Class12 CBQ Workshop Roorkee

केन्द्रीय विद्यालय संगठन
देहरादून संभाग
KENDRIYA VIDYALAYA SANGATHAN
DEHRADUN REGION
रसायन विज्ञान विषय हेतु संिर्धन कायधशाला

SUBJECT ENRICHMENT WORKSHOP FOR CHEMISTRY
सत्र/SESSION – 2023-24
कक्षा 12 हेतु योग्यता आर्ाररत प्रश्न संग्रह

COMPETANCY BASED QUESTIONS FOR
CLASS XII
Chief Patron
Dr. SUKRITI RAIWANI
Deputy Commissioner, KVS RO Dehradun
Patron
Mrs. SWATY AGARWAL Mr. LALIT MOHAN BISHT Mr. SURJEET SINGH
Assistant Commissioners, KVS RO DehradunN
Coordinator
Mr. ARVIND KUMAR
Principal, Kendriya Vidyalaya No.-2, Roorkee
Venue
Kendriya Vidyalaya, No.-2, Roorkee
(Date: 29.09.2023-30.09.2023)
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CONTENTS
U.No. Unit Name Page No.
1. Solution 3–7
2. Electrochemisty 8 – 12
3. Chemical Kinetics 13 – 19
4. d- & f-Block Elements 20 – 24
5. Coordination Compounds 25 – 29
6. Haloalkanes and Haloarenes 30 – 37
7. Alcohols, Phenols and Ethers 38 – 43
8. Aldehydes, Ketones and Carboxylic Acids 44 – 50
9. Amines 51 – 58
10. Biomolecules 59 – 61
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UNIT-I
SOLUTIONS
MCQ
1. Isotonic solution will have
(a) Same temperature (b) Same concentration
(c) Same osmotic pressure (d) All of above
2. People taking a lot of salt or salty food experience water retention in tissue cells and
intercellular spaces because of osmosis. The resulting puffiness or swelling is called
(a) bends (d) anoxia
(c) edema (d) diabetes
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In above process, after some time the concentration of salt water will
(a) Increase (b) Decrease
(c) Not change (d) be equal to that of fresh water
4 For complete dissociation of the complex K4[Fe(CN)6] the van’t Hoff factor is equal to
(a) 2 (b) 3
(c) 4 (d) 5
5 Colligative property is ______________ molar mass of the solute.
(a) directly proportional to (b) inversely proportional to
(c) does not depend upon (d) none of above
6 Which of the following is not a colligative property?
(a) lowering in vapour pressure, (b) boiling point elevation,
(c) freezing point depression (d) osmotic pressure
7 A compound gets trimerise in water, the observed molar mass of the compound will be
(Actual molar mass of the compound is =M)
(a) M (b) 3M
(c) M/3 (d) M3
8 The osmotic pressure of a solution is directly proportional to
(a) Molality of the solute (b) Molarity of the solute
(c) Mass % of the solute (d) mole fraction of the solute
9 The vapour pressure of an aqueous solution of sucrose is less than 1 atm, the boiling point of
the solution will be
(a) Less than 373.15 °C (b) More than 373.15 ° C
(c) 373.15 ° C (d) 273.15 ° C
10 Elevation of boiling point for a solution of 0.1 mole of a solute in 2 kg of water is 0.026 ° C.
What will be the Elevation of boiling point if the same amount of the solute is dissolved in 1
kg of the water.
(a) 0.026 °C (b) 0.052 ° C
(c) 0.013 ° C (d) none of these
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11. Carbonated Drinks are example of which of the following type of solution?
(a) Solid in Gas (b) Liquid in Liquid
(c) Gas in Liquid (d) Gas in Gas
12. According to Henery’s Law a person who travels to mountains feel the dizziness due to-
(a)High pressure of Air (b) Low pressure of Air
(c) High Temperature (d) Low Temperature
13. The more appropriate concentration term used in measurement of colligative properties are
Molality and Mol Fraction due to-
(a)It’s dependance on Temperature (b) It’s Non dependence on Temperature
(c) Easier to calculate (d) None of the above
14. A binary Solution of Glucose in Water is given, if the mol fraction of Glucose is 0.33, What
will be the mol fraction of the solvent?
(a)0.66 (b) 0.9
(c) 0.33 (d) 0.56
15. The solubility of solid in liquid solution ________________ with increase in temperature ,
where as the solubility of gas in liquid solution _________________ with increase in
temperature.
(a)Increase, Decrease (b) Decrease, Increase
(c) Increase, Increase (d) Decrease, Decrease
16. Why scuba divers dilute the air cylinder with Helium gas.
(a)It has higher Value of Henery’s Constant (b) It has lower value of Henery’s constant
(b) It is an inert gas (d) It is lighter than nitrogen
17. According to raoult’s law the vapour pressure of a solid in liquid solution increases when the
mol fraction of solute is-
(a)Increased (b) decreased
(c) Unchanged (d) Does not depend on the mol fraction of solute
18. The High boiling Azeotropes show _____________ deviation from raoult’s law.
(a)Positive (b) Negative
(c) No Deviation (d) Can’t be predicted
19. n-hexane and n-heptane will form _____________ solution.
(a) Positive deviation from raoult’s law (b) Negative deviation from raoult’s law
(c) No deviation from raoult’s law (d) None of these
20. Calculate the molarity of a solution containing 10 g of NaOH in 450 ml of solution.
(a)0.556 (b) 0.278
(c) 0.30 (d) 0.60
Answers:
1. (d) 2. (c) 3. (a) 4 (d) 5. (b)
6. (a) 7. (b) 8. (b) 9. (b) 10 (b)
11. (c) 12. (b) 13. (b) 14. (a) 15. (a)
16. (a) 17. (b) 18. (b) 19. (c) 20. (a)
Assertion (A) and Reason (R)

Given below are two statements labelled as Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Select the most
appropriate answer from the options given below:
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(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true but R is false.
(d) A is false but R is true.
1 A: The vapour pressure of a solution of a non-volatile solute in water is less than 1 atm.
R: Non-volatile solute decreases the effective surface area of the solvent.
2 A: The technique of osmotic pressure for determination of molar mass of solutes is
particularly useful for biomolecules.
R: Biomolecules are generally not stable at room temperature.
3 A: The observed molar mass of the solution of ethanoic acid in benzene comes double of
the calculated value.
R: Ethanoic acid is soluble in benzene.
4 A: The direction of osmosis can be reversed if a pressure larger than the osmotic pressure is
applied to the solution side.
R: Only solvent molecules can pass through the semi permeable membrane.
5 A: When placed in water containing less than 0.9% (mass/ volume) salt, blood cells
collapse.
R: In osmosis solvent molecules flow from low concentration solution to high
concentration solution through SPM.
6. Assertion : Molarity of a solution in liquid state changes with temperature.
Reason : The volume of a solution changes with change in temperature.
7. ssertion : If one component of a solution obeys Raoult’s law over a certain range of
composition, the other component will not obey Henry’s law in that range.
Reason : Raoult’s law is a special case of Henry’s law.
8. Assertion : Azeotropic mixtures are formed only by non-ideal solutions and they may have
boiling points either greater than both the components or less than both the components.
Reason : The composition of the vapour phase is same as that of the liquid phase of an
azeotropic mixture.
9. Assertion : When NaCl is added to water a depression in freezing point is observed.
Reason : The lowering of vapour pressure of a solution causes depression in the freezing
point.
10. Assertion : When a solution is separated from the pure solvent by a semi- permeable
membrane, the solvent molecules pass through it from pure solvent side to the solution side
Reason : Diffusion of solvent occurs from a region of high concentration solution to a region
of low concentration solution.
Answers:
1. (a) 2. (c) 3. (b) 4. (b) 5. (a)
6. (a) 7. (b) 8. (b) 9. (a) 10 (b)
Case Based Question 1

Pickles and Jams have been used over decades as quick spreads and ready to eat food for kids
as well as adults. They both contain high proportions of salt and sugar, respectively that acts as a
natural preservative for fruits and vegetables. Though vegetables and fruits are very prone to
bacterial attack but the high salt and sugar concentration kills them before they can cause
the food to get spoiled.
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1. Why do bacteria not survive in pickle?
Ans: The high salt concentration in pickles is hypertonic to bacteria cells, and bacteria cells lose
water and it kills them by dehydration before they can cause the food to get spoiled.
2. Which property of a solution is described in above paragraph?
Ans: Osmosic.
3. Give any 2 other application of property mentioned in the paragraph.
Ans: 1. Water movement from soil into plant roots and subsequently into upper portion of the
plant is partly due to osmosis.
2. Wilted flowers revive when placed in fresh water due to osmosis.
Case Based Question 2

We want to stay safe following a winter snow storm, so we clear roads, parking lots,
driveways and sidewalks by plowing, shoveling and using salt. Have you ever wondered how salt
melts ice. The freezing point of water is 273.15 K. When the temperature drops to 273.15 K or
below, hydrogen bonds between water molecules strengthen. The molecules arrange themselves
into a crystalline structure, and liquid water becomes solid ice. Road salt, or sodium chloride,
works by lowering the freezing point of water, causing ice to melt even when the temperature is
below water’s normal freezing point of 273.15 K. However, sodium chloride becomes much less
effective when the pavement temperature drops below 15 degrees. At low temperatures, it’s best
to switch to salt formulated for lower temperatures that contain magnesium chloride (MgCl2) or
calcium chloride (CaCl2)
1. Define freezing point depression. (1m)
Ans: Freezing point depression refers to the lowering of the freezing point of solvents upon the
addition of solutes. This is a colligative property which depends upon the no. of solute particles
dissolved in given amount of a solvent.
2. Why is CaCl2 more effective than NaCl in decreasing the freezing point of water?
Ans: CaCl2 produce more ions( 3 particles) and NaCl produce less ions ( 2 particles). More
the number of particle more depression in m.p.
3. 6 g of CaCl2 (M=111 g mol−1) was dissolved in 100 g of water. Assuming CaCl2 undergoes
complete ionisation (Kf for water=1.86 K kg mol−1). Calculate the freezing point of a solution.
Ans: For complete ionisation of CaCl2 (i=3)
CaCl2 = Ca2+ + 2Cl- (3 particles)
Tf = Tf° -Tf ➔ Tf = Tf° - Tf = 273.15 - 3.162 = 269.988 K = Tf
CASE BASED QUESTION -3

Read the passage carefully and answer the following questions
Raoult's law is a phenomenological relation that assumes ideal behavior based on the simple
microscopic assumption that intermolecular forces between unlike molecules are equal to those
between similar molecules, and that their molar volumes are the same: the conditions of an ideal
solution. This is analogous to the ideal gas law, which is a limiting law valid when the interactive
forces between molecules approach zero, for example as the concentration approaches zero. Raoult's
law is instead valid if the physical properties of the components are identical. The more similar the
components are, the more their behavior approaches that described by Raoult's law. For example, if
the two components differ only in isotopic content, then Raoult's law is essentially exact.
1. State about the change in Volume and Enthalpy for the ideal solutions.
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What will be change in volume and enthalpy of mixing in case of non ideal solution?
2. What is the reason behind Negative deviation from raoult’s law when Chloroform is mixed in
Acetone.
3. What do you know about deviation of a solution from raoult’s law? Draw a graph with suitable
examples for negative and positive deviation from raoult’s law.
CASE BASED QUESTION -4

Henry’s law, statement that the weight of a gas dissolved by a liquid is proportional to
the pressure of the gas upon the liquid. The law, which was first formulated in 1803 by the English
physician and chemist William Henry, holds only for dilute solutions and low gas pressures.
In a very dilute solution, a solute molecule will (with rare exceptions) have only solvent molecules
as near neighbours, and the probability of escape of a particular solute molecule into the gas phase is
expected to be independent of the total concentration of solute molecules. In this case the rate of
escape of solute molecules will be proportional to their concentration in the solution, and solute will
accumulate in the gas until the return rate is equal to the rate of escape. With a very dilute gas this
return rate will be proportional to the partial pressure of solute. Thus, we expect that, for a solution
very dilute in solute, in equilibrium with a gas at very low pressure, the gas pressure will be
proportional to the amount of dissolved gas—the relation known as Henry’s law. While the above
argument is to be considered only suggestive, Henry’s law is found experimentally to hold for all
dilute solutions in which the molecular species is the same in the solution as in the gas.
(i) What is the relation between henery’s constant and solubility of a gas ?
(ii) The gas which are easily liquefiable are _____________ soluble in water. ( More/ Less).
(iii) Describe any three applications of Henery’s Law.
(iv) What is the relationship between the value of Henry’s constant and solubility of gas in
solution?
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UNIT-II
ELECTROCHEMISTRY
MCQ
1. Faraday ‘s law of electrolysis is related to
(a)Atomic number of cation (b) Speed of cation
(c) Speed of anion (d) Equivalent weight of electrolyte.
Answer: d
2. How many coulombs of electricity is required to reduce 1 mole of Cr2O72- in acidic medium?
(a)496500C (b) 696500C (c)296500C (d) 196500C
Answer: b
3. In the electrolysis of aqueous NaCl solution when Pt electrode is taken ,then which gas is librated
at cathode?
(a)H2 (b)Cl2
(c)O2 (d) none of the above.
Answer: a
4. Conductivity of aqueous solution of an electrolyte depends on:
(a)molecular mass of the electrolyte (b) boiling point of solvent
(c)degree of ionization (d) volume of the solvent
Answer: c
5. Which is not true for a standard hydrogen electrode?
(a)the hydrogen ion concentration is 1 M
(b) Temperature is 25oC
(c)Pressure of hydrogen is 1 atmosphere
(d) It contains a metallic conductor which does not adsorb hydrogen
Answer: d
6. In an electrochemical cell function of salt bridge:
(a) Provide electrical neutrality for cathodic and anodic compartment
(b) Complete the internal circuit
(c) Both a and b are correct
(d) Only a is correct
Answer: c
7. During rusting of iron
(a)Iron act as anode (b) It is a electrochemical phenomena
(c)Impurities act as cathode (d) All are correct
Answer: d
8. In a concentration cell
a. Anode and cathode are made up of same element
b. Anodic and cathodic compartment have same electrolyte
c. Concentration of electrolyte in cathodic and anodic compartment is different.
d. All are correct
Answer: d
9. Molar conductance of weak electrolyte is calculated by:
a. Henry’s law
b. Faraday’s law of electrolysis
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c. Raoult’s Law
d. Kohlrausch ‘s Law of independent migration of ions
Answer: d
10. The highest electrical conductivity of the following aqueous solutions is of :
(a)0.1 M acetic acid (b) 0.1M chloroacetic acid
(c)0.1M fluoroacetic acid (d) 0.1M di fluoroacetic acid
Answer: d
11. Which of the following does not belongs to the category of electrochemical cells?
(a)Voltaic cell (b) Photovoltaic cell
(c) Electrolytic cell (d) Fuel cell
Answer: b
12. Which of the following is a secondary cell?
(a ) Leclanche cell (b) Concentration cell
(c) Lead storage cell (d) All of these
Answer :c
13. Which shows electrical conductance?
(a)Sodium (b)Diamond (c) Potassium (d) Graphite
Answer: d
14. The products formed when an aqueous solutions of NaBr is electrolysed in a cell having inert
electrodes are:
(a)Na and Br2 (b) Na and O2 (c)H2,Br2 and NaOH (d) H2 and O2
Answer: c
15. What flows in the internal circuit of a voltaic cell?
(a)Ions (b) Electricity (c) Electrons (d) Atoms
Answer :c
16. The reference electrode is made by using :
(a)Hg2 Cl2 (b) HgCl2 (c)CuSO4 (d) ZnCl2
Answer: a
17. The standard hydrogen electrode potential is zero, because
(a) hydrogen oxidized easily
(b) electrode potential is considered as zero
(c) hydrogen atom has only one electron
(d) hydrogen is a very light element
Answer: b
18. On electrolysis of dilute sulphuric acid using platinum electrodes, the product obtained at anode
will be ?
(a)hydrogen (b) sulphur dioxide (c)hydrogen sulphide (d) oxygen
Answer: d
19. Which of the following is not a generally used electrolyte in the salt bridges used to connect the
half –cells of an electrochemical cell?
(a)ZnSO4 (b) NaCl (c)KCl (d) KNO3
Answer: a
20. Galvanised iron sheets are coated with
(a)Carbon (b) Nickel
(c)Zinc (d) Copper
Answer: c
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ASSERTION REASONING QUESTIONS
In the following questions a statement of Assertion (A) followed by a statement of Reason (R)
is given .Choose the correct answer out of the following choices.
(a)Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b)Both A and R are correct but R is not explain the A.
(c) Assertion (A) is correct but Reason (R) is incorrect.
(d) Assertion (A) is incorrect but Reason (R) is correct.
1. Assertion :In an electrochemical cell anode and cathode are respectively negative and positive
electrodes.
Reason: At anode oxidation takes place and at cathode reduction takes place.
2. Assertion :An electrochemical cell can be set up only if the redox reaction is spontaneous.
Reason: A reaction is spontaneous if free energy change is negative.
3. Assertion :Identification of cathode and anode is done by the use of a thermometer.
Reason :Higher is the value of reduction potential, greater would be its reducing power.
4. Assertion :Zinc displaces copper from copper sulphate solution.
Reason: The Eo of zinc is -0.76 V and that of copper is +0.34V.
5. Assertion :Galvanic cells containing hydrogen ,methane, methanol etc. as fuels are called fuel
cells.
Reason: They are designed to convert the energy of combustion of fuels directly into electrical
energy.
6. Assertion :A negative value of standard reduction potential means that reduction takes place
on this electrode with reference to standard hydrogen electrode.
Reason:The standard electrode potential of a half cell has a fixed value.
7. Assertion :For a cell reaction Zn(s) + Cu2+(aq)🡪 Zn 2+ (aq) +Cu(s);at the equilibrium ,voltmeter
gives zero reading.
Reason: At equilibrium, there is no change in the concentration of Cu2+ and Zn2+ ions.
8. Assertion : One coulomb of electric charge deposits weight equal to the electrochemical
equivalent of the substance.
Reason: One Faraday deposits one mole of the substance.
9. Assertion :Electrical conductivity of copper increases with increases in temperature.
Reason: The electrical conductivity of metals is due to the motion of electrons.
10. Assertion : In electrolysis the quantity of electricity needed for depositing 1 mole of silver is
different from that required for 1 mole of copper.
Reason: The molecular weights of silver and copper are different.
Answers: 1(a) 2(a) 3(d) 4(a) 5(a) 6(d) 7(a) 8(b) 9(d) 10(b)
CASE STUDY BASED QUESTION - 1

