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Bé gi¸o dôc vµ ®µo t¹o kú thi tuyÓn sinh ®¹i häc, cao ®¼ng n¨m 2002

®Ò chÝnh thøc Bµi thi m«n: tiÕng anh


Ch÷ ký cña c¸n bé coi thi 1:
Thêi gian lµm bµi: 180 phót

Hä vµ tªn thÝ sinh: ...............................................................………… Nam/ N÷: ……….


Ngµy th¸ng n¨m sinh: ........../ ........../ ........ D©n téc: ........……
Ch÷ ký cña c¸n bé coi thi 2:
N¬i sinh:.......................................................................................……….
Hé khÈu th êng tró cña thÝ sinh: ............................................................
Khu vùc dù thi (KV): ..................... §èi t îng dù thi: .……
Phßng thi sè: ........................... Sè b¸o danh: .......…….
Sè ph¸ch:
Bµi thi gåm 02 trang - ThÝ sinh ph¶i viÕt c¸c c©u tr¶ lêi vµo ®óng chç quy ®Þnh theo h íng dÉn -ThÝ sÝnh chØ thi cao ®¼ng kh«ng lµm phÇn VII

®iÓm: B»ng sè: B»ng ch÷ : Sè ph¸ch:

C¸n bé chÊm thi 1 ký: C¸n bé chÊm thi 2 ký:

I.(§H:10 ®iÓm; C§:15®) Chän mét tõ/ nhãm tõ thÝch hîp cho mçi chç trèng trong nh÷ng c©u sau. ViÕt ch÷ A, B, C hoÆc D t ¬ng øng víi tõ/ nhãm tõ ®
chän vµo c¸c « tõ 1 ®Õn 10 trong khung Answers
Answers.
1. In recent years, more and more people _____for things with 6. He turned on the TV, ______I thought was rather surprising. 1.........
credit cards. A. and B. so C. that D. which 2.........
A. pay B. paid C. are paying D. have been paying
7. My car would not start, _______Jenny’s started immediately. 3.........
2. What people__Benetton stores is that the quality is always high.
A. whereas B. though C. however D. nevertheless 4.........
A. like B. like very much C. like about D. like a lot
8. They stayed for hours, which I was very _______ . 5.........
3. Paolo would like to ____by the time he is 40. A. annoyed B. annoyed about C. annoying D. annoying me 6.........
A. travel B. be traveling C. be going to travel D. have traveled
9. That was a very strange question _____ . 7.........
4. Poverty is a problem in many cities_____whole families can only
afford to live in one room. A. you ask B. you are asking C. for asking D. to ask 8.........
A. when B. where C. even D. if 10. ____a movie to be entertaining, it has to have an interesting story. 9........
5. The world would be a better place if everyone showed A. So that B. In order that C. In order for D. In order to 10.......
______cooperation as John.
A. as much B. so much C. too much D. much
II. (§H:5 ®iÓm, C§:5®) Chän tõ cã phÇn g¹ch d íi ® îc ph¸t ©m kh¸c c¸c tõ cßn l¹i. ViÕt A, B, C hoÆc D vµo c¸c « tõ 11 ®Õn 15 trong khung Answers.
Answers
11 A. hear B. clear C. bear D. ear 11. .............................
12 A. heat B. great C. beat D. beak 12. .............................
13 A. blood B. pool C. food D. tool 13. .............................
14 A. university B. unique C. unit D. undo 14. .............................
15 A. mouse B. could C. would D. put 15. .............................
III. (§H:20 ®iÓm; C§: 20®) X¸c ®Þnh d¹ng thÝch hîp cña tõ cho s½n trong ngoÆc ( ) vµ viÕt c¸c d¹ng tõ ®ã vµo c¸c « 16 - 25 trong cét Answers.
Answers
16. The duty of the police is the _____ of law and order. (MAINTAIN) 16. ………………........
17. Our tomatoes are _____ nicely; they'll be ready to eat in about a week. (RIPE) 17. ………………........
18. Look at this picture of Bill and his father - you can see the _____ clearly, can't you? (LIKE) 18. ………………….......
19. He said 'Good morning' in a most _____ way. (FRIEND) 19. ………………….......
20. Playing for the national team for the first time was an _____ experience for Hong Son. (FORGET) 20. ………………….......
21. 'This is not a good essay,' said the lecturer. 'I find your arguments _____ '. (CONVINCE) 21. ………………….......
22. It's a lovely old house, I agree, but can we afford to ........ it? (MODERN) 22 …………………........
23. George and I have been friends since _____: he used to live next door. (CHILD) 23. ………………….......
24. In winter it is important for farmers to provide food and _____ for their animals. WARM) 24. ………………….......
25. Pele _____ Ronaldo to take part in 2002 World Cup. (COURAGE) 25. ………………….......

IV (§H: 20 ®iÓm; C§: 20®) T×m mét tõ thÝch hîp cho mçi chç trèng ® îc ®¸nh sè tõ 26 ®Õn 35 vµ viÕt tõ ®ã vµo khung Answers
Answers.
In the world today, there are 5,000 to 6,000 living languages (26)____which English is by far
the most widely used. As a (27)____tongue, it ranks second only (28)____Chinese, (29)____is ____________ ____________
little used outside China. Approximately 350 million people speak English as their first ____________ ____________
(30)_____. About the same number use it (31)____ a second language. It is (32)_____English ____________ ____________
language that is used as the language (33)____aviation, international sport and pop music.
____________ ____________
75% of the world's mail is in English, 60% of the world's radio stations (34)___in English and
____________ ____________
(35)____ than half of the world's periodicals are printed in English.

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V. (§H:10 ®iÓm; C§: 15 ®) §äc ®o¹n v¨n d íi ®©y vµ viÕt c©u tr¶ lêi tr¶ lêi ng¾n gän cho mçi c©u hái tõ 36 ®Õn 40 vµo phÇn _____ sau mçi c©u hái.

For thousands of years, the ancient art form of Feng Shui has played a major role in Chinese life. Feng Shui means ‘wind and water’ and
it is based on an appreciation of the relationship between people and the environment. It involves changing the design of your living or
working space to improve your fortune.
For instance, soon after a Hong Kong millionaire moved his business to a new skyscraper, his business began to do very badly. He
immediately called in Feng Shui experts. They told him that because his new office block was round, it was like a huge cigarette, and all
the energy was burning off through the roof. They said that the only thing he could do to prevent this loss of energy was to build a
swimming pool on the roof. The millionaire followed their advice, and his business immediately started to do well.
In recent years, Feng Shui has become popular in many western countries, where companies such as B&Q have started to seek advice
from Feng Shui experts. Before his store was opened, Brian Ingliss, the manager of one of B & Q's stores in Britain, consulted a Feng
Shui expert. The expert advised him to create a lot of free space around the store. Brian followed the advice, and within a year, the store
was the most successful B&Q store in the country.
36. What kind of relationship does Feng Shui concern? ______________________________________________________
37. According to Feng Shui, what's wrong with a round building? ______________________________________________________
38. What did the Feng Shui expert advise Brian to do? ______________________________________________________
39. How did Brian's store benefit from following this advice? ______________________________________________________
40. What can be said about the writer's attitude towards Feng Shui? ______________________________________________________
VI. (§H: 20 ®iÓm; C§: 25®) ViÕt l¹i c¸c c©u tõ 41 ®Õn 50 sao cho nghÜa cña chóng vÉn kh«ng thay ®æi. Mçi c©u viÕt l¹i ® îc b¾t ®Çu b»ng (nh÷ng) tõ cho
s½n ë bªn ph¶i.
41. It's common knowledge that he has been in prison several times. 41. He is known .........................................................................................
42. 'I hate to be criticised by non-professionals,' the film star said. 42. The film star objected ..........................................................................
43. She can't get into the habit of studying every evening. 43. She can't get used ...............................................................................
44. I regret not paying much attention to the lecture. 44. I wish ...................................................................................................
45. Perhaps I didn't get a better job because I didn't study hard enough. 45. I might ..................................................................................................
46. Please don't mention it again. 46. I'd rather ..............................................................................................
47. Ms. Quyen began teaching Chinese ten years ago. 47. Ms. Quyen has ....................................................................................
48. We haven't visited the museum before. 48.This is ...................................................................................................
49. Peter missed the train because he woke up too late. 49. If Peter .................................................................................................
50. The robber forced the cashier to hand over the money. 50. The cashier ..........................................................................................

VII.(§H: 15 ®iÓm) Sö dông nh÷ng tõ/ côm tõ cho s½n trong c¸c c©u tõ 51 ®Õn 60 ®Ó viÕt thµnh c¸c c©u hoµn chØnh vÒ nhµ v¨n Jack London. Anh/chÞ cã thÓ
dïng thªm tõ vµ nh÷ng biÕn ®æi cÇn thiÕt nh ng kh«ng ® îc bá bÊt kú tõ nµo ® cho. ThÝ sÝnh chØ thi cao ®¼ng kh«ng lµm phÇn VII nµy.
51. .............................................................................................................
51. Jack London/ life and writings/ represent/ American/ love/
adventure

52. Jack London/ born / San Francisco/ 1876 52. .............................................................................................................

53. He/ quit/ school/ fourteen/ become/ sailor 53. .............................................................................................................

54. He/ travel/ good/ deal/ during/ short/ lifetime 54. ............................................................................................................

55. He/ travel/ many/ place/ Europe/ United States/ Far East 55. .............................................................................................................

6. 1897/ Jack London/ 21/ year/ old/ gold/ discover/ Alaska 56. .............................................................................................................

57. He/ answer/ call/ adventure 57. .............................................................................................................

58. He/ take/ part/ famous/ 'gold rush' 58. .............................................................................................................

59. experiences/ wild/ northern country/ provide/ material/ many/ 59. .............................................................................................................
later/ stories/ novels

60. best-known/ novels/ include/ The Call of the Wild/ The Sea-Wolf 60. .............................................................................................................

HÕT
Chó ý: C¸n bé coi thi kh«ng gi¶i thÝch g× thªm.

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Bé gi¸o dôc vµ ®µo t¹o kú thi tuyÓn sinh ®¹i häc, cao ®¼ng n¨m 2003
®Ò chÝnh thøc Bµi thi m«n: tiÕng anh
Ch÷ ký cña c¸n bé coi thi 1:
Thêi gian lµm bµi: 180 phót

Hä vµ tªn thÝ sinh: ...............................................................………… Nam/ N÷: ……….


Ngµy th¸ng n¨m sinh: ........../ ........../ ........ D©n téc: ........……
Ch÷ ký cña c¸n bé coi thi 2:
N¬i sinh:.......................................................................................……….
Hé khÈu th êng tró cña thÝ sinh: ............................................................
Khu vùc dù thi (KV): ..................... §èi t îng dù thi: .……
Phßng thi sè: ........................... Sè b¸o danh: .......…….
Sè ph¸ch:
Bµi thi gåm 02 trang - ThÝ sinh ph¶i viÕt c¸c c©u tr¶ lêi vµo ®óng chç quy ®Þnh theo h íng dÉn

®iÓm: B»ng sè: B»ng ch÷ : Sè ph¸ch:

C¸n bé chÊm thi 1 ký: C¸n bé chÊm thi 2 ký:

I. (5 ®iÓm). Chän tõ cã phÇn g¹ch d íi ® îc ph¸t ©m kh¸c c¸c tõ cßn l¹i. ViÕt A, B, C hoÆc D vµo c¸c « tõ 1 ®Õn 5 trong khung Answers.
Answers
1. A. sound B. touch C. down D. account 1.
2. A. design B. preserve C. basic D. physical 2.
3. A. occupation B. occasion C. shake D. miraculous 3.
4. A. concerned B. received C. attached D. concealed 4.
5. A. teacher B. clear C. reason D. mean 5.

II.(10 ®iÓm). Chän mét tõ / nhãm tõ thÝch hîp cho mçi chç trèng trong nh÷ng c©u sau. ViÕt ch÷ A, B, C hoÆc D t ¬ng øng víi tõ/ nhãm tõ ®· chän vµo c¸c «
tõ 6 ®Õn 15 trong khung Answers.
Answers
6. ___ I post that letter for you on my way to the office? 11. He thinks we’ve invited too many guests, but I say the more the __. 6.........
A. Do B. Shall C. Would D. Will A. nicer B. happier C. merrier D. greater 7.........
7. He felt he’d really let his team ___ when he missed the penalty. 12. John has taken ___ swimming as he wants to keep fit. 8.........
A. out B. in C. down D. off A. up B. on C. in D. off 9.........
8. He’ll never pass his driving test ___ he takes some lessons. 13. You smell awful! It’s about time you ___ a bath. 10.......
A. unless B. if only C. provided D. if A. have B. will have C. had D. to have 11.......
9. Opposite our house is a nice park ___ there are trees and flowers . 14. Lack of funds prevented him ___ with his studies. 12.......
A. which B. where C. whose D. that A. to continue B. with continuing C. continue D. from continuing 13.......
10. If you want to help, perhaps you could ___ the table for dinner. 15. Is she a friend of ___ ? 14.......
A. put B. lay C. spread D. place A. yours B. you C. your D. you’re 15.......

III. (20 ®iÓm). X¸c ®Þnh d¹ng thÝch hîp cña tõ cho s½n trong ngoÆc ( ) vµ viÕt c¸c d¹ng tõ ®ã vµo c¸c « tõ 16 ®Õn 25 trong cét Answers.
Answers
16. _____ is one of the qualities required of a social worker. (FLEXIBLE) 16. ...............................
17. Novelists are among the most _____ people in the world. (IMAGINE) 17. ...............................
18. Secondary education is _____ and free in many countries. (COMPEL) 18. ...............................
19. The song has _____ been selected for the Sea Games 22, Vietnam. (OFFICE) 19. ...............................
20. _____ are doing their best to make people aware of the danger of air pollution. (ENVIRONMENT) 20. ...............................
21. Actually, there is no short cut to _____ a foreign language. (MASTER) 21. ...............................
22. Leonardo Da Vince was a _____ story of an artist and scientist. (SUCCEED) 22. ...............................
23. Your father is a bit _____. I think he should go on a diet. (WEIGH) 23. ...............................
24. The police should impose heavy fines on those who drive _____. (DANGER) 24. ...............................
25. He is OK, but quite _____ at times. (RELY) 25. ...............................

IV. (20 ®iÓm).T×m mét tõ thÝch hîp cho mçi chç trèng ® îc ®¸nh sè tõ 26 ®Õn 35 vµ viÕt tõ ®ã vµo khung Answers.
Answers
On November 5th, 1872, the Mary Celeste, a ship (26) ___ in 1861 in Canada left New York for
Genoa, Italy. There were eleven people on (27) ___, Captain Briggs, his wife, his daughter and a 26. ............................... 31. ...............................
(28) ___ of eight.
27. ............................... 32. ...............................
A month (29) ___, the Mary Celeste was seen by another ship, the Dei Gratia about half way
between the Azores and the Portuguese coast. The captain of the Dei Gratia, a friend of Captain 28. ............................... 33. ...............................
Briggs, (30) ___that the ship was sailing strangely . He sent a boat to investigate. When these crew
members came they did not see (31) ___ on the Mary Celeste. What might have happened, and 29. ............................... 34. ...............................
what must have happened (32) ___ these people? Some think that a sea monster might have
(33)___ the Mary Celeste. (34) ___ believe that a giant wave must have knocked them all (35) ___ 30. ............................... 35. ...............................
the deck.

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V. (10 ®iÓm). §äc ®o¹n v¨n d íi ®©y vµ viÕt c©u tr¶ lêi ng¾n gän cho mçi c©u hái tõ 36 ®Õn 40 vµo phÇn ............... sau mçi c©u hái.

Mozart, who was born on January 27, 1756 in the Austrian city of Salzburg, was neither the first nor the last child prodigy, but he was
certainly the greatest. He was born into a moderately prosperous family where his unmatched musical genius made itself known extremely
early. Mozart began learning to play the harpsichord at three and his earliest known work was composed in 1761 when he was five, the age
at which he also first appeared in public. From the age of six, when his father took him on the first foreign tour, Mozart toured the courts and
musical centres of Austria, Germany, France, England, Holland, Switzerland and Italy. It has been calculated that Mozart spent almost a third
of his short life - he died at the age of 35 - travelling. As Mozart matured, he continued to tour and give concerts. Mozart also wrote a lot of
operas. His first opera, Mitridate, Re di Ponto, was performed in Milan when he was 14, and it was the first of many successes in the theatre.

36. How rich was Mozart’s family? 36. ......................................................................................................................


37. When did he take the first step into the world of music as a composer? 37. ......................................................................................................................
38. What did he do on his first tour to some major European countries? 38. ......................................................................................................................
39. Why is it possible to name Mozart “A travelling composer”? 39. ......................................................................................................................
40. What expression in the passage means “an exceptionally clever child”? 40. ......................................................................................................................

VI. (20 ®iÓm). ViÕt l¹i c¸c c©u tõ 41 ®Õn 50 sao cho nghÜa cña chóng kh«ng thay ®æi. Mçi c©u viÕt l¹i ® îc b¾t ®Çu b»ng (nh÷ng) tõ cho s½n ë bªn ph¶i.

41. The remark was so unexpected that she didn’t know what to say. 41. It was ................................................................................................................
42. You’re the worst guitarist in the world. 42. No one ..............................................................................................................
43. It was a waste of time writing that letter. 43. I needn’t ............................................................................................................
44. “Let’s check everything once more,” said the man in chief. 44. The man in chief suggested ..............................................................................
45. Although the fish appears to be harmless, it is quite dangerous. 45. Contrary ............................................................................................................
46. The students really appreciate the teacher’s sense of humor. 46. What .................................................................................................................
47. It is acknowledged that Vietnam had a complete control over 47. Vietnam is .........................................................................................................
SARS from a very early stage of the epidemic. ..........................................................................................................................
48. He didn’t remember anything about it, and neither did she. 48. He forgot ...........................................................................................................
49. We couldn’t have managed it if our father hadn’t encouraged us. 49. If it .....................................................................................................................
50. I wish I had applied for that job. 50. It is a .................................................................................................................

VII.(15 ®iÓm). Sö dông nh÷ng tõ / côm tõ cho s½n trong c¸c c©u tõ 51 ®Õn 60 ®Ó viÕt thµnh c¸c c©u hoµn chØnh vÒ b¶o toµn tµi nguyªn thiªn nhiªn. Anh/chÞ cã thÓ
dïng thªm tõ vµ thùc hiÖn nh÷ng biÕn ®æi cÇn thiÕt nh ng kh«ng ® îc bá bÊt kú tõ nµo ®· cho.

51. Conservation / be / safeguarding and preservation / 51. ...........................................................................................................................................


natural resources.
...........................................................................................................................................
52. the past / most people / believe / world’s resources / 52. ...........................................................................................................................................
can / never / use up
...........................................................................................................................................
53. Today / we / know / this / be / not / true 53. ...........................................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
54. There / be / serious waste / forests, soil, wildlife and 54. ...........................................................................................................................................
minerals
...........................................................................................................................................
55. Therefore / prevention / waste / be / important part / 55. ...........................................................................................................................................
conservation
...........................................................................................................................................
56. fight / pollution / our environment / be / also / great 56. ...........................................................................................................................................
importance
...........................................................................................................................................
57. particular / we / have to / fight / dirty and poison / air 57. ...........................................................................................................................................
and water
...........................................................................................................................................
58. Conservation / be / concern / reclaiming / land 58. ...........................................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
59. This / do / irrigate deserts, drain swamps or push 59. ...........................................................................................................................................
back the sea
...........................................................................................................................................
60. Conservation / include / search / alternative fuels / 60. ...........................................................................................................................................
energy / wind or sun
...........................................................................................................................................

____________________________________________________________________________________________________________
HÕT
Chó ý: C¸n bé coi thi kh«ng gi¶i thÝch g× thªm.

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BỘ GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO TẠO ĐỀ THI TUYỂN SINH ĐẠI HỌC, CAO ĐẲNG NĂM 2004
-------------- MÔN: TIẾNG ANH KHỐI D
ĐỀ CHÍNH THỨC Thời gian làm bài: 180 phút, không kể thời gian phát đề Cán bộ coi thi 1 ký:

Họ và tên thí sinh: .......................................................Nam/Nữ: ..................................


Ngày, tháng, năm sinh: ........../ ........../ ...................... Dân tộc: ................................... Cán bộ coi thi 2 ký:
Nơi sinh: ..............................................................................................................................
Hộ khẩu thường trú: ......................................................................................................
Khu vực dự thi (KV): .......................................................... Đối tượng dự thi:..................... Sè ph¸ch:
Phòng thi số: ............................................................... Số báo danh: ...........................

Bài thi gồm 02 trang - Thí sinh phải viết câu trả lời vào đúng phần quy định theo hướng dẫn
Sè ph¸ch:

§iÓm: B»ng sè: B»ng ch÷ :

Cán bộ chấm thi 1 ký: Cán bộ chấm thi 2 ký:

I (05 điểm). Chọn từ có trọng âm chính nhấn vào âm tiết có vị trí khác các từ còn lại và viết chữ A, B, C hoặc D ứng với mỗi từ vào ô tương ứng trong khung
Answers.
Answers
1. A. advance B. ancient C. cancer D. annual 1.
2. A. theory B. tragedy C. invent D. government 2.
3. A. inspire B. wealthy C. protect D. extinct 3.
4. A. simplicity B. pollution C. electricity D. activity 4.
5. A. mathematics B. statistics C. academy D. mechanic 5.
II (10 điểm). Chọn một từ/cụm từ thích hợp cho mỗi chỗ trống trong những câu sau và viết chữ A, B, C hoặc D ứng với từ/cụm từ đã chọn vào ô tương ứng
trong khung Answers.
Answers
6. Remember to go ____ your test paper to check for grammar 7. The cat was ____ to wait for the mouse to come out. 6. 7.
and spelling mistakes. A. patiently B. so patient C. enough D. patient
A. on B. over C. off D. into enough patient enough
8. We have to start early ____ we’ll be late for school. 9. Venice, ___ was built on water, is a city in Italy. 8. 9.
A. or else B. so that C. although D. that A. where B. that C. who D. which
10. Unemployment is a serious problem in the area; there are 11. Don’t let this opportunity go ____ . 10. 11.
____ jobs for the people there. A. by B. off C. up D. over
A. a little B. a few C. few D. little
12. It was impossible for her to tell the truth, so she had to _____ 13. We have to ___ allowance for this difficult circumstance. 12. 13.
a story. A. do B. make C. work D. act
A . combine B. manage C. invent D. lie
14. I’m not accustomed ___ up so early. 15. It was really kind ___ you to help poor people. 14. 15.
A. to getting B. to get C. by getting D. get A. from B. on C. of D. in

III (20 điểm). Hoàn thành mỗi câu sau với dạng thích hợp của từ trong ngoặc ( ) bằng cách viết dạng từ thích hợp đó vào ô tương ứng trong khung Answers.
Answers
16. ___ , Charles Darwin didn’t intend to publish his book On the Origin of Species. (ORIGIN) 16.
17. ” _____ speak louder than words.” (ACT) 17.
18. Visitors said that the ___ of the people in Vietnam was most unforgettable. (HOSPITABLE) 18.
19. The explanation of the accident is very _____ . (CONFUSE) 19.
20. One of the ___ of English is that it is becoming simpler and simpler. (STRONG) 20.
21. A right amount of calcium added to our food will help to ___ our weak bones. (SOLID) 21.
22. In ancient Greece, the owl was a symbol of ___ . (WISE) 22.
23. Laser beams can kill cancer cells while leaving the surrounding ones ___. (HARM) 23.
24. Freedom of _______ is one of the fundamental rights. (SPEAK) 24.
25. What old people fear most is ___ . (LONELY) 25.
IV (20 điểm). Tìm một từ thích hợp cho mỗi chỗ trống được đánh số từ 26 đến 35 và viết từ đó vào ô tương ứng trong khung Answers.
Answers
... 26. 27.
She stood by the window for a few minutes, looking at the trails of (26) ___ rising up
from the chimneys into the grey morning (27) ___ . A bus stopped on the road between 28. 29.
her house and the village in the valley below. Watching the (28) ___ of passengers
getting on one (29) ___ one, she felt envious of them. They could go to work, (30) ___
30. 31.
she was always left at home to look (31) ___ the baby and do the housework.
She went back into the sitting room. She had not even begun to tidy (32) ___, but she
32. 33.
couldn’t find the energy (33)____ it this morning. She had had a terrible night and had
been woken up by the baby so many (34) ___ that all she wanted to do was go back to
sleep. But she knew that it would not be (35) ___ . 34. 35.

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V (15 điểm). Đọc đoạn văn sau đây và viết câu trả lời ngắn gọn vào phần .............. sau mỗi câu hỏi.

Greece today is a small country in southeastern Europe. The population is approximately nine million, and the capital city is Athens.
High mountains with rich, fertile land between them cover northern Greece. The hilly southern part is a peninsula called the Peloponnesus.
Hundreds of islands surround the mainland. The largest island is Crete.
No part of the nation is far from water. The Ionian Sea and the Aegean Sea carved deep bays and gulfs into the long coastline. Greece has
been a seafaring nation for centuries, and Greece is very well-known for its shipping industry.
More than three thousand years ago, the Greek people developed a very sophisticated society. They had a great civilization, one of the
greatest that the Western world has ever seen. Greek architecture, thinking, and art influenced other civilizations. Even the Greek language
influenced other languages, including English. For example, the English words alphabet, democracy, and arithmetic come from Greek.
Today Greece is one of the most popular nations with the tourists who visit Europe. Thousands of people are attracted to the country
because of its beautiful scenery, magnificent ancient buildings, and its excellent summer weather.

36. Which part of Greece is good for growing crops? 36. ....................................................................................................................................

....................................................................................................................................
37. What have the seas done to the coastline? 37. ....................................................................................................................................
........................................................................................................................................
38. In what fields has Greece influenced other civilizations? 38. ....................................................................................................................................
...................................................................................................................................
39. Why does Greece attract many tourists? 39. ....................................................................................................................................
....................................................................................................................................
40. When did the Greek civilization begin? 40. ....................................................................................................................................
....................................................................................................................................

VI (15 điểm). Viết lại các câu sau đây sao cho nghĩa của chúng không thay đổi. Hãy bắt đầu mỗi câu bằng từ/cụm từ cho sẵn bên phải.

41. What particularly impressed me was her knowledge of world history. 41. It was her ................................................................................................

42. “ Shall I carry the suitcase for you, Pauline?” said John. 42. John offered ..........................................................................................

43. I’m sorry now that I didn’t tell you the truth. 43. I wish .....................................................................................................

44. I feel uncomfortable to be in a room where everybody is shouting. 44. I can’t stand ...........................................................................................

45. Man continues to take minerals from the earth in immense quantities. 45. Minerals ..................................................................................................

46. She never seems to succeed even though she works hard. 46. However ................................................................................................

47. The Picasso painting was so expensive that nobody could buy it. 47. So ...........................................................................................................

48. “Where is the head waiter? I must speak to him.” 48. The customer insisted ............................................................................

49. These old men can’t be made to change. 49. It is .........................................................................................................

50. When she heard the news, she broke down. 50. On ..........................................................................................................

VII (05 điểm).Trong mỗi câu từ 51 đến 55 sau đây có MỘT lỗi. Gạch chân lỗi đó và viết từ/cụm từ đúng vào ô tương ứng trong khung bên phải.
51. My telephone has been out of work for a few days. 51.

52. If you move quiet, you can see small wild animals in this area. 52.

53. Thirty hours a week are a heavy work schedule. 53.

54. You mustn’t leave so soon. The show doesn’t start till eight. 54.

55. Competitive cyclists must react calm during tournaments. 55.

VIII (10 điểm). Sử dụng những từ/cụm từ cho sẵn trong các câu sau để viết thành những câu hoàn chỉnh. Anh/Chị có thể dùng thêm từ/cụm từ và thực hiện
những biến đổi cần thiết nhưng không bỏ bất kỳ từ nào đã cho.

56. Jack London / life and writings / think / by many / represent / American / 56. .....................................................................................................................

love / adventure // ........................................................................................................................

57. They / no / intention / put / end / crisis / those days // 57. .....................................................................................................................

58. James Watt / Scottish scientist / invent / steam engine // 58. .....................................................................................................................

59. You / not pass / coming exam / unless / work hard // 59. .....................................................................................................................

60. Our beautiful forests / destroy / if / we / do / nothing / preserve them // 60. .....................................................................................................................

________________________________________________________________________________________________________________
Cán bộ coi thi không giải thích gì thêm. Livestream hướng dẫn trực tiếp tại Yutube - Otto Channel
Mang Giao duc Edunet - http://www.edu.net.vn
BỘ GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO TẠO ĐỀ THI TUYỂN SINH ĐẠI HỌC, CAO ĐẲNG NĂM 2005
-------------- MÔN: TIẾNG ANH, Khối D
ĐỀ CHÍNH THỨC Thời gian làm bài: 180 phút Cán bộ coi thi 1 ký và ghi rõ họ tên:

Họ và tên thí sinh: ...........................................................................

Ngày, tháng, năm sinh: ........../ ........../ ........................................... Cán bộ coi thi 2 ký và ghi rõ họ tên:

Phòng thi số: ............................................... Số báo danh: ..................................


Số phách:
Bài thi gồm 02 trang - Thí sinh phải viết câu trả lời vào đúng chỗ quy định theo hướng dẫn

------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
Điểm: Bằng số: ………………….... Cán bộ chấm thi 1 ký: Cán bộ chấm thi 2 ký: Số phách:

Bằng chữ: ……….................

I (05 điểm). Chọn từ có trọng âm chính nhấn vào âm tiết có vị trí khác với vị trí trọng âm chính ở ba từ còn lại và viết chữ A, B, C hoặc D ứng với mỗi từ đã
chọn vào vị trí tương ứng trong khung Answers.
Answers
1. A. calculator B. language C. comprehend D. institute 1.
2. A. challenge B. counter C. guardian D. explain 2.
3. A. astonished B. obstacle C. disposal D. apparent 3.
4. A. advertiser B. history C. difficulty D. adventurous 4.
5. A. alternative B. impetus C. ancestry D. dividend 5.

II (10 điểm). Chọn một từ/cụm từ thích hợp cho mỗi chỗ trống trong những câu sau và viết chữ A, B, C hoặc D ứng với từ/cụm từ đã chọn vào vị trí tương ứng
trong khung Answers.
Answers
6. The beautiful village is sheltered _____ the weather by the 11. _____ he was good at physics in lower grades, he was terrible at 6. 11.
mountain. it in grade 12.
A. from B. by C. in D. of A. When B. While C. Except that D. Despite
7. It is better to try to work _____ rather than against Nature. 12. The conference was organized for all of the _____ in the city. 7. 12.
A. for B. with C. by D. along A. history B. historical C. historic D. historian
teachers teachers teachers teachers
8. They wanted us to pay _____ cheque. 13. Unless we _____ up to these problems, many species of animals 8. 13.
will become extinct.
A. for B. in C. on D. by A. look B. turn C. face D. get
9. Andrew came to the party _____ he hadn't been invited. 14. "_____ do you go to the movies?" "Once a month." 9. 14.
A. although B. despite C. in case D. even A. How far B. What time C. How often D. How much
time
10. PO box stands _____ "Post Office" box. 15. The entrance exam is _____ far more difficult than the end-of- 10. 15.
term one.
A. as B. like C. for D. by A. at B. by C. in D. from
III (20 điểm). Hoàn thành mỗi câu sau với dạng thích hợp của từ trong ngoặc bằng cách viết dạng từ thích hợp đó vào vị trí tương ứng trong khung Answers.
Answers
16. This volcano is dead; it has been _____ for more than a century. (ACT) 16.
17. There's a serious _____ of food in the disaster area. (SHORT) 17.
18. He's the only child in his family and hardly enjoys _____. (BROTHER) 18.
19. Nobody is happy with their _____ explanations they gave for the failure. (CONVINCE) 19.
20. In nursing, women tend to _____ men by four to one. (NUMBER) 20.
21. "Bye-bye" is a more _____ word than "Goodbye". (FORM) 21.
22. Tests are often carried out to detect genetic _____ before birth. (NORMAL) 22.
23. It's very _____ of you to bring your umbrella today. (SENSE) 23.
24. _____ to a new environment is a difficult thing for old people. (ADAPT) 24.
25. The result is impossible to predict with any degree of _____. (CERTAIN) 25.
IV (20 điểm). Tìm một từ thích hợp cho mỗi chỗ trống được đánh số từ 26 đến 35 và viết từ đó vào vị trí tương ứng trong khung Answers.
Answers
If you live in a city, you probably see many people, hear the (26)_____ of traffic, and smell the 26. 31.
pollution (27)____ cars and factories.
We are entering a new time in (28)____ history of the world. Before this, most (29)____ were
27. 32.
farmers. They lived in the country. Now many people are (30)____ the farms and moving into the
cities. They are looking for better jobs. The cities are growing very quickly. Most cities are very
crowded. People are driving more cars, burning more fuel, (31)____ more water, eating more 28. 33.
food, making more garbage, and producing more things in factories than (32)____ before. Life is
becoming difficult. 29. 34.
Some governments are trying to plan for the future. They are building new roads, putting
(33)____ new houses, looking for more water, and limiting growth in certain areas. Still, city
30. 35.
planners are getting worried. People are crowding into the cities (34)____ than the cities can take
them. The cities are running out (35)____ room. What is the answer to this problem?

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V (15 điểm). Đọc đoạn văn sau đây và viết câu trả lời ngắn gọn cho mỗi câu hỏi từ 36 đến 40 vào vị trí tương ứng ở bên phải.
While almost everyone accepts the goal of developing skills in the three "R's" – reading, writing, and arithmetic – it often seems impossible to reach agreement
on any goal beyond that. In the broadest terms, the conflict over educational goals can be viewed as a conflict between conservatives and liberals, or, as they
are sometimes called, essentialists and progressives.
The conservatives, or essentialists, tend to identify a desirable education with the transmission of the cultural heritage, a no-nonsense curriculum featuring the
three R's at the elementary-school level, and academic studies or strong vocational or business courses in the secondary school. They stress the training of
the mind and cultivation of the intellect.
The liberals, or progressives, tend to be interested in the development of the whole child, not merely in training the child's mind or in preparing the child for
adult life in a remote future. They emphasize rich, meaningful school living in the present, and they view subject matter as a resource for total human
development rather than as a goal in itself. They do not downgrade content but believe it should be acquired not for its own sake but as a means of fostering
thought and inquiry.

36. What is the basic goal of education that most people agree on? 36. .................................................................................................................................................

37. What do the conservatives emphasize? 37. .................................................................................................................................................

38. What do the liberals consider most important about schooling? 38. .................................................................................................................................................

39. How do the liberals generally expect the child to develop? 39. .................................................................................................................................................

40. How do the liberals treat educational content? 40. .................................................................................................................................................

VI (15 điểm).
A (10 điểm). Hãy dùng dạng thích hợp của những từ cho dưới đây (thể hiện thái độ/ hành động của người nói) để tường thuật lại những câu nói sau
đây. Mỗi từ chỉ được sử dụng một lần. Ví dụ: Mary to Sean: "Shall I review your piece of writing?" → Mary offered to review Sean's piece of writing.
admit advise apologize complain compliment explain invite
offer persuade promise remind suggest threaten warn
41. The mother to her son: "Don't forget to take your passport with you." 41. ................................................................................................................
................................................................................................................
42. Anne to Susan: "Would you like to stay for dinner with us?" 42. ................................................................................................................
................................................................................................................
43. Pete to his sister: "I wouldn't tell anyone the story if I were you." 43. ................................................................................................................
................................................................................................................
44. The robber to the old lady: "Give me all your money or I'll kill you." 44. ................................................................................................................
................................................................................................................
45. Bob to his brother: "I'll help you with your homework." 45. ................................................................................................................
B (05 điểm). Sử dụng nguyên dạng của từ/cụm từ cho sẵn trong ngoặc để viết lại các câu sau đây sao cho nghĩa của chúng không thay đổi.
46. I used a calculator; otherwise, it would have taken much longer. (If) 46. ................................................................................................................
47. I don't believe anything that he says. (whatever) 47. ................................................................................................................
48. He prefers plain water to coffee. (rather) 48. ................................................................................................................
49. I've never read such a sarcastic essay before. (ever) 49. ................................................................................................................
50. She not only passed the exam but also got a prize. (Not only) 50. ................................................................................................................

VII (05 điểm). Các câu từ 51 đến 55 sau đây có lỗi. Viết đầy đủ câu đúng vào vị trí tương ứng ở bên phải.
51. Singing, in some way, a song is similar to the reciting of a poem. 51. ............................................................................................................................
............................................................................................................................
52. Revising a paper will be much easier using a word processor. 52. ............................................................................................................................
53. Yesterday he went to a hair salon to cut his hair. 53. ............................................................................................................................
54. There is a panel discussion in the student lounge about drug 54. ............................................................................................................................
addiction. ............................................................................................................................
55. Although salmons live in salt water, but they lay their eggs and 55. ............................................................................................................................
die in fresh water. ............................................................................................................................
VIII (10 điểm). Sử dụng những từ/cụm từ cho sẵn dưới đây để viết thành những câu hoàn chỉnh. Anh/Chị có thể dùng thêm từ/cụm từ và thực hiện những
biến đổi cần thiết nhưng không bỏ bất kỳ từ nào đã cho.

56. The children / full / excitement / at / thought / their coming 56. ..............................................................................................................................
holiday // ..............................................................................................................................
57. If you / take this exam / study / be / likely / fail // 57. ..............................................................................................................................
..............................................................................................................................
58. Young people / less and less / dependent / their parents / tend / 58. ..............................................................................................................................
develop / independent thinking // ..............................................................................................................................
59. The climate / Britain / same / that / northwestern Europe // 59. ..............................................................................................................................
..............................................................................................................................
60. Many attempts / make / overcome / language barrier / little 60. ..............................................................................................................................
success / make // ..............................................................................................................................
____________________________________________________________________________________________________________
Cán bộ coi thi không giải thích gì thêm.
BỘ GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO TẠO ĐỀ THI TUYỂN SINH ĐẠI HỌC, CAO ĐẲNG NĂM 2006
Môn thi: TIẾNG ANH, khối D
ĐỀ CHÍNH THỨC
Thời gian làm bài: 90 phút
(Đề thi có 04 trang)

Otto Channel
PHẦN CHUNG CHO TẤT CẢ THÍ SINH (từ câu 1 đến câu 60)

Chọn phương án (A hoặc B, C, D) ứng với từ có trọng âm chính nhấn vào âm tiết có vị trí khác với ba
từ còn lại trong mỗi câu:
Câu 1:
A. equality B. difficulty C. simplicity D. discovery
Câu 2:
A. tenant B. common C. rubbish D. machine
Câu 3:
A. animal B. bacteria C. habitat D. pyramid
Câu 4:
A. writer B. teacher C. builder D. career
Câu 5:
A. company B. atmosphere C. customer D. employment

Chọn phương án đúng (A hoặc B, C, D) để hoàn thành mỗi câu sau:


Câu 6: What beautiful eyes _______!
A. does she have B. she has C. has she D. she doesn't have
Câu 7: Make exercise a part of your daily _______.
A. regularity B. chore C. routine D. frequency
Câu 8: _______ the storm, the ship couldn't reach its destination on time.
A. In case of B. In spite of C. Because of D. But for
Câu 9: He completely _______ with what I said.
A. accepted B. complained C. agreed D. argued
Câu 10: I finished my homework a few days ahead _______ the deadline.
A. of B. to C. by D. at
Câu 11: He hurried _______ he wouldn't be late for class.
A. since B. as if C. unless D. so that
Câu 12: If she _______ rich, she would travel around the world.
A. would be B. is C. has been D. were
Câu 13: Mary was the last applicant _______.
A. to be interviewed B. to be interviewing C. to interview D. to have interviewed
Câu 14: Argentina _______ Mexico by one goal to nil in the match.
A. beat B. scored C. won D. knocked
Câu 15: There should be no discrimination on _______ of sex, race or religion.
A. fields B. places C. areas D. grounds
Câu 16: The cat was _______ to wait for the mouse to come out of its hole.
A. patient enough B. so patient C. enough patient D. too patient
Câu 17: I can't find my purse anywhere; I must _______ it at the cinema.
A. leave B. have left C. be leaving D. have been leaving
Câu 18: _______ of the workers has his own work.
A. Every B. Each C. Other D. All
Câu 19: The numbers add _______ to 70.
A. off B. up C. in D. out
Câu 20: The equipment in our office needs _______.
A. moderner B. modernizing C. modernized D. modernization
Câu 21: He felt _______ when he failed the exams the second time.
A. discouraged B. annoyed C. undecided D. determined
Câu 22: I have bought a present for my mother, and now I need some _______.
A. paper wrapper B. wrap paper C. wrapped paper D. wrapping paper
Câu 23: Computer is one of the most important _______ of the 20th century.
A. inventings B. inventories C. inventions D. inventors
Câu 24: If they are not careful with their accounts, their business will go _______.
A. poor B. bankrupt C. penniless D. broken
Câu 25: It was really kind _______ you to help those poor people.
A. by B. of C. at D. to

Câu 26: Do you know _______?


A. what wrong was it with B. what's wrong with it C. what wrong was with it D. what wrong is it with
Câu 27: If you had taken my advice, you _______ in such difficulties.
A. won't be B. hadn't been C. wouldn't be D. wouldn't have been

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Câu 28: Hair colour is one of _______ characteristics to be used in identifying people.
A. the most obviously B. most obvious C. obviously the most D. the most obvious
Câu 29: I would appreciate it _______ what I have told you a secret.
A. you can keep B. that you kept C. you will keep D. if you kept
Câu 30: My cat would not have bitten the toy fish _______ it was made of rubber.
A. if she has known B. if she should know C. had she known D. if she knew
Câu 31: I wish I hadn't said it. If only I could _______.
A. turn the clock round B. turn the clock down C. turn the clock back D. turn the clock forward
Câu 32: _______, the results couldn't be better.
A. No matter what he tried hard B. No matter how hard he tried
C. Although very hard he tried D. Despite how hard he tried
Câu 33: He gave me his personal _______ that his draft would be ready by Friday.
A. endurance B. insurance C. assurance D. ensurance
Câu 34: They will stay there for some days if the weather _______ fine.
A. would be B. was C. is D. will be
Câu 35: Many people like the slow _______ of life in the countryside.
A. step B. pace C. speed D. space

Đọc kỹ đoạn văn sau và chọn phương án đúng (A hoặc B, C, D) cho mỗi chỗ trống từ câu 36 đến câu 45:
The next generation of telephone users will probably laugh (36)______ we explain how we used to stand next to a wall in
the kitchen to (37)______ a phone call. Mobile communications, already highly advanced compared with a decade ago, will
completely change communications in the next few years. (38)______ there are millions of people using mobile phones, most
people know (39)______ about the mobile telecommunications industry and its technology.
There are three types of mobile phone. These are hand portables, pocket-sized hand portables and transportables. The
smallest and most popular are the pocket-sized hand portables. These work on rechargeable batteries, which allow an (40)______
of up to 80 minutes' conversation. Mobiles that are fitted permanently in a vehicle do not (41)______ on separate batteries. They
require an external aerial on the vehicle. This can mean a stronger signal with clearer (42)______. Transportables have a high
power capability and can be used (43)______ anywhere. They come with powerful battery packs for longer, continuous use and
may also be put (44)______ a vehicle, using its electrics. They (45)______ to be bulkier than hand portables.

Câu 36: A. unless B. when C. while D. whether


Câu 37: A. make B. give C. take D. do
Câu 38: A. In addition B. Because C. As a result D. Although
Câu 39: A. little B. some C. few D. lots
Câu 40: A. amount B. account C. activity D. average
Câu 41: A. rely B. create C. carry D. insist
Câu 42: A. wave B. letter C. speech D. speed
Câu 43: A. mostly B. hardly C. most D. almost
Câu 44: A. on with B. into C. up with D. in to
Câu 45: A. used B. have C. tend D. are

Đọc kỹ đoạn văn sau và chọn phương án đúng (A hoặc B, C, D) cho mỗi câu từ 46 đến 50:
Sometimes you know things about people the first time you see them, for example, that you want to be friends with them or
that you don't trust them. But perhaps this kind of intuition isn't as hard to explain as it may seem. For instance, people give out
body language signals all the time. The way you hold your body, head and arms tells people about your mood. If you hold your
arms tightly at your sides, or fold them across your chest, people will generally feel that you are being defensive. Holding your
head to one side shows interest in the other, while an easy, open posture indicates that you are self-confident. All this affects the
way you feel about someone.
Also, a stranger may remind you of a meeting with someone. This may be because of something as simple as the fact that
he or she is physically similar to someone who treated you well or badly. Your feelings about a stranger could be influenced by a
smell in the air that brings to mind a place where you were happy as a child. Since even a single word can bring back a memory
such as that, you may never realize it is happening.
Câu 46: What does the word "open" in the passage most closely mean?
A. Unrestrained. B. Relaxed. C. Confined. D. Unlimited.
Câu 47: What influences your impression of a person you meet the first time?
A. Intuition. B. Familiarity. C. Knowledge. D. Feeling.
Câu 48: What one feels about a stranger may be influenced by something that ________.
A. strengthens one's past behaviours B. reminds one of one's past treatment
C. revives one's past memories D. points to one's childhood
Câu 49: What does the second paragraph discuss?
A. Meanings of signals one implies towards a stranger.
B. Factors that may influence one's feelings about a stranger.
C. How people usually behave to a stranger.
D. Factors that cause people to act differently.
Câu 50: Intuition described in the passage can be explained by means of _________.
A. styles B. languages C. patterns D. behaviours

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Đọc kỹ đoạn văn sau và chọn phương án đúng (A hoặc B, C, D) cho mỗi câu từ 51 đến 55:
Upon the creation of the United States, one of the core concepts on which the hopes for the new democracy were pinned
was the ideal that its citizens would be enlightened individuals with clearly articulated rights and the opportunity for individual
achievement and education. It was believed that in a free nation where the power belongs to the people, the commitment to
education defines the progress of that democracy and is the catalyst for future progress. This core value has not only stood the
test of time but has also grown in importance. In this new Information Era and international economy, education is an increasingly
vital commodity, a precursor of potential success and a driving force of change. It is important to recognize, however, that we
approach education today differently than in the past, partly because the kinds of jobs people had didn't require the kind of basic
education and specialized training that is often required in the workforce today. In the 1950s, for instance, only 20 percent of
American jobs were classified as professional, 20 percent as skilled, and 60 percent as unskilled. Today, our world has changed.
The proportion of unskilled jobs has fallen to 20 percent, while skilled jobs now account for at least 60 percent of the workforce.
Even more important, almost every job today increasingly requires a combination of academic knowledge and practical skills that
require learning throughout a lifetime.
Câu 51: Education is defined in this passage as a driving force of change because ______.
A. without education, no changes could have happened in American society so far
B. the government of the United States want to drive social changes in their own ways
C. education has helped to bring about and orient most changes in the American workforce
D. any American citizen who wants to change his driving licence must be very well-educated
Câu 52: The passage shows the percentage of jobs that require higher training in the US _______ between the 1950s and now.
A. has remained the same B. has changed dramatically
C. has been reversed D. has changed slightly
Câu 53: The phrase "enlightened individuals" in the first sentence most likely means "people who _______."
A. always appear brilliant-looking in public B. have often been well-exposed to light
C. have acquired an adequate level of education D. bring light to anywhere they go
Câu 54: In order to become a good American citizen today, in the author's point of view, any individual must _______.
A. know well all his/her rights and be ready to grasp his/her opportunity of success in life
B. study carefully the history of American educational and vocational systems even since their creation
C. understand thoroughly the combination of academic knowledge and practical skills
D. move actively forward in the new Information Era and international economy with a prestigious diploma
Câu 55: Which of the following titles would be best for the passage?
A. Education and Jobs in the Past and at Present in the United States
B. The Significant Role of Education in American Citizens' Careers
C. Academic Knowledge and Practical Skills in American Professions
D. Recent Changes of Educational and Vocational Systems in America

Chọn phương án (A hoặc B, C, D) ứng với từ/cụm từ có gạch chân cần phải sửa trong các câu sau:
Câu 56: If you need to keep fit, then why not take on a sport such as badminton or tennis?
A B C D
Câu 57: When her dog died, she cried very hardly for half an hour.
A B C D
Câu 58: Modern transportation can speed a doctor to the side of a sick person, even if the patient lives on an isolating farm.
A B C D
Câu 59: Tom's very good at science when his brother is absolutely hopeless.
A B C D
Câu 60: Daisy has such many things to do that she has no time to go out.
A B C D
PHẦN TỰ CHỌN: Thí sinh chọn các câu 61-70 hoặc 71-80
Lưu ý: Nếu chọn làm các câu 71-80 thì thí sinh bỏ trống các câu 61-70 trên phiếu trả lời trắc nghiệm.
Chọn phương án (A hoặc B, C, D) ứng với câu có nghĩa gần nhất với mỗi câu cho sẵn sau đây:
Câu 61: "Leave my house now or I'll call the police!" shouted the lady to the man.
A. The lady threatened to call the police if the man didn't leave her house.
B. The lady said that she would call the police if the man didn't leave her house.
C. The lady told the man that she would call the police if he didn't leave her house.
D. The lady informed the man that she would call the police if he didn't leave her house.
Câu 62: He last had his eyes tested ten months ago.
A. He had tested his eyes ten months before. B. He had not tested his eyes for ten months then.
C. He hasn't had his eyes tested for ten months. D. He didn't have any test on his eyes in ten months.
Câu 63: "You should have finished the report by now," John told his secretary.
A. John reproached his secretary for not having finished the report.
B. John said that his secretary had not finished the report.
C. John reminded his secretary of finishing the report on time.
D. John scolded his secretary for not having finished the report.
Câu 64: "If I were you, I would take the job," said my room-mate.
A. My room-mate was thinking about taking the job.
B. My room-mate advised me to take the job.
C. My room-mate introduced the idea of taking the job to me.
D. My room-mate insisted on taking the job for me.
Câu 65: "It's too stuffy in this room, isn't it?" said the guest.
A. The guest suggested that the room should be aired.
B. The guest remarked that the room should be aired.
C. The guest said that the room was too crowded.
D. The guest said that there was too much stuff in the room.
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Câu 66: "Cigarette?" he asked. "No, thanks." I said.
A. He asked for a cigarette, and I immediately refused. B. He mentioned a cigarette, so I thanked him.
C. He offered me a cigarette, but I promptly declined. D. He asked if I was smoking, and I denied at once.
Câu 67: The doctor said, "You really ought to rest for a few days, Jasmine."
A. Jasmine's doctor insisted that she should rest for a few days.
B. The doctor suggested that Jasmine should take a short rest.
C. It is the doctor's recommendation that Jasmine rested shortly.
D. The doctor strongly advised Jasmine to take a few days' rest.
Câu 68: "I will pay back the money, Gloria." said Ivan.
A. Ivan apologised to Gloria for borrowing her money. B. Ivan offered to pay Gloria the money back.
C. Ivan promised to pay back Gloria's money. D. Ivan suggested paying back the money to Gloria.
Câu 69: The children couldn't go swimming because the sea was too rough.
A. The children were not calm enough to swim in the sea.
B. The sea was rough enough for the children to swim in.
C. The sea was too rough for the children to go swimming.
D. The sea was too rough to the children's swimming.
Câu 70: "Would you like to come to my birthday party, Sarah?" asked Frederic.
A. Frederic invited Sarah to his birthday party.
B. Frederic asked if Sarah was able to come to his birthday party.
C. Frederic asked Sarah if she liked his birthday party or not.
D. Frederic reminded Sarah of his coming birthday party.

Chọn phương án (A hoặc B, C, D) ứng với câu tốt nhất được tạo ra bằng những từ cho sẵn:
Câu 71: opinion/ election/ fair
A. My opinion was fair about the election. B. In my opinion, I think the election was fair.
C. According to my opinion, the election was fair. D. In my opinion, the election was fair.
Câu 72: you/ really/ be/ able/ dress/ yourself/ age
A. You must really be able of dressing yourself in your age.
B. You should really be able to dress yourself at your age!
C. You have really been able of dressing yourself by your age.
D. You are really able of dressing yourself this age!
Câu 73: provide/ your handwriting/ legible/ test scorer/ accept/ your answer
A. Providing your handwriting is legible, the test scorer does not accept your answer.
B. Provided for your legible handwriting, the test scorer has to accept your answer.
C. Provided that your handwriting is legible, your answer will be accepted by any test scorer.
D. Providing with your legible handwriting, every test scorer must accept your answer.
Câu 74: imagine/ who/ happen/ run into/ yesterday/just
A. You imagine just who happened to run into us yesterday!
B. Have you just imagined who happened to run into me yesterday?
C. Could you imagine who just happened to run into us yesterday?
D. Just imagine who I happened to run into yesterday!
Câu 75: Jack/ recover/ quickly/ his serious illness
A. Jack was recovered very quickly from his serious illness.
B. Jack has recovered quite quickly from his serious illness.
C. Jack will recover quite quickly after his serious illness.
D. Jack recovered more quickly over his serious illness.
Câu 76: be/ clear/ what/ expect/ you
A. Are you clear about your expectation? B. Are you clear what is expected of you to do?
C. Are your expectations clear? D. Are you clear what is expected of you?
Câu 77: hilltop/ have/ good/ view/ our village
A. The hilltop can make our village views better.
B. From the hilltop, our village can be well viewed.
C. From the hilltop, we can have a better view of our village.
D. From the hilltop, our village can have a better view.
Câu 78: students/ remember/ deadline for entries/ final test
A. All the students surely remember the deadline for entries for the final test.
B. All the students must remember well the deadline for entries for the final test.
C. All the students should remember clearly the deadline for entries for the final test.
D. All of the students can certainly remember the deadline for entries for the final test.
Câu 79: man/ sentence/ 15 years/ prison/ he/ prove/ guilty
A. The man will get a sentence for himself to15 years in prison if he proves himself guilty.
B. The man was sentenced about 15 years in prison and proved himself guilty.
C. The man was sentenced to 15 years in prison because he had been proved guilty.
D. The man should make his final sentence after 15 years in prison as he proved himself guilty.
Câu 80: school-leavers/ choose/ college/ employment/ immediate
A. School-leavers can choose either college or immediate employment.
B. School-leavers can make a choice among college and employment immediately.
C. School-leavers can choose either college and employment immediately.
D. School-leavers can make an immediate choice of neither college nor employment.
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BỘ GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO TẠO ĐỀ THI TUYỂN SINH ĐẠI HỌC, CAO ĐẲNG NĂM 2007
Môn thi: TIẾNG ANH, Khối D
ĐỀ CHÍNH THỨC
Thời gian làm bài: 90 phút.
(Đề thi có 04 trang)

Otto Channel
Mã đề thi 254

Họ, tên thí sinh:..........................................................................


Số báo danh:............................................................................
ĐỀ THI GỒM 80 CÂU (TỪ CÂU 1 ĐẾN CÂU 80) DÀNH CHO TẤT CẢ THÍ SINH.

Chọn phương án đúng (A hoặc B, C, D) để hoàn thành mỗi câu sau.


