropes?

a) An azeotrope does not exhibit the same concentration in the vapour phase and the liquid phase
b) Azeotropic mixtures cannot be separated into their constituents by fractional distillation
c) In case of minimum boiling azeotropes, the boiling point of the azeotrope is higher than the
boiling point of either of the pure components
d) In case of maximum boiling azeotropes, the boiling point of the azeotrope is lesser than the
boiling point of either of the pure components

Answer: b
Explanation: Azeotropes have the same concentration in the vapour phase and the liquid phase.
In case of minimum boiling azeotropes, the boiling point of the azeotrope is lesser than the
boiling point of either of the pure components. In case of maximum boiling azeotropes, the
boiling point of the azeotrope is higher than the boiling point of either of the pure components.

11. If liquids A and B form an ideal solution, then what is the Gibbs free energy of mixing?
a) > 0
b) < 0
c) = 0
d) Not Defined
Answer: b
Explanation: The Gibbs free energy of a system at any moment in time is defined as the
enthalpy of the system minus the product of the temperature times the entropy of the system. For
ideal solutions, the value of the Gibbs Free energy is always negative as mixing of ideal
solutions is a spontaneous process.

12. 5 moles of liquid X and 10 moles of liquid Y make a solution having a total vapour pressure
70 torr. The vapour pressures of pure X and pure Y are 64 torr and 76 torr respectively. Which of
the following is true regarding the described solution?
a) The solution shows positive deviation
b) The solution shows negative deviation
c) The solution is ideal
d) The solution has volume greater than the sum of individual volumes

Answer: b
Explanation: Given,
Observed pressure = 76 torr
According to Raoult’s law,
pA = xA x pA0 = 5/15 x 64 = 21.33 torr
pB = xB x pB0 = 10/15 x 76 = 50.67 torr
Therefore, pressure expected by Raoult’s law = 21.33 + 50.67 = 72 torr.
Thus, observed pressure (70 torr) is less than the expected value. Hence, the solution shows
negative deviation.

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