Batteries and fuel cells are two vital technologies that play crucial roles in the world of energy
storage and conversion. Batteries are widely recognized for their importance in portable electronics,
electric vehicles (EVs), and renewable energy systems. They store electrical energy chemically and
release it as needed, enabling the smooth operation of our devices and the integration of intermittent
renewable energy sources into the grid.
Fuel cells, on the other hand, are versatile devices that convert chemical energy from fuels, such as
hydrogen, into electricity through an electrochemical process. They offer high energy efficiency,
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low emissions, and long-range applications. Fuel cells are particularly valuable in powering
vehicles, providing backup power for critical facilities, and even space exploration, where their
reliability and clean energy output are paramount.
Both batteries and fuel cells are integral to the ongoing transition toward cleaner and more
sustainable energy solutions. Batteries provide portable and stationary energy storage, while fuel
cells offer efficient and environmentally friendly electricity generation. Together, these
technologies are driving advancements in electrification, reducing greenhouse gas emissions, and
enhancing the resilience of our energy infrastructure.
Answer the following questions:

1. Name the cell which was used in Applo space programme. 1
Ans. H2-O2 Fuel cell
2. Out of lead storage battery and lithium ion battery which is used in mobile phone? 1
Ans. Lithium ion battery
3.Give one advantage and one drawback of full cell. 2
Advantage. High efficiency or pollution free or any other
Drawback: Catalytic metals are costly or any other

Electrolysis is a fundamental chemical process with diverse applications across various fields. Its
importance can be summarized in the following paragraph:
Electrolysis plays a pivotal role in several industries and scientific endeavors due to its ability to
facilitate chemical transformations through the use of electrical energy. One of its primary
significance lies in metal production and purification, as it enables the extraction of pure metals
from ores and the refining of alloys. Additionally, electrolysis is essential in the field of energy
storage and conversion, as it is a key component in processes like water electrolysis, which produces
hydrogen as a clean and renewable fuel source. Electrolysis also finds extensive use in
electroplating, where it coats objects with a layer of metal for decorative or protective purposes.
Moreover, it has crucial applications in analytical chemistry, particularly in techniques like mass
spectrometry and titration. Overall, electrolysis serves as a versatile tool that drives advancements
in industries ranging from metallurgy to energy and beyond, contributing significantly to scientific
and technological progress.
Answer the following questions.

1.Name the gas formed at cathode and anode by the electrolysis of water.
Ans. Cathode – Hydrogen Anode -Oxygen
2. Give any one important use of electrolysis.
Ans. In the manufacture of sodium hydroxide or electroplating or any other
3.Write anodic and cathodic reactions taking place during electrolysis of dilute H2SO4.
Anode- 4OH- → 2H2O + O2 + 4e- Cathode- 2H+ + 2e- 🡪 H2

An electrochemical cell is a fascinating device that converts chemical energy into electrical energy
through redox (reduction-oxidation) reactions. It consists of two electrodes, typically made of
different materials, immersed in an electrolyte solution. One electrode undergoes oxidation (loses
electrons), releasing electrons into an external circuit, while the other electrode undergoes reduction
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(gains those electrons), completing the electrical circuit. This flow of electrons generates an electric
current, allowing the cell to power various devices. Electrochemical cells find widespread
applications, from the batteries in our everyday electronics to fuel cells in green energy solutions,
playing a pivotal role in modern technology and energy production.
1.Name the metal electrode taken at cathode and anode in Galvanic cell.
Ans. Anode- Zn and Cathode -Cu
2.If external potential is higher than internal potential then what will the nature of electrode
reactions.
Ans . Copper electrode oxidises and Zn2+ oxidises
3. Name two functions of salt bridge in electrochemical cell.
Ans. Maintain electrical neutrality and complete internal circuit

Dilution plays a significant role in altering the molar and specific conductance of a solution. Molar
conductance, denoted as Λm, measures the ability of a solution to conduct electrical current, and it
is expressed in siemens per mole per meter (S·m²/mol). When a solution is diluted, it typically leads
to an increase in molar conductance. This is because dilution reduces the concentration of ions in
the solution, resulting in fewer ions competing for the same volume of solvent. As a result, the ions
can move more freely, increasing the overall conductivity of the solution.
Specific conductance, on the other hand, denoted as κ, is a measure of a solution's conductivity per
unit length and is expressed in siemens per meter (S/m). Similar to molar conductance, specific
conductance tends to increase with dilution. When a solution is diluted, the ions become more
dispersed in the solvent, reducing the chance of ion-ion interactions and increasing the mobility of
ions. Consequently, specific conductance increases as the solution becomes more dilute.
In summary, dilution leads to an enhancement of both molar and specific conductance due to the
reduced concentration and increased mobility of ions in the more dilute solution. This effect is a
fundamental principle in the field of electrochemistry and is often utilized in practical applications
to control conductivity in various chemical processes.

1.Why molar conductance decrease with increasing concentration.
Ans . Due to increase the inter ionic attraction ,mobility of ion decreases
2. If molar conductance sharply increase on dilution then it is strong or weak electrolyte.
Ans. Weak electrolyte
3. Show graphically the variation of molar conductance for strong and weak electrolyte.
Ans.
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UNIT-III
CHEMICAL KINETICS
MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS

1. Hydrolysis of ester is a reaction of order-
(a) Second order (b) Unimolecular
(c) Pseudo-unimolecular (d) Third order
Ans- c
2. Catalyst increases rate of reaction by-
(a) Decreasing activation energy (b) Increasing activation energy
(c)Participating in the reaction (d) None of the above
Ans- a
3. For a chemical reaction A→B, it is found that the rate of reaction doubles when the concentration
of A is increased two times. The order of reaction is
(a) Two (b) One
(c) Half (d) Zero
Ans- b
4. The half life of the first order reaction having rate constant K = 3.9 x 10-5s-1 is
(a) 12.1 h (b) 9.7 h
(c) 11.3 h (d) 4.9 h
Ans- d
5. The reaction rate constant can be defined as the rate of reaction when each reactant’s
concentration is ___________.
(a) Unity (b) Double of initial rate
(c)Infinite (d) Zero
Ans- a
6. What is the effect of temperature of half life of first order reaction?
(a) It increases (b) It decreases
(c) It remains the same (d) Both increases as well as
Ans- b
7. According to collision theory-
(a) All collisions are responsible for the formation of product
(b) All collisions are effective
(c) All collisions are sufficiently violent
(d) Only a fraction of collisions are effective with enough energy in reactant molecules
Ans- d
8. The rate of reaction does not involve gases is not affected by-
(a) Pressure (b) Temperature
(c)Concentration (d) Catalyst
Ans- a
9. In a general with every 10 degree rise of temperature rate of reaction become-
(a) 10 times (b) Half
(c) 1/10 times (d) double
Ans- d
10. The molecularity of a reaction is-
(a) Same as its order (b) Different from order
(c) Maybe different or same as compared to order (d) Always zero
Ans- c
11. The role of a catalyst is to change ______________.
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(i) activation energy (ii) enthalpy of reaction.
(iii) equilibrium constant (iv) none
Ans. (i) activation energy
12. In the presence of a catalyst, the heat evolved or absorbed during the reaction ___________.
(i) increases (ii) decreases.
(iii) remains unchanged. (iv) may increase or decrease.
Ans. (iii) Remains unchanged
13. Activation energy of a chemical reaction can be determined by _____________.
(i) determining the rate constant at standard temperature.
(ii) determining the rate constants at two temperatures.
(iii) determining probability of collision.
(iv) using catalyst
Ans. (ii) determining the rate constant at two temperatures
14. Rate law for the reaction A + 2B → C is found to be Rate = k [A][B] Concentration of reactant
‘B’ is doubled, keeping the concentration of ‘A’ constant, the value of rate constant will
be______.
(i) the same (ii) doubled
(iii) quadrupled (iv) halved.
Ans. (i) the same
15. Which of the following statements is correct?
(i) The rate of a reaction decreases with passage of time as the concentration of reactants
dereases.
(ii) The rate of a reaction is same at any time during the reaction.
(iii) The rate of a reaction is independent of temperature change.
(iv) The rate of a reaction decreases with increase in concentration of reactant.
Ans.(i)
16. Which of the following statement is not correct for the catalyst?
(i) It catalyses the forward and backward reaction to the same extent.
(ii) It alters ∆G of the reaction.
(iii) It is a substance that does not change the equilibrium constant of a reaction.
(iv) It provides an alternate mechanism by reducing activation energy between reactants and
products.
Ans. (ii) It alters ∆G of the reaction.
17. The value of rate constant of a pseudo first order reaction ____________.
(i) depends on the concentration of reactants present in small amount.
(ii) depends on the concentration of reactants present in excess.
(iii) is independent of the concentration of reactants.
(iv) depends only on temperature.
Ans. depends on conc of reactants present in excess.
18. In any unimolecular reaction ______________.
(i) only one reacting species is involved in the rate determining step.
(ii) the order and the molecularity of slowest step are equal to one.
(iii) the molecularity of the reaction is one and order is zero.
(iv) both molecularity and order of the reaction are one.
Ans. (i), (ii)
19. A reactions rate constant is k=3.28x104s-1.Determine the reactions order.
a)first order b)second order
c)third order d)fourth order
Ans first order
14
20. In the graph showing Maxwell Boltzman distribution of energy, ___________.
(i) area under the curve must not change with increase in temperature.
(ii) area under the curve increases with increase in temperature.
(iii) area under the curve decreases with increase in temperature.
(iv) with increase in temperature curve broadens and shifts to the right hand side.
Ans. (i) area under the curve must not change with increase in temperature.
ASSERTION AND REASON TYPE QUESTIONS

Note: In the following questions a statement of assertion followed by a statement of reason is
given. Choose the correct answer out of the following choices
(a) Both assertion and reason are correct and the reason is correct explanation of assertion.
(b) Both assertion and reason are correct but reason does not explain assertion.
(c) Assertion is correct but reason is incorrect.
(d) Assertion is incorrect but reason is correct.
1. Assertion : Order of the reaction can be zero or fractional

Reason : We cannot determine order from balanced chemical equation.
Ans(iii) Assertion is correct but reason is incorrect.
2. Assertion : Order and molecularity are same.
Reason : Order is determined experimentally and molecularity is the sum of the stoichiometric
coefficient of rate determining elementary step.
Ans) Assertion is incorrect but reason is correct.
3. Assertion : The enthalpy of reaction remains constant in the presence of a catalyst
Reason : A catalyst participating in the reaction, forms different activated complex and lowers
down the activation energy but the difference in energy of reactant and product remains the
same.
Ans. Both assertion and reason are correct and the reason is correct explanation of assertion.
4. Assertion : All collision of reactant molecules lead to product formation.
Reason : Only those collisions in which molecules have correct orientation and sufficient kinetic
energy lead to compound formation.
Ans. Assertion is incorrect but reason is correct.
5. Assertion : Rate constants determined from Arrhenius equation are fairly accurate for simple as
well as complex molecules
Reason : Reactant molecules undergo chemical change irrespective of their orientation during
collision.
Ans. Assertion iscorrect but reason is incorrect
6. Assertion : Hydrolysis of sucrose is pseudo first order reaction.
Reason : Concentration of water does not affect rate of reaction.
Ans- a
7. Assertion : Decomposition of nitrous oxide on surface of platinum is zero order reaction.
Reason : Half life of zero order reaction depends on initial concentration of reactants.
Ans- b
8. Assertion : Half life of first order reaction is independent of initial concentration of reactants.
Reason : Half life is the time period in which final concentration of reactants become half of its
initial concentration.
Ans- b
15
9. Assertion : Radioactive decay is first order reaction.
Reason : Rate of first order reaction is independent of the concentration of reactants.
Ans- c
10. Assertion : Activation energy is the total energy required in reactant molecules to give products
after collision.
Reason : Only effective collisions of reactant molecules can be converted to give product
molecules.
Ans- d
CASE STYDY BASED QUESTION - 1