Câu 1: If she ______ sick, she would have gone out with me to the party.
A. hasn’t been B. wasn’t C. weren’t D. hadn’t been
Câu 2: Prizes are awarded ______ the number of points scored.
A. according to B. because of C. adding up D. resulting in
Câu 3: While southern California is densely populated, ______ live in the northern part of the state.
A. a number people B. many people C. few people D. a few of people
Câu 4: The building has a smoke detector ______ any fires can be detected immediately.
A. so that B. if C. such as D. as if
Câu 5: It was announced that neither the passengers nor the driver ______ in the crash.
A. were injured B. are injured C. was injured D. have been injured
Câu 6: The two countries have reached an agreement through dialogues described as ________.
A. counterproductive B. unproductive C. productivity D. productive
Câu 7: Anne persisted ______ her search for the truth about what had happened.
A. at B. about C. in D. on
Câu 8: Ensure there is at least a 3cm space ______ allow adequate ventilation.
A. so as to B. so that C. in view of D. with a view to
Câu 9: Why don’t you ask the man where ______ to stay?
A. he would rather B. he feels like C. would he like D. he would like
Câu 10: My car is getting unreliable; I think I'll trade it ______ for a new one.
A. off B. away C. in D. up
Câu 11: The old houses were ______ down to make way for a block of flats.
A. banged B. hit C. knocked D. put
Câu 12: _______ that she burst into tears.
A. Her anger was such B. So angry she was C. She was so anger D. Such her anger was
Câu 13: I hadn’t realized she was English ______ she spoke.
A. until B. when C. only after D. in case
Câu 14: My father hasn't had much ______ with my family since he moved to New York.
A. business B. contact C. meeting D. connection
Câu 15: Nowadays children would prefer history ______ in more practical ways.
A. be taught B. teach C. to be taught D. to teach
Câu 16: Anne: “Thanks for the nice gift!”
John: “______”
A. In fact, I myself don’t like it. B. You’re welcomed.
C. I’m glad you like it. D. But do you know how much it costs?
Câu 17: He was ______ speaker!
A. so good a B. what a good C. so a good D. how good a
Câu 18: I just took it ______ that he’d always be available.
A. for granted B. into consideration C. easy D. into account
Câu 19: The case against the corruption scandal was ______.
A. discarded B. refused C. eliminated D. dismissed
Câu 20: She nearly lost her own life ______ attempting to save the child from drowning.
A. at B. with C. in D. for

Chọn phương án đúng (A hoặc B, C, D) ứng với câu có nghĩa gần nhất với mỗi câu cho sẵn sau đây.
Câu 21: David drove so fast; it was very dangerous.
A. David drove so fast, which was very dangerous. B. David drove so fast and was very dangerous.
C. David drove so fast, then was very dangerous. D. David drove so fast that was very dangerous.
Câu 22: The captain to his men: “Abandon the ship immediately!”
A. The captain invited his men to abandon the ship immediately.
B. The captain suggested his men abandon the ship immediately.
C. The captain ordered his men to abandon the ship immediately.
D. The captain requested his men to abandon the ship immediately.
Câu 23: The critics undervalued his new book.
A. The critics rejected his new book. B. The critics were fed up with his new book.
C. The critics had a low opinion of his new book. D. The critics turned down his new book.

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Câu 24: “Shall I make you a coffee?” the girl said to the lady.
A. The girl wanted to make a coffee for the lady. B. The girl offered to make a coffee for the lady.
C. The girl refused to make a coffee for the lady. D. The girl promised to make a coffee for the lady.
Câu 25: No sooner had she put the telephone down than her boss rang back.
A. As soon as her boss rang back, she put down the telephone.
B. Scarcely had she put the telephone down when her boss rang back.
C. Hardly she had hung up, she rang her boss immediately.
D. She had hardly put the telephone down without her boss rang back.

Chọn phương án đúng (A, B, C, hoặc D) để hoàn thành mỗi câu sau.
Câu 26: ______, he felt so unhappy and lonely.
A. Despite of his wealth B. Rich as was he C. Rich as he was D. Despite he was so rich
Câu 27: Peter asked me ______.
A. what time does the film start B. what time the film starts
C. what time the film started D. what time did the film start
Câu 28: She will be ill ______.
A. unless she takes a few days’ rest B. provided she takes a few days’ rest
C. in case she takes a few days’ rest D. if she takes a few days’ rest
Câu 29: ______ as taste is really a composite sense made up of both taste and smell.
A. That we refer to it B. What we refer to C. To which we refer D. What do we refer to
Câu 30: Never before ______ as accelerated as they are now during the technological age.
A. have historical changes been B. have been historical changes
C. historical changes have been D. historical have changes been

Chọn phương án (A hoặc B, C, D) ứng với từ có trọng âm chính nhấn vào âm tiết có vị trí khác với ba từ còn lại
trong mỗi câu.
Câu 31: A. considerate B. photographer C. community D. circumstance
Câu 32: A. apply B. anthem C. appear D. attend
Câu 33: A. scenery B. festival C. atmosphere D. location
Câu 34: A. prevent B. recent C. receive D. remote
Câu 35: A. opposite B. geography C. geometry D. endanger

Đọc kỹ đoạn văn sau và chọn phương án đúng (A hoặc B, C, D) cho mỗi câu từ 36 đến 45.
Millions of people are using cellphones today. In many places, it is actually considered unusual not to use one. In many
countries, cellphones are very popular with young people. They find that the phones are more than a means of
communication - having a mobile phone shows that they are cool and connected.
The explosion in mobile phone use around the world has made some health professionals worried. Some doctors are
concerned that in the future many people may suffer health problems from the use of mobile phones. In England, there has
been a serious debate about this issue. Mobile phone companies are worried about the negative publicity of such ideas.
They say that there is no proof that mobile phones are bad for your health.
On the other hand, medical studies have shown changes in the brain cells of some people who use mobile phones.
Signs of change in the tissues of the brain and head can be detected with modern scanning equipment. In one case, a
traveling salesman had to retire at young age because of serious memory loss. He couldn't remember even simple tasks.
He would often forget the name of his own son. This man used to talk on his mobile phone for about six hours a day, every
day of his working week, for a couple of years. His family doctor blamed his mobile phone use, but his employer's doctor
didn't agree.
What is it that makes mobile phones potentially harmful? The answer is radiation. High-tech machines can detect very
small amounts of radiation from mobile phones. Mobile phone companies agree that there is some radiation, but they say
the amount is too small to worry about.
As the discussion about their safety continues, it appears that it's best to use mobile phones less often. Use your
regular phone if you want to talk for a long time. Use your mobile phone only when you really need it. Mobile phones can
be very useful and convenient, especially in emergencies. In the future, mobile phones may have a warning label that says
they are bad for your health. So for now, it's wise not to use your mobile phone too often.

Câu 36: According to the passage, cellphones are especially popular with young people because ______.
A. they are indispensable in everyday communications B. they make them look more stylish
C. they keep the users alert all the time D. they cannot be replaced by regular phones
Câu 37: The changes possibly caused by the cellphones are mainly concerned with ______.
A. the mobility of the mind and the body B. the smallest units of the brain
C. the arteries of the brain D. the resident memory
Câu 38: The word "means" in the passage most closely means ______.
A. “meanings” B. “expression” C. “method” D. “transmission”
Câu 39: The word "potentially" in the passage most closely means ______.
A. “obviously” B. “possibly” C. “certainly” D. “privately”
Câu 40: "Negative publicity" in the passage most likely means ______.
A. information on the lethal effects of cellphones B. widespread opinion about bad effects of cellphones
C. the negative public use of cellphones D. poor ideas about the effects of cellphones
Câu 41: Doctors have tentatively concluded that cellphones may ________.
A. damage their users’ emotions B. cause some mental malfunction
C. change their users’ temperament D. change their users’ social behaviours

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Câu 42: The man mentioned in the passage, who used his cellphone too often, ______.
A. suffered serious loss of mental ability B. could no longer think lucidly
C. abandoned his family D. had a problem with memory
Câu 43: According to the passage, what makes mobile phones potentially harmful is ______.
A. their radiant light B. their power of attraction
C. their raiding power D. their invisible rays
Câu 44: According to the writer, people should ______.
A. only use mobile phones in urgent cases B. only use mobile phones in medical emergencies
C. keep off mobile phones regularly D. never use mobile phones in all cases
Câu 45: The most suitable title for the passage could be ______.
A. “The Reasons Why Mobile Phones Are Popular” B. “Technological Innovations and Their Price”
C. “The Way Mobile Phones Work” D. “Mobile Phones: A Must of Our Time”

Chọn phương án (A hoặc B, C, D) ứng với từ/cụm từ có gạch chân cần phải sửa để các câu sau trở thành câu
đúng.
Câu 46: Educated in the UK, his qualifications are widely recognized in the world of professionals.
A B C D
Câu 47: Many successful film directions are former actors who desire to expand their experience in the film industry.
A B C D
Câu 48: We admire Lucy for her intelligence, cheerful disposition and she is honest.
A B C D
Câu 49: However small, the sitting room is well designed and nicely decorated.
A B C D
Câu 50: In my opinion, I think this book is more interesting than the other one.
A B C D

Đọc kỹ đoạn văn sau và chọn phương án đúng (A hoặc B, C, D) cho mỗi câu từ 51 đến 60.
Traditionally in America, helping the poor was a matter for private charities or local governments. Arriving immigrants
depended mainly on predecessors from their homeland to help them start a new life. In the late 19th and early 20th
centuries, several European nations instituted public-welfare programs. But such a movement was slow to take hold in the
United States because the rapid pace of industrialization and the ready availability of farmland seemed to confirm the belief
that anyone who was willing to work could find a job.
Most of the programs started during the Depression era were temporary relief measures, but one of the programs -
Social Security - has become an American institution. Paid for by deductions from the paychecks of working people, Social
Security ensures that retired persons receive a modest monthly income and also provides unemployment insurance,
disability insurance, and other assistance to those who need it. Social Security payments to retired persons can start at age
62, but many wait until age 65, when the payments are slightly higher. Recently, there has been concern that the Social
Security fund may not have enough money to fulfill its obligations in the 21st century, when the population of elderly
Americans is expected to increase dramatically. Policy makers have proposed various ways to make up the anticipated
deficit, but a long-term solution is still being debated.
In the years since Roosevelt, other American presidents have established assistance programs. These include
Medicaid and Medicare; food stamps, certificates that people can use to purchase food; and public housing which is built at
federal expense and made available to persons on low incomes.
Needy Americans can also turn to sources other than the government for help. A broad spectrum of private charities
and voluntary organizations is available. Volunteerism is on the rise in the United States, especially among retired persons.
It is estimated that almost 50 percent of Americans over age 18 do volunteer work, and nearly 75 percent of U.S.
households contribute money to charity.

Câu 51: New immigrants to the U.S. could seek help from ______.
A. the people who came earlier B. the US government agencies
C. only charity organizations D. volunteer organizations
Câu 52: It took welfare programs a long time to gain a foothold in the U.S. due to the fast growth of______.
A. industrialization B. modernization C. urbanization D. population
Câu 53: The word “instituted” in the first paragraph mostly means ______.
A. “executed” B. “studied” C. “introduced” D. “enforced”
Câu 54: The Social Security program has become possible thanks to ______.
A. deductions from wages B. people’s willingness to work
C. donations from companies D. enforcement laws
Câu 55: Most of the public assistance programs ______ after the severe economic crisis.
A. were introduced into institutions B. did not become institutionalized
C. functioned fruitfully in institutions D. did not work in institutions
Câu 56: That Social Security payments will be a burden comes from the concern that ______.
A. elderly people ask for more money B. the program discourages working people
C. the number of elderly people is growing D. younger people do not want to work
Câu 57: Persons on low incomes can access public housing through ______.
A. low rents B. state spending C. donations D. federal expenditure
Câu 58: Americans on low incomes can seek help from ______.
A. federal government B. government agencies
C. state governments D. non-government agencies
Câu 59: Public assistance has become more and more popular due to the ______.
A. young people’s voluntarism only B. volunteer organizations
C. people’s growing commitment to charity D. innovations in the tax system

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Câu 60: The passage mainly discusses ______.
A. public assistance in America B. immigration into America
C. funding agencies in America D. ways of fund-raising in America

Đọc kỹ đoạn văn sau và chọn phương án đúng (A hoặc B, C, D) cho mỗi chỗ trống từ 61 đến 70.
The wind controls our planet's weather and climate. But how much do we understand about this complex force
(61)______ can kill and spread fear?
On the night of October 15, 1987, the south of England was (62)_____ by strong winds. Gusts of over 130 km/h
(63)______ through the region. Nineteen people were killed, £1.5-billion worth of damage was (64) ______ and 19 million
trees were blown down in just a few hours.
Although people thought of this (65)_____ a hurricane, the winds of 1987 were only a (66)______ 7 storm. They remain
far better known than the much more serious storms of January 25, 1990, (67)______ most of Britain was hit by daytime
winds of up to 173 km/h. On this occasion, 47 people were killed, even though, (68)______ in 1987, the weather
forecasters issued accurate warnings.
Extreme weather events such as these are dramatic (69)______ of the power of the wind. It is one part of the weather
that people generally do not give a second (70)______ to, but across the world the wind plays a crucial role in people's
lives.

Câu 61: A. what B. which C. when D. where


Câu 62: A. attacked B. besieged C. struck D. beaten
Câu 63: A. ran B. blew C. flew D. spread
Câu 64: A. paid B. created C. resulted D. caused
Câu 65: A. like B. unlike C. same as D. as
Câu 66: A. strength B. length C. power D. force
Câu 67: A. until B. why C. when D. while
Câu 68: A. when B. like C. unlike D. such as
Câu 69: A. recalls B. remains C. memories D. reminders
Câu 70: A. help B. think C. care D. thought

Đọc kỹ đoạn văn sau và chọn phương án đúng (A hoặc B, C, D) cho mỗi chỗ trống từ 71 đến 80.
Health and fitness are not just for young people. They are for anyone willing to accept the (71)______ for a good diet
and (72)______ exercise. With age, there is a tendency to feel that the body is no longer able to (73)______. Aches and
pains are (74)______ normal. Instead of pushing the body to do (75)_______, activities become limited. Yet examples after
examples have shown us that older people can – and should – be (76)______. Men and women in their sixties have run in
marathons, races of more than twenty-six miles. Some professional athletes stay (77)______ into their forties and fifties.
For most people, simple activities like walking and swimming are all that is needed to stay in (78)______. It’s important to
include exercise in your daily routine. In the winter, (79)______ push-ups, sit-ups, and other indoor exercises. Of course,
such exercises will be of little use (80)______ you follow them with soda and chips.

Câu 71: A. discipline B. ruling C. strictness D. regulation


Câu 72: A. regular B. useful C. much D. little
Câu 73: A. run B. malfunction C. operate D. perform
Câu 74: A. believed B. thought C. made D. considered
Câu 75: A. weaker B. more C. greater D. faster
Câu 76: A. eager B. active C. bold D. passive
Câu 77: A. passive B. competitive C. equal D. comparative
Câu 78: A. need B. form C. contact D. shape
Câu 79: A. make B. get C. work D. do
Câu 80: A. although B. unless C. if D. otherwise

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BỘ GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO TẠO ĐỀ THI TUYỂN SINH CAO ĐẲNG NĂM 2007
Môn thi: TIẾNG ANH, Khối D
ĐỀ CHÍNH THỨC
Thời gian làm bài: 90 phút.
(Đề thi có 04 trang)

Otto Channel
Mã đề thi 417

Họ, tên thí sinh:..........................................................................


Số báo danh:............................................................................
ĐỀ THI GỒM 80 CÂU (TỪ CÂU 1 ĐẾN CÂU 80) DÀNH CHO TẤT CẢ THÍ SINH.

Chọn phương án (A hoặc B, C, D) ứng với từ có trọng âm chính nhấn vào âm tiết có vị trí khác với ba từ còn
lại trong mỗi câu:

Câu 1: A. understand B. engineer C. comprehend D. religion


Câu 2: A. forecast B. attract C. suppose D. prefer

Chọn phương án đúng (A hoặc B, C, D) để hoàn thành mỗi câu sau:

Câu 3: After a meal in a restaurant, you ask the waiter for the _______.
A. receipt B. bill C. cheque D. prescription
Câu 4: John never comes to class on time and ______.
A. neither doesn't Peter B. neither does Peter C. so does Peter D. so doesn't Peter
Câu 5: Havy: “Thanks for your help, Judy.”
Judy: “______.”
A. It’s my pleasure B. With all my heart C. Never remind me D. Wish you
Câu 6: The shirt in the window was ______ expensive for me to buy.
A. such B. enough C. so D. too
Câu 7: ______, we couldn’t go out because it rained.
A. Unfortunate B. Unfortunately C. Fortunately D. Fortunate
Câu 8: He is going to get married ______ the end of this month.
A. on B. to C. in D. at
Câu 9: The air is not as pure as it ______.
A. is used to be B. used to be C. was used to be D. is used to being
Câu 10: If I were in charge, I ______ things differently.
A. had done B. will do C. would do D. would have done
Câu 11: It’s said that he has ______ friends of his age.
A. little B. few C. a little D. plenty
Câu 12: The population of the earth is increasing at a tremendous rate and _______ out of control.
A. why it will be B. soon will be C. they have become D. are soon going to be
Câu 13: The existence of many stars in the sky ______ us to suspect that there may be life on another planet.
A. lead B. leading C. have led D. leads
Câu 14: Janet has left home and is ______ of her parents.
A. dependent B. depend C. independent D. dependently
Câu 15: ______ he did not attend the English class, he knew the lesson quite well.
A. However B. In spite of C. Although D. Despite
Câu 16: Medical researchers are continually looking for ways to control, ______ and cure diseases.
A. prevented B. be prevented C. prevent D. preventing
Câu 17: He couldn’t get back _____ his car. He had locked himself out.
A. to B. on C. in D. into
Câu 18: When I last ______ Jane, she ______ to find a job.
A. saw / was trying B. see / is trying C. saw / tried D. have seen / tried
Câu 19: He bought all the books ______ are needed for the English course.
A. who B. those C. that D. what
Câu 20: Every member in Nataly's class admires her ______.
A. honesty B. honest C. dishonest D. dishonesty
Câu 21: "Just think, ______ 2 years' time, we'll be 20 both."
A. over B. after C. under D. in
Câu 22: The students ______ to be at school at 3 p.m.
A. have told B. told C. were told D. tell

Đọc kỹ đoạn văn sau và chọn phương án đúng (ứng với A hoặc B, C, D) cho mỗi chỗ trống từ 23 đến 32.

Many parents believe that their children (23)______ be taught to read right after they have learnt to walk. This is
fine if the child shows a real interest but (24)______ a child could be counter-productive if she or he isn't ready. Wise
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parents will have a relaxed (25)______ and take the lead from their child. What they should provide is a selection of
(26)______ toys, books and other activities. Nowadays there is plenty of good (27)______ available for young
children, and of course, seeing plenty of books in use about the house will also (28)______ them to read.
Of course, books are no longer the only (29)______ of stories and information. There is also a huge range of
videos, which can (30)______and extend the pleasure a child finds in a book and are (31)______ valuable in helping
to increase vocabulary and concentration. Television gets a bad press as far as children are concerned, mainly
because too many (32)______ too much time watching programmes not intended for their age group.

Câu 23: A. could not B. must not C. had to D. should


Câu 24: A. making B. insisting C. forcing D. starting
Câu 25: A. attitude B. competition C. decision D. pastime
Câu 26: A. expensive B. stimulating C. bright D. adult
Câu 27: A. produce B. games C. amusement D. sense
Câu 28: A. encourage B. provide C. provoke D. attract
Câu 29: A. search B. basis C. source D. site
Câu 30: A. watch B. assist C. enjoy D. reinforce
Câu 31: A. equally B. perfectly C. properly D. worthily
Câu 32: A. pay B. devote C. save D. spend

Đọc kỹ đoạn văn sau và chọn phương án đúng (ứng với A hoặc B, C, D) cho mỗi câu từ 33 đến 42.

A pilot cannot fly by sight alone. In many conditions, such as flying at night and landing in dense fog, a pilot must
use radar, an alternative way of navigating. Since human eyes are not very good at determining speeds of
approaching objects, radar can show a pilot how fast nearby planes are moving. The basic principle of radar is
exemplified by what happens when one shouts in a cave. The echo of the sounds against the walls helps a person
determine the size of the cave. With radar, however, the waves are radio waves instead of sound waves. Radio
waves travel at the speed of light, about 300,000 kilometers in one second. A radar set sends out a short burst of
radio waves. Then it receives the echoes produced when the waves bounce off objects. By determining the time it
takes for the echoes to return to the radar set, a trained technician can determine the distance between the radar set
and other objects. The word “radar”, in fact, gets its name from the term “radio detection and ranging”. “Ranging” is
the term for detection of the distance between an object and the radar set. Besides being of critical importance to
pilots, radar is essential for air traffic control, tracking ships at sea, and for tracking weather systems and storms.

Câu 33: What is the main topic of this passage?


A. Alternatives to radar. B. History of radar. C. Types of ranging. D. The nature of radar.
Câu 34: According to the passage, what can radar detect besides location of objects?
A. Size. B. Shape. C. Speed. D. Weight.
Câu 35: The word “exemplified” in the passage can be replaced by _______.
A. “resembled” B. “specified” C. “justified” D. “illustrated”
Câu 36: The word “shouts” in the passage most closely means _______.
A. “yells” B. “whispers” C. “exclaims” D. “shoots”
Câu 37: Which of the following words best describes the tone of this passage?
A. explanatory B. humorous C. argumentative D. imaginative
Câu 38: According to the passage, the distance between a radar set and an object can be determined by _______.
A. the time it takes for the radio waves to produce echoes and bounce off the object
B. the time it takes for the echoes produced by the radio waves to return to the radar set
C. the time it takes for a burst of radio waves to produce echoes when the waves bounce off the object
D. the term “ranging” used for detection of the distance between an object and the radar set
Câu 39: Which type of waves does radar use?
A. heat B. tidal C. sound D. radio
Câu 40: The word “tracking” in the passage most closely means _______.
A. ranging B. searching for C. repairing D. sending
Câu 41: Which of the following would most likely be the topic of the next paragraph?
A. Other uses of radar. B. A history of flying.
C. The technology used by pilots. D. Uses of some technology.
Câu 42: What might be inferred about radar?
A. It has improved navigational safety. B. It was developed from a study of sound waves.
C. It takes the place of a radio. D. It gave birth to the invention of the airplane.

Chọn phương án (A hoặc B, C, D) ứng với từ/ cụm từ có gạch chân cần phải sửa trong các câu sau:

Câu 43: Folk artists have few or no formal art training.


A B C D
Câu 44: Many people have complain about the dirt from the factory.
A B C D
Câu 45: A huge amount of tourists come to this city every year.
A B C D

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Câu 46: The film was so bored that all the audience had gone home before it ended.
A B C D
Câu 47: She refused to tell us why was she crying.
A B C D

Chọn phương án (A hoặc B, C, D) ứng với câu có nghĩa gần nhất với mỗi câu cho sẵn sau đây:

Câu 48: Unlike his sister, Bob exercises every day.


A. Bob and his sister exercise every day. B. Bob exercises every day, but his sister doesn’t.
C. Bob doesn’t like his sister to exercise. D. Bob’s sister exercises every day, but he doesn’t.
Câu 49: Barbara didn’t wear the raincoat, so she got a cold.
A. If Barbara worn the raincoat, she didn’t get a cold.
B. If Barbara had worn the raincoat, she wouldn’t have got a cold.
C. If Barbara has worn the raincoat, she won’t get a cold.
D. If Barbara wore the raincoat, she wouldn’t get a cold.
Câu 50: “If I were you, I would go to see the doctor”, David said to Claudia.
A. David advised Claudia not to go to see the doctor.
B. David told Claudia to become a doctor.
C. David advised Claudia to go to see the doctor.
D. David told Claudia that he would go to see the doctor.
Câu 51: The bread was too stale to eat.
A. It was stale to eat the bread. B. We cannot eat the bread because it was burnt.
C. Eating the bread was stale. D. The bread was not fresh enough to eat.
Câu 52: John Smith is a farmer. I bought his land.
A. John Smith, whose land I bought, is a farmer. B. John Smith, who is a farmer, whose land I bought.
C. John Smith, whom I bought his land, is a farmer. D. John Smith, who is a farmer, bought his land.

Đọc kỹ đoạn văn sau và chọn phương án đúng (ứng với A hoặc B, C, D) cho mỗi câu từ 53 đến 62.

Because writing has become so important in our culture, we sometimes think of it as more real than speech. A
little thought, however, will show why speech is primary and writing secondary to language. Human beings have
been writing (as far as we can tell from surviving evidence) for at least 5000 years; but they have been talking for
much longer, doubtless ever since there have been human beings.
When writing did develop, it was derived from and represented speech, although imperfectly. Even today
there are spoken languages that have no written form. Furthermore, we all learn to talk well before we learn to write;
any human child who is not severely handicapped physically or mentally will learn to talk: a normal human being
cannot be prevented from doing so. On the other hand, it takes a special effort to learn to write. In the past many
intelligent and useful members of society did not acquire the skill, and even today many who speak languages with
writing systems never learn to read or write, while some who learn the rudiments of those skills do so only
imperfectly.
To affirm the primacy of speech over writing is not, however, to disparage the latter. One advantage writing
has over speech is that it is more permanent and makes possible the records that any civilization must have. Thus, if
speaking makes us human, writing makes us civilized.

Câu 53: We sometimes think of writing as more real than speech because ______.
A. writing is secondary to language
B. human beings have been writing for at least 5000 years
C. it has become very important in our culture
D. people have been writing since there have been human beings
Câu 54: The author of the passage argues that ______.
A. everyone who learns to speak must learn to write
B. speech is more basic to language than writing
C. writing has become too important in today’s society
D. all languages should have a written form
Câu 55: Normal human beings ______.
A. learn to write and to talk at the same time B. learn to talk before learning to write
C. learn to write before learning to talk D. learn to talk after learning to write
Câu 56: According to the passage, writing ______.
A. developed from imperfect speech B. represents speech, but not perfectly
C. is imperfect, but less so than speech D. is represented perfectly by speech
Câu 57: Learning to write is ______.
A. not easy B. too difficult C. easy D. very easy
Câu 58: In order to show that learning to write requires effort, the author gives the example of ______.
A. people who learn the rudiments of speech B. severely handicapped children
C. people who speak many languages D. intelligent people who couldn’t write

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Câu 59: In the author’s judgment, ______.
A. speech is essential but writing has important benefits
B. writing is more real than speech
C. writing has more advantages than speech
D. speech conveys ideas less accurately than writing does
Câu 60: According to the author, one mark of any civilized society is that it ______.
A. teaches its children to speak perfectly B. keeps written records
C. affirms the primacy of speech over writing D. affirms the primacy of writing over speech
Câu 61: Which of the following is NOT true?
A. It is easy to acquire the writing skill.
B. Writing represents speech, but not perfectly.
C. Writing has become so important in our culture.
D. Speech is essential but writing has important benefits.
Câu 62: The word “advantage” in the last paragraph most closely means ______.
A. “domination” B. “skill” C. “rudiments” D. “benefit”

Chọn phương án đúng (ứng với A hoặc B, C, D) để hoàn thành các câu sau:

Câu 63: Le: "I can't understand how you missed the exit."
Tuong: "Well, it was so dark that ______."
A. hardly could we see the road signs B. we could see hardly the road signs
C. we could hardly see the road signs D. we could see the road signs hardly
Câu 64: I wouldn't have got wet ______.
A. if I have an umbrella with me B. if I had had an umbrella with me
C. unless I had had an umbrella with me D. if I had an umbrella with me
Câu 65: I am going to the hairdresser’s ______.
A. to cut my hair B. for to cut me my hair C. to have my hair cut D. to have cut my hair
Câu 66: ______, give her this map of the city.
A. When Mr. Leat’s wife arrived B. When is Mr. Leat’s wife arriving
C. When Mr. Leat’s wife arrives D. When Mr. Leat’s wife will arrive
Câu 67: He has received several scholarships ______.
A. for both his academic ability as well as his artistic
B. because of his academic and artistic ability
C. as resulting of his ability in the art and the academic
D. not only because of his artistic but his academic ability

Chọn từ (ứng với A hoặc B, C, D) có phần gạch chân được phát âm khác với ba từ còn lại trong mỗi câu
sau:

Câu 68: A. stone B. phone C. zone D. none


Câu 69: A. cheap B. change C. check D. chemistry
Câu 70: A. ridden B. given C. widen D. kitchen

Đọc kỹ đoạn văn sau và chọn phương án đúng (ứng với A hoặc B, C, D) cho mỗi chỗ trống từ 71 đến 80.

Alexander Graham Bell was born in 1847 in Edinburgh, Scotland. His father was an expert in phonetics.
(71)______ a boy, Alexander became interested in sounds and speech. In 1870, the Bells decided to (72) ______ to
America. They lived in Boston, (73)______ Alexander taught in a school for the deaf. There he began experimenting
with a machine (74)______ help the deaf hear. While experimenting with this machine, Bell had an idea, “Why do
not use electricity to (75)______ the human voice from one place to another?” He began to work on a new
(76)______. For years, Bell and his assistant, Thomas Watson, worked day (77)______ night. They rented rooms in
a boarding house. Bell was on one floor, and Watson was on (78)______. They tried to send (79)______ through a
wire. Finally, on March 19, 1876, Watson heard these words very clearly: “Mr. Watson, come here. I want you.”
Watson rushed upstairs, ran (80)______ Bell’s room, and shouted, “I heard you!”

Câu 71: A. Be B. During C. As D. Despite


Câu 72: A. leave B. move C. take D. return
Câu 73: A. when B. where C. which D. why
Câu 74: A. in order B. for C. to D. so that
Câu 75: A. send B. get C. change D. go
Câu 76: A. inventive B. inventor C. invent D. invention
Câu 77: A. and B. or C. by D. after
Câu 78: A. others B. the others C. other D. another
Câu 79: A. speaking B. letters C. telegram D. speech
Câu 80: A. onto B. in C. into D. to
----------------------------------------------------- HẾT ----------

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BỘ GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO TẠO ĐỀ THI TUYỂN SINH ĐẠI HỌC, CAO ĐẲNG NĂM 2007
Môn thi: TIẾNG ANH, Khối D
ĐỀ CHÍNH THỨC
Thời gian làm bài: 90 phút.
(Đề thi có 04 trang)
Otto Channel
Mã đề thi 254

Họ, tên thí sinh:..........................................................................


Số báo danh:............................................................................
ĐỀ THI GỒM 80 CÂU (TỪ CÂU 1 ĐẾN CÂU 80) DÀNH CHO TẤT CẢ THÍ SINH.

Chọn phương án đúng (A hoặc B, C, D) để hoàn thành mỗi câu sau.


Câu 1: If she ______ sick, she would have gone out with me to the party.
A. hasn’t been B. wasn’t C. weren’t D. hadn’t been
Câu 2: Prizes are awarded ______ the number of points scored.
A. according to B. because of C. adding up D. resulting in
Câu 3: While southern California is densely populated, ______ live in the northern part of the state.
A. a number people B. many people C. few people D. a few of people
Câu 4: The building has a smoke detector ______ any fires can be detected immediately.
A. so that B. if C. such as D. as if
Câu 5: It was announced that neither the passengers nor the driver ______ in the crash.
A. were injured B. are injured C. was injured D. have been injured
Câu 6: The two countries have reached an agreement through dialogues described as ________.
A. counterproductive B. unproductive C. productivity D. productive
Câu 7: Anne persisted ______ her search for the truth about what had happened.
A. at B. about C. in D. on
Câu 8: Ensure there is at least a 3cm space ______ allow adequate ventilation.
A. so as to B. so that C. in view of D. with a view to
Câu 9: Why don’t you ask the man where ______ to stay?
A. he would rather B. he feels like C. would he like D. he would like
Câu 10: My car is getting unreliable; I think I'll trade it ______ for a new one.
A. off B. away C. in D. up
Câu 11: The old houses were ______ down to make way for a block of flats.
A. banged B. hit C. knocked D. put
Câu 12: _______ that she burst into tears.
A. Her anger was such B. So angry she was C. She was so anger D. Such her anger was
Câu 13: I hadn’t realized she was English ______ she spoke.
A. until B. when C. only after D. in case
Câu 14: My father hasn't had much ______ with my family since he moved to New York.
A. business B. contact C. meeting D. connection
Câu 15: Nowadays children would prefer history ______ in more practical ways.
A. be taught B. teach C. to be taught D. to teach
Câu 16: Anne: “Thanks for the nice gift!”
John: “______”
A. In fact, I myself don’t like it. B. You’re welcomed.
C. I’m glad you like it. D. But do you know how much it costs?
Câu 17: He was ______ speaker!
A. so good a B. what a good C. so a good D. how good a
Câu 18: I just took it ______ that he’d always be available.
A. for granted B. into consideration C. easy D. into account
Câu 19: The case against the corruption scandal was ______.
A. discarded B. refused C. eliminated D. dismissed
Câu 20: She nearly lost her own life ______ attempting to save the child from drowning.
A. at B. with C. in D. for

Chọn phương án đúng (A hoặc B, C, D) ứng với câu có nghĩa gần nhất với mỗi câu cho sẵn sau đây.
Câu 21: David drove so fast; it was very dangerous.
A. David drove so fast, which was very dangerous. B. David drove so fast and was very dangerous.
C. David drove so fast, then was very dangerous. D. David drove so fast that was very dangerous.
Câu 22: The captain to his men: “Abandon the ship immediately!”
A. The captain invited his men to abandon the ship immediately.
B. The captain suggested his men abandon the ship immediately.
C. The captain ordered his men to abandon the ship immediately.
D. The captain requested his men to abandon the ship immediately.
Câu 23: The critics undervalued his new book.
A. The critics rejected his new book. B. The critics were fed up with his new book.
C. The critics had a low opinion of his new book. D. The critics turned down his new book.

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Câu 24: “Shall I make you a coffee?” the girl said to the lady.
A. The girl wanted to make a coffee for the lady. B. The girl offered to make a coffee for the lady.
C. The girl refused to make a coffee for the lady. D. The girl promised to make a coffee for the lady.
Câu 25: No sooner had she put the telephone down than her boss rang back.
A. As soon as her boss rang back, she put down the telephone.
B. Scarcely had she put the telephone down when her boss rang back.
C. Hardly she had hung up, she rang her boss immediately.
D. She had hardly put the telephone down without her boss rang back.

Chọn phương án đúng (A, B, C, hoặc D) để hoàn thành mỗi câu sau.
Câu 26: ______, he felt so unhappy and lonely.
A. Despite of his wealth B. Rich as was he C. Rich as he was D. Despite he was so rich
Câu 27: Peter asked me ______.
A. what time does the film start B. what time the film starts
C. what time the film started D. what time did the film start
Câu 28: She will be ill ______.
A. unless she takes a few days’ rest B. provided she takes a few days’ rest
C. in case she takes a few days’ rest D. if she takes a few days’ rest
Câu 29: ______ as taste is really a composite sense made up of both taste and smell.
A. That we refer to it B. What we refer to C. To which we refer D. What do we refer to
Câu 30: Never before ______ as accelerated as they are now during the technological age.
A. have historical changes been B. have been historical changes
C. historical changes have been D. historical have changes been

Chọn phương án (A hoặc B, C, D) ứng với từ có trọng âm chính nhấn vào âm tiết có vị trí khác với ba từ còn lại
trong mỗi câu.
Câu 31: A. considerate B. photographer C. community D. circumstance
Câu 32: A. apply B. anthem C. appear D. attend
Câu 33: A. scenery B. festival C. atmosphere D. location
Câu 34: A. prevent B. recent C. receive D. remote
Câu 35: A. opposite B. geography C. geometry D. endanger

Đọc kỹ đoạn văn sau và chọn phương án đúng (A hoặc B, C, D) cho mỗi câu từ 36 đến 45.
Millions of people are using cellphones today. In many places, it is actually considered unusual not to use one. In many
countries, cellphones are very popular with young people. They find that the phones are more than a means of
communication - having a mobile phone shows that they are cool and connected.
The explosion in mobile phone use around the world has made some health professionals worried. Some doctors are
concerned that in the future many people may suffer health problems from the use of mobile phones. In England, there has
been a serious debate about this issue. Mobile phone companies are worried about the negative publicity of such ideas.
They say that there is no proof that mobile phones are bad for your health.
On the other hand, medical studies have shown changes in the brain cells of some people who use mobile phones.
Signs of change in the tissues of the brain and head can be detected with modern scanning equipment. In one case, a
traveling salesman had to retire at young age because of serious memory loss. He couldn't remember even simple tasks.
He would often forget the name of his own son. This man used to talk on his mobile phone for about six hours a day, every
day of his working week, for a couple of years. His family doctor blamed his mobile phone use, but his employer's doctor
didn't agree.
What is it that makes mobile phones potentially harmful? The answer is radiation. High-tech machines can detect very
small amounts of radiation from mobile phones. Mobile phone companies agree that there is some radiation, but they say
the amount is too small to worry about.
As the discussion about their safety continues, it appears that it's best to use mobile phones less often. Use your
regular phone if you want to talk for a long time. Use your mobile phone only when you really need it. Mobile phones can
be very useful and convenient, especially in emergencies. In the future, mobile phones may have a warning label that says
they are bad for your health. So for now, it's wise not to use your mobile phone too often.

Câu 36: According to the passage, cellphones are especially popular with young people because ______.
A. they are indispensable in everyday communications B. they make them look more stylish
C. they keep the users alert all the time D. they cannot be replaced by regular phones
Câu 37: The changes possibly caused by the cellphones are mainly concerned with ______.
A. the mobility of the mind and the body B. the smallest units of the brain
C. the arteries of the brain D. the resident memory
Câu 38: The word "means" in the passage most closely means ______.
A. “meanings” B. “expression” C. “method” D. “transmission”
Câu 39: The word "potentially" in the passage most closely means ______.
A. “obviously” B. “possibly” C. “certainly” D. “privately”
Câu 40: "Negative publicity" in the passage most likely means ______.
A. information on the lethal effects of cellphones B. widespread opinion about bad effects of cellphones
C. the negative public use of cellphones D. poor ideas about the effects of cellphones
Câu 41: Doctors have tentatively concluded that cellphones may ________.
A. damage their users’ emotions B. cause some mental malfunction
C. change their users’ temperament D. change their users’ social behaviours

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Câu 42: The man mentioned in the passage, who used his cellphone too often, ______.
A. suffered serious loss of mental ability B. could no longer think lucidly
C. abandoned his family D. had a problem with memory
Câu 43: According to the passage, what makes mobile phones potentially harmful is ______.
A. their radiant light B. their power of attraction
C. their raiding power D. their invisible rays
Câu 44: According to the writer, people should ______.
A. only use mobile phones in urgent cases B. only use mobile phones in medical emergencies
C. keep off mobile phones regularly D. never use mobile phones in all cases
Câu 45: The most suitable title for the passage could be ______.
A. “The Reasons Why Mobile Phones Are Popular” B. “Technological Innovations and Their Price”
C. “The Way Mobile Phones Work” D. “Mobile Phones: A Must of Our Time”

Chọn phương án (A hoặc B, C, D) ứng với từ/cụm từ có gạch chân cần phải sửa để các câu sau trở thành câu
đúng.
Câu 46: Educated in the UK, his qualifications are widely recognized in the world of professionals.
A B C D
Câu 47: Many successful film directions are former actors who desire to expand their experience in the film industry.
A B C D
Câu 48: We admire Lucy for her intelligence, cheerful disposition and she is honest.
A B C D
Câu 49: However small, the sitting room is well designed and nicely decorated.
A B C D
Câu 50: In my opinion, I think this book is more interesting than the other one.
A B C D

Đọc kỹ đoạn văn sau và chọn phương án đúng (A hoặc B, C, D) cho mỗi câu từ 51 đến 60.
Traditionally in America, helping the poor was a matter for private charities or local governments. Arriving immigrants
depended mainly on predecessors from their homeland to help them start a new life. In the late 19th and early 20th
centuries, several European nations instituted public-welfare programs. But such a movement was slow to take hold in the
United States because the rapid pace of industrialization and the ready availability of farmland seemed to confirm the belief
that anyone who was willing to work could find a job.
Most of the programs started during the Depression era were temporary relief measures, but one of the programs -
Social Security - has become an American institution. Paid for by deductions from the paychecks of working people, Social
Security ensures that retired persons receive a modest monthly income and also provides unemployment insurance,
disability insurance, and other assistance to those who need it. Social Security payments to retired persons can start at age
62, but many wait until age 65, when the payments are slightly higher. Recently, there has been concern that the Social
Security fund may not have enough money to fulfill its obligations in the 21st century, when the population of elderly
Americans is expected to increase dramatically. Policy makers have proposed various ways to make up the anticipated
deficit, but a long-term solution is still being debated.
In the years since Roosevelt, other American presidents have established assistance programs. These include
Medicaid and Medicare; food stamps, certificates that people can use to purchase food; and public housing which is built at
federal expense and made available to persons on low incomes.
Needy Americans can also turn to sources other than the government for help. A broad spectrum of private charities
and voluntary organizations is available. Volunteerism is on the rise in the United States, especially among retired persons.
It is estimated that almost 50 percent of Americans over age 18 do volunteer work, and nearly 75 percent of U.S.
households contribute money to charity.

Câu 51: New immigrants to the U.S. could seek help from ______.
A. the people who came earlier B. the US government agencies
C. only charity organizations D. volunteer organizations
Câu 52: It took welfare programs a long time to gain a foothold in the U.S. due to the fast growth of______.
A. industrialization B. modernization C. urbanization D. population
Câu 53: The word “instituted” in the first paragraph mostly means ______.
A. “executed” B. “studied” C. “introduced” D. “enforced”
Câu 54: The Social Security program has become possible thanks to ______.
A. deductions from wages B. people’s willingness to work
C. donations from companies D. enforcement laws
Câu 55: Most of the public assistance programs ______ after the severe economic crisis.
A. were introduced into institutions B. did not become institutionalized
C. functioned fruitfully in institutions D. did not work in institutions
Câu 56: That Social Security payments will be a burden comes from the concern that ______.
A. elderly people ask for more money B. the program discourages working people
C. the number of elderly people is growing D. younger people do not want to work
Câu 57: Persons on low incomes can access public housing through ______.
A. low rents B. state spending C. donations D. federal expenditure
Câu 58: Americans on low incomes can seek help from ______.
A. federal government B. government agencies
C. state governments D. non-government agencies
Câu 59: Public assistance has become more and more popular due to the ______.
A. young people’s voluntarism only B. volunteer organizations
C. people’s growing commitment to charity D. innovations in the tax system
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Câu 60: The passage mainly discusses ______.
A. public assistance in America B. immigration into America
C. funding agencies in America D. ways of fund-raising in America

Đọc kỹ đoạn văn sau và chọn phương án đúng (A hoặc B, C, D) cho mỗi chỗ trống từ 61 đến 70.
The wind controls our planet's weather and climate. But how much do we understand about this complex force
(61)______ can kill and spread fear?
On the night of October 15, 1987, the south of England was (62)_____ by strong winds. Gusts of over 130 km/h
(63)______ through the region. Nineteen people were killed, £1.5-billion worth of damage was (64) ______ and 19 million
trees were blown down in just a few hours.
Although people thought of this (65)_____ a hurricane, the winds of 1987 were only a (66)______ 7 storm. They remain
far better known than the much more serious storms of January 25, 1990, (67)______ most of Britain was hit by daytime
winds of up to 173 km/h. On this occasion, 47 people were killed, even though, (68)______ in 1987, the weather
forecasters issued accurate warnings.
Extreme weather events such as these are dramatic (69)______ of the power of the wind. It is one part of the weather
that people generally do not give a second (70)______ to, but across the world the wind plays a crucial role in people's
lives.

Câu 61: A. what B. which C. when D. where


Câu 62: A. attacked B. besieged C. struck D. beaten
Câu 63: A. ran B. blew C. flew D. spread
Câu 64: A. paid B. created C. resulted D. caused
Câu 65: A. like B. unlike C. same as D. as
Câu 66: A. strength B. length C. power D. force
Câu 67: A. until B. why C. when D. while
Câu 68: A. when B. like C. unlike D. such as
Câu 69: A. recalls B. remains C. memories D. reminders
Câu 70: A. help B. think C. care D. thought

Đọc kỹ đoạn văn sau và chọn phương án đúng (A hoặc B, C, D) cho mỗi chỗ trống từ 71 đến 80.
Health and fitness are not just for young people. They are for anyone willing to accept the (71)______ for a good diet
and (72)______ exercise. With age, there is a tendency to feel that the body is no longer able to (73)______. Aches and
pains are (74)______ normal. Instead of pushing the body to do (75)_______, activities become limited. Yet examples after
examples have shown us that older people can – and should – be (76)______. Men and women in their sixties have run in
marathons, races of more than twenty-six miles. Some professional athletes stay (77)______ into their forties and fifties.
For most people, simple activities like walking and swimming are all that is needed to stay in (78)______. It’s important to
include exercise in your daily routine. In the winter, (79)______ push-ups, sit-ups, and other indoor exercises. Of course,
such exercises will be of little use (80)______ you follow them with soda and chips.

Câu 71: A. discipline B. ruling C. strictness D. regulation


Câu 72: A. regular B. useful C. much D. little
Câu 73: A. run B. malfunction C. operate D. perform
Câu 74: A. believed B. thought C. made D. considered
Câu 75: A. weaker B. more C. greater D. faster
Câu 76: A. eager B. active C. bold D. passive
Câu 77: A. passive B. competitive C. equal D. comparative
Câu 78: A. need B. form C. contact D. shape
Câu 79: A. make B. get C. work D. do
Câu 80: A. although B. unless C. if D. otherwise

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BỘ GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO TẠO ĐỀ THI TUYỂN SINH CAO ĐẲNG NĂM 2008
Môn thi: TIẾNG ANH, khối D
ĐỀ CHÍNH THỨC
Thời gian làm bài: 90 phút.
(Đề thi có 06 trang)

Otto Channel Mã đề thi 293

Họ, tên thí sinh:..........................................................................


Số báo danh:............................................................................
ĐỀ THI GỒM 80 CÂU (TỪ CÂU 1 ĐẾN CÂU 80) DÀNH CHO TẤT CẢ THÍ SINH.

Chọn phương án đúng (ứng với A hoặc B, C, D) để hoàn thành mỗi câu sau.
Câu 1: I ______ this letter around for days without looking at it.
A. am carrying B. will be carrying C. carry D. have been carrying
Câu 2: If you are not Japanese, so what _______ are you?
A. nationalized B. nation C. nationality D. national
Câu 3: It was not until she had arrived home ______ remembered her appointment with the doctor.
A. that she B. and she C. she D. when she had
Câu 4: The manager had his secretary ______ the report for him.
A. to have typed B. typed C. type D. to type
Câu 5: Be ______ with what you have got, Mary.
A. suspicious B. humorous C. interested D. satisfied
Câu 6: He looks thin, but ______ he is very healthy.
A. practically B. also C. actually D. consequently
Câu 7: - “________ detective stories?”
- “In my opinion, they are very good for teenagers.”
A. What do you think about B. Are you fond of
C. How about D. What do people feel about
Câu 8: - “Would you mind lending me your bike?”
- “ ______ .”
A. Yes. Here it is B. Not at all C. Great D. Yes, let’s
Câu 9: They would ______ go by air than travel by train.
A. always B. better C. prefer D. rather
Câu 10: Don’t worry. He’ll do the job as _______ as possible.
A. economizing B. economic C. uneconomically D. economically
Câu 11: ______ entering the hall, he found everyone waiting for him.
A. With B. On C. At D. During
Câu 12: - “Has an announcement been made about the eight o’clock flight to Paris?”
- “ _______.”
A. Not yet B. Yes, it was C. I don’t think that D. Sorry, I don’t
Câu 13: The window was so high up that ______ I could see was the sky.
A. just B. all C. only D. thus
Câu 14: He arrived late, ______ was annoying.
A. it B. that C. what D. which
Câu 15: I would really ______ your help with this assignment.
A. respect B. take C. appreciate D. thank
Câu 16: Can you keep calm for a moment? You ______ noise in class!
A. are always made B. always make C. have always made D. are always making
Câu 17: Take the number 5 bus and get ______ at Times Square.
A. off B. up C. outside D. down
Câu 18: I’ve just been told some ______ news.
A. astonish B. astonishment C. astonished D. astonishing
Câu 19: If people ______ after their houses properly, the police wouldn’t have so much work to do.
A. looked B. look C. have looked D. should look
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Câu 20: The ______ reason why I don’t want to move is that I’m perfectly happy here.
A. main B. big C. large D. great

Chọn nhóm từ hoặc mệnh đề thích hợp (ứng với A hoặc B, C, D) để hoàn thành mỗi câu sau.
Câu 21: There were two small rooms in the beach house, ______ served as a kitchen.
A. the smaller of them B. the smaller of which C. the smallest of which D. smallest of that
Câu 22: John’s score on the test is the highest in the class. He ______.
A. should study very hard B. must have studied very hard
C. must have to study well D. should have studied all the time
Câu 23: _______, they would have had what they wanted.
A. If they arrived at the fair early B. Had they arrived at the fair early
C. Unless they arrived at the fair early enough D. Supposing they were arriving at the fair early
Câu 24: John contributed fifty dollars, but he wishes he could contribute ______.
A. the same amount also B. more fifty dollars C. another fifty D. one other fifty dollars
Câu 25: He agreed to sign the contract ______.
A. so he didn’t know much about that company
B. in spite he knew much about it
C. because he didn’t know much about that company’s director
D. although he didn’t know much about that company

Đọc kỹ đoạn văn sau và chọn phương án đúng (ứng với A hoặc B, C, D) cho mỗi chỗ trống từ 26 đến 35.
Everyone wants to reduce pollution. But the pollution problem is (26)______ complicated as it is serious. It
is complicated (27)______ much pollution is caused by things that benefit people. (28)______, exhaust from
automobiles causes a large percentage of air pollution. But the automobile (29)______ transportation for
millions of people. Factories discharge much (30)______ the material that pollutes the air and water, but
factories give employment to a large number of people.
Thus, to end (31)_______ greatly reduce pollution immediately, people would have to (32)______ using
many things that benefit them. Most of the people do not want to do that, of course. But pollution can be
(33)______ reduced in several ways. Scientists and engineers can work to find ways to lessen the (34)______
of pollution that such things as automobiles and factories cause. Governments can pass and enforce laws that
(35)______ businesses and traffic to stop, or to cut down on certain polluting activities.
Câu 26: A. as B. more C. less D. like
Câu 27: A. so B. while C. though D. because
Câu 28: A. Specific B. For example C. Such as D. Like
Câu 29: A. takes B. affords C. carries D. provides
Câu 30: A. about B. for C. of D. with
Câu 31: A. or B. and C. as well D. then
Câu 32: A. start B. continue C. stop D. go on
Câu 33: A. carefully B. unexpectedly C. gradually D. little
Câu 34: A. way B. figure C. number D. amount
Câu 35: A. forbid B. prevent C. request D. require

Đọc kỹ đoạn văn sau và chọn phương án đúng (ứng với A, hoặc B, C, D) cho mỗi câu từ 36 đến 45.
At the beginning of the nineteenth century, the American educational system was desperately in need of
reform. Private schools existed, but only for the very rich. There were very few public schools because of the
strong sentiment that children who would grow up to be laborers should not “waste” their time on education
but should instead prepare themselves for their life’s work. It was in the face of this public sentiment that
educational reformers set about their task. Horace Mann, probably the most famous of the reformers, felt that
there was no excuse in a republic for any citizen to be uneducated. As Superintendent of Education in the state
of Massachusetts from 1837 to 1848, he initiated various changes, which were soon matched in other school
districts around the country. He extended the school year from five to six months and improved the quality of
teachers by instituting teacher education and raising teacher salaries. Although these changes did not bring
about a sudden improvement in the educational system, they at least increased public awareness as to the need
for a further strengthening of the system.

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Câu 36: The best title for the passage could be ______.
A. A Flight for Change
B. American Education in the Beginning of the 19th Century
C. Nineteenth - the Century of Reform
D. The Beginnings of Reform in American Education
Câu 37: The passage implied that to go to a private school, a student needed ______.
A. a high level of intelligence B. a strong educational background
C. a lot of money D. good grades
Câu 38: The word “desperately” in the passage mostly means ______.
A. partly B. urgently C. completely D. obviously
Câu 39: The author of the passage puts the word “waste” in quotation marks because he ______.
A. does not want students to waste their time on education
B. is quoting someone else who said that education was a waste of time
C. wants to emphasize how much time is wasted on education
D. thinks that education is not really a waste of time
Câu 40: According to the passage, Horace Mann wanted a better educational system for Americans because
______.
A. education at the time was so cheap
B. people had nothing else to do except go to school
C. Massachusetts residents needed something to do with their spare time
D. all citizens should be educated in a republic
Câu 41: The word “reformers” in the passage mostly means ______.
A. people who work for the government B. people who really enjoy teaching
C. people who try to change things for the better D. people who believe that education is wasted
Câu 42: The word “citizen” in the passage mostly means ______.
A. a person who lives in a particular city
B. a person who works in a particular place
C. a person who has the legal right to belong to a particular country
D. a person who works, especially one who does a particular kind of work
Câu 43: From 1837 to 1848, Horace Mann ______.
A. worked as a headmaster in a school in the state of Massachusetts
B. raised money for the educational development in Massachusetts
C. funded many projects to improve the educational system for Americans
D. managed education in the state of Massachusetts
Câu 44: According to the passage, which sentence is NOT TRUE?
A. Horace Mann began raising teachers’ salaries.
B. Horace Mann suggested schools prepare children for their life’s work.
C. Horace Mann brought about changes in many schools in the United States.
D. Horace Mann was a famous US educational reformer.
Câu 45: According to the passage, which of the following is a change that Horace Mann instituted?
A. The five-month school year. B. Better teacher training.
C. Increased pay for students. D. The matching of other districts’ policies.

Chọn phương án đúng (A hoặc B, C, D) ứng với câu có nghĩa gần nhất với mỗi câu cho sẵn sau đây.
Câu 46: We were all surprised when she suddenly came back.
A. All of us found it surprising that she suddenly came back.
B. The fact that we were surprised made her come back.
C. All of us were amazing to see her come back.
D. She was surprised, coming back suddenly.
Câu 47: Because she was irritated by her husband’s lack of punctuality, she left him.
A. Irritating with her husband’s lack of punctuality, she left him.
B. Being irritating by her husband’s lack of punctuality, she left him.
C. She left her husband because of her irritation with his lack of punctuality.
D. Irritated by her husband, she punctually left him.

