GENERAL INSTRUCTION IN EXAMINATION HALL

Time Allotted: 2 Hours Maximum Marks: 300

 Do not open this Test Booklet until you are asked to do so.
 Please read the instructions carefully. You are allotted 5 minutes specifically for this purpose.

Important Instructions:
1. Immediately fill in the particulars on this page of the Test Booklet with Blue / Black Ball Point Pen. Use of
pencil is strictly prohibited.

2. The Answer Sheet is kept inside this Test Booklet. When you are directed to open the Test Booklet, take out
the Answer Sheet and fill in the particulars carefully.

3. The test is of 2 hours duration.

4. The Test Booklet consists of 75 questions. The maximum marks are 300.
5. There are FIVE parts in the question paper consisting of MENTAL ABILITY, PHYSICS, CHEMISTRY,
BIOLOGY and MATHS .

6. For each right answer you will be awarded + 4 marks if you darken the bubble corresponding to the correct
answer and Zero marks if no bubble is darkened or in case of bubbling of incorrect answer.

7. Use Blue / Black Ball Point Pen only for writing particulars / marking responses on the Answer Sheet.
Use of pencil is strictly prohibited.

8. No candidate is allowed to carry any textual material, printed or written, bits of papers, pager, mobile
phone, any electronic device, etc. except the Admit Card inside the examination hall / room.

9. On completion of the test, the candidate must hand over the Answer Sheet to the Invigilator on duty in the
Room / Hall.

10. Do not fold or make any stray marks on the Answer Sheet.

Name of the Candidate (in Capital Letters) :_______________________________________________

Branch :____________________________________________________________________________

Batch :________________________ Date of Examination : _________________________________

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SECTION : A (MENTAL ABILITY)

1. Which of the following options will complete the series ?

3, 2, 11, 4, 35, 8, 107, 16, ?
(A) 321 (B) 323 (C) 32 (D) 120

2. Find the missing term in the following sequence.

ACH, FAI, JYK, MWN, ________
(A) PVS (B) OUR (C) PTQ (D) OTS

3. In a certain code, 'LINGER' is written as 123456 and 'FORCE' is written as

78695, then how is 'FIERCE' be written in that code?
(A) 127569 (B) 725695 (C) 345677 (D) 526789

4. B is the South-West of A. C is to the East of B and South-East of A and D is to the

North of C in line with B and A. In which direction of A is D located ?
(A) North-West (B) South-West (C) South-East (D) North-East

5. Rahul told Anand, "Yesterday I defeated the only brother of the daughter of my
grandmother. "Whom did Rahul defeat ?
(A) Son (B) Father (C) Brother (D) Father-in-law

6. If 'you stands for '  ', 'are' stands for '+' and 'great' stands for '×', then what will
be the value of '50 you 2 are 3 great 4' ?
(A) 32 (B) 37
(C) 47 (D) 73

7. Study the given arrangement and answer the question that follows :
W-2SI*N1L@=BD36DHJ9#7PK$V&84M
If the symbols and numbers are interchanged serially as they appear in the arrangement
such as - with 2, * with 1, @ with 3 and so on, then which element will be the 17 th
element to the right of the 20th element from the right end in the new arrangement ?
(A) 8 (B) $ (C) 4 (D) #

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8. Six friends are sitting around a circle facing the centre. Varun is between Rahul and
Ankit, Amit is between Latika and Garima, Rahul and Latika are opposite to each
other. Garima is to the left of Amit. Who are the neighbours of Latika ?
(A) Rahul and Varun (B) Varun and Amit
(C) Amit and Ankit (D) Garima and Amit

9. Which of the following Venn diagrams depicts the relationship amongst, "Prism,
Cuboid, Triangle" ?

(A) (B) (C) (D)

10. Select the correct mirror image of Figure (X)

(A) (B) (C) (D)

SECTION : B (PHYSICS)

11. Electric current can be measured by

(A) Ammeter (B) Voltmeter (C) Speedometer (D) None of these

12. If the electronic charge is 1.6 × 10–19 C, then the number of electrons passing
through a section of wire per second, when the wire carries a current of 2ampere is
(A) 1.2 × 10–12 A (B) 1.25 × 1019 A (C) 1.6 × 10–8 A (D) 1.6 × 104 A

13. Keeping the potential difference constant, the resistance of a circuit is doubled. By
how much does the current charge?
(A) Remains constant (B) Gets halved
(C) Gets doubled (D) Gets quadrupled

14. The ratio of the C.G.S unit of pressure to the S.I unit of pressure is
(A) 10 (B) 0.1 (C) 5 (D) 15

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15. The liquid used in Barometer is

(A) mercury (B) kerosene (C) water (D) alcohol

16. Every body in this universe attracts every other body with a force known as
(A) force of gravitation (B) electrostatic force
(C) magnetic force (D) All of these

17. Force of gravitation can be between

(A) moon and the earth (B) sun and the earth
(C) moon and the sun (D) all of these

18. The ratio of Diplacement to distance is

(A) Always = 1 (B) Always, < 1 (C) Always,  1 (D) Always  1

19. A boy travels distance of 3 km east, these 6 km towards north and finally 5 km
towards east find total distance ?
(A) 10 km (B) 14 km (C) 24 km (D) 10 2 km

20. The degree of hotness or coldness of the body is called

(A) heat (B) temperature (C) pressure (D) force

21. Which of the following cannot be magnetised?

(A) Iron (B) Nickel (C) Cobalt (D) Stainless steel

22. S.I. unit used to measure area is

(A) m2 (B) mm2 (C) cm2 (D) km2

23. Beating of a drum can be termed as which of the following type of motion
(A) Periodic motion (B) Rectilinear motion
(C) Rotatory motion (D) Circular motion

24. Light wave is an example of

(A) Longitudinal wave (B) Electromagnetic
(C) Transverse wave (D) Both (2) & (3)

25. When displacement is perpendicular to the force, work done is

(A) positive (B) negative (C) zero (D) may be positive or negative

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SECTION : C (CHEMISTRY)
26. The air cover the earth’s surface up to:
(A) 2000 km (B) 3000 km (C) 1600 km (D) 1000 km

27. Atmosphere consists of oxygen and nitrogen in the ratio of __________ respectively.
(A) 4 :1 (B) 1 : 4 (C) 2 : 3 (D) 3 : 1

28. The mercury column is called_______.

(A) Atmospheric pressure (B) Atmospheric volume
(C) Atmospheric energy (D) Atmospheric weight

29. Normal atmospheric pressure is........ of mercury column.

(A) 76m.m. (B) 76 m (C) 760 mm (D) 76 km

30. Atom is electriccally neutral because of:

(A) The presence of protons (B) The presence of neutrons
(C) The presence of equal number of protons and electrons
(D) The presence of equal number of protons and neutrons

31. The electron is:

(A)  -ray particle (B)  -ray particle (C) Hydrogen ion (D) Positron

32. Rutherford identified the existence of protons at the centre of the atom in his
experiment by:
(A) The deflection of alpha particle (B) The absorption of alpha rays
(C) The retention of alpha rays (D) None

33. Duplet configuration is not found in:

(A) Hydride ion (B) Hydrogen molecule (C) Lithium cation (D) Be+

34. The maximum valency of an element with atomic number 7 is:

(A) 2 (B) 5 (C) 4 (D) 3

35. While bursting crackers it is safe to wear clothes made of

(A) nylon (B) polyesters (C) cotton (D) silk

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36. The best soil for the growth of cotton plant is

(A) black soil (B) red soil (C) desert soil (D) laterite soil

37. An element ‘A’ reacts with a compound ‘B’ forms a lightest gas ‘C’.
A is an element with atomic number 26, with variable valency +2 its “ous” state, +3
to its ‘ic state.
‘B’ is a compound formed by a lightest element and poisonous gas used for
purification of water.
Identify A, B and C
A B C
(A) Mg NO2 O2
(B) Fe HCl H2
(C) Na HCl NO2
(D) Al NO2 HCl

38. Choose the false statement.

(A) Oxygen is also known to be active air.
(B) Oxygen is also known to be water maker.
(C) Oxygen is also known to be fire air.
(D) Oxygen is also known to be acid former.

39. The amount of water content in the human body is :

(A) 40% (B) 10% (C) 70% (D) 50%

40. The constituents of water can be separated by:

(A) Electrolysis (B) Photosynthesis
(C) Resipiration (D) Photolysis

SECTION : D (BIOLOGY)

41. Which of the following is a unicellular animal?

(A) Jelly fish (B) Mimosa pudica (C) Amoeba (D) None of these

42. Our skeleton has ........... bones.

(A) 306 (B) 206 (C) 406 (D) 506

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43. Which of the bone structure protect the lungs in our body?
(A) Rib cage (B) Skull (C) Vertebral column (D) All of these

44. Which of the following is made up of aminoacids ?

(A) Carbohydrates (B) Fats
(C) Proteins (D) None of these

45. Full form of P.E.M is

(A) Protein egg malnutrition (B) Protein energy malnutrition
(C) Pulses egg malnutrition (D) None of these

46. This mineral is required to prevent Goitre

(A) Iodine (B) calcium
(C) Phosphorus (D) sodium

47. Composting is the process of

(A) recycling of waste
(B) reuse of waste
(C) decomposition of waste by microorganisms
(D) treating waste with chemicals

48. Garbage can be used for

(A) generating electricity (B) generating cooking gas
(C) producing compost (D) all of these

49. Which of the following rot completely?

(A) Left over food (B) Broken glass
(C) Aluminium wrapper (D) Polythene bags

50. Carrot, radish and turnip are

(A) Modified stem (B) Modified root
(C) Modified leaf (D) Modified fruit

51. Potato is an underground :

(A) Root (B) Leaf (C) Stem (D) Fruits

52. The part of plant which grows above the ground is_____.
(A) Shoot system (B) Root system (C) both a & b (D) None

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53. Which one is not a noctural animal?

(A) Bat (B) Owl (C) Camel (D) Cockroach.

54. Which one of the following is a cold habitat animal ?

(A) Camel (B) Whales (C) Snow-bear (D) Proteus.

55. Which part of the plant is cabbage?

(A) Root (B) Fruit (C) Leaves (D) Flower

SECTION : E (MATHEMATICS)
56. If the mean of 5 observations x, x  2, x  4, x  6 and x  8 is 11, then the mean of the
last three observations is
(A) 11 (B) 13 (C) 15 (D) 17

57. The batting average for 40 innings of a cricket player is 50 runs. His highest score
exceeds his lowest score by 172 runs. If these two innings are excluded, the aver-
age of the remaining 38 innings is 48 runs. The highest score of the player is
(A) 165 runs (B) 170 runs (C) 172 runs (D) 174 runs

6 9
58. If  then the value of 2m  1 is ____________
3m  1 5m  3
(A) 15 (B)17 (C) 19 (D) 23

59. If (2 + x) : (7 + x) :: (10 + x) : (25 + x), then ‘x’ is ________

(A) Even prime (B) Odd prime
(C) Leavst Natural number (D) Least whole number

 26 13x 9
60. The value of the expression  when x = is
3 27 13
(A) – 8 (B) – 10 (C) – 9 (D) – 11

61. Degree of the polynomial p + q xm + rxm + 2 + 5xm + 3 + xm + 4 is

(A) m (B) m + 2 (C) m + 3 (D) m+ 4

62. The place value of ‘6’ in the decimal number 4608.53 is

(A) 60 (B) 600 (C) 6000 (D) 6

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4 7
63. The short form of 30 + 5 + + is
10 100
(A) 35.407 (B) 34.047 (C) 35.47 (D) 35.74

64. Of three collinear points A,B, and C, if AB + BC = AC, then we say that
(A) A is between B and C (B) B is between A and C
(C) C is between A and B (D) none of these

65. An angle whose measure is 1800 is called

(A) Right angle (B) Reflex angle
(C) Straight angle (D) Obtuse angle

66. Write the integers -61,-36,3,-3,6,-6 in descending order

(A) - 36 > 3 > - 3 > - 61 > 6 > - 6 (B) 6 > 3 > - 3 > - 36 > - 6 > - 61
(C) 6 > 3 > - 3 > - 6 > - 36 > - 61 (D) - 61 > - 36 > - 6 > - 3> 3> 6

67. The domain of the inequation 6x-7  29 where x  N is ___

(A) {6,7,8,......} (B) {3,4,5,....}
(C){0,1,2,3,4,5} (D) {0,1,2,3}

68. If 5 + { 2x + (4x - 2 )- 2 } = 0, then x is

1 1 1 1
(A) (B) (C) (D)
2 6 6 2

69. In a triangle angles are in the ratio 1 : 1 : 2 then corresponding

sides ratio is
(A) 1 :1: 2 (B) 1: 2 :1 (C) 1 : 1 : 1 (D) 1: 3 : 2

70. In which of the following diagonals need not to bisect each other
(A) Rhombus (B) square
(C) parallelogram (D) trapezium

71. The smallest 5 digit number having 4-different digits is

(A) 10023 (B) 10021 (C) 10121 (D) 10320

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72. 45% of 750 - 25% of 480 = ?

(A) 216 (B) 217.50 (C) 236.50 (D) 245

73. Peter purchased a machine for Rs.80,000 and spent Rs. 5000 on repair and Rs.
1000 on transport and soled it with 25% profit. At what price did he sell the ma-
chine?
(A) Rs. 1,05,100 (B) Rs. 1,06,250
(C) Rs. 1,07,500 (D) None of these

74. If 2 A  3B and 4 B  5C , then A : C is.

(A) 4 : 3 (B) 8 :15 (C) 15 : 8 (D) 3: 4

a b c abc
75. If   , then is equal to.
3 4 7 c
1 1
(A) 7 (B) 2 (C) (D)
2 7

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