1. Chemical kinetics: The branch of physical chemistry that is concerned with understanding the
rates of chemical reactions. It is to be contrasted with thermodynamics which deals with the
direction in which a process occurs but in itself tells nothing about its rate. Thermodynamics is
time’s arrow while chemical kinetics is time’s clock. Chemical kinetics relates to many aspects of
cosmology, geology, biology, engineering and even psychology and thus has far-reaching
implications. The principles of chemical kinetics applied to purely physical processes as well as to
chemical reactions. The rate of a chemical reaction is defined in terms of the rates with which the
products are formed and the reactants (the reacting substances) are consumed. For chemical systems,
it is usual to deal with the concentrations of substances, which is defined as the amount of substances
per unit volume. The rate can then be defined as the concentration of a substance that is consumed
or produced in unit time. Sometimes it is more convenient to express rates as number of molecules
formed are consumed in unit time.
Answer the following questions:

Q1. Chemical kinetics is the study to find out:
(a) The feasibility of a chemical reaction (b) Speed of a reaction
(c) Extent to which a reaction will proceed (d) All of the above
Ans speed of reaction
Q2. The rate of a reaction:
(a) Increases as the reaction proceeds
(b) Decreases as the reaction proceeds
(c) May increase or decrease as the reaction proceeds
(d) Remains the same as the reaction proceeds
Ans. Decreases as the reaction proceeds.
Q3. A reaction is first order with respect to reactant A. What will be the initial rate, if concentration
of reactant is reduced by half?
(a) Halved (b) doubled (c) tripled (d) not changed
Ans halved
Q4. The rate contant for a first order reaction is 60s-1.How much time will it take to reduce the initial
concn of the reactant toits 1/10th value(2)
(a) 3.38x10-2s-1 (b) 2x10-2s-1 (c) 3.0s-1 (d) 2.5x10-2s-1
Ans. 3.38x10-2s-1

Few facts about rate constant are given below:
16
• Rate of reaction is proportional to rate constant. Greater value of rate constant, faster is the reaction.
• Value of rate constant is definite for a reaction at a particular temperature. With the change of
temperature, rate constant also changes.
• The value of rate constant is independent of concentration of reactants.
• Units of rate constant depend upon the order of reaction.
• Presence of catalyst changes the rate of reaction.
• Presence of catalyst changes the rate of reaction and thus rate constantas well, by lowering the
activation energy.
Units of Rate constant for a reaction of nth order can be determine as,
Rate = dx/dt = k[conc]n,
k = (dx/dt) x 1/[concentration]n
= (concentration/time) x 1/[concentration]n
k = (concentration)1-ntime-1
Choose the most appropriate answer.

(i) Rate constant in case of first order reaction is
(a) Inversely proportional to the concentration units
(b) Independent of concentration units
(c )directly proportional to concentration unit
(d) Inversely proportional to the square of concentration units.
Ans. directly proportional to concentration unit
(ii) If the concentrations are expressed in mol L-1 and time in s, then the units of the rate constant
of the first order reaction are,(1)
(a) Mol L-1 s-1 (b) Mol-1 L s-1
(c) s-1 (d) Mol2 L-2 s-1
(iii)The reaction NO2 + CO----.> NO + CO2 takes place in two steps. Find the rate law.
2NO2.--→NO + NO3 (K1) SLOW
NO3 + CO→CO2+NO2(K2) FAST
Ans R= k1[NO2]2
(iv)The rate of reaction, Cl3CCHO +NO → CHCl3 + NO + CO is given by equation,
Rate = k[Cl3CCHO] [NO]. If concentration is expressed in mol/litre, the units of k is
(a) L2 mol-2 s-1 (b) L-1 mol s-1
(c) L mol-1 s-1 (d) s-1
Ans ) L mol-1 s-1

A chemical reaction is, by definition, one in which chemical substances are transformed into other
substances, which means that chemical bonds are broken and formed so that there are changes in
the relative positions of atoms in molecules. At the same time, there are shifts in the arrangements
of the electrons that form the chemical bonds. A description of a reaction mechanism must therefore
deal with the movements and speeds of atoms and electrons. The detailed mechanism by which a
chemical process occurs is referred to as the reaction path, or pathway.
The vast amount of work done in chemical kinetics has led to the conclusion that some chemical
reactions go in a single step; these are known as elementary reactions. Other reactions go in more
than one step and are said to be stepwise, composite, or complex. Measurements of the rates of
chemical reactions over a range of conditions can show whether a reaction proceeds by one or more
17
steps. If a reaction is stepwise, kinetic measurements provide evidence for the mechanism of the
individual elementary steps. Information about reaction mechanisms is also provided by certain non
kinetic studies, but little can be known about a mechanism until its kinetics has been investigated.
Even then, some doubt must always remain about a reaction mechanism. An investigation, kinetic
or otherwise, can disprove a mechanism but can never establish it with absolute certainty.
Answer the following questions-

a) Express the rate of the following reaction in terms of the disappearance of nitrogen in the
following reaction :
N2(g) + 3H2(g) → 2NH3(g)
b) What do you understand by rate constant (K)?
c) A reaction is of second order with respect to a reactant. How is the rate of reaction affected if
the concentration of the reactant is reduced to half? What is the unit of rate constant for such a
reaction?
OR
What do you understand by rate of a reaction? Differentiate between average rate and
instantaneous rate of a reaction.
Ans- a) Rate = - d[N2]/dt
b) Rate constant is defined as the rate of reaction when the concentration of reaction is taken as
unity.
c) Rate = K [A]2 = Ka2
If [A] = 12a Rate = K (a2)2=14 Ka2
∴ Rate = 1/4th (one fourth of origina rate)
The unit of rate constant is L mol-1 s-1
OR
Rate of reaction is the change in concentration of the reactants or products in a unit time.
Average rate : Average rate depends upon the change in concentration of reactants or products
and the time taken for the change to occur. R → P
Rate= - Δ[R]/ ΔT= ΔP/ ΔT

A useful rate measure is the half-life of a reactant, which is defined as the time that it takes for half
of the initial amount to undergo reaction. For a special type of kinetic behaviour (first-order kinetics;
see below Some kinetic principles), the half-life is independent of the initial amount. A common
and straightforward example of a half-life independent of the initial amount is radioactive
substances. Uranium-238, for example, decays with a half-life of 4.5 billion years; of an initial
amount of uranium, half of that amount will have decayed in that period of time. The same behaviour
is found in many chemical reactions.
If the gases are mixed together at atmospheric pressure and room temperature, nothing observable
will happen over long periods of time. However, reaction does occur, with a half-life that is
estimated to be more than 12 billion years, which is roughly the age of the universe. If a spark is
passed through the system, the reaction occurs with explosive violence, with a half-life of less than
one-millionth of a second. This is a striking example of the great range of rates with which chemical
kinetics is concerned. There are many possible processes that proceed too slowly to be studied
experimentally, but sometimes they can be accelerated, often by the addition of a substance known
as a catalyst.
18
a) Explain why H2 and O2 do not react at room temperature.
b) What is the order of the reaction whose rate constant has same units as the rate of reaction?
c) Define the following terms :
(i) Pseudo first order reaction.
(ii) Half life period of reaction (t1/2).
OR
(i) For a reaction, A + B → Product, the rate law is given by, Rate = k[A]1[B]2. What is the
order of the reaction?
(ii) Write the unit of rate constant ‘k’ for the first order reaction.
Ans- a) H2 and O2 do not react at room temperature because they do not have enough activation
energy to overcome the exceptionally high activation energy barrier.
b) zero order of reaction.
c) (i) Those reactions which are not truly of the first order but under certain conditions become
first order reactions are called pseudo first order reaction.
(ii) The time taken for half of the reaction to complete is called half life period.
OR
(i)This is the third order of reaction.
(ii) Unit of rate constant for first order reaction is S-1
19
UNIT-IV
d- & f-BLOCK ELEMENTS
MCQ
1 In Fe(CO)5, the Fe-C bond possesses:
(a)ionic character (b)sigma character only
(c)pi character (d)both sigma and pi characters
Ans. (d)
2 The pair that has similar atomic radii is
(a)Mn and Re (b)Ti and Hf
(c)Sc and Ni (c)Mo and W
Ans. (d)
3 Silver nitrate produces a black stain on the skin due to
(a)being a strong reducing agent (b)its corrosive action
(c)formation of complex compound (d)its reduction to metallic silver
Ans. (d)
4 Which metal of 3d series is not considered as transition metal?
(a)Zn (b)Fe (c)Sc (d)Cu
Ans. (a)
5 Transition elements exhibit higher enthalpies of atomization due to
(a) presence of unpaired electrons and greater interatomic repulsion.
(b) presence of unpaired electrons and greater interatomic interaction.
(c) presence of paired electrons and greater interatomic interaction.
(d) None of these
Ans. (b)
6 When potassium ferrocyanide crystals are heated with concentrated sulphuric acid, the gas
evolved is
(a)sulphur dioxide (b)ammonia
(c)carbon monoxide (d)carbon dioxide
Ans. (d)
7 Colour of d-Block element ion is due to
(a) presence of unpaired electrons (b) Absence of unpaired electrons
(c) presence of paired electrons (d) None of these
Ans. (a)
8 Which of the following products are obtained when Na2CO3 is added to a solution of copper
sulphate?
(a) Basic copper carbonate , sodium sulphate and CO2
(b) Copper hydroxide, sodium sulphate and CO2
(c) Copper carbonate, sodium sulphate and CO2
(d) Copper carbonate and sodium sulphate
Ans. (a)
9 __________ possesses the properties of both alkali metals and halogens.
(a) Helium (b) Hydrogen
(c) Sodium (d) Chlorine
Ans. (b)
10 As we proceed from left to right in groups, what happens to the non-metallic nature?
20
(a) Remains constant (b) Decreases
(c) Increases (d) Irregular
Ans. (c)
11 Which transition metal in the first series exhibit plus one Oxidation State most frequently—
(a)Ti (b) Sc
(c)V (d) Cu
Ans. (d)
12 Transition metals act as catalyst
(a) Presence of unpaired d orbitals (b) variable Oxidation state
(c) large surface area (d) all of these.
Ans. (d)
13 Which Lanthanoid element is well known to exhibit + 4 Oxidation State—
(a) Tb (b)Eu
(c)Ce (d) Pm
Ans. (c)
14 Formula of chromite ore is—
(a)FeCr2O4 (b) Fe2CrO4
(c) FeCr2O6 (d) FeCr4O6
Ans. (a)
15 Which is the last element in the series of actinoids—-
(a)Lawrencium (b)Actinium
(c)Thorium (d)Protactinium
Ans. (a)
16 Lanthanide contraction is—
(a) radius remains unchanged as atomic number increases
(b) radius increases
(c) radius decreases
(d) radius first increases and then decreases
Ans. (c)
17 Which one is diamagnetic in nature
( a ) Cu2+ ( b) V2+
( c)Ti3+ ( d)Zn2+
Ans. (d)
18 Alloy of lanthanoids is —
(a) bronze (b) brass
(c)misch metal (d) solder
Ans. (c)
19 Number of unpaired electrons in Mn4+, Cr2+ and Fe3+ is of the order
(a) 3,4,5 (b) 5,4,3
(c) 3,5,4 (d) 4,3,5
Ans. (a)
20 Which one is not a transition metal.
(a) Zn (b) Mn
(c) Ni (d) all of these
Ans. (a)
21
ASSERTION AND REASON TYPE QUESTIONS
Note : In the following questions a statement of assertion followed by a statement of reason
is given. Choose the correct answer out of the following choices.
(a) Assertion and reason both are true, reason is correct explanation of assertion.
(b) Assertion and reason both are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.
(c) Assertion is true, reason is false.
(d) Assertion is false, reason is true
1 Assertion: There is a continuous decrease in the size of lanthanoids.
Reason: Lanthanoids shows lanthanoid contraction.
2 Assertion: Cuprous ion (Cu+) has unpaired electrons while cupric ion (Cu++) does not
Reason: Cuprous ion (Cu+) is colourless whereas cupric ion (Cu++) is blue in the aqueous
solution.
3 Assertion: Pure iron is not used for making tools and machines.
Reason: Pure iron is hard.
4 Assertion: Fe2+ is paramagnetic.
Reason: Fe2+ contains four unpaired electrons.
5 Assertion: It is not possible to obtain anhydrous ZnCl2 by heating ZnCI2.2H2O
Reason: ZnCI2.2H2O undergoes hydrolysis to produce Zn(OH)2 and HCI
6 Assertion : Transition elements have high melting points.
Reason : Transition elements have strong metallic bonds.
7 Assertion : Cu2+ is more stable in aqueous solution.
Reason : Cu2+ have high ionization enthalpy.
8 Assertion : Zn2+ compounds are colourless.
Reason : Zn2+ has 3d9 cofiguration.
9 Assertion : Transition metal form alloys.
Reason : Transition metals have similar radii.
10 Assertion : Mn shows maximum oxidation state of +5.
Reason : Mn has 5 electros in 3d subshell.
Answers: 1. (a) 2. (d) 3. (d) 4. (a) 6. (a) 7. (b) 8. (c) 9. (a) 10 (d)

The f-block elements are those in which the differentiating electrons enters the (n-2)f orbitals.
There are two series of f-Block elements corresponding to filling of 4f and 5f-orbitals. The
series of 4f-orbitals is called lanthanides. Lanthanides show different oxidation states
depending upon stability of f0, f7 and f14 configurations, though the most common oxidation
states is +3. There is a regular decrease in the size of lanthanides ions with increase in atomic
number which is known as lanthanides contraction.
1 What do you mean by lanthanide contraction?

Ans- The steady decrease in the ionic radius from La3+ to Lu3+ is termed as lanthanoid
contraction
2 Out of lanthanide and actinides which one are radioactive nature?
Ans- Actinides
3 Why With the same d4 d-orbital configuration Cr2+ ion is reducing while Mn3+ ion is
oxidizing.?
22
Ans- Cr2+ has the configuration 3d4 which easily changes to d3 due to stable half filled t2g
orbitals. Therefore Cr2+ is reducing agent. While Mn2+ has stable half filled d5 configuration.
Hence Mn3+ easily changes to Mn2+ and acts as oxidising agent.
OR
Why Actinoids exhibit greater range of oxidation states than lanthanoids?
Ans- The variability of oxidation state of transition elements is due to incompletely filled d-
orbitals and presence of unpaired electrons, i.e. (ns) and (n -1) d electrons have approximate
equal energies.
Read the given passage and answer the questions that follow:
The d-block of the periodic table contains the elements of the groups 3 to 12 and are known
as transition elements. In general, the electronic configuration of these elements is (n – 1) d1–
10 ns1–2. The d-orbitals of the penultimate energy level in their atoms receive electrons
giving rise to the three rows of the transition metals i.e. 3d, 4d and 5d series. However Zn,
Cd and Hg are not regarded as transition elements. Transition elements exhibit certain
characteristic properties like variable oxidation stables, complex formation, formation of
coloured ions, alloys, catalytic activity etc. Transition metals are hard (except Zn, Cd and Hg)
and have a high melting point
1 Why Zr and Hf have similar sizes.

Ans- Zr and Hf have almost identical radii due to lanthanoid contraction which is due to weak
shielding of d-electrons.
2 Why Actinoids show irregularities in their electronic configurations?
Ans- This happens because the energy difference between 5f, 6d and 7s subshells of the
actinoids is very small and hence electrons can be accomodated in any of them.
3 Why do transition metals and their compounds show catalytic activity
Ans- The catalytic properties of the transition elements are due to the presence of unpaired
electrons in their incomplete d-orbitals and variable oxidation states.
OR
Transition metals form large number of complex compounds
Ans- Transition metals form large number of complexes because:
• small size of metal ion;
• high ionic charge; and
• availability of empty d-orbitals.