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Câu 48: She usually drinks a glass of milk before going to bed every night.
A. She used to drink a glass of milk before going to bed every night.
B. She is used to drinking a glass of milk before going to bed every night.
C. She gets accustomed to a glass of milk before going to bed every night.
D. She is used to going to bed before drinking a glass of milk every night.
Câu 49: Before we can judge a government’s success, we have to decide the criteria, such as unemployment,
defense, or taxation.
A. We cannot decide on criteria on unemployment, defense and taxation unless we have judged a
government’s success.
B. We cannot judge a government’s success without first deciding the relevant criteria, such as
unemployment, defense or taxation.
C. Unemployment, defense and taxation are the criteria upon which we can judge a government’s success.
D. We should judge a government’s success on the basis of the following criteria: unemployment, defense
and taxation.
Câu 50: I can’t help feeling worried about Tom.
A. I find it impossible not to worry about Tom. B. I don’t worry about Tom.
C. I can do nothing to help Tom. D. I cannot help Tom stop worrying.

Chọn phương án (A hoặc B, C, D) ứng với từ/ cụm từ có gạch chân cần phải sửa để các câu sau trở thành
câu đúng.
Câu 51: It is time the government helped the unemployment to find some jobs.
A B C D
Câu 52: Nora hardly never misses an opportunity to play in the tennis tournaments.
A B C D
Câu 53: My mother doesn’t care how much does the washing machine cost because she
A B C
is going to buy it anyway.
D
Câu 54: Due of the government’s policy, some farming areas have been abandoned.
A B C D
Câu 55: The British national anthem, calling “God Save the Queen”, was a traditional song in
A B C D
the 18th century.

Đọc kỹ đoạn văn sau và chọn phương án đúng (ứng với A hoặc B, C, D) cho mỗi chỗ trống từ 56 đến 65.
Around the age of sixteen, you must make one of the biggest decisions of your life. “Do I stay on at school
and hopefully go on to university (56)______? Do I leave and start work or begin a training (57)______?”
The decision is yours, but it may be (58)______ remembering two things: there is more unemployment
(59)______ those who haven’t been to university, and people who have the right (60)______ will have a big
advantage in the competition for jobs. If you decide to go (61)______ into a job, there are many opportunities
for training. Getting qualifications will (62)______ you to get on more quickly in many careers, and evening
classes allow you to learn (63)______ you earn. Starting work and taking a break to study when you are older
is (64)______ possibility. In this way, you can save up money for your student days, as well as (65)______
practical work experience.
Câu 56: A. former B. past C. later D. after
Câu 57: A. term B. class C. school D. course
Câu 58: A. necessary B. important C. worth D. useful
Câu 59: A. of B. through C. among D. between
Câu 60: A. skills B. interests C. habits D. arts
Câu 61: A. instant B. just C. straight D. direct
Câu 62: A. help B. make C. give D. let
Câu 63: A. while B. what C. where D. which
Câu 64: A. another B. always C. also D. again
Câu 65: A. doing B. getting C. making D. taking

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Đọc kỹ đoạn văn sau và chọn phương án đúng (ứng với A hoặc B, C, D) cho mỗi câu từ 66 đến 75.
It is hard to think of a world without gas or electricity. Both are commonly used for lighting and heating
today. We now can instantly flick a lighter or strike a match to make a flame. But it was not long ago that
there were no such things as matches or lighters. To make fire, it was necessary to strike a piece of iron on flint
for sparks to ignite some tinder. If the tinder was damp, or the flint old, you had to borrow some fire from a
neighbor.
We do not know exactly when or how people first used fire. Perhaps, many ages ago, they found that sticks
would burn if they were dropped into some hole where melted lava from a volcano lay boiling. They brought
the lighted sticks back to make their fire in a cave. Or, they may have seen trees catch fire through being struck
by lightning, and used the trees to start their own fires.
Gradually people learned they could start a fire without traveling far to find flames. They rubbed two pieces
of wood together. This method was used for thousands of years.
When people became used to making fires with which to cook food and stay warm at night, they found that
certain resins or gums from trees burnt longer and brighter. They melted resins and dipped branches in the
liquid to make torches that lit their homes at night. Iron stands in which torches used to be fixed can still be
seen in old buildings of Europe.
There was no lighting in city streets until gas lamps, and then electric lamps were installed. Boys ran about
London at night carrying torches of burning material. They were called torch boys, or link boys, and earned a
living by guiding visitors to friends’ houses at night.
For centuries homes were lit by candles until oil was found. Even then, oil lamps were no more effective
than a cluster of candles. We read about the splendors and marvels of ancient palaces and castles, but we
forget that they must have been gloomy and murky places at night.

Câu 66: The word “lighter” in the passage mostly means ______.
A. a device that uses electricity, oil or gas to produce light
B. a small device that produces a flame for lighting cigarettes, etc.
C. the energy from the sun, a lamp, etc. that makes it possible to see things
D. a hot bright stream of burning gas that comes from something that is on fire
Câu 67: To make a fire in times just before the advent of matches, it was essential to have access to ______.
A. a burning fire or to possess flint B. a burning fire or to possess iron
C. flint, iron and dry tinder D. a magnifying glass
Câu 68: The first fire used by people was probably obtained ______.
A. from the sun’s heat through glass B. by rubbing wood together
C. from heat or fire caused by nature D. by striking iron against flint
Câu 69: Torches for lighting were made from ______.
A. the wood of gum trees B. iron bars dipped in melted resins
C. wooden poles dipped in oil D. tree branches dipped in melted resins
Câu 70: Before the electric lamp was invented ______.
A. oil lamps and then candles were used
B. candles and oil lamps appeared about the same time
C. candles and then oil lamps were used
D. people did not use any form of lighting in their houses
Câu 71: The word “splendors” in the passage mostly means ______.
A. wonderful things that have been achieved
B. places where a lot of people go on holiday
C. things that fill one with surprise and admiration
D. the beautiful and impressive features of a place
Câu 72: Which sentence is NOT TRUE according to the passge?
A. We know exactly when and how people first used fire.
B. A world is impossible without gas or electricity.
C. We can make a fire by striking a piece of iron on flint to ignite some tinder.
D. Matches and lighters were invented not long ago.
Câu 73: The word “gloomy” in the passage mostly means ______.
A. totally covered with darkness B. badly lit in a way that makes one feel sad
C. containing a lot of white D. full of light; having the natural light of day
Câu 74: What form of street lighting was used in London when link boys used to work there?
A. Gas lighting. B. No lighting at all. C. Electric lighting. D. Oil lighting.

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Câu 75: The best title for the passage could be ______ .
A. Prehistoric People and Fire B. Fire: Discovery and Uses
C. Different Types of Lamps D. The Advantages of Candles

Chọn phương án (A hoặc B, C, D) ứng với từ có phần gạch chân phát âm khác với ba từ còn lại trong mỗi
câu.
Câu 76: A. final B. writer C. ivory D. widow
Câu 77: A. passed B. managed C. cleared D. threatened

Chọn phương án (A hoặc B, C, D) ứng với từ có trọng âm chính nhấn vào âm tiết có vị trí khác với ba từ
còn lại trong mỗi câu.
Câu 78: A. mathematics B. particular C. authority D. community
Câu 79: A. receive B. proper C. process D. factor
Câu 80: A. possession B. politics C. refusal D. decision

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BỘ GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO TẠO ĐỀ THI TUYỂN SINH ĐẠI HỌC, CAO ĐẲNG NĂM 2008
Môn thi: TIẾNG ANH, khối D
ĐỀ CHÍNH THỨC
Thời gian làm bài: 90 phút.
(Đề thi có 05 trang)
Otto Channel Mã đề thi 342

Họ, tên thí sinh:..........................................................................


Số báo danh:............................................................................
ĐỀ THI GỒM 80 CÂU (TỪ CÂU 1 ĐẾN CÂU 80) DÀNH CHO TẤT CẢ THÍ SINH.

Chọn phương án đúng (A hoặc B, C, D) để hoàn thành mỗi câu sau.


Câu 1: - Janet: "Do you feel like going to the cinema this evening?"
- Susan: "______."
A. You’re welcome B. That would be great
C. I feel very bored D. I don't agree, I'm afraid
Câu 2: He’s a very ______ person because he can make other workers follow his advice.
A. influential B. effective C. creative D. deciding
Câu 3: The price of fruit has increased recently, ______ the price of vegetables has gone down.
A. when B. whereas C. otherwise D. whether
Câu 4: The referee ______ the coin to decide which team would kick the ball first.
A. caught B. cast C. threw D. tossed
Câu 5: It is blowing so hard. We ______ such a terrible storm.
A. had never known B. have never known
C. never know D. have never been knowing
Câu 6: - "Why wasn't your boyfriend at the party last night?"
- "He ______ the lecture at Shaw Hall. I know he very much wanted to hear the speaker."
A. was to attend B. should have attended C. can have attended D. may have attended
Câu 7: When the old school friends met, a lot of happy memories ______ back.
A. were brought B. brought C. had been brought D. had brought
Câu 8: I’m afraid I’m not really ______ to comment on this matter.
A. qualifying B. quality C. qualitative D. qualified
Câu 9: I am considering ______ my job. Can you recommend a good company?
A. to move B. changing C. moving D. to change
Câu 10: The curtains have ______ because of the strong sunlight.
A. lightened B. fainted C. faded D. weakened
Câu 11: The doctor decided to give her a thorough examination ______ he could identify the causes of her
illness.
A. so as B. unless C. so that D. after
Câu 12: That hotel is so expensive. They ______ you sixty pounds for bed and breakfast.
A. charge B. take C. cost D. fine
Câu 13: How long does the play ______?
A. stretch B. extend C. last D. prolong
Câu 14: The room needs ______ for the wedding.
A. decorate B. be decorated C. decorating D. to decorate
Câu 15: I accidentally ______ Mike when I was crossing a street downtown yesterday.
A. kept an eye on B. lost touch with C. paid attention to D. caught sight of
Câu 16: - Laura: “What a lovely house you have!”
- Maria: “_______.”
A. Thank you. Hope you will drop in B. I think so
C. No problem D. Of course not, it’s not costly
Câu 17: Increasing ______ of fruit in the diet may help to reduce the risk of heart disease.
A. a number B. the amount C. an amount D. the number
Câu 18: I'm sure you'll have no ______ the exam.
A. difficulty to pass B. difficulties of passing C. difficulty passing D. difficulties to pass
Câu 19: My computer is not ______ of running this software.
A. suitable B. able C. capable D. compatible

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Câu 20: Today, household chores have been made much easier by electrical ______.
A. applications B. appliances C. utilities D. instruments

Chọn phương án (A hoặc B, C, D) ứng với từ có trọng âm chính nhấn vào âm tiết có vị trí khác với ba
từ còn lại trong mỗi câu.
Câu 21: A. particular B. economy C. communicate D. unemployment
Câu 22: A. physicist B. property C. inventor D. president
Câu 23: A. offer B. persuade C. apply D. reduce
Câu 24: A. potential B. understand C. recommend D. volunteer
Câu 25: A. preferential B. congratulate C. development D. preservative

Chọn phương án đúng (A hoặc B, C, D) ứng với câu có nghĩa gần nhất với mỗi câu cho sẵn sau đây.
Câu 26: "Why don’t we go out for dinner?” said Mary.
A. Mary requested a dinner out. B. Mary suggested a dinner out.
C. Mary demanded a dinner out. D. Mary ordered a dinner out.
Câu 27: The sooner we solve this problem, the better it will be for all concerned.
A. If all concerned are better, we can solve this problem soon.
B. If we could solve this problem soon, it would be better for all concerned.
C. If we can solve this problem soon, it will be better for all concerned.
D. It would be better for all concerned if we can solve this problem soon.
Câu 28: We've run out of tea.
A. There's not much more tea left. B. We have to run out to buy some tea.
C. We didn’t have any tea. D. There's no tea left.
Câu 29: "I will let you know the answer by the end of this week,” Tom said to Janet.
A. Tom suggested giving Janet the answer by the end of the week.
B. Tom insisted on letting Janet know the answer by the end of the week.
C. Tom promised to give Janet the answer by the end of the week.
D. Tom offered to give Janet the answer by the end of the week.
Câu 30: My friend told me, “If I were you, I would not smoke so much.”
A. My friend advised me not to smoke so much. B. My friend warned me against smoking so much.
C. My friend suggested not smoking so much. D. My friend prohibited me from smoking so much.

Đọc kỹ đoạn văn sau và chọn phương án đúng (A hoặc B, C, D) cho mỗi câu từ 31 đến 40.
The Sun today is a yellow dwarf star. It is fueled by thermonuclear reactions near its center that convert
hydrogen to helium. The Sun has existed in its present state for about four billion six hundred million years and
is thousands of times larger than the Earth.
By studying other stars, astronomers can predict what the rest of the Sun’s life will be like. About five
billion years from now, the core of the Sun will shrink and become hotter. The surface temperature will fall. The
higher temperature of the center will increase the rate of thermonuclear reactions. The outer regions of the Sun
will expand approximately 35 million miles, about the distance to Mercury, which is the closest planet to the
Sun. The Sun will then be a red giant star. Temperatures on the Earth will become too high for life to exist.
Once the Sun has used up its thermonuclear energy as a red giant, it will begin to shrink. After it
shrinks to the size of the Earth, it will become a white dwarf star. The Sun may throw off huge amounts of
gases in violent eruptions called nova explosions as it changes from a red giant to a white dwarf.
After billions of years as a white dwarf, the Sun will have used up all its fuel and will have lost its heat.
Such a star is called a black dwarf. After the Sun has become a black dwarf, the Earth will be dark and cold. If
any atmosphere remains there, it will have frozen over the Earth’s surface.

Câu 31: It can be inferred from the passage that the Sun ______.
A. has been in existence for 10 billion years
B. will continue to be a yellow dwarf for another 10 billion years
C. is rapidly changing in size and brightness
D. is approximately halfway through its life as a yellow dwarf
Câu 32: What will probably be the first stage of change for the Sun to become a red giant?
A. It will throw off huge amounts of gases. B. Its core will cool off and use less fuel.
C. Its surface will become hotter and shrink. D. Its central part will grow smaller and hotter.
Câu 33: When the Sun becomes a red giant, what will the atmosphere be like on the Earth?
A. It will become too hot for life to exist.
B. It will be almost destroyed by nova explosions.
C. It will freeze and become solid.
D. It will be enveloped in the expanding surface of the sun.

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Câu 34: When the Sun has used up its energy as a red giant, it will ______.
A. become smaller B. cease to exist C. get frozen D. stop to expand
Câu 35: Large amounts of gases may be released from the Sun at the end of its life as a ______.
A. white dwarf B. red giant C. black dwarf D. yellow dwarf
Câu 36: As a white dwarf, the Sun will be ______.
A. thousands of times smaller than it is today B. around 35 million miles in diameter
C. a cool and habitable planet D. the same size as the planet Mercury
Câu 37: The Sun will become a black dwarf when ______.
A. the core of the Sun becomes hotter B. the outer regions of the Sun expand
C. the Sun moves nearer to the Earth D. it has used up all its fuel as a white dwarf
Câu 38: The word “there” in the last sentence of paragraph 4 refers to ______.
A. the outer surface of the Sun B. the core of a black dwarf
C. the planet Mercury D. our own planet
Câu 39: This passage is intended to ______.
A. discuss conditions on the Earth in the far future
B. present a theory about red giant stars
C. alert people to the dangers posed by the Sun
D. describe the changes that the Sun will go through
Câu 40: The passage has probably been taken from ______.
A. a scientific journal B. a work of science fiction
C. a news report D. a scientific chronicle

Chọn phương án đúng (A hoặc B, C, D) để hoàn thành mỗi câu sau.


Câu 41: ______, he would have learned how to read.
A. Were he able to go to school as a child B. If he has been able to go school as a child
C. If he could go to school as a child D. Had he been able to go to school as a child
Câu 42: Having been delayed by heavy traffic, ______.
A. it was impossible for her to arrive on time B. she was unable to arrive on time
C. her being late was intolerable D. it was difficult for her to arrive on time
Câu 43: She regretfully told him that ______.
A. she would have left the tickets at home B. she had left the tickets at home
C. she left the tickets at home D. she would leave the tickets at home
Câu 44: The robbers attacked the owner of the house ______.
A. so that they would appear with the expensive painting
B. so they disappeared with the expensive painting
C. and disappeared with the expensive painting
D. but they appeared with the expensive painting
Câu 45: ______, he was determined to continue to climb up the mountain.
A. He felt very tired though B. Tired as it was
C. As he might feel tired D. Tired as he might feel

Đọc kỹ đoạn văn sau và chọn phương án đúng (A hoặc B, C, D) cho mỗi chỗ trống từ 46 đến 55.
How men first learnt to (46)______ words is unknown; in other words, the origin of language is a
(47)______. All we really know is that men, unlike animals, (48)______ invented certain sounds to express
thoughts and feelings, actions and things so that they could communicate with each other; and that later they
agreed (49)______ certain signs, called letters, which could be combined to represent those sounds, and
which could be written down. These sounds, (50)______ spoken or written in letters, are called words.
Great writers are those who not only have great thoughts but also express these thoughts in words that
(51)______ powerfully to our minds and emotions. This charming and telling use of words is what we call
literary (52)______. Above all, the real poet is a master of words. He can (53)______ his meaning in words
which sing like music, and which by their position and association can (54)______ men to tears. We should,
therefore, learn to choose our words carefully, (55)______ they will make our speech silly and vulgar.
Câu 46: A. invent B. discover C. create D. make
Câu 47: A. secret B. mystery C. story D. legend
Câu 48: A. somewhat B. somehow C. however D. whatever
Câu 49: A. at B. upon C. to D. with
Câu 50: A. though B. if C. whether D. however
Câu 51: A. lure B. interest C. appeal D. attract
Câu 52: A. prose B. work C. style D. form
Câu 53: A. transmit B. convey C. transfer D. carry

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Câu 54: A. move B. take C. break D. send
Câu 55: A. because B. so C. although D. or

Đọc kỹ đoạn văn sau và chọn phương án đúng (A hoặc B, C, D) cho mỗi câu từ 56 đến 65.
Reading to oneself is a modern activity which was almost unknown to the scholars of the classical and
medieval worlds, while during the fifteenth century the term “reading” undoubtedly meant reading aloud. Only
during the nineteenth century did silent reading become commonplace.
One should be wary, however, of assuming that silent reading came about simply because reading aloud
was a distraction to others. Examinations of factors related to the historical development of silent reading have
revealed that it became the usual mode of reading for most adults mainly because the tasks themselves
changed in character.
The last century saw a steady gradual increase in literacy and thus in the number of readers. As the
number of readers increased, the number of potential listeners declined and thus there was some reduction in
the need to read aloud. As reading for the benefit of listeners grew less common, so came the flourishing of
reading as a private activity in such public places as libraries, railway carriages and offices, where reading
aloud would cause distraction to other readers.
Towards the end of the century, there was still considerable argument over whether books should be
used for information or treated respectfully and over whether the reading of materials such as newspapers was
in some way mentally weakening. Indeed, this argument remains with us still in education. However, whatever
its virtues, the old shared literacy culture had gone and was replaced by the printed mass media on the one
hand and by books and periodicals for a specialised readership on the other.
By the end of the twentieth century, students were being recommended to adopt attitudes to books and
to use reading skills which were inappropriate, if not impossible, for the oral reader. The social, cultural and
technological changes in the century had greatly altered what the term “reading” implied.

Câu 56: Reading aloud was more common in the medieval world because ______.
A. there were few places available for private reading
B. silent reading had not been discovered
C. people relied on reading for entertainment
D. few people could read to themselves
Câu 57: The word “commonplace” in the first paragraph mostly means “______”.
A. for everybody’s use B. most preferable C. widely used D. attracting attention
Câu 58: The development of silent reading during the last century indicated ______.
A. a change in the nature of reading B. an increase in the number of books
C. a change in the status of literate people D. an increase in the average age of readers
Câu 59: Silent reading, especially in public places, flourished mainly because of ______.
A. the decreasing number of listeners B. the development of libraries
C. the decreasing need to read aloud D. the increase in literacy
Câu 60: It can be inferred that the emergence of the mass media and specialised reading materials was an
indication of ______.
A. a decline of standards of literacy B. an alteration in educationalists’ attitudes
C. a change in the readers’ interest D. an improvement of printing techniques
Câu 61: The phrase “a specialised readership” in paragraph 4 mostly means “______”.
A. a reading volume for particular professionals
B. a status for readers specialised in mass media
C. a requirement for readers in a particular area of knowledge
D. a limited number of readers in a particular area of knowledge
Câu 62: The phrase “oral reader” in the last paragraph mostly means “a person who ______”.
A. is interested in spoken language B. is good at public speaking
C. practises reading to an audience D. takes part in an audition
Câu 63: All of the following might be the factors that affected the continuation of the old shared literacy culture
EXCEPT ______.
A. the inappropriate reading skills B. the printed mass media
C. the specialised readership D. the diversity of reading materials
Câu 64: Which of the following statements is NOT TRUE according to the passage?
A. Not all printed mass media was appropriate for reading aloud.
B. Reading aloud was more common in the past than it is today.
C. The decline of reading aloud was wholly due to its distracting effect.
D. The change in reading habits was partly due to the social, cultural and technological changes.
Câu 65: The writer of this passage is attempting to ______.
A. change people’s attitudes to reading B. explain how reading habits have developed
C. encourage the growth of reading D. show how reading methods have improved

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Đọc kỹ đoạn văn sau và chọn phương án đúng (A hoặc B, C, D) cho mỗi chỗ trống từ 66 đến 75.
The heart has long been considered to be (66)______ feelings of love dwell. In love songs throughout the
ages, love almost always goes together (67)______ the heart. The heart has continuously been viewed
(68)______ the place where love begins and develops. Even the Bible gives (69)______ to love and the heart.
The role of the heart in love must come from what happens to it when a person feels strongly (70)______
to someone. The strong feelings (71)______ the other person, especially in the early stages of a relationship,
have the results that the heart starts beating faster and breathing starts speeding (72)______.
According to psychologists, a love relationship is a situation that (73)______ a lot of stress and the body
reacts to this by getting ready to face the unknown. This has been called the "fight or flight" (74)______,
meeting danger by fighting it or running away. So with love, the heart accelerates and (75)______ becomes
quick.

Câu 66: A. when B. that C. where D. what


Câu 67: A. with B. at C. to D. from
Câu 68: A. as B. as if C. like D. as though
Câu 69: A. quote B. reference C. citation D. preference
Câu 70: A. attracted B. attract C. attractive D. attracting
Câu 71: A. with B. for C. to D. of
Câu 72: A. upon B. up C. forward D. on
Câu 73: A. arouses B. comprises C. involves D. includes
Câu 74: A. reacting B. reaction C. reactionary D. reactor
Câu 75: A. sweating B. breathing C. exhaling D. inhaling

Chọn phương án (A hoặc B, C, D) ứng với từ/cụm từ có gạch chân cần phải sửa để các câu sau trở
thành câu đúng.
Câu 76: Helen likes to listen to music, to go to the cinema, to chat on the phone and going shopping.
A B C D

Câu 77: You can enjoy a sport without joining in a club or belonging to a team.
A B C D

Câu 78: Both Mr. and Mrs. Smith are explaining the children the rules of the game.
A B C D

Câu 79: Unlike many writings of her time, she was not preoccupied with morality.
A B C D

Câu 80: A child of noble birth, his name was famous among the children in that school.
A B C D

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BỘ GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO TẠO ĐỀ THI TUYỂN SINH CAO ĐẲNG NĂM 2009
Môn: TIẾNG ANH; Khối: D
ĐỀ CHÍNH THỨC
Thời gian làm bài: 90 phút, không kể thời gian phát đề
(Đề thi có 06 trang)
Otto Channel
Mã đề thi 165

Họ, tên thí sinh:....................................................................... ...


Số báo danh:............................................................................
ĐỀ THI GỒM 80 CÂU (TỪ QUESTION 1 ĐẾN QUESTION 80) DÀNH CHO TẤT CẢ THÍ SINH.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the
following questions.
Question 1: Chemistry is my ______ subject at school.
A. favourite B. popular C. liking D. wanted
Question 2: - "Would you like to join our volunteer group this summer?"
- "______"
A. Do you think I would? B. I wouldn't. Thank you.
C. Yes, you're a good friend. D. Yes, I'd love to. Thanks.
Question 3: - "Wow! What a nice coat you are wearing!"
- "______"
A. Certainly. Do you like it, too? B. I like you to say that.
C. Yes, of course. It's expensive. D. Thanks. My mother bought it for me.
Question 4: My supervisor is angry with me. I didn't do all the work I ______ last week.
A. should have done B. may have done C. need to have done D. must have done
Question 5: He runs a business, ______ he proves to have managerial skills.
A. however B. otherwise C. and D. despite
Question 6: Whenever he had an important decision to make, he ______ a cigar to calm his nerves.
A. would light B. would be lighting C. would have lit D. had lit
Question 7: Preparing for a job interview can be very ______.
A. stress B. stressful C. stressed D. stressing
Question 8: My brother left his job last week because he did not have any ______ to travel.
A. position B. chance C. ability D. location
Question 9: Not until the end of the 19th century ______ become a scientific discipline.
A. plant breeding has B. did plant breeding C. plant breeding had D. has plant breeding
Question 10: - "I can't speak English well enough to apply for that post."
- "______."
A. Me neither B. Me too C. Me either D. Me also
Question 11: "How can you live in this messy room? Go and ______ it up at once."
A. dust B. sweep C. tidy D. do
Question 12: Tears contain an antiseptic ______ helps protect our eyes from infection.
A. that B. what C. how D. where
Question 13: She is very absent-minded: she ______ her cellphone three times!
A. has lost B. loses C. was losing D. had lost
Question 14: - "Which hat do you like better?"
- "______"
A. Yes, I like it best. B. The one I tried on first.
C. Which one do you like? D. No, I haven't tried any.
Question 15: He always ______ the crossword in the newspaper before breakfast.
A. writes B. makes C. works D. does
Question 16: It is hard to get ______ him; he is such an aggressive man.
A. by B. on with C. into D. over to
Question 17: The new director of the company seems to be an intelligent and ______ man.
A. well-educated B. well-educate C. well-educational D. well-education
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Question 18: The movie is ______ Shakespeare’s Hamlet in a number of ways.
A. like to B. alike with C. similar to D. same as
Question 19: Although the exam was difficult, ______ the students passed it.
A. most of B. none of C. a few D. a lot
Question 20: - "Our team has just won the last football match."
- "______"
A. Good idea. Thanks for the news. B. Yes. I guess it's very good.
C. Well, that's very surprising! D. Yes, it's our pleasure.
Question 21: Vietnam's rice export this year will decrease ______ about 10%, compared with that of
last year.
A. with B. at C. by D. on
Question 22: By ______ the housework done, my mother has more time to pursue her career.
A. ordering B. taking C. having D. making
Question 23: The youths nowadays have many things to do in their ______ time.
A. leisure B. entertainment C. fun D. amusement
Question 24: Mary is unhappy that she hasn't ______ for the next round in the tennis tournament.
A. qualified B. quality C. qualification D. qualifying
Question 25: Working hours will fall to under 35 hours a week, ______?
A. will they B. won't they C. won't it D. will it
Question 26: This factory produced ______ motorbikes in 2008 as in the year 2006.
A. twice as many B. as twice as many C. as twice many D. as many as twice
Question 27: In many big cities, people have to ______ up with noise, overcrowding and bad air.
A. keep B. catch C. face D. put
Question 28: Had she worked harder last summer, she ______.
A. wouldn't have been sacked B. wouldn't have sacked
C. wouldn't sack D. wouldn't be sacked
Question 29: Listening is the most difficult language ______ for me to master.
A. one B. way C. skill D. job
Question 30: In the modern world, women's ______ roles have been changing.
A. natured B. naturally C. nature D. natural

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of
the following questions.
Question 31: Successful salespeople know their products thoroughly ______.
A. and the needs of the market understood
B. but the needs of the market are understood properly
C. and understand the needs of the market properly
D. understanding the needs of the market
Question 32: The Vietnamese students have to take an entrance exam ______.
A. in order that they should go to a college or university
B. for going to a college and university
C. so as go to a college or university
D. so that they can go to a college or university
Question 33: ______, many animals can still survive and thrive there.
A. Being severe weather conditions in the desert
B. Although the weather conditions in the desert are severe
C. The weather conditions in the desert to be severe
D. Even though the weather conditions in the desert severe
Question 34: Hillary changed her major from linguistics to business, ______.
A. hoping she can easier get a job
B. with the hope for being able finding a better job
C. hoping to find a job more easily
D. with hopes to be able easier to get employment

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Question 35: An excellent hairstylist can make a man seem to have more hair ______.
A. as has actually he B. than he actually has
C. than it actually is D. as is it actually

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to show the underlined part that needs
correction.
Question 36: My father used to giving me some good advice whenever I had a problem.
A B C D
Question 37: The woman of whom the red car is parked in front of the bank is a famous pop star.
A B C D
Question 38: The better you are at English, more chance you have to get a job with international
A B C D
organizations.
Question 39: There are differences and similarities between Vietnamese and American culture.
A B C D
Question 40: Society will be having to change radically to keep pace with the technology available.
A B C D

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate
the correct answer to each of the questions from 41 to 50.
Today we take electricity for granted and perhaps we do not realize just how useful this
discovery has been. Steam was the first invention that replaced wind power. It was used to drive
engines and was passed through pipes and radiators to warm rooms. Petrol mixed with air was the
next invention that provided power. Exploded in a cylinder, it drove a motor engine. Beyond these
simple and direct uses, those forms have not much adaptability.
On the other hand, we make use of electricity in thousands of ways. From the powerful
voltages that drive our electric trains to the tiny current needed to work a simple calculator, and from
the huge electric magnet in steel works that can lift 10 tons to the tiny electric magnet in a doorbell,
all are powered by electricity. An electric current can be made with equal ease to heat a huge mass
of molten metal in a furnace, or to boil a jug for a cup of coffee.
Other than atomic energy, which has not as yet been harnessed to the full, electricity is the
greatest power in the world. It is flexible, and so adaptable for any task for which it is wanted. It
travels so easily and with incredible speed along wires or conductors that it can be supplied instantly
over vast distances.
To generate electricity, huge turbines or generators must be turned. In Australia they use coal
or water to drive this machinery. When dams are built, falling water is used to drive the turbines
without polluting the atmosphere with smoke from coal.
Atomic power is used in several countries but there is always the fear of an accident. A
tragedy once occurred at Chernobyl, in Ukraine, at an atomic power plant used to make electricity.
The reactor leaked, which caused many deaths through radiation.
Now scientists are examining new ways of creating electricity without harmful effects to the
environment. They may harness the tides as they flow in and out of bays. Most importantly, they
hope to trap sunlight more efficiently. We do use solar heaters for swimming pools but as yet
improvement in the capacity of the solar cells to create more current is necessary. When this
happens, electric cars will be viable and the world will rid itself of the toxic gases given off by trucks
and cars that burn fossil fuels.

Question 41: The author mentions the sources of energy such as wind, steam, petrol in the first
paragraph to ______.
A. suggest that electricity should be alternated with safer sources of energy
B. emphasize the usefulness and adaptability of electricity
C. imply that electricity is not the only useful source of energy
D. discuss which source of energy can be a suitable alternative to electricity
Question 42: Before electricity, what was sometimes passed through pipes to heat rooms?
A. Gas. B. Petrol. C. Steam. D. Hot wind.
Question 43: What does the author mean by saying that electricity is flexible?
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A. It is cheap and easy to use. B. It is used to drive motor engines.
C. It can be adapted to various uses. D. It can be made with ease.
Question 44: What do we call machines that make electricity?
A. Voltages. B. Electric magnets.
C. Generators or turbines. D. Pipes and radiators.
Question 45: The main forms of power used to generate electricity in Australia are ______.
A. atomic power and water B. water and coal
C. sunlight and wind power D. wind and gas
Question 46: The word "they" in the last paragraph refers to ______.
A. harmful effects B. the tides C. scientists D. new ways
Question 47: Electric magnets are used in steel works to ______.
A. lift heavy weights up to ten tons B. test the steel for strength
C. heat the molten steel D. boil a jug of water
Question 48: The advantage of harnessing the power of the tides and of sunlight to generate
electricity is that they ______.
A. do not pollute the environment B. are more reliable
C. are more adaptable D. do not require attention
Question 49: Which of the following power sources causes pollution by emitting harmful gases?
A. Sunlight. B. Petrol. C. Water. D. Wind.
Question 50: The best title for this passage could be ______.
A. “Types of Power Plants” B. “Electricity: Harmful Effects on Our Life”
C. “How to Produce Electricity” D. “Why Electricity Is So Remarkable”

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part
is pronounced differently from that of the rest in each of the following questions.
Question 51: A. exist B. extinct C. explorer D. expand
Question 52: A. eternal B. energy C. eradicate D. eliminate
Question 53: A. ancient B. educate C. strange D. address
Question 54: A. desert B. reserve C. observant D. conserve
Question 55: A. astound B. account C. country D. mounting

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate
the correct word(s) for each of the blanks from 56 to 65.
In the United States and Canada, it is very important to (56)______ a person directly in the
eyes when you are having a conversation (57)______ him or her. If you look down or to the side
when the (58)______ person is talking, that person will think that you are not interested in
(59)______ he or she is saying. This, (60)______, is not polite. If you look down or to the side when
you are talking, it might (61)______ that you are not honest.
However, people who are speaking will sometimes look away for (62)______ seconds when
they are thinking or (63)______ to find the right word. But they always turn immediately (64)______
to look the listener directly in the eyes. These social "rules" are (65)______ for two men, two women,
a man and a woman, or an adult and a child.

Question 56: A. talk B. notice C. get D. look


Question 57: A. with B. to C. for D. about
Question 58: A. others B. another C. one D. other
Question 59: A. which B. what C. that D. where
Question 60: A. yet B. in addition C. of course D. although
Question 61: A. become B. come C. seem D. turn
Question 62: A. a little B. a few C. little D. few
Question 63: A. trying B. looking C. achieving D. managing
Question 64: A. up B. back C. down D. over
Question 65: A. like B. the same C. likely D. such as

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Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate
the correct answer to each of the questions from 66 to 75.
If parents bring up a child with the sole aim of turning the child into a genius, they will cause a
disaster. According to several leading educational psychologists, this is one of the biggest mistakes
which ambitious parents make. Generally, the child will be only too aware of what his parents expect,
and will fail. Unrealistic parental expectations can cause great damage to children.
However, if parents are not too unrealistic about what they expect their children to do, but are
ambitious in a sensible way, the child may succeed in doing very well – especially if the parents are
very supportive of their child.
Michael Collins is very lucky. He is crazy about music, and his parents help him a lot by
taking him to concerts and arranging private piano and violin lessons for him. They even drive him
50 kilometers twice a week for violin lessons. Michael’s mother knows very little about music, but his
father plays the trumpet in a large orchestra. However, he never makes Michael enter music
competitions if he is unwilling.
Winston Smith, Michael’s friend, however, is not so lucky. Both his parents are successful
musicians, and they set too high a standard for Winston. They want their son to be as successful as
they are and so they enter him for every piano competition held. They are very unhappy when he
does not win. Winston is always afraid that he will disappoint his parents and now he always seems
quiet and unhappy.

Question 66: One of the serious mistakes parents can make is to ______.
A. push their child into trying too much B. help their child to become a genius
C. make their child become a musician D. neglect their child’s education
Question 67: Parents’ ambition for their children is not wrong if they ______.
A. force their children into achieving success B. themselves have been very successful
C. understand and help their children sensibly D. arrange private lessons for their children
Question 68: Who have criticized the methods of some ambitious parents?
A. Successful musicians. B. Unrealistic parents.
C. Their children. D. Educational psychologists.
Question 69: Michael Collins is fortunate in that ______.
A. his father is a musician B. his parents are quite rich
C. his mother knows little about music D. his parents help him in a sensible way
Question 70: The phrase "crazy about" in the passage mostly means ______.
A. "surprised at" B. "extremely interested in"
C. "completely unaware of" D. "confused about"
Question 71: Winston’s parents push their son so much and he ______.
A. has won a lot of piano competitions B. cannot learn much music from them
C. has become a good musician D. is afraid to disappoint them
Question 72: The word "They" in the passage refers to ______.
A. concerts B. violin lessons C. parents in general D. Michael’s parents
Question 73: All of the following people are musical EXCEPT _____.
A. Winston’s father B. Winston’s mother C. Michael’s father D. Michael’s mother
Question 74: The word "unwilling" in the passage mostly means ______.
A. "getting ready to do something" B. "eager to do something"
C. "not objecting to doing anything" D. "not wanting to do something"
Question 75: The two examples given in the passage illustrate the principle that ______.
A. successful parents always have intelligent children
B. successful parents often have unsuccessful children
C. parents should let the child develop in the way he wants
D. parents should spend more money on the child’s education

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in
meaning to the original sentence in each of the following questions.
Question 76: Unless someone has a key, we cannot get into the house.
A. We could not get into the house if someone had a key.
B. If someone does not have a key, we can only get into the house.

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C. We can only get into the house if someone has a key.
D. If someone did not have a key, we could not get into the house.
Question 77: She knows a lot more about it than I do.
A. I know as much about it as she does.
B. I do not know as much about it as she does.
C. She does not know so much about it as I do.
D. I know much more about it than she does.
Question 78: The boy was not allowed to have any friends, so he felt lonely.
A. Having no friends, the boy felt so lonely.
B. Not having friends, they made the boy feel lonely.
C. Having a lot of friends, the boy felt lonely.
D. Deprived of friends, the boy felt lonely.
Question 79: Is it essential to meet your aunt at the station?
A. Did your aunt have to be met at the station?
B. Does your aunt have to meet at the station?
C. Does your aunt have to be met at the station?
D. Was your aunt met at the station?
Question 80: Conan said to me, "If I were you, I would read different types of books in different
ways."
A. Conan ordered me to read different types of books in different ways.
B. I said to Conan to read different types of books in different ways to me.
C. I read different types of books in different ways to Conan as he told me.
D. Conan advised me to read different types of books in different ways.

---------------------------------------------------------- THE END ----------

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BỘ GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO TẠO ĐỀ THI TUYỂN SINH ĐẠI HỌC NĂM 2009
Môn: TIẾNG ANH; Khối: D
ĐỀ CHÍNH THỨC
Thời gian làm bài: 90 phút, không kể thời gian phát đề
(Đề thi có 06 trang)
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Họ, tên thí sinh:....................................................................... ...


Số báo danh:............................................................................
ĐỀ THI GỒM 80 CÂU (TỪ QUESTION 1 ĐẾN QUESTION 80)
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the
following questions.
Question 1: We couldn’t fly ______ because all the tickets had been sold out.
A. economics B. economy C. economical D. economic
Question 2: “Buy me a newspaper on your way back, ______?”
A. will you B. can’t you C. do you D. don’t you
Question 3: My mother told me to ______ for an electrician when her fan was out of order.
A. turn B. rent C. send D. write
Question 4: Lora: “Your new blouse looks gorgeous, Helen!”
Helen: “______.”
A. It’s up to you B. Thanks, I bought it at Macy’s
C. I’d rather not D. You can say that again
Question 5: She had to hand in her notice ______ advance when she decided to leave the job.
A. in B. from C. with D. to
Question 6: There was nothing they could do ______ leave the car at the roadside where it had
broken down.
A. unless B. instead of C. than D. but
Question 7: Through an ______, your letter was left unanswered.
A. overcharge B. overtime C. oversight D. overtone
Question 8: There should be an international law against ______.
A. reforestation B. forestry C. afforestation D. deforestation
Question 9: Susan’s doctor insists ______ for a few days.
A. her resting B. that she rest C. her to rest D. that she is resting
Question 10: “This library card will give you free access ______ the Internet eight hours a day.”
A. to B. in C. on D. from
Question 11: – “How do you like your steak done?”
– “ ______.”
A. Very much B. Well done C. Very little D. I don’t like it much
Question 12: John: “Do you think that we should use public transportation to protect our
environment?”
Laura: “______”
A. There’s no doubt about it. B. Well, that’s very surprising.
C. Of course not. You bet! D. Yes, it’s an absurd idea.
Question 13: The United States consists of fifty states, ______ has its own government.
A. they each B. each of which C. hence each D. each of that
Question 14: The forecast has revealed that the world’s reserves of fossil fuel will have ______ by
2015.
A. run out B. taken over C. caught up D. used off
Question 15: “Please, will you just tidy your room, and stop ______ excuses!”
A. making B. doing C. having D. taking
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Question 16: Only when you grow up ______ the truth.
A. do you know B. you will know C. will you know D. you know
Question 17: They didn’t find ______ in a foreign country.
A. it easy to live B. it easy live C. easy to live D. it to live easy
Question 18: “I’d rather you______ home now.”
A. go B. going C. gone D. went
Question 19: “Don’t worry. I have ______ tire at the back of my car.”
A. another B. the other C. other D. others
Question 20: – “Don’t fail to send your parents my regards.”
– “______.”
A. It’s my pleasure B. You’re welcome C. Thanks, I will D. Good idea, thanks
Question 21: The kitchen ______ dirty because she has just cleaned it.
A. may be B. should be C. mustn’t be D. can’t be
Question 22: Jane ______ law for four years now at Harvard.
A. has been studying B. is studying C. studies D. studied
Question 23: ______ he arrived at the bus stop when the bus came.
A. Hardly had B. No sooner had C. No longer has D. Not until had
Question 24: He ______ to the doctor after the accident, but he continued to play instead.
A. must have gone B. couldn’t go C. didn’t have to go D. should have gone
Question 25: John paid $2 for his meal, ______ he had thought it would cost.
A. not so much as B. not so many as C. not as much D. less as
Question 26: It is very important for a firm or a company to keep ______ the changes in the market.
A. touch with B. up with C. pace of D. track about
Question 27: – “Mum, I’ve got 600 on the TOEFL test.”
– “______”
A. Good job! B. Good way! C. You are right. D. Oh, hard luck!
Question 28: I won’t change my mind ______ what you say.
A. whether B. no matter C. because D. although
Question 29: “How many times have I told you ______ football in the street?”
A. not to play B. do not play C. not playing D. not to have played
Question 30: – “Should we bring a lot of money on the trip?”
– “Yes. ______ we decide to stay longer.”
A. So that B. Because C. In case D. Though
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to show the underlined part that needs
correction.
Question 31: Although smokers are aware that smoking is harmful to their health, they can’t get rid it.
A B C D
Question 32: Even though the extremely bad weather in the mountains, the climbers decided
A B
not to cancel their climb.
C D
Question 33: Bill was about average in performance in comparison with other students in his class.
A B C D
Question 34: The media have produced live covering of Michael Jackson’s fans around the world
A B C
mourning for him.
D
Question 35: Found in the 12th century, Oxford University ranks among the world’s oldest universities.
A B C D
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Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the questions from 36 to 45.
Probably the most famous film commenting on the twentieth-century technology is Modern Times,
made in 1936. Charlie Chaplin was motivated to make the film by a reporter who, while interviewing
him, happened to describe the working conditions in industrial Detroit. Chaplin was told that healthy
young farm boys were lured to the city to work on automotive assembly lines. Within four or five
years, these young men’s health was destroyed by the stress of work in the factories.
The film opens with a shot of a mass of sheep making their way down a crowded ramp.
Abruptly, the film shifts to a scene of factory workers jostling one another on their way to a
factory. However, the rather bitter note of criticism in the implied comparison is not sustained. It is
replaced by a gentle note of satire. Chaplin prefers to entertain rather than lecture.
Scenes of factory interiors account for only about one-third of Modern Times, but they contain
some of the most pointed social commentary as well as the most comic situations. No one who has
seen the film can ever forget Chaplin vainly trying to keep pace with the fast-moving conveyor belt,
almost losing his mind in the process. Another popular scene involves an automatic feeding machine
brought to the assembly line so that workers need not interrupt their labor to eat. The feeding machine
malfunctions, hurling food at Chaplin, who is strapped in his position on the assembly line and cannot
escape. This serves to illustrate people’s utter helplessness in the face of machines that are meant to
serve their basic needs.
Clearly, Modern Times has its faults, but it remains the best film treating technology within a
social context. It does not offer a radical social message, but it does accurately reflect the sentiment of
many who feel they are victims of an over-mechanised world.
Question 36: According to the passage, Chaplin got the idea for Modern Times from ______.
A. a movie B. a conversation C. a newspaper D. fieldwork
Question 37: The young farm boys went to the city because they were ______.
A. promised better accommodation B. driven out of their sheep farm
C. attracted by the prospect of a better life D. forced to leave their sheep farm
Question 38: The phrase “jostling one another” in the third paragraph is closest in meaning to
“______”.
A. jogging side by side B. pushing one another
C. hurrying up together D. running against each other
Question 39: According to the passage, the opening scene of the film is intended ______.
A. to reveal the situation of the factory workers B. to introduce the main characters of the film
C. to produce a tacit association D. to give the setting for the entire plot later
Question 40: The word “vainly” in the fourth paragraph is closest in meaning to “______”.
A. recklessly B. carelessly C. hopelessly D. effortlessly
Question 41: The word “This” in the fourth paragraph refers to ______.
A. the scene of an assembly line in operation
B. the scene of the malfunction of the feeding machine
C. the malfunction of the twentieth-century technology
D. the situation of young workers in a factory
Question 42: According to the author, about two-thirds of Modern Times ______.
A. entertains the audience most B. is rather discouraging
C. was shot outside a factory D. is more critical than the rest
Question 43: The author refers to all of the following notions to describe Modern Times EXCEPT
“______”.
A. satire B. entertainment C. criticism D. revolution
Question 44: Which of the following statements is NOT true according to the passage?
A. The working conditions in the car factories of the 1930s were very stressful.
B. In Modern Times, the factory workers’ basic needs are well met.
C. The author does not consider Modern Times as a perfect film.
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D. Modern Times depicts the over-mechanised world from a social viewpoint.
Question 45: The passage was written to ______.
A. criticize the factory system of the 1930s B. explain Chaplin’s style of acting
C. review one of Chaplin’s popular films D. discuss the disadvantages of technology
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in
meaning to each of the following questions.
Question 46: “Why don’t you reply to the President’s offer right now?” said Mary to her husband.
A. Mary ordered her husband to reply to the President’s offer right now.
B. Mary suggested that her husband should reply to the President’s offer without delay.
C. Mary told her husband why he didn’t reply to the President’s offer then.
D. Mary wondered why her husband didn’t reply to the President’s offer then.
Question 47: She said, “John, I’ll show you round my city when you’re here.”
A. She organized a trip round her city for John. B. She planned to show John round her city.
C. She made a trip round her city with John. D. She promised to show John round her city.
Question 48: The film didn’t come up to my expectations.
A. The film was as good as I expected. B. I expected the film to end more abruptly.
C. The film fell short of my expectations. D. I expected the film to be more boring.
Question 49: He talked about nothing except the weather.
A. His sole topic of conversation was the weather.
B. He had nothing to say about the weather.
C. He said that he had no interest in the weather.
D. He talked about everything including the weather.
Question 50: It doesn’t matter to them which film they go to.
A. Whatever films are shown, they never see.
B. They don’t care about the cost of the films they see.
C. Which film they go to matters more than the cost.
D. They don’t mind which film they go to.
Question 51: He survived the operation thanks to the skilful surgeon.
A. He survived because he was a skilful surgeon.
B. Though the surgeon was skilful, he couldn’t survive the operation.
C. He wouldn’t have survived the operation without the skilful surgeon.
D. There was no skilful surgeon, so he died.
Question 52: Peter had very little money but managed to make ends meet.
A. Peter could hardly live on little money.
B. Having little money, Peter couldn’t make ends meet.
C. Peter found it hard to live on very little money.
D. Peter got by on very little money.
Question 53: “Please don’t drive so fast, Tom,” said Lisa.
A. Lisa insisted on Tom’s driving on.
B. Lisa complained about Tom’s driving too fast.
C. Lisa pleaded with Tom not to drive too fast.
D. Lisa grumbled to Tom about driving slowly.
Question 54: James was the last to know about the change of schedule.
A. The last thing James knew was the change of schedule.
B. At last James was able to know about the change of schedule.
C. Among the last people informed of the change of schedule was James.
D. Everyone had heard about the change of schedule before James did.
Question 55: There’s no point in persuading Jane to change her mind.
A. It’s possible for us to persuade Jane to change her mind.
B. Jane will change her mind though she doesn’t want to.
C. It’s useless to persuade Jane to change her mind.
D. No one wants Jane to change her mind because it’s pointless.
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Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the questions from 56 to 65.
Very few people in the modern world obtain their food supply by hunting and gathering in the
natural environment surrounding their homes. This method of harvesting from nature’s provision is the
oldest known subsistence strategy and has been practised for at least the last two million years. It was,
indeed, the only way to obtain food until rudimentary farming and the domestication of wild animals
were introduced about 10,000 years ago.
Because hunter-gatherers have fared poorly in comparison with their agricultural cousins, their
numbers have dwindled, and they have been forced to live in marginal environments, such as deserts
and arctic wastelands. In higher latitudes, the shorter growing seasons have restricted the availability
of plant life. Such conditions have caused a greater dependence on hunting, and on fishing along the
coasts and waterways. The abundance of vegetation in the lower latitudes of the tropics, on the other
hand, has provided a greater opportunity for gathering a variety of plants. In short, the environmental
differences have restricted the diet and have limited possibilities for the development of subsistence
societies.
Contemporary hunter-gatherers may help us understand our prehistoric ancestors. We know from
the observation of modern hunter-gatherers in both Africa and Alaska that a society based on hunting
and gathering must be very mobile. While the entire community camps in a central location, a smaller
party harvests the food within a reasonable distance from the camp. When the food in the area has
become exhausted, the community moves on to exploit another site. We also notice seasonal
migration patterns evolving for most hunter-gatherers, along with a strict division of labor between
the sexes. These patterns of behavior may be similar to those practised by mankind during the
Paleolithic Period.
Question 56: The word “domestication” in the first paragraph mostly means ______.
A. hatching and raising new species of wild animals in the home
B. adapting animals to suit a new working environment
C. teaching animals to do a particular job or activity in the home
D. making wild animals used to living with and working for humans
Question 57: According to the passage, subsistence societies depend mainly on ______.
A. agricultural products B. hunter-gatherers’ tools
C. nature’s provision D. farming methods
Question 58: The word “marginal” in the second paragraph is closest in meaning to “______”.
A. forgotten B. suburban C. disadvantaged D. abandoned
Question 59: In the lower latitudes of the tropics, hunter-gatherers ______.
A. have better food gathering from nature B. can free themselves from hunting
C. harvest shorter seasonal crops D. live along the coasts and waterways for fishing
Question 60: According to the passage, studies of contemporary subsistence societies can provide a
______.
A. further understanding of prehistoric times
B. broader vision of prehistoric natural environments
C. further understanding of modern subsistence societies
D. deeper insight into the dry-land farming
Question 61: The word “conditions” in the second paragraph refers to ______.
A. the environments where it is not favorable for vegetation to grow
B. the situations in which hunter-gatherers hardly find anything to eat
C. the places where plenty of animals and fish can be found
D. the situations in which hunter-gatherers can grow some crops
Question 62: A typical feature of both modern and prehistoric hunter-gatherers is that ______.
A. they live in the forests for all their life
B. they often change their living places
C. they don’t have a strong sense of community
D. they don’t have a healthy and balanced diet

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Question 63: According to the passage, which of the following is NOT mentioned?
A. The number of hunter-gatherers decreases where farming is convenient.
B. Hunting or fishing develops where there are no or short growing seasons.
C. Harvesting from the natural environment had existed long before farming was taken up.
D. The environmental differences produce no effect on subsistence societies.
Question 64: According to the author, most contemporary and prehistoric hunter-gatherers share
______.
A. only the way of duty division B. some restricted daily rules
C. some methods of production D. some patterns of behavior
Question 65: Which of the following would serve as the best title of the passage?
A. Hunter-gatherers: Always on the Move B. Hunter-gatherers and Subsistence Societies
C. Evolution of Humans’ Farming Methods D. A Brief History of Subsistence Farming
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct word for each of the blanks from 66 to 75.
Some time ago, scientists began experiments to find out (66)______ it would be possible to set up
a “village” under the sea. A special room was built and lowered (67)______ the water of Port Sudan
in the Red Sea. For 29 days, five men lived (68)______ a depth of 40 feet. At a (69)______ lower
level, another two divers stayed for a week in a smaller “house”. On returning to the surface, the men
said that they had experienced no difficulty in breathing and had (70)______ many interesting
scientific observations. The captain of the party, Commander Cousteau, spoke of the possibility of
(71)______ the seabed. He said that some permanent stations were to be set up under the sea, and
some undersea farms would provide food for the growing population of the world.
The divers in both “houses” spent most of their time (72)______ the bottom of the sea. On four
occasions, they went down to 360 feet and observed many extraordinary (73)______ of the marine
life, some of which had never been seen before. During their stay, Commander Cousteau and his
divers reached a depth of 1,000 feet and witnessed a gathering of an immense (74)______ of crabs
which numbered, perhaps, hundreds of millions. They also found out that it was (75)______ to move
rapidly in the water in a special vessel known as a “diving saucer”.
Question 66: A. which B. what C. how D. whether
Question 67: A. underneath B. into C. down D. below
Question 68: A. in B. at C. on D. from
Question 69: A. any B. more C. much D. some
Question 70: A. made B. exercised C. caught D. done
Question 71: A. implanting B. transplanting C. growing D. cultivating
Question 72: A. inquiring B. exploring C. imploring D. enquiring
Question 73: A. systems B. forms C. breeds D. castes
Question 74: A. pack B. herd C. school D. flock
Question 75: A. able B. possible C. hardly D. capable

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the rest in
the position of the main stress in each of the following questions.
Question 76: A. buffalo B. dinosaur C. elephant D. mosquito
Question 77: A. relate B. protect C. compose D. settle
Question 78: A. significant B. convenient C. traditional D. fashionable
Question 79: A. agriculture B. dictionary C. supervisor D. catastrophe
Question 80: A. impatient B. initial C. innocent D. abnormal

----------------------------------------------------------THE END----------

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BỘ GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO TẠO ĐỀ THI TUYỂN SINH CAO ĐẲNG NĂM 2010
Môn: TIẾNG ANH; Khối D
ĐỀ CHÍNH THỨC
Thời gian làm bài: 90 phút, không kể thời gian phát đề
(Đề thi có 06 trang)
Otto Channel Mã đề thi 193

Họ, tên thí sinh:..........................................................................


Số báo danh:............................................................................
ĐỀ THI GỒM 80 CÂU (TỪ QUESTION 1 ĐẾN QUESTION 80).

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate
the correct word(s) for each of the blanks from 1 to 10.

The warming of the Pacific Ocean has created weather patterns (1)______ strongly affect the
world. When the water is warm, the (2)______ of rainfall in Indonesia and the surrounding regions
decreases. Australia could (3)______ experience a drought in many parts. On (4)______ hand, Chile
(which borders the Pacific Ocean) is preparing for (5)______ rainstorms. In Pakistan and
northwestern India, the weather pattern makes the rainy season weaker and makes the area much
drier.
This happening is called El Nino and is used (6)______ weather forecasters to make long-range
weather predictions. They also know that El Nino will (7)______ unusually heavy rains to the
southwestern part of the United States and make the central part of the country drier at the same
time.
According to research, weather forecasters (8)______ know about the coming weather with
certainty. Now everything has become completely different.
El Nino itself used to be (9)______. It would occur every two to seven years. But now, this
weather pattern is becoming more frequent. We cannot say when and how often tornadoes or
cyclones occur. Scientists are unsure of the reason for this (10)______ on a global scale either.

Question 1: A. that B. what C. when D. whether


Question 2: A. amount B. figure C. number D. deal
Question 3: A. even B. ever C. nevertheless D. however
Question 4: A. others B. other C. the other D. another
Question 5: A. severe B. cruel C. strict D. angry
Question 6: A. on B. by C. to D. at
Question 7: A. carry B. fetch C. bring D. take
Question 8: A. used to B. get used to C. are used to D. used to be
Question 9: A. notable B. remarkable C. predictable D. incredible
Question 10: A. change B. transfer C. transformation D. shift

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of
the following questions.

Question 11: ______ entering the hall, he found everyone waiting for him.
A. On B. At C. With D. Of
Question 12: That pipe ______ for ages - we must get it mended.
A. has been leaking B. is leaking C. had been leaking D. leaks
Question 13: - “Is it all right if I use your bike?”
- “______”
A. I don’t care. B. Sure, go ahead. C. Oh, forget it. D. I accept it.
Question 14: You need more exercise - you should ______ jogging.
A. try on B. take up C. carry out D. hold up

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Question 15: - “You look nervous! ______”
- “This thunder scares me to death.”
A. How are you? B. Why’s that? C. Come on! D. What’s wrong?
Question 16: Car crashes are almost always accidental, but on rare occasions they may be ______.
A. deliberate B. determined C. aware D. meant
Question 17: - “Today’s my 20th birthday.”
- “______”
A. Take care! B. Many happy returns!
C. Have a good time! D. I don’t understand.
Question 18: The car had a(n) ______ tyre, so we had to change the wheel.
A. bent B. flat C. cracked D. injured
Question 19: There’s little ______ of foreign news in today’s paper.
A. information B. coverage C. column D. article
Question 20: You should make a(n) ______ to overcome this problem.
A. trial B. impression C. effort D. apology
Question 21: Don’t touch that wire or you’ll get an electric ______.
A. shock B. fire C. charge D. current
Question 22: “Can you ______ me a favor, Bill?” Peter said.
A. make B. get C. put D. do
Question 23: My brother ______ his driving test when he was 18.
A. has passed B. passes C. was passing D. passed
Question 24: - “Would you like beer or wine?”
- “______”
A. No, I've no choice. B. I couldn’t agree more.
C. I'd prefer beer, please. D. Yes, I'd love to.
Question 25: If you don’t know when that important football match takes place, look it ______ in the
World Cup timetable.
A. after B. up C. into D. out
Question 26: Thanks to my friends’ ______ remarks, my essays have been improved.
A. constructive B. construction C. constructor D. construct
Question 27: You look tired. Why don't we ______ and have a good rest?
A. call its name B. call on C. call off D. call it a day
Question 28: The manager ______ him for a minor mistake.
A. accused B. charged C. complained D. blamed
Question 29: I ______ hurry. It’s nearly 8.00, and my first class starts at 8.15.
A. would prefer B. can’t help C. would rather D. had better
Question 30: He managed to keep his job ______ the manager had threatened to sack him.
A. although B. despite C. unless D. therefore
Question 31: I clearly remember ______ you about this before.
A. telling B. to tell C. told D. tell
Question 32: - “______”
- “He's tall and thin with blue eyes.”
A. What does John like? B. How is John?
C. Who does John look like? D. What does John look like?
Question 33: Why is everybody ______ him all the time?
A. critical B. criticize C. criticism D. criticizing
Question 34: We didn’t go to the zoo yesterday ______ the heavy rain.
A. because of B. in spite of C. so D. because
Question 35: She ______ me a very charming compliment on my painting.
A. showed B. paid C. made D. took
Question 36: ______ stamps, my brother collects coins.
A. Except B. Besides C. Near D. Beside
Question 37: You shouldn't have criticized him in front of the class. It was extremely ______ of you.
A. sensible B. insensitive C. insensible D. sensitive
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Question 38: There were some rainy days, but it was a nice holiday ______.
A. by no means B. by all means C. in particular D. in general
Question 39: I'm really looking forward ______ to university.
A. to going B. go C. to go D. going
Question 40: All of us won't go camping ______ the weather stays fine.
A. however B. but C. unless D. so

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of
the following questions.

Question 41: He climbed the tree ______ before the wind blew them off.
A. in order that to pick the apples B. so as to pick the apples
C. so that to pick the apples D. in order for the apples to pick
Question 42: ______ but he also proved himself a good athlete.
A. Not only he showed himself a good student
B. He did not show himself only a good student
C. Not only did he show himself a good student
D. A good student not only showed him
Question 43: The new manager explained ______ new procedures to save time and money.
A. with the staff that he hoped to establish B. to the staff that he hopes to establish
C. to the staff that he hoped to establish D. with the staff that he hopes to establish
Question 44: When reaching the top of the hill, ______.
A. we suddenly caught sight of the sea B. it was the sea that extended below us
C. we extended the sea below us D. the sea came into view
Question 45: Yesterday my mother bought ______.
A. beautiful Italian some cotton hats B. Italian some beautiful cotton hats
C. some beautiful Italian cotton hats D. some hats beautiful Italian cotton

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the
rest in the position of the main stress in each of the following questions.

Question 46: A. tennis B. into C. between D. country


Question 47: A. difficulty B. simplicity C. discovery D. commodity
Question 48: A. traditional B. residential C. expectation D. competition
Question 49: A. command B. secure C. pretend D. leisure
Question 50: A. family B. attractive C. marvellous D. industry

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to show the underlined part that needs
correction.

Question 51: Each of the beautiful cars in the shop was quickly sold to their owner.
A B C D
Question 52: It was a six-hours journey; we were completely exhausted when we arrived.
A B C D
Question 53: Being that he was a good swimmer, John managed to rescue the child.
A B C D
Question 54: I’d like to see him in my office the moment he will arrive.
A B C D
Question 55: Professor Jones said that a good way to improve your language are learning to practise
A B C D
it frequently.

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Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate
the correct answer to each of the questions from 56 to 65.

For more than six million American children, coming home after school means coming back to an
empty house. Some deal with the situation by watching TV. Some may hide. But all of them have
something in common. They spend part of each day alone. They are called “latchkey children”.
They are children who look after themselves while their parents work. And their bad condition has
become a subject of concern.
Lynette Long was once the principal of an elementary school. She said, “We had a school rule
against wearing jewelry. A lot of kids had chains around their necks with keys attached. I was
constantly telling them to put the keys inside shirts. There were so many keys; it never came to my
mind what they meant.” Slowly, she learned that they were house keys.
She and her husband began talking to the children who had keys. They learned of the effect
working couples and single parents were having on their children. Fear was the biggest problem
faced by children at home alone. One in three latchkey children the Longs talked to reported being
frightened. Many had nightmares and were worried about their own safety.
The most common way latchkey children deal with their fears is by hiding. They may hide in a
shower stall, under a bed or in a closet. The second is TV. They often turn the volume up. It’s hard to
get statistics on latchkey children, the Longs have learned. Most parents are slow to admit that they
leave their children alone.

Question 56: The phrase “an empty house” in the passage mostly means ______.
A. a house with no people inside B. a house with no furniture
C. a house with nothing inside D. a house with too much space
Question 57: One thing that the children in the passage share is that ______.
A. they all watch TV B. they spend part of each day alone
C. they are from single-parent families D. they all wear jewelry
Question 58: The phrase “latchkey children” in the passage means children who ______.
A. close doors with keys and watch TV by themselves
B. like to carry latches and keys with them everywhere
C. are locked inside houses with latches and keys
D. look after themselves while their parents are not at home
Question 59: The main problem of latchkey children is that they ______.
A. are also found in middle-class families B. watch too much television during the day
C. suffer a lot from being left alone D. are growing in numbers
Question 60: What is the main idea of the first paragraph?
A. How kids spend free time. B. Why kids hate going home.
C. Bad condition of latchkey children. D. Children’s activities at home.
Question 61: Why did a lot of kids have chains around their necks with keys attached?
A. They had to use the keys to open school doors.
B. Schools didn’t allow them to wear jewelry, so they wore keys instead.
C. They were fully grown and had become independent.
D. They would use the keys to enter their houses when they came home.
Question 62: What do latchkey children suffer most from when they are at home alone?
A. Fear. B. Tiredness. C. Boredom. D. Loneliness.
Question 63: Lynette Long learned of latchkey children’s problems by ______.
A. visiting their homes B. delivering questionnaires
C. interviewing their parents D. talking to them
Question 64: What is the most common way for latchkey children to deal with fears?
A. Hiding somewhere. B. Talking to the Longs.
C. Having a shower. D. Lying under a TV.
Question 65: It’s difficult to find out the number of latchkey children because ______.
A. most parents are reluctant to admit that they leave their children alone
B. they do not give information about themselves for safety reasons
C. they hide themselves in shower stalls or under beds
D. there are too many of them in the whole country

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Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in
meaning to each of the following questions.

Question 66: “Be careful! Don't do that again,” he said.


A. He encouraged me to do that again.
B. He advised me to be careful and do that again.
C. He warned me not to do that again.
D. He told me to be careful, so I didn't do that again.
Question 67: It is a basic requirement in the modern world to be able to deal with figures.
A. Being able to deal with figures is a basic requirement in the modern world.
B. Dealing with the modern world requires a basic knowledge of figures.
C. The world requires us to have a basic understanding of figures.
D. Dealing with figures requires a basic knowledge of the modern world.
Question 68: Their chances of success are small.
A. They will certainly be successful. B. It’s possible that they will achieve success.
C. They have no chances of being successful. D. It’s not very likely that they will succeed.
Question 69: The way to get the best out of me is to make me work very hard.
A. My work is under consideration, so I do my best.
B. If you make me work hard, I can't get the best.
C. Don't make me work hard or I can’t make the best out of me.
D. I work best when I am under pressure.
Question 70: I found myself at a loss to understand my closest friend’s words.
A. I found my closest friend's words easy to understand.
B. I understood my closest friend’s words completely.
C. I lost heart and didn't understand my closest friend's words.
D. I found my closest friend's words quite incomprehensible.

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate
the correct answer to each of the questions from 71 to 80.

It is commonly believed that school is where people go to get an education. Nevertheless, it has
been said that today children interrupt their education to go to school. The difference between
schooling and education implied by this remark is important.
Education is much more open-ended and all-inclusive than schooling. Education knows no
limits. It can take place anywhere, whether in the shower or on the job, whether in the kitchen or on a
tractor. It includes both the formal learning that takes place in school and the whole universe of
informal learning. The agent (doer) of education can vary from respected grandparents to the people
arguing about politics on the radio, from a child to a famous scientist. Whereas schooling has a
certain predictability, education quite often produces surprises. A chance conversation with a
stranger may lead a person to discover how little is known of other religions. People receive
education from infancy on. Education, then, is a very broad, inclusive term; it is a lifelong process, a
process that starts long before the start of school, and one that should be a necessary part of one’s
entire life.
Schooling, on the other hand, is a specific, formalized process, whose general pattern varies little
from one setting to the next. Throughout a country, children arrive at school at about the same time,
take the assigned seats, are taught by an adult, use similar textbooks, do homework, take exams,
and so on. The pieces of reality that are to be learned, whether they are the alphabet or an
understanding of the workings of governments, have been limited by the subjects being taught. For
example, high school students know that they are not likely to find out in their classes the truth about
political problems in their society or what the newest filmmakers are experimenting with. There are
clear and undoubted conditions surrounding the formalized process of schooling.

Question 71: This passage is mainly aimed at ______.


A. giving examples of different schools
B. telling the difference between the meaning of two related words
C. listing and discussing several educational problems
D. telling a story about excellent teachers
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Question 72: In the passage, the expression “children interrupt their education to go to school”
mostly implies that ______.
A. education is totally ruined by schooling
B. all of life is an education
C. schooling takes place everywhere
D. schooling prevents people discovering things
Question 73: The word “all-inclusive” in the passage mostly means ______.
A. going in many directions B. involving many school subjects
C. allowing no exceptions D. including everything or everyone
Question 74: According to the passage, the doers of education are ______.
A. mostly famous scientists B. mainly politicians
C. only respected grandparents D. almost all people
Question 75: What does the writer mean by saying “education quite often produces surprises”?
A. Educators often produce surprises.
B. It’s surprising that we know little about other religions.
C. Success of informal learning is predictable.
D. Informal learning often brings about unexpected results.
Question 76: Which of the following would the writer support?
A. Without formal education, people won’t be able to read and write.
B. Schooling is of no use because students do similar things every day.
C. Our education system needs to be changed as soon as possible.
D. Going to school is only part of how people become educated.
Question 77: The word "they" in the last paragraph refers to ______.
A. workings of governments B. political problems
C. newest filmmakers D. high school students
Question 78: Because the general pattern of schooling varies little from one setting to the next,
school children throughout the country ______.
A. do similar things B. have the same abilities
C. are taught by the same teachers D. have similar study conditions
Question 79: From the passage, we can infer that a high school teacher ______.
A. is free to choose anything to teach B. is not allowed to teach political issues
C. has to teach social issues to all classes D. is bound to teach programmed subjects
Question 80: Which of the following is TRUE according to the passage?
A. The more years students go to school, the better their education is.
B. The best schools teach a variety of subjects.
C. Education and schooling are quite different experience.
D. Students benefit from schools, which require long hours and homework.

---------------------------------------------------------- THE END ----------

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BỘ GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO TẠO ĐỀ THI TUYỂN SINH ĐẠI HỌC NĂM 2010
Môn: TIẾNG ANH; Khối D
ĐỀ CHÍNH THỨC
Thời gian làm bài: 90 phút, không kể thời gian phát đề
(Đề thi có 07 trang)

Otto Channel Mã đề thi 358

Họ, tên thí sinh: ..........................................................................


Số báo danh: ............................................................................
ĐỀ THI GỒM 80 CÂU (TỪ QUESTION 1 ĐẾN QUESTION 80).

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the
following questions.
Question 1: Neil Armstrong was the first man ______ on the moon.
A. to walk B. walking C. walked D. has walked
Question 2: Our industrial output______ from $2 million in 2002 to $4 million this year.
A. rises B. has risen C. was rising D. rose
Question 3: ______ Serbia defeated Germany surprised everyone.
A. Whether B. When C. Because D. That
Question 4: Even if you are rich, you should save some money for a ______ day.
A. windy B. rainy C. foggy D. snowy
Question 5: Laura had a blazing ______ with Eddie and stormed out of the house.
A. gossip B. chat C. word D. row
Question 6: All students should be ______ and literate when they leave school.
A. numerate B. numeric C. numeral D. numerous
Question 7: ______ broken several world records in swimming.
A. She is said that she has B. People say she had
C. She is said to have D. It is said to have
Question 8: Bill: “Can I get you another drink?”
Jerry: “______.”
A. Forget it B. No, it isn’t
C. No, I’ll think it over D. Not just now
Question 9: Liz: “Thanks for the nice gift you brought to us!”
Jennifer: “______”
A. All right. Do you know how much it costs? B. Not at all. Don’t mention it.
C. Actually speaking, I myself don’t like it. D. Welcome! It’s very nice of you.
Question 10: She had to borrow her sister’s car because hers was ______.
A. out of work B. out of order C. off work D. off chance
Question 11: Ben: "______"
Jane: "Never mind."
A. Congratulations! How wonderful!
B. Sorry for staining your carpet. Let me have it cleaned.
C. Thank you for being honest with me.
D. Would you mind going to dinner next Sunday?
Question 12: “You can go to the party tonight______ you are sober when you come home.”
A. as long as B. as well as C. as far as D. as soon as
Question 13: We ______with a swim in the lake.
A. gave in B. cooled off C. got out D. took up
Question 14: As the drug took ______, the boy became quieter.
A. action B. influence C. effect D. force

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Question 15: I’ve warned you many times ______the front door unlocked.
A. not leaving B. won’t leave C. not to leave D. don’t leave
Question 16: “The inflation rate in Greece is five times ______ my country,” he said.
A. as high as that in B. as much as C. as many as that in D. more than
Question 17: Is it true that this country produces more oil than ______ ?
A. any another country B. any countries else
C. any other countries D. any country else
Question 18: Not having written about the required topic, ______ a low mark.
A. the teacher gave me B. I was given
C. the teacher gave D. my presentation was given
Question 19: They’re staying with us ______ the time being until they can afford a house.
A. during B. for C. at D. in
Question 20: We have bought extra food ______ our guests stay to dinner.
A. so that B. when C. if D. in case
Question 21: The Internet has enabled people to ______ with each other more quickly.
A. interconnect B. interlink C. interact D. intervene
Question 22: Mr. Black: “I’d like to try on these shoes, please.”
Salesgirl: “______”
A. By all means, sir. B. That’s right, sir. C. Why not? D. I’d love to.
Question 23: Margaret: "Could you open the window, please?"
Henry: " ______."
A. I am, of course B. Yes, with pleasure C. I feel sorry D. Yes, I can
Question 24: ______I might, I couldn’t open the door.
A. However hard B. As try C. Try as D. No matter
Question 25: Martha, Julia and Mark are 17, 19 and 20 years old ______.
A. independently B. separately C. respectively D. respectfully
Question 26: ______he does sometimes annoys me very much.
A. What B. When C. How D. Why
Question 27: Since he failed his exam, he had to ______ for it again.
A. take B. sit C. make D. pass
Question 28: If everyone ______, how would we control the traffic?
A. could fly B. can fly C. flies D. had flown
Question 29: The captain as well as all the passengers ______ very frightened by the strange noise.
A. have been B. was C. is D. were
Question 30: It is imperative ______ what to do when there is a fire.
A. he must know about B. that everyone know
C. that he knew D. we knew

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the questions from 31 to 40.
In the West, cartoons are used chiefly to make people laugh. The important feature of all these
cartoons is the joke and the element of surprise which is contained. Even though it is very funny, a
good cartoon is always based on close observation of a particular feature of life and usually has a
serious purpose.
Cartoons in the West have been associated with political and social matters for many years. In
wartime, for example, they proved to be an excellent way of spreading propaganda. Nowadays
cartoons are often used to make short, sharp comments on politics and governments as well as on a
variety of social matters. In this way, the modern cartoon has become a very powerful force in
influencing people in Europe and the United States.
Unlike most American and European cartoons, however, many Chinese cartoon drawings in the
past have also attempted to educate people, especially those who could not read and write. Such
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cartoons about the lives and sayings of great men in China have proved extremely useful in bringing
education to illiterate and semi-literate people throughout China. Confucius, Mencius and Laozi have
all appeared in very interesting stories presented in the form of cartoons. The cartoons themselves
have thus served to illustrate the teachings of the Chinese sages in a very attractive way.
In this sense, many Chinese cartoons are different from Western cartoons in so far as they do not
depend chiefly on telling jokes. Often, there is nothing to laugh at when you see Chinese cartoons.
This is not their primary aim. In addition to commenting on serious political and social matters,
Chinese cartoons have aimed at spreading the traditional Chinese thoughts and culture as widely as
possible among the people.
Today, however, Chinese cartoons have an added part to play in spreading knowledge. They offer
a very attractive and useful way of reaching people throughout the world, regardless of the particular
country in which they live. Thus, through cartoons, the thoughts and teachings of the old Chinese
philosophers and sages can now reach people who live in such countries as Britain, France, America,
Japan, Malaysia or Australia and who are unfamiliar with the Chinese culture.
Until recently, the transfer of knowledge and culture has been overwhelmingly from the West to
the East and not vice versa. By means of cartoons, however, publishing companies in Taiwan, Hong
Kong and Singapore are now having success in correcting this imbalance between the East and the
West.
Cartoons can overcome language barriers in all foreign countries. The vast increase in the
popularity of these cartoons serves to illustrate the truth of Confucius’s famous saying “One picture is
worth a thousand words.”
Question 31: Which of the following clearly characterizes Western cartoons?
A. Originality, freshness, and astonishment. B. Humour, unexpectedness, and criticism.
C. Enjoyment, liveliness, and carefulness. D. Seriousness, propaganda, and attractiveness.
Question 32: Chinese cartoons have been useful as an important means of______.
A. educating ordinary people B. spreading Western ideas
C. political propaganda in wartime D. amusing people all the time
Question 33: The major differences between Chinese cartoons and Western cartoons come from
their ______.
A. purposes B. nationalities C. values D. styles
Question 34: The pronoun “this” in paragraph 4 mostly refers to ______.
A. a propaganda campaign B. a piece of art
C. an educational purpose D. a funny element
Question 35: The passage is intended to present ______.
A. a contrast between Western cartoons and Chinese cartoons
B. an opinion about how cartoons entertain people
C. a description of cartoons of all kinds the world over
D. an outline of Western cartoons and Chinese cartoons
Question 36: Which of the following could be the best title for the passage?
A. A Very Powerful Force in Influencing People
B. Cartoons as a Way of Educating People
C. Chinese Cartoons and Western Cartoons
D. An Excellent Way of Spreading Propaganda
Question 37: In general, Chinese cartoons are now aiming at ______.
A. illustrating the truth of Chinese great men’s famous sayings
B. bringing education to illiterate and semi-literate people in the world
C. spreading the Chinese ideas and cultural values throughout the world
D. disseminating traditional practices in China and throughout the world
Question 38: The word “imbalance” in paragraph 6 refers to ______.
A. the mismatch between the East cartoons and the West cartoons
B. the influence of the East cartoons over the West cartoons
C. the dominant cultural influence of the West over the East
D. the discrimination between the West culture and the East culture
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Question 39: Which of the following is most likely the traditional subject of Chinese cartoons?
A. The stories and features of the lives of great men the world over.
B. The illiterate and semi-literate people throughout China.
C. Jokes and other kinds of humour in political and social matters.
D. The philosophies and sayings of ancient Chinese thinkers.
Question 40: According to the passage, which of the following is true?
A. Western cartoons always have a serious purpose.
B. Cartoons will replace other forms of writing.
C. Cartoons can serve various purposes.
D. Language barriers restricted cartoons.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the rest in
the position of the main stress in each of the following questions.
Question 41: A. adventure B. advantage C. advertise D. adverbial
Question 42: A. imagine B. inhabit C. continue D. disappear
Question 43: A. periodic B. electric C. contagious D. suspicious
Question 44: A. organism B. prevention C. attraction D. engagement
Question 45: A. popularity B. politician C. documentary D. laboratory

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to show the underlined part that needs
correction.
Question 46: Many people have found the monotonous buzzing of the vuvuzela in the
A B
2010-World-Cup matches so annoyed.
C D
Question 47: In order no money would be wasted, we had to account for every penny we spent.
A B C D
Question 48: The team leader demanded from his team members a serious
A B
attitude towards work, good team spirit, and that they work hard.
C D
Question 49: In my judgment, I think Hem is the best physicist among the scientists of
A B C
the SEA region.
D
Question 50: After analyzing the steep rise in profits according to your report, it was convinced
A B C
that your analyses were correct.
D

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the questions from 51 to 60.
It’s often said that we learn things at the wrong time. University students frequently do the
minimum of work because they’re crazy about a good social life instead. Children often scream
before their piano practice because it’s so boring. They have to be given gold stars and medals to be
persuaded to swim, or have to be bribed to take exams. But the story is different when you’re older.
Over the years, I’ve done my share of adult learning. At 30, I went to a college and did courses in
History and English. It was an amazing experience. For starters, I was paying, so there was no
reason to be late – I was the one frowning and drumming my fingers if the tutor was late, not the
other way round. Indeed, if I could persuade him to linger for an extra five minutes, it was a bonus,

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not a nuisance. I wasn’t frightened to ask questions, and homework was a pleasure not a pain. When I
passed an exam, I had passed it for me and me alone, not for my parents or my teachers. The
satisfaction I got was entirely personal.
Some people fear going back to school because they worry that their brains have got rusty. But the
joy is that, although some parts have rusted up, your brain has learnt all kinds of other things since
you were young. It has learnt to think independently and flexibly and is much better at relating one
thing to another. What you lose in the rust department, you gain in the maturity department.
In some ways, age is a positive plus. For instance, when you’re older, you get less frustrated.
Experience has told you that, if you’re calm and simply do something carefully again and again,
eventually you’ll get the hang of it. The confidence you have in other areas – from being able to drive
a car, perhaps – means that if you can’t, say, build a chair instantly, you don’t, like a child, want to
destroy your first pathetic attempts. Maturity tells you that you will, with application, eventually get
there.
I hated piano lessons at school, but I was good at music. And coming back to it, with a teacher
who could explain why certain exercises were useful and with musical concepts that, at the age of ten,
I could never grasp, was magical. Initially, I did feel a bit strange, thumping out a piece that I’d
played for my school exams, with just as little comprehension of what the composer intended as I’d
had all those years before. But soon, complex emotions that I never knew poured out from my
fingers, and suddenly I could understand why practice makes perfect.
Question 51: It is implied in paragraph 1 that ______.
A. parents should encourage young learners to study more
B. young learners are usually lazy in their class
C. young learners often lack a good motivation for learning
D. teachers should give young learners less homework
Question 52: The writer’s main point in paragraph 2 is to show that as people grow up, ______.
A. they have a more positive attitude towards learning
B. they cannot learn as well as younger learners
C. they tend to learn less as they are discouraged
D. they get more impatient with their teachers
Question 53: The phrase “For starters” in paragraph 2 could best be replaced by “______”.
A. First and foremost B. At the starting point
C. At the beginning D. For beginners
Question 54: While doing some adult learning courses at a college, the writer was surprised ______.
A. to get on better with the tutor B. to feel learning more enjoyable
C. to have more time to learn D. to be able to learn more quickly
Question 55: In paragraph 3, the word “rusty” means ______.
A. impatient because of having nothing to do
B. not as good as it used to be through lack of practice
C. staying alive and becoming more active
D. covered with rust and not as good as it used to be
Question 56: The phrase “get there” in paragraph 4 is closest in meaning to “______”.
A. arrive at an intended place with difficulty B. achieve your aim with hard work
C. have the things you have long desired D. receive a school or college degree
Question 57: All of the following are true about adult learning EXCEPT ______.
A. adult learners have fewer advantages than young learners
B. adults think more independently and flexibly than young people
C. experience in doing other things can help one’s learning
D. young people usually feel less patient than adults

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Question 58: It can be inferred from paragraph 4 that maturity is a positive plus in the learning
process because adult learners ______.
A. pay more attention to detail than younger learners
B. are able to organize themselves better than younger learners
C. are less worried about learning than younger learners
D. have become more patient than younger learners
Question 59: It is implied in the last paragraph that when you learn later in life, you ______.
A. should expect to take longer to learn than when you were younger
B. can sometimes understand more than when you were younger
C. are not able to concentrate as well as when you were younger
D. find that you can recall a lot of things you learnt when younger
Question 60: What is the writer’s main purpose in the passage?
A. To encourage adult learning. B. To describe adult learning methods.
C. To show how fast adult learning is. D. To explain reasons for learning.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in
meaning to each of the following questions.
Question 61: It is English pronunciation that puzzles me most.
A. Pronouncing English words is not complicated.
B. I was not quick at English pronunciation at school.
C. Puzzling me most is how to pronounce English.
D. English pronunciation is difficult for me.
Question 62: The woman was too weak to lift the suitcase.
A. The woman wasn’t able to lift the suitcase, so she was very weak.
B. The woman, though weak, could lift the suitcase.
C. So weak was the woman that she couldn't lift the suitcase.
D. The woman shouldn't have lifted the suitcase as she was weak.
Question 63: When I arrived, they were having dinner.
A. I came in the middle of their dinner.
B. They ate their dinner as soon as I arrived.
C. When they started having their dinner, I arrived.
D. I came to their invitation to dinner.
Question 64: They couldn’t climb up the mountain because of the storm.
A. The storm made it not capable of climbing up the mountain.
B. Their climbing up the mountain was unable due to the storm.
C. The storm made them impossible to climb up the mountain.
D. The storm discouraged them from climbing up the mountain.
Question 65: Slightly more than twenty-five percent of the students in the class come from Spanish-
speaking countries.
A. A considerable proportion of the students in the class are Spanish.
B. Seventy-five percent of the students in the class speak Spanish.
C. The percentage of the students speaking Spanish fell by twenty-five percent.
D. A small minority of the students in the class are Hispanic.
Question 66: Because they erected a barn, the cattle couldn’t get out into the wheat field.
A. They erected a barn so that the cattle would get into the wheat field.
B. In order not to keep the cattle away from the wheat field, they erected a barn.
C. They erected a barn in case the cattle couldn’t get out into the wheat field.
D. They erected a barn, and as a result, the cattle couldn’t get out into the wheat field.
Question 67: "Would you like some more beer?" he asked.
A. He asked me if I wanted some beer. B. He wanted to invite me for a glass of beer.
C. He offered me some more beer. D. He asked me would I like some more beer.

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Question 68: “Stop smoking or you’ll be ill,” the doctor told me.
A. I was warned against smoking a lot of cigarettes.
B. The doctor suggested smoking to treat illness.
C. I was ordered not to smoke to recover from illness.
D. The doctor advised me to give up smoking to avoid illness.
Question 69: Wealthy as they were, they were far from happy.
A. They were as wealthy as they were happy.
B. They were not happy as they were wealthy.
C. Even if they were wealthy, they were not unhappy.
D. Although they were wealthy, they were not happy.
Question 70: “We’re having a reunion this weekend. Why don’t you come?” John said to us.
A. John cordially invited us to a reunion this weekend.
B. John simply asked us why we wouldn’t come to a reunion.
C. John didn’t understand why we came to a reunion.
D. John asked us why we didn’t come to a reunion this weekend.

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct word for each of the blanks from 71 to 80.
Wind, water, air, ice and heat all work to cause erosion. As the wind blows over the land, it often
(71)______ small grains of sand. When these grains of sand strike against solid rocks, the rocks are
slowly worn away. In this way, (72)______ very hard rocks are worn away by the wind.
When particles of rocks or soil became loosened in any way, running water carries them down the
(73)______. Some rocks and soil particles are carried into streams and then into the sea.
Land that is covered with trees, grass and other plants wears away very slowly, and so loses very
(74)______ of its soil. The roots of plants help to (75)______ the rocks and soil in place. Water that
falls on grasslands runs away more slowly than water that falls on bare ground. Thus, forests and
grasslands (76)______ to slow down erosion.
Even where the land is (77)______ covered with plants, some erosion goes on. In the spring, the
(78)______ snow turns into a large quantity of water that then runs downhill in streams. (79)______ a
stream carries away some of the soil, the stream bed gets deeper and deeper. (80)______ thousands of
years of such erosion, wide valleys are often formed.
Question 71: A. holds up B. cleans out C. carries out D. picks up
Question 72: A. though B. still C. even D. such
Question 73: A. backside B. hillsides C. borders D. topside
Question 74: A. large B. little C. few D. much
Question 75: A. store B. back C. stay D. hold
Question 76: A. facilitate B. aid C. assist D. help
Question 77: A. thinly B. strongly C. thickly D. scarcely
Question 78: A. melted B. building C. melting D. formed
Question 79: A. Till B. As C. Until D. Although
Question 80: A. During B. Among C. After D. In

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BỘ GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO TẠO ĐỀ THI TUYỂN SINH CAO ĐẲNG NĂM 2011
Môn: TIẾNG ANH; Khối D
ĐỀ CHÍNH THỨC
Thời gian làm bài: 90 phút, không kể thời gian phát đề
(Đề thi có 06 trang)

Otto Channel Mã đề thi 258

Họ, tên thí sinh:..........................................................................


Số báo danh:............................................................................
ĐỀ THI GỒM 80 CÂU (TỪ QUESTION 1 ĐẾN QUESTION 80)

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part
is pronounced differently from that of the rest in each of the following questions.

Question 1: A. bushes B. wishes C. researches D. headaches


Question 2: A. debt B. climbing C. timber D. lamb
Question 3: A. enough B. cough C. thorough D. tough
Question 4: A. apply B. maximum C. cactus D. national
Question 5: A. funny B. rubbish C. upper D. student

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of
the following questions.

Question 6: Generally, the South of England is as ______ as the North.


A. flat B. less flat C. flatter D. the flattest
Question 7: Helen is traveling to Germany tomorrow on her first working trip and she is very excited
______ it.
A. for B. against C. about D. with
Question 8: He’d hardly finished doing his homework when you arrived, ______?
A. didn’t he B. had he C. would he D. hadn’t he
Question 9: John: “Would you like to have a get-together with us next weekend?”
Mickey: “______.”
A. No, I won’t B. No, I wouldn’t C. Yes, let’s D. Yes, I’d love to
Question 10: Had they arrived at the shop earlier, they ______ a better selection of clothes.
A. will find B. would be finding C. would have found D. will have found
Question 11: Before you start cooking, you should gather together all the necessary ______.
A. ingredients B. factors C. substances D. elements
Question 12: What ______ views do Americans and Asians have about love and marriage?
A. tradition B. traditionally C. traditionalism D. traditional
Question 13: I can’t ______ this noise any longer. I’m going to write a letter of complaint to the local
authority about this problem.
A. put up with B. take away from C. get back to D. make out of
Question 14: Helen: “Would you rather go to the beach or to the mountains?”
Kim: “______.”
A. That’s very nice of you B. The beach definitely
C. I’d love to go D. Thanks for the mountains
Question 15: George: “______.”
Michelle: “Thank you for your compliment.”
A. You’ve done your work B. This is a present for you
C. I’m glad that you’re well again D. You look pretty in this dress
Question 16: Bill managed to get to the train station himself ______ his leg was broken.
A. because B. because of C. in spite of D. although
Question 17: Dr. Smith is the person in ______ I don’t have much confidence.
A. which B. whom C. him D. that
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Question 18: This director has ______ some famous films but I think this one is the best.
A. done B. conducted C. made D. composed
Question 19: He wondered ______ his sister looked like, because they hadn’t seen each other for a
long time.
A. why B. which C. how D. what
Question 20: Does Mr. Ba bring his farm ______ to the local market every day?
A. productivity B. product C. production D. produce
Question 21: This is ______ the most difficult job I’ve ever had to do.
A. by heart B. by chance C. by far D. by myself
Question 22: Hurry up, or they ______ serving meals by the time we get to the restaurant.
A. stopped B. will have stopped C. are stopping D. would stop
Question 23: During the Enlightenment, the powers and uses of reason ______.
A. were stressed B. stressed C. were stressing D. had stressed
Question 24: He is a typical ______, always looking on the bright side of everything.
A. pessimist B. introvert C. extrovert D. optimist
Question 25: That style of dress ______ have been designed by Titian, because it wasn’t worn till
after his death.
A. wouldn’t B. shan’t C. can’t D. oughtn’t
Question 26: Bottles of medicine must have childproof caps ______ children think medicine is
candy and poison themselves.
A. even though B. if so C. so that D. in case
Question 27: My favourite team ______ 15 games so far this season, and will probably win the
championship.
A. are winning B. won C. have won D. will win
Question 28: You should have ______ your composition carefully before you handed it in.
A. seen through B. thought of C. looked in D. gone over
Question 29: “Don’t worry about your necklace. Give it to me and I promise to ______ great care of
it.”
A. bring B. take C. keep D. make
Question 30: The police are going to look ______ the disappearance of the child.
A. around B. into C. through D. after

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word or phrase that is
closest in meaning to the underlined part in each of the following questions.

Question 31: The crew divided the life preservers among the twenty terrified passengers as the ship
began to sink.
A. exhausted B. surprised C. frightened D. excited
Question 32: You must answer the police’s questions truthfully; otherwise, you will get into trouble.
A. exactly as things really happen B. with a negative attitude
C. in a harmful way D. as trustingly as you can
Question 33: My mom is always bad-tempered when I leave my room untidy.
A. feeling embarrassed B. talking too much
C. very happy and satisfied D. easily annoyed or irritated
Question 34: During the earthquake, a lot of buildings collapsed, which killed thousands of people.
A. went off accidentally B. fell down unexpectedly
C. exploded suddenly D. erupted violently
Question 35: We really appreciate your help, without which we couldn’t have got our task done in
time.
A. feel thankful for B. depreciate C. require D. are proud of

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Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to show the underlined part that needs
correction in each of the following questions.

Question 36: The bigger of the three daily meals for most American families is dinner, served
A B C D
at about six o’clock.
Question 37: The word “scuba” is actually an acronym that comes of the phrase “self-contained
A B C D
underwater breathing apparatus”.
Question 38: Building thousands of years ago, the ancient palace is popular with modern tourists.
A B C D
Question 39: The old woman cannot remember the place which she kept her savings.
A B C D
Question 40: I found my new contact lenses strangely at first, but I got used to them in the end.
A B C D

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of
the following questions.
Question 41: ______ for breakfast is bread and eggs.
A. That I only like B. Which better I like C. What I like most D. The food what I like
Question 42: Before he was 20, he developed ______ for the personal computer.
A. the world first computer's language B. the computer language for the first world
C. the world's first computer language D. the first world's computer language
Question 43: According to the conditions of my scholarship, after graduation, ______.
A. I will be employed full-time by the university B. I would be offered by the university
C. the university will employ me full-time D. an employer will give me a full-time job
Question 44: He has been to the school library many times ______.
A. if the semester has started B. while the semester is starting
C. since the semester started D. after the semester starts
Question 45: Only after food has been dried or canned ______.
A. should it be stored for later consumption B. it can be stored for later consumption
C. that it is stored for later consumption D. was it stored for later consumption

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in
meaning to each of the following questions.
Question 46: The test we did last time was more difficult than this one.
A. We did an easy test last time and a difficult one this time.
B. This test is not as difficult as the one we did last time.
C. This time we have to do the most difficult test of all.
D. The test we have done this time is not difficult at all.
Question 47: He cannot practice scuba diving because he has a weak heart.
A. The fact that he has a weak heart cannot stop him practicing scuba diving.
B. Scuba diving makes him suffer from having a weak heart.
C. The reason why he cannot practice scuba diving is that he has a weak heart.
D. He has a weak heart but he continues to practice scuba diving.
Question 48: She asked John to repeat what he had said.
A. “Will you please repeat what John said?” she asked.
B. “Please repeat what you said, John,” she said.
C. “You have to repeat what you say, John,” she said.
D. “Please repeat what you said to John,” she said.
Question 49: People believe that neither side wanted war.
A. Neither side is believed to have wanted war.
B. Neither side is responsible for the outbreak of war.
C. War is believed to be wanted by either side.
D. It is believed that war broke out from both sides.

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Question 50: “No, it’s not true. I didn’t steal the money!” Jean said.
A. Jean refused to steal the money. B. Jean did not intend to steal the money.
C. Jean admitted stealing the money. D. Jean denied having stolen the money.

Read the following passage taken from Microsoft Encarta 2009, and mark the letter A, B, C, or
D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct word for each of the blanks from 51 to 60.
Schools in the United States have not always had a large number of libraries. As (51)______
as 1958 about half of the public schools in the United States had no libraries at all. The (52)______
of public school libraries increased dramatically when the federal government passed the
Elementary and Secondary Education Act of 1965, (53)______ provided funds for school districts to
improve their education programs and facilities, including their libraries. (54)______, many educators
claim that since the legislation was passed federal spending has not increased sufficiently to meet
the rising (55)______ of new library technologies such as computer databases and Internet access.
Because the federal government provides only limited funds to schools, individual school
districts (56)______ on funds from local property taxes to meet the vast majority of public school
expenses. Therefore, the libraries of public schools tend to reflect the (57)______ capabilities of the
communities in which they are located. Districts in wealthy suburbs often have fully staffed libraries
(58)______ abundant resources, spacious facilities, and curricular and instructional support. In
(59)______, school districts in many poor areas house their libraries in ordinary classrooms or in
small rooms. The libraries in such areas are generally staffed by volunteers, who organize and
(60)______ books that are often out-of-date, irrelevant, or damaged.

Question 51: A. frequently B. recently C. freshly D. newly


Question 52: A. digit B. amount C. number D. numeral
Question 53: A. that B. who C. which D. this
Question 54: A. Otherwise B. Therefore C. Consequently D. Nevertheless
Question 55: A. fine B. fee C. cost D. sum
Question 56: A. go B. come C. rely D. stay
Question 57: A. economical B. educational C. financial D. political
Question 58: A. for B. with C. on D. by
Question 59: A. contrast B. converse C. contrary D. conflict
Question 60: A. maintain B. obtain C. contain D. attain

Read the following passage taken from Building skills for the TOEFL iBT – Advanced by
Linda Robinson Fellag, and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the questions from 61 to 70.
MICKEY MANTLE
Mickey Mantle was one of the greatest baseball players of all time. He played for the New York
Yankees in their years of glory. From the time Mantle began to play professionally in 1951 to his last
year in 1968, baseball was the most popular game in the United States. For many people, Mantle
symbolized the hope, prosperity, and confidence of America at that time.
Mantle was a fast and powerful player, a “switch-hitter” who could bat both right-handed and
left-handed. He won game after game, one World Series championship after another, for his team.
He was a wonderful athlete, but this alone cannot explain America’s fascination with him.
Perhaps it was because he was a handsome, red-haired country boy, the son of a poor miner
from Oklahoma. His career, from the lead mines of the West to the heights of success and fame,
was a fairy-tale version of the American dream. Or perhaps it was because America always loves a
“natural”: a person who wins without seeming to try, whose talent appears to come from an inner
grace. That was Mickey Mantle.
But like many celebrities, Mickey Mantle had a private life that was full of problems. He played
without complaint despite constant pain from injuries. He lived to fulfill his father’s dreams and drank
to forget his father’s early death.
It was a terrible addiction that finally destroyed his body. It gave him cirrhosis of the liver and
accelerated the advance of liver cancer. Even when Mickey Mantle had turned away from his old life
and warned young people not to follow his example, the destructive process could not be stopped.
Despite a liver transplant operation that had all those who loved and admired him hoping for a
recovery, Mickey Mantle died of cancer at the age of 63.

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Question 61: What is the main idea of the passage?
A. Mickey Mantle’s success and private life full of problems
B. Mickey Mantle as the greatest baseball player of all time
C. Mickey Mantle and the history of baseball
D. Mickey Mantle and his career as a baseball player
Question 62: It can be inferred from paragraph 1 that Mantle ______.
A. introduced baseball into the US B. earned a lot of money from baseball
C. had to try hard to be a professional player D. played for New York Yankees all his life
Question 63: According to the passage, Mantle could ______.
A. bat better with his left hand than with his right hand
B. hit with the bat on either side of his body
C. give the most powerful hit in his team
D. hit the ball to score from a long distance
Question 64: The word “this” in paragraph 2 refers to ______.
A. Mantle’s being fascinated by many people B. Mantle’s being a wonderful athlete
C. Mantle’s being a “switch-hitter” D. Mantle’s being a fast and powerful player
Question 65: It can be inferred from the passage that for most Americans ______.
A. success in Mantle’s career was difficult to believe
B. Mantle had a lot of difficulty achieving fame and success
C. success in Mantle’s career was unnatural
D. Mantle had to be trained hard to become a good player
Question 66: The author uses the word “But” in paragraph 4 to ______.
A. explain how Mantle got into trouble
B. give an example of the trouble in Mantle’s private life
C. give an argument in favor of Mantle’s success and fame
D. change the topic of the passage
Question 67: The word “fulfill” in paragraph 4 mostly means ______.
A. achieve what is hoped for, wished for, or expected
B. do something in the way that you have been told
C. do what you have promised or agreed to do
D. get closer to something that you are chasing
Question 68: The word “accelerated” in paragraph 5 is closest in meaning to ______.
A. delayed B. worsened C. bettered D. quickened
Question 69: We can see from paragraph 5 that after his father’s death, Mantle ______.
A. forgot his father’s dream B. suffered a lot of pain
C. led a happier life D. played even better
Question 70: Which of the following is mentioned as the main cause of the destruction of Mantle’s
body?
A. His way of life B. His loneliness
C. His own dream D. His liver transplant operation

Read the following passage taken from Cultural Guide – Oxford Advanced Learner’s
Dictionary, 7th Edition, and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the questions from 71 to 80.
The countryside of Britain is well known for its beauty and many contrasts: its bare mountains
and moorland, its lakes, rivers and woods, and its long, often wild coastline. Many of the most
beautiful areas are national parks and are protected from development. When British people think of
the countryside they think of farmland, as well as open spaces. They imagine cows or sheep in
green fields enclosed by hedges or stone walls, and fields of wheat and barley. Most farmland is
privately owned but is crossed by a network of public footpaths.
Many people associate the countryside with peace and relaxation. They spend their free time
walking or cycling there, or go to the country for a picnic or a pub lunch. In summer people go to fruit
farms and pick strawberries and other fruit. Only a few people who live in the country work on farms.
Many commute to work in towns. Many others dream of living in the country, where they believe
they would have a better and healthier lifestyle.

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The countryside faces many threats. Some are associated with modern farming practices,
and the use of chemicals harmful to plants and wildlife. Land is also needed for new houses. The
green belt, an area of land around many cities, is under increasing pressure. Plans to build new
roads are strongly opposed by organizations trying to protect the countryside. Protesters set up
camps to prevent, or at least delay, the building work.
America has many areas of wild and beautiful scenery, and there are many areas, especially in
the West in states like Montana and Wyoming, where few people live. In the New England states,
such as Vermont and New Hampshire, it is common to see small farms surrounded by hills and
green areas. In Ohio, Indiana, Illinois and other Midwestern states, fields of corn or wheat reach to
the horizon and there are many miles between towns.
Only about 20% of Americans live outside cities and towns. Life may be difficult for people who
live in the country. Services like hospitals and schools may be further away and going shopping can
mean driving long distances. Some people even have to drive from their homes to the main road
where their mail is left in a box. In spite of the disadvantages, many people who live in the country
say that they like the safe, clean, attractive environment. But their children often move to a town or
city as soon as they can.
As in Britain, Americans like to go out to the country at weekends. Some people go on
camping or fishing trips, others go hiking in national parks.

Question 71: We can see from the passage that in the countryside of Britain ______.
A. none of the areas faces the sea
B. only a few farms are publicly owned
C. most beautiful areas are not well preserved
D. it is difficult to travel from one farm to another
Question 72: The word “enclosed” in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to ______.
A. rotated B. embraced C. blocked D. surrounded
Question 73: Which of the following is NOT mentioned as an activity of relaxation in the countryside
of Britain?
A. Going swimming B. Picking fruit C. Going for a walk D. Riding a bicycle
Question 74: What does the word “they” in paragraph 2 refer to?
A. Those who dream of living in the country B. Those who go to fruit farms in summer
C. Those who go to the country for a picnic D. Those who commute to work in towns
Question 75: Which of the following threatens the countryside in Britain?
A. Protests against the building work B. Modern farming practices
C. Plants and wildlife D. The green belt around cities
Question 76: The phrase “associated with” in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to ______.
A. supported by B. referred to C. separated from D. related to
Question 77: According to the passage, all of the following are true EXCEPT ______.
A. the use of chemicals harms the environment of the countryside
B. camps are set up by protesters to stop the construction work
C. the green belt is under pressure because of the need for land
D. all organizations strongly oppose plans for road construction
Question 78: The phrase “reach to the horizon” in paragraph 4 is closest in meaning to ______.
A. are limited B. are endless C. are horizontal D. are varied
Question 79: According to the passage, some Americans choose to live in the country because
______.
A. their children enjoy country life
B. they enjoy the safe, clean, attractive environment there
C. hospitals, schools and shops are conveniently located there
D. life there may be easier for them
Question 80: Which of the following is NOT mentioned in the passage?
A. The majority of American people live in cities and towns.
B. Many British people think of the country as a place of peace and relaxation.
C. Towns in some Midwestern states in the US are separated by long distances.
D. Both British and American people are thinking of moving to the countryside.

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BỘ GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO TẠO ĐỀ THI TUYỂN SINH ĐẠI HỌC NĂM 2011
Môn: TIẾNG ANH; Khối D
ĐỀ CHÍNH THỨC
Thời gian làm bài: 90 phút, không kể thời gian phát đề
(Đề thi có 07 trang)
Otto Channel
Mã đề thi 195

Họ, tên thí sinh: ....................................................................... ...


Số báo danh: ............................................................................
ĐỀ THI GỒM 80 CÂU (TỪ QUESTION 1 ĐẾN QUESTION 80)
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word or phrase that is closest in
meaning to the underlined part in each of the following questions.
Question 1: His new work has enjoyed a very good review from critics and readers.
A. viewing B. regard C. opinion D. look
Question 2: Such problems as haste and inexperience are a universal feature of youth.
A. marked B. separated C. shared D. hidden
Question 3: We have lived there for years and grown fond of the surroundings. That is why we do
not want to leave.
A. possessed by the surroundings B. planted many trees in the surroundings
C. loved the surroundings D. haunted by the surroundings
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each
pair of sentences in the following questions.
Question 4: Smoking is an extremely harmful habit. You should give it up immediately.
A. As smoking is an extremely harmful habit, you should give it up immediately.
B. You should give up smoking immediately and you will fall into an extremely harmful habit.
C. When you give up smoking immediately, you will affect your health with this harmful habit.
D. Stop your smoking immediately so it will become one of your extremely harmful habits.
Question 5: His academic record at high school was poor. He failed to apply to that prestigious
institution.
A. His academic record at high school was poor as a result of his failure to apply to that
prestigious institution.
B. Failing to apply to that prestigious institution, his academic record at high school was poor.
C. His academic record at high school was poor; as a result, he failed to apply to that prestigious
institution.
D. His academic record at high school was poor because he didn’t apply to that prestigious
institution.
Question 6: He cannot lend me the book now. He has not finished reading it yet.
A. Having finished reading the book, he cannot lend it to me.
B. He cannot lend me the book until he has finished reading it.
C. As long as he cannot finish reading the book, he will lend it to me.
D. Not having finished reading the book, he will lend it to me.
Question 7: He behaved in a very strange way. That surprised me a lot.
A. His behaviour was a very strange thing, that surprised me most.
B. He behaved very strangely, which surprised me very much.
C. What almost surprised me was the strange way he behaved.
D. I was almost not surprised by his strange behaviour.
Question 8: Crazianna is a big country. Unfortunately, it has never received respect from its
neighbours.
A. Though Crazianna is a big country, it has never received respect from its neighbours.
B. It is Crazianna, a big country, that has never received respect from its neighbours.
C. Crazianna has never received respect from its neighbours because it is a big country.
D. Crazianna is such a big country that it has never received respect from its neighbours.
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Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the rest in
the position of the main stress in each of the following questions.
Question 9: A. represent B. permanent C. sentiment D. continent
Question 10: A. future B. involve C. prospect D. guidance
Question 11: A. accuracy B. fabulous C. immediate D. optimist
Question 12: A. facilitate B. intimacy C. participate D. hydrology
Question 13: A. reduction B. popular C. romantic D. financial
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to show the underlined part that needs
correction in each of the following questions.
Question 14: A professor of economy and history at our university developed a new theory of
A B
the relationship between historical events and financial crises.
C D
Question 15: During our tour of the refinery, it was seen that both propane and gasoline
A B C
were produced in large volumes.
D
Question 16: Publishing in the UK, the book has won a number of awards in recent regional book fairs.
A B C D
Question 17: Hardly did he enter the room when all the lights went out.
A B C D
Question 18: The first important requirements for you to become a mountain climber are your
A B C
strong passion and you have good health.
D
Read the following passage adapted from Understanding Rural America - InfoUSA and mark the
letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct word for each of the blanks from
19 to 28.
The well-being of America's rural people and places depends upon many things - the availability
of good-paying jobs; (19)______ to critical services such as education, health care, and
communication; strong communities; and a healthy natural environment. And, (20)______ urban
America is equally dependent upon these things, the challenges to well-being look very different in
rural areas than in urban areas. Small-scale, low-density settlement (21)______ make it more costly
for communities and businesses to provide critical services. Declining jobs and income in the natural
resource-based industries that many rural areas depend on (22)______ workers in those industries to
find new ways to make a living. Low-skill, low-wage rural manufacturing industries must find new
ways to challenge the increasing number of (23)______ competitors. Distance and remoteness
impede many rural areas from being connected to the urban centers of economic activity. Finally,
changes in the availability and use of natural resources located in rural areas (24)______ the people
who earn a living from those resources and those who (25)______ recreational and other benefits
from them.
Some rural areas have met these challenges successfully, achieved some level of prosperity, and
are ready (26)______ the challenges of the future. Others have neither met the current challenges nor
positioned themselves for the future. Thus, concern for rural America is real. And, while rural
America is a producer of critical goods and services, the (27)______ goes beyond economics. Rural
America is also home to a fifth of the Nation's people, keeper of natural amenities and national
treasures, and safeguard of a/an (28)______ part of American culture, tradition, and history.
Question 19: A. advantage B. key C. challenge D. access
Question 20: A. because B. when C. since D. while
Question 21: A. means B. patterns C. tools D. styles
Question 22: A. turn B. make C. offer D. force
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Question 23: A. rural B. lateral C. abroad D. foreign
Question 24: A. effect B. encourage C. affect D. stimulate
Question 25: A. involve B. evolve C. bring D. derive
Question 26: A. in B. for C. with D. of
Question 27: A. research B. stimulus C. concern D. impatience
Question 28: A. unique B. incredible C. simple D. abnormal
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in
meaning to each of the following questions.
Question 29: “My company makes a large profit every year. Why don’t you invest more money in
it?” my friend said to me.
A. My friend persuaded me to invest more money in his company.
B. My friend suggested his investing more money in his company.
C. My friend instructed me how to put more money into his company.
D. I was asked to invest more money in my friend’s company.
Question 30: “If you don’t pay the ransom, we’ll kill your boy,” the kidnappers told us.
A. The kidnappers pledged to kill our boy if we did not pay the ransom.
B. The kidnappers threatened to kill our boy if we refused to pay the ransom.
C. The kidnappers ordered to kill our boy if we did not pay the ransom.
D. The kidnappers promised to kill our boy if we refused to pay the ransom.
Question 31: “You shouldn’t have leaked our confidential report to the press, Frank!” said Jane.
A. Jane suspected that Frank had leaked their confidential report to the press.
B. Jane accused Frank of having cheated the press with their confidential report.
C. Jane blamed Frank for having flattered the press with their confidential report.
D. Jane criticized Frank for having disclosed their confidential report to the press.
Question 32: “Don’t forget to tidy up the final draft before submission,” the team leader told us.
A. The team leader reminded us to tidy up the final draft before submission.
B. The team leader asked us to tidy up the final draft before submission.
C. The team leader ordered us to tidy up the final draft before submission.
D. The team leader simply wanted us to tidy up the final draft before submission.
Question 33: “Mum, please don’t tell dad about my mistake,” the boy said.
A. The mother was forced to keep her son’s mistake as a secret when he insisted.
B. The boy earnestly insisted that his mother tell his father about his mistake.
C. The boy requested his mother not to talk about his mistake any more.
D. The boy begged his mother not to tell his father about his mistake.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word or phrase that is
OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined part in each of the following questions.
Question 34: Fruit and vegetables grew in abundance on the island. The islanders even exported the
surplus.
A. excess B. sufficiency C. small quantity D. large quantity
Question 35: There is growing concern about the way man has destroyed the environment.
A. ease B. attraction C. consideration D. speculation
Read the following passage adapted from A. Briggs’ article on culture, Microsoft® Student 2008, and
mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the
questions from 36 to 45.
Culture is a word in common use with complex meanings, and is derived, like the term
broadcasting, from the treatment and care of the soil and of what grows on it. It is directly related to
cultivation and the adjectives cultural and cultured are part of the same verbal complex. A person of
culture has identifiable attributes, among them a knowledge of and interest in the arts, literature, and
music. Yet the word culture does not refer solely to such knowledge and interest nor, indeed, to
education. At least from the 19th century onwards, under the influence of anthropologists and

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sociologists, the word culture has come to be used generally both in the singular and the plural
(cultures) to refer to a whole way of life of people, including their customs, laws, conventions, and
values.
Distinctions have consequently been drawn between primitive and advanced culture and cultures,
between elite and popular culture, between popular and mass culture, and most recently between
national and global cultures. Distinctions have been drawn too between culture and civilization; the
latter is a word derived not, like culture or agriculture, from the soil, but from the city. The two words
are sometimes treated as synonymous. Yet this is misleading. While civilization and barbarism are
pitted against each other in what seems to be a perpetual behavioural pattern, the use of the word
culture has been strongly influenced by conceptions of evolution in the 19th century and of
development in the 20th century. Cultures evolve or develop. They are not static. They have twists
and turns. Styles change. So do fashions. There are cultural processes. What, for example, the word
cultured means has changed substantially since the study of classical (that is, Greek and Roman)
literature, philosophy, and history ceased in the 20 th century to be central to school and university
education. No single alternative focus emerged, although with computers has come electronic culture,
affecting kinds of study, and most recently digital culture. As cultures express themselves in new
forms not everything gets better or more civilized.
The multiplicity of meanings attached to the word made and will make it difficult to define. There
is no single, unproblematic definition, although many attempts have been made to establish one. The
only non-problematic definitions go back to agricultural meaning (for example, cereal culture or
strawberry culture) and medical meaning (for example, bacterial culture or penicillin culture). Since
in anthropology and sociology we also acknowledge culture clashes, culture shock, and counter-
culture, the range of reference is extremely wide.
Question 36: According to the passage, the word culture ______.
A. is related to the preparation and use of land for farming
B. comes from a source that has not been identified
C. develops from Greek and Roman literature and history
D. derives from the same root as civilization does
Question 37: It is stated in paragraph 1 that a cultured person ______.
A. has a job related to cultivation B. does a job relevant to education
C. takes care of the soil and what grows on it D. has knowledge of arts, literature, and music
Question 38: The author remarks that culture and civilization are the two words that ______.
A. share the same word formation pattern
B. have nearly the same meaning
C. are both related to agriculture and cultivation
D. do not develop from the same meaning
Question 39: It can be inferred from the passage that since the 20 th century ______.
A. schools and universities have not taught classical literature, philosophy, and history
B. classical literature, philosophy, and history have been considered as core subjects
C. classical literature, philosophy, and history have not been taught as compulsory subjects
D. all schools and universities have taught classical literature, philosophy, and history
Question 40: The word “attributes” in paragraph 1 most likely means ______.
A. fields B. qualities C. aspects D. skills
Question 41: The word “static” in paragraph 2 could best be replaced by “______”.
A. unchanged B. balanced C. regular D. dense
Question 42: Which of the following is NOT stated in the passage?
A. Anthropology and sociology have tried to limit the references to culture.
B. Distinctions have been drawn between culture and civilization.
C. The use of the word culture has been changed since the 19th century.
D. The word culture can be used to refer to a whole way of life of people.
Question 43: It is difficult to give the definitions of the word culture EXCEPT for its ______.
A. agricultural and medical meanings B. philosophical and historical meanings
C. historical and figurative meanings D. sociological and anthropological meanings
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Question 44: Which of the following is NOT true about the word culture?
A. It differs from the word civilization. B. It evolves from agriculture.
C. Its use has been considerably changed. D. It is a word that cannot be defined.
Question 45: The passage mainly discusses ______.
A. the multiplicity of meanings of the word culture
B. the distinction between culture and civilization
C. the figurative meanings of the word culture
D. the derivatives of the word culture

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the
following questions.
Question 46: Our boss would rather ______ during the working hours.
A. we didn’t chat B. we don’t chat C. us not chat D. us not chatting
Question 47: Joan: “Our friends are coming. ______, Mike? ”
Mike: “I’m sorry, but I can’t do it now.”
A. Shall you make some coffee, please B. Would you mind making some coffee
C. Why don’t we cook some coffee D. Shall I make you like some coffee
Question 48: “You ______ have cooked so many dishes. There are only three of us for lunch.”
A. wouldn’t B. oughtn’t C. needn’t D. couldn’t
Question 49: Harry: “Are you ready, Kate? There’s not much time left.”
Kate: “Yes, just a minute. ______!”
A. No longer B. I’m coming C. I’d be OK D. I won’t finish
Question 50: “Why don’t you sit down and ______?”
A. make yourself at peace B. make it your own home
C. make yourself at home D. make yourself at rest
Question 51: “You’ll recognize Jenny when you see her. She ______ a red hat.”
A. will wear B. will be wearing C. wears D. is wearing
Question 52: He never lets anything ______ him and his weekend fishing trip.
A. come among B. come between C. come up D. come on
Question 53: The Second World War ______ in 1939.
A. turned up B. took out C. brought about D. broke out
Question 54: The instructor blew his whistle and ______.
A. off the runners were running B. off ran the runners
C. off were running the runners D. the runners run off
Question 55: Sue: “Can you help me with my essay?”
Robert: “______”
A. I think that, too. B. Yes, I’m afraid not. C. Not completely. D. Why not?
Question 56: Before I left for my summer camp, my mother told me to take warm clothes with me
______ it was cold.
A. so that B. despite C. whereas D. in case
Question 57: “Never be late for an interview, ______ you can’t get the job.”
A. otherwise B. if not C. or so D. unless
Question 58: ______ without animals and plants?
A. What would life on earth be like B. How would life on earth be for
C. What will life on earth be like D. How will life on earth be like
Question 59: This shirt is ______ that one.
A. much far expensive than B. as much expensive as
C. a bit less expensive D. not nearly as expensive as
Question 60: If it ______ for the heavy storm, the accident would not have happened.
A. isn’t B. hadn’t been C. were D. weren’t

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Question 61: “We'd better ______ if we want to get there in time.”
A. take up B. put down C. speed up D. turn down
Question 62: I could not ______ the lecture at all. It was too difficult for me.
A. make off B. take in C. get along D. hold on
Question 63: The temperature ______ takes place varies widely from material to material.
A. which melting B. which they melt C. at which melting D. at which they melt
Question 64: The sign “NO TRESPASSING” tells you ______.
A. not to approach B. not to smoke C. not to enter D. not to photograph
Question 65: Alfonso: “I had a really good time. Thanks for the lovely evening.”
Maria: “______.”
A. Yes, it’s really good B. No, it’s very kind of you
C. I’m glad you enjoyed it D. Oh, that’s right
Question 66: She built a high wall round her garden ______.
A. in order that her fruit not be stolen B. to enable people not taking her fruit
C. so that her fruit would be stolen D. to prevent her fruit from being stolen
Question 67: The sky was cloudy and foggy. We went to the beach, ______.
A. so B. however C. even though D. yet
Question 68: I did not want to believe them, but in fact, ______ was true.
A. what they said B. what has said C. which they said D. that they were said
Question 69: “______ you treat him, he’ll help you. He’s so tolerant.”
A. In addition to B. Even though C. As if D. No matter how
Question 70: The village was ______ visible through the dense fog.
A. mostly B. hard C. only D. barely

Read the following passage adapted from Cultural Guide - OALD, and mark the letter A, B, C, or D
on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 71 to 80.
The issue of equality for women in British society first attracted national attention in the early 20th
century, when the suffragettes won for women the right to vote. In the 1960s feminism became the
subject of intense debate when the women’s liberation movement encouraged women to reject their
traditional supporting role and to demand equal status and equal rights with men in areas such as
employment and pay.
Since then, the gender gap between the sexes has been reduced. The Equal Pay Act of 1970, for
instance, made it illegal for women to be paid less than men for doing the same work, and in 1975 the
Sex Discrimination Act aimed to prevent either sex having an unfair advantage when applying for
jobs. In the same year the Equal Opportunities Commission was set up to help people claim their
rights to equal treatment and to publish research and statistics to show where improvements in
opportunities for women need to be made. Women now have much better employment opportunities,
though they still tend to get less well-paid jobs than men, and very few are appointed to top jobs in
industry.
In the US the movement that is often called the “first wave of feminism” began in the mid 1800s.
Susan B. Anthony worked for the right to vote, Margaret Sanger wanted to provide women with the
means of contraception so that they could decide whether or not to have children, and Elizabeth
Blackwell, who had to fight for the chance to become a doctor, wanted women to have greater
opportunities to study. Many feminists were interested in other social issues.
The second wave of feminism began in the 1960s. Women like Betty Friedan and Gloria Steinem
became associated with the fight to get equal rights and opportunities for women under the law. An
important issue was the Equal Rights Amendment (ERA), which was intended to change the
Constitution. Although the ERA was not passed, there was progress in other areas. It became illegal
for employers, schools, clubs, etc. to discriminate against women. But women still find it hard to
advance beyond a certain point in their careers, the so-called glass ceiling that prevents them from
having high-level jobs. Many women also face the problem of the second shift, i.e. the household
chores.

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In the 1980s, feminism became less popular in the US and there was less interest in solving the
remaining problems, such as the fact that most women still earn much less than men. Although there
is still discrimination, the principle that it should not exist is widely accepted.
Question 71: It can be inferred from paragraph 1 that in the 19th century, ______.
A. British women did not have the right to vote in political elections
B. most women did not wish to have equal status and equal rights
C. British women did not complete their traditional supporting role
D. suffragettes fought for the equal employment and equal pay
Question 72: The phrase “gender gap” in paragraph 2 refers to ______.
A. the social distance between the two sexes
B. the difference in status between men and women
C. the visible space between men and women
D. the social relationship between the two sexes
Question 73: Susan B. Anthony, Margaret Sanger, and Elizabeth Blackwell are mentioned as
______.
A. American women who had greater opportunities
B. American women who were more successful than men
C. pioneers in the fight for American women’s rights
D. American women with exceptional abilities
Question 74: The Equal Rights Amendment (ERA) ______.
A. supported employers, schools and clubs B. was brought into force in the 1960s
C. was not officially approved D. changed the US Constitution
th
Question 75: In the late 20 century, some information about feminism in Britain was issued by
______.
A. the Equal Pay Act of 1970 B. the Sex Discrimination Act
C. the Equal Opportunities Commission D. the Equal Rights Amendment
Question 76: Which of the following is true according to the passage?
A. The US movement of feminism became the most popular in the late 20th century.
B. The women’s liberation movement in the world first began in Britain.
C. The movement of feminism began in the US earlier than in Britain.
D. The British government passed laws to support women in the early 20th century.
Question 77: The phrase “glass ceiling” in paragraph 4 mostly means ______.
A. an overlooked problem B. a ceiling made of glass
C. an imaginary barrier D. a transparent frame
Question 78: Which of the following is NOT mentioned in the passage?
A. Many American women still face the problem of household chores.
B. An American woman once had to fight for the chance to become a doctor.
C. British women now have much better employment opportunities.
D. There is now no sex discrimination in Britain and in the US.
Question 79: It can be inferred from the passage that ______.
A. the belief that sex discrimination should not exist is not popular in the US
B. women in Britain and the US still fight for their equal status and equal rights
C. the British government did not approve of the women’s liberation movement
D. women do not have better employment opportunities despite their great efforts
Question 80: Which of the following would be the best title for the passage?
A. Women and the Right to Vote B. Opportunities for Women Nowadays
C. The Suffragettes in British Society D. Feminism in Britain and the US

---------------------------------------------------------- THE END ----------

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BỘ GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO TẠO ĐỀ THI TUYỂN SINH CAO ĐẲNG NĂM 2012
Môn: TIẾNG ANH; Khối A1 và Khối D1
ĐỀ CHÍNH THỨC
Thời gian làm bài: 90 phút, không kể thời gian phát đề
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ĐỀ THI GỒM 80 QUESTIONS (TỪ QUESTION 1 ĐẾN QUESTION 80)

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the
following questions.
Question 1: She was ______ angry that she could not say a word.
A. so B. too much C. so many D. such
Question 2: Susan, remember to apply this sun cream ______ two hours.
A. some B. several C. every D. each
Question 3: There is a good film ______ TV tonight. Will you watch it?
A. at B. from C. on D. in
Question 4: I’d rather you ______ to the English-speaking club with me this Sunday.
A. will come B. came C. come D. to come
Question 5: That cannot be a true story. He ______ it up.
A. can have made B. must have made C. would have made D. should have made
Question 6: Spain has won the championship, ______ is not surprising.
A. that B. how C. which D. what
Question 7: Sarah: “Oh my God, I’ve missed my bus.”
Christ: “______. Another will come here in ten minutes.”
A. I hope so B. Don’t mention it C. Don’t worry D. Thank you
Question 8: Instead of staying around the house all day, you should be out there looking ______ a job.
A. for B. after C. into D. at
Question 9: ______ he was tired, he still watched the final match on TV.
A. However B. Though C. Because D. Despite
Question 10: Parts of the mountain road have been washed ______ after the floods.
A. through B. off C. away D. out
Question 11: Parts of the country are suffering water ______ after the unusually dry summer.
A. shortage B. supply C. thirst D. hunger
Question 12: How long ago ______ to learn French?
A. have you started B. were you starting C. would you start D. did you start
Question 13: The teacher said that I would be able to speak English fluently ______ six months.
A. in B. by C. since D. till
Question 14: No sooner ______ my car than the alarm went off.
A. the thief had touched B. had the thief touched
C. touched the thief D. the thief touched
Question 15: The police have begun an ______ into the accident which happened this afternoon.
A. investigation B. investigatory C. investigate D. investigating
Question 16: Nowadays, most students use ______ calculators in their studies and examinations.
A. electrical B. electronic C. electricity D. electric
Question 17: They are having their house ______ by a construction company.
A. to paint B. painting C. being painted D. painted

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Question 18: This carpet really needs ______. Can you do it for me, son?
A. being cleaned B. cleaned C. clean D. cleaning
Question 19: Jack: “What’s wrong with you?”
Jill: “______.”
A. Thank you very much B. I’m having a slight headache
C. No, I don’t care D. Yes, I was tired yesterday
Question 20: College students are becoming less dependent ______ their teachers.
A. on B. with C. of D. to
Question 21: I hope you will ______ notice of what I am going to tell you.
A. gain B. keep C. get D. take
Question 22: My teacher reminded me ______ my essay carefully before handing it in.
A. checked B. checking C. to have checked D. to check
Question 23: He gave ______ his job in order to go back to university.
A. up B. in C. away D. out
Question 24: Mary: “Do you mind if I sit here?”
Laura: “______”
A. Don’t mention it. B. My pleasure. C. No, not at all. D. Yes, why not?
Question 25: Neither Tom nor his brothers ______ willing to help their mother with the housework.
A. are B. was C. has been D. is

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the
following questions.
Question 26: ______, the less polluted the environment will be.
A. The more polluted landfills will be B. The more landfills are there
C. The less landfills are polluted D. The fewer landfills we have
Question 27: Switch off all the lights ______.
A. by the time you enter the room B. until you enter the room
C. after you will leave the room D. before you leave the room
Question 28: ______ that she does not want to stay any longer.
A. A little homesick does Beth feel B. Beth feels such homesick
C. Homesick though Beth may feel D. So homesick does Beth feel
Question 29: It is believed ______.
A. when Alice to become a talented ballet dancer
B. how is Alice a talented ballet dancer
C. why is Alice such a talented ballet dancer
D. that Alice is a talented ballet dancer
Question 30: I have two sisters, ______.
A. both of whom are nurses B. most of whom are nurses
C. one of them are nurses D. most of them are nurses

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word or phrase CLOSEST in
meaning to the underlined part in each of the following questions.
Question 31: A special exhibition of Indian art will be opened at the National Museum next month.
A. painting B. programme C. music D. show
Question 32: Traffic began to flow normally again after the accident.
A. with the same speed B. in the usual or ordinary way
C. strangely and irregularly D. repeatedly in different modes
Question 33: Don’t be concerned about your mother’s illness; she’ll recover soon.
A. surprised at B. worried about C. embarrassed at D. angry with

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Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word or phrase OPPOSITE in
meaning to the underlined part in each of the following questions.
Question 34: His boss has had enough of his impudence, and doesn't want to hire him any more.
A. respect B. rudeness C. obedience D. agreement
Question 35: She was unhappy that she lost contact with a lot of her old friends when she went
abroad to study.
A. made room for B. lost control of C. put in charge of D. got in touch with

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the questions from 36 to 45.
One of the factors contributing to the intense nature of twenty-first-century stress is our continual
exposure to media – particularly to an overabundance of news. If you feel stressed out by the news,
you are far from alone. Yet somehow many of us seem unable to prevent ourselves from tuning in to
an extreme degree.
The further back we go in human history, the longer news took to travel from place to place, and
the less news we had of distant people and lands altogether. The printing press obviously changed all
that, as did every subsequent development in transportation and telecommunication.
When television came along, it proliferated like a population of rabbits. In 1950, there were
100,000 television sets in North American homes; one year later there were more than a million.
Today, it’s not unusual for a home to have three or more television sets, each with cable access to
perhaps over a hundred channels. News is the subject of many of those channels, and on several of
them it runs 24 hours a day.
What’s more, after the traumatic events of September 11, 2001, live newscasts were paired with
perennial text crawls across the bottom of the screen – so that viewers could stay abreast of every
story all the time.
Needless to say, the news that is reported to us is not good news, but rather disturbing images and
sound bytes alluding to disaster (natural and man-made), upheaval, crime, scandal, war, and the like.
Compounding the problem is that when actual breaking news is scarce, most broadcasts fill in with
scare stories about things that possibly might threaten our health, safety, finances, relationships,
waistline, hairline, or very existence in the future. This variety of story tends to treat with equal alarm
a potentially lethal flu outbreak and the bogus claims of a wrinkle cream that overpromises smooth
skin.
Are humans meant to be able to process so much trauma – not to mention so much overblown
anticipation of potential trauma – at once? The human brain, remember, is programmed to slip into
alarm mode when danger looms. Danger looms for someone, somewhere at every moment. Exposing
ourselves to such input without respite and without perspective cannot be anything other than a
source of chronic stress.
(Extracted from The Complete Idiot’s Guide to Beating Stress by Arlene Matthews Uhl - Penguin Group 2006)
Question 36: According to the passage, which of the following has contributed to the intense nature of
twenty-first-century stress?
A. The degree to which stress affects our life B. Our inability to control ourselves
C. An overabundance of special news D. Our continual exposure to the media
Question 37: In the past, we had less news of distant people and lands because ______.
A. printing, transportation, and telecommunications were not developed
B. means of communication and transportation were not yet invented
C. most people lived in distant towns and villages
D. the printing press changed the situation too slowly
Question 38: The pronoun “them” in paragraph 3 refers to ______.
A. TV channels B. TV news C. television sets D. cable access
Question 39: The word “traumatic” in paragraph 4 is closest in meaning to ______.
A. fascinating B. upsetting C. exciting D. boring

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Question 40: According to the passage, when there is not enough actual breaking news, broadcasts
______.
A. are full of dangerous diseases such as flu
B. send out live newscasts paired with text across the screen
C. are forced to publicise an alarming increase in crime
D. send out frightening stories about potential dangers
Question 41: As stated in the passage, a flu outbreak and the bogus claims of a wrinkle cream tend to
______.
A. be scarce breaking news B. involve natural and man-made disasters
C. be treated with equal alarm D. be warmly welcomed by the public
Question 42: Which of the following is NOT true, according to the passage?
A. The only source of stress in our modern life is the media.
B. Many TV channels supply the public with breaking news.
C. Many people are under stress caused by the media.
D. The news that is reported to us is not good news.
Question 43: The word “slip” in paragraph 6 is closest in meaning to ______.
A. fail B. bring C. release D. fall
Question 44: According to the passage, our continual exposure to bad news without perspective is
obviously ______.
A. the result of an overabundance of good news
B. the result of human brain’s switch to alarm mode
C. a source of defects in human brain
D. a source of chronic stress
Question 45: What is probably the best title for this passage?
A. Developments in Telecommunications B. The Media – A Major Cause of Stress
C. More Modern Life – More Stress D. Effective Ways to Beat Stress

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct word or phrase for each of the blanks from 46 to 55.
The popular image of student life is of young people with few responsibilities enjoying themselves
and (46)______ very little work. This is often not true. Many older people now study at college or
university, sometimes (47)______ a part-time basis while having a job and looking after a family.
These students are often (48)______ motivated and work very hard.
Younger students are often thought to be lazy and careless about money but this (49)______ is
changing. In Britain reduced government support for higher education means that students can no
longer rely on having their expenses (50)______ for them. Formerly, students received a grant
towards their living expenses. Now most can only get a loan (51)______ has to be paid back. Since
1999 they have paid over £1 000 towards tuition (52)______ and this amount will increase up to a
maximum of £3 000. In the US students already (53)______ pay for tuition and room and board.
Many get a financial aid package which may (54)______ grants, scholarships and loans. The fear of
having large debts places (55)______ pressure on students and many take part-time jobs during the
term and work full-time in the vacations.
(Extracted from Oxford Guide to British and American Culture – Oxford Advanced Learner’s Compass)
Question 46: A. producing B. carrying C. doing D. making
Question 47: A. for B. with C. on D. at
Question 48: A. highly B. mainly C. absolutely D. adequately
Question 49: A. position B. state C. situation D. condition
Question 50: A. paying B. paid C. pay D. to pay
Question 51: A. whether B. what C. which D. who
Question 52: A. money B. fees C. allowances D. charge
Question 53: A. had better B. should C. may D. have to

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Question 54: A. include B. consist C. compose D. belong
Question 55: A. large B. generous C. considerate D. considerable

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that has the underlined
part pronounced differently from the rest in each of the following questions.
Question 56: A. plain B. certain C. faithful D. attain
Question 57: A. survived B. maintained C. started D. determined
Question 58: A. documentary B. population C. stimulate D. maximum
Question 59: A. supply B. sensitive C. reserve D. universal
Question 60: A. teaching B. treatment C. weather D. repeat

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to show the underlined part that needs
correction.
Question 61: In spite of the heavy rain, all we enjoyed the excursion.
A B C D
Question 62: A dolphin can communicate with other by making distinctive sounds.
A B C D
Question 63: The children wish that they have more free time to play football.
A B C D
Question 64: Opened the letter from her boyfriend, she felt extremely excited.
A B C D
Question 65: Wood is an excellent resource for heating homes, cooking food, and build houses.
A B C D

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in
meaning to each of the following questions.
Question 66: I have never used a more fascinating MP3 player than this one.
A. This is the most fascinating MP3 player I have ever used.
B. Like the other MP3 players, this one is fascinating to me.
C. This MP3 player does not fascinate me much.
D. I am very fascinated by the MP3 player I am using.
Question 67: “Trust me! Do not invest all your money in one company,” said my friend.
A. My friend ordered me to invest all my money in one company.
B. My friend persuaded me not to invest all my money in one company.
C. My friend offered to help me to invest all my money in one company.
D. My friend encouraged me to invest all my money in one company.
Question 68: Take this route and you will get to the village.
A. There is no doubt that this route will never lead you to the village.
B. Although this route may lead you to the village, you cannot take it.
C. Certainly, you will get to the village if you take this route.
D. Unless you take this route, you will get to the village.
Question 69: I think it is more enjoyable to play a sport than to watch it on TV.
A. In my view, playing a sport is as enjoyable as watching it on TV.
B. As far as I know, more people watch a sport on TV than they play it.
C. In my opinion, to play a sport is more enjoyable than to watch it on TV.
D. I think watching a sport on TV is more enjoyable than playing it.
Question 70: “May I see your passport, Mrs Scott?” said the customs officer.
A. The customs officer asked to see Mrs Scott’s passport.
B. The customs officer suggested seeing Mrs Scott’s passport.
C. The customs officer asked Mrs Scott to see his passport.
D. The customs officer promised to show Mrs Scott his passport.
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Read the following passage on climate change, and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer
sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 71 to 80.
Experts in climatology and other scientists are becoming extremely concerned about the changes
to our climate which are taking place. Admittedly, climate changes have occurred on our planet
before. For example, there have been several ice ages or glacial periods.
These climatic changes, however, were different from the modern ones in that they occurred
gradually and, as far as we know, naturally. The changes currently being monitored are said to be the
result not of natural causes, but of human activity. Furthermore, the rate of change is becoming
alarmingly rapid.
The major problem is that the planet appears to be warming up. According to some experts, this
warming process, known as global warming, is occurring at a rate unprecedented in the last 10,000
years. The implications for the planet are very serious. Rising global temperatures could give rise to
such ecological disasters as extremely high increases in the incidence of flooding and of droughts.
These in turn could have a harmful effect on agriculture.
It is thought that this unusual warming of the Earth has been caused by so-called greenhouse gases,
such as carbon dioxide, being emitted into the atmosphere by car engines and modern industrial
processes, for example. Such gases not only add to the pollution of the atmosphere, but also create a
greenhouse effect, by which the heat of the sun is trapped. This leads to the warming up of the planet.
Politicians are also concerned about climate change and there are now regular summits on the
subject, attended by representatives from around 180 of the world's industrialized countries. Of these
summits, the most important took place in Kyoto in Japan in 1997. There it was agreed that the most
industrialized countries would try to reduce the volume of greenhouse gas emissions and were given
targets for this reduction of emissions.
It was also suggested that more forests should be planted to create so-called sinks to absorb
greenhouse gases. At least part of the problem of rapid climate change has been caused by too drastic
deforestation.
Sadly, the targets are not being met. Even more sadly, global warnings about climate changes are
often still being regarded as scaremongering.
(From Read and Understand 2 by Betty Kirkpatrick & Rebecca Mok - Learners Publishing Pte Ltd 2005)

Question 71: According to the passage, in what way did the climate changes in the ice ages differ
from the modern ones?
A. They occurred naturally over a long period of time.
B. They were fully monitored by humans.
C. They were wholly the result of human activity.
D. They were partly intended.
Question 72: The word “alarmingly” in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to ______.
A. disapprovingly B. worryingly C. surprisingly D. disappointingly
Question 73: According to the passage, agriculture could ______.
A. give rise to many ecological disasters
B. make the global warming more serious
C. be indirectly affected by the global temperature rises
D. be directly damaged by the rises in global temperature
Question 74: Greenhouse gases cause the warming up of the Earth because they ______.
A. are emitted by car engines B. trap heat from the sun
C. do not add to atmosphere pollution D. are unusual gases
Question 75: According to the passage, 1997 witnessed ______.
A. the largest number of summits on the subject of climate change
B. the highest attendance by representatives from 180 industrialised countries
C. the most important summit on climate change taking place in Kyoto, Japan
D. widespread concern about climate change

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Question 76: It can be inferred from the passage that the countries which are mainly responsible for global
warming are ______.
A. developed countries B. the most industrialised countries
C. countries with the warmest climate D. developing countries
Question 77: The word “There” in paragraph 5 refers to ______.
A. regular summits on climate change B. the 1997 summit in Kyoto, Japan
C. the world’s industrialised countries D. the most industrialised countries
Question 78: Which of the following is NOT true, according to the passage?
A. The so-called sinks created by forests can absorb greenhouse gases.
B. Politicians are among those who are concerned about climate change.
C. The problem of rapid climate change has been caused mainly by deforestation.
D. Carbon dioxide is one of the gases that may cause the so-called greenhouse effect.
Question 79: The word “drastic” in paragraph 6 is closest in meaning to ______.
A. severe B. hard C. obvious D. widespread
Question 80: What is probably the writer’s attitude toward global warming?
A. Optimistic B. Neutral C. Positive D. Pessimistic

---------------------------------------------------------- THE END ----------

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BỘ GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO TẠO ĐỀ THI TUYỂN SINH ĐẠI HỌC NĂM 2012
Môn: TIẾNG ANH; Khối D
ĐỀ CHÍNH THỨC
Thời gian làm bài: 90 phút, không kể thời gian phát đề
(Đề thi có 07 trang)
Otto Channel Mã đề thi 248

Họ, tên thí sinh:..........................................................................


Số báo danh:............................................................................
ĐỀ THI GỒM 80 CÂU (TỪ QUESTION 1 ĐẾN QUESTION 80)

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the rest in
the position of the main stress in each of the following questions.
Question 1: A. facility B. characterise C. irrational D. variety
Question 2: A. agreement B. elephant C. mineral D. violent
Question 3: A. professor B. typical C. accountant D. develop
Question 4: A. electrician B. majority C. appropriate D. traditional
Question 5: A. decay B. vanish C. attack D. depend

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to show the underlined part that needs
correction in each of the following questions.
Question 6: Most greetings cards are folding and have a picture on the front and a message inside.
A B C D
Question 7: Aloha is a Hawaiian word meaning ‘love’, that can be used to say hello or goodbye.
A B C D
Question 8: The Oxford English Dictionary is well known for including many different meanings of
A B C
words and to give real examples.
D
Question 9: It was disappointing that almost of the guests left the wedding too early.
A B C D
Question 10: When you are writing or speaking English it is important to use language that includes
A B C
both men and women equally the same.
D
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the
following questions.
Question 11: The recent heavy rains have helped to ease the water ______.
A. plenty B. poverty C. shortage D. abundance
Question 12: In a formal interview, it is essential to maintain good eye ______ with the interviewers.
A. link B. connection C. touch D. contact
Question 13: As a(n) ______ girl, she found it difficult to socialise with other students in the class.
A. reserved B. ashamed C. dynamic D. industrious
Question 14: He is coming ______ a cold after a night out in the rain.
A. down with B. up with C. away from D. across with
Question 15: It is interesting to take ______ a new hobby such as collecting stamps or going fishing.
A. up B. in C. over D. on
Question 16: The bad weather caused serious damage to the crop. If only it ______ warmer.
A. were B. had been C. has been D. was

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Question 17: Before going to bed, he wanted some tea but there was ______ left.
A. nothing B. no C. any D. a few
Question 18: You should look up the meaning of new words in the dictionary ______ misuse them.
A. so that not to B. so not to C. so that not D. so as not to
Question 19: Television can make things memorable for the reason that it presents information
______ an effective way.
A. on B. in C. with D. over
Question 20: It was so kind of her to put me ______ while I was on a business trip in her town.
A. down B. off C. up D. in
Question 21: He didn’t know______ or stay until the end of the festival.
A. if to go B. if that he should go C. to go D. whether to go
Question 22: ______ smoking is a causative factor of many diseases, there is no ban on tobacco
advertising.
A. However B. Therefore C. Although D. In spite of
Question 23: Mary: “I will never go mountaineering again.”
Linda: “Me ______.”
A. so B. too C. neither D. either
Question 24: When Peter was a child, there ______ a cinema near his house.
A. used to be B. used to have C. used to be being D. used to have been
Question 25: Working as a volunteer gives her a chance to develop her interpersonal skills, promote
friendship, and ______ her own talent.
A. discover B. discovered C. discovering D. to discover
Question 26: Mary: “Thanks a lot for your help.”
John: “______.”
A. My happiness B. My excitement C. My delight D. My pleasure
Question 27: My mother had to work 12 hours a day in a factory just to ______.
A. make ends meet B. call it a day C. break the ice D. tighten the belt
Question 28: The team were eager to make ______ the loss of the previous match.
A. off with B. up with C. up for D. away with
Question 29: After the car crash last night, all the injured ______ to the hospital in an ambulance.
A. was rushing B. were rushed C. was rushed D. were rushing
Question 30: It has been suggested that Mary ______ a computer course in preparation for a steady job.
A. take B. have been taken C. would have taken D. was taken
Question 31: Tom: “When are we leaving for the concert?”
Kyle : “______.”
A. No problem B. Certainly C. That’s right D. Straight away
Question 32: Scientists have ______ a lot of research into renewable energy sources.
A. done B. solved C. carried D. made
Question 33: New machinery has enhanced the company’s productivity and ______.
A. competition B. competitor C. competitive D. competitiveness
Question 34: The restaurants on the island are expensive, so it’s worth ______ a packed lunch.
A. taken B. taking C. to take D. take
th
Question 35: The struggle for women’s rights began in the 18 century during a period ______ as
the Age of Enlightenment.
A. known B. is knowing C. that knew D. knew

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word or phrase that is CLOSEST
in meaning to the underlined part in each of the following questions.
Question 36: The repeated commercials on TV distract many viewers from watching their favourite
films.
A. businesses B. advertisements C. economics D. contests

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Question 37: As tourism is more developed, people worry about the damage to the flora and fauna of
the island.
A. flowers and trees B. plants and animals
C. mountains and forests D. fruits and vegetables
Question 38: It is such a prestigious university that only excellent students are entitled to a full
scholarship each year.
A. have the right to refuse B. are refused the right to
C. are given the right to D. have the obligation to

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word or phrase that is
OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined part in each of the following questions.
Question 39: After five days on trial, the court found him innocent of the crime and he was released.
A. guilty B. naive C. innovative D. benevolent
Question 40: Affluent families find it easier to support their children financially.
A. Privileged B. Impoverished C. Well-off D. Wealthy

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each
pair of sentences in the following questions.
Question 41: Mike graduated with a good degree. However, he joined the ranks of the unemployed.
A. Mike joined the ranks of the unemployed because he graduated with a good degree.
B. If Mike graduated with a good degree, he would join the ranks of the unemployed.
C. Although Mike graduated with a good degree, he joined the ranks of the unemployed.
D. That Mike graduated with a good degree helped him join the ranks of the unemployed.
Question 42: Ann always keeps up with the latest fashions. She works for a famous fashion house.
A. Ann always keeps up with the latest fashions so as not to work for a famous fashion house.
B. Ann works for a famous fashion house, so she always keeps up with the latest fashions.
C. Not working for a famous fashion house, Ann always keeps up with the latest fashions.
D. Despite working for a famous fashion house, Ann hardly keeps up with the latest fashions.
Question 43: They drove fifteen miles off the main road. Also, they had nothing to eat for the day.
A. Not only did they drive fifteen miles off the main road, they also had nothing to eat for the day.
B. Driving fifteen miles off the main road, they eventually had something to eat for the day.
C. They neither drove fifteen miles off the main road nor had anything to eat for the day.
D. They drove fifteen miles off the main road until they had something to eat for the day.
Question 44: Put your coat on. You will get cold.
A. You will not get cold unless you put your coat on.
B. Put your coat on, otherwise you will get cold.
C. It is not until you put your coat on that you will get cold.
D. You not only put your coat on but also get cold.
Question 45: Everyone was watching the little dog. They were greatly amused at it.
A. Everyone felt great and amused when the little dog was watching them.
B. The little dog was watching everyone with great amusement.
C. Everyone was greatly amused at the little dog they were watching.
D. The little dog was greatly amused by the way everyone was watching it.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is CLOSEST in
meaning to each of the following questions.
Question 46: “We lost the last game because of the referee,” said the team captain.
A. The team captain said that without the referee, they might have lost the last game.
B. The team captain admitted to the referee that they had lost the last game.
C. The team captain refused to tell the referee about their loss in the last game.
D. The team captain blamed the referee for their loss in the last game.

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Question 47: I was astonished that he knew a lot about Vietnamese food.
A. I was astonished at his poor knowledge of Vietnamese food.
B. It surprised me that Vietnamese food was what he liked most.
C. I knew very little about Vietnamese food, which astonished him.
D. That he knew a lot about Vietnamese food amazed me.
Question 48: Martin missed his flight because he had not been informed of the change in flight schedule.
A. Not having been informed of the change in flight schedule, Martin missed his flight.
B. Not having missed his flight, Martin was informed of the change in flight schedule.
C. Martin missed his flight, though he had been informed of the change in flight schedule.
D. Martin had been informed of his flight delay, which was due to the change in flight schedule.
Question 49: “If I were you, I would not choose to write about such a sensitive topic,” the teacher said.
A. The teacher advised me against writing about such a sensitive topic.
B. The teacher advised me on writing about such a sensitive topic.
C. I was ordered by the teacher not to write about such a sensitive topic.
D. I was blamed for writing about such a sensitive topic by the teacher.
Question 50: The man wore gloves in order not to leave any fingerprints.
A. The man wore gloves in order that his fingerprints would be taken.
B. His fingerprints would not be left unless the man wore gloves.
C. In order to leave some fingerprints the man took off his gloves.
D. The man wore gloves so that he would not leave any fingerprints.

Read the following passage on native Americans, and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer
sheet to indicate the correct word or phrase for each of the blanks from 51 to 60.
The first American immigrants, beginning more than 20,000 years ago, were intercontinental
wanderers: hunters and their families following animal (51)______ from Asia to America, across a
land bridge where the Bering Strait is today. (52)______ Spain’s Christopher Columbus “discovered”
the New World in 1492, about 1.5 million Native Americans lived in what is now the continental
United States, although estimates of the number (53)______ greatly. Mistaking the place where he
landed – San Salvador in the Bahamas – (54)______ the Indies, Columbus called the Native
Americans “Indians.”
During the next 200 years, people from several European countries followed Columbus across the
Atlantic Ocean to explore America and (55)______ up trading posts and colonies. Native Americans
suffered (56)______ from the influx of Europeans. The transfer of land from Indian to European –
and later American – hands (57)______ accomplished through treaties, wars, and coercion, with
Indians constantly giving (58)______ as the newcomers moved west. In the 19th century, the
government’s preferred solution to the Indian “problem” was to force tribes to inhabit specific plots
of land called reservations. Some tribes fought to keep from (59)______ land they had traditionally
used. In many cases the reservation land was (60)______ poor quality, and Indians came to depend
on government assistance. Poverty and joblessness among Native Americans still exist today.
(Extracted from InfoUSA – CD Version)
Question 51: A. herds B. flocks C. bunches D. packs
Question 52: A. During B. When C. Not until D. Meanwhile
Question 53: A. adapt B. adjust C. vary D. modify
Question 54: A. to B. like C. for D. with
Question 55: A. bring B. make C. go D. set
Question 56: A. deliberately B. marginally C. greatly D. vaguely
Question 57: A. were B. have been C. was D. had been
Question 58: A. way B. road C. signal D. direction
Question 59: A. breaking down B. staying up C. giving up D. coming about
Question 60: A. in B. with C. of D. under

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Read the following passage on commuting, and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet
to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 61 to 70.
Commuting is the practice of travelling a long distance to a town or city to work each day, and then
travelling home again in the evening. The word commuting comes from commutation ticket, a US rail
ticket for repeated journeys, called a season ticket in Britain. Regular travellers are called
commuters.
The US has many commuters. A few, mostly on the East Coast, commute by train or subway, but
most depend on the car. Some leave home very early to avoid the traffic jams, and sleep in their cars
until their office opens. Many people accept a long trip to work so that they can live in quiet bedroom
communities away from the city, but another reason is ‘white flight’. In the 1960s most cities began
to desegregate their schools, so that there were no longer separate schools for white and black
children. Many white families did not want to send their children to desegregated schools, so they
moved to the suburbs, which have their own schools, and where, for various reasons, few black
people live.
Millions of people in Britain commute by car or train. Some spend two or three hours a day
travelling, so that they and their families can live in suburbia or in the countryside. Cities are
surrounded by commuter belts. Part of the commuter belt around London is called the stockbroker
belt because it contains houses where rich business people live. Some places are becoming dormitory
towns, because people sleep there but take little part in local activities.
Most commuters travel to and from work at the same time, causing the morning and evening rush
hours, when buses and trains are crowded and there are traffic jams on the roads. Commuters on
trains rarely talk to each other and spend their journey reading, sleeping or using their mobile phones,
though this is not popular with other passengers. Increasing numbers of people now work at home
some days of the week, linked to their offices by computer, a practice called telecommuting.
Cities in both Britain and the US are trying to reduce the number of cars coming into town each
day. Some companies encourage car pooling (called car sharing in Britain), an arrangement for
people who live and work near each other to travel together. Some US cities have a public service
that helps such people to contact each other, and traffic lanes are reserved for car-pool vehicles. But
cars and petrol/gas are cheap in the US, and many people prefer to drive alone because it gives them
more freedom. In Britain many cities have park-and-ride schemes, car parks on the edge of the city
from which buses take drivers into the centre.
(Extracted from Oxford Guide to British and American Culture, Oxford University Press, 2000)
Question 61: Which of the following definitions of commuting would the author of this passage most
probably agree with?
A. Travelling for hours from a town or city to work in the countryside every day.
B. Travelling to work and then home again in a day within a rural district.
C. Using a commutation ticket for special journeys in all seasons of the year.
D. Regularly travelling a long distance between one’s place of work and one’s home.
Question 62: The word “repeated” in paragraph 1 most probably means ______.
A. buying a season ticket again B. doing something once again
C. saying something again D. happening again and again
Question 63: The passage mentions that many Americans are willing to travel a long distance to
work in order to be able to live in ______.
A. comfortable bedrooms B. quiet neighbourhoods
C. city centres D. noisy communities
Question 64: Which of the following is true according to the passage?
A. Britain has considerably more commuters than the US.
B. The US has considerably more commuters than Britain.
C. Both the US and Britain have a great number of commuters.
D. Commuting helps people in the US and Britain save a lot of time.

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Question 65: Which of the following is NOT true about the London commuter belt?
A. It is home to some wealthy business people. B. It is like “bedroom communities” in the US.
C. It is in central London. D. It surrounds London.
Question 66: It can be inferred from the passage that dormitory towns in Britain are places where
people ______.
A. contribute to the local community B. are employed locally
C. take part in local activities D. stay for the night
Question 67: As mentioned in the passage, commuters usually ______.
A. talk to each other during train journeys B. cause traffic congestion on the roads
C. go home from work at different hours D. go to work at different hours
Question 68: The phrase “linked to” in paragraph 4 is closest in meaning to ______.
A. satisfied with B. connected to C. shared with D. related to
Question 69: All of the following are measures to reduce the number of cars coming into town each
day in the US and/or Britain EXCEPT ______.
A. car pooling/sharing B. traffic lanes for car pooling
C. park-and-ride schemes D. free car parks in the city centre
Question 70: The word “it” in the last paragraph refers to ______.
A. car pool B. travelling together C. driving alone D. petrol/gas

Read the following passage on learning by Mazur, James E, and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on
your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 71 to 80.
Learning means acquiring knowledge or developing the ability to perform new behaviors. It is
common to think of learning as something that takes place in school, but much of human learning
occurs outside the classroom, and people continue to learn throughout their lives.
Even before they enter school, young children learn to walk, to talk, and to use their hands to
manipulate toys, food, and other objects. They use all of their senses to learn about the sights, sounds,
tastes, and smells in their environments. They learn how to interact with their parents, siblings,
friends, and other people important to their world. When they enter school, children learn basic
academic subjects such as reading, writing, and mathematics. They also continue to learn a great deal
outside the classroom. They learn which behaviors are likely to be rewarded and which are likely to
be punished. They learn social skills for interacting with other children. After they finish school,
people must learn to adapt to the many major changes that affect their lives, such as getting married,
raising children, and finding and keeping a job.
Because learning continues throughout our lives and affects almost everything we do, the study of
learning is important in many different fields. Teachers need to understand the best ways to educate
children. Psychologists, social workers, criminologists, and other human-service workers need to
understand how certain experiences change people’s behaviors. Employers, politicians, and
advertisers make use of the principles of learning to influence the behavior of workers, voters, and
consumers.
Learning is closely related to memory, which is the storage of information in the brain.
Psychologists who study memory are interested in how the brain stores knowledge, where this storage
takes place, and how the brain later retrieves knowledge when we need it. In contrast, psychologists
who study learning are more interested in behavior and how behavior changes as a result of a
person’s experiences.
There are many forms of learning, ranging from simple to complex. Simple forms of learning
involve a single stimulus. A stimulus is anything perceptible to the senses, such as a sight, sound,
smell, touch, or taste. In a form of learning known as classical conditioning, people learn to associate
two stimuli that occur in sequence, such as lightning followed by thunder. In operant conditioning,
people learn by forming an association between a behavior and its consequences (reward or
punishment). People and animals can also learn by observation - that is, by watching others perform
behaviors. More complex forms of learning include learning languages, concepts, and motor skills.
(Extracted from Microsoft® Student 2009 – DVD Version)

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Question 71: According to the passage, which of the following is learning in broad view comprised of?
A. Acquisition of social and behavioural skills
B. Knowledge acquisition and ability development
C. Acquisition of academic knowledge
D. Knowledge acquisition outside the classroom
Question 72: According to the passage, what are children NOT usually taught outside the classroom?
A. literacy and calculation B. life skills
C. interpersonal communication D. right from wrong
Question 73: Getting married, raising children, and finding and keeping a job are mentioned in
paragraph 2 as examples of ______.
A. the situations in which people cannot teach themselves
B. the areas of learning which affect people’s lives
C. the changes to which people have to orient themselves
D. the ways people’s lives are influenced by education
Question 74: Which of the following can be inferred about the learning process from the passage?
A. It is more interesting and effective in school than that in life.
B. It becomes less challenging and complicated when people grow older.
C. It plays a crucial part in improving the learner’s motivation in school.
D. It takes place more frequently in real life than in academic institutions.
Question 75: According to the passage, the study of learning is important in many fields due to ______.
A. the great influence of the on-going learning process
B. the influence of various behaviours in the learning process
C. the exploration of the best teaching methods
D. the need for certain experiences in various areas
Question 76: It can be inferred from the passage that social workers, employers, and politicians
concern themselves with the study of learning because they need to ______.
A. change the behaviours of the objects of their interest towards learning
B. make the objects of their interest more aware of the importance of learning
C. understand how a stimulus relates to the senses of the objects of their interest
D. thoroughly understand the behaviours of the objects of their interest
Question 77: The word “retrieves ” in paragraph 4 is closest in meaning to _______.
A. generates B. recovers C. creates D. gains
Question 78: Which of the following statements is NOT true according to the passage?
A. Psychologists studying memory are concerned with how the stored knowledge is used.
B. Psychologists studying memory are concerned with the brain’s storage of knowledge.
C. Psychologists are all interested in memory as much as behaviours.
D. Psychologists studying learning are interested in human behaviours.
Question 79: According to the passage, the stimulus in simple forms of learning ______.
A. makes associations between behaviours B. is created by the senses
C. is associated with natural phenomena D. bears relation to perception
Question 80: The passage mainly discusses ______.
A. simple forms of learning
B. practical examples of learning inside the classroom
C. application of learning principles to formal education
D. general principles of learning

---------------------------------------------------------- THE END ----------

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BỘ GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO TẠO ĐỀ THI TUYỂN SINH ĐẠI HỌC NĂM 2012
Môn: TIẾNG ANH; Khối A1
ĐỀ CHÍNH THỨC
Thời gian làm bài: 90 phút, không kể thời gian phát đề
(Đề thi có 07 trang)
Otto Channel Mã đề thi 318

Họ, tên thí sinh:..........................................................................


Số báo danh:............................................................................
ĐỀ THI GỒM CÓ 80 CÂU (TỪ QUESTION 1 ĐẾN QUESTION 80)

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the rest in
the position of the main stress in each of the following questions.
Question 1: A. amaze B. offer C. release D. believe
Question 2: A. socialise B. memory C. tradition D. animal
Question 3: A. biology B. ability C. interactive D. inaccurate
Question 4: A. actor B. career C. rubbish D. cocktail
Question 5: A. similar B. attractive C. chemical D. calculate

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to show the underlined part that needs
correction in each of the following questions.
Question 6: Not until he got home he realised he had forgotten to give her the present.
A B C D
Question 7: A novel is a story long enough to fill a complete book, in that the characters and events
A B C
are usually imaginary.
D
Question 8: A lot of people stop smoking because they are afraid their health will be affected and early death.
A B C D
Question 9: He has hardly never given a more impressive performance than this.
A B C D
Question 10: The student must have her assessment form fill in by the examiner during the oral exam.
A B C D

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the
following questions.
Question 11: They live on a busy road. ______ a lot of noise from traffic.
A. There must be B. It must be C. It must have been D. There must have
Question 12: He died ______ lung cancer last month, leaving his wife in great shock.
A. by B. for C. in D. of
Question 13: Lora: “Do you mind if I turn on the fan?”
Maria: “______.”
A. Not for me B. Not at all C. Never mind D. Not enough
Question 14: Due to ever more spreading poaching, there ______ a dramatic decline in the number
of elephants over the last decade.
A. was B. is C. has been D. had been
Question 15: He came ______ a lot of criticism for the remarks he made in a television interview.
A. out of B. off C. over D. in for

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Question 16: He is a very intelligent boy; ______, he sometimes gets bad marks.
A. otherwise B. thus C. so D. however
Question 17: She started the course two months ago but dropped ______ after only a month.
A. in B. out C. off D. back
Question 18: Tom: “Can I have another cup of tea?”
Christy: “______.”
A. Be yourself B. Do it yourself C. Help yourself D. Allow yourself
Question 19: ______ that Columbus discovered America.
A. There was in 1492 B. That was in 1492 C. In 1492 D. It was in 1492
Question 20: Nowadays, with the help of the computer, teachers have developed a ______ approach
to teaching.
A. multilateral B. multilingual C. multiple-choice D. multimedia
Question 21: I ______ work last week, but I changed my mind.
A. have started B. was going to start C. had started D. would start
Question 22: The Principal usually has his pupils ______ waste paper for their mini-project.
A. collected B. collect C. to collect D. having collected
Question 23: She passed the National High School Graduation Exam with ______ colours.
A. flying B. bright C. true D. red
Question 24: Although we have a large number of students, each one receives ______ attention.
A. alone B. separate C. individual D. only
Question 25: Geometry is a branch of mathematics ______ the properties of lines, curves, shapes,
and surfaces.
A. that concerning with B. concerned with
C. that concerned with D. that it is concerned with
Question 26: Ann: “Do you need any help?”
Kate: “______.”
A. No, thanks. I can manage B. I haven’t got a clue
C. That’s all for now D. That’s fine by me
Question 27: I can’t find my dictionary at the moment. I hope it will ______ up soon.
A. turn B. clear C. come D. look
Question 28: The children made ______ a funny story and wrote it on the card.
A. off B. for C. out D. up
Question 29: ______ make a good impression on her.
A. Only by doing so can I B. Only by so doing I can
C. Only by doing so I can D. Only so doing can I
Question 30: People don’t like the way he shows off, ______?
A. does he B. do they C. don’t they D. doesn’t he
Question 31: Anna is holding her shopping bag with one hand and turning the door handle with ______.
A. others B. another C. the other D. other
Question 32: The language centre offers courses of various levels, such as elementary, intermediate and ______.
A. advance B. advancement C. advancing D. advanced
Question 33: No matter how angry he was, he would never ______ to violence.
A. resort B. resist C. refuse D. resolve
Question 34: I ______ with my aunt when I am on holiday in Ho Chi Minh City next month.
A. will have been staying B. will have stayed
C. stay D. will be staying
Question 35: The use of vitamin ______ and herbs has become increasingly popular among Americans.
A. components B. materials C. ingredients D. supplements

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Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word or phrase that is CLOSEST
in meaning to the underlined part in each of the following questions.
Question 36: Although they hold similar political views, their religious beliefs present a striking contrast.
A. minor comparison B. interesting resemblance
C. significant difference D. complete coincidence
Question 37: These were the people who advocated using force to stop school violence.
A. openly criticised B. publicly said
C. publicly supported D. strongly condemned
Question 38: Within a week on display at the exhibition, the painting was hailed as a masterpiece.
A. an expensive work of art B. a down-to-earth work of art
C. an excellent work of art D. a large work of art
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word or phrase that is OPPOSITE
in meaning to the underlined part in each of the following questions.
Question 39: The consequences of the typhoon were disastrous due to the lack of precautionary
measures.
A. damaging B. beneficial C. severe D. physical
Question 40: Vietnam’s admission to the World Trade Organisation (WTO) has promoted its trade
relations with other countries.
A. boosted B. expanded C. restricted D. balanced

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is CLOSEST in
meaning to each of the following questions.
Question 41: No matter how hard Fred tried to lose weight, he did not succeed.
A. However hard Fred tried, he could not lose weight.
B. Fred tried very hard to lose weight and succeeded.
C. It was hard for Fred to lose weight because he never succeeded.
D. It did not matter whether Fred could lose weight.
Question 42: Fiona has been typing the report for an hour.
A. It took Fiona an hour to type the report.
B. It is an hour since Fiona started typing the report.
C. Fiona finished the report an hour ago.
D. Fiona will finish typing the report in an hour.
Question 43: Soil erosion is a result of forests being cut down carelessly.
A. That forests are being cut down carelessly results from soil erosion.
B. Soil erosion contributes to forests being cut down carelessly.
C. That forests are being cut down carelessly leads to soil erosion.
D. Soil erosion results in forests being cut down carelessly.
Question 44: “I will not leave until I see the manager,” said the customer.
A. The customer refused to leave until he saw the manager.
B. The customer decided to leave because he did not see the manager.
C. The customer said he would leave before he saw the manager.
D. The customer was persuaded to see the manager before leaving.
Question 45: Walking on the grass in the park is not permitted.
A. You can walk on the grass in the park if you want to.
B. People like walking on the grass in the park.
C. We must not walk on the grass in the park.
D. We do not have to walk on the grass in the park.
Question 46: She did not study hard enough to win the scholarship.
A. Winning the scholarship did not make her study harder.
B. She studied hard but she could not win the scholarship.
C. It was very hard for her to win the scholarship.
D. She could have won the scholarship if she had studied harder.

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Question 47: To my surprise, the stranger knew my name.
A. What surprised me most was the stranger’s name.
B. I was surprised that the stranger knew my name.
C. My name was the only thing the stranger knew.
D. It surprised the stranger that I knew his name.
Question 48: The situation was so embarrassing that she did not know what to do.
A. It was such an embarrassing situation; however, she did not know what to do.
B. So embarrassing the situation was that she did not know what to do.
C. She did not know what to do, though it was not an embarrassing situation.
D. So embarrassing was the situation that she did not know what to do.
Question 49: “Please accept my apology for arriving late,” said Janet to her employer.
A. Janet apologised to her employer for her late arrival.
B. Janet had to make an apology because her employer demanded it.
C. Janet quickly made an apology and the employer accepted it.
D. Janet thought she would apologise to her employer for arriving late.
Question 50: She prefers going to the library to staying at home.
A. She would rather go to the library than stay at home.
B. She likes nothing better than going to the library.
C. She does not like either going to the library or staying at home.
D. She stays at home instead of going to the library.

Read the following passage on social issues in American schools, and mark the letter A, B, C, or D
on your answer sheet to indicate the correct word for each of the blanks from 51 to 60.
In addition to the challenge to be excellent, American schools have been facing novel problems. They
must (51)______ with an influx of immigrant children, many of whom speak little or no English.
They must respond to demands (52)______ the curriculum reflect the various cultures of all children.
Schools must make sure that students develop (53)______ skills for the job market, and they must
consider the needs of nontraditional students, such as teenage mothers.
Schools are (54)______ these problems in ways that reflect the diversity of the US educational
system. They are hiring or training large numbers of teachers of English (55)______ a second
language and, in some communities, setting up bilingual schools. They are opening (56)______ the
traditional European-centered curriculum to embrace material from African, Asian, and other
cultures.
Schools are also teaching cognitive skills to the (57)______ 40 percent of American students who
do not go on to higher education. In the (58)______ of a recent report by the Commission on
Achieving Necessary Skills, “A strong back, the willingness to work, and a high school diploma were
once all that was necessary to (59)______ a start in America. They are no longer. A well-developed
mind, a continued willingness to learn and the ability to put knowledge to work are the new keys
(60)______ the future of our young people, the success of our business, and the economic well-being
of the nation.”
(Extracted from InfoUSA – CD Version)
Question 51: A. cope B. stay C. fight D. do
Question 52: A. what B. that C. whether D. who
Question 53: A. basis B. base C. basics D. basic
Question 54: A. discharging B. distributing C. delivering D. addressing
Question 55: A. as B. from C. with D. like
Question 56: A. for B. into C. up D. on
Question 57: A. nearly B. mostly C. slightly D. fairly
Question 58: A. directions B. words C. minds D. ways
Question 59: A. get B. take C. make D. bring
Question 60: A. at B. for C. to D. in
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Read the following passage on architecture by Lawrence B. Anderson, and mark the letter A, B, C,
or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 61 to 70.
Architecture is the practice of building design and its resulting products; customary usage refers only
to those designs and structures that are culturally significant. Architecture is to building as literature
is to the printed word. Vitruvius, a 1st-century BC Roman, wrote encyclopedically about architecture,
and the English poet Sir Henry Wotton was quoting him in his charmingly phrased dictum: “Well
building hath three conditions: Commoditie, Firmenes, and Delight.” More prosaically, one would
say today that architecture must satisfy its intended uses, must be technically sound, and must convey
aesthetic meaning. But the best buildings are often so well constructed that they outlast their original
use. They then survive not only as beautiful objects, but as documents of the history of cultures,
achievements in architecture that testify to the nature of the society that produced them. These
achievements are never wholly the work of individuals. Architecture is a social art.
Architectural form is inevitably influenced by the technologies applied, but building technology is
conservative and knowledge about it is cumulative. Precast concrete, for instance, has not rendered
brick obsolete. Although design and construction have become highly sophisticated and are often
computer directed, this complex apparatus rests on preindustrial traditions inherited from millennia
during which most structures were lived in by the people who erected them. The technical demands
on building remain the elemental ones – to exclude enemies, to circumvent gravity, and to avoid
discomforts caused by an excess of heat or cold or by the intrusion of rain, wind, or vermin. This is
no trivial assignment even with the best modern technology.
The availability of suitable materials fostered the crafts to exploit them and influenced the shapes
of buildings. Large areas of the world were once forested, and their inhabitants developed carpentry.
Although it has become relatively scarce, timber remains an important building material.
Many kinds of stone lend themselves to building. Stone and marble were chosen for important
monuments because they are incombustible and can be expected to endure. Stone is also a sculptural
material; stone architecture was often integral with stone sculpture. The use of stone has declined,
however, because a number of other materials are more amenable to industrial use and assembly.
Some regions lack both timber and stone; their peoples used the earth itself, tamping certain
mixtures into walls or forming them into bricks to be dried in the sun. Later they baked these
substances in kilns, producing a range of bricks and tiles with greater durability.
(Extracted from Microsoft® Encarta® 2009 Encyclopedia – DVD Version)

Question 61: According to the passage, the term “architecture” is normally used to refer to the
designs and structures that have ______.
A. cultural significance B. technical importance
C. social importance D. religious significance
Question 62: Which of the following is NOT considered an essential characteristic of architecture
according to the passage?
A. Economy B. Utility C. Strength D. Beauty
Question 63: When well-constructed buildings exist longer than their original use, they serve as ______.
A. monuments to ancient time heroes B. museums and exhibition galleries
C. witnesses to their historical times D. witnesses to major ancient wars
Question 64: The author uses the phrase “social art” in the first paragraph to emphasise that architecture is
an ______.
A. art that belongs to a society B. achievement of many people
C. art that is very much socialised D. achievement of many sociologists
Question 65: According to the passage, knowledge about building technology ______.
A. has experienced complete changes for generations
B. includes the experience gained from generation to generation
C. is always influenced by a wide range of technological applications
D. is based on modern technologies rather than traditions

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Question 66: The word “obsolete” in paragraph 2 mostly means ______.
A. out of date B. out of hand C. out of order D. out of place
Question 67: Which of the following factors must be taken into account in both ancient and modern
architecture according to the information in paragraph 2?
A. Fundamental technical demands on building B. Basic safety rules in the building industry
C. Basic needs and the availability of materials D. Sophisticated building technologies
Question 68: According to the passage, stone and marble were used for buildings of historical
importance because they ______.
A. are inflammable and endurable B. give warmth and comfort to their owners
C. make structures look more attractive D. are non-flammable and last long
Question 69: According to the passage, today stone has been used less as a building material because ______.
A. stone architecture is essential to the number of stone sculptures
B. it has become relatively scarce and more difficult to exploit
C. it has less influence on the shapes of buildings and sculptures
D. there have been other more suitable materials for industrial use
Question 70: The word “their” in the last paragraph refers to ______.
A. regions B. timber and stone C. mixtures D. walls and bricks
Read the following passage on transport, and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to
indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 71 to 80.
Most journeys in Britain and the US are made by road. Some of these are made on public transport
but most are by private car.
In Britain many people rely on their cars for daily local activities, e.g. getting to work, doing the
shopping, and visiting friends. People living in urban areas may use buses, trains or, in London, the
Underground, to get to city centres, mainly because traffic is often heavy and it is difficult to find
anywhere to park a car. Some places in the country may have a bus only two or three times a week so
people living there have no choice but to rely on their cars.
In the US large cities have good public transportation systems. The El railroad in Chicago and the
underground systems of New York, Boston, San Francisco and Washington, DC are heavily used.
Elsewhere, most Americans prefer to use their cars. Families often have two cars and, outside major
cities, have to drive fairly long distances to schools, offices, shops, banks, etc. Many college and even
high-school students have their own cars.
Long-distance travel in Britain is also mainly by road, though railways link most towns and cities.
Most places are linked by motorways or other fast roads and many people prefer to drive at their
own convenience rather than use a train, even though they may get stuck in a traffic jam. Long-
distance coach/bus services are usually a cheaper alternative to trains, but they take longer and may
be less comfortable. Some long-distance travel, especially that undertaken for business reasons, may
be by air. There are regular flights between regional airports, as well as to and from London. A lot of
freight is also distributed by road, though heavier items and raw materials often go by rail.
In the US much long-distance travel is by air. America has two main long-distance bus companies,
Greyhound and Trailways. Amtrak, the national network, provides rail services for passengers.
Private railway companies such as Union Pacific now carry only freight, though in fact over 70% of
freight goes by road.
The main problems associated with road transport in both Britain and the US are traffic congestion
and pollution. It is predicted that the number of cars on British roads will increase by a third within a
few years, making both these problems worse. The British government would like more people to use
public transport, but so far they have had little success in persuading people to give up their cars or to
share rides with neighbours. Most people say that public transport is simply not good enough.
Americans too have resisted government requests to share cars because it is less convenient and
restricts their freedom. Petrol/gasoline is relatively cheap in the US and outside the major cities
public transport is bad, so they see no reason to use their cars less.
(Extracted from Oxford Guide to British and American Culture, Oxford University Press, 2000)

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Question 71: In Britain and the US most people travel by ______.
A. sea B. rail C. road D. air
Question 72: According to the passage, people in London may prefer the Underground to their own
cars due to ______.
A. cheap tickets B. air pollution C. long distances D. heavy traffic
Question 73: It is mentioned in paragraph 3 that the public transportation systems in the US are good
in ______.
A. some states B. all cities C. large states D. large cities
Question 74: Which of the following is NOT true according to the passage?
A. Few college students in the US have their own cars.
B. Families in the US often have more than one car.
C. Most Americans prefer to drive their cars outside large cities.
D. The underground systems are popular in some major US cities.
Question 75: The phrase “at their own convenience” in paragraph 4 is closest in meaning to ______.
A. at the latest time and nearest place B. at an appropriate time and place
C. at an early time and nearby place D. at the fastest time and nearest place
Question 76: Which of the following is true about transport in Britain?
A. Long-distance travel in Britain is only by road.
B. There are no regular flights between regional airports.
C. Trains are usually cheaper than long-distance coach services.
D. Heavier items and raw materials are often transported by train.
Question 77: According to the information in paragraph 5, long-distance travellers in the US can
choose from ______ mode(s) of transport.
A. four B. two C. one D. three
Question 78: It is stated in the passage that the major problems of road transport in Britain and the
US are ______.
A. speeding and bad roads B. accidents and pollution
C. traffic jams and pollution D. drink-driving and traffic jams
Question 79: According to the passage, people in Britain refuse public transport because ______.
A. they like to share rides with neighbours B. they think it is not good enough
C. they see no reason to use their cars less D. petrol is relatively cheap in Britain
Question 80: The word “they” in the last sentence of the passage can best be replaced by ______.
A. the government B. major cities C. Americans D. neighbours

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BỘ GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO TẠO ĐỀ THI TUYỂN SINH CAO ĐẲNG NĂM 2013
Môn: TIẾNG ANH; Khối A1 và Khối D1
ĐỀ THI CHÍNH THỨC
Thời gian làm bài: 90 phút, không kể thời gian phát đề
(Đề thi có 6 trang)
Otto Channel
Mã đề thi 296

Họ, tên thí sinh:..........................................................................


Số báo danh:............................................................................
ĐỀ THI GỒM 80 CÂU (TỪ QUESTION 1 ĐẾN QUESTION 80)
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other
three in the position of the primary stress in each of the following questions.
Question 1: A. independence B. experiment C. individual D. reputation
Question 2: A. physical B. musical C. possible D. domestic
Question 3: A. alive B. ancient C. central D. vacant
Question 4: A. answer B. reduce C. product D. offer
Question 5: A. poverty B. pottery C. decision D. astronaut

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer in each of the
following questions.
Question 6: It was not until he took up fishing ______ he began to know more about fish species.
A. what B. while C. which D. that
Question 7: “Give me another chance, ______?”
A. shall you B. will you C. don't you D. aren’t you
Question 8: We haven't decided which hotel ______.
A. to stay B. to stay at C. is for staying D. is to stay at
Question 9: ______ of that book has been missing.
A. The chapter two B. A second chapter C. Chapter two D. A chapter two
Question 10: The problem is believed ______ at the meeting two days ago.
A. being discussed B. to have been discussed
C. to have discussed D. having been discussed
Question 11: ______ from outer space, our earth looks like a “blue planet”.
A. Having seen B. Seeing C. Be seen D. Seen
Question 12: Woman: “Excuse me, where’s Nguyen Hue Street, please?”
Man: “______”
A. I think you’re right. B. Yes, that’s correct. C. Over there, I think. D. OK, so long.
Question 13: If it had not rained last night, the roads in the city ______ so slippery now.
A. would not be B. must not be C. could not have been D. would not have been
Question 14: ______ my business trip to Hanoi last month, I was able to attend his wedding.
A. Because B. According to C. Thanks to D. But for
Question 15: You ______ brought your umbrella. We are going by taxi.
A. need not B. would not have C. need not have D. may not
Question 16: Sue: “These flowers are so beautiful! Thank you very much, Bill.”
Bill: “______”
A. That’s right. B. Good job! C. Don’t worry! D. Don’t mention it.
Question 17: The museum director was ______ when talking to the visitors.
A. neither professional or friendly B. both professional or friendly
C. either friendly nor professional D. both friendly and professional
Question 18: This small town developed ______ I had expected.
A. not fast as B. much faster than C. slowly than D. as much fast as
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Question 19: By using their trunks, elephants can tell the shape of an object and ______ is rough or smooth,
or hot or cold.
A. it B. whether it C. since it D. how
Question 20: He went back to the town ______ he was born.
A. where B. what C. which D. that
Question 21: The student took that course ______ he could improve his English.
A. though B. in order to C. unless D. so that
Question 22: “What did you do ______ last summer?”
A. during B. for C. by D. at
Question 23: I applied for the job but was ______.
A. taken away B. got over C. turned down D. turned off
Question 24: Twenty thousand years ago, a sheet of ice a thousand meters ______ covered part of Canada.
A. thicken B. thick C. thickly D. thickness
Question 25: There was no news about the lost boy, ______ we went on hoping.
A. but B. consequently C. furthermore D. moreover
Question 26: I was about to leave when something occurred which attracted my ______.
A. thought B. surprise C. attention D. sympathy
Question 27: Mrs. Black’s son ______ in hospital ever since he fell off his bicycle last week.
A. was B. is C. was being D. has been
Question 28: He became famous after ______ that prize.
A. won B. winning C. win D. have won
Question 29: The price of houses ______ dramatically in recent years.
A. has risen B. was raising C. rose D. raises
Question 30: Not only you ______ I am mistaken on this point.
A. but as well B. but also C. but D. and
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to choose the
word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 31 to 40.
In most of the earliest books for children, illustrations were an afterthought. But in the Caldecott "toy
books" which first (31)______ in 1878, they were almost (32)______ important as the lines of text, and
occupied far more space in the book. One can almost read the story from the dramatic action in the pictures.
(33)______ then, thousands of successful picture books have been published in the United States and
around the world. In the best, the words and illustrations seem to complement each other perfectly. Often a
single person is responsible (34)______ both writing and illustrating the book. One of (35)______, and
certainly one of the most successful, illustrator-authors was Dr. Seuss, (36)______ real name was Theodor
Geisel. His first children's book, And to Think That I Saw It on Mulberry Street, hit the market in 1937, and the
world of children's literature was changed forever. Seuss's playful drawings were a perfect complement to his
engaging stories and (37)______ characters. In 1957, Seuss's The Cat in the Hat (38)______ the first book in
Random House's best-selling series, Beginner Books, written by Seuss and several (39)______ authors. These
combine outrageous illustrations of people, creatures, and plants, and playful stories written (40)______ very
simple language.
From “The Complete Guide to the TOEFL Tests” by Bruce Rogers
Question 31: A. emerged B. happened C. appeared D. showed
Question 32: A. most B. as C. less D. more
Question 33: A. By B. Till C. Since D. Before
Question 34: A. with B. at C. to D. for
Question 35: A. the greater B. the greatness C. the great D. the greatest
Question 36: A. whose B. who’s C. who D. whom
Question 37: A. forgetting B. forgotten C. unforgettable D. forgetful
Question 38: A. became B. would become C. had become D. has become
Question 39: A. each other B. one another C. other D. another
Question 40: A. at B. about C. in D. from
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Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to
the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 41: It will be fine tomorrow. But if it should rain tomorrow, the match will be postponed.
A. turned off B. put off C. sold off D. taken off
Question 42: Living in the central Australian desert has its problems, of which obtaining water is not the least.
A. getting B. storing C. purifying D. controlling
Question 43: If the headmaster were here, he would sign your papers immediately.
A. formerly B. right away C. right ahead D. currently
Question 44: After a few rounds of talks, both sides regarded the territory dispute as settled.
A. discussion B. discomfort C. disapproval D. disadvantage
Question 45: Thirty minutes after the accident, the captain still refused to abandon the burning ship.
A. leave B. come to C. sail D. get on

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the questions from 46 to 55.
American movies create myths about college life in the United States. These stories are entertaining, but
they are not true. You have to look beyond Hollywood movies to understand what college is really like.
Thanks to the movies, many people believe that college students party and socialize more than they study.
Movies almost never show students working hard in class or in the library. Instead, movies show them eating,
talking, hanging out, or dancing to loud music at wild parties. While it is true that American students have the
freedom to participate in activities, they also have academic responsibilities. In order to succeed, they
have to attend classes and study hard.
Another movie myth is that athletics is the only important extracurricular activity. In fact, there is a wide
variety of nonacademic activities on campus such as special clubs, service organizations, art, and theater
programs. This variety allows students to choose what interests them. Even more important, after graduation,
students’ résumés look better to employers if they list a few extracurricular activities.
Most students in the movies can easily afford higher education. If only this were true! While it is true that
some American college students are wealthy, most are from families with moderate incomes. Up to 80% of
them get some type of financial aid. Students from middle and lower-income families often work part-time
throughout their college years. There is one thing that many college students have in common, but it is not
something you will see in the movies. They have parents who think higher education is a priority, a necessary
and important part of their children's lives.
Movies about college life usually have characters that are extreme in some way: super athletic, super
intelligent, super wealthy, super glamorous, etc. Movies use these stereotypes, along with other myths of
romance and adventure because audiences like going to movies that include these elements. Of course, real
college students are not like movie characters at all.
So the next time you want a taste of the college experience, do not go to the movies. Look at some
college websites or brochures instead. Take a walk around your local college campus. Visit a few classes. True,
you may not be able to see the same people or exciting action you will see in the movies, but you can be sure
that there are plenty of academic adventures going on all around you!
From “Read and Reflect” by Jayme Adelson-Goldstein with Lori Howard
Question 46: Which of the following is true according to the passage?
A. American colleges in the movies are not like those in reality.
B. Movies about college life are similar to life and fun to watch.
C. American students do not like to watch Hollywood movies.
D. You should see college movies to understand college life.
Question 47: The phrase “academic responsibilities” in the second paragraph is closest in meaning to “______”.
A. learning duties B. training skills C. caring professions D. teaching methods
Question 48: Which of the following is NOT true?
A. Learning is only part of students’ college life.
B. There is a wide choice of extracurricular activities for college students.
C. Extracurricular activities are of no importance to employers.
D. Not all extracurricular activities are students’ academic responsibilities.
Question 49: The word “they” in the third paragraph refers to ______.
A. employers B. activities C. students D. résumés

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Question 50: The word “moderate” in the fourth paragraph is closest in meaning to “______”.
A. not high B. unlimited C. not steady D. sensible
Question 51: Which of the following is NOT mentioned in the passage?
A. It is important for students to get higher education.
B. All college students have to work part-time.
C. Most students in the movies can afford college expenses.
D. Most college students’ families are not well-off.
Question 52: The word “taste” in the sixth paragraph is closest in meaning to “______”.
A. kind B. example C. record D. myth
Question 53: American parents believe in ______.
A. the extracurricular activities that help ensure their children’s jobs
B. the necessity of higher education in their children's lives
C. how movie-makers describe American college life
D. the quality of their children's college lives
Question 54: Many American students have to work part-time throughout their college years because ______.
A. they are not allowed to work full-time B. they want to gain experience
C. their parents force them to D. they can earn money for their expenses
Question 55: Which of the following could best serve as the title of the passage?
A. Going to College: The Only Way to Succeed in Life
B. Hollywood Movies: The Best About College Life
C. Extracurricular Activities and Job Opportunities
D. American College Life and the Movies

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs
correction in each of the following questions.
Question 56: The staff worked throughout the night to meeting the client’s deadline.
A B C D
Question 57: “Which is busiest city in Vietnam?” asked Tom.
A B C D
Question 58: I remember that I danced not goods the first time I did the tango.
A B C D
Question 59: The wooden fence surrounded the factory is beginning to fall down because of the rain.
A B C D
Question 60: While models of automobiles date back as far as the late 1600's, the 1880's seen the first
A B C
commercial interest in the vehicle.
D

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the questions from 61 to 70.
Human Nutrition is the study of how food affects the health and survival of the human body. Human beings
require food to grow, reproduce, and maintain good health. Without food, our bodies could not stay warm,
build or repair tissue, or maintain the heartbeat. Eating the right foods can help us avoid certain diseases or
recover faster when illness occurs. These and other important functions are fueled by chemical substances in
our food called nutrients. Nutrients are classified as carbohydrates, proteins, fats, vitamins, minerals, and
water.
When we eat a meal, nutrients are released from food through digestion. Digestion begins in the mouth
by the action of chewing and the chemical activity of saliva, a watery fluid that contains enzymes, certain
proteins that help break down food. Further digestion occurs as food travels through the stomach and the
small intestine, where digestive enzymes and acids liquefy food and muscle contractions push it along the
digestive tract. Nutrients are absorbed from the inside of the small intestine into the bloodstream and carried
to the sites in the body where they are needed. At these sites, several chemical reactions occur, which ensures
the growth and function of body tissues. The parts of foods that are not absorbed continue to move down the
intestinal tract and are eliminated from the body as feces.

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Once digested, carbohydrates, proteins, and fats provide the body with the energy it needs to maintain its
many functions. Scientists measure this energy in kilocalories, the amount of energy needed to raise one
kilogram of water one degree Celsius. In nutrition discussions, scientists use the term calorie instead of
kilocalorie as the standard unit of measure in nutrition.
Nutrients are classified as essential or nonessential. Nonessential nutrients are manufactured in the body
and do not need to be obtained from food. Examples include cholesterol, a fatlike substance present in all
animal cells. Essential nutrients must be obtained from food sources, because the body either does not
produce them or produces them in amounts too small to maintain growth and health. Essential nutrients
include water, carbohydrates, proteins, fats, vitamins, and minerals.
An individual needs varying amounts of each essential nutrient, depending upon such factors as gender
and age. Specific health conditions, such as pregnancy, breast-feeding, illness, or drug use, make unusual
demands on the body and increase its need for nutrients. Dietary guidelines, which take many of these
factors into account, provide general guidance in meeting daily nutritional needs.
From “Human Nutrition” by Worthington-Roberts, Bonnie, Microsoft® Student 2009.

Question 61: The first paragraph mainly discusses ______.


A. chemical substances in our food B. the study of human nutrition
C. a variety of essential nutrients to human beings D. the importance of food to human beings
Question 62: The word “released” in the second paragraph mostly means “______”.
A. refused B. renewed C. expressed D. produced
Question 63: Which of the followings is NOT true about the process of digestion?
A. Nutrients are carried to different sites in the body.
B. Saliva plays an important role in the first stage of digestion.
C. The small intestine covers the whole digestive system.
D. The small intestine helps the body absorb nutrients.
Question 64: The word “maintain” in the third paragraph is closest in meaning to “______”.
A. obtain B. keep performing C. carry on making D. provide
Question 65: According to the passage, nutrients are absorbed ______.
A. in the small intestine B. in the mouth C. in the stomach D. over the whole body
Question 66: According to the passage, which of the following provides energy for the body?
A. Proteins, vitamins, and carbohydrates B. Proteins, fats, and minerals
C. Carbohydrates, proteins, and fats D. Carbohydrates, minerals, and water
Question 67: In nutrition discussions, the standard unit used to measure nutrients is ______.
A. kilocalorie B. gram C. kilogram D. calorie
Question 68: The word “which” in the last paragraph refers to ______.
A. dietary guidelines B. unusual demands C. general guidance D. nutritional needs
Question 69: Which of the following is NOT mentioned in the passage?
A. The effects of food on the body B. The body’s need of nutrients
C. Food sources from animals D. Classification of nutrients
Question 70: Through the passage, the author provides the readers with ______.
A. some proposal B. orders C. instructions D. some information

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in
meaning to the sentence given in each of the following questions.
Question 71: “Sure, I’ll lend you my car this afternoon,” Richard said to me.
A. Richard asked me to lend him my car. B. Richard refused to lend me his car.
C. Richard suggested lending me his car. D. Richard agreed to lend me his car.
Question 72: If I had worked harder, I would have passed the exam.
A. As I did not work hard enough, I did not pass the exam.
B. I failed the exam, so I will have to work harder.
C. I passed the exam because I worked harder than others.
D. Although I worked very hard, I did not pass the exam.

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Question 73: “You must wear the seat belt when driving!” she said to him.
A. She told him to wear the seat belt when he drove.
B. She confirmed that he wore the seat belt when driving.
C. She complained that he wore the seat belt as he drove.
D. She encouraged him to wear the seat belt when driving.
Question 74: I used to have Peter mow the lawn on Saturday mornings.
A. Peter often mowed the lawn for me on Saturday mornings.
B. I was familiar with mowing the lawn with Peter every Saturday morning.
C. Peter often helps me mow the lawn on Saturday mornings.
D. I am used to having the lawn mown by Peter every Saturday morning.
Question 75: The gardens are open each day for visitors to enjoy the flower displays.
A. In order to enjoy the flowers each day, visitors open their own displays.
B. There are too many flower displays for visitors to enjoy each day.
C. As long as visitors enjoy the flower displays, the gardens are still open each day.
D. The gardens are open each day so that visitors can enjoy the flower displays.
Question 76: “If I were you, I would take this chance for further study,” he said to her.
A. He instructed her to take this chance for further study.
B. He ordered her to take that chance for further study.
C. He advised her to take that chance to study further.
D. He reminded her to take this chance to study further.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best joins each of
the following pairs of sentences in each of the following questions.
Question 77: She is a famous author. She is also an influential political commentator.
A. She likes writing famous books and commenting on politics.
B. She is neither a famous author nor a political commentator.
C. She writes famous books, but she does not know much about politics.
D. She is not only a famous author but also an influential political commentator.
Question 78: He works in the same office with two women. They are very beautiful and tactful.
A. The two women’s beauty and tact explain why he wants to work at their office.
B. He works in the same office with two women who are very beautiful and tactful.
C. The offices where he and the two very beautiful and tactful women work are the same.
D. Working in the same office with the two beautiful women makes him very tactful.
Question 79: I had to do my homework. I could not help my mother with the washing-up.
A. Because I was busy doing my homework, I could not help my mother with the washing-up.
B. It was impossible for me to do my homework although my mother helped me with the washing-up.
C. I could not help my mother with the washing-up until I finished my homework.
D. I could not do my homework because I had to help my mother with the washing-up.
Question 80: The football match was so exciting. The spectators at the stadium cheered wildly all through it.
A. Despite the exciting football match, not all the spectators at the stadium cheered wildly all through it.
B. The spectators at the stadium cheered wildly to make the match exciting all through it.
C. When the spectators at the stadium cheered wildly, the football match became exciting all through it.
D. The football match was so exciting that the spectators at the stadium cheered wildly all through it.

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BỘ GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO TẠO ĐỀ THI TUYỂN SINH ĐẠI HỌC NĂM 2013
Môn: TIẾNG ANH; Khối A1
ĐỀ CHÍNH THỨC
Thời gian làm bài: 90 phút, không kể thời gian phát đề
(Đề có 6 trang)

Otto Channel Mã đề thi 248


Họ, tên thí sinh:..........................................................................
Số báo danh:............................................................................
ĐỀ THI GỒM 80 CÂU (TỪ QUESTION 1 ĐẾN QUESTION 80)
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer in each of the
following questions.
Question 1: Thanh: “Lan’s the best singer in our school.”
Nadia: “______”
A. Yes, tell me about it! B. I can’t agree with you more!
C. That’s OK! D. Yes, please.
Question 2: You can use my car ______ you drive carefully.
A. though B. as though C. as long as D. lest
Question 3: His honesty is ______; nobody can doubt it.
A. in question B. beside the question C. without question D. out the question
Question 4: In our hospital, patients ______ every morning.
A. are examined B. were examining C. have examined D. can examine
Question 5: The Moon is much closer to Earth ______, and thus it had greater influence on the tides.
A. but the Sun is B. where the Sun is C. than is the Sun D. unlike the Sun
Question 6: Connecticut was the fifth of the original thirteen states ______ the Constitution of the
United States.
A. to ratify B. ratify C. ratified D. have ratified
Question 7: I'll give this dictionary to ______ wants to have it.
A. anyone B. whatever C. everyone D. whoever
Question 8: No one can avoid ______ by advertisements.
A. to be influenced B. having influenced C. influencing D. being influenced
Question 9: He wasn't attending the lecture properly and missed most of ______.
A. things said by the teacher B. that the teacher said
C. which the teacher said D. what the teacher said
Question 10: It is ______ work of art that everyone wants to have a look at it.
A. such an unusual B. such unusual a C. a so unusual D. so an unusual
Question 11: The children ran away as if they ______ a ghost.
A. have seen B. had seen C. would see D. see
Question 12: I would join that running competition ______.
A. when I was 5 years older B. if I were 5 years younger
C. if it would happen 5 years ago D. unless I were 5 years younger
Question 13: We decided to take a late flight ______ we could spend more time with our family.
A. so as to B. in order C. so that D. in order to
Question 14: He's sometimes bad-tempered but he's a good fellow ______.
A. at heart B. by heart C. with heart D. in heart
Question 15: Scarcely had he stepped out of the room ______ he heard a loud laughter within.
A. then B. until C. than D. when
Question 16: “What ______ if the earth stopped moving?”
A. happened B. would happen C. happens D. will happen
Question 17: Mai: “Do you want another serving of chicken soup?”
Scott: “______.”
A. No way B. No comment C. No thanks D. No longer
Question 18: We expressed ______ the missing child would be found alive.
A. the hope for B. the hope which C. as we hoped D. the hope that

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Question 19: A large number of workmen ______ because of the economic recession.
A. have laid down B. has laid aside C. have been laid off D. has been laid out
Question 20: Her mother, ______ has been working for thirty years, is retiring next month.
A. who B. that C. whom D. whose
Question 21: My brother tried to learn Japanese at a night school, ______ he gave up after 2 months.
A. therefore B. when C. until D. but
Question 22: Having traveled to different parts of our country, ______.
A. we have learned a lot about interesting lifestyles and customs
B. we are seeing a lot of interesting lifestyles and customs
C. many interesting lifestyles and customs have been learned by us
D. much has been learned about interesting lifestyles and customs
Question 23: The government was finally ______ by a minor scandal.
A. put back B. brought down C. pulled down D. taken down
Question 24: The water supply of our home city has failed to ______ average purity requirements.
A. see B. meet C. own D. hold
Question 25: Books and magazines ______ around made his room very untidy.
A. that lie B. laying C. which lied D. lying
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is CLOSEST in
meaning to the sentence given in each of the following questions.
Question 26: Peter’s main subject at university is electronics.
A. The university lets Peter major in electronics.
B. Electronics is among the subjects that Peter likes.
C. Peter thinks electronics is a special subject.
D. Peter majors in electronics at university.
Question 27: I wish I hadn’t accepted the invitation to her birthday party.
A. I insisted on having been invited to her birthday party.
B. I was very glad to accept the invitation to her birthday party.
C. I regret accepting the invitation to her birthday party.
D. If only I had come to her birthday party.
Question 28: No one but Jane succeeded in giving the correct answer.
A. All but Jane managed to produce the correct answer.
B. Only Jane failed to answer the question correctly.
C. Jane was among those who failed to guess the answer.
D. Everyone but Jane failed to provide the correct answer.
Question 29: Thanks to the efforts of environmentalists, people are becoming better aware of the
problems of endangered species.
A. Environmentalists are expressing their gratitude towards people who are better aware of the
problems of endangered species.
B. People owe their growing awareness of the problems of endangered species to the efforts of
environmentalists.
C. People have no idea about the problems of endangered species in spite of the efforts of
environmentalists.
D. Environmentalists are doing their best to make people aware of the problems of endangered
species.
Question 30: I could not get the job because I did not speak English well.
A. I would have spoken English well if I could get that job.
B. I wish I had got the job so that I could speak English well.
C. Despite my poor English, I was successful in the job.
D. I failed to get the job because of my poor English.
Question 31: Although the teacher explained the theory clearly, the students found it hard to
understand it.
A. Though explained clearly, the theory of teaching was difficult to the students.
B. Although the teaching theory was clear, it was a real challenge to the students.

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C. In spite of explaining the theory clearly, the students themselves found it hard to understand it.
D. Despite the teacher’s clear explanation of the theory, the students had difficulty understanding it.
Question 32: “How brave you are!” he said to the firemen.
A. He blamed the firemen for their discouragement.
B. He criticized the firemen for their discouragement.
C. He praised the firemen for their courage.
D. He asked how brave the firemen were.
Question 33: I would have worn the right shoes if I had known I was going to do all this climbing.
A. I would love to go climbing, but I do not have any shoes that would be suitable.
B. As I did not know I was going to do so much climbing, I did not wear suitable shoes.
C. I did not go climbing because I did not have the right shoes.
D. I would have gone on the climb if I had been wearing the right shoes.
Question 34: The man in that painting reminds me of my uncle.
A. Whenever I see the man in that painting, I remember to meet my uncle.
B. Whenever my uncle sees the man in that painting, he misses me.
C. Memories of my uncle come back whenever I see the man in that painting.
D. I am recalling my uncle whenever I look at the man in that painting.
Question 35: A small hotel was the only choice of place to stay at during my trip to London.
A. I had no alternative but to stay at a small hotel during my trip to London.
B. I was talked into staying at a small hotel during my trip to London.
C. There were a lot of hotels for me to choose from during my trip to London.
D. I had different choices of where to stay during my trip to London.
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to choose the
word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 36 to 45.
In a world where 2 billion people live in homes that don't have light bulbs, technology holds the
key (36)______ banishing poverty. Even the simplest technologies can transform lives and save
money. Vaccines, crops, computers and sources of solar energy can all reduce poverty in developing
countries. For example, cheap oral-rehydration therapy developed in Bangladesh has dramatically cut
the death (37)______ from childhood diarrhoea.
But even when such technologies exist, the depressing fact is that we can’t make them (38)______
for those who most need them. Solar panels, batteries and light bulbs are still beyond the purse of
many, but where they have been installed they change lives. A decent light in the evening gives
children more time for homework and extends the productive day for adults.
Kenya has a thriving solar industry and six years ago Kenyan pioneers also (39)______ connecting
schools to the Internet via radio links. These people were fortunate (40)______ being able to afford
solar panels, radios and old computers. How much bigger would the impact be if these things
(41)______ and priced specifically for poor people?
Multinationals must become part of the solution, because (42)______ they own around 60 per cent
of the world's technology, they seldom make products for poor customers. Of 1,223 new drugs
marketed worldwide from 1975 to 1996, for example, just 13 were for tropical diseases.
People think those enterprises should do more to provide vital products such as medicines
(43)______ different prices around the world to suit (44)______ people can afford. Alternatively,
they could pay a percentage of their profit towards research and development for (45)______.
Adapted from “The Price is Wrong” in “Focus on IELTS Foundations” by Sue O’Connell, Pearson Longman, 2006
Question 36: A. to B. at C. with D. for
Question 37: A. amount B. penalty C. toll D. number
Question 38: A. enough cheaply B. cheap enough C. enough cheap D. cheaply enough
Question 39: A. were starting B. had started C. started D. have been starting
Question 40: A. in B. at C. by D. on
Question 41: A. have been made B. were made C. are made D. made
Question 42: A. unless B. however C. when D. while
Question 43: A. with B. to C. at D. on
Question 44: A. which B. what C. where D. that
Question 45: A. the poor B. the rich C. the wealthy D. the better-off

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Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the questions from 46 to 55.
Archimedes' Principle is a law of physics that states that when an object is totally or partially
immersed in a fluid, it experiences an upthrust equal to the weight of the fluid displaced. The
principle is most frequently applied to the behaviour of objects in water, and helps to explain floating
and sinking, and why objects seem lighter in water. It also applies to balloons.
The key word in the principle is “upthrust”, which refers to the force acting upward to reduce the
apparent weight of the object when it is under water. If, for example, a metal block with a volume of
100 cm3 is dipped in water, it displaces an equal volume of water, which has a weight of
approximately 1 N (3.5 oz). The block therefore seems to weigh about 1 N less.
An object will float if its average density is less than that of water. If it is totally submerged, the
weight of the water it displaces (and hence the upthrust on it) is greater than its own weight, and it is
forced upward and out of the water, until the weight of the water displaced by the submerged part is
exactly equal to the weight of the floating object. Thus a block of wood with a density six tenths that
of water will float with six tenths of its volume under water, since at that point the weight of fluid
displaced is the same as the block’s own weight. If a dense material is made into a suitable shape, it
will float because of Archimedes’ principle. A ship floats, whereas a block of iron of the same mass
sinks.
It is also because of Archimedes’ principle that ships float lower in the water when they are
heavily loaded (more water must be displaced to give the necessary upthrust). In addition, they cannot
be so heavily loaded if they are to sail in fresh water as they can if they are to sail in the sea, since
fresh water is less dense than sea water, and so more water must be displaced to give the necessary
upthrust. This means the ship is lower in the water, which can be dangerous in rough weather.
From "Archimedes' Principle", Microsoft® Student 2008 [DVD]. Microsoft Corporation, 2007.
Question 46: What happens when something is immersed in a fluid?
A. It will be pushed further down with a force, equal to the weight of the fluid displaced.
B. It receives an upward force, equal to the weight of the fluid displaced.
C. It receives a downward force, equal to the weight of the fluid displaced.
D. The fluid will expand the object and overflow to the floor.
Question 47: The word “volume” in the passage refers to ______.
A. loudness B. quantity C. frequency D. length
Question 48: The word “displaces” in the passage almost means “______”.
A. takes the place of B. takes place
C. replaces with a new one D. puts in position
Question 49: If an object’s average density is less than that of water, the object will ______.
A. sink B. float C. inflate D. drift
Question 50: A block of wood with a density seven tenths that of water will ______.
A. go up and down then sink
B. float with a half of its volume under water
C. float with an equal volume of its volume under water
D. sink immediately when submerged
Question 51: A ship floats, whereas a block of iron of the same mass sinks because the ship ______.
A. is made of wood B. is lighter C. has buoys D. has a special shape
Question 52: The phrase “six tenths” in the passage means “______”.
A. 6 and 10 B. 10/6 C. 10 of 6 D. 6/10
Question 53: The word “upthrust” in the passage refers to the ______.
A. upward push B. upper side of an object
C. upturned force D. upside-down turn
Question 54: Ships cannot be so heavily loaded if they want to sail in fresh water as they sail in the
sea, because ______.
A. fresh water is ‘lighter’ than sea water B. there’s too much salt in sea water
C. sea water is ‘saltier’ than fresh water D. fresh water is more polluted
Question 55: Archimedes' Principle explains why ______.
A. all objects will float B. Archimedes became famous
C. objects seem lighter in water D. humans can swim
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Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning
to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 56: We are now a 24/7 society where shops and services must be available all hours.
A. an active society B. an inactive society C. a physical society D. a working society
Question 57: A chronic lack of sleep may make us irritable and reduces our motivation to work.
A. uncomfortable B. responsive C. calm D. miserable
Question 58: We'd better speed up if we want to get there in time.
A. slow down B. turn down C. put down D. lie down
Question 59: She is a very generous old woman. She has given most of her wealth to a charity
organization.
A. mean B. amicable C. kind D. hospitable
Question 60: Her thoughtless comments made him very angry.
A. honest B. kind C. pleasant D. thoughtful
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the questions from 61 to 70.
In 1826, a Frenchman named Niépce needed pictures for his business. He was not a good artist,
so he invented a very simple camera. He put it in a window of his house and took a picture of his
yard. That was the first photograph.
The next important date in the history of photography was 1837. That year, Daguerre, another
Frenchman, took a picture of his studio. He used a new kind of camera and a different process. In his
pictures, you could see everything clearly, even the smallest details. This kind of photograph was
called a daguerreotype.
Soon, other people began to use Daguerre's process. Travelers brought back daguerreotypes from
all around the world. People photographed famous buildings, cities, and mountains.
In about 1840, the process was improved. Then photographers could take pictures of people and
moving things. The process was not simple and photographers had to carry lots of film and
processing equipment. However, this did not stop photographers, especially in the United States.
After 1840, daguerreotype artists were popular in most cities.
Matthew Brady was one well-known American photographer. He took many portraits of famous
people. The portraits were unusual because they were lifelike and full of personality. Brady was also
the first person to take pictures of a war. His 1862 Civil War pictures showed dead soldiers and
ruined cities. They made the war seem more real and more terrible.
In the 1880s, new inventions began to change photography. Photographers could buy film ready-
made in rolls, instead of having to make the film themselves. Also, they did not have to process the
film immediately. They could bring it back to their studios and develop it later. They did not have to
carry lots of equipment. And finally, the invention of the small handheld camera made
photography less expensive.
With a small camera, anyone could be a photographer. People began to use cameras just for fun.
They took pictures of their families, friends, and favorite places. They called these pictures
"snapshots".
Documentary photographs became popular in newspapers in the 1890s. Soon magazines and
books also used them. These pictures showed true events and people. They were much more real
than drawings.
Some people began to think of photography as a form of art. They thought that photography
could do more than show the real world. It could also show ideas and feelings, like other art forms.
From “Reading Power” by Beatrice S. Mikulecky and Linda Jeffries
Question 61: The first photograph was taken with ______.
A. a small handheld camera B. a very simple camera
C. a daguerreotype D. new types of film
Question 62: Daguerre took a picture of his studio with ______.
A. a new kind of camera B. a very simple camera
C. special equipment D. an electronic camera

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Question 63: The word “this” in the passage refers to the ______.
A. carrying of lots of film and processing equipment
B. stopping of photographers from taking photos
C. fact that daguerreotype artists were popular in most cities
D. taking of pictures of people and moving things
Question 64: The word “ruined” in the passage is closest in meaning to “______”.
A. poorly-painted B. heavily-polluted C. terribly spoiled D. badly damaged
Question 65: The word “lifelike” in the passage is closest in meaning to “______”.
A. moving B. realistic C. touching D. manlike
Question 66: The latest invention mentioned in the passage is the invention of ______.
A. handheld cameras B. processing equipment
C. daguerreotypes D. rolls of film
Question 67: The word “handheld” in the passage is closest in meaning to “______”.
A. handling manually B. held by hand C. controlling hands D. operated by hand
Question 68: Matthew Brady was well-known for ______.
A. inventing daguerreotypes B. the small handheld camera
C. taking pictures of French cities D. portraits and war photographs
Question 69: As mentioned in the passage, photography can ______.
A. print old pictures B. convey ideas and feelings
C. show the underworld D. replace drawings
Question 70: Which of the following could best serve as the title of the passage?
A. Different Steps in Film Processing B. Story of Photography
C. Photography and Painting D. Story of Famous Photographers
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part
differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 71: A. exact B. examine C. eleven D. elephant
Question 72: A. work B. stork C. force D. form
Question 73: A. aboard B. keyboard C. cupboard D. overboard
Question 74: A. reign B. reindeer C. protein D. vein
Question 75: A. pressure B. assure C. assist D. possession
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs
correction in each of the following questions.
Question 76: I like the fresh air and green trees of the village which I spent my vacation last year.
A B C D
Question 77: Some people often say that using cars is not as convenient than using motorbikes.
A B C D
Question 78: It was not until the end of prehistoric times that the first wheeled vehicles appearing.
A B C D
Question 79: In the early 1900's, Pennsylvania's industries grew rapidly, a growth sometimes
A B
accompanied by disputes labor.
C D
Question 80: Looking from afar, the village resembles a small green spot dotted with tiny fireballs.
A B C D
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BỘ GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO TẠO ĐỀ THI TUYỂN SINH ĐẠI HỌC NĂM 2013
Môn: TIẾNG ANH; Khối D
ĐỀ CHÍNH THỨC
Thời gian làm bài: 90 phút, không kể thời gian phát đề
(Đề thi có 7 trang)

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Họ, tên thí sinh:....................................................................... ...


Số báo danh:............................................................................
ĐỀ THI GỒM 80 CÂU (TỪ QUESTION 1 ĐẾN QUESTION 80)
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part
differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 1: A. species B. invent C. medicine D. tennis
Question 2: A. superstar B. harvest C. particular D. part
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other
three in the position of the primary stress in each of the following questions.
Question 3: A. commercial B. constructive C. essential D. national
Question 4: A. copy B. remove C. notice D. cancel
Question 5: A. curriculum B. economics C. hesitation D. calculation
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to choose the
word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 6 to 15.
In “Cerealizing America”, Scott Bruce and Bill Crawford remark that the cereal industry uses 816 million
pounds of sugar per year. Americans buy 2.7 billion packages of breakfast cereal each year. If (6)______ end
to end, the empty cereal boxes from one year's consumption would (7)______ to the moon and back. One
point three (1.3) million advertisements for cereal are broadcast on American television every year at a(n)
(8)______ of $762 million for airtime. Only automobile manufacturers spend more money on television
advertising than the makers of breakfast cereal.
(9)______ of the boxed cereals found in supermarkets contain large amounts of sugar and some contain
more than 50% sugar. Cereal manufacturers are very clever in their marketing, making many cereals appear
much healthier than they really are by “fortifying” them with vitamins and minerals. Oh, (10)______ – you
now have vitamin-fortified sugar!
Before you eat any cereal, read the ingredient list and see how (11)______ sugar appears on the
ingredient list. Then check the “Nutrition facts” panel.
There are actually only a small handful of national commercially-branded cereals that are made (12)______
whole grains and are sugar-free. If you shop at a health food store instead of your local supermarket, you
(13)_____ to find a healthy, whole grain, sugar-free (or very low sugar) cereal. But (14)______! Some of the
health food store boxed cereals are sweetened with fruit juice or fructose. Although this may be an
improvement (15)______ refined white sugar, this can really skyrocket the calories.
From “Foods That Burn Fat, Foods That Turn to Fat” by Tom Ventulo

Question 6: A. laying B. lay C. laid D. to lay


Question 7: A. prolong B. stretch C. contact D. reach
Question 8: A. cost B. charge C. average D. expense
Question 9: A. Mostly B. Furthermost C. Most D. Almost
Question 10: A. beautiful B. gorgeous C. lovely D. charming
Question 11: A. many B. large C. tall D. high
Question 12: A. by B. from C. at D. in
Question 13: A. would be able B. are more likelier
C. could more or less D. are much more likely
Question 14: A. see through B. keep alert C. look up D. watch out
Question 15: A. from B. on C. with D. at
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Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer in each of the
following questions.
Question 16: As a millionaire who liked to show off her wealth, Mrs. Smith paid ______ we asked.
A. four time much than B. four times as much as
C. four times much as D. four time as many as
Question 17: Regular exercise and good diet will bring ______ fitness and health.
A. from B. to C. about D. up
Question 18: The pool should not be made so deep ______ small children can be safe there.
A. if B. so as to C. though D. so that
Question 19: We all agree that she is ______ student in our class.
A. the cleverest B. a more clever C. most clever D. cleverest
Question 20: There has been a great increase in retail sales, ______?
A. hasn't there B. isn't there C. isn't it D. doesn’t it
Question 21: I am sorry I have no time at present to ______ detail of our plan.
A. bring in B. take into C. come in D. go into
Question 22: Long ago, women were ______ to vote in political elections.
A. prevented B. stopped C. forbidden D. banned
Question 23: She asked me ______ I was looking at.
A. when B. if C. what D. why
Question 24: In spite of her abilities, Laura has been ______ overlooked for promotion.
A. repeat B. repeatedly C. repetitive D. repetition
Question 25: Tom: “______”
Mike: “I won’t say no!”
A. How are things with you, Mike?
B. What about playing badminton this afternoon?
C. Mike, do you know where the scissors are?
D. What’s your favourite, tea or coffee?
Question 26: Education in many countries is compulsory ______ the age of 16.
A. for B. when C. until D. forwards
Question 27: ______ one of the most beautiful forms of performance art, ballet is a combination of dance
and mime performed to music.
A. Being considering B. Considering C. Considered D. To consider
Question 28: The examination was not very difficult, but it was ______ long.
A. so much B. too much C. very much D. much too
Question 29: ______ has been a topic of continual geological research.
A. The continents formed B. If the continents formed
C. How did the continents form D. How the continents were formed
Question 30: We must push the piano to the corner of the hall to ______ our party tonight.
A. make place for B. take up room to C. make room for D. give place to
Question 31: Standing on the tip of the cape, ______.
A. people have seen a lighthouse far away B. lies a lighthouse in the middle of the sea
C. a lighthouse can see from the distance D. we can see the lighthouse in the distance
Question 32: Only one of our gifted students ______ to participate in the final competition.
A. has been chosen B. have been chosen C. were choosing D. chosen
Question 33: ______ his brother, Mike is active and friendly.
A. Alike B. Unlike C. Dislike D. Liking
Question 34: The packages ______ so that it would be easier to carry them.
A. are tied in a bundle B. are tied altogether C. were tied in a knot D. were tied together
Question 35: Michael looked deeply hurt and surprised when ______.
A. scolded B. scolding C. to scold D. having scolded
Question 36: ______ John Kennedy was elected president, he was the youngest American President ever.
A. When B. While C. Before D. As long as
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Question 37: He ______ us but he was short of money at the time.
A. could have helped B. can help C. might help D. would help
Question 38: The boat was sailing north when a terrible storm ______ .
A. had broken B. broke C. would break D. was breaking
Question 39: Stephanie: “Oh, no! I left my book at home. Can I share yours?”
Scott: “______”
A. No, thanks. B. No, not at all! C. Yes, I do too. D. Yes, sure!
Question 40: The Lake District, ______ was made a national park in 1951, attracts a large number of tourists
every year.
A. that B. where C. what D. which
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the questions from 41 to 50.
Very few people, groups, or governments oppose globalization in its entirety. Instead, critics of
globalization believe aspects of the way globalization operates should be changed. The debate over
globalization is about what the best rules are for governing the global economy so that its advantages can
grow while its problems can be solved.
On one side of this debate are those who stress the benefits of removing barriers to international trade and
investment, allowing capital to be allocated more efficiently and giving consumers greater freedom of choice.
With free-market globalization, investment funds can move unimpeded from the rich countries to the
developing countries. Consumers can benefit from cheaper products because reduced taxes make goods
produced at low cost from faraway places cheaper to buy. Producers of goods gain by selling to a wider
market. More competition keeps sellers on their toes and allows ideas and new technology to spread and
benefit others.
On the other side of the debate are critics who see neo-liberal policies as producing greater poverty,
inequality, social conflict, cultural destruction, and environmental damage. They say that the most developed
nations - the United States, Germany, and Japan - succeeded not because of free trade but because of
protectionism and subsidies. They argue that the more recently successful economies of South Korea, Taiwan,
and China all had strong state-led development strategies that did not follow neo-liberalism. These critics think
that government encouragement of “infant industries” - that is, industries that are just beginning to develop -
enables a country to become internationally competitive.
Furthermore, those who criticize the Washington Consensus suggest that the inflow and outflow of money
from speculative investors must be limited to prevent bubbles. These bubbles are characterized by the rapid
inflow of foreign funds that bid up domestic stock markets and property values. When the economy cannot
sustain such expectations, the bubbles burst as investors panic and pull their money out of the country.
Protests by what is called the anti-globalization movement are seldom directed against globalization itself
but rather against abuses that harm the rights of workers and the environment. The question raised by
nongovernmental organizations and protesters at WTO and IMF gatherings is whether globalization will result
in a rise of living standards or a race to the bottom as competition takes the form of lowering living standards
and undermining environmental regulations.
One of the key problems of the 21st century will be determining to what extent markets should be
regulated to promote fair competition, honest dealing, and fair distribution of public goods on a global scale.
From “ Globalization” by Tabb, William K., Microsoft® Student 2009 [DVD]

Question 41: It is stated in the passage that ______.


A. critics of globalization say that the successful economies are all in Asia
B. the protests of globalization are directed against globalization itself
C. supporters of globalization stress the benefits of removing trade barriers
D. the United States, Germany, and Japan succeeded in helping infant industries
Question 42: Supporters of free-market globalization point out that ______.
A. investment will be allocated only to rich countries
B. taxes that are paid on goods will be increased
C. there will be less competition among producers
D. consumers can benefit from cheaper products
Question 43: The word “allocated” in the passage mostly means “______”.
A. distributed B. solved C. removed D. offered
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Question 44: The phrase “keeps sellers on their toes” in the passage mostly means “______”.
A. prevents sellers from selling new products B. forces sellers to go bare-footed
C. makes sellers responsive to any changes D. allows sellers to stand on their own feet
Question 45: According to critics of globalization, several developed countries have become rich because of
______.
A. their help to developing countries B. their neo-liberal policies
C. their protectionism and subsidies D. their prevention of bubbles
Question 46: The word “undermining” in the passage mostly means “______”.
A. obeying B. making less effective C. observing D. making more effective
Question 47: Infant industries mentioned in the passage are ______.
A. young companies B. development strategies
C. young industries D. successful economies
Question 48: Which of the following is NOT mentioned in the passage?
A. Critics believe the way globalization operates should be changed.
B. The anti-globalization movement was set up to end globalization.
C. Hardly anyone disapproves of globalization in its entirety.
D. Some Asian countries had strong state-led economic strategies.
Question 49: The debate over globalization is about how ______.
A. to spread ideas and strategies for globalization
B. to govern the global economy for the benefit of the community
C. to use neo-liberal policies for the benefit of the rich countries
D. to terminate globalization in its entirety
Question 50: The author seems to be ______ globalization that helps promote economy and raise living
standards globally.
A. supportive of B. pessimistic about C. indifferent to D. opposed to
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to
the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 51: The works of such men as the English philosophers John Locke and Thomas Hobbes helped
pave the way for academic freedom in the modern sense.
A. terminate B. prevent C. initiate D. lighten
Question 52: E-cash cards are the main means of all transactions in a cashless society.
A. cash-starved B. cash-strapped C. cash-in-hand D. cash-free
Question 53: Many scientists agree that global warming poses great threats to all species on Earth.
A. risks B. annoyances C. fears D. irritations
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning
to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 54: Population growth rates vary among regions and even among countries within the same
region.
A. restrain B. stay unchanged C. remain unstable D. fluctuate
Question 55: In some countries, the disease burden could be prevented through environmental
improvements.
A. something to suffer B. something enjoyable
C. something sad D. something to entertain
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the questions from 56 to 65.
New surveys suggest that the technological tools we use to make our lives easier are killing our leisure
time. We are working longer hours, taking fewer and shorter vacations (and when we do go away, we take
our cell phones, PDAs, and laptops along). And, we are more stressed than ever as increased use of e-mail,
voice mail, cell phones, and the Internet is destroying any idea of privacy and leisure.
Since the Industrial Revolution, people have assumed that new labor-saving devices would free them from
the burdens of the workplace and give them more time to grow intellectually, creatively, and socially -

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exploring the arts, keeping up with current events, spending more time with friends and family, and even just
‘goofing off’.
But here we are at the start of the 21st century, enjoying one of the greatest technological boom times in
human history, and nothing could be further from the truth. The very tools that were supposed to liberate us
have bound us to our work and study in ways that were inconceivable just a few years ago. It would seem
that technology almost never does what we expect.
In ‘the old days’, the lines between work and leisure time were markedly clearer. People left their offices at a
predictable time, were often completely disconnected from and out of touch with their jobs as they traveled to
and from work, and were off-duty once they were home. That is no longer true. In today's highly competitive job
market, employers demand increased productivity, expecting workers to put in longer hours and to keep in touch
almost constantly via fax, cell phones, e-mail, or other communications devices. As a result, employees feel the
need to check in on what is going on at the office, even on days off. They feel pressured to work after hours
just to catch up on everything they have to do. Workers work harder and longer, change their work tasks more
frequently, and have more and more reasons to worry about job security.
Bosses, colleagues, family members, lovers, and friends expect instant responses to voice mail and e-mail
messages. Even college students have become bound to their desks by an environment in which faculty,
friends, and other members of the college community increasingly do their work online. Studies of time spent
on instant messaging services would probably show staggering use.
This is not what technology was supposed to be doing for us. New technologies, from genetic research to
the Internet, offer all sorts of benefits and opportunities. But, when new tools make life more difficult and
stressful rather than easier and more meaningful - and we are, as a society, barely conscious of it - then
something has gone seriously awry, both with our expectations for technology and our understanding of how
it should benefit us.
From “Summit 1” by Joan Saslow & Allen Ascher

Question 56: According to the first three paragraphs, technological tools that were designed to make our
lives easier ______.
A. have not interfered with our privacy B. have turned out to do us more harm than good
C. have brought us complete happiness D. have fully met our expectations
Question 57: Which of the following is NOT true about technological tools, according to new surveys?
A. They are being increasingly used. B. They are used even during vacations.
C. They make our life more stressful. D. They bring more leisure to our life.
Question 58: Which of the following is true, according to the passage?
A. Students used to have to study more about technological advances.
B. People have more opportunities to get access to technological applications.
C. Employees were supposed to make technology do what they expected.
D. People now enjoy greater freedom thanks to the technological boom.
Question 59: The word “inconceivable” in the passage is closest in meaning to “______”.
A. unimaginable B. predictable C. foreseeable D. unforgettable
Question 60: With the phrase “at a predictable time”, the author implies that ______.
A. people were unable to foresee their working hours
B. people had to predict the time they were allowed to leave offices
C. people wanted to be completely disconnected from their work
D. people used to have more time and privacy after work
Question 61: It can be inferred from the fourth paragraph that ______.
A. employees have more freedom to decide what time they start and finish work
B. employers are more demanding and have efficient means to monitor employees
C. life is more relaxing with cell phones and other technological devices
D. it is compulsory that employees go to the office, even on days off
Question 62: The word “They” in the fourth paragraph refers to ______.
A. employers B. workers C. employees D. tasks
Question 63: Which of the following could be the main idea of the fifth paragraph?
A. New technological advances have added more stress to daily life.
B. New technological applications are wise entertainment choices of our modern time.
C. New technological advances have reduced work performance.
D. The coming of new technological advances has spoiled family and social relationships.
Question 64: This passage has probably been taken from ______.
A. an advertisement B. a science review C. a political journal D. a fashion magazine

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Question 65: Which of the following could best serve as the title of the passage?
A. Changes at the Workplace B. Research on the Roles of Computers
C. Benefits of Technology D. Expectations and Plain Reality
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs
correction in each of the following questions.
Question 66: When precipitation occurs, some of it evaporates, some runs off the surface it strikes, and some
A B C
sinking into the ground.
D
Question 67: Globally and internationally, the 1990's stood out as the warmest decade in the history of
A B C
weather records.
D
Question 68: Of all the art-related reference and research library in North America, that of the
A B
Metropolitan Museum of Art in New York City is among the largest and most complete.
C D
Question 69: Different fourteen crops were grown 8,600 years ago by some of the world’s earliest farmers.
A B C D
Question 70: A warning printed on a makeshift lifebuoy says: “This is not a life-saving
A
device. Children should be accompany by their parents.”
B C D
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in
meaning to the sentence given in each of the following questions.
Question 71: “Why don’t we wear sunglasses?” our grandpa would say when we went out on bright sunny
days.
A. Our grandpa used to suggest wearing sunglasses when we went out on bright sunny days.
B. Our grandpa would warn us against wearing sunglasses on bright sunny days.
C. Our grandpa asked us why we did not wear sunglasses when going out on bright sunny days.
D. Our grandpa reminded us of going out with sunglasses on bright sunny days.
Question 72: I am sure he did not know that his brother graduated with flying colors.
A. He should not have been envious of his brother’s achievement.
B. He cannot have known that his brother graduated with very high marks.
C. That his brother graduated with flying colors must have been appreciated by him.
D. He may not know that his brother is flying gradually up in a colorful balloon.
Question 73: People say that Mr. Goldman gave nearly a million pounds to charity last year.
A. Mr. Goldman is said to have given nearly a million pounds to charity last year.
B. Mr. Goldman was said to have given nearly a million pounds to charity last year.
C. Nearly a million pounds was said to have been given to charity by Mr. Goldman last year.
D. Nearly a million pounds is said to be given to charity by Mr. Goldman last year.
Question 74: David was narrowly defeated and blew his own chance of becoming a champion.
A. Losing the championship came as a terrible blow to David.
B. In spite of the narrow defeat, David won the championship.
C. As a result of his narrow defeat, David did not win the championship.
D. But for his title as the former champion, David would not have defeated his rivals.
Question 75: If you had stuck to what we originally agreed on, everything would have been fine.
A. If you had not kept to what was originally agreed on, everything would have been fine.
B. Things went wrong because you violated our original agreement.
C. If you had changed our original agreement, everything would have been fine.
D. As you fulfilled the original contract, things went wrong.
Question 76: “I would be grateful if you could send me further details of the job,” he said to me.
A. He flattered me because I sent him further details of the job.

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B. He felt great because further details of the job had been sent to him.
C. He thanked me for sending him further details of the job.
D. He politely asked me to send him further details of the job.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best joins each of
the following pairs of sentences in each of the following questions.
Question 77: We spend about one-third of our lives sleeping. We know relatively little about sleep.
A. We know relatively little about sleep; as a result, we spend about one-third of our lives sleeping.
B. We shall know more about sleep if we spend more than one-third of our lives sleeping.
C. Despite spending about one-third of our lives sleeping, we know relatively little about sleep.
D. We spend about one-third of our lives sleeping so that we know relatively little about sleep.
Question 78: Overeating is a cause of several deadly diseases. Physical inactivity is another cause of several
deadly diseases.
A. Not only overeating but also physical inactivity may lead to several deadly diseases.
B. Apart from physical activities, eating too much also contributes to several deadly diseases.
C. Both overeating and physical inactivity result from several deadly diseases.
D. Overeating and physical inactivity are caused by several deadly diseases.
Question 79: He was successful because he was determined to pursue personal goals. He was not talented.
A. His success lay in his natural ability, not in his determination to pursue personal goals.
B. In addition to his determination, his talent ensured his success in pursuing his goals.
C. His determination to pursue personal goals made him successful and talented.
D. It was his determination to pursue personal goals, not talent, that contributed to his success.
Question 80: I did not arrive in time. I was not able to see her off.
A. She had left because I was not on time. B. I did not go there, so I could not see her off.
C. I was not early enough to see her off. D. I arrived very late to say goodbye to her.

---------------------------------------------------------- THE END ----------

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BỘ GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO TẠO ĐỀ THI TUYỂN SINH CAO ĐẲNG NĂM 2014
Môn: TIẾNG ANH; Khối A1 và Khối D1
ĐỀ CHÍNH THỨC
Thời gian làm bài: 90 phút, không kể thời gian phát đề
(Đề thi có 6 trang)
Otto Channel
Mã đề thi 358

Họ, tên thí sinh:....................................................................... ...


Số báo danh:............................................................................
ĐỀ THI GỒM 80 CÂU (TỪ QUESTION 1 ĐẾN QUESTION 80)
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other
three in the position of the primary stress in each of the following questions.
Question 1: A. activity B. intelligence C. observation D. development
Question 2: A. arrangement B. temperature C. victory D. envelope
Question 3: A. bamboo B. hello C. hotel D. beauty
Question 4: A. wonderful B. confident C. regular D. impressive
Question 5: A. attract B. marry C. demand D. connect
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the
following questions.
Question 6: Our learning and teaching equipment needs ______ if further improvement is to be achieved.
A. modernized B. to modernize C. modernizing D. modernize
Question 7: An old gentleman, who is not sure where to go for the summer holiday, is asking a travel agent
for advice. Select the most suitable response to fill in the blank.
Gentleman: ”Can you recommend any places for this summer holiday?"
Agent: "______."
A. A package tour to the Spratly Islands would be perfect, sir
B. I don’t think you could afford a tour to Singapore, sir
C. Yes, please go to other agencies
D. No, you cannot recommend any places
Question 8: I’d rather not ______ about it in such an unfavorable circumstance.
A. talked B. talking C. talk D. to talk
Question 9: ______ the class size is our school’s immediate aim.
A. Reduced B. Reduces C. Reducing D. Reduce
Question 10: Our house isn’t ______ for the children each to have a room of their own, so they have to share.
A. so small B. too big C. very small D. big enough
Question 11: “______ seen a play with such a strong message.”
A. I have rarely B. Rarely did I C. I rarely D. Rarely do I
Question 12: My father is a big football fan, but my mother has no ______ in the sport at all.
A. interesting B. interest C. interested D. interestingly
Question 13: Penicillin, the first antibiotic that successfully killed bacteria and cured infections, was
discovered ______.
A. by comparison B. by choice C. by accident D. by heart
Question 14: The number of cars on the roads ______ increasing, so we need to build more roads.
A. is B. were C. was D. are
Question 15: It’s been five months ______ I last went fishing.
A. since B. that C. while D. which
Question 16: Thang was asking Huong, his classmate, for her opinion about the novel he had lent her. Select
the most suitable response to fill in the blank.
Thang: "What do you think about the novel?"
Huong: "______"
A. Yes, let's. B. The best I've ever read!
C. I can't agree with you more. D. I wish I could.
Question 17: Mary is a friendly girl who ______ everyone she meets.
A. gets up B. gets on with C. gets over D. gets out of

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Question 18: If she let this chance slip, she ______ it for the rest of her life.
A. would regret B. regrets C. will regret D. would have regretted
Question 19: “If you are not satisfied ______ your purchase, we will give you a full refund.”
A. at B. of C. for D. with
Question 20: Researchers are making enormous progress in understanding ______ and what causes it.
A. a tsunami is what B. what a tsunami is C. is what a tsunami D. what is a tsunami
Question 21: It has long been recognized ______ a high-fat diet can cause heart problems.
A. what B. which C. that D. where
Question 22: “______ anyone ring while I’m away, please take a message.”
A. May B. Would C. Will D. Should
Question 23: Linh informs her aunt about her high school graduation exam results. Select the most suitable
response to fill in the blank.
Linh: "Aunty, I've passed the exam with flying colours."
Aunt: "______"
A. Sorry to hear that. B. Congratulations! C. That's right. D. How many colours?
Question 24: This moment will live in our memory for many years ______.
A. to come B. have come C. coming D. come
Question 25: Some animals have a remarkable ability to ______ themselves to changing environments.
A. adapt B. fit C. suit D. match
Question 26: She made a list of what to do ______ forget anything.
A. in order to B. not to C. so that D. so as not to
Question 27: Some English words have the same pronunciation ______.
A. or they spell differently B. unless spelled differently
C. though they are spelled differently D. because of their difference in spelling
Question 28: ______, she received a big applause.
A. When the speaker finished B. After she finishes speaking
C. Finished her lecture D. Speaking has finished
Question 29: “Don’t eat so many sweets, ______ you’ll have to visit the dentist often.”
A. otherwise B. whether C. when D. while
Question 30: After his operation, Tom tried to lead ______ possible.
A. a very normal life as B. as normal a life as C. as normal life as D. normal life as
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs
correction in each of the following questions.
Question 31: The doctor advised him to avoid eating fatty foods, having more fresh vegetables and
A B C
drink much water.
D
Question 32: I always look back on the time where I spent with my family on a farm in California.
A B C D
Question 33: A new school with more than 50 classrooms have just been built in our local area.
A B C D
Question 34: Children should not expect to rescue by their parents every time they get into financial
A B C
difficulty.
D
Question 35: Listening to the radio and you can stay informed about current affairs.
A B C D
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is CLOSEST in
meaning to the sentence given in each of the following questions.
Question 36: The traditional phone is far from convenient compared to the smart one.
A. Smart phones are almost as convenient as traditional ones.
B. The traditional phone is far more convenient than the smart one.
C. The traditional phone is as convenient as the smart one.
D. Smart phones are much more convenient than traditional ones.
Question 37: “I didn’t break my word,” Jim said.
A. Jim refused to break his promise. B. Jim didn’t break his word.
C. Jim denied breaking his promise. D. Jim admitted breaking his word.
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Question 38: “I will certainly show you around when you visit my town, Megan,” said George.
A. George suggested Megan’s showing him around when she visited his town.
B. George refused to show Megan around when she visited his town.
C. George requested that Megan show him around when she visited his town.
D. George promised to show Megan around when she visited his town.
Question 39: When she received the exam results, she immediately phoned her mom.
A. No sooner had she phoned her mom than she received the exam results.
B. She received the exam results immediately after she phoned her mom.
C. No sooner had she received the exam results than she phoned her mom.
D. She immediately phoned her mom that she would receive the exam results.
Question 40: People think the Samba is the most popular dance in Brazil.
A. It is thought that the Samba was the most popular dance in Brazil.
B. In Brazil, the Samba is thought to be one of the most popular dances.
C. The Samba is thought to be the most popular dance in Brazil.
D. It is thought that the Samba is among the most popular dances in Brazil.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines the
pair of sentences given in each of the following questions.
Question 41: I did not dare to turn on the television. I was afraid of waking the baby up.
A. I did not dare to turn on the television for fear of waking up the baby.
B. Waking the baby up, I could not continue watching the television.
C. I decided not to turn on the television in order to wake the baby up.
D. I decided to turn the television down to avoid waking the baby up.
Question 42: Our foods contain thousands of different chemicals. However, only a few of them are absolutely
essential to our health.
A. To stay healthy with only a few essential chemicals, we have to eat the foods that contain thousands of
different chemicals.
B. Containing thousands of different chemicals, foods are absolutely essential to our health.
C. We stay healthy absolutely thanks to eating foods with thousands of different essential chemicals.
D. Our foods contain thousands of different chemicals, only a few of which are absolutely essential to our health.
Question 43: The local residents have protested against the plan to build a textile factory in their
neighborhood. However, the building work will go ahead.
A. The construction of the textile factory has been stopped by the protests from the local residents.
B. The textile factory will be built as planned despite the local residents’ protests.
C. Protests from the local residents have prevented the construction of the textile factory.
D. Due to protests from the locals, the textile factory construction will not go ahead as planned.
Question 44: The man is very old. He can’t take such a long trip.
A. The old man has refused to take such a long trip.
B. The trip is not too long for the man to take.
C. The man is young enough to take such a long trip.
D. The man is too old to take such a long trip.
Question 45: My uncle was elected as the mayor of the city in 2001. He remained in office until 2011.
A. My uncle was elected as the mayor of the city twice: in 2001 and 2011.
B. Elected as the mayor of the city in 2001, my uncle held the post for ten years.
C. Although elected as the mayor of the city, my uncle took office in 2011.
D. Ten years after serving as the mayor of the city, my uncle resigned in 2001.
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the questions from 46 to 55.
In my experience, freshmen today are different from those I knew when I started as a counselor and
professor 25 years ago. College has always been demanding both academically and socially. But students now
are less mature and often not ready for the responsibility of being in college.
It is really too easy to point the finger at parents who protect their children from life’s obstacles. Parents,
who handle every difficulty and every other responsibility for their children from writing admission essays to
picking college courses, certainly may contribute to their children’s lack of coping strategies. But we can look
even more broadly to the social trends of today.
How many people do you know who are on medication to prevent anxiety or depression? The number of
students who arrive at college already medicated for unwanted emotions has increased dramatically in the past 10
years. We, as a society, don’t want to “feel” anything unpleasant and we certainly don’t want our children to “suffer”.

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The resulting problem is that by not experiencing negative emotions, one does not learn the necessary skills
to tolerate and negotiate adversity. As a psychologist, I am well aware of the fact that some individuals suffer
from depression and anxiety and can benefit from treatment, but I question the growing number of medicated
adolescents today.
Our world is more stressful in general because of the current economic and political realities, but I don’t
believe that the college experience itself is more intense today than that of the past 10 years. What I do think
is that many students are often not prepared to be young “adults” with all the responsibilities of life.
What does this mean for college faculty and staff? We are required to assist in the basic parenting of these
students - the student who complains that her professor didn’t remind her of the due date for an assignment
that was clearly listed on the syllabus and the student who cheats on an assignment in spite of careful
instructions about plagiarism.
As college professors, we have to explain what it means to be an independent college student before we can
even begin to teach. As parents and teachers we should expect young people to meet challenges. To encourage
them in this direction, we have to step back and let them fail and pick themselves up and move forward. This
approach needs to begin at an early age so that college can actually be a passage to independent adulthood.
Adapted from “Students are different now” by Linda Bips. New York Times, October 11, 2010

Question 46: According to the writer, students today are different from those she knew in that they are ______.
A. not so academic B. responsible for their work
C. too ready for college D. not as mature
Question 47: The word “handle” in paragraph 2 mostly means ______.
A. point at B. deal with C. lend a hand to D. gain benefits from
Question 48: According to the writer, students’ difficulties to cope with college life are partly due to ______.
A. the lack of financial support B. the over-parenting from parents
C. the absence of parents' protection D. the lack of parental support
Question 49: The phrase "on medication" in paragraph 3 is similar in meaning to ______.
A. receiving medical treatment B. suffering anxiety or depression
C. doing medical research D. studying medicine at college
Question 50: The word "intense" in paragraph 5 is closest in meaning to ______.
A. needing much experience B. not serious
C. not interesting D. demanding big efforts
Question 51: Which of the following is NOT TRUE according to the passage?
A. The college experience itself is more intense today than that of the past 10 years.
B. Our world is more stressful because of the current economic and political situation.
C. College faculty and staff are required to help in the parenting of problematic students.
D. Our society certainly doesn't want our children to experience unpleasant things.
Question 52: The word "them" in the last paragraph refers to ______.
A. college professors B. young people C. teachers D. parents
Question 53: Students who are not well-prepared to be young “adults” with all the responsibilities of life
will need ______.
A. to be assigned more housework from adults B. to be given more social responsibilities
C. to be encouraged to meet challenges D. daily coaching from their teachers
Question 54: According to the writer, failure in life and less support from parents will ______.
A. defeat students from the very beginning
B. help students to learn to stand on their own feet
C. discourage students and let them down forever
D. allow students to learn the first lesson in their lives
Question 55: What is probably the writer's attitude in the passage?
A. Indifferent B. Praising C. Critical D. Humorous
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to
the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 56: John wants to buy a new car, so he starts setting aside a small part of his monthly earnings.
A. spending on B. using up C. putting out D. saving up
Question 57: The board of directors rejected the proposed project, explaining that it was too expensive to be
feasible at the present moment.
A. costly B. troublesome C. capable D. practicable
Question 58: After all these years of good work, Arthur deserves a promotion.
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Question 59: The performance of the synchronized swimmers was so brilliant; the judges could find no flaws in it.
A. find nothing imperfect B. award no bonus
C. find many mistakes D. suggest more improvements
Question 60: When I visited the city, I was really impressed by the hospitality of the people there.
A. deeply depressed B. fairly concerned C. slightly frightened D. deeply moved
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 61 to 70.
Rural America is diverse in many ways. (61)______ we have seen, no one industry dominates the rural
economy, no single pattern of population decline or (62)______ exists for all rural areas, and no statement
about improvements and gaps in well-being holds true for all rural people.
Many of these differences are regional in nature. That is, rural areas within a particular geographic region
of the country often tend to be similar (63)______ each other and different from areas in (64)______ region.
Some industries, for example, are (65)______ with different regions – logging and sawmills in the Pacific
Northwest and New England, manufacturing in the Southeast and Midwest, and farming in the Great Plains.
Persistent poverty also has a regional pattern, concentrated primarily in the Southeast. Other differences
follow no regional pattern. Areas that rely heavily (66)______ the services industry are located throughout
rural America, as are rural areas that have (67)______ access to advanced telecommunications services.
Many of these differences, regional and non-regional, are the result of a (68)______ of factors including the
availability of natural (69)______; distance from and access to major metropolitan areas and the information
and services found there; transportation and shipping facilities; political history and structure; and the racial,
ethnic, and (70)______ makeup of the population.
Adapted from “Understanding Rural America”, InfoUSA

Question 61: A. Since B. Like C. Because D. As


Question 62: A. grow B. growth C. growing D. grown
Question 63: A. of B. with C. to D. from
Question 64: A. the other B. others C. other D. another
Question 65: A. added B. associated C. compared D. related
Question 66: A. in B. on C. at D. for
Question 67: A. lots B. many C. small D. little
Question 68: A. cooperation B. combination C. link D. connection
Question 69: A. resources B. habitats C. sources D. materials
Question 70: A. cultured B. culturally C. cultural D. culture
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the questions from 71 to 80.
Most of us know a little about how babies learn to talk. From the time infants are born, they hear
language because their parents talk to them all the time. Between the ages of seven and ten months, most
infants begin to make sounds. They repeat the same sounds over and over again. This is called babbling.
When babies babble, they are practicing their language.
What happens, though, to children who cannot hear? How do deaf children learn to communicate?
Recently, doctors have learned that deaf babies babble with their hands. Laura Ann Petitto, a psychologist,
observed three hearing infants with English-speaking parents and two deaf infants with deaf parents using
American Sign Language (ASL) to communicate. Dr. Petitto studied the babies three times: at 10, 12, and 14
months. During this time, children really begin to develop their language skills.
After watching and videotaping the children for several hundred hours, the psychologist and her assistants
made many important observations. For example, they saw that the hearing children made varied motions with
their hands. However, there appeared to be no pattern to these motions. The deaf babies also made different
movements with their hands, but these movements were more consistent and deliberate. The deaf babies
seemed to make the same hand movements over and over again. During the four-month period, the deaf
babies' hand motions started to resemble some basic hand-shapes used in ASL. The children also seemed to
prefer certain hand-shapes.
Hearing infants start first with simple syllable babbling, then put more syllables together to sound like real
sentences and questions. Apparently, deaf babies follow this same pattern, too. First, they repeat simple hand-
shapes. Next, they form some simple hand signs and use these movements together to resemble ASL
sentences.
Linguists believe that our ability for language is innate. In other words, humans are born with the capacity
for language: It does not matter if we are physically able to speak or not. Language can be expressed in

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different ways - for instance, by speech or by sign. Dr. Petitto believes this theory and wants to prove it. She
plans to study hearing children who have one deaf parent and one hearing parent. She wants to see what
happens when babies have the opportunity to learn both sign language and speech. Does the human brain
prefer speech? Some of these studies of hearing babies who have one deaf parent and one hearing parent show
that the babies babble equally with their hands and their voices. They also produce their first words, both
spoken and signed, at about the same time. More studies in the future may prove that the sign system of the
deaf is the physical equivalent of speech.
Adapted from “ Issues for Today” by Lorraine C. Smith and Nancy Nici Mare
Question 71: According to paragraph 1, babies begin to babble ______.
A. at their first moment after birth B. at their first experience of language
C. when they are more than 6 months old D. when they first hear their parents talk to them
Question 72: The phrase “the babies” in paragraph 2 refers to ______ in the study.
A. the hearing infants B. the deaf infants
C. the hearing and deaf infants D. the disabled infants
Question 73: The writer mentions “American Sign Language (ASL)” in paragraph 2 as a language ______.
A. used by the deaf to communicate B. especially formed by infants
C. used among psychologists D. widely used by American children
Question 74: The word “resemble” in paragraph 3 refers to ______.
A. making initial movements B. studying funny movements
C. creating strange movements D. producing similar movements
Question 75: It is stated in paragraph 3 that both the deaf and the hearing children made movements with
their hands, but ______.
A. only the hearing children made different movements
B. the deaf children made less consistent hand movements
C. the hearing children only repeated the same hand motions
D. only the deaf children repeated the same hand motions
Question 76: According to paragraph 4, hearing infants learn to talk first by ______.
A. hand-shapes B. babbling C. hand motions D. eye movements
Question 77: The word “real” in paragraph 4 mostly means ______.
A. meaningful B. formal C. general D. original
Question 78: It is mentioned in the last paragraph that Dr. Petitto plans to study ______.
A. what happens when babies have the opportunity to learn both speech and sign language
B. whether all children speak and make motions with their hands at the same time
C. the assumption that the human brain prefers sign language to speech
D. whether the sign system of the deaf is the physical equivalent of speech
Question 79: Which of the following statements is TRUE according to the last paragraph?
A. The human brain prefers speech.
B. Humans are innately able for language.
C. Babies produce spoken words before signed ones.
D. Language cannot be expressed in different ways.
Question 80: Which of the following could best serve as the title of the passage?
A. Education for Deaf Children B. How do Children Master Language?
C. Language: Is It Always Spoken? D. American Sign Language

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BỘ GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO TẠO ĐỀ THI TUYỂN SINH ĐẠI HỌC NĂM 2014
Môn: TIẾNG ANH; Khối A1
ĐỀ CHÍNH THỨC
Thời gian làm bài: 90 phút, không kể thời gian phát đề
(Đề có 6 trang)
Otto Channel Mã đề thi 163

Họ, tên thí sinh:....................................................................... ...


Số báo danh:............................................................................
ĐỀ THI GỒM 80 CÂU (TỪ QUESTION 1 ĐẾN QUESTION 80)

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the
following questions.
Question 1: The higher the content of carbon dioxide in the air is, ______.
A. more heat it retains B. it retains the more heat
C. the heat it retains more D. the more heat it retains
Question 2: We received a call from the teacher ______ charge of our course.
A. at B. in C. on D. to
Question 3: Tom hasn't completed the work yet and Maria hasn't ______.
A. neither B. either C. too D. also
Question 4: ______ was the tea that we couldn’t drink it.
A. No longer B. So strong C. Hardly ever D. How strong
Question 5: We could have caught the last train, but we ______ five minutes late.
A. were B. would be C. have been D. are
Question 6: Do you remember ______ to help us when we were in difficulty?
A. you offer B. being offered C. once offering D. to offer
Question 7: In our team, no person ______ John could finish this tough task in such a short time.
A. including B. rather than C. outside D. other than
Question 8: ______ he got top marks at high school, he never went to university.
A. Nevertheless B. Despite C. Although D. Meanwhile
Question 9: The superstar, accompanied by the other members of the band, ______ to visit our school next
week.
A. are going B. is going C. are D. has had
Question 10: Be sure not to rely too ______ on your mother tongue when you are learning a foreign language.
A. abundantly B. severely C. numerously D. heavily
Question 11: Communities in remote areas are extremely _____ to famine if crops fail.
A. vulnerable B. helpless C. disappointed D. defenseless
Question 12: I could hear voices but I couldn’t ______ what they were saying.
A. try out B. turn up C. make out D. bring about
Question 13: ______ always gives me real pleasure.
A. I arrange flowers B. The flowers are arranged
C. Arranging flowers D. While arranging flowers
Question 14: ______ a few more minutes, we could have finished the task.
A. If we had had B. If we have C. If we had D. Unless we had
Question 15: The theory of relativity ______ by Einstein, who was a famous physicist.
A. was developed B. developed C. is developed D. develops
Question 16: Mrs. Chau has managed the department ______ that she’ll be promoted next month.
A. too successfully B. so successfully C. too successful D. very successful
Question 17: Sammy had worked in England for a year ______ moving to Scotland.
A. before B. once C. until D. while
Question 18: We hoped ______ they would come and give us new lectures.
A. that B. what C. when D. which
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Question 19: In my apartment there are two rooms, ______ is used as the living-room.
A. the large one B. the larger of which
C. the largest one D. the largest of which
Question 20: “It’s about time you ______ your homework, Mary.”
A. do B. did C. must do D. will do
Question 21: The girl was used ______ birthday presents from her brothers.
A. to receive B. to receiving C. to being received D. to be receiving
Question 22: Applications _____ in after 30 th April will not be considered.
A. which sent B. that is sent C. sent D. send
Question 23: Lucy: “You look really nice in that red sweater!”
Sue: “______”
A. How dare you? B. Thank you. C. I’m afraid so. D. Don’t mention it.
Question 24: Kay: “I wouldn’t do that if I were you.”
John: “______”
A. Wouldn’t you? Why? B. It’s out of the question.
C. I’d rather you didn’t. D. Would you, really?
Question 25: Mary: “The hat’s so beautiful. Thanks."
Tony: “________”
A. I’m glad you like it. B. Great idea! C. Lucky you! D. The same to you!

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the questions from 26 to 35.
A radio telescope is a radio receiver that "sees" radio waves. Unlike a normal telescope, which sees light, a
radio telescope is used primarily in the area of astronomy because it can detect radio waves that are emitted by
celestial objects. Such objects in space, also called radio objects, can be things such as hot gas, electrons, and
wavelengths given off by different atoms and molecules.
The first radio telescope was invented by Grote Reber in 1937. He was an American who graduated with a
degree in engineering. He went on to work as an amateur radio operator and later decided to try to build his
own radio telescope in his backyard. Reber's first two radio receivers failed to pick up any signals from outer
space, but in 1938, his third radio telescope successfully picked up radio waves from space.
A radio telescope consists of a large parabolic-shaped dish antenna or a combination of two or more. The
significance of the parabolic shape allows for the incoming radio waves to be concentrated on one focal point,
allowing the signals to be picked up as strongly as possible. A larger dish means that more signals can be
received and focalized.
In the late 1950s and early 1960s, the largest radio telescope of the time was invented with a seventy-six-
meter telescope although larger telescopes have been made since then. The largest current radio telescope in
the world is the RATAN-600 in Russia, whose diameter is 576 meters. It has provided valuable feedback of the
sun's radio wavelengths and atmosphere. The largest radio telescope in Europe is a 100-meter diameter
telescope in Germany, and the largest radio telescope in the United States is the Big Ear in the state of Ohio.
The largest array of telescopes is the Giant Metrewave Radio Telescope in India.
Radio telescopes have provided scientists with valuable information about our universe. One of the most
important functions of radio telescopes is their ability to allow scientists to track different space probes, the
unmanned space missions in outer space. Radio telescopes allow for the travel of space probes into places like
the surface of Mars that are too dangerous for men to explore. Without radio wave technology, scientists would
not know much of what inhabits the universe nor would they be able to see it. Radio waves are our eyes and
ears in outer space.
By Timothy Hall, Arthur H. Milch and Denise McCormach. How to Master skills for the TOEFL iBT
Question 26: According to the passage, a radio telescope enables the detection of ______.
A. normal light of celestial objects B. radio waves sent out by celestial objects
C. creatures that inhabit celestial objects D. shapes and sizes of celestial objects
Question 27: According to paragraph 2, all of the following are true about Grote Reber EXCEPT that ______.
A. he was an amateur radio operator B. he was an astronomer
C. he was an engineer D. he was an inventor
Question 28: Grote Reber’s idea to develop a radio telescope was not successful until ______.
A. he first built one in his backyard B. he graduated from an engineering school
C. he experimented on the third one D. he picked up signals from outer space
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Question 29: The verb “pick up” in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to ______.
A. send B. receive C. select D. lift
Question 30: According to the passage, which of the following statements is TRUE?
A. The pattern of radio waves received by radio telescopes is significant.
B. The largest radio telescope of all time is the one with a seventy-six-meter diameter.
C. A larger dish antenna helps a radio telescope produce better results.
D. The Big Ear in the United States produces the largest array of telescopes.
Question 31: The word “current” in paragraph 4 is closest in meaning to ______.
A. water movement B. electricity flow C. moving D. existing
Question 32: The word “they” in paragraph 5 refers to ______.
A. places B. scientists C. radio waves D. eyes and ears
Question 33: Radio waves are scientists’ eyes and ears in outer space because ______.
A. they allow them to travel to such dangerous places as Mars
B. they help to track only manned space missions in space
C. they can recognize who dominates the universe
D. they can help them understand more about the universe
Question 34: The focus of discussion in the passage is ______.
A. radio telescopes B. radio waves
C. radio operators D. atoms and molecules
Question 35: Originally, this passage was probably published in ______.
A. a fashion magazine B. a scientific journal
C. a business journal D. a book on environment
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 36 to 45.
Why is it that many teenagers have the energy to play computer games until late at night but can't find the
energy to get out of bed (36)_______ for school? According to a new report, today's generation of children are
in danger of getting so (37)________ sleep that they are putting their mental and physical health at
(38)________. Adults can easily survive on seven to eight hours' sleep a night, (39)________ teenagers require
nine or ten hours. According to medical experts, one in five youngsters (40)_________ anything between two
and five hours' sleep a night less than their parents did at their age.
This (41)_________ serious questions about whether lack of sleep is affecting children's ability to
concentrate at school. The connection between sleep deprivation and lapses in memory, impaired reaction time
and poor concentration is well (42)_________. Research has shown that losing as little as half an hour's sleep a
night can have profound effects (43)________ how children perform the next day. A good night's sleep is also
crucial for teenagers because it is while they are asleep (44)________ they release a hormone that is essential
for their 'growth spurt' (the period during teenage years when the body grows at a rapid rate). It's true that
they can, to some (45)________, catch up on sleep at weekends, but that won't help them when they are
dropping off to sleep in class on a Friday afternoon.
By Tim Falla and Paul A. Davies. Solutions Advanced. OUP
Question 36: A. in time B. at time C. behind time D. about time
Question 37: A. less B. little C. few D. much
Question 38: A. risk B. danger C. threat D. jeopardy
Question 39: A. because B. so C. or D. whereas
Question 40: A. makes B. puts C. gets D. brings
Question 41: A. rises B. raises C. comes D. results
Question 42: A. arranged B. organized C. established D. acquired
Question 43: A. on B. in C. at D. to
Question 44: A. where B. that C. which D. at which
Question 45: A. level B. rate C. extent D. point
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to
the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 46: Even though the mountain was very steep and the climb was hazardous, several adventurous
tourists managed to reach the top.
A. causing a lot of risks B. bringing excitement
C. costing a lot of money D. resulting in depression
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Question 47: Thanks to the invention of the microscope, biologists can now gain insights into the nature of the
human cell.
A. deep understanding B. in-depth studies
C. spectacular sightings D. far-sighted views
Question 48: Just like hearing infants who start first with simple syllable babbling, then put more syllables
together to sound like real sentences and questions, deaf babies follow the same pattern.
A. able to hear B. physically abnormal C. hard of hearing D. obedient to parents
Question 49: Dozens of applicants showed up for the vacant position, but only a handful of them were
shortlisted for the interview.
A. small number B. hand C. class D. small amount
Question 50: Now many people who shop at a health food store instead of a local supermarket are much more
likely to find a healthy, sugar-free beverage.
A. convenient to prepare B. beneficial to health
C. harmful to health D. full of preservatives
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the questions from 51 to 60.
The ability to conduct electricity is one of the key properties of a metal. Other solid materials such as silicon
can conduct electricity but only effectively at certain temperatures. Also, some substances such as salt (sodium
chloride) can conduct when molten or when dissolved in water. The ability of metals to conduct electricity is
due to how their atoms bond together. In order to bond together the metal atoms lose at least one of their
outermost electrons. This leaves the metal atoms with a positive charge and they are now strictly ions. The
lost electrons are free to move in what is known as a sea of electrons. Since the electrons are negatively
charged they attract the ions and this is what keeps the structure together.
An electric current is a flow of charge and since the electrons in the sea of electrons are free to move they
can be made to flow in one direction when a source of electrical energy such as a battery is connected to the
metal. Hence we have an electric current flowing through the wire, and this is what makes metals such good
conductors of electricity. The only other common solid conducting material that pencil users are likely to
encounter is graphite (what the ‘lead’ of a pencil is made from). Graphite is a form of carbon and again the
carbon atoms bond in such a way that there is a sea of electrons that can be made to flow as an electric
current. Likewise, if we have an ionic substance like salt we can make the electrically charged ions flow to
create a current but only when those ions are free to move, either when the substance is a liquid or dissolved in
water. In its solid state an ionic substance like salt cannot conduct electricity as its charged ions cannot flow.
Electrical insulators are substances that cannot conduct electricity well either, because they contain no
charged particles or any charged particles they might contain do not flow easily. Water itself is a poor
conductor of electricity as it does not contain a significant amount of fully charged particles (the ends of a water
molecule are partly charged but overall the molecule is neutral). However, most water we encounter does
contain dissolved charged particles, so it will be more conductive than pure water. Many of the problems that
occur when touching electrical devices with wet hands result from the ever-present salt that is left on our skin
through perspiration and it dissolves in the water to make it more conductive.
By Helena Gillespie and Rob Gillespie. Science for Primary School Teachers. OUP
Question 51: Electrical conductivity is ______.
A. one of the most important properties of metals
B. one of the key properties of most solid materials
C. impossible for any substance when it is dissolved in water
D. completely impossible for silicon
Question 52: According to the passage, a metal can conduct electricity due to ______.
A. the loss of one electron in the core of its atoms
B. the way its atoms bond together
C. the absence of free electrons
D. its atoms with a positive charge
Question 53: The word “outermost” in paragraph 1 mostly means ______.
A. furthest from the inside B. nearest to the inside
C. the heaviest D. the lightest
Question 54: The atoms of a metal can bond together because ______.
A. they lose all of their electrons
B. negatively charged electrons attract positive ions
C. electrons can flow in a single direction
D. the lost electrons cannot move freely in the sea of electrons
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Question 55: Salt in its solid state is not able to conduct electricity because ______.
A. its charged ions can flow easily B. it has free electrons
C. its charged ions are not free to move D. it cannot create any charged ions
Question 56: The word “they” in paragraph 3 refers to ______.
A. charged particles B. electrical insulators
C. electric currents D. charged ions
Question 57: Water is a poor conductor because it contains ______.
A. only a small amount of fully charged particles
B. only a negative electric charge
C. no positive or negative electric charge
D. only a positive electric charge
Question 58: We can have problems when touching electrical devices with wet hands because ______.
A. the water dissolves the salt on our skin and becomes more conductive
B. the water containing no charged particles makes it more conductive
C. the water itself is a good conductor of electricity
D. the water contains too many neutral molecules
Question 59: Which of the following is NOT true according to the passage?
A. Some materials are more conductive than others.
B. Graphite is a common solid substance that can conduct electricity.
C. Salt can conduct electricity when it is molten or dissolved.
D. Pure water is much more conductive than most water we encounter every day.
Question 60: Which of the following could best serve as the title of the passage?
A. Electrical Insulators B. Electrical Energy
C. Electrical Devices D. Electrical Conductivity
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other
three in the position of the primary stress in each of the following questions.
Question 61: A. survive B. enlarge C. struggle D. occur
Question 62: A. preservative B. conventional C. reliable D. intellectual
Question 63: A. property B. customer C. computer D. energy
Question 64: A. environment B. technology C. predominance D. superstition
Question 65: A. popular B. impatient C. decisive D. observant
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs
correction in each of the following questions.
Question 66: After our discussion, we decided to take a later flight and so that we could spend more time with
A B C D
the clients.
Question 67: As the old one, this new copier can perform its functions in half the time.
A B C D
Question 68: The assumption that smoking has bad effects on our health have been proved.
A B C D
Question 69: Our astronauts chosen for fly spacecraft were selected from military test pilots.
A B C D
Question 70: These exercises look easy, but they are very relatively difficult for us.
A B C D
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is CLOSEST in
meaning to the sentence given in each of the following questions.
Question 71: I had two job offers upon graduation, neither of which was appropriate for my qualifications.
A. The two jobs offered to me after my graduation didn’t suit my qualifications.
B. Both of the job offers I had prior to my graduation were appropriate for my qualifications.
C. I was offered two jobs soon after my graduation, both of which were suitable for my qualifications.
D. Though I wasn't qualified enough, two jobs were offered to me upon graduation.
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Question 72: They arrived too late to get good seats.
A. As they got there too late, there were no good seats left.
B. Although they were late, they found some good seats.
C. They got good seats some time after they arrived.
D. They had to stand for the whole show.
Question 73: It was only when I left home that I realized how much my family meant to me.
A. Not until I left home did I realize how much my family meant to me.
B. I left home and didn’t realize how meaningful my family was.
C. Before I left home, I realized how much my family meant to me.
D. As soon as I left home, I found out what a family could do without.
Question 74: I forgot to lock the door before leaving.
A. I locked the door before leaving, but I forgot about it.
B. I left without remembering to lock the door.
C. I remembered that I left the door locked before going out.
D. I didn’t remember whether I locked the door before leaving.
Question 75: There is no question of changing my mind about resigning.
A. I should have changed my mind about resigning.
B. They asked me no question about resigning.
C. I certainly won’t change my mind about resigning.
D. Nobody knows about my decision on resigning.
Question 76: When there is so much traffic on the roads, it is sometimes quicker to walk than to go by car.
A. There is so much traffic these days that it is more pleasant to walk than to drive.
B. The traffic is always so heavy that you’d better walk to work; it’s quicker.
C. It is faster to walk than to drive in the heavy traffic at certain time of the day.
D. During rush hours, walking gives me much more pleasure than driving in the heavy traffic.
Question 77: It’s difficult for me to understand what he implies.
A. I find it difficult to understand what he really means.
B. Understanding what he implies is found difficult.
C. What he implies is not very difficult to understand.
D. To understand what he really means is difficult to find.
Question 78: "Get out of my car or I'll call the police!" Jane shouted to the strange man.
A. Jane threatened to call the police if the man didn’t leave her car.
B. Jane plainly said that she would call the police.
C. Jane politely told the man she would call the police if he didn’t leave her car.
D. Jane informed the strange man that she would call the police.
Question 79: John said, “You’d better not lend them any money, Daisy.”
A. John ordered Daisy not to lend them any money.
B. John commanded Daisy not to lend them any money.
C. John asked Daisy if she had lent them any money.
D. John advised Daisy not to lend them any money.
Question 80: This village is inaccessible in winter due to heavy snow.
A. Heavy snow makes it impossible to reach the village in winter.
B. Nobody likes to come to this village in winter because of heavy snow.
C. We cannot gain permission to this village in winter because of heavy snow.
D. We have no difficulty reaching this village in winter because of heavy snow.

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BỘ GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO TẠO KỲ THI TRUNG HỌC PHỔ THÔNG QUỐC GIA NĂM 2015
Môn: TIẾNG ANH
ĐỀ THI CHÍNH THỨC Thời gian làm bài: 90 phút, không kể thời gian phát đề
(Đề thi có 06 trang)
Otto Channel Mã đề thi 194

Họ và tên thí sinh:....................................................................... ...


Số báo danh:................................................................................
SECTION A (8 points)
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part
differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 1: A. deal B. teach C. break D. clean
Question 2: A. supported B. approached C. noticed D. finished

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other
three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions.
Question 3: A. recipe B. candidate C. instrument D. commitment
Question 4: A. conceal B. contain C. conserve D. conquer
Question 5: A. advantageous B. oceanic C. compulsory D. influential

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the
following questions.
Question 6: The receptionist, ______ answered the phone, told me that the director was out.
A. whose B. whom C. who D. that
Question 7: Changes have been made in our primary schooling program. As a result, young children ______
do homework any more.
A. needn’t B. oughtn’t C. couldn’t D. haven’t
Question 8: ______ the salesman promised to exchange the defective CD player for a new one, they insisted
on getting a refund.
A. Despite B. Although C. And D. But
Question 9: The headmaster has decided that three lecture halls ______ in our school next semester.
A. will build B. will be built C. are being built D. will be building
Question 10: Although MERS (Middle East Respiratory Syndrome) spreads through close contact with sick
people, not through the air, many people still avoid ______ to crowded places.
A. to go B. having gone C. gone D. going
Question 11: Students will not be allowed into the exam room if they ______ their student cards.
A. produced B. hadn’t produced C. didn’t produce D. don’t produce
Question 12: A large number of inventions and discoveries have been made ______ accident.
A. at B. on C. in D. by
Question 13: When asked about their preference for movies, many young people say that they are in favour
______ science fiction.
A. in B. for C. of D. with
Question 14: A molecule of water is ______ of two atoms of hydrogen and one atom of oxygen.
A. composed B. created C. included D. consisted
Question 15: Jane really loves the ______ jewelry box that her parents gave her as a birthday present.
A. nice brown wooden B. brown wooden nice C. nice wooden brown D. wooden brown nice
Question 16: Global warming will result ______ crop failures and famine.
A. of B. to C. in D. from
Question 17: John has finally found a new job after being ______ for three months.
A. out of order B. out of mind C. out of work D. out of reach
Question 18: Nguyen Thi Anh Vien performed so well in the 28th Sea Games women’s 200m butterfly that
none of her rivals could ______ her.
A. catch up with B. look up to C. come up to D. put up with

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Question 19: After the new technique had been introduced, the factory produced ______ cars in 2014 as the
year before.
A. twice many as B. as twice many C. as many twice D. twice as many
Question 20: It is ______ of businessmen to shake hands in formal meetings.
A. familiar B. typical C. ordinary D. common
Question 21: Such characters as fairies or witches in Walt Disney animated cartoons are purely ______.
A. imaginary B. imagining C. imaginative D. imaginable
Question 22: ______ at school yesterday when we were informed that there was no class due to a sudden
power cut.
A. We had arrived hardly B. We have hardly arrived
C. Hardly we had arrived D. Hardly had we arrived
Question 23: Mike and Lane are university students. They are talking about Lane’s upcoming high-school
reunion. Select the most suitable response to fill in the blank.
Mike: “So, you have your fifth high-school reunion coming up?”
Lane: “______”
A. Oh, the school reunion was wonderful. B. The food at the reunion was excellent.
C. Yeah. I’m really looking forward to it. D. No. You’re in no mood for the event.
Question 24: Ken and Tom are high-school students. They are discussing where their study group will meet.
Select the most suitable response to fill in the blank.
Ken: “Where is our study group going to meet next weekend?”
Tom: “______”
A. We are too busy on weekdays. B. The library would be best.
C. Why don’t you look at the atlas? D. Studying in a group is great fun.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to
the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 25: When Susan invited us to dinner, she really showed off her culinary talents. She prepared a
feast – a huge selection of dishes that were simply mouth-watering.
A. concerning nutrition and health B. involving hygienic conditions and diseases
C. relating to medical knowledge D. having to do with food and cooking
Question 26: Suddenly, it began to rain heavily, so all the summer hikers got drenched all over.
A. very tired B. refreshed C. completely wet D. cleansed
Question 27: “It’s no use talking to me about metaphysics. It’s a closed book to me.”
A. an object that I really love B. a book that is never opened
C. a subject that I don’t understand D. a theme that I like to discuss

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs
correction in each of the following questions.
Question 28: It is common knowledge that solar heating for a large office building is technically different
A B C
from a single-family home.
D
Question 29: The number of homeless people in Nepal have increased sharply due to the recent
A B C
severe earthquake.
D
Question 30: All the candidates for the scholarship will be equally treated regarding of their age, sex,
A B C
or nationality.
D
Question 31: Since poaching is becoming more seriously, the government has imposed stricter laws
A B C
to prevent it.
D
Question 32: Reminding not to miss the 15:20 train, the manager set out for the station in a hurry.
A B C D

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Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 33 to 42.
Library is a collection of books and other informational materials made available to people for reading,
study, or reference. The word library comes (33)______ liber, the Latin word for “book”. (34)______, library
collections have almost always contained a variety of materials. Contemporary libraries maintain collections
that include not only printed materials such as manuscripts, books, newspapers, and magazines, (35)______
audio-visual and online databases. In addition (36)______ maintaining collections within library buildings,
modern libraries often feature telecommunications links that provide users with access to information at
remote sites.
The central mission of a library (37)______ to collect, organize, preserve, and provide access to
knowledge and information. In fulfilling this mission, libraries preserve a valuable record of culture that can be
passed down to (38)______ generations. Libraries are an essential link in this communication between the
past, present, and future. Whether the cultural record is contained in books or in electronic formats, libraries
ensure (39)______ the record is preserved and made available for later use.
People use library resources to gain information about personal (40)______ or to obtain recreational
materials such as films and novels. Students use libraries to supplement and enhance their classroom
experiences, to learn (41)______ in locating sources of information, and to develop good reading and study
habits. Public officials use libraries to research legislation and public policy issues. One of the most valued of
all cultural institutions, the library (42) ______ information and services that are essential to learning and
progress.
From "Library (institution)" by Richard S. Halsey et al.
Question 33: A. from B. in C. to D. out
Question 34: A. Despite B. However C. Therefore D. Instead
Question 35: A. only if B. as well C. or else D. but also
Question 36: A. on B. to C. in D. from
Question 37: A. are B. is C. have D. has
Question 38: A. succeeding B. succeed C. successful D. success
Question 39: A. what B. which C. who D. that
Question 40: A. profits B. attractions C. interests D. appeals
Question 41: A. abilities B. skills C. talents D. capacities
Question 42: A. relates B. applies C. supplies D. digests

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning
to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 43: “Don't be such a pessimist. I'm sure you'll soon get over it. Cheer up!”
A. activist B. feminist C. optimist D. hobbyist
Question 44: “Be quick! We must speed up if we don’t want to miss the flight.”
A. turn down B. look up C. slow down D. put forward

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the questions from 45 to 54.
Plants and animals will find it difficult to escape from or adjust to the effects of global warming. Scientists
have already observed shifts in the lifecycles of many plants and animals, such as flowers blooming earlier and
birds hatching earlier in the spring. Many species have begun shifting where they live or their annual migration
patterns due to warmer temperatures.
With further warming, animals will tend to migrate toward the poles and up mountainsides toward higher
elevations. Plants will also attempt to shift their ranges, seeking new areas as old habitats grow too warm. In
many places, however, human development will prevent these shifts. Species that find cities or farmland
blocking their way north or south may become extinct. Species living in unique ecosystems, such as those
found in polar and mountaintop regions, are especially at risk because migration to new habitats is not
possible. For example, polar bears and marine mammals in the Arctic are already threatened by dwindling
sea ice but have nowhere farther north to go.
Projecting species extinction due to global warming is extremely difficult. Some scientists have estimated
that 20 to 50 percent of species could be committed to extinction with 2 to 3 Celsius degrees of further

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warming. The rate of warming, not just the magnitude, is extremely important for plants and animals. Some
species and even entire ecosystems, such as certain types of forest, may not be able to adjust quickly enough
and may disappear.
Ocean ecosystems, especially fragile ones like coral reefs, will also be affected by global warming. Warmer
ocean temperatures can cause coral to “bleach”, a state which if prolonged will lead to the death of the coral.
Scientists estimate that even 1 Celsius degree of additional warming could lead to widespread bleaching and
death of coral reefs around the world. Also, increasing carbon dioxide in the atmosphere enters the ocean and
increases the acidity of ocean waters. This acidification further stresses ocean ecosystems.
From "Global Warming" by Michael Mastrandrea and Stephen H. Schneider
Question 45: Scientists have observed that warmer temperatures in the spring cause flowers to ______.
A. die instantly B. bloom earlier C. become lighter D. lose color
Question 46: According to paragraph 2, when their habitats grow warmer, animals tend to move ______.
A. south-eastwards and down mountainsides toward lower elevations
B. north-westwards and up mountainsides toward higher elevations
C. toward the North Pole and down mountainsides toward lower elevations
D. toward the poles and up mountainsides toward higher elevations
Question 47: The pronoun “those” in paragraph 2 refers to ______.
A. species B. ecosystems C. habitats D. areas
Question 48: The phrase “dwindling sea ice” in paragraph 2 refers to ______.
A. the frozen water in the Arctic B. the violent Arctic Ocean
C. the melting ice in the Arctic D. the cold ice in the Arctic
Question 49: It is mentioned in the passage that if the global temperature rose by 2 or 3 Celsius degrees,
______.
A. half of the earth’s surface would be flooded
B. the sea level would rise by 20 centimeters
C. water supply would decrease by 50 percent
D. 20 to 50 percent of species could become extinct
Question 50: According to the passage, if some species are not able to adjust quickly to warmer
temperatures, ______.
A. they may be endangered B. they can begin to develop
C. they will certainly need water D. they move to tropical forests
Question 51: The word “fragile” in paragraph 4 most probably means ______.
A. very large B. easily damaged C. rather strong D. pretty hard
Question 52: The bleaching of coral reefs as mentioned in paragraph 4 indicates ______.
A. the water absorption of coral reefs B. the quick growth of marine mammals
C. the blooming phase of sea weeds D. the slow death of coral reefs
Question 53: The level of acidity in the ocean is increased by ______.
A. the rising amount of carbon dioxide entering the ocean
B. the decrease of acidity of the pole waters
C. the extinction of species in coastal areas
D. the loss of acidity in the atmosphere around the earth
Question 54: What does the passage mainly discuss?
A. Influence of climate changes on human lifestyles
B. Effects of global warming on animals and plants
C. Global warming and possible solutions
D. Global warming and species migration

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the questions from 55 to 64.
Overpopulation, the situation of having large numbers of people with too few resources and too little
space, is closely associated with poverty. It can result from high population density, or from low amounts of
resources, or from both. Excessively high population densities put stress on available resources. Only a certain
number of people can be supported on a given area of land, and that number depends on how much food
and other resources the land can provide. In countries where people live primarily by means of simple
farming, gardening, herding, hunting, and gathering, even large areas of land can support only small numbers
of people because these labor-intensive subsistence activities produce only small amounts of food.

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In developed countries such as the United States, Japan, and the countries of Western Europe,
overpopulation generally is not considered a major cause of poverty. These countries produce large quantities
of food through mechanized farming, which depends on commercial fertilizers, large-scale irrigation, and
agricultural machinery. This form of production provides enough food to support the high densities of people
in metropolitan areas.
A country’s level of poverty can depend greatly on its mix of population density and agricultural
productivity. Bangladesh, for example, has one of the world’s highest population densities, with 1,147 persons
per sq km. A large majority of the people of Bangladesh engage in low-productivity manual farming, which
contributes to the country’s extremely high level of poverty. Some of the smaller countries in Western Europe,
such as the Netherlands and Belgium, have high population densities as well. These countries practice
mechanized farming and are involved in high-tech industries, however, and therefore have high standards of
living.
At the other end of the spectrum, many countries in sub-Saharan Africa have population densities of less
than 30 persons per sq km. Many people in these countries practice manual subsistence farming; these
countries also have infertile land, and lack the economic resources and technology to boost productivity. As a
consequence, these nations are very poor. The United States has both relatively low population density and
high agricultural productivity; it is one of the world’s wealthiest nations.
High birth rates contribute to overpopulation in many developing countries. Children are assets to many
poor families because they provide labor, usually for farming. Cultural norms in traditionally rural societies
commonly sanction the value of large families. Also, the governments of developing countries often provide
little or no support, financial or political, for family planning; even people who wish to keep their families small
have difficulty doing so. For all these reasons, developing countries tend to have high rates of population
growth.
From "Poverty" by Thomas J. Corbett
Question 55: Which of the following is given a definition in paragraph 1?
A. Overpopulation B. Population density C. Simple farming D. Poverty
Question 56: What will suffer when there are excessively high population densities?
A. Available resources B. Skilled labor C. Farming methods D. Land area
Question 57: The phrase “that number” in paragraph 1 refers to the number of ______.
A. people B. densities C. resources D. countries
Question 58: In certain countries, large areas of land can only yield small amounts of food because ______.
A. there is lack of mechanization B. there are small numbers of laborers
C. there is an abundance of resources D. there is no shortage of skilled labor
Question 59: Bangladesh is a country where the level of poverty depends greatly on ______.
A. its population density only
B. both population density and agricultural productivity
C. population density in metropolitan areas
D. its high agricultural productivity
Question 60: The phrase “engage in” in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to ______.
A. escape from B. look into C. give up D. participate in
Question 61: The word “infertile” in paragraph 4 probably means ______.
A. disused B. impossible C. unproductive D. inaccessible
Question 62: Which of the following is TRUE, according to the passage?
A. In certain developed countries, mechanized farming is applied.
B. In sub-Saharan African countries, productivity is boosted by technology.
C. There is no connection between a country’s culture and overpopulation.
D. All small countries in Western Europe have high population densities.
Question 63: Which of the following is a contributor to overpopulation in many developing countries?
A. High-tech facilities B. Economic resources
C. Sufficient financial support D. High birth rates
Question 64: Which of the following could be the best title for the passage?
A. High Birth Rate and its Consequences B. Overpopulation: A Cause of Poverty
C. Overpopulation: A Worldwide Problem D. Poverty in Developing Countries

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SECTION B (2 points)
I. Finish each of the following sentences in such a way that it means the same as the sentence
printed before it. Write your answers on your answer sheet.
Question 1: If John does not change his working style, he will be sacked soon.
Unless _____________________________________________________.
Question 2: “Would you like to come to my 18 th birthday party?” he asked me.
He invited __________________________________________________.
Question 3: People believe that this new teaching method is more effective than the old one.
This new teaching method ____________________________________.
Question 4: He did not realize how difficult the task was until he was halfway through it.
Not until __________________________________________________.
Question 5: It was wrong of you to leave the class without asking for your teacher’s permission.
You should not _____________________________________________.

II. In about 140 words, write a paragraph about the benefits of reading books. Write your
paragraph on your answer sheet.

The following prompts might be helpful to you.


- Widening knowledge
- Improving language
- Relaxing
---------------------------------------------------------- THE END ----------

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BỘ GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO TẠO KỲ THI TRUNG HỌC PHỔ THÔNG QUỐC GIA NĂM 2016
Môn: TIẾNG ANH
ĐỀ THI CHÍNH THỨC Thời gian làm bài: 90 phút, không kể thời gian phát đề
(Đề thi có 06 trang)
Otto Channel
Mã đề thi 642

Họ và tên thí sinh:....................................................................... ...


Số báo danh:................................................................................

SECTION A (8 points)

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part
differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 1: A. maintains B. imports C. laughs D. drops
Question 2: A. campus B. brush C. justice D. culture

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other
three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions.
Question 3: A. biography B. curriculum C. admirable D. compulsory
Question 4: A. inflation B. applicant C. maximum D. character
Question 5: A. anxious B. comfort C. confide D. struggle

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the
following questions.
Question 6: In a modern family, the husband is expected to join hands with his wife to ______ the
household chores.
A. do B. take C. make D. run
Question 7: Canned food is not as healthy as fresh food, ______?
A. isn’t it B. is it C. doesn’t it D. does it
Question 8: ______ they are delicious, hamburgers and French fries are too high in fat.
A. Because B. Although C. Despite D. However
Question 9: In the wake of increasing food poisoning, many consumers have turned to vegetables ______
organically.
A. grown B. are grown C. which grows D. that grown
Question 10: This part of the country is famous ______ its beautiful landscapes and fine cuisine.
A. of B. with C. for D. about
Question 11: Without your help, I ______ the technical problem with my computer the other day.
A. could solve B. wouldn’t solve C. can’t solve D. couldn’t have solved
Question 12: It is raining heavily with rolls of thunder. We ______ such a terrible thunderstorm.
A. would never see B. have never seen C. never see D. had never seen
Question 13: Most teenagers enjoy ______ the Internet for information and entertainment.
A. to surf B. surf C. surfed D. surfing
Question 14: Candidates are requested to ______ the form to the admissions officer by July 25 th.
A. hand in B. fill out C. show up D. pass over
Question 15: The US president Barack Obama ______ an official visit to Vietnam in May 2016, which is of
great significance to the comprehensive bilateral partnership.
A. gave B. paid C. delivered D. offered
Question 16: Most psychologists agree that the basic structure of an individual’s personality is ______.
A. well established quite by the age of five
B. quite well established by the age of five
C. by the age of five it is quite well established
D. by the age of five and quite well established

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Question 17: Two close friends Tom and Kyle are talking about Kyle’s upcoming birthday. Select the most
suitable response to complete the exchange.
- Tom: “Can I bring a friend to your birthday party?”
- Kyle: “______”
A. The more the merrier. B. That’s right.
C. It’s my honour. D. Let’s do it then.
Question 18: The table in the living room should be moved to ______ the new TV set.
A. get rid of B. take hold of C. make room for D. pave the way for
Question 19: All the ______ in the stadium applauded the winner of the marathon when he crossed the
finishing line.
A. watchers B. audience C. spectators D. viewers
Question 20: The firefighters’ single-minded devotion to the rescue of the victims of the fire was ______.
A. respective B. respectable C. respectful D. respecting
Question 21: The Government has brought ______ a new law in an effort to prevent further environmental
deterioration.
A. on B. in C. about D. up
Question 22: The university administrations are introducing new measures to ______ that the enrolment
process runs smoothly.
A. improve B. maintain C. facilitate D. ensure
Question 23: She took a course in fine arts ______ starting her own business in interior design.
A. in terms of B. with a view to C. in order to D. with reference to
Question 24: A waiter in a restaurant is talking to a customer who has just finished his meal there. Select the
most suitable response to complete the exchange.
- Waiter: “Here’s your bill, sir.”
- Customer: “______”
A. You’re welcome. B. What do you have?
C. Don’t mention it. D. Can I pay by credit card?

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs
correction in each of the following questions.
Question 25: According to most doctors, massage relieves pain and anxiety, eases depression and
A B
speeding up recovery from illnesses.
C D
Question 26: Because of bad weather conditions, it took the explorers three days reaching their destination.
A B C D
Question 27: New sources of energy have been looking for as the number of fossil fuels continues to decrease.
A B C D
Question 28: The longer the children waited in the long queue, the more impatiently they became.
A B C D
Question 29: The science of medicine, which progress has been very rapid lately, is perhaps the most important
A B C
of all sciences.
D

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning
to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 30: It is widely known that the excessive use of pesticides is producing a detrimental effect on the
local groundwater.
A. useless B. fundamental C. harmless D. damaging
Question 31: His dreamlike villa in the new residential quarter is the envy of his friends.
A. something that everybody dreams of B. something that everybody looks for
C. something that nobody can afford D. something that nobody wants

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Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the questions from 32 to 41.
Though called by sweet-sounding names like Firinga or Katrina, tropical cyclones are huge rotating storms
200 to 2,000 kilometers wide with winds that blow at speeds of more than 100 kilometers per hour (kph).
Weather professionals know them as tropical cyclones, but they are called hurricanes in the Caribbean Sea,
typhoons in the Pacific Ocean, and cyclones in the Indian Ocean. They occur in both the northern and
southern hemispheres. Large ones have destroyed cities and killed hundreds of thousands of people.
Tropical cyclones begin over water that is warmer than 27 degrees Celsius (80 degrees Fahrenheit) slightly
north or south of the earth’s equator. Warm, humid air full of water vapor moves upward. The earth’s
rotation causes the growing storm to start to rotate around its center (called the eye). At a certain height, the
water vapor condenses, changing to liquid and releasing heat. The heat draws more air and water vapor
upward, creating a cycle as air and water vapor rise and liquid water falls. If the cycle speeds up until winds
reach 118 kilometers per hour, the storm qualifies as a tropical cyclone.
Most deaths in tropical cyclones are caused by storm surge. This is a rise in sea level, sometimes seven
meters or more, caused by the storm pushing against the ocean’s surface. Storm surge was to blame for the
flooding of New Orleans in 2005. The storm surge of Cyclone Nargis in 2008 in Myanmar pushed seawater
nearly four meters deep some 40 kilometers inland, resulting in many deaths.
It has never been easy to forecast a tropical cyclone accurately. The goal is to know when and where the
next tropical cyclone will form. “And we can’t really do that yet,” says David Nolan, a weather researcher from
the University of Miami. The direction and strength of tropical cyclones are also difficult to predict, even with
computer assistance. In fact, long-term forecasts are poor; small differences in the combination of weather
factors lead to very different storms. More accurate forecasting could help people decide to evacuate when a
storm is on the way.
Adapted from “Reading Explorer 2” by Paul Maclntyre

Question 32: As stated in paragraph 1, tropical cyclones are storms with winds blowing at speeds of ______.
A. no less than 200 kph B. more than 100 kph
C. at least 200 kph D. less than 100 kph
Question 33: The word “they” in paragraph 1 refers to ______.
A. tropical cyclones B. wind speeds
C. weather professionals D. sweet-sounding names
Question 34: According to the passage, tropical cyclones are called typhoons in ______.
A. the Atlantic Ocean B. the Pacific Ocean
C. the Indian Ocean D. the Arctic Ocean
Question 35: The word “humid” in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to ______.
A. thin B. thick C. dry D. moist
Question 36: Which of the following comes first in the process of storm formation?
A. Liquid water falls. B. Warm, humid air moves upward.
C. Wind speed reaches 118 kph. D. Water vapor condenses.
Question 37: According to the passage, a storm surge is ______.
A. pushing seawater B. a tropical cyclone
C. inland flooding D. a rise in sea level
Question 38: What is true about the storm surge of Cyclone Nargis?
A. It caused flooding in New Orleans in 2005. B. It pushed seawater 4 kilometers inland.
C. It took a very high death toll. D. It occurred in Myanmar in 2005.
Question 39: The word “evacuate” in paragraph 4 mostly means ______.
A. call for relief supplies B. make accurate predictions
C. move to safer places D. take preventive measures
Question 40: Which of the following statements is NOT true according to the passage?
A. The direction and strength of tropical cyclones are difficult to forecast.
B. The center of a growing storm is known as its eye.
C. Tropical cyclone predictions depend entirely on computer assistance.
D. Tropical cyclones are often given beautiful names.
Question 41: Which of the following would serve as the best title for the passage?
A. Tropical Cyclones B. Cyclone Formation
C. Cyclone Forecasting D. Storm Surges

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Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to
the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 42: Environmentalists appeal to the government to enact laws to stop factories from discharging
toxic chemicals into the sea.
A. producing B. dismissing C. obtaining D. releasing
Question 43: Not until all their demands had been turned down did the workers decide to go on strike for
more welfare.
A. reviewed B. sacked C. deleted D. rejected
Question 44: The overall aim of the book is to help bridge the gap between theory and practice, particularly
in language teaching.
A. increase the understanding B. reduce the differences
C. minimise the limitations D. construct a bridge

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 45 to 54.
THE DANGERS OF DIETING
Thanks to our modern lifestyle, with more and more time spent sitting down in front of computers than
ever before, the (45)______ of overweight people is at a new high. As people frantically search for a solution
(46)______ this problem, they often try some of the popular fad diets being offered. Many people see fad diets
(47)______ harmless ways of losing weight, and they are grateful to have them. Unfortunately, not only don’t
fad diets usually (48)______ the trick, they can actually be dangerous for your health.
Although permanent weight loss is the (49)______, few are able to achieve it. Experts estimate that 95
percent of dieters return to their starting weight, or even (50)______ weight. While the reckless use of fad
diets can bring some (51)______ results, long-term results are very rare.
(52)______, people who are fed up with the difficulties of changing their eating habits often turn to fad
diets. (53)______ being moderate, fad diets involve extreme dietary changes. They advise eating only one type
of food, or they prohibit other types of foods entirely. This results in a situation (54)______ a person’s body
doesn’t get all the vitamins and other things that it needs to stay healthy.
Adapted from “Active Skills for Reading: Book 3” by Neil J. Anderson
Question 45: A. amount B. sum C. number D. range
Question 46: A. to B. of C. on D. with
Question 47: A. by B. through C. like D. as
Question 48: A. bring B. do C. take D. play
Question 49: A. profit B. benefit C. goal D. case
Question 50: A. lose B. reduce C. put D. gain
Question 51: A. initiative B. initiating C. initiate D. initial
Question 52: A. Nonetheless B. Consequently C. Additionally D. Furthermore
Question 53: A. Rather than B. In spite of C. In addition to D. More than
Question 54: A. where B. which C. why D. what

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the questions from 55 to 64.
The concept of urban agriculture may conjure up images of rooftop, backyard or community gardens
scattered among downtown city streets and surrounding neighborhoods. But in the Seattle area, and within
and beyond the Puget Sound region, it means a great deal more. “Urban agriculture doesn’t necessarily
equate to production that occurs only in a metropolitan urban area,” says Jason Niebler, who directs the
Sustainable Agriculture Education (SAgE) Initiative at Seattle Central Community College. “It means we are
providing for growing population food needs from surrounding rural landscapes, as well as from the core
urban landscape.”
Picture a series of concentric circles, with an urban core that produces some food at varying capacities,
surrounded by a series of outlying rings of small farms that become increasingly more rural with distance. The
hope is that such land use planning, from the inner core to the outer rings, will encourage local ecologically
sound sustainable food production. This, in turn, will create local jobs and decrease reliance on distant food
products that originate from petroleum-intensive large scale farms.

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That’s the idea behind SAgE, believed to be the nation’s first metropolitan-based community college
sustainable agriculture program that emphasizes farming practices across diverse landscape types from urban
centers to surrounding rural environs. “It’s small scale agriculture with an urban focus,” Niebler says. “Any
urban population, large or small, can practice sustainable agriculture, improve food security and protect the
environment, which ultimately results in resilient food systems and communities.”
SAgE is a part of the National Science Foundation’s Advanced Technological Education (ATE) Program,
which is providing the project with $157,375 over two years. ATE’s goal is to support projects that strengthen
the skills of technicians who work in industries regarded as vital to the nation’s prosperity and security. The
support largely goes to community colleges that work in partnership with universities, secondary schools,
businesses and industries, as well as government agencies, which design and implement model workforce
initiatives.
The SAgE project focuses on the environmental, socioeconomic, political and cultural issues related to
sustainable food systems within Puget Sound watersheds through student and community education and
research, and technological innovation. The curriculum offers courses that cover such issues as agricultural
ecology, urban food systems, food politics and ethics, soil science, sustainable food production and
technology, the integration of food and forests, and career opportunities.
“We’ve created a curriculum that is fundamental in nature, addressing the principles of sustainable
agriculture and what a food system is – how it functions both locally and globally,” Niebler says. “These
courses are challenging, robust and inspirational. One of the really wonderful things about them is that we
offer service learning opportunities, where students volunteer a portion of their time to working with local
partner organizations. They can do a research project, or a service learning option. The ideal would be to
prompt students into careers that involve sustainable practices in an urban agriculture setting.”
Adapted from “Promoting Sustainable Agriculture” by Marlene Cimons

Question 55: It is stated in the passage that Jason Niebler ______.


A. directs the SAgE Initiative B. provides food for Seattle’s population
C. preserves the core urban landscape D. studies at Seattle Central Community College
Question 56: It can be inferred from the passage that the conventional idea of urban agriculture ______.
A. focuses mainly on agriculture within and beyond the Puget Sound region
B. concerns with food production in any city’s surrounding areas
C. aims at food production and consumption in both rural and urban regions
D. is associated with production only in metropolitan urban areas
Question 57: The word “concentric” in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to ______.
A. having the same center B. going in different directions
C. having the same size D. coming from different places
Question 58: Which of the following is supposed to be an outcome of the SAgE’s new land use planning?
A. Modernized farming practices in rural environs
B. Dependence on distant food products
C. Employment opportunities for local residents
D. Increased food production in large scale farms
Question 59: The phrase “in partnership with” in paragraph 4 probably means ______.
A. in addition to B. instead of C. together with D. in place of
Question 60: The curriculum of SAgE at Seattle Central Community College offers courses covering the
following EXCEPT ______.
A. integration of food and forests B. career opportunities
C. urban system development D. agricultural ecology
Question 61: In Niebler’s opinion, the courses offered by the SAgE project are ______.
A. robust but unpromising B. functional but impractical
C. challenging and costly D. hard but encouraging
Question 62: The word “them” in paragraph 6 refers to ______.
A. courses B. opportunities C. students D. principles
Question 63: Which of the following is NOT true according to the passage?
A. Resilient food systems can be attributed to sustainable agricultural practices.
B. The curriculum that the SAgE project designs is fundamental in nature.
C. The SAgE project alone will offer students sufficient jobs in urban agriculture.
D. ATE helps to improve the skills of technicians in the nation’s major industries.
Question 64: Which of the following best describes the author’s tone in the passage?
A. Satirical B. Supportive C. Provocative D. Skeptical

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SECTION B (2 points)

I. Finish each of the following sentences in such a way that it means the same as the sentence
printed before it. Write your answers in complete sentences on your answer sheet.
Question 1: He now regrets that he didn’t take the doctor’s advice.
He now wishes ___________________________________________________________.
Question 2: “I’m sorry. I didn’t do the homework,” Peter said to the teacher.
Peter apologised __________________________________________________________.
Question 3: I’m sure that he didn’t attend the Conference on Wildlife Protection yesterday.
He can’t _________________________________________________________________.
Question 4: She didn’t pass the exam because of her serious illness.
Had she not ______________________________________________________________.
Question 5: Ms Betty is proud of her singing.
Ms Betty prides ___________________________________________________________.

II. In about 140 words, write a paragraph about the benefits of knowing how to swim. Write
your paragraph on your answer sheet.

The following prompts might be helpful to you.


- Keeping fit
- Relaxing
- Surviving/Saving people’s lives

-----
_________THE END_________

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BỘ GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO TẠO KỲ THI TRUNG HỌC PHỔ THÔNG QUỐC GIA NĂM 2017
Bài thi: NGOẠI NGỮ; Môn thi: TIẾNG ANH
ĐỀ THI CHÍNH THỨC Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút, không kể thời gian phát đề
(Đề thi có 06 trang)
Otto Channel
Họ, tên thí sinh: ......................................................................... Mã đề thi 401
Số báo danh: .............................................................................

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other
three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions.
Question 1. A. teacher B. lesson C. action D. police
Question 2. A. importance B. happiness C. employment D. relation

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part
differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 3. A. date B. face C. page D. map
Question 4. A. played B. planned C. cooked D. lived

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable response to
complete each of the following exchanges.
Question 5. Liz is telling Andrew about her first novel.
Liz: "Guess what? My first novel has just been published."
Andrew: "______"
A. It's my pleasure. B. Congratulations!
C. Better luck next time! D. It's very kind of you.
Question 6. Jenny and her teacher are meeting at the bus stop.
Jenny: "Good afternoon, Miss. How are you?"
Teacher: "______. And you?"
A. I'm going home B. I'm leaving now C. I'm thirty years old D. Fine, thank you

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning
to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 7. As a sociable boy, Jack enjoys spending his free time going out with friends.
A. mischievous B. outgoing C. caring D. shy
Question 8. It's not a pleasant feeling to discover you've been taken for a ride by a close friend.
A. driven away B. deceived deliberately
C. given a lift D. treated with sincerity

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning
to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 9. Heavy rain makes driving on the road very difficult.
A. hard B. easy C. interesting D. simple
Question 10. A series of programs have been broadcast to raise public awareness of healthy living.
A. experience B. understanding C. confidence D. assistance

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Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the
following questions.
Question 11. It is not always easy to make a good ______ at the last minute.
A. decide B. decision C. decisive D. decisively
Question 12. Mr Brown has kindly agreed to spare us some of his ______ time to answer our questions.
A. valuable B. worthy C. costly D. beneficial
Question 13. More and more investors are pouring ______ money into food and beverage start-ups.
A. an B. the C. Ø D. a
Question 14. A survey was ______ to study the effects of smoking on young adults.
A. commented B. filled C. conducted D. carried
Question 15. The better the weather is, ______.
A. the most crowded the beaches get B. the most the beaches get crowded
C. the more crowded the beaches get D. the more the beaches get crowded
Question 16. The book ______ you gave me is very interesting.
A. when B. which C. who D. where
Question 17. The ______ of the Internet has played an important part in the development of
communication.
A. research B. occurrence C. invention D. display
Question 18. When the manager of our company retires, the deputy manager will ______ that position.
A. stand for B. take over C. catch on D. hold on
Question 19. I ______ my old school teacher last week.
A. visited B. visit C. am visiting D. have visited
Question 20. Paul has just sold his ______ car and intends to buy a new one.
A. black old Japanese B. Japanese old black C. old black Japanese D. old Japanese black
Question 21. You ______ use your mobile phone during the test. It's against the rules.
A. mightn't B. mustn't C. oughtn't D. needn't
Question 22. A university degree is considered to be a ______ for entry into most professions.
A. demand B. requisite C. claim D. request

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 23 to 27.
In the early twentieth century, an American woman named Emily Post wrote a book on
etiquette. This book explained the proper behavior Americans should follow in many different social
(23)______, from birthday parties to funerals. But in modern society, it is not simply to know the
proper rules for behavior in your own country. It is necessary for people (24)______ work or travel
abroad to understand the rules of etiquette in other cultures as well.
Cultural (25)______ can be found in such simple processes as giving or receiving a gift. In
Western cultures, a gift can be given to the receiver with relatively little ceremony. When a gift is
offered, the receiver usually takes the gift and expresses his or her thanks. (26)______, in some
Asian countries, the act of gift-giving may appear confusing to Westerners. In Chinese culture, both
the giver and receiver understand that the receiver will typically refuse to take the gift several times
before he or she finally accepts it. In addition, to (27)______ respect for the receiver, it is common
in several Asian cultures to use both hands when offering a gift to another person.
(Source: Reading Advantage by Casey Malarcher)
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Question 23. A. positions B. conditions C. situations D. locations
Question 24. A. who B. which C. where D. whose
Question 25. A. differences B. different C. differently D. differ
Question 26. A. Moreover B. Therefore C. However D. Otherwise
Question 27. A. show B. get C. feel D. take

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the questions from 28 to 34.
Different cultures follow their own special customs when a child's baby teeth fall out. In Korea,
for example, they have the custom of throwing lost teeth up on the roof of a house. According to
tradition, a magpie will come and take the tooth. Later, the magpie will return with a new tooth for
the child. In other Asian countries, such as Japan and Vietnam, children follow a similar tradition of
throwing their lost teeth onto the roofs of houses.
Birds aren't the only animals thought to take lost teeth. In Mexico and Spain, tradition says a
mouse takes a lost tooth and leaves some money. However, in Mongolia, dogs are responsible for
taking teeth away. Dogs are highly respected in Mongolian culture and are considered guardian
angels of the people. Tradition says that the new tooth will grow good and strong if the baby tooth
is fed to a guardian angel. Accordingly, parents in Mongolia will put their child's lost tooth in a piece
of meat and feed it to a dog.
The idea of giving lost teeth to an angel or fairy is also a tradition in the West. Many children
in Western countries count on the Tooth Fairy to leave money or presents in exchange for a tooth.
The exact origins of the Tooth Fairy are a mystery, although the story probably began in England
or Ireland centuries ago. According to tradition, a child puts a lost tooth under his or her pillow
before going to bed. In the wee hours, while the child is sleeping, the Tooth Fairy takes the tooth
and leaves something else under the pillow. In France, the Tooth Fairy leaves a small gift. In the
United States, however, the Tooth Fairy usually leaves money. These days, the rate is $1 to $5 per
tooth, adding up to a lot of money from the Tooth Fairy!
(Source: Reading Challenge 2 by Casey Malarcher & Andrea Janzen)

Question 28. What is the passage mainly about?


A. Traditions concerning children's lost teeth B. Presents for young children's lost teeth
C. Animals eating children's lost teeth D. Customs concerning children's new teeth
Question 29. The word "their" in paragraph 1 refers to ______.
A. houses' B. roofs' C. children's D. countries'
Question 30. According to the passage, where is a child's lost tooth thought to be taken away by a mouse?
A. In Mexico and Spain B. In Mongolia
C. In Japan and Vietnam D. In Korea
Question 31. According to paragraph 2, parents in Mongolia feed their child's lost tooth to a dog
because ______.
A. they know that dogs are very responsible animals
B. they believe that this will make their child's new tooth good and strong
C. they think dogs like eating children's teeth
D. they hope that their child will get some gifts for his or her tooth

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Question 32. The word "origins" in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to ______.
A. countries B. families C. beginnings D. stories
Question 33. According to the passage, which of the following is NOT true about the tradition of
tooth giving in the West?
A. Children give money to the Tooth Fairy.
B. Children put their lost teeth under their pillows.
C. Children hope to get money or gifts from the Tooth Fairy.
D. Lost teeth are traditionally given to an angel or fairy.
Question 34. The phrase "the wee hours" in paragraph 3 probably refers to the period of time
______.
A. early in the evening B. soon after midnight
C. late in the morning D. long before bedtime

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the questions from 35 to 42.
Earth is richly supplied with different types of living organisms which co-exist in their
environments, forming complex, interrelated communities. Living organisms depend on one another
for nutrients, shelter, and other benefits. The extinction of one species can set off a chain reaction
that affects many other species, particularly if the loss occurs near the bottom of the food chain. For
example, the extinction of a particular insect or plant might seem inconsequential. However, there
may be fish or small animals that depend on that resource for foodstuffs. The loss can threaten the
survival of these creatures and larger predators that prey upon them. Extinction can have a ripple
effect that spreads throughout nature.
In addition to its biological consequences, extinction poses a moral dilemma for humans, the
only species capable of saving the others. The presence of humans on the planet has affected all
other life forms, particularly plants and animals. Human lifestyles have proven to be incompatible
with the survival of some other species. Purposeful efforts have been made to eliminate animals that
prey on people, livestock, crops, or pose any threat to human livelihoods. Some wild animals have
been decimated by human desire for meat, hides, fur, or other body parts with commercial value.
Likewise, demand for land, water, and other natural resources has left many wild plants and animals
with little to no suitable habitat. Humans have also affected nature by introducing non-native species
to local areas and producing pollutants having a negative impact on the environment. The
combination of these human-related effects and natural obstacles such as disease or low birthrates
has proven to be too much for some species to overcome. They have no chance of survival without
human help.
As a result, societies have difficult choices to make about the amount of effort and money they
are willing to spend to save imperiled species. Will people accept limits on their property rights,
recreational activities, and means of livelihood to save a plant or an animal? Should saving such
popular species as whales and dolphins take priority over saving obscure, annoying, or fearful
species? Is it the responsibility of humans to save every kind of life form from disappearing, or is
extinction an inevitable part of nature, in which the strong survive and the weak perish? These are
some difficult questions that people face as they ponder the fate of other species living on this planet.
(Source: http://www.encyclopedia.com)

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Question 35. What does the passage mainly discuss?
A. The importance of living organisms B. Causes of animal extinction
C. Humans and endangered species D. Measures to protect endangered species
Question 36. The word "inconsequential" in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to ______.
A. unimportant B. unavoidable C. unexpected D. unrecognizable
Question 37. Which of the following can result from the loss of one species in a food chain?
A. There might be a lack of food resources for some other species.
B. Animals will shift to another food chain in the community.
C. Larger predators will look for other types of prey.
D. The connections among the creatures in the food chain become closer.
Question 38. The word "They" in paragraph 2 refers to ______.
A. natural obstacles B. low birthrates
C. some species D. human-related effects
Question 39. In paragraph 2, non-native species are mentioned as ______.
A. an achievement of human beings B. a harmful factor to the environment
C. a kind of useful plants D. a kind of harmless animals
Question 40. The word "perish" in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to ______.
A. disappear B. complete C. remain D. develop
Question 41. According to the passage, which of the following statements is NOT true?
A. Some animals and plants cannot survive without human help.
B. No other species can threaten the survival of humans on Earth.
C. The existence of humans is at the expense of some other species.
D. Humans have difficult choices to make about saving endangered species.
Question 42. Which of the following can be inferred from the passage?
A. Animal and plant species which pose threats to humans will die out soon.
B. Humans will make changes in their lifestyles to save other species.
C. The dilemma humans face between maintaining their lives and saving other species remains.
D. Saving popular animal and plant species should be given a high priority.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in
meaning to each of the following questions.
Question 43. I haven't met my grandparents for five years.
A. I often met my grandparents five years ago.
B. I last met my grandparents five years ago.
C. I have met my grandparents for five years.
D. I didn't meet my grandparents five years ago.
Question 44. We survived that accident because we were wearing our seat belts.
A. But for our seat belts, we would have survived that accident.
B. Had we not been wearing our seat belts, we wouldn't have survived that accident.
C. Without our seat belts, we could have survived that accident.
D. If we weren't wearing our seat belts, we couldn't have survived that accident.

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Question 45. "No, I won't go to work at the weekend," said Sally.
A. Sally refused to go to work at the weekend.
B. Sally promised to go to work at the weekend.
C. Sally apologized for not going to work at the weekend.
D. Sally regretted not going to work at the weekend.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs
correction in each of the following questions.
Question 46. Animals like frogs have waterproof skin that prevents it from drying out quickly
A B C
in air, sun, or wind.
D
Question 47. My brother usually ask me for help when he has difficulty with his homework.
A B C D
Question 48. Many people object to use physical punishment in dealing with discipline problems
A B C
at school.
D

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines
each pair of sentences in the following questions.
Question 49. Some kinds of fish live in fresh water. Others live in sea water.
A. Some kinds of fish live in fresh water, for others live in sea water.
B. Some kinds of fish live in fresh water, and others live in sea water.
C. Some kinds of fish live in fresh water, or others live in sea water.
D. Some kinds of fish live in fresh water, so others live in sea water.
Question 50. My mother is very busy with her work at the office. She still takes good care of us.
A. In spite of being very busy with her work at the office, my mother takes good care of us.
B. Because my mother is very busy with her work at the office, she takes good care of us.
C. My mother is so busy with her work at the office that she cannot take good care of us.
D. My mother is too busy with her work at the office to take good care of us.

------------------------ THE END ------------------------

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BỘ GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO TẠO KỲ THI TRUNG HỌC PHỔ THÔNG QUỐC GIA NĂM 2018
ĐỀ THI CHÍNH THỨC Bài thi: NGOẠI NGỮ; Môn thi: TIẾNG ANH
(Đề thi có 05 trang) Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút, không kể thời gian phát đề
Otto Channel
Họ, tên thí sinh: ..................................................................... Mã đề thi 401
Số báo danh: ..........................................................................
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best completes each
of the following exchanges.
Question 1: Silas is talking to his roommate, Salah, about the Olympic Games.
- Silas: "Do you think our country can host the Olympic Games some day in the future?"
- Salah: "______. We can't afford such a big event."
A. You can say that again B. I can't agree with you more
C. Yes, you're right D. No, I don't think so
Question 2: Laura is telling Bob about her exam results.
- Laura: "______"
- Bob: "That's great. Congratulations!"
A. I hope I'll pass the exam tomorrow. B. I've passed the exam with an A.
C. I'll get the exam results tomorrow. D. I didn't do well in the exam.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to
the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 3: Thanks to highly sophisticated technology, scientists have made many important
discoveries in different fields.
A. accessible B. confusing C. effective D. advanced
Question 4: It is firmly believed that books are a primary means for disseminating knowledge and information.
A. classifying B. distributing C. adopting D. inventing
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to
the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 5: With price increases on most necessities, many people have to tighten their belt for fear of
getting into financial difficulties.
A. dress in loose clothes B. spend money freely
C. save on daily expenses D. put on tighter belts
Question 6: Today the number of start-ups in Vietnam is mounting as the government has created
favourable conditions for them to develop their business.
A. peaking B. varying C. decreasing D. rising
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs
from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 7: A. delays B. begins C. attracts D. believes
Question 8: A. head B. bean C . meal D. team
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other
three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions.
Question 9: A. sympathy B. poverty C. equipment D. character
Question 10: A. intend B. install C. follow D. decide
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the
following questions.
Question 11: It ______ to reason that Jason passed the exam with flying colours on account of his
working hard during the term.
A. comes B. gets C. stands D. lays
Question 12: Our father suggested ______ to Da Nang for this summer holiday.
A. to going B. going C. go D. to go
Question 13: The patients ______ with the new drug showed better signs of recovery than those
receiving conventional medicine.
A. treated B. having treated C. treating D. who treated
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Question 14: Only after she ______ from a severe illness did she realise the importance of good health.
A. would recover B. has recovered C. had recovered D. was recovering
Question 15: Several measures have been proposed to ______ the problem of unemployment among
university graduates.
A. pose B. admit C. address D. create
Question 16: There is no excuse for your late submission! You ______ the report by last Friday.
A. mightn't have finished B. should have finished
C. needn't have finished D. must have finished
Question 17: The presenter started his speech with a few ______ jokes to build rapport with the
audience.
A. whole-hearted B. light-hearted C. soft-hearted D. kind-hearted
Question 18: It is advisable that the apprentice should be ______ to learn the ins and outs of the new job.
A. permissive B. noticeable C. acceptable D. observant
Question 19: Mary rarely uses social networks, ______?
A. isn't she B. does she C. doesn't she D. is she
Question 20: Candidates are advised to dress formally to make a good ______ on job interviewers.
A. impress B. impressively C. impression D. impressive
Question 21: If Martin were here now, he ______ us to solve this difficult problem.
A. would help B. helps C. will help D. has helped
Question 22: You shouldn't lose heart; success often comes to those who are not ______ by failures.
A. left out B. put off C. switched off D. turned on
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs
correction in each of the following questions.
Question 23: It concerns many sociologists that inadequate parents skills may lead to an increase
A B
in the number of incidents of juvenile delinquency.
C D
Question 24: It is the ASEAN Para Games that disabled athletes have an opportunity to have
A B C
their talents and efforts recognised.
D
Question 25: Teenagers is greatly influenced by not only their parents but also their peers.
A B C D
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning
to each of the following questions.
Question 26: I find it useful to join the sports club.
A. Joining the sports club is not useful for me. B. It is useful for me to join the sports club.
C. I used to join the sports club. D. I never like joining the sports club.
Question 27: It is believed that modern farming methods have greatly improved farmers' lives.
A. Farmers are believed to have enjoyed a much better life thanks to modern farming methods.
B. Modern farming methods were believed to have greatly improved farmers' lives.
C. Modern farming methods are believed to have had negative effects on farmers' lives.
D. People believe that there is little improvement in farmers' lives thanks to modern farming methods.
Question 28: "Would you like to go to the show with me?" Anna said to Bella.
A. Anna reminded Bella to go to the show with her. B. Anna persuaded Bella to go to the show with her.
C. Anna encouraged Bella to go to the show with her. D . Anna invited Bella to go to the show with her.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each
pair of sentences in the following questions.
Question 29: Mary left home to start an independent life. She realised how much her family meant to her.
A. Only when Mary realised how much her family meant to her did she leave home to start an independent life.
B. To realise how much her family meant to her, Mary decided to leave home to start an independent life.
C. Not until Mary had left home to start an independent life did she realise how much her family
meant to her.
D. Mary left home to start an independent life with a view to realising how much her family meant to her.
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Question 30: Kate completed her higher education. She then decided to travel the world before
getting a job.
A. Without completing her higher education, Kate decided to travel the world before getting a job.
B. Given that Kate decided to travel the world before getting a job, she completed her higher education.
C. Having completed her higher education, Kate decided to travel the world before getting a job.
D. Kate had scarcely travelled the world before getting a job when she completed her higher education.
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 31 to 35.
Urban development is having a direct impact on the weather in many cities worldwide. It has been
noticed that the difference (31)______ temperature is usually greater at night and the phenomenon
occurs in both winter and summer. Experts agree that this is due to urban development, when open
green spaces are replaced with asphalt roads and tall brick or concrete buildings. These materials retain
heat generated by the Sun and release it through the night. In Atlanta, in the US, this has even led to
thunderstorms (32)______ occur in the morning rather than, as is more common, in the afternoon.
Large cities around the world are adopting strategies to combat this issue (33)______ it is not
uncommon to find plants growing on top of roofs or down the walls of large buildings. In Singapore,
the government has (34)______ to transform it into a "city within a garden" and, in 2006, they held an
international competition calling for entries to develop a master plan to help bring this about. One
outcome was the creation of 18 "Supertrees" – metal constructions resembling very tall trees. Each one
is a vertical freestanding garden and is (35)______ to exotic plants and ferns. They also contain solar
panels used to light the trees at night and also containers to collect rainwater, making them truly self-sufficient.
(Adapted from "The Official Cambridge Guide to IELTS" by Pauline Cullen, Amanda French and Vanessa Jakeman)

Question 31: A. on B. with C. in D. out


Question 32: A. when B. which C. what D. where
Question 33: A. or B. for C. and D. but
Question 34: A. pledged B. committed C. confessed D. required
Question 35: A. home B. house C. land D. place
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the questions from 36 to 42.
A letter of application is a sales letter in which you are both salesperson and product, for the
purpose of an application is to attract an employer's attention and persuade him or her to grant you an
interview. To do this, the letter presents what you can offer the employer, rather than what you want
from the job.
Like a résumé, the letter of application is a sample of your work and an opportunity to demonstrate
your skills and personality. If it is written with flair and understanding and prepared with professional
care, it is likely to be very effective. While the résumé must be factual, objective, and brief, the letter is
your chance to interpret and expand. It should state explicitly how your background relates to the
specific job, and it should emphasise your strongest and most relevant characteristics. The letter should
demonstrate that you know both yourself and the company.
The letter of application must communicate your ambition and enthusiasm. Yet it must be modest.
It should be neither aggressive nor compliant: neither pat yourself on the back nor ask for sympathy. It
should never express dissatisfaction with the present or former job or employer. And you should avoid
discussing your reasons for leaving your last job.
Finally, it is best that you not broach the subject on salary. Indeed, even if a job advertisement
requires that you mention your salary requirements, it is advisable simply to call them "negotiable."
However, when you go on an interview, you should be prepared to mention a salary range. For this
reason, you should investigate both your field and, if possible, the particular company. You don't want
to ask for less than you deserve or more than is reasonable.
(Adapted from "Select Readings - Intermediate" by Linda Lee and Erik Gundersen)
Question 36: What is the passage mainly about?
A. Advice on how to find a good job
B. Things to avoid during a job interview
C. Tips for writing an effective letter of application
D. Differences between a résumé and a letter of application
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Question 37: According to paragraph 1, in a letter of application, the applicant tries to ______.
A. persuade the employer to grant him/her an interview
B. get further information about the company
C. advertise a product to attract more customers
D. present what he/she wants from the job
Question 38: The word "it" in paragraph 2 refers to ______.
A. the letter of application B. an opportunity
C. your work D. the résumé
Question 39: The word "explicitly" in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to ______.
A. clearly B. shortly C. slightly D. quickly
Question 40: According to the passage, which of the following is TRUE about a letter of application?
A. It should express the applicant's dissatisfaction with his/her former employer.
B. It should refer to the applicant's reasons for leaving his/her previous job.
C. It should be written very briefly, but in a formal style.
D. It should expand upon the information contained in the applicant's résumé.
Question 41: The word "broach" in paragraph 4 is closest in meaning to ______.
A. avoid B. investigate C. introduce D. understand
Question 42: According to paragraph 4, in a job interview, the applicant should be ready to ______.
A. accept any salary offered B. negotiate working conditions
C. mention their expected salary range D. talk about the company's budget
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the questions from 43 to 50.
Henry is the undisputed star of Dronfield School near Sheffield. Whatever the achievements of
other members of the comprehensive school, it is Henry, with his soulful eyes and glossy hair, who has
hogged the limelight, appearing on television in Britain and abroad. Yet despite all the public
adulation , Henry stirs up no envy or resentment among the 2000 students – in fact, they all adore him.
The dog, who first arrived six months ago, is a super dog, who has improved students' behaviour and
encouraged more students to focus on their academic achievement.
Andrew Wainwright, a student at Dronfield School, says there is something magical and calming
about being able to interact with Henry during his time at the school's catch-up classes, and that if he
falls behind, that opportunity will be denied. Even doubting staff have finally been won round. Perhaps
that is because Henry, who lies on the floor during staff meetings, has also had a calming effect on them.
It was Andrew's teacher, Wendy Brown and the school counsellor, Julie Smart, who first proposed
buying a school dog. "Julie and I were talking one day about how looking after dogs can positively
affect children's conduct," says Brown. "We did some research and discovered that the presence of pets
has been shown to be therapeutic. A number of studies have shown that animals improve recovery after
surgery or illness and have a calming influence on people in a lot of settings. Some of my kids can be a
handful and some of the children Julie counsels have terrible problems."
Could the school dog become a craze? Other schools such as the Mulberry Bush, a primary school
for children with behavioural problems, have stepped forward to point out they already have one . Rosie
Johnston, a Mulberry staff member has been bringing her golden retriever, Muskoka, into school for
three years. Apart from being a calming influence, Muskoka even plays his part in literacy lessons.
Children at the school can be too shy to read to adults so they read to Muskoka. "Their anxiety about
mispronouncing something or getting the words in the wrong order is reduced when they read to him,"
says Johnston.
Psychologist Dr Deborah Wells from Queen's University Belfast specialises in animal-human
interaction. She believes that the underlying key to the Henry effect is that dogs offer unconditional
love and that cheers up adults and children and helps with self-esteem. But traditionalist Chris
Woodhead, the former chief inspector of schools says, "I don't see why a teacher cannot create a
positive learning environment through the subject they teach and their personality. Dogs strike me as a
bit of a publicity stunt. It's the kind of sentimental story journalists love." Despite this sentiment, Henry
remains as popular as ever.
(Adapted from "Ready for Advanced" by Roy Norris and Amanda French with Miles Hordern)

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Question 43: Which of the following best serves as the title for the passage?
A. Having School Dogs: Pros and Cons B. Henry – a Super Dog in Dronfield School
C. School Dogs: Useful Classroom Assistants D. Keeping School Dogs – a Prevalent Trend
Question 44: The word "adulation " in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to ______.
A. excessive admiration B. deserved attention
C. considerable controversy D. unrealistic expectation
Question 45: The phrase "a handful " in paragraph 3 is probably descriptive of a child who is ______.
A. difficult to control B. reluctant to explore
C. inclined to disagree D. impossible to understand
Question 46: Which of the following is mentioned in paragraph 3 as a potential impact of keeping a pet?
A. A stronger tendency to misbehave B. Better recovery from illness
C. A greater desire to influence others D. Long-term changes in conduct
Question 47: The word "one " in paragraph 4 refers to _______.
A. a school dog B. a craze
C. a Mulberry staff member D. a primary school
Question 48: According to paragraph 4, which of the following is one of the roles played by Muskoka
at the Mulberry Bush?
A. Minimising the number of words mispronounced by its students
B. Helping its students to reduce their fear of making mistakes
C. Relieving its teaching staff of unnecessary workload
D. Encouraging a more proactive approach to teaching literacy
Question 49: Which of the following best summarises Chris Woodhead's viewpoint in paragraph 5?
A. Teachers underestimate the role of dogs in literacy lessons.
B. Schools have dogs just to attract media attention.
C. Students and dogs are inseparable companions in the classroom setting.
D. Dogs are capable of enlivening classroom atmosphere.
Question 50: Which of the following is implied in the passage?
A. Rosie Johnston is more experienced than Wendy Brown in working with animals.
B. Interaction with Henry is used to boost students' learning motivation at Dronfield School.
C. Administrators at Dronfield School are sceptical as to whether Henry's companion will benefit
their students.
D. Wendy Brown and Julie Smart are dedicated animal rights activists who wish to get their message
across to young people.

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BỘ GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO TẠO KÌ THI TRUNG HỌC PHỔ THÔNG QUỐC GIA NĂM 2019
ĐỀ THI CHÍNH THỨC Bài thi: NGOẠI NGỮ; Môn thi: TIẾNG ANH
(Đề thi có 05 trang) Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút, không kể thời gian phát đề
Otto Channel
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Số báo danh:…………………………………………………….
Mark the letter A, B,C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the option that best completes each of the
following exchanges.
Question 1: A shop assistant is talking to a customer.
 Shop assistant: “Do you need anything else?”
 Customer: “__________”
A. You’re welcome. B. Good Job! C. That’s all. Thanks. D. With pleasure.
Question 2: Ann and Peter are talking about housework.
 Ann: “I think children should be paid for doing the housework.”
 Peter: “ __________. It’s their duty in the family.”
A. There’s no doubt about it B. That’s what I think
C. You’re exactly right D. I don’t think so
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the
underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 3: At first, John said he hadn’t broken the vase, but later he accepted it.
A. discussed B. denied C. admitted D. protected
Question 4: These photos brought back many sweet memories of our trip to Hanoi last year.
A. recalled B. caught C. released D. revised
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to
the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 5: It’s quite disappointing that some people still turn a blind eye to acts of injustice that
witness in the street.
A. show respect for B. pay attention to C. have no feeling for D. take notice of
Question 6: Children brought up in a caring environment tend to grow more sympathetic towards others.
A. dishonest B. hateful C. loving D. healthy
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the
following questions.
Question 7: One recipe for success is to stay focused and ___________ yourself to whatever you do.
A. assign B. apply C. attach D. adhere
Question 8: Once _________ for viruses, the software can be installed in the school computer system for
use.
D. tested B. testing C. is tested D. has tested
Question 9: It’s time he acted like a __________ adult and stopped blaming others for his wrongdoings.
A. responsible B. believable C. suitable D. sociable
Question 10: Action films with big stars tend to _________ great public attention.

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A. reach B. show C. achieve D. attract
Question 11: The residents of the village are living a happy life __________ they lack modern facilities.
A. because of B. therefore C. although D. despite
Question 12: This is __________ most beautiful song I’ve ever listened to.
A. the B. a C. an D. ø
Question 13: The teacher entered the room while the students __________ their plan for the excursion.
A. were discussing B. discuss C. are discussing D. discussed
Question 14: The scientists are working on a drug capable of _________ the spread of cancerous cells.
A. catching B. arresting C. seizing D. grasping
Question 15: His choice of future career is quite similar __________ mine.
A. with B. at C. for D. to
Question 16: With his good sense of humor, Martin is quite ___________ with the students.
A. popular B. popularly C. popularity D. popularize
Question 17: It’s not my __________ to tell you how to run your life, but I think you should settle down
and have a family.
A. chore B. work C. job D. career
Question 18: As they remembered __________ about the danger of getting lost in the forest, the tourists
closely followed the tour guide.
A. being warned B. warning C. to be warmed D. to warn
Question 19: The little boy took an instant liking to his babysitter __________ .
A. as soon as he meets her B. before he first met her
C. upon their first meeting D. prior to their first meeting
Question 20: We __________ on a field trip if the weather is fine this weekend.
A. would go B. went C. could have gone D. will go
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three
in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions.
Question 21: A. remove B. carry C. protect D. consist
Question 22: A. continent B. principal C. solution D. passenger
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs
from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 23: A. behaved B. travelled C. combined D. practiced
Question 24: A. touch B. ground C. shout D. round
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each
pair of sentences in the following questions.
Question 25: Smartphones are becoming reasonably priced. New applications make them more
appealing.
A. Appealing though smartphones are with new applications, they are becoming less affordably priced.
B. No matter how reasonable the prices of smartphones are, they are not so appealing with new
applications.

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C. Not only are smartphones becoming more affordable but, with new applications, they ae also more
appealing.
D. Whatever new applications smartphones have, they are becoming more appealing with reasonable
prices.
Question 26: Peter moved abroad for a fresh start. He regrets it now.
A. If only Peter had moved abroad for a fresh start.
B. If Peter moved abroad for a fresh start, he would regret it.
C. Peter regrets not having moved abroad for a fresh start.
D. Peter wishes he hadn’t moved abroad for a fresh start.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction
in each of the following questions.
Question 27: At the beginning of the ceremony, there was a respectable one-minute silence in
remembrance of the victims of the earthquake.
Question 28: My mother gets up usually early to prepare breakfast for the whole family.
Question 29: The money raised in the appeal will use to help those in need in remote areas.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to
each of the following questions.
Question 30: My father likes reading newspaper more than watching TV.
A. My father doesn’t like watching TV as much as reading newspapers.
B. My father likes watching TV as much as reading newspapers.
C. My father doesn’t like reading newspapers as much as watching TV.
D. My father likes watching TV more than reading newspapers.
Question 31: “How long have you lived here, Lucy?” asked Jack.
A. Jack asked Lucy how long did she live here.
B. Jack asked Lucy how long she lived here.
C. Jack asked Lucy how long had she lived there.
D. Jack asked Lucy how long she had lived there.
Question 32: It was wrong of you to criticize your son in front of his friends.
A. You could have criticized you son in front of his friends.
B. You mightn’t have criticized your son in front of his friends.
C. You shouldn’t have criticized your son in front of his friends.
D. You must have criticized you son in front of his friends.
Read the following passage and Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct word of phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 33 to 37.
Becoming an independent language learner.
In an educational text, the term ‘learner independence’ has gained increasing importance in recent
years. It is of particular (33)__________ to language learning and commonly refers to the way students
confidently control and organize their own language learning process. While some people seem to have an
almost (34)__________ flair for languages, others have to rely on strategies to maximize their skills and
learn a foreign language more effectively.
The main thing to remember is that becoming a truly independent learner ultimately depends above
all on taking responsibility for your own learning and being prepared to take every opportunity available
to you to learn. You also increase your chances of (35)__________ be learning according to your own
needs and interests, using all available resources. Research shows that learners (36)__________ adopt this

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approach will undoubtedly manage to broaden their language abilities considerably and, (37)__________,
are more likely to achieve their objectives in the longer term.
(Adapted from “complete advanced” by Laura Mathews and Barbara Thomas)
Questions 33: A acceptance B relevance C acquaintance D resemblance
Questions 34: A spiritual B instinctive C habitual D perceptive
Questions 35: A successfully B succeed C success D successful
Questions 36: A which B who C where D why
Questions 37: A though B because C in contrast D as a result

Read the following passage Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct
answer to each of the questions from 38 to 42.
Tribal tourism is a relatively new type of tourism. It involves travelers going to remote
destinations, staying with local people and learning about their culture and way of life. They stay in local
accommodation, share facilities with local people, and join in with meals and celebrations. At the
moment, less than one percent of holidays are tribal tourism holidays, but this is set to change.
Tribal tourism is often compared with foreign exchange visits. However, a foreign exchange
involves staying with people who often share the same values. Tribal tourism takes visitors to places
where the lifestyle is very different from that in their home location. Those who have been on a tribal
holiday explain that experiencing this lifestyle is the main attraction. They say that it offers them the
chance to live in a way they never have before.
Not everyone is convinced that tribal tourism is a good thing, and opinions are divided. The
argument is about whether or not it helps the local population, or whether it exploits them. The main
problem is that, because tribal tourism is relatively new, the long-term influences on local populations
have not been studied in much detail. Where studies have been carried out, the effects have been found to
be negative.
So, is it possible to experience an exotic culture without harming it in some way? “With a bit of
thought, we can maximize the positive influences and minimize the negative,” says travel company
director Hilary Waterhouse. “The most important thing for tribal tourist is to show respect for, learn
about, and be aware of, local customs and traditions. Always remember you’re a guest.”
(Adapted from “Complete IELTS” by Raedoo Wyall)
Question 38: Which best serves as the title for the passage?
A. An Old Tourist Destination B. Different Customs of a Tribe
C. Holidays with a Difference D. Peak Holiday Seasons.
Question 39: The word “They” in paragraph 1 refers to __________.
A. facilities B. local people C. remote destinations D. travelers
Question 40: According to paragraph 2, what is the main attraction of tribal tourism?
A. Tourists can interact with other foreign visitors.
B. Tourists can stay with people of the same values.
C. Tourists can explore beauty spots in remote areas.
D. Tourists can experience a different lifestyle.
Question 41: The word “divided” in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to __________.
A. interesting B. similar C. important D. different
Question 42: According to Hilary Waterhouse, the most important things for a tribal tourist is to
_________.

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A. Forget about negative experiences B. Respect local customs and traditions
C. Learn about other guests D. Be accompanied by other travelers
Read the following passage and Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the questions from 43 to 50.
E-waste is being produced on a scale never seen before. Computers and other electronic
equipment become obsolete in just a few years, leaving customers with little choice but to buy newer ones
to keep up. Millions of tons of computers, TVs, smartphones, and other equipment are discarded each
year. In most countries, all this waste ends up in landfills, where it poisons the environment – e-waste
contains many toxic substances such as lead, mercury, and arsenic that leak into the ground.
Recycling is the ideal solution to the problem. E-waste contains significant amounts of valuable
metals like gold and silver that make it attractive to recycle. In theory, recycling gold from old computers
is more efficient – and less environmentally destructive – than digging it from the earth. The problem is
that a large percentage of e-waste dropped off for recycling in wealthy countries is sold and diverted to
the developing world, posing an increasing threat to the health of the people there.
To address the problem of the international trade in e-waste, 170 nations signed the 1989 Basel
Convention, an agreement requiring that developed nations notify developing nations of hazardous waste
shipments to poor countries completely. Although the ban hasn’t taken effect, the European Union, where
recycling infrastructure is well developed, has already written it into their laws. One lay holds
manufacturers responsible for the safe disposal of electronics they produce.
Companies like Creative Recycling Systems in Florida, the USA, are hoping to profit from clean
e-waste recycling. The key to their business is a huge, building-size machine able to separate electronic
products into their component materials. As the machine’s steel teeth break up e-waste, all the toxic dust
is removed from the process. This machine can handle some 70,000 tons of electronics a year. Although
this is only a fraction of the total, it wouldn’t take many more machines like this to process the entire
USA’s output of high-tech trash.
Unfortunately, under current policies, domestic processing of e-waste is not compulsory, and
while shipping waste abroad is ethically questionable, it is still more profitable than processing it safely in
the USA. Creative Recycling Systems is hoping that the US government will soon create laws deterring
people from sending e-waste overseas.
(Adapted from “Reading Explorer” by Paul Macintyre and Nancy Hubley)
Question 43: Which best serves as the title for the passage?
A. Domestic Recycling: Pros and Cons B. Waste Recycling: A Storm in a Teacup
C. E-waste – An Export Commodity of the Future D. E-waste – A Mess to Clear up
Question 44: The word “obsolete” in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to _________.
A. incomplete B. outdated C. inaccurate D. broken
Question 45: As stated in paragraph 2, a large percentage of e-waste meant for recycling in the developed
countries _________.
A. is buried deep in the soil at landfills B. is later recycled in local factories
C. is eventually sent to developing nations D. contains as all valuable metals except gold.
Question 46: The word “notify” in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to __________.
Excuse notice assure inform
Question 47:The word “it” in paragraph 3 refers to __________.
A. recycling infrastructure B. the European Union
C. the Basel Convention D. the ban
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Question 48: According to the European Union’s laws, electronics manufacturers are required to ______.
A. Upgrade their recycling infrastructure regularly
B. Take responsibility for disposing of their products safely
C. Sell their e-waste to developed nations only
D. Sign the Basel Convention
Question 49: Which of the following statements is TRUE, according to the passage?
A. The Basel Convention originally banned the import of high-tech trash into European countries.
B. Creative Recycling Systems has made a fortune from their recycling machine.
C. The USA’s total e-waste output amounts to 70,000 tons per year.
D. Shipping e-waste abroad yields greater profit than recycling it safely in the USA.
Question 50: Which of the following can be inferred from the passage?
A. Most countries have made enormous efforts to manage their e-waste exports.
B. Legislative action is fundamental to solving the problem of e-waste effectively.
C. Strict laws against sending e-waste abroad have recently been upheld in Florida.
D. Developing nations benefit more from the trade in e-waste than their developed counterparts.

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