Level M Biology Course Revision Questions

Chapter 1 Nutrition in Humans

Section 1.1 Nutrition and Its Importance
1.Define the term nutrition.
Nutrition refers to the intake and subsequent absorption of nutrients by an organism for
energy production, growth and development, tissue repair, and other vital processes.
2.What is the amount of energy per one gram of each of the following nutrients?
a) fats
9 Calories or 9 kcal
b) carbohydrates
4 Calories or 4 kcal
c) proteins
4 Calories or 4 kcal
Section 1.2 Nutrients and Their Natural Sources
3.[G] Identify the major dietary sources of carbohydrates, fats, proteins, iron,
calcium, vitamin C, and vitamin D.
• Sugars are found in many fruits (e.g., cherries and grapes) and vegetables (e.g.,
onions and sweet potatoes), as well as in some animal products, such as milk and
honey. Starch is only present in food types of plant origin, such as potatoes, yams,
cassava, peas, cereal grains, and beans.
• Red meat, eggs, and dairy products (e.g., milk, butter, and cheese) are rich in
saturated fats. White meats (e.g., chicken meat) and fish contain less saturated fats
and more unsaturated fats than red meat. Vegetable oils are mostly made of
unsaturated fats. Also, the majority of fats present in avocados are unsaturated fats.
• Red meat, fish, poultry, eggs, and dairy products are important animal sources of
essential amino acids. Several food types of plant origin, such as beans, peas, and
peanuts, also contain some essential amino acids.
• Red meat (especially liver meat), dark green leafy vegetables (e.g., spinach), beans,
and lentils are all rich sources of iron.
• Calcium is mainly present in dairy products, eggs, and some green leafy vegetables.
• Vitamin C is mainly found in fresh citrus fruits; it can also be found in other foods,
such as fresh tomatoes and cabbage.
• Vitamin D can be obtained from dietary sources such as egg yolk, certain types of
fish, and liver meat.
4.[G] Identify the major roles of carbohydrates, fats, proteins, iron, calcium, vitamin
C, vitamin D, and water in the human body.
• Carbohydrates constitute a major energy source for humans. During digestion,
starch and most of the sugars present in food are broken down into glucose, which is
the main substrate of cellular respiration and is used by cells as an immediate source
of energy. The insoluble fiber adds bulk to fecal material in the large intestine
because it is hard and indigestible.
• Fats serve as sources of energy; serve as long-term energy storage molecules, form
insulating layers under the skin that help reduce heat loss and provide protection for
internal organs.
• Proteins are required in the body for the growth and repair of body tissues such as
muscles, blood, cartilage, and bones. Proteins are required for the synthesis of

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 enzymes, hormones, and other vital molecules. Proteins can be used as an energy
source.
• Iron ions are needed for the formation of hemoglobin, an oxygen-carrying pigment
present in red blood cells. Iron ions are also needed for the proper functioning of
muscles and some enzymes in the body.
• Calcium is deposited in the form of calcium phosphate in bones and teeth, and it is
essential for their health. Calcium ions are also present in blood plasma and play an
important role in the process of blood clotting. Moreover, the chemical changes
associated with muscle contraction and nerve impulse transmission also require
calcium ions.
• Vitamin C is needed to maintain the health of the gums and skin. It is involved in
the synthesis of collagen, a protein that helps keep skin firm and resilient. It is also
needed for tissue repair and for the proper functioning of some body systems, such
as the immune system.
• Vitamin D is needed for the proper absorption of calcium in the intestine.
Consequently, it is required for the formation of strong bones and teeth.
• Water is the solvent in which nutrients, hormones, waste products, and other
chemicals get dissolved in the body. Water is the transport medium for the
distribution of nutrients to body organs and for the collection of waste products for
excretion. Water is the medium in which chemical reactions take place inside the
cells. Water itself is a reactant in many vital chemical reactions. Water plays a
crucial role in cooling the body through the process of sweating.
5.Describe how fiber can help regulate bowel movement.
The insoluble fiber adds bulk to fecal material in the large intestine because it is hard
and indigestible; this stimulates the muscles of the alimentary canal to contract and
relax repetitively in a process known as peristalsis, which squeezes the food and moves
it along the digestive tract.
6.Differentiate between saturated and unsaturated fats.
Saturated fats are usually solids at room temperature and contain fatty acid chains that
lack double bonds between the carbon atoms. Unsaturated fats are generally liquids at
room temperature and contain fatty acid chains with a least one C=C double bond.
7.Define the term essential amino acids.
Essential amino acids are those that cannot by synthesized by the human body and have
to be obtained through dietary sources.

Section 1.3 Nutrients and Their Natural Sources

8.Why should processed food be avoided?

Processed food (e.g., salted snacks and sweets) should be avoided because it usually
contains large amounts of added saturated fats, salts, and sugars, and is poor in fiber,
vitamins, minerals, and other nutrients.
9.[G] Explain how the energy needs of humans are affected by several factors.
Energy requirements increase with physical activity; thus, physically active
individuals need to consume more food than those leading sedentary lives. Also, male
adults generally have a higher basal metabolic rate than female adults. The basal
metabolic rate decreases gradually with age in adults. Thus, older individuals
generally require less food than young adults. Pregnant and lactating women usually
have slightly higher energy and calcium requirements than other female adults;
additionally, pregnant women may have higher iron requirements. Children need to
consume foods that are rich in calcium (e.g., dairy products) for bone growth.

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10.
a. Define the term unbalanced diet.
An unbalanced diet is a diet that provides inappropriate (i.e., too much or too
little) amounts or proportions of the nutrients required by the body.
b. Define the term malnutrition.
Malnutrition is a condition in which the body has an excess or a deficit of calorie
intake and/or an imbalance in one or more nutrients.
11. [G] Describe the effects of malnutrition in relation to obesity and coronary heart
disease.
The intake of more calories than what is required by the body will result in weight
gain. Thus, ingesting excess amounts of food for a prolonged period of time causes
the body to become overweight and eventually obese. Obesity is a condition
characterized by being extremely overweight. Heart diseases are more likely to occur
in individuals whose diets contain large amounts of food that is rich in saturated fats
and cholesterol. These fats tend to make arteries narrower by accumulating on their
inner walls. This can increase blood pressure and cause diseases such as coronary
artery disease (CAD), also called coronary heart disease (CHD).
Obesity can lead to joint problems due to the extra amounts of weight being imposed
on the legs. It can also increase the risk for many health problems such as diabetes,
strokes, and heart diseases.
12. How can food labels help individuals make healthy food choices?
Food labels typically provide the consumer with information about the number of
calories and the types and amounts of nutrients found in each product. This allows for
the proper comparison between food products to help consumers make healthy food
choices.
13. [G] Give examples of health problems associated with nutrient deficiencies.
• Iron deficiency can result in anemia, which is a health condition characterized by an
insufficient amount of hemoglobin or healthy red blood cells to carry oxygen to all
body organs. Individuals suffering from anemia typically look pale and feel tired.
• A shortage of calcium can result in impaired growth in children. Calcium deficiency
can also lead to fragile bones, weak teeth, and poor blood clotting in both children
and adults.
• Vitamin C deficiency can lead to a condition known as scurvy. This condition is
characterized by bleeding gums and wounds that do not heal properly. It is also
characterized by joint pain.
• Vitamin D deficiency can lead to a condition known as rickets, which is mainly
observed in children. This condition can cause bones to become soft and deformed.
Similar to calcium deficiency, vitamin D deficiency in adults generally leads to
weak bones and teeth and a high risk of bone fractures.
• Fiber is known for its role in the regulation of bowel movement. This is why a diet
poor in fiber is likely to cause constipation, a condition characterized by infrequent
and, sometimes, painful bowel evacuation.
• Kwashiorkor is caused by a lack of proteins in the diet.
• Marasmus is caused by a lack of many nutrients, mostly proteins and carbohydrates,
and a low overall caloric intake.
14. All living things need a supply of food materials. The following pie chart shows
some components of a meal, A, for a typical adult human.