1 Read the passage given below and answer the following questions:
The f-block elements are those in which the differentiating electron enters the (n -2)f orbital.
There are two series of f-block elements corresponding to filling of 4f and 5f-orbitals. The
series of 4f- orbitals is called lanthanides. Lanthanides show different oxidation states
depending upon stability of f0,f7 and f14 configurations, though the most common oxidation
states is +3. There is a regular decrease in size of lanthanides ions with increase in atomic
number which is known as lanthanide contraction.

1 Write the general electronic configuration of f block elements
23
Ans: n-2f(1-14) n-1d(0-1) ns2
2 Why actinoids contraction is greater than lanthanoid contraction?
Ans: Due to poor shielding effect 5f orbitals of actinoids than 4f orbitals of lanthanoids
3 Why the enthalpies of atomization of transition elements are quite high?
It is because of strong metallic bonds due to large number of unpaired electrons in d-orbitals.
OR
Among lanthanoids, Ln(III) compounds are predominant. However, occasionally in solutions
or in solid compounds, +2 and +4 ions are also obtained.
It is because after losing 2 electrons and 4 electrons, they acquire stable configuration, i.e.
f°,f7,f14.

Read the passage given below and answer the following questions:
The transition elements have incompletely filled d-subshells in their ground state or in any of
their oxidation states. The transition elements occupy position in between s- and p-blocks in
groups 3-12 of the Periodic table. Starting from fourth period, transition elements consists of
four complete series : Sc to Zn, Y to Cd and La, Hf to Hg and Ac, Rf to Cn. In general, the
electronic configuration of outer orbitals of these elements is (n - 1) d1-10 ns1-2. The electronic
configurations of outer orbitals of Zn, Cd, Hg and Cn are represented by the general formula
(n - 1)d10 n2. All the transition elements have typical metallic properties such as high tensile
strength, ductility, malleability. Except mercury, which is liquid at room temperature, other
transition elements have typical metallic structures. The transition metals and their
compounds also exhibit catalytic property and paramagnetic behaviour. Transition metal also
forms alloys. An alloy is a blend of metals prepared by mixing the components. Alloys may
be homogeneous solid solutions in which the atoms of one metal are distributed randomly
among the atoms of the other.
1 Copper atom has completely filled d-orbitals in its ground state but it is a transition element.
Why?
Ans- It is because Cu+2has 3d9, incompletely filled d-orbitals, therefore, it is a transition
metal.
2 Zn+2 salts are white while Cu+2 salts are coloured. Why?
Ans- Zn+2 salts are white because it does not have unpaired electron,
3 Why do transition elements show variable oxidation states? How is the variability in
oxidation states of d-block different from that of the p-block elements?
Ans- It is due to similar energy of (n – 1 )d and ns orbitals, electrons from both can be lost.
In p-block, lower oxidation state is more stable due to inert pair effect, whereas in ehblock
elements higher oxidation states are more stable. In d-block, oxidation states differ by one,
whereas in p-block, it differs by two.
OR
Why do actinoids show wide range of oxidation states?
Ans- It is because 5f, 6d and 7s have comparable energy
24
UNIT-V
COORDINATION COMPOUNDS
MCQ
1. Primary and secondary valency of Pt in [Pt(en)2Cl2] are
(a) 4, 4 (b) 4, 6 (c) 6, 4 (d) 2, 6
Ans: d
2. The complex ions [Co(NH3)5(NO2)]2+ will show which isomerism
(a) Ionization isomerism (b) Linkage isomerism
(c) Co-ordination isomerism (d) Solvation isomerism
Ans. b
3. The solution of the complex [Cu(NH3)4]SO4 in water will
(a) give the tests of Cu2+ ion (b) give the tests of NH3
2-
(c) give the tests of SO4 ions (d) not give the tests of any of the above
Ans. c
4. Determine the proper name for K2[PdCl4].
a) Potassium tetrachlorinepalladium(II) b) Potassium tetrachloridopalladate(II)
c) Potassium tetrachloridopalladium(II) d) tetrachlorinepalladate(II) potassium
Ans. b
5. Which of these statements about [Co(CN)6]3-is true?
(a) It has 4 unpaired electron, high spin (b) No unpaired electron, high spin
(c) No unpaired electron, low spin (d) 4 unpaired electron, low spin
Ans. c
6. Which one will show optical isomerism?
(a) [Co(NH3)3Cl3] (b) cis-[Co(en)2 Cl2] Cl
(c) trans-[Co(en)2 Cl2] Cl (d) [Co(NH3)4 Cl2] Cl
Ans: c
7. The pair having the same magnetic moment is (At No. Cr = 24, Mn = 25, Fe = 26, Co = 27)
(а) [Cr(H2O)6]2+ and [CoCl4]2- (b) [Cr(H2O)6]2+and [Fe (H2O)6]2+
(c) [Mn(H2O)6]2+ and[Cr(H2O)6]2+ (d) [COCl4]2- and [Fe(H2O)6]2+
Ans. b
8. Which of the following is the most stable complex species?
(a) [Fe(CO)5] (b) [Fe(CN)6]3-
3-
(c) [Fe(C2O4)3] (d) [Fe(H2O)6]3+
Ans. c
9. Which of the following is not a chelating agent?
(a) thiosulphato (b) oxalato
(c) glycinato (d) ethane-1, 2-diamine
Ans. oxalato
10.Which of the following options are correct for [Fe(CN)6]3-complex?
(a) d²sp3 hybridisation (b) SP3d2 hybridisation
(c) dsp2 (d) sp3
Ans. a
11. The total number of unpaired electron present in Co3+(Atomic number =27 is):
(a)2 (b)7 (c )3 (d)4
25
Ans. d
12.On the basis of crystal field theory electronic configuration of d5 complex when ∆° > p is:
(a)t2g3eg2 (b)t2g4eg1
(c )t2g5eg0 (d)t2g2eg3
Ans.(c )
13.EDTA is a
(a)Monodentate ligand (b) bidentate ligand
(c )ambident ligand (d)hexadentate ligand
Ans.(d)
14. Which of the following species is not expected to be a ligands
(a)NO (b)NH4+
(c )NH2CH2CH2NH2 (d)CO
Ans (b)
15. When 0.1 mole of CoCl3(NH3)5 is treated with excess of AgNO3 0.2 mole of a AgCl are obtained
the conductivity of solution will correspond to
(a)1:3 electrolyte (b)1:2 electrolyte
(c )1:1 electrolyte (d)3:1 electrolyte
Ans.(b)
16. The formula of the coordination compound tetra ammineaquachlorido(III)chloride is:
(a)[Co(NH3)4(H2O)Cl]Cl2 (b)[Co(NH3)4(H2O)Cl]Cl3
(c )[Co(NH3)2(H2O)Cl]Cl2 (d)[Co(NH3)4(H2O)Cl]Cl
Ans.(a)
17. What type of isomerism is shown by the following pair of complex compounds?
[Co(NH3)6][Cr(CN)6]And [Cr(NH3)6][Co(CN)6]
(a) linkage Isomerism (b) hydrate isomerism
(c ) coordination isomerism (d) ionization isomerism
Ans. (c )
18. Predict the number of ions produced per formula unit in an aqueous solution of [Co(en)3]Cl3
(a)4 (b)3 (c )6 (d)2
Ans.(a)
19. Ethylene diamine is a
(a)monodentate ligand (b) bidentate ligand
(c )hexadentate ligand (d)tridentate ligand
Ans.(b)
10. Due to the presence of ambident ligand coordination compounds show isomerism palladium
complexes of the type [Pd(C6H5)2(SCN)2]and [Pd(C6H5)2(NCS)2]
(a) linkage isomerism (b) coordination isomerism
(c ) ionization isomerism (d) geometrical isomerism
Ans.(a)
REASONING ASSERTION QUESTIONS

These questions consist of two statements, Assertion and Reason. While answering these
questions, you are required to choose any one of the following four responses.
(a) Assertion and Reason are correct and the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(b) Assertion and Reason are correct but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(c) Assertion is correct but Reason is incorrect.
26
(d) Assertion is Incorrect but Reason is correct.
1. Assertion : Linkage isomerism arises in coordination compounds containing ambidentate ligand.

Reason : Ambidentate ligand has two different donor atoms.
Ans. a
2. Assertion: low spin complexes are rarely observed in tetrahedral complexes.
Reason:The crystal field splitting energy is very high in these complexes.
Ans. c
3. Assertion:[Co(NH3)6]3+ is an inner complex.
Reason: NH3 is a strong ligand .
Ans. a
4. Assertion : [Ti(H2O)6]3+ is coloured while [Sc(H2O)6]3+ is colourless.
Reason : d-d transition is not possible in [Sc(H2O)6]3+.
Ans. a
5. Assertion: EDTA is used in treatment of lead poisoning.
Reason: EDTA has denticity of 6.
Ans. b
6.Assertion(A): Oxalate ion is a bidentate ligand.
Reason(R): Oxalate ion have two donor.
Ans.a
7.Assertion(A): Tetrahedral complexes can show geometrical isomerism.
Reason(R): This is because all the four ligands lie at the same distance from the Central metal
atom in a tetrahedral geometry.
Ans.d
8.Assertion(A): A chelate are relatively more stable than non chelated complexes.
Reason(R): Complex containing ligands which can be easily replaced by other ligands are called
labile complex.
Ans.b
9.Assertion(A): Low spin tetrahedral complexes are rarely observed
Reason(R): The orbital splitting energies are not so large to force pairing.
Ans.a
10.Assertion(A): Optical isomerism is not shown by square planar complexes.
Reason(R): square planar complexes do not have chiral structure.
Ans.(a)
CASE BASED QUESTIONS - 1

Naturally occurring coordination compounds are vital to living organisms. Metal complexes play
a variety of important roles in biological systems. Many enzymes, the naturally occurring catalysts
that regulate biological processes, are metal complexes (metalloenzymes); for example,
carboxypeptidase, a hydrolytic enzyme important in digestion, contains a zinc ion coordinated to
several amino acid residues of the protein. Another enzyme, catalase, which is an efficient catalyst
for the decomposition of hydrogen peroxide, contains iron-porphyrin complexes. In both cases,
the coordinated metal ions are probably the sites of catalytic activity. Hemoglobin also contains
iron-porphyrin complexes, its role as an oxygen carrier being related to the ability of the iron
atoms to coordinate oxygen molecules reversibly. Other biologically important coordination
27
compounds include chlorophyll (a magnesium-porphyrin complex) and vitamin B12, a complex
of cobalt with a macrocyclic ligand known as corrin.
(a) Define the term coordination number.

(b) Differentiate between ambidentate ligand and bidentate ligand.
( c) Explain why Ligands having denticity of more than 1 increase the stability of coordination
compounds.
OR
What is chelation explain with example?

Werner turned his attention towards the geometrical arrangements of the coordinated groups
around the central cation. He was successful in explaining the cause behind optical and
geometrical isomerism of these compounds. Some examples are as follows:
1) [CoCl2(NH3)4]Cl complex: According to Werner, there are three structures possible for this
complex. These are planar, trigonal prism, octahedral. The number of possible isomers is 3 for
planar, 3 for trigonal prism and 2 for octahedral structure.
However, as we could isolate only two isomers of the compound, he concluded that geometrical
arrangement of the coordinated group around the central atom in this compound was octahedral.
In the case of several other complexes in which the coordination number of the central atom was
six, Werner was of the opinion that in all these cases the six coordinated complex have octahedral
geometry.
He also read the geometry of the complexes where the coordination number of the central metal
atom is 4. He gave two possible structures for such compounds: Square Planar and Tetrahedral.
Let us look at an example of the same.
2) [PtCl2(NH3)2] complex: In this complex, the coordination number of the metal is 4. According
to Werner, this complex exists in two isomeric forms, cis and trans. This shows that all the four
ligands lie in the same plane. Therefore, the structure should be a square planar or tetrahedral.
(a) Give the IUPAC name of [PtCl2(NH3)2].

(b) Differentiate between coordination complex and double salt?
(c) Draw the geometrical isomers of [CoCl2(NH3)4]Cl . Which is optically active and why?
OR
Explain optical activity in coordination compounds with example.
CASE BASED QUESTIONS – 2

According to valence bond theory the central metal atom or ion in the coordinate complex make
available a number of empty orbitals which form coordinate bonds with electron donor species
known as ligand. These vacant orbitals also get hybridised to form equivalent or hybrid orbitals
in case the metal atom or ion has no unpaired electron after binding with the ligand the complex
is diamagnetic and in case some unpaired electrons are present the complex is paramagnetic in
nature.
i) Which type of ligands lead to the outer orbital complexes?

ii) What is the state of hybridization of metal atom or ion in the outer orbital and inner orbital
complexes?
28
iii) Using valence bond theory explain type of hybridization in our outer orbital compacts
magnetic behavior spin only magnetic moment of: [Co(NH3)6]3+
OR
Using valence bond theory explain type of hybridization in outer orbital complexes magnetic
behavior spin only magnetic moment of: [Cr(H2O)6]3+
Ans-
i) strong field. Ligands lead to the formation of outer orbital complexes.
ii) It is sp3d2 in case of outer orbital complex and d2sp3 in case of the inner orbital complex.
iii) the element Co is in +3 oxidation state. As a strong field ligand, electron pairing is possible in
this case.
The hybridization is of d2sp3 type It is an inner orbital complex. Diamagnetic in nature.
Spin only magnetic moment is equal to zero.
OR
The element Cr is in +3 oxidation state as H2O is a weak field ligand, electron pairing is not
possible in this case.
The hybridization is of d2sp3 type. It is an inner orbital complex. Paramagnetic in nature.
Its spin only magnetic moment
Magnetic moment=√n(n+2)
=√3(3+2)=√15=3.87BM.