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The table below shows some components of a second meal, B, which is eaten by a
pregnant woman.

a. Plot the data from the table onto the provided blank pie chart.

Water: 9 divisions (blue)

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 Carbohydrate: 4 divisions (purple)
Fiber: 3 divisions (dark green)
Protein: 3 divisions (light green)
Fat: 1 division (white)
b. Explain one way in which meal B is more suitable than meal A for a pregnant
woman.
Meal B contains more proteins that meal A. These are needed for making the
tissues of the baby.
c. Suggest, with a reason, which mineral would be needed in larger amounts by
a woman when she becomes pregnant.
Iron is essential in a pregnant woman’s diet since it is used to make the
hemoglobin in the baby’s blood. (Calcium is also a correct answer.)

Chapter 2 The Human Digestive System

Section 2.1 Food Processing in Humans
1. [G] Define ingestion, digestion, absorption, assimilation, and egestion.
• Ingestion involves the taking in of food and drink substances through the mouth.
• Digestion is the breaking down of large, insoluble molecules into smaller, water-
soluble molecules by mechanical and chemical processes (including enzymes).
Digestion begins in the mouth and ends in the small intestine.
• Absorption is the process during which the small, water-soluble molecules and ions
produced by digestion pass into the bloodstream. Absorption mostly occurs in the
small intestine.
• Assimilation is the uptake of nutrients (e.g. glucose and amino acids) from the
bloodstream by body cells where they are subsequently used.
• Egestion is the process of expelling out of the body through the anus, the food
molecules that are not digested and absorbed, in the form of feces. The undigested
food consists of the fiber/roughage that cannot be digested in our bodies.

Section 2.2 Teeth

2. [G]
a.What are the different types of human teeth?
• Adult humans have four types of teeth: incisors, canines, molars, and premolars.
• Incisors are found at the front of the mouth. They are chisel-shaped and are used for
biting and cutting pieces of food. Humans have eight incisors in total; they have
four incisors in the upper jaw and four incisors in the bottom jaw.
• Canine teeth are found directly next to the incisor teeth, at each of their sides. They
are more pointed than the incisors. Like incisors, canine teeth are used for biting and
cutting pieces of food. There are two canines in each jaw (i.e., the upper and the
lower jaws) thus, humans have four canines in total.
• Premolars and molars have a broader surface for processing food than incisors and
canines. Premolars are located directly behind the canine teeth. Each premolar has
two or more elevated tips, called cusps, which are used for crushing and grinding
food. Adult humans have eight premolars, four in each jaw.
• Molars are found at the back of the jaw, behind the premolars. Molars are similar to
premolars but are slightly larger, with four or five cusps each. Molars are also used
to crush and grind food. Adult humans have twelve molars in total, six in each jaw.
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 • Incisors and canines typically have single roots. Most premolars have a single root,
but some have two roots. Molars typically have two or three roots.

Type of teeth Number Position Function

Incisors 8 At the front of mouth Bite off small pieces of food
Canines 4 Right behind incisors Sharp and pointed to hold and
pierce prey.
Premolars 8 At the side of the jaw Crush and grind food
Molars 12 At the back of the jaw Crush and grind food

b. What are the main parts of a human tooth?

• In humans, teeth are embedded in sockets in the jawbones. These sockets are sealed
by a soft tissue called the gum, which surrounds the teeth tightly like a collar.
• The visible part of a tooth that projects into the oral cavity is called the crown.
• The crown of the tooth is covered by the enamel, the white to off-white, non-living
substance.
• Beneath the enamel lies a softer, bone-like layer called the dentine.
• The dentine is a living part of the tooth that contains strands of cytoplasm. It is
provided with oxygen and nutrients by the pulp cavity, which is found at the center
of the tooth and contains blood vessels and nerve endings.
• The part of the tooth that is embedded in the gum is called the root. The root is not
covered by enamel; instead, a thin layer of hard mineralized tissue called cement
surrounds the root.
• Ligaments containing protein fibers extend from the cement to the jawbone to
anchor the tooth in its socket.
3. State some roles of gums.
Gums can act as shock absorbents; they protect the underlying bone from damage during
chewing. Gums also form a barrier against infection of underlying tissues.
4. Study the diagram below which shows human dentition. Note the position of the
various teeth type and label 1 – 4.
(1) (2) (3) (4)

– [Incisor] 2 – [Canine] 3 – [Premolar] 4 – [Molar]

5. Compare and contrast between milk teeth and permanent teeth.
• Milk teeth are the first set of teeth that start to emerge from the gum at around the
age of 5 months. This set includes 20 teeth: eight incisors, four canines, and eight
molars and should be complete at an average age of two and a half years. Milk teeth
start to fall out around the age of 7 and are replaced by permanent teeth.

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 • The permanent teeth set includes 32 teeth; eight premolars and four additional
molars are added to the 20 milk teeth that have been replaced by permanent teeth.
The last four molars to grow (sometimes called wisdom teeth) usually emerge
between the ages of 17 and 25. If permanent teeth are damaged, they do not grow
back. However, permanent teeth can last a lifetime if they are looked after properly.
6. [G] State the causes of dental decay.
• After a meal, food containing sugar is left behind in the teeth.
• The bacteria feed on sugar, then respire anaerobically changing the sugar into lactic
acid.
• The lactic acid dissolves the calcium in the hard enamel and causes tooth decay,
which is manifested by the appearance of dental caries/cavities in the tooth.
• Tooth decay may spread deep into the tooth if not managed properly and can grow
larger as the lactic acid dissolves the softer dentine.
• A dentist can clean and fill the cavities if they are discovered at early stages. If not
the bacterial infection might reach advantages stages such as spreading to the pulp
cavity where nerve endings are present, causing a toothache.
7. [T] The drawing below shows a vertical section through a human tooth.

a. Name the structures labelled A, B, C, D, and E.

A: enamel
B: dentine
C: pulp/pulp cavity
D: gum
E: jawbone
b. What is one function of structure D?
Structure D or the gum can act as a shock absorbent; it protects the underlying bone
from damage during chewing. OR
It forms a barrier against the infection of the underlying tissues.
c. Tooth decay is caused when bacteria reach structure B. Explain how bacteria
can reach this structure.
After a meal, food containing sugar is left behind in the teeth.
The bacteria feed on sugar, then respire anaerobically changing the sugar into lactic
acid.
The lactic acid dissolves the calcium in the hard enamel and causes tooth decay,
which is manifested by the appearance of dental caries/cavities in the tooth.