The coordination compounds are of great importance. These compounds are widely present in the
minerals, plant and animal worlds and are known to play many important functions in the area of
analytical chemistry metallurgy, biological systems, industry and medicine. Formation of
coordination compound is largely used in analytical chemistry for the qualitative detection and
quantitative estimation of metal ions. Coordination compounds also find several important
applications in the field of medicine. Several coordination compounds are also used as antidotes
to poisoning caused by the ingestion of poisonous metals by human beings.
1. Which complexing material is added to vegetable oil to remove the ill effect of undesired metal
ions?
2. Which complex is used in the treatment of cancer?
3. How would you detect the presence of Nickel in a food sample?
OR
What is Chelate therapy?
Ans. 1. EDTA(ethylene diamine Tetra acetate)

2. Cisplatin
3. With the help of dimethyl glyoxime which forms are red complex with Ni2+ ions
OR
Chelate therapy is used for the removal of excess of metal ions present in toxic amounts in the
body.
29
UNIT-VI
HALOALKANES & HALOARENES
MCQ
1. Pure CHCl3 and pure CHI3 can be distinguished by
a. Treating with litmus paper
b. Treating with aq. KOH.
c. Treating with HCl.
d. Treating with aqueous AgNO3
Ans. d
2. The C − Cl bond in chlorobenzene as compared with C − Cl bond in methyl chloride is
a. Longer and weaker
b. Shorter and weaker
c. Shorter and stronger
d. Longer and stronger
Ans. c
3. Arrange the following compounds in decreasing order of reactivity in SN1 reaction :-
Ph–CH2–Cl
(p) (q) (r) (s)

a. p >q > r > s
b. r > p > q > s
c. q > p > r > s
d. r > s > p > r
Ans. c
4. Arrange the following compound in decreasing order of reactivity in SN2 reaction.
(p) (q) (r) (s)

Choose the correct option:
a. q > r > s > p
b. p > q > r > s
c. b > c > a > d
d. c > a > b > d
Ans. b
5. Arrange the following compound in decreasing order of their boiling point
I. Bromopentane
II. 2-Bromo, 2 – methylpropane
III. 2- Bromobutane
a. I > II > III
b. II > III > I
c. I > III > II
d. III > II > I
Ans. c
30
6. Correct order of reactivity towards nucleophilic substitution reaction of following is :-
a. II > I > IV > III

b. III > IV > I > II
c. III > II > I > II
d. IV > II > III > I
Ans. a
7. Which of the following has highest dipole moment:
a. CH3Cl
b. CH3F
c. CH3Br
d. CH3I
Ans. a
8. Which one of the following has the highest dipole moment?
a. CH2Cl2
b. CHCl3
c. CCl4
d. CH4
Ans. a
9. What is 3- Bromopropene common name?
a. Vinyl bromide
b. Allyl bromide
c. Tert- butyl bromide
d. Prolpylidene bromide
Ans. b
10. What is the catalyst in the chloroalkane reaction of a primary alcohol with HCl?
a. red phosphorous
b. concentrated H2SO4
c. anhydrous ZnCl2
d. pyridine
Ans. c
11. Compared to haloalkanes, the reactivity of haloarenes towards nucleophilic substitution
reactions is _________
a) low
b) high
c) very high
d) equal
Ans: a
12. What is the nature of the circled C atom in the following compound?
31
a) sp2 hybridized
b) allylic
c) benzylic
d) vinylic
Answer: c
13. Which of the following is a vinylic halide?
a) CH2=CHCHCl2
b) CH3CHClCH3
c) (CH3)2C=CHCH2Cl
d) CH3CH=CClCH2CH3
Answer: d
14. Which of the following cannot be a catalyst in the electrophilic substitution of arenes?
a) FeCl3
b) FeBr3
c) NH3
d) AlCl3
Answer: c
15. the ortho and para isomers formed by electrophilic substitution of arenes can be easily separated
due to the large difference in their ________
a) densities
b) solubilities
c) melting points
d) boiling points
Answer: c
16. Which of the following has the highest boiling point?
a) Chloromethane
b) Dichloromethane
c) Trichloromethane
d) Tetrachloromethane
Answer: d
17. The boiling points of isomeric alkyl halides _______ with increase in branching.
a) increase
b) decrease
c) remains same
d) cannot be determined
Answer: b
18. What is the correct order of boiling of isomeric dichlorobenzenes?
a) ortho>meta>para
b) para>meta>ortho
c) para>ortho>meta
d) meta>ortho>para
Answer: c
19. Which of the following has the highest density?
a) CH3Cl
b) CH2Cl2
c) CHCl3
32
d) CCl4
Answer: d
20. The C-Cl bond length in chlorobenzene is less than the C-Cl bond length in chloromethane
because of the ________
a) resonance effect in haloarenes
b) difference in hybridisation of carbon in C-Cl bond
c) instability of phenyl cation
d) possible repulsion between nucleophile and chlorobenzene
Answer: b
ASSERTION REASON TYPE QUESTIONS:

These questions consist of two statements, each printed as Assertion and Reason. While answering
these questions, you are required to choose any one of the following four responses.
(a) If both Assertion and Reason are correct and the Reason is a correct explanation of the
Assertion.
(b) If both Assertion and Reason are correct but Reason is not a correct explanation of the
Assertion.
(c) If the Assertion is correct but Reason is incorrect.
(d) If the Assertion is incorrect but Reason is correct.
1. Assertion : CHCl3 is stored in dark bottles.
Reason : CHCl3 is oxidised in dark.
Answer: c
2. Assertion : Phosphorus chlorides (tri and penta) are preferred over thionyl chloride for the
preparation of alkyl chlorides from alcohols.
Reason : The order of reactivity of alcohols with a given haloacid is 3°>2°>1°.
Answer d
3. Assertion : Presence of a nitro group at ortho or para position increases the reactivity of
haloarenes towards nucleophilic substitution.
Reason : Nitro group, being an electron withdrawing group decreases the electron density over
the benzene ring.
Answer: a
4. Assertion: The boiling points of alkyl halides decrease in the order RI> RBr> RCl>RF
Reason: The boiling points of alkyl chlorides, bromides and iodides are considerably higher than
that of the hydrocarbon of comparable molecular mass.
Answer: b
5. Assertion: SN2 reaction proceeds with inversion of configuration.
Reason: SN2 reaction occurs in one step
Answer: b
6. Assertion : Haloalkanes react with KCN to form alkyl cyanides as main product while AgCN
forms isocyanides.
Reason : CN– is an ambident nucleophile.
Answer : b
7. Assertion : Phosphorus trichloride or Phosphorus pentachloride are preferred over thionyl
chloride (SOCl2) for the preparation of alkyl chlorides from alcohols.
Reason : Reaction of alcohols with SOCl2 gives all gaseous products.
Answer : c
33
8. Assertion : Nitro group at ortho and para position increases the reactivity of Haloarene towards
nucleophilic substitution reaction.
Reason : Nitro group is electron withdrawing group so it decreases the electron density over
benzene ring.
Answer : a
9. Assertion : Iodoalkane can be prepared from alcohol by the reaction of KI and sulphuric acid.
Reason : sulphuric oxidises HI into I2.
Answer : d
10. Assertion : Chloroform is generally stored in dark coloured bottle filled to the brim.
Reason : Because in presence of oxygen and sunlight it produce phosphine gas which is very
harmful for us.
Answer : c
COMPETANCY BASED QUESTION - 1

Scientists discover CFC is not alone in destroying Ozone. There is another culprit
While climate change continues to affect the
mainlands, the cold frigid regions of Antarctica
and the Arctic are no different to it. While the
role of chlorofluorocarbons (CFC) has been
widely established, an international team of
researchers has found a new element that is
damaging the Ozone over the Arctic.
The new culprit is Iodine.
Over a hundred researchers from 20 countries,
including the Indian Institute of Tropical Meteorology (IITM), Pune, in collaboration with Extreme
Environments Research Laboratory, Switzerland, The Cyprus Institute, and NOAA Physical
Sciences Laboratory, joined hands to analyse the changes in the Arctic. The researchers found that
the chemical reactions between Iodine and Ozone were the second highest contributor to the loss of
surface Ozone.
HOW IS IODINE DAMAGING OZONE?

The team of researchers conducted observations from March to October 2020 on a ship in the high
Arctic region and found that Iodine enhances springtime tropospheric Ozone depletion. They
developed a chemical model to show that chemical reactions between Iodine and Ozone are the
second highest contributor to the loss of surface Ozone.
The study further suggests that the atmospheric increase in Iodine loading due to enhanced
anthropogenic Ozone-induced ocean Iodine emissions, as well as the thinning and shrinking of
Arctic sea ice expected in the near future, will probably lead to increases in Iodine emissions.
"These results indicate that iodine chemistry could play an increasingly important role in the future
and must be considered for accurate quantification of the ozone budget in the Arctic," IITM said in
a release.
1. What are Freons?

2. Give any one use of chloroflourocarbons.
34
3. Do you think the use of CFCs should be banned? And What will happen if ozone layer is
destroyed?
OR
How does freon-12 deplete ozone layer?

The characteristics reactions of haloalkanes are nucleophilic substitution reactions. The polarity of
the carban- halogen bond is responsible for the nucleophilic substitution reactions of alkyl halides.
These reactions broadly occur by two different mechanism SN1 and SN2. SN1 reaction are two step
reactions involving carbocations as the intermediates. The reactivity in SN1 reactions depend upon
the relative stability of carbocation. In contrast, SN2 reactions are concerted reaction which occur
through a transition state and their relative rates depend upon the steric factors. S N1 reaction of
optically active haloalkanes usually give racemic products with some degree of inversion but SN2
reactions are always accompanied by only inversion of configuration.
1. Write the structure of an isomer of compound C4H9Br which is most reactive towards SN1
reaction.
OR
Arrange the compounds in order of reactivity towards SN1 displacement
1-Bromo-3-methylbutane, 2-Bromo-2-methylbutane, 3-Bromo-2-methylbutane
2. What happens when CH3Br is treated with KCN ?
3. Aqueous solution of KOH hydrolyses CH3CHClCH2CH3 and CH3CH2CH2CH2Cl which one of
these is more easily hydrolysed and Why ?

Alkyl halide (haloalkanes) and aryl halide (haloarenes) are formed when hydrogen atoms in an
aliphatic or aromatic hydrocarbon are replaced by halogen atoms. Haloalkanes have halogen
atom(s) attached to an alkyl group’s sp3 hybridized carbon atom(s), whereas haloarenes have
halogen atom(s) attached to an aryl group’s sp 2 hybridized carbon atom(s). Many halogen-
containing organic compounds exist in nature, and some of them have clinical applications. Alkyl
halides are prepared by the free radical halogenations of alkanes, addition of halogen acids to
alkenes, replacement of -OH group of alcohols with halogens using phosphorus halides, thionyl
chloride, or halogen acids. Aryl halides are prepared by electrophilic substitution to arene. Fluorine
and iodides are best prepared by the halogen exchange method. These compounds find wide
applications in industry as well as in day-to-day life. These compounds are generally used as
solvents and as starting materials for the synthesis of a large number of organic compounds.
1. Which is the best method for the conversion of an alcohol into an alkyl chloride?
Answer: By using SOCl2 in presence of pyridine
2. A solution of KOH hydrolyses CH3CHClCH2CH3 and CH3CH2CH2CH2Cl. Which one of
these is more easily hydrolysed?
Answer: In aq. KOH SN1 mechanism takes place and the formed carbocation is stabilized. Thus
2° carbocation is more stable carbocation than 1° therefore hydrolyses faster than
CH3CH2CH2CH2Cl
35
2.Give a chemical test to distinguish between C2H5Br and C6H5Br.
Answer: Both are heated with aqueous NaOH. C2H5Br gives ethanol and NaBr, which on
reacting with AgNO3, gives yellow precipitate of AgBr. C6H5Br does not respond to this test.
3. Why the C – Cl bond length in chlorobenzene is shorter than that in CH3 – Cl.
Answer: In haloalkanes, the halogen atom is attached
to sp3-hybridized carbon while in haloarenes it is attached to sp2 -hybridized carbon whose size
is smaller than sp3 orbital carbon. Therefore C – Cl bond in chloro-benzene is shorter than alkyl
chloride.
4. Chlorobenzene is extremely less reactive towards a nucleophilic substitution reaction. Give
two reasons for the same.
Answer: The reasons are:(i) Due to resonance/diagrammatic repre-sentation, C – Cl bond
acquires a partial double bond character. As a result, the C – Cl bond in chlorobenzene is shorter
and hence stronger. Thus, cleavage of C – Cl bond in benzene becomes difficult which makes it
less reactive towards nucleophilic substitution.
Due to repulsion between nucleophile and electron rich arenes.

OR
(a) Why does p-dichlorobenzene have a higher m.p. than its o- and m-isomers?
(b)A hydrocarbon C5H12 gives only one mono-chlorination product. Identify the
hydrocarbon.
(b) Answer:
Answer: (a) p-isomers are comparatively more symmetrical and fit closely in the crystal
lattice, thus require more heat to break these strong forces of attraction. Therefore higher
melting point than o- and m-isomers.
(c)
(b) Since there is only one monochloro derivative, the compound contains 12 equivalent
hydrogen in four equivalent CH3. The compound is 2, 2-dimethyl propane

In case of optically active alkyl halides, the product formed as a result of SN2 mechanism has the
inverted configuration as compared to the reactant. This is because the nucleophile attaches itself
on the side opposite to the one where the halogen atom is present. When (–)-2-bromooctane is
allowed to react with sodium hydroxide, (+)-octan-2-ol is formed with the –OH group occupying
the position opposite to what bromide had occupied. Thus, SN2 reactions of optically active halides
are accompanied by inversion of configuration. In case of optically active alkyl halides, SN1
reactions are accompanied by racemisation. Can you think of the reason why it happens? Actually
the carbocation formed in the slow step being sp2 hybridised is planar (achiral). The attack of the
nucleophile may be accomplished from either side resulting in a mixture of products, one having
the same configuration (the –OH attaching on the same position as halide ion) and the other having
36
opposite configuration (the –OH attaching on the side opposite to halide ion). This may be
illustrated by hydrolysis of optically active 2-bromobutane, which results in the formation of (±)-
butan-2-ol.
1. Why SN1 reactions are accompanied by racemization in optically active alkyl halides.
Answer: SN1 reactions are accompanied by racemization in optically active alkyl halides because
the nucleophile will have an equal opportunity to attack on sp2 hybridised carbocation from either
sides to give a racemic mixture.
2. Write the structure of an isomer of compound C4H9Br which is most reactive towards SN1
reaction.
Answer: (2-Bromo-2-methyl propane) or tert-butyl bromide is most reactive towards SN1 reaction
as it Br can form 3° carbocation.
3. What is the difference between SN1 and SN2?(any one difference)
Answer: The SN1 reaction is a unimolecular reaction, while the SN2 reaction is a bimolecular
reaction. In the SN1 reaction, the nucleophile attacks the carbon atom of the alkyl halide. In the SN2
reaction, the nucleophile attacks the carbon atom of the alkyl halide in the presence of a base.
4. Is (±)-Butan-2-ol optically inactive?if yes then give reason.
Answer: (±)-Butan-2-ol is optically inactive because in racemic mix one type of rotation is cancelled
by other.
OR
Why does SN2 result in inversion of configuration? Give one example.
Answer: In SN2 reaction, the nucleophile attacks from the backside of the leaving group. So, the
configuration of molecule is inverted.
37
UNIT-VII
ALCOHOL, PHELOS AND EHTERS
MCQ
1. The C-O bond length in phenol is less than that in methanol because of
a) Partial double bond character
b) conjugation of unshared electron pair of oxygen with the aromatic ring
c)sp2 hybridized state of carbon to which oxygen is attached
d) All of these.
Ans. d
2. Electrophile used in Kolbe’s reaction for the preparation of salicylic acid is
a) CO2 b) :CCl2
-
c) C6H5O d) CHCl3
Ans. b
3. The white precipitate formed when Phenol is treated with bromine water is
a) 4-Bromophenol
b)2,4,6-tribromophenol
c) mixture of 2-Bromophenol and 4-Bromophenol
d)Picric acid
Ans. b
4. Reaction of CH3CH2OCH3 with HI involves
(a) SN2 attack of I- on the CH3CH2OCH3
(b) SN1 attack of I- on the CH3CH2OCH3
(c) SN2 attack of I- on the oxonium ion of CH3CH2OCH3
(d) SN1 attack of I- on oxonium ion of CH3CH2OCH3
Ans. a
5. Anisole is obtained from Phenol by using
a) C6H5OH , CH3ONa b) C6H5OH, NaOH, CH3Cl
c) C6H5OH ,Na2CO3, CH3Cl d) C6H5OH, NaCl, CH3ONa
Ans. b
6. Phenol is less soluble in water. It is due to-
a) Non-polar nature of phenol
b) Acidic nature of -OH group
c) large Non-polar hydrocarbon part in it
4. None of the above
Ans. c
7. Three compounds A, B, C of similar molecular mass were tested for their boiling points. It was
found that compound B has the highest boiling point. Compound B is more likely to be
a) Alcohol b) aldehyde
c) haloalkane d) alkane
Ans. a
8. Salicylaldehyde can be prepared from which of the following reactants?
a) Phenol and chloroform
b) Phenol, chloroform and sodium hydroxide
c) Phenol, carbon tetrachloride and NaOH
38
d) Phenol, carbon tetrachloride
Ans. b
9. 4-Methoxyacetone is obtained by the reaction of anisole with
a) CH3Cl +Anhy FeCl3 b) C6H5COCl
c) CH3COCl+ CS2 d) CH3COCl+anhy. AlCl3
Ans. d
10. Sodium salt of benzene sulphonic acid on fusion with caustic soda gives
a) Benzene b) Phenol
c) Benzaldehyde d) Benzoic acid
Ans. B
11. A compound containing hydroxyl group also known as Ordinary spirit, used for
polishing wooden furniture is
(a) Isopropyl alcohol (b) Methanol
(c) Ethanol (d) Propan-1-ol
Ans. c
12. Arrange the given compound on the basis of the increasing boiling point Pentan-1-ol, butan-1-
ol, butan-2-ol, ethanol, propan-1-ol, methanol.
(a) Methanol< ethanol< propan-1-ol <butan-2-ol< butan-1-ol <pentan-1-ol.
(b) Ethanol< methanol< propan-1-ol <butan-2-ol< butan-1-ol <pentan-1-ol.
(c) propan-1-ol< Methanol< ethanol <butan-2-ol< butan-1-ol <pentan-1-ol.
(d) Methanol< ethanol< propan-1-ol <butan-2-ol< butan-1-ol <pentan-1-ol.
Ans. d.
13. Lucas reagent is
(a) Anhydrous AlCl3/ conc.HCl (b) Anhydrous ZnCl2/conc.HCl
(c) Anhydrous AlCl3/ conc.H2SO4 (d) Anhydrous ZnCl2 / conc.H2SO4
Ans. (b) Anhydrous ZnCl2/conc.HCl
14. Riya used two oxidizing agent A and B for the oxidation of alcohols. She observed an aldehyde
produced with A and a carboxylic acid produced with B. A and B may be
(a) A- Acidified KMnO4, B- Pyridinium chlorochromate
(b) A - Pyridinium chlorochromate B – Conc. H2SO4
(c) A- Pyridinium chlorochromate B- Acidified KMnO4
(d) A- Conc. H2SO4 B - Pyridinium chlorochromate
Ans. c
15. Which of the following compounds gives an alkene when its vapours are passes over heated
copper at 573K?
(a) Propan-1-ol
(b) Propan-2-ol
(c) 2-Methylpropan-1-ol
(d) 2-Methylpropan-2-ol
Ans. b
16. Which of the following alcohols is the most reactive and least reactive towards esterification
reaction?
(a) CH3OH , CH3CH2OH
(b) CH3CH2OH, (CH3)2CHOH
(c) (CH3)2CHOH, (CH3)3COH
(d) CH3OH, (CH3)3COH
39
Ans. (d)
17. Denatured alcohol is also known as
(a) Rectified sprit (b) Wood spirit
(c) Methylated Sprit (c) Absolute alcohol
Ans: (c)
18. The IUPAC name of
is
(a) 2-Bromo-3-methylbut-2-en-1-ol
(b) 3-Bromo-2-methylbut-2-en-4-ol
(c) 2-Bromo-1-hydroxy-3-methylbut-2-ene
(d)2-Bromo-1-hydroxy-3-methylbut-1-ene
Ans. (a)
ASSERTION REASON TYPE QUESTIONS

Given below are two statements labelled as Assertion (A) and Reason (R) Select the most
appropriate answer from the options given below:
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true but R is false.
(d) A is false but R is true.
1. Assertion (A)- Propan-1-ol boils at a higher temperature than propan-2-ol.

Reason (R)- Propan-2-ol is a secondary alcohol and has some degree of branching.
Ans. (a)
2. Assertion (A)– Tertiary alcohol undergoes acidic dehydration relatively at a lower temperature
than primary alcohol.
Reason (R)- Acidic dehydration of alcohols occurs through the formation of a carbocation.
Ans. (b)
3. Assertion (A)– Propanol is more soluble than butanol.
Reason (R)- Solubility of alcohols in water increases with increase in molecular mass.
Ans. (c)
4. Assertion (A)- The C - O - C bond angle in ether is slightly greater than tetrahedral angle, while
the C-O-H bond angle is slightly less than tetrahedral angle.
Reason (R)– There is more repulsive interaction between two bulky alkyl groups in ethers so
bond angle is 111.70.
Ans. (a)
5. Assertion (A)– Alcohols are not easily protonated than phenols.
Reason (R)- In phenols electron pair of oxygen atom is delocalised due to resonance.
Ans. (d)
6. Assertion (A)-The bond angle in ether is less than tetrahedral angle.
Reason (R)- There is strong repulsive interaction between the two bulky (–R) groups in ether.
Ans. (d)
40
7. Assertion (A): Phenols are more reactive towards electrophilic substitution reaction compared to
benzene.
Reason (R)- OH group in phenol increases the electron density in ortho and para position due to
+M effect.
Ans. (a)
8. Assertion (A) -Only warm water is required in the formation of picric acid from 2,4,6-
trinitrochlorobenzene.
Reason (R)- Presence of three electron withdrawing groups make it unstable.
Ans. (c)
9. Assertion (A): Arylhalides are not used in the preparation of ethers by Williamson’s synthesis
Reason (R) - Aryl halides undergo elimination reaction in presence of alkoxide.
Ans. (c)
10. Assertion (A)- In Phenol,bromination can take place even in absence of lewis acid.
Reason (R)- Monobromination occurs in presence of CHCl3 or CS2 at low temperature.
Ans. (b)
CASE STUDY BASED QUESTIONS - 1

The following questions are case -based questions. Each question has an internal choice and
carries 4 (1+1+2) marks each. Read the passage carefully and answer the questions that
follow.
Ethanol (ethyl alcohol, CH3CH2OH) is one of a group of chemical compounds (alcohols) with
molecules that contain a hydroxyl group (OH) bonded to a carbon atom. Ethanol is produced
through the fermentation of agricultural products such as sugarcane, corn, and manioc, among
others. Most ethanol produced worldwide is from sugarcane, mainly
in Brazil. In the United States, ethanol is made from corn.
Ethanol is used as a high-octane fuel in vehicles. More than 4 million cars run on pure, hydrated
ethanol in Brazil, and all gasoline in the country is blended with anhydrous ethanol (20–26%
ethanol), as a result of a government program to make ethanol from sugarcane, in place since the
1970s. In the United States, there is a similar program being started and the number of vehicles
using ethanol is increasing.
Ethanol makes an excellent motor fuel: it has a motor octane number that exceeds that of gasoline
and a vapour pressure that is lower than that of gasoline, which results in lower evaporative
emission. Ethanol is a member of the alcohol family and has the chemical formula C2H5OH in
which C, H, and O refer to carbon, hydrogen, and oxygen atoms, in that order.
Ethanol is a colorless, clear liquid that looks like water and is completely miscible with it. Ethanol
has a somewhat sweet flavor when diluted with water; a more pungent, burning taste when
concentrated; and an agreeable ether-like odor. It is widely used in medicines, lotions, tonics,
colognes, rubbing compounds, and solvents and also for organic synthesis. Beverage ethanol
dates back to ancient times, with Sumerians and Babylonians making beer before 6000 bc. It was
also among the earliest compounds investigated with the study of ethanol from distillation of
wine likely in 11th-century Italy.
Answer the following questions

1. What is fermentation?
41
Ans. Fermentation is a metabolic process that produces chemical changes in organic substances
through the action of enzymes.
2. What enzymes are used in the fermentation of sucrose? Ans. Invertase and zymase.
3. What happens when fermentation mixture gets air.
Ans. If air gets into fermentation mixture, the oxygen of air oxidises ethanol to ethanoic acid
which in turn destroys the taste of alcoholic drinks.
OR
How does alcohol affect the health?
Ans.(i) Ingestion of ethanol acts on the central nervous system.
(ii) In moderate amounts, it affects judgment and lowers inhibitions.
(iii) Higher concentrations cause nausea and loss of consciousness. Even at higher
concentrations, it interferes with spontaneous respiration and can be fatal.

(i) Though n-propyl alcohol and isopropyl alcohol have similar molecular masses yet n- propyl
alcohol shows higher boiling point than isopropyl alcohol. Why?
OR
Why alcohols have higher boiling point than haloalkanes?
(ii) Why do alcohols soluble in water?
Ans. Because alcohols form hydrogen bond with water.
(iii) Aastha took four isomeric alcohols which have similar molar masses i.e. 74. How will she
arrange these alcohols in decreasing order of their acidic nature. Write the formula of these
compounds.
Ans. n-butanol > isobutyl alcohol > butan-2-ol > ter-butyl alcohol

Ethers are generally unreactive and unsuitable for direct nucleophilic substitution reactions since
the alkoxy groups are strong bases and, therefore, poor leaving groups. However, ethers readily
undergo acidic-cleavage reactions. Chemical substitution processes that result in the cleavage of
ethers are referred to as ether cleavage. Acidic cleavage of ethers can occur either by the SN1
mechanism or SN2 mechanism, depending on the substrate. Reactivity of the halogen acids with
ethers increases relative to the nucleophilicity of the halide ions.
42
1. Ethers are less reactive than alcohols and phenols because
(a) The bond in ether is less polar and stronger compared to bond in alcohols and phenols.
(b) The bond in ether is more polar and stronger compared to bond in alcohols and phenols.
(c) The bond in ether is less polar and weaker compared to bond in alcohols and phenols.
(d) The bond in ether is more polar and weaker compared to bond in alcohols and phenols
2. The order of reactivity of hydrogen halides towards ether is
(a) HI<HBr<HCl (b) HI > HBr > HCl (c) HI>HBr<HCl (d) HCl >HI>HBr
3. What are the products when the following ethers are cleaved with concentrated HI?
a ) tert-butyl ethyl ether b) ethyl isopropyl ether
OR
Acidic cleavage of ethers can occur either by the SN1 mechanism or SN2 mechanism,
depending on the substrate.Explain it.
43
UNIT-VIII
ALDEHYDES, KETONES AND CARBOXYLIC ACIDS
MCQs
1. Which of the following compounds is most reactive towards nucleophilic addition reactions?
(a) (b)
(c) (c)
Ans. (a)
2. The correct order of increasing acidic strength is .
(a) Phenol < Ethanol < Chloroacetic acid < Acetic acid
(b) Ethanol < Phenol < Chloroacetic acid < Acetic acid
(c) Ethanol < Phenol < Acetic acid < Chloroacetic acid
(d) Chloroacetic acid < Acetic acid < Phenol < Ethanol
Ans. (c)
3. Cannizaro’s reaction is not given by .
(a) (b)
(c) (d)
Ans. (d)
4. Through which of the following reactions the number of carbon atoms can be increased in the
chain?
(a) Clemmensen Reduction
(b) Cannizaro’s reaction
(c) Aldol condensation
(d) HVZ reaction
Ans. (c)
5. The reagent which does not react with both, acetone and benzaldehyde.
(a) Sodium hydrogen sulphite
(b) Phenyl hydrazine
(c) Fehling’s solution
(d) Grignard reagent
Ans. (c)
6. What is the test to differentiate between penta-2-one and pentan-3-one?
(a) Iodoform test
(b) Benedict’s test
(c) Fehling’s test
(d) Aldol condensation test
Ans. (a)
7. In order of reactivity of CH3CHO, CH3COC2H5 and CH3COCH3 is
(a) CH3CHO > CH3COCH3 > CH3COC2H5
(b) CH3COC2H5 > CH3COCH3 > CH3CHO
44
(c) CH3COCH3 > CH3CHO > CH3COC2H5
(d) CH3COCH3 > CH3COC2H5> CH3CHO
Ans. (a)
8. Which one of the following compounds with molecular formula C5H10 will yield acetone on
ozonolysis-
(a) 3-Methylbut-1-ene
(b) Cyclopentane
(c) 3-Methylpent-1-ene
(d) 2,3-Dimethylbut-2-ene
Ans. (d)
9. In Clemmensen Reduction carbonyl compound is treated with______.
(a) Zinc amalgam + HCl
(b) Sodium amalgam + HCl
(c) Zinc amalgam + nitric acid
(d) Sodium amalgam + HNO3
Ans. (a)
10. Which of the following compounds will give butanone on oxidation with alkaline KMnO4
solution?
(a) Butan-1-ol
(b) Butan-2-ol
(c) Both of these
(d) None of these
Ans. (b)
11. Which product is formed when CHO is treated with concentrated KOH solution?
Ans-(b)
12. The IUPAC Name of compound is:
(a) 2-Formylhex-2-ene-3-one
(b) 5-methyl-4-oxo-hex-2-en-5-al
(c) 3-keto-2-methylhex-5-enal
(d) 3-keto-2-methylhex-4-enal
Ans-(d)
13. Reduction of aldehydes and ketones into hydrocarbons using zinc amalgam and conc HCl is
called:
(a) Dow process
(b) Cope reduction
(c) Wolf-kishner reduction
45
(d) Clemmenson’s Reduction
Ans. (d)
14. The correct order of acidity in given compounds
(i) FCH2 COOH (ii) ClCH2 COOH (iii) NO2 CH2 COOH (iv) CH3 COOH
(a) i > ii > iii > iv
(b) iv > iii > ii > i
(c) iii > iv > i > ii
(d) iii > i > ii > i
Ans- (d)
15. When a mixture of sodium benzoate and soda lime is heated, it produces
(a)benzoate of calcium
(b)benzene
(c)sodium benzoate (sodium benzoate)
(d)methane
Ans. (b)
16. Among the following which has the lowest pka value:
(a) CH3 COOH
(b) HCOOH
(c) (CH3 )2 CHCOOH
(d) CH3 —CH2 —OH
Ans- b
17. Which of the following compound do not undergo aldol condensation
(a) CH3 —CHO
(b) C6H5 —CHO
(c) CH3—CO—CH3
(d) (CH3)3C—CHO
Ans-(d)
9. Which of the following reactions will not result in the formation of carbon carbon bond?
(a) Cannizaro's reaction
(b) Wurtz reaction
(c) Friedel craft reaction
(d) Reimer Tiemann reactio
Ans- (a)
10. Increasing order of rate of HCN addition to compound (i-iv) is
(i) HCHO (ii) CH3COCH3 (iii) PHCOCH3 (iv) PHCOPH
(a) iv < ii < iii < i
(b) iv < iii < ii < i
(c) iii < iv < ii < i
(d) i < ii < iii < iv
Ans- b

The question given below consist of an Assertion and the Reason. Use the following key to
choose the appropriate answer.
(a) If assertion and reason both are correct statements and reason is correct explanation for
assertion.
46
(b) If assertion and reason both are correct statements but reason is not correct explanation for
assertion
(c) If assertion is correct statement but reason is wrong statement.
(d) If assertion is wrong statement but reason is correct statement
1. Assertion: Aldehydes and ketones, both react with Tollens’ reagent to form silver mirror.
Reason: Both, aldehydes and ketones contain a carbonyl group.
Ans- (d)
2. Assertion: Formaldehyde is a planar molecule.
Reason: It contains sp2 hybridised carbon atom.
Ans- (a)
3. Assertion: Compounds containing –CHO group are easily oxidised to corresponding carboxylic
acids.
Reason: Carboxylic acids can be reduced to alcohols by treatment with LiAlH4
Ans- (b)
4. Assertion: Aromatic aldehydes and formaldehyde undergo Cannizaro reaction.
Reason: Aromatic aldehydes are almost as reactive as formaldehyde.
Ans-(c)
5. Assertion (A) : Reactivity of ketones is more than aldehydes.
Reason (R) : The carbonyl carbon of ketones is less electrophilic as compared to aldehydes.
Ans- (d)
6. Assertion(A) : The boiling and melting points of amides are higher than corresponding acids.
Reason(R): It is due to stronger intramolecular hydrogen bonding in their molecules.
Ans. (c)
2. Assertion(A): Aldehydes and ketones have higher boiling point than alcohols.
Reason(R): Alcohols are associated by intermolecular hydrogen bonding while aldehydes
and ketones lack hydrogen bonding.
Ans. (d)
3. Assertion(A): The order of reactivity of aromatic Aldehydes and ketones towards
nucleophilic addition reaction is C6H5CHO > C6H5 COCH3> C6H5CO C6H5
Reason(R): Aromatic Aldehydes and ketones are less reactive than the corresponding
aliphatic aldehydes and ketones.
Ans. (a)
4. Assertion (A): LiAlH4 is used as a reducing agent in organic synthesis.
Reason(R): LiAlH4 is a hydride donor.
Ans. (a)
5 Assertion (A): Aldehydes and ketones both reacts with Tollen’s reagent.
Reason(R): Both aldehydes and ketones contain a carbonyl group.
Ans. (d)
CASE BASED QUESTION - 1

The general formula of a carboxylic acid is R-COOH, where COOH refers to the carboxyl group,
and R refers to the rest of the molecule to which this group is attached. In this carboxyl group,
there exists a carbon which shares a double bond with an oxygen atom and a single bond with a
hydroxyl group.
47
A carboxylic acid’s general formula is R-COOH, where COOH denotes the carboxyl group and
R denotes the remainder of the molecule to which this group is linked. There is a carbon in this
carboxyl group that has a double connection with an oxygen atom and a single bond with a
hydroxyl group.
The carboxylate ion, produced from the removal of a proton from the carboxyl group, is stabilized
by the presence of two oxygen atoms (through which the negative charge can move). Some
common examples of carboxylic acids include acetic acid (a component of vinegar) and Formic
acid. Benzoic acid is a compound comprising a benzene ring core carrying a carboxylic acid
substituent.

1. Why does benzoic acid not undergo Friedel-Craft reaction ?
Ans. – COOH group in C6 H5 COOH is an Electron withdrawing Group which deactivates the
benzene ring. Hence electrophilic substitution becomes difficult
2. Carboxylic acids do not give characteristic reactions of carbonyl group.
OR
Give simple tests to distinguish between the following pairs of compounds. (i) Benzaldehyde and
Benzoic acid
Ans-Add NaHCO3 , benzoic acid will give brisk ettervscence whereas benzaldehyde will not give
this test.
3. Give reasons for the following :
(i) Why pka of F-CH2 COOH is lower than that of Cl–CH2 COOH
(ii) Carboxylic acids are stronger acids than phenols.
Ans- (i) Stronger –I effect of fluorine makes F-CH2 COOH to be stronger acid than Cl–CH2 COOH
and less pka
(ii) Dispersal of –ve charge on carboxylate ions than phenoxide ion.

Unlike ketones, aldehydes can be easily oxidised to carboxylic acids using a variety of oxidising
agents. These reagents can be chromic acid, chromium trioxide, permanaganate or silver oxide.
You have already read about oxidation with some of these reagents. Silver ions selectively oxidise
—CHO group. This forms the basis of Tollen’s test. It involves the addition of a mixture of
aqueous silver nitrate and aqueous ammonia which is known as Tollen’s reagent to the carbonyl
compound. Tollen’s reagent contains [Ag(NH3)2]+ complex ion. If an aldehyde is present, it gets
oxidised to the carboxylic acid whereas the Ag +I ions are reduced to form silver metal which gets
deposited on the walls of the test tube and this gives a mirror like shining appearance
Answer following questions-

1. Benzaldehyde gives a positive test with Tollen’s reagent but not with Fehling’s and Benedict
solutions. Why ?
Ans- It is due to stronger oxidizing nature of Tollen’s reagent as compared to Fehling and
Benedict’s solution and cannot oxidise benzaldehyde to benzoic acid.
2. Write a test to differentiate between pentan-2-one and pentan-3-one.
48
An- The iodoform test can distinguish Pentan-2-one and pentan-3-one.
3. Convert :
(i) Benzaldehyde to acetophenone
(ii) Acetaldehyde to 2-butanol
Ans-
OR
Would you expect benzaldehyde to be more reactive or less reactive in nucleophilic addition
reactions than propanal ? Explain your answer.
Ans. Carbon atom of carbonyl is C6H5CHO is less reactive than that of propanal.
C6H5CHO less polar due to resonance.

Many nucleoplihic additions to carbon-oxygen double bonds are reversible; the overall result of
these reactions depends, therefore, on the position of an equilibrium. This behavior contrasts
markedly with most electrophilic additions to carbon-carbon double bonds and with nucleophilic
substitutions at saturated carbon atoms. The latter reactions are essentially irreversible, and overall
results are a functions of relative reaction rates.
Answer following questions-

i. Arrange following in increasing order of their nucleophilic addition reaction:
Ethanal, Propanal, Propanone, Butanone
Ans - (i) Butanone < Propanone < Propanal < Ethanal
ii. There are two – NH2 groups in semicarbazide. However, only one such group is involved in the
formation of semicarbazones.
Ans- Because one of the – NH2 in semicarbazide is involved in the resonance with -CO- group.
iii. Give the structure and IUPAC name of the product formed when propanone is reacted with
methyl magnesium bromide followed by hydrolysis
Ans- IUPAC name : 2-methylpropan-2-ol
OR
Which one of the following will be most acidic and why?
49
Butanoic acid, 2-Chlorobutanoic acid, 3-Chlorobutanoic acid, 4-Chlorobutanoic acid
Ans- 2-chlorobutanoic acid will be the most acidic as it is the closest to the -COOH group.

Primary alcohols can be oxidized to aldehydes and carboxylic acids:
The oxidation of aldehydes to carboxylic acids in aqueous solutions is easier than oxidation of
primary alcohols to aldehydes; thus it is difficult to stop the oxidation at the aldehyde stage.
[Notice that dehydrogenation of an organic compound corresponds to oxidation, whereas
hydrogenation (see Problem 12.3) corresponds to reduction.] Therefore. in most laboratory
preparations we must rely on special conditions to prepare aldehydes from primary alcohols. A
variety of reagents is available, and discussing all of them here is beyond our scope. An excellent
reagent for this purpose is pyridinium chlorochromate (abbreviated PCC), the compound formed
when Cr03 is dissolved in hydrochloric acid and then treated with pyridine:

1. Name the reagent used to convert primary alcohol into aldehyde.
Ans. PCC/PDC/Cu at 573k
2. The IUPAC name of the compound shown below is:
Ans- 2,2-Dimethylbutanoic acid

OR
In which of the following reactions, aldehydes and ketones are distinguished?
(a) Reaction with phenylhydrazine
(b) Reaction with hydroxylamine
(c) Reaction with semicarbazide
(d) Reaction with silver nitrate mixed with ammonia
Ans- (d). Phenylhydrazine, hydroxylamine and semicarbazide react with aldehydes and ketones
while AgNO3/NH3 (Tollen’s reagent) reacts only with aldehydes but not with ketones.
3. Account for the following:-
i. Chloroacetic acid Cl-CH2COOH is a stronger acid than acetic acid CH3COOH.
ii. Carboxylic acids do not give the reaction of carbonyl group.
Ans- (i) The –I effect of Cl atom in ClCH2COOH stabiles the ClCH2COO - ion while +I effect of
CH3- group in CH3COOH destabilizes the CH3COO - .
(ii) In the resonating structures of carboxylic acid and carbonyls, the carbonyl carbon of carboxylic
acid is less electro-positive (less electrophile) than carbonyl carbon in aldehydes and ketones.
Therefor carboxylic acids do not give the reaction of carbonyl group
50
UNIT-IX
AMINES
MCQ
1-Aniline first reacts with acetyl chloride producing compound A. A reacts with HNO3 and H2SO4
mixture, produces compound B which hydrolyses to compound C. What is the identity of C?
a) Acetanilide
b) p-Nitroacetanilide
c) p-Nitroaniline
d) Sulphanilic acid.
Ans- (c)
2-Considering the basic strength of amines in aqueous solution, which one has the smallest pKb
value?
a) (CH3)3N
b) C6H5NH2
c) (CH3)2NH
d) CH3NH2
Ans- (b)
3-The most basic compound among the following is:-
a) Acetanilide
b) Benzylamine
c) p-Nitro aniline
d) Aniline
Ans- (b)
4-In this reaction acetamide is converted to methanamine
a) Gabriel phthalimide synthesis
b) Carbylamine reaction
c) Stephen’s reaction
d) Hoffmann bromamide reaction
Ans- (d)
5-Which of the following is true for the basicity of amines?
a) Alkylamines are generally less basic than aryl amines because N is sp hybridised
b) Aryl amines are generally more basic than alkylamines due to aryl group
c) Aryl amines are generally less basic than alkylamines due to delocalisation of lone pair of
electrons in the benzene ring
d) Alkyl amines are generally less basic than aryl amines because lone pair of electrons on N in
the aryl amines are not delocalised in the benzene ring
Ans- (c)
6-Which of the following is formed in the reaction of an aldehyde and primary amine?
a) Ketone
b) Aromatic acid
c) Schiff’s base
d) Carboxylic acid
Ans- (c)
7-This on reduction with LiAlH4 produces secondary amine
51
a) Methyl cyanide
b) Nitro ethane
c) Methyl isocyanide
d) Acetamide
Ans- (c)
8- Aniline is more basic than
a) Benzylamine
b) Triphenylamine
c) p-Nitroaniline
d) Diphenylamine
Ans- (a)
9-Which of the following does not react with Hinsberg reagent?
a) Ethylamine
b) (CH3)2NH
c) (CH3)3N
d) Propan-2-amine
Ans- (c)
10-Which of the following cannot couple with benzene diazonium chloride?
a) Aniline
b) Phenol
c) Toluene
d) Benzyl alcohol.
Ans- (d)
11- Write IUPAC name of the following compound.
CH3CH2NHCH3
(a) N-methyl ethanamine
(b) N-ethylethanamine
(c) Propanamine
(d) N -propylamine
Ans- (a)
12- Two compounds(A) ethyl amine and(B) aniline are provided to Meera ,Which test is taken into
consideration by her to distinguish A and B ,
(a)Lucas test
(b)Hinsberg test
(c) Azo dye test
(d) Tollen’s test
Ans- (c)
13. By treating with, which of the primary amines can be separated from secondary and tertiary
amine.
(a) Methyl bromide
(b) Carbon tetrachloride
(c) Iodoform and NaOH
(d) Chloroform and NaOH
Ans- (d)
14. Which of the following statement is correct about aniline.
(a) It is stronger base than methyl amine
52
(b) It is weaker base than methyl amine.
(c) It is stronger base than ammonia.
(d) It is weaker acid than methyl amine.
Ans- (b)
15. The source of nitrogen in Gabriel synthesis of amines is
(a) Sodium azide, NaN3
(b) Potassium cyanide, KCN
(c) Sodium nitrite, NaNO2
(d) Potassium phthalimide, C6H4(CO)2N–K+
Ans- (d)
16. The strongest base among the following is?
Ans- (c)
17. The correct order of increasing basic nature for the bases
NH3, CH3NH2 and (CH3)2 NH is
(a) CH3 NH2 < (CH3)2 NH < NH3
(b) CH3NH2 < NH3 < (CH3)2NH
(c) (CH3)2 NH< NH3 < CH3NH2
(d) NH3 < CH3NH2 < (CH3)2NH
Ans- (d)
18. C6H5N2+Cl– + CuCl → C6H5Cl + N2 + CuCl2. The chemical reaction is associated with which
of the following name:
(a) BalzSchiemen
(b) Gattermann
(c) Simonini
(d) Sandmeyer.
Ans- (d)
19. Intermolecular hydrogen bonding is strongest in which of thefollowing compounds.
(a) Methylamine
(b) Phenol
(c) Formaldehyde
(d) Methanol
Ans- (d)
21. Which of the following cannot couple with benzene diazonium chloride?
(a) Aniline
(b) Phenol
(c) ß-Napthol
(d) Benzyl alcohol
Ans- (d)
ASSERTION REASON BASED QUESTIONS
53
Directions: These questions consist of two statements, each printed as Assertion and Reason.
While answering these questions, you are required to choose any one of the following four
responses.
(a) Both Assertion and Reason are correct and Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(b) Both Assertion and Reason are correct but Reason is not correct explanation of the Assertion.
(c) Assertion is correct but Reason is incorrect.
(d) Assertion is incorrect and Reason is correct.
1. Assertion : Amines are basic in nature.

Reason : Amines have lone pair of electrons on nitrogen atom.
Ans- (a)
2. Assertion : Aniline undergoes Friedel-Crafts reaction.
Reason : –NH2 group of aniline reacts with AlCl3 to form salt.
Ans-(d)
3. Assertion :Nitration of benzene takes place with conc. HNO3 in presence of H2SO4
Reason : In presence of H2SO4, HNO3 produces NO2+ ions which acts as an electrophile.
Ans- (a)
4. Assertion (A) : Hoffmann’s bromamide reaction is used to prepare RNH2from RCONH2.
Reason (R) : RNH2 is more basic than R2NH.
Ans- (c)
5. Assertion (A) : Butan-1-ol is more soluble in water than butan-1-amine.
Reason (R) : Alcohols are less polar than amines.
Ans- (c)
6. Assertion: Aromatic 1° amines can be prepared by Gabriel phthalimide synthesis.
Reason: Aryl halides undergo nucleophilic substitution with anion formed by phthalimide.
Ans- (d)
7. Assertion: Only a small amount of HCl is required in the reduction of nitro compounds with iron
scrap and HCl in the presence of steam.
Reason: FeCl2 formed gets hydrolyzed to release HCl during the reaction.
Ans- (a)
8. Assertion: Amines are basic in nature.
Reason: Amines have lone pair of electrons on nitrogen atom.
Ans- (a)
9. Assertion: Acetanilide is less basic than aniline.
Reason: Acetylation of aniline results in decrease of electron density on nitrogen.
Ans- (a)
10. Assertion: Nitration of aniline can be conveniently done by protecting the amino group by
acetylation.
Reason: Acetylation increases the electron-density in the benzene ring.
Ans- (c)

Distinctive odours that are fishy to putrid characterize the lower-molecular-weight amines. They
are gases at room temperature or are easily vaporized liquids. Aliphatic amines are less dense
than water, having densities in the range 0.63 to 0.74 gram per cubic cm; aromatic amines are
54
typically slightly heavier than water (e.g., the density of aniline is 1.02 grams per cubic cm). With
increasing size, they become less volatile; the odour decreases and eventually becomes
unnoticeable, although some diamines have offensive odours. For example, H2N(CH2)4NH2,
called putrescine, and H2N(CH2)5NH2, called cadaverine, are foul-smelling compounds found in
decaying flesh. Amines are colourless; aliphatic amines are transparent to ultraviolet light, but
aromatic amines display strong absorption of certain wavelengths. Amines with fewer than
six carbons mix with water in all proportions. The aliphatic amines are stronger bases than
ammonia, and the aromatic ones are substantially weaker. The basicity is measured in terms of
the pKb value, which is equal to −logKb, where Kb is the equilibrium constant for the reaction B
+ H3O+ ⇌ BH+ + H2O (B is the amine). Thus, a larger pKb value indicates greater strength as
a base. For comparison, the pKb of ammonia is 4.75. Quaternary ammonium hydroxides are very
strong bases, but the chlorides are not basic.

Q 1. Name the synthesis which is considered is the best method for preparing primary amines
from alkyl halides withoutchanging the number of carbon atoms in the chain .
Ans- Gabriel phthalimide synthesis
Q 2. Samar wants to arrange the following in the correct decreasing order of basic strength how
wouldyou help him to do so.
H2O, NH3, OH–, NH2-
Ans- NH2– > OH – > NH3> H2O
Q 3. Write structures of different isomers corresponding to the molecular formula, C3H9N. which
will liberated N2 gas on treatment with nitrous acid.
Ans: In all, four structural isomers are possible. These are:
OR
55
Arrange the following in increasing order of basicity in aqueous phase.
(i) C2H5NH2,(C2H5)2NH,(C2H5)3N
(ii) CH3NH2,(CH3)2NH,(CH3)3N
Ans- (i) (C2H5)2NH>(C2H5)3N >C2H5NH2,
(ii) (CH3)2N > CH3NH2> (CH3)3N

The German organic chemist Johann Peter Griess (1829–88), developed the diazotization of aryl
amines.Many diazonium salts are highly explosive and decompose violently once heated. Several
diazonium salts are susceptible to displacement reactions by numerous substrates, generating
nitrogen as a by-product.Diazonium salts are named by suffixing diazonium to the name of the
parent organic compound (hydrocarbon) from which they're formed, followed by the name of
anion like chloride, hydrogen sulphate, etc. The N2+ group is termed diazonium salt. Diazonium
salts may also be used to create azo compounds by interacting with different aromatic molecules.
Diazonium salts are formed by combining an alkyl or aryl primary amine with sodium nitrite in
the presence of acid (HCl).Benzene diazonium chloride is used as a raw material in the production
of dyes. They find application within the dye and pigment industries and are used to manufacture
colouredfabrics.Due to their property of breaking down near ultraviolet light, they're used in
document reproduction, i.e., copying of papers.They are useful in the synthesis of an outsized
variety of organic compounds, particularly aryl derivatives.Direct halogenation is not an
appropriate methodology for preparing aryl iodides and fluorides. However, diazonium salts can
simply be used to manufacture cyanobenzene.It is impracticable to prepare substituted aromatic
compounds by direct substitution in benzene. For these compounds, we tend to use the
replacement of the diazo group in diazonium salts.They are used as intermediates for introducing
–F, –Br, –Cl, –I, –NO2, –OH, and –CN groups into the aromatic ring.Benzene diazonium
chloride exists in solid form.There are no melting or boiling point values because it decomposes
promptly.

Q1 What is diazotization.
Ans- Diazotization is the process of producing a diazonium salt or diazonium compound from
aniline by the action of NaNO2 and HCl at 0 degreecelcius.
Q2 Write the formula of N- Phenyl benzamide.
Ans
Q3 Convert (i) Aniline to iodobenzene.

(ii) Toluene to para toluidine
Ans (i) C6H5NH2+NaNO2+HCl-----→C6H5N2Cl
Warm
C6H5N2Cl + KI-----------→C6H5I+KCl
(ii)
56
OR
Shivani hasgiven a taskto convert aniline to para nitro aniline,she has to acylate aniline before
nitration, explainwhy is NH2 group of aniline acetylated before carrying out nitration.
To protect the lonepair of nitrogen. The purpose of acetylation is to block the amine group (-
NH2) of aniline, which is more nucleophilic than the aromatic ring. This prevents the amine group
from reacting with the nitronium ion (NO2+) that is generated during nitration.

Greater is the stability of the substituted ammonium cation, stronger should be the corresponding
amine as a base. Thus, the order of basicity of aliphatic amines should be: primary > secondary >
tertiary, which is opposite to the inductive effect based order. Secondly, when the alkyl group is
small, like –CH3 group, there is no steric hindrance to H-bonding. In case the alkyl group is
bigger than CH3 group, there will
be steric hindrance to H-bonding. Therefore, the change of nature of the alkyl group, e.g., from –
CH3 to –C2H5
results in change of the order of basic strength. Thus, there is a subtle interplay of the inductive
effect, solvation effect and steric hindrance of the alkyl group which decides the basic strength of
alkyl amines in the aqueous state
Aniline does not undergo Friedal-Crafts reaction (alkylation and acetylation) due to salt
formation with aluminium chloride, the Lewis acid, which is used as a catalyst. Due to this,
nitrogen of aniline acquires positive charge and hence acts as a strong deactivating group for
further reaction.
Q-1-Why aniline do not show Friedal Craft reaction?

Q-2- Pkb value of aniline is more then methyl amine?
Q-3-Explain why chlorobenzene can not used in Gabriel phthalimide reaction?
OR
Amonolysisis will not preferred for synthesis of pure amine?
57
You have read earlier that aniline is a resonance hybrid of five structures. Where do you find the
maximum electron density in these structures? Ortho- and para-positions to the –NH2 group
become centers of high electron density. Thus –NH2 group is ortho
and para directing and a powerful activating group.
The lower aliphatic amines are gases with fishy odors. Primary amines with three or more carbon
atoms are liquid and still higher ones are solid. Aniline and other aryl amines are usually
Colourless but get coloured on storage due to atmospheric oxidation. Lower aliphatic amines are
soluble in water because they can form hydrogen bonds with water molecules. However,
solubility decreases
with increase in molar mass of amines due to increase in size of the hydrophobic alkyl part.
Higher amines are essentially insoluble in water. Considering the electronegativity of nitrogen of
amine and oxygen of
alcohol as 3.0 and 3.5 respectively
Q-1- Explain why -NH2 Group in aniline is ortho and para directive in nature ?
Q-2-Why boiling point of primary amine is more then secondary amine?
Q-3-NH2 group is ortho and para directive in electrophilic substitution reaction but upon nitration
of aniline it give substantial amount of meta product?
OR
Why Acylation of aniline is carried out before its brominating?
58
UNIT-X
BIOMOLECULES
1. Which of the following is an example of a non-reducing sugar?
a) Sucrose b) Maltose
c) Lactose d) Glucose
2. Which polysaccharide serves as the main storage form of glucose in plants?
a) Cellulose b) Glycogen
c) Starch d) Sucrose
3. Which carbohydrate is an essential component of nucleic acids?
a) Glucose b) Ribose
c) Sucrose d) Maltose
4. Which carbohydrate is a major component of plant cell walls?
a) Glycogen b) Sucrose
c) Cellulose d) Amylose
5. What type of amino acids are obtained on hydrolysis of proteins?
a) Alpha (α)-amino acids b) Beta (β)-amino acids
c) Gamma (γ)-amino acids d) Delta (δ)-amino acids
6. amino acids that cannot be synthesized in the body and must be obtained through diet are known
as:
a) Basic amino acids b) Essential amino acids
c) Neutral amino acids d) Acidic amino acids
7. Which level of protein structure is characterized by the sequence of amino acids?
a) Primary structure b) Secondary structure
c) Tertiary structure d) Quaternary structure
8. What type of proteins have a fiber-like structure and are generally insoluble in water?
a) Globular proteins b) Primary proteins
c) Secondary proteins d) Fibrous proteins
9. What is the term for the process by which a protein loses its biological activity due to physical or
chemical changes?
a) Denaturation b) Polymerization
c) Hydrolysis d) Peptization
Q. In which level of protein structure do hydrogen bonds between amino and carboxyl groups of the
peptide bond play a significant role?
a) Primary structure b) Secondary structure
c) Tertiary structure d) Quaternary structure
11. Which of the following proteins has a globular structure and is typically soluble in water?
a) Keratin b) Myosin
c) Collagen d) Hemoglobin
12. What happens to the primary structure of a protein during the process of denaturation?
a) It remains unchanged
b) It undergoes a significant change
c) It is broken down into individual amino acids
d) It becomes more stable
59
Answers
1: a) Sucrose 2: c) Starch 3: b) Ribose
4: c) Cellulose 5: a) Alpha (α)-amino acids 6: b) Essential amino acids
7: a) Primary structure 8: d) Fibrous proteins 9: a) Denaturation
10: b) Secondary structure 11: d) Hemoglobin 12: a) It remains unchanged

(a) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are the true and Reason (R) is a correct explanation of
Assertion (A).
(b) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are the true but Reason (R) is not a correct explanation of
Assertion (A).
(c) Assertion (A) is true and Reason (R) is false.
(d) Assertion (A) is false and Reason (R) is true.
1. Assertion: Glucose and galactose are epimers.

Reason: They differ in the configuration of only one chiral carbon atom
2. Assertion: Glycogen is a linear polysaccharide.
Reason: Glycogen consists of a linear chain of glucose units linked by α-1,4-glycosidic bonds
with occasional α-1,6-glycosidic bonds creating branch points.
3. Assertion: Proteins are polymers of amino acids.
Reason: Amino acids are joined together by peptide bonds to form proteins.
4. Assertion: Denaturation of a protein leads to loss of its biological activity.
Reason: Denaturation disrupts the protein's secondary and tertiary structures while leaving its
primary structure intact.
5. Assertion: The primary structure of a protein determines its unique sequence of amino acids.
Reason: Changes in the Secondary structure of a protein can lead to alterations in its overall
function.
6. Assertion: Globular proteins generally have a spherical shape and are soluble in water.
Reason: The folding of polypeptide chains in globular proteins results in a compact, three-
dimensional structure.
7. Assertion: Quaternary structure refers to the arrangement of subunits in multi-subunit proteins.
Reason: All Proteins are quaternary structures consist of two or more polypeptide chains
interacting with each other.
Answer:
1. (a) 2. (d) 3. (a) 4. (a)
5. (b) 6. (a) 7. (c)

Protein synthesis represents the major route of disposal of amino acids. Amino acids are activated
by binding to specific molecules of transfer RNA and assembled by ribosomes into a sequence that
has been specified by messenger RNA, which in turn has been transcribed from the DNA
template. Peptide bonds are then formed between adjacent amino acids. Once the polypeptide
chain has been completed the subsequent folding, post-translational amino acid modifications and
protein packaging are all determined by the primary sequence of amino acids. The rate of protein
60
synthesis is controlled by the rate of transcription of specific genes, by the number and state of
aggregation of ribosomes and by modulation of the rate of initiation of peptide synthesis.

1. Provide examples of real-world scenarios where such denaturation processes might be
significant.
OR
What level of protein structure involves the spatial arrangement of subunits?
2. What type of protein acts as a biological catalyst?
3. Explain how changes in temperature and pH can lead to the denaturation of a protein.
CASE STUDY BASED QUESTION – 2

Glycogen is a branched polymer of glucose that contains a minor amount of phosphate and
glucosamine. In the linear chains, the glucose residues are connected by α-1,4-glycosidic linkages
while α-1,6-glycosidic bonds create the branch points. Branches within normal glycogen are
distributed at even intervals resulting in a structure with spherical shape. The source and function
of phosphate and glucosamine in human glycogen are unclear. The glycogen particle consists of up
to 55.000 glucose residues. In skeletal muscle, glycogen particles have a size of 10–44 nm in
diameter while in the liver measure approximately 110–290 nm. Glycogen can be identified by
electron microscopy inside the cells

1. Name the components of starch
2. What is the structural difference between cellulose and starch?
3. What is the chemical composition of glycogen, and how does it relate to carbohydrates?
OR
Why glycogen is called animal starch?
61

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केन्द्रीय विद्यालय संगठन

रसायन विज्ञान विषय हेतु संिर्धन कायधशाला

कक्षा 12 हेतु योग्यता आर्ाररत प्रश्न संग्रह

U.No. Unit Name Page No.

4. d- & f-Block Elements 20 – 24

6. Haloalkanes and Haloarenes 30 – 37

7. Alcohols, Phenols and Ethers 38 – 43

8. Aldehydes, Ketones and Carboxylic Acids 44 – 50

Assertion (A) and Reason (R)

Case Based Question 1

Case Based Question 2

Tf = Tf° -Tf ➔ Tf = Tf° - Tf = 273.15 - 3.162 = 269.988 K = Tf

CASE BASED QUESTION -3

CASE BASED QUESTION -4

CASE STUDY BASED QUESTION - 1

Answer the following questions:

CASE STUDY BASED QUESTION - 2

Answer the following questions.

CASE STUDY BASED QUESTION - 3

CASE STUDY BASED QUESTION - 4

Answer the following questions.

MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS

ASSERTION AND REASON TYPE QUESTIONS

1. Assertion : Order of the reaction can be zero or fractional

CASE STYDY BASED QUESTION - 1

Answer the following questions:

CASE STYDY BASED QUESTION - 2

Choose the most appropriate answer.

CASE STYDY BASED QUESTION - 3

Answer the following questions-

CASE STYDY BASED QUESTION - 4

CASE STUDY BASED QUESTION - 1

1 What do you mean by lanthanide contraction?

1 Why Zr and Hf have similar sizes.

CASE STUDY BASED QUESTION - 3

Answer the following questions.

CASE STUDY BASED QUESTION - 4

REASONING ASSERTION QUESTIONS

1. Assertion : Linkage isomerism arises in coordination compounds containing ambidentate ligand.

CASE BASED QUESTIONS - 1

(a) Define the term coordination number.

CASE BASED QUESTIONS - 2

(a) Give the IUPAC name of [PtCl2(NH3)2].

CASE BASED QUESTIONS – 2

i) Which type of ligands lead to the outer orbital complexes?

CASE BASED QUESTIONS - 3

Ans. 1. EDTA(ethylene diamine Tetra acetate)

(p) (q) (r) (s)

(p) (q) (r) (s)

a. II > I > IV > III

ASSERTION REASON TYPE QUESTIONS:

COMPETANCY BASED QUESTION - 1

HOW IS IODINE DAMAGING OZONE?

1. What are Freons?

COMPETANCY BASED QUESTION - 2

COMPETANCY BASED QUESTION - 3

Due to repulsion between nucleophile and electron rich arenes.

COMPETANCY BASED QUESTION - 4

ASSERTION REASON TYPE QUESTIONS

1. Assertion (A)- Propan-1-ol boils at a higher temperature than propan-2-ol.

CASE STUDY BASED QUESTIONS - 1

Answer the following questions

CASE STUDY BASED QUESTIONS - 2

Answer the following questions