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 Tooth decay may spread deep into the tooth if not managed properly and can grow
larger as the lactic acid dissolves the softer dentine.
A dentist can clean and fill the cavities if they are discovered at early stages. If not
the bacterial infection might reach advantages stages such as spreading to the pulp
cavity where nerve endings are present, causing a toothache.
8. Distinguish between mechanical and chemical digestion.
• Mechanical digestion involves the physical breakdown of large food particles into
smaller ones without chemically altering the food particles.
• Chewing, grinding and churning of food are examples of mechanical digestion.
• The cutting, chewing, and grinding of food by teeth is an example of mechanical
digestion.
• Mechanical digestion aids chemical digestion by breaking food into smaller pieces,
thereby increasing the surface area. This allows increased accessibility to digestive
enzymes.
• Chemical digestion involves the chemical breakdown of food molecules into smaller,
more water-soluble ones by the action of digestive enzymes.

Chapter 2 The Human Digestive System

Section 2.3 The Alimentary Canal
9. [G] What are the main organs of the alimentary canal?
The alimentary canal also called the digestive tract or gut is a long tube running through the
body from the mouth to the anus.
The main organs that make up the alimentary canal are the mouth, esophagus, stomach,
small intestine and large intestine.
10. The diagram below represents the human digestive system. Label the letters A-I.

A- [mouth]
B- [salivary glands]
C- [esophagus]
D- [Liver]
E-[stomach]
F- [Gall bladder]
G- [Pancreas]

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 H- [Large intestine]
I-[small intestine]
11. Describe the roles of the main components of saliva.
• Saliva is a mixture of water, mucus, and salivary amylase.
• Water in saliva provides the medium needed to dissolve food molecules, which can
then stimulate taste receptors.
• Saliva contains mucus which allows food particles to stick together forming a soft
lubricated ball-like mixture known as a bolus that can be easily swallowed.
• The enzyme salivary amylase starts the digestion of the starch found in the ingested
food, breaking it down into a soluble disaccharide sugar called maltose.
12. What is the main role of the esophagus?
The main role of the esophagus is to transport food from the mouth to the stomach in one
direction through peristaltic movements.
13. [G] What is peristalsis?
Peristalsis is the repetitive contraction and relaxation of the smooth muscles that pushes food
in one direction down the alimentary canal.
14.
a. Specify the main function of the stomach.
The main function of the stomach is to continue the digestion of food chemically and
mechanically, and to pass it on to the small intestine for further digestion.
b. Indicate the role of gastric glands.
The gastric glands are glands found in the stomach. They secrete gastric juices that
contain hydrochloric acid, the enzyme pepsin and mucus, among other substances.
c. Indicate the function of pepsin.
Pepsin is a protease enzyme that breaks down proteins into smaller polypeptides.
d. How pepsin is first released?
Pepsin is first released by the gastric glands in an inactive form called pepsinogen
which is only converted into the active form pepsin, when hydrochloric acid is
secreted.
15. [G] Identify the functions of hydrochloric acid in the stomach.
Hydrochloric acid in the stomach:
• Helps converting inactive pepsinogen into active pepsin.
• Produces optimum acidic pH for pepsin to work.
• Kills any microorganisms e.g. bacteria or fungi taken in with the food by
denaturing their enzymes.
16. How does the stomach protect itself from self-digestion?
Even though pepsin and hydrochloric acid can be harmful to the stomach wall, they do not
normally damage the inside of the stomach because the stomach is protected from self-
digestion by mucus that forms a layer covering the inner stomach walls and gastric pits.
17.
a.Name the two parts of the small intestine.
The two parts of the small intestine are the duodenum and the ileum. The duodenum
is closest to the stomach. The ileum is closest to the large intestine.
b. What does the duodenum receive from the stomach?
The duodenum receives chyme from the stomach. Chyme is composed of
hydrochloric acid, digestive enzymes, partially digested food and other substances.
c. What is the main role of the pancreas in digestion?
The pancreas secretes digestive juice into the duodenum via a pancreatic duct. This
digestive juice includes the following enzymes: pancreatic lipase, pancreatic
amylase, and trypsin. The pancreatic juices also contain sodium hydrogen carbonate.

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 d. Outline the role of the pancreatic enzymes.
Digestive juices including pancreatic lipase, pancreatic amylase and trypsin pass from
the pancreas to the duodenum where they carry out the following.
• Pancreatic lipase catalyzes the hydrolysis of lipids into fatty acids and glycerol.
• Pancreatic amylase catalyzes the hydrolysis of starch into maltose.
• Trypsin converts the hydrolysis of proteins into polypeptides.
18. G What are the functions of bile in digestion?
Bile is produced by the liver, stored in the gall bladder, and released into the small
intestine to emulsify fats.
Bile contains bile salts that help in the physical breakdown of large lipid globules into
smaller droplets by a process known as emulsification. This helps increase the surface
area of the lipids which allows lipase to act more rapidly.
Moreover, bile is alkaline, so it helps neutralize the acidic chyme that comes from the
stomach, adjusting the pH for digestive enzymes to function properly in the small
intestine.
19.
a. Several enzymes are secreted by the intestinal glands. Name these enzymes.
The enzymes produced by the intestinal glands are maltase, sucrase, lactase,
intestinal lipase and peptidase.
b. Outline the digestion of the disaccharides in the intestinal lumen.
Sucrose is broken down into glucose and fructose by sucrase.
Lactose is broken down into glucose and galactose by lactase.
Maltose is broken down into two molecules of glucose by maltase.
20. [G] Name the main digestive enzymes in the human body and identify each of their
substrates and sites of production.

21.
a. Describe the absorption of digested food molecules.
• Absorption can occur through active or passive transport.
• Absorption of food takes place across the villi in the ileum.
• Inside each villus there is a dense network of blood capillaries and a single lymph
vessel.
• Glucose and amino acids are absorbed into the capillaries.
• Some of the fatty acids and glycerol pass into the capillaries of the villi.
• Some fats move from the intestinal cells into the lacteals which are lymphatic
capillaries. These lacteals carry a fluid called lymph that will rejoin the blood
circulation.

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 • Most water is absorbed in the small intestine.
22. [G] Describe the structural adaptations of the ileum for more efficient absorption.
• In order to allow plenty of time for digested food to be absorbed the ileum has to
be very long.
• The ileum finger like projections called villi which provide its inner surface with a
large surface area.
• Each villus is made up of cells that have numerous small projections on its surface
known as the microvilli. This further increases the surface area for absorption.
• Each villus contains a lacteal for absorption of fat.
• Each villous contains a network of blood capillaries for the absorption of amino
acids, glycerol and some fat.
• In order for the digested food to pass readily, the lining of the epithelium (one cell
thick) is thin.
23.

A. What does the diagram above represent? [villous]

B. Where in the alimentary canal can it be found? [Small intestine]
C. What is structure X? [epithelium]
D. What is structure Y? [blood capillary]
E. What is structure Z? [lacteal]

24. [G] What is the function of the large intestine in the alimentary canal?
The absorption process continues in the large intestine, especially for some mineral salts
and vitamins. Moreover, thousands of bacterial species normally exist in the colon,
forming what is known as the bacterial flora. These bacteria have several benefits for the
body. They can produce some vitamins required by the body, such as the vitamin K that is
needed for normal blood clotting. These bacteria also help in the breakdown of some
indigestible organic material. Bacterial flora can also help keep pathogenic bacteria in
check, preventing them from overgrowing and causing damage to body organs.
25. What blood vessels carry blood rich in nutrients such as glucose and amino acids
directly from the intestine to the liver?
The hepatic portal vein carries blood rich in nutrients such as glucose and amino acids
directly from the intestine to the liver.
26. [T] The figure below illustrates a section through a part of the small intestine in
humans. Digestion and absorption of nutrients occurs continuously as food is pushed
along the small intestine.

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 a) Describe the process by which food is moved along the small intestine.
The muscles lining the small intestine contract and relax repetitively in a process
known as peristalsis, which squeezes the food and moves it along the intestine.
b) State three ways in which the small intestine is adapted for the absorption of
digested food.
The small intestine is very long, which allows plenty of time for food to be
digested and absorbed.
Moreover, the inner wall of the small intestine has millions of villi and/or
microvilli which increase the surface area of the small intestine for absorption.
The very thin lining of the small intestine—just one cell thick—is another
adaptation of the small intestine that aids in absorption. / Each villus is richly
supplied with many blood capillaries and also contains a single lacteal to allow the
movement of nutrients into the bloodstream or lymph.
Accept any three correct ways.
c) The figure below shows a magnification of the cells on top of structure B. Each cell
has numerous small projections on their surfaces.

i. What are these small projections called?

microvilli
ii. What is the main function of these projections?
They further increase the surface area of the small intestine for absorption.
27. [T] Digestion converts nutrients in ingested food into forms that can be absorbed by
the body through various mechanical and chemical processes.
a) Compare mechanical digestion and chemical digestion.
Chemical digestion involves the chemical breakdown of food molecules into
smaller, more water-soluble ones by the action of digestive enzymes.

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 On the other hand, mechanical digestion involves the physical breakdown (e.g.,
chewing, grinding, and churning) of large food particles into smaller ones without
chemically altering the food particles.
b) Complete the table below using an (X) to identify where different processes of
the digestive system take place.

c) Explain, using an example, how chemical digestion is carried out in one of the
locations listed in the above table.
In the mouth, chemical digestion of starch occurs with the help of enzyme
amylase found in saliva.
OR
In the stomach, gastric juice from gastric glands contains pepsin for protein
digestion
OR
In the small intestine, intestinal enzymes from intestinal glands:
• maltase for maltose digestion/
• lactase for lactose digestion/
• sucrase for sucrose digestion/
• lipase for fat digestion/
• peptidase for polypeptide digestion
OR
In the small intestine, pancreatic juice from the pancreas:
• lipase for fat digestion/
• amylase for starch digestion/
• trypsin for protein digestion
Section 2.4 Accessory Organs
28. Identify a few roles of the liver.
• The liver removes excess glucose form the blood and stores it in the form of
glycogen for short term use.
• The liver removes the amino group form excess amino acids.
• Many of the proteins found in the blood are made in the liver, such as fibrinogen,
which is used in blood clotting.
• The liver produces bile salts which are important in lipid digestion.
• The liver stores iron from hemoglobin breakdown.
• The liver stores fat soluble vitamins A and D.

29. An experiment was carried out to demonstrate the action of pepsin on egg white
protein and the steps followed are summarized in the table below.

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 What are the expected observations in each of the tubes? Explain your answer for
each.

Section 2.5 Common Diseases of the Digestive System

30. Define the term diarrhea.

Diarrhea is the loss of watery feces that occurs when not enough water has been absorbed
from the feces.
31. Describe one effective method of treating diarrhea.
One of the most effective and simple ways of treating severe diarrhea is to give the
individual suffering from this condition oral rehydration therapy (ORT). Oral rehydration
therapy prevents and treats dehydration that results from severe water and salt loss from
the body. ORT involves giving the patient water that contains small amounts of salts and
sugars. This helps the patients restore their normal internal body conditions. Many
commercially available ORT are present in the market; however, some remedies can be
also prepared at home.
32. How does cholera infection cause diarrhea?
The cholera bacteria infect the lumen of the small intestine and produce a toxin (i.e., a
poisonous substance) that triggers cells lining the intestinal wall to secrete chloride ions
into the intestinal lumen. This higher concentration of chloride ions in the lumen causes
the water potential in the lumen to become lower than in the blood capillaries that
surround the cells lining the intestine. This causes the movement of water out of the
capillaries into the lumen of the intestine by osmosis, leading to a loss of large amounts of
water and salts in watery feces through diarrhea.
33. How can cholera be treated?
Oral rehydration therapy is used to counteract the dehydration and the excessive loss of
salts while antibiotics are used to put an end to the infection and increase the speed of
recovery.
34. How can cholera be transmitted?
Cholera is spread mainly by contaminated water and/or food that have been polluted with
human feces containing the bacteria. Outbreaks of cholera most commonly occur in
places with inadequate water treatment and poor sanitation and hygiene.
35. What can cause a salmonella infection?
Salmonella infections can result from the ingestion of contaminated food products,
mainly poultry, eggs, and dairy products.
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36. How can salmonella bacteria cause gastroenteritis?
Following ingestion, salmonella bacteria can invade cells present in the intestinal mucosa
where they replicate, causing the inflammation of the intestinal walls or gastroenteritis.

Chapter 3: The Human Respiratory System

Section 3.1 Breathing versus Cellular Respiration
1. Distinguish between cellular respiration and breathing.
• Cellular respiration is the chemical process that releases the energy stored in food
by breaking down nutrients (mainly glucose) in the presence of oxygen.
Oxygen is obtained from the surrounding air by breathing.
• Breathing is a mechanical process that allows the exchange of gases (e.g. oxygen
and carbon dioxide) between an organism and its surrounding environment. The
respiratory system is responsible for carrying out the breathing process.
2. [G]What are the organs of the respiratory system?
The respiratory system organs include respiratory tract from the nose to the lungs, passing
through the pharynx, larynx, trachea, and bronchi. The diaphragm muscle is also
associated to the respiratory system.
Section 3.2 The Respiratory Tract

3. [G] Describe how inhaled air is filtered, moistened, and warmed inside the nasal
cavity.
• Filtration of air: Nose hairs trap large particles present in the inhaled air. The
sticky mucus within the nasal cavity can also trap dust particles and pathogens
that could be inhaled with air. The cilia of the ciliated cells in the mucous
membrane cause the mucus holding the trapped particles and pathogens to be
swiped out of the body or down in the direction of the esophagus to be swallowed
and destroyed by stomach acid.
• Moistening of air: The high-water content of mucus moistens the inhaled air. The
nasal cavity also contains shelf-like folds formed by the turbinal bones which
force the air to travel through narrow passages in the nasal cavity to increase the
surface area through which air is moistened.
• Warming of air: The mucous membrane lining the walls of the nasal cavity is rich
with shallow blood vessels, which radiate heat into the nasal cavity and warming
the inhaled air. The nasal cavity also contains shelf-like folds formed by the
turbinal bones; these folds force the air to travel through narrow passages in the
nasal cavity in order increase the surface area through which air is warmed.
4. Describe the organ that receives inhaled air from the nasal cavity.
After leaving the nose or the mouth, air moves to the pharynx. The pharynx constitutes
part of the throat and it is a common passageway between the respiratory tract and the
alimentary canal. It receives air from the nasal cavity and conducts it to the larynx.
Alternatively, it can receive food from the mouth and move it into the esophagus.
5. State two functions of the larynx.
The larynx serves as a passageway for air from the pharynx into the trachea. The larynx
also houses the vocal cords and is involved in voice production.
6.
a. State two features of the tracheal walls.
The inner walls of the trachea are lined with ciliated cells in addition to the mucus-
secreting goblet cells that are scattered along these tubes.

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 The walls of the trachea are also supported by cartilage rings that hold the tubes open;
these cartilage tissues do not have a complete ring shape and are, thus, described as
being C-shaped.
b. Enumerate the function of the c-shaped cartilage in the trachea and bronchi.
• To hold trachea and bronchi open.
• To prevent the airways from collapsing as you breathe in when the air pressure
decreases.
• To increase flexibility.
• To enable diameter of airways to increase when coughing to free any obstruction.
7. a. The diagram below shows human respiratory system. Label structures A – I.

- Letter A represents the larynx

- Letter B represents the cartilaginous rings of trachea
- Letter C represents the left lung.
- Letter D represents the cut ends of ribs
- Letter E represents the pleural membrane.
- Letter F represents the precise site in the lung for gas exchange or
alveoli
- Letter G represents the diaphragm.
- Letter H represents the internal intercostal muscles
- Letter I represents the external intercostal muscles
b. List, in order, the structures through which air passes from nose to the
bronchi.
The respiratory system organs include respiratory tract from the nose to the lungs,
passing through, in order, the pharynx, larynx, trachea and bronchi.

Section 3.3 Gas Exchange

8. Describe what happens during gas exchange in the lungs.

Gas exchange in the lungs involves the passive diffusion of oxygen and carbon dioxide
gases in opposite directions. Oxygen gas moves from the alveoli into the blood
capillaries to be distributed by blood to body tissues as a major reactant in cellular

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 respiration, while carbon dioxide gas moves from the blood capillaries into the alveoli
to be eventually eliminated from the body through exhaled air.
9. [G] What adaptations in the lungs allow efficient gas exchange?
• Human lungs are well adapted for efficient gas exchange. Each lung
contains millions of alveoli that provide a large surface area for gas
exchange to occur.
• A vast network of capillaries surrounds each alveolus to provide constantly a
blood supply.
• The alveolar walls and capillary walls are composed of a single layer of cells
called epithelium. This feature reduces the distance through which gases
diffuse.
• The alveolar walls contain special cells that produce a watery fluid in which
gases dissolve and then diffuse easily across the membranes.
• The continuous ventilation (movement of air into and out of the
lungs) maintains a steep diffusion gradient for the diffusion of
oxygen into the blood and carbon dioxide into the alveoli.
b. The lungs are comprised of millions of alveoli. How is this an
adaptation for gas exchange?
Each lung contains millions of alveoli, which provide a large surface area
for gas exchange to occur rapidly by diffusion.
c. The lungs are continuously ventilated with air rich in oxygen entering the
lungs and air rich in carbon dioxide leaving the lungs. What is the advantage
of continuous ventilation?
The continuous ventilation in the lungs keeps the levels of oxygen high and
carbon dioxide low in the alveoli, thereby maintaining a diffusion gradient.
Oxygen will continue to diffuse form the alveoli into the blood and carbon dioxide
from the blood into the alveoli.
d. The alveoli are surrounded by a network of capillaries. Why is this an
adaptation for gas exchange?
The continuous removal of oxygen gas from the blood by body tissues
leads to low oxygen levels in the blood capillary entering the alveoli. This
maintains a steep diffusion gradient of oxygen gas between the alveoli
and the capillaries, which favors rapid diffusion of oxygen gas from the
alveoli to the blood.
e. What are the two adaptations that ensure high levels of oxygen in the alveoli?
• Each alveolus is largely surrounded by a vast network of blood
capillaries. This allows a continuous transport of oxygen from the
alveoli to body tissues and of carbon dioxide from body tissues to
the alveoli.
• The continuous ventilation maintains a steep diffusion gradient for
the diffusion of oxygen into the blood and carbon dioxide into the
alveoli.
f. The walls of the alveoli and the walls of the capillary are one cell thick.
Explain how this is an adaptation for gas exchange.
The thin wall of the alveoli and capillaries shortens the distance that the oxygen
and carbon dioxide gas have to diffuse.

Section 3.4 The Breathing Process

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10. G Describe the events that occur during inhalation.
• The external intercostal muscles contract and pull the ribs upwards and outwards.
• The diaphragm contracts, drops downward in the thoracic cage and takes on a flat
shape.
• The volume of the thorax (chest) increases, the lungs expand, such that the air
pressure in the lungs decreases, to below atmospheric pressure.
• Air is then drawn inwards, into the lungs, down a pressure gradient.
11. G Describe the events that occur during exhalation.
• The internal intercostal muscles contract and allow the ribs to move downwards and
inwards. At this stage, external intercostal muscles relax.
• The diaphragm relaxes, moves upward and becomes dome shaped.
• The volume of the lungs (chest) decreases and the pressure in the lungs increases.
• Therefore, air is pushed out of the lungs along pressure gradient.
12. [G] Explain the differences in composition between the inhaled and the exhaled air
during breathing.
• There is more oxygen in inhaled air than in exhaled air.
• There is more carbon dioxide in exhaled air than inhaled air.
• The amount of nitrogen in inhaled and exhaled air is the same.
• Exhaled air is moister than inhaled air.
• Exhaled air is warmer than inhaled air.
• The percentages of oxygen and carbon dioxide gas differ between inhaled and
exhaled air due to gas exchange within the alveoli.
• Exhaled air is warmed while passing through the passages of the respiratory tract;
it is also moist since it is humidified by the moist lining of the respiratory tract.
Inhaled air Exhaled air
Percentage composition of 21 16
oxygen gas (%)
Percentage composition of 0.04 4
carbon dioxide gas (%)
Percentage composition of 78.1 78.1
nitrogen gas (%)
Humidity Variable depending on Higher
the weather
Temperature (°C) Variable depending on Warm (37°C)
the weather

13. G Explain how physical activity can lead to faster and deeper breathing.
• During physical activity, higher amounts of energy are needed for muscle
contraction. This energy is supplied to muscle cells through an increased rate of
cellular respiration.
• Levels of carbon dioxide in the blood increase.
• This results in a drop in blood pH which is detected by receptors in the brain.
• The brain signals the respiratory muscles, the diaphragm and intercostal muscles, to
contract faster and more forcefully causing breathing to become deeper and faster.
14. [T] The diagram below shows the position of the diaphragm and ribs during
inhalation and exhalation.

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 a) Indicate which figure illustrates exhalation.
Figure B
b) Explain how movements of the diaphragm and ribs cause air to leave the
lungs during exhalation.
During exhalation, the diaphragm muscle relaxes and moves upward into its dome
shape, which decreases the amount of space available in the thoracic cavity.
Moreover, the external intercostal muscles relax, causing the rib cage to fall
inward and downward; this further decreases the volume inside the thorax.
Consequently, the lungs decrease in volume and the air pressure inside them
increases above atmospheric pressure, thereby causing air to be pushed outside the
lungs.
c) The breathing rate of an athlete was measured while using an exercise
machine at different work rates and the results are summarized in the table
below.

i. How does the breathing rate change with the variation in the work rate?
The rate of breathing increases steadily/gradually as the work exerted by the
athlete increases.
ii. Explain why the change in breathing rate is advantageous to the athlete
in this case.
During exercise, the level of CO2 in the blood rises; increased breathing is
required to remove excess CO2
OR
The increase in the breathing rate cause an increase in the oxygen supply to
muscles.
15. [T] The figure below illustrates an alveolus and a blood capillary in the human
body. The alveoli are the site of exchange of carbon dioxide and oxygen in the
lungs.

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 a) Identify the process by which gases move from the air spaces in the alveoli in
the lungs into the blood and vice versa.
Diffusion
b) State whether the relative concentration of carbon dioxide is “high” or “low”
at positions 1, 2, and 3 seen above.
1: high
2: low
3: low
c) List three features of alveoli that facilitate gas exchange.
Large surface area/
Rich blood supply/
Thin and moist walls/OR
Constant ventilation
Accept any three correct answers.
d) The alveoli of a long-term smoker are less elastic than a non-smoker and
their walls also suffer from breakage. Explain how each of these differences
would affect the functioning of a smoker’s lungs.
The presence of less elastic walls makes it more difficult for gases to flow.
It reduces the number of air spaces inside the lungs and decreases the surface area
for gas exchange.
16. The graphs below (A and B) show the volume of air breathed in and out in 12
seconds, by a student before and after exercise.

Graph A Graph B
a- How much air does the student take in during 12 seconds: (give your answer
to 2 significant figures?)
i) In graph A
Volume of air taken in, in 12 seconds = number of breaths taken in 12 sec x
volume of air taken in at each breath

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 Volume of air taken in, in 12 seconds = 3 X 0.5 𝑑𝑚3 = 1.5 𝑑𝑚3
ii) In graph B
Volume of air taken in, in 12 seconds = number of breaths taken in 12 sec x
volume of air taken in at each breath
Volume of air taken in in 12 seconds = 8 X 1.0 𝑑𝑚3 = 8.0 𝑑𝑚3
b- Compare the tidal air in graph A to that of graph B.
The tidal air is the volume of air taken in per breath.
graph A → 0.5 𝑑𝑚3
graph B → 1.0 𝑑𝑚3
c- Calculate the breathing rate per minute for graph A.
3 breaths → 12 seconds
? breaths → 60 seconds
By cross multiplication solve for the missing.
3 breaths x 60 seconds / 12 seconds = 15 breaths
Therefore, the breathing rate depicted in graph A is 15 breaths/minute
d- Which graph shows the volume of air breathed in after exercise?
Graph B shows the volume of air breathed in after exercise.
-Explain your answer.
During exercise, the tidal flow and the breathing rate increase.

Section 3.5 Common Diseases of the Respiratory System

17. How can the common cold infection be transmitted?

The common cold infection can be transmitted by coughing, sneezing, and direct
contact with an infected individual or with contaminated objects.
18. What pathogens commonly cause pneumonia?
Pneumonia is commonly caused by bacterial or viral infections.
19. What causes the narrowing of air passages in asthma?
The inflammation associated with asthma causes an increased muscle contraction in the
air passages leading to congestion and reversible constriction/narrowing of these
airways.
20. [G] Describe the health effects associated with tobacco smoke.
• Some of the main components of tobacco smoke that are damaging to human health
are nicotine, tar, carbon monoxide, and smoke particles.
• Carbon monoxide reduces the amount of oxygen carried by the blood because it
combines with the oxygen-carrying pigment hemoglobin, reducing the amount of
oxygen transported by the blood to the different body organs.
• Nicotine is a highly addictive substance that makes quitting very difficult for
smokers. It is also associated with the increased blood pressure observed in
smokers. Moreover, carbon monoxide and nicotine are both harmful to the
cardiovascular system because they contribute to the buildup of fatty deposits on the
walls of arteries.
• Tar settles on the lining of the air passages and damages the cilia, preventing them
from beating and causing mucus to accumulate. Tar also contains many
carcinogenic compounds, compounds that can cause cancer.
• Smoke particles are small, carbon-containing materials released by cigarette smoke.
Smoke particles accumulate in the lungs and, together with tar, irritate the lungs,
causing inflammation and an increased production of mucus.
21.
a. Enumerate the diseases associated with smoking.

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 Diseases that can be caused by smoking are
• lung cancer
• Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease which refers to a group of respiratory
diseases that include emphysema and chronic bronchitis.
• Coronary heart disease
• Miscarriage and birth defects in pregnant women.
b. How does the number of cigarettes smoked per day affect the risk of lung
cancer?
The risk for lung cancer increases with the increase in the number of cigarettes
smoked per day.
22. Describe the main features of the alveoli damaged by emphysema.
Emphysema causes the alveoli to become irreversibly enlarged and the alveolar walls to
weaken. These walls eventually break, causing the alveoli to merge, which reduces the
number of air spaces and the surface area of gas exchange inside the lungs. The patients
with emphysema are unable to absorb enough oxygen or remove carbon dioxide
efficiently.
23. What are some symptoms of chronic bronchitis?
The main symptom of chronic bronchitis is a phlegm-producing cough; also a hoarse
voice and breathlessness can be associated with this disease.
24. [G] How is limewater used to identify the presence of carbon dioxide in air?
Limewater (calcium hydroxide) changes from the clear liquid state to a milky liquid
state in the presence of carbon dioxide. Exhaled air contains more carbon dioxide than
inhaled air, so the limewater in tube B turns milky, while that in tube A remains clear.
Carbon dioxide is eliminated as a waste product of cellular respiration and is removed
from the body at the lungs in exhaled air.
25. [T] An athlete’s heart rate and breathing rate were measured at different work
rates.

a. Explain two advantages of these changes to the body during exercise.

Exercise causes the level of CO2 in the blood to rise; therefore, there is an increase
in heart rate and increased breathing rate to remove excess CO2.
OR

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 Exercise causes an increased need to provide oxygen supply to muscles; this is
achieved by increased breathing rate to take in more O2 and increased heart rate
takes more O2 to muscles.
OR
Exercise requires an increased supply of sugar to muscles; therefore, causing an
increased respiration rate to enable faster rate of energy release and increased heart
rate to enable faster delivery of sugar to muscles.
OR
Exercise causes the buildup of lactic acid in muscles; therefore, the increased heart
rate and breathing rate allow the removal lactic acid.
b. The breathing rate and the amount of oxygen used were still high after
exercise, even though the athlete sat down to rest. Why were they still high?
The athlete still needs to remove extra carbon dioxide/ still needs to remove heat/ to
cool down/ still needs oxygen to break down lactic acid in the muscles.
26. [T]The purpose of the experiment is to compare the level of CO2 in inhaled and
exhaled air.

a. Identify the function of limewater.

An indicator used to identify the presence of carbon dioxide is limewater which
changes from a clear liquid to a milky liquid in its presence.
b. State a possible hypothesis tested by the experiment above.
Exhaled air contains more carbon dioxide than inhaled air.
c. Describe how the apparatus above can be used to support the above
hypothesis.
• Set the apparatus as shown in the figure above.
• Breathe in and out of the mouthpiece (P) several times.

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 • The lime water in tube B will turn cloudy first. This shows that more carbon
dioxide is found in exhaled air.
• The lime water in A will remain clear for a long time. This shows that less
carbon dioxide is found in inhaled air.

Chapter 4 The Circulatory and Lymphatic Systems

Section 4.1 General Structure of the Circulatory System
1. List some functions of the circulatory system.
Functions of the circulatory system include transporting materials (e.g., oxygen,
nutrients, and chemical messengers) to body organs and carrying away body wastes,
such as carbon dioxide. Other functions of the circulatory system include distributing
heat evenly between body organs and helping the body fight diseases.
2. Name the main components of the human circulatory system.
In humans, the circulatory system includes the heart, blood vessels, and a number of
valves.

Section 4.2 Blood Vessels

3. [G] What are the different types of blood vessels in the human body?
Blood vessels in humans are mainly divided into arteries, capillaries, and veins.
Arteries carry blood from the heart to the body’s tissues. Arteries branch into
narrower blood vessels called arterioles, which branch further into tiny blood vessels
called capillaries. Capillaries converge to form larger blood vessels called venules,
which in turn converge to form large blood vessels called veins. Veins carry blood
from the body’s tissues to the heart. Thus, arteries and arterioles are linked to venules
and veins by means of capillaries.
4. How can an artery withstand the high pressure of blood pumped by the heart?
Arteries are characterized by strong and thick walls to withstand the high pressure of
blood pumped by the heart and to avoid bursting. Arterial walls are also equipped
with layers of elastic fibers, which allow arteries to stretch and recoil as blood is
thrust into them when the heart contracts.
5. How can the diameter of an artery be regulated?
When the smooth muscles in arterial walls relax, the arteries dilate (i.e., get wider),
and when these smooth muscles contract, the arteries become constricted (i.e.,
becomes narrower).
6.a. Most veins carry deoxygenated blood. Name the major vein that
carries oxygenated blood and outline its role.
Most veins carry deoxygenated blood. However, some veins carry
oxygenated blood such as the pulmonary vein, which carries
oxygenated blood from the lungs to the heart (left atrium).
b. Most arteries carry oxygenated blood. Name the major arteries that
carry deoxygenated blood and outline its role.
Most arteries carry oxygenated blood. However, some arteries carry
deoxygenated blood such as the pulmonary artery, which carries
deoxygenated blood from the right ventricle to the lungs.
7. Describe three structural features of capillaries that make them well adapted to
perform their function.
• Capillary walls are very thin, just one or two cells thick, and only large enough to
let red blood cells pass into the capillary one cell at a time. This results in a slow

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 blood flow inside these blood vessels and gives enough time for the movement of
materials to and from body tissues.
• Capillary walls have small spaces between their cells, which allows substances to
leak out.
• Some types of capillaries also have large gaps and pores in their walls that
facilitate the exchange of materials with body tissues, since materials can leave
and enter the capillaries more easily.
• Capillaries form a dense branching network inside organs to ensure that all cells in
the organs are near a capillary.
8. What can cause blood to move directly from an arteriole to a venule while
bypassing the capillary bed?
If the sphincters at the base of the capillaries contract, blood flow into the capillaries
will be shut off and blood will flow through a shunt vessel from the arteriole directly
to the venule, bypassing the capillary bed.
9. Describe two structural features of veins that facilitate blood flow in these vessels.
Veins have a larger lumen (inside space) than that of arteries of the same diameter;
this offers lower resistance for the flow of blood, allowing it to move more easily
inside veins.
Many veins have special valves (called pocket valves or semi-lunar valves) to prevent
blood from flowing in the wrong direction. Valves in the veins open, allowing blood
to move toward the heart, and then close to prevent the backflow of blood.
10. Describe how skeletal muscle contraction can facilitate blood flow in many veins.
The contraction of the skeletal muscle’s squeezes blood in the veins and pushes it
toward the heart.
11. Compare arteries, veins, and capillaries, in a table form.
Feature Artery Vein Capillary
Thickness of wall Thick wall Thinner walls than One-cell thick
arteries
Amount of elastic High Low None
fibers in wall
Internal diameter Smaller than veins Large Small
of lumen
Presence of valves None Semi-lunar valves None
Relative blood High Low High but lower
pressure than in arteries
Function Carry blood away Carry blood to the Site of exchange
from the heart. heart. with the body
tissues.

12. [T] The figure below illustrates a cross section of an artery in the human body.

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 a) What are two structural features of an artery?
elastic walls/ thick walls/ narrow lumen/ layers of smooth muscle cells
b) What is the main role of arteries in the human body?
Arteries carry blood from the heart to all the organs and tissues of the body.
c) The below figure illustrates a cross section of a vein.

i. By referring to the figure, what is one structural feature that

distinguishes a vein from an artery?
presence of valves/ wider lumen/ less elastic walls/ thinner walls
ii. Explain the purpose of the feature you identified in the previous part.
valves prevent blood from flowing in the wrong direction/
a larger lumen (inside space) offers less resistance for the flow of blood,
allowing it to move more easily inside veins/ walls are much thinner and less
elastic than those of the arteries because they have a much smaller risk of
bursting than arteries
d) Both arteries and veins transport blood within the human body. Compare the
direction of blood flow between the two types of blood vessels.
Arteries carry blood away from the heart while veins carry blood toward the heart.
e) A third type of blood vessels is also present in the human body. Identify this
blood vessel and compare two of its characteristics to those of the arteries
and veins.
capillaries
Capillary walls are very thin, just one or two cells thick./ Most capillaries are only
wide enough to let red blood cells pass into the capillary one cell at a time./ Capillary
walls have small spaces between their cells./
Some capillaries have large gaps and pores in their walls.
Section 4.3 The Heart

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13. Where is the heart located in the human body?
It is located between the lungs and is tilted toward the left, with two thirds of its mass
lying to the left-hand side of the body.
14. Describe one characteristic of cardiac muscles.
• The muscle present in the walls of the heart is called cardiac muscle.
• Cardiac muscle is described as myogenic because it initiates its own contraction
and does not rely on nervous stimulation.
• The pace at which the cardiac muscles contract can be accelerated or decelerated
by nervous stimulation.
• Cardiac muscles can keep contracting and relaxing throughout a person’s life with
a normally high ability to resist muscle fatigue. It does not get tired or fatigued.
15. Label the chambers and blood vessels below. Identify the role of each labelled
structure.

1. [Left atrium]. It receives oxygenated blood from the lungs through the pulmonary
vein. It pumps blood into the left ventricle.
2. [Left ventricle]. It receives oxygenated blood from the left atrium. It pumps the
oxygenated blood through the aorta to the entire body.
3. [Right ventricle]. It receives deoxygenated blood from the right atrium. It pumps
deoxygenated blood through the pulmonary artery to the lungs.
4. [Right atrium]. It receives deoxygenated blood from the body through the vena
cava. It pumps deoxygenated blood into the right ventricle.
5. [Aorta]. It carries oxygenated blood to the whole body.
6. [Pulmonary artery]. It carries deoxygenated blood from the right ventricle to the
lungs.
7. [Vena cava]. It carries deoxygenated blood from the whole body to the right atrium.
8. [Pulmonary vein]. It carries oxygenated blood from the lungs to the heart (left
atrium).
9. [Septum]. A strong muscular wall that separates the right side (deoxygenated blood)
of the heart from the left side (oxygenated blood) of the heart.
N.B Atria (plural of atrium) are the upper chambers of the heart that receive
blood from veins and pump it to the lower chambers of the heart called
ventricles.
16. What is one importance of separating oxygenated blood from deoxygenated blood
inside the heart?

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 Keeping oxygenated and deoxygenated blood unmixed in the heart allows oxygen to
be transported efficiently to body cells to be used in cellular respiration for energy
production.
17. [G] Explain the difference in thickness of the heart wall muscles (atria,
ventricles, left and right).
• Blood flows from veins into the atria, which contract to pump blood into the
nearby ventricles. The ventricles then contract to pump blood out of the heart and
into the arteries, to be carried to different organs. This explains why the ventricles
have much thicker muscular walls and contract more forcefully than the atria.
• Moreover, the left ventricle has a thicker wall than the right ventricle because the
left ventricle pumps blood into the largest artery in the body, the aorta, to be
carried throughout the body. In contrast, the right ventricle pumps blood into the
pulmonary artery to be carried to the lungs, which are close to the heart. The right
ventricle therefore needs to generate less force to drive the blood through the
pulmonary arteries.
18. What is the function of the coronary arteries?
They supply the cardiac muscles with blood.
19. [G] Which type of valve is described in each case?
a. It prevents the backflow of blood from the ventricles and the atria.
b. It prevents the backflow of blood between major arteries and ventricles.
c. It prevents the backflow of blood from the pulmonary artery into the right
ventricle.
d. It is located between the left atrium and the left ventricle.
e. It is located between the right atrium and the right ventricle.
f. It is located at the base of the aorta.
a) atrioventricular valve
b) semilunar valve
c) pulmonary valve
d) bicuspid valve
e) tricuspid valve
f) aortic valve
20. [G] Describe the pathway of blood starting from and ending with the right
atrium.
The pathway of blood from the right atrium and back to the right atrium is as follows:
right atrium → right ventricle → pulmonary artery → lungs → pulmonary vein → left
atrium → aorta → organs → superior and inferior vena cava → right atrium
21. What is the function of each of the hepatic artery and the renal vein?
The hepatic artery carries oxygenated blood to the liver. The renal vein collects
deoxygenated blood from the kidneys.
22. Describe two differences between the hepatic portal vein and most other veins in
the body.
The hepatic portal vein does not carry blood directly back to the heart.
The hepatic portal vein does not directly join the inferior vena cava.
23. [G] Name the blood vessel(s) described in each case:
a) carries deoxygenated blood from the organs to the right atrium
b) returns oxygenated blood from the lungs to the heart
c) carry oxygenated blood to the kidneys
d) carries deoxygenated blood from the heart to the lungs
e) collect deoxygenated blood from the kidneys
a) vena cava

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 b) pulmonary vein
c) renal arteries
d) pulmonary artery
e) renal veins
24. a. Outline the role of the right atrio-ventricular/tricuspid valve.
When the pressure in the right ventricle is greater than the pressure in the right
atrium, the tricuspid valve shuts, preventing the backflow of blood from the right
ventricle into the right atrium.
When the pressure in the right ventricle is less than the pressure in the right
atrium, the tricuspid valves open, allowing the flow of blood from the right atrium
into the right ventricle.
b. Outline the role of the left atrio-ventricular/bicuspid valve.
When the pressure in the left ventricle is greater than the pressure in the left
atrium, the bicuspid valve shuts, preventing the backflow of blood from the left
ventricle into the left atrium.
When the pressure in the left ventricle is less than the pressure in the left atrium,
the bicuspid valves open, allowing the flow of blood from the left atrium into the
left ventricle.
25. Describe the role of the semi-lunar valves.
• They allow the flow of blood from ventricles to arteries from the right ventricle
into the pulmonary artery and from the left ventricle into the aorta.
• When the pressure in the ventricles is greater than the pressure in the arteries the
semilunar valves open, allowing blood to flow from the ventricles into the arteries.
When the pressure in the ventricles is less than the pressure in the arteries the
valves close, preventing the backflow of blood from arteries to ventricles:
• The pulmonary semilunar valve located at the base of the pulmonary artery
prevents the backflow of blood from the pulmonary artery to the right ventricle.
• The aortic semilunar valve located at the base of the aorta prevents the backflow
of blood from the aorta to the left ventricle.
26. Describe how blood is transported from the vena cava to the lungs.
Blood is transported from the vena cava to the lungs in the following steps:
• Blood enters the heart at the right atrium.
• Then the atrium contracts, and
• the atrio-ventricular valves open.
• This causes blood to pass into the right ventricle.
• Then the ventricles contract, and
• the semilunar valves open.
• This causes blood to pass from the pulmonary artery to the lungs.
27. G Describe diastole of the heart.
At the beginning of a heartbeat or heart diastole:
• The cardiac muscles of the atria and ventricles are relaxed.
• The atrio-ventricular valves (bicuspid and tricuspid valves) are open.
• Blood enters the heart. The atria fill with blood from the venae cava and
pulmonary veins.
• Semi-lunar valves at the base of the arteries are closed.
28.
a. G Describe atrial systole (contraction).
• Muscles in the atria contract to squeeze more blood into ventricles.
• Ventricles are relaxed.

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 • Valves in veins supplying blood to the atria will close.
• Atrio-ventricular valves open.
• Blood fills the ventricles.
• Semilunar valves at the base of the aorta and pulmonary artery are still
closed.
b. G Describe ventricular systole.
• The ventricles contract.
• The atria relax.
• Atrio-ventricular valves close.
• Semilunar valves at the base of the aorta and pulmonary artery open.
• Blood is forced into the arteries.
29. In which blood vessel is blood pressure the greatest?
Blood pressure is the greatest in the arteries. Specifically, it is the greatest in the aorta,
which receives blood pumped by the left ventricle.
30. What does each of the two values in a blood pressure reading (e.g., 120/80 mm
Hg) represent?
The upper/higher value represents the systolic blood pressure, or the highest blood
pressure exerted on the walls of the arteries as the ventricles contract, while the
lower/bottom value represents the diastolic blood pressure, or the lowest pressure
exerted on the walls of the arteries as the ventricles relax.
31. List three ways to monitor the activity of the heart.
• measuring the pulse rate;
• placing a stethoscope on the patient’s chest to hear sounds of valves.
• using electrocardiography.
32. [G] Describe the effect of physical activity on the pulse rate.
• During physical activity muscles need more energy, which is provided by the
process of respiration.
• As a result of aerobic respiration oxygen gas is used up and carbon dioxide
accumulates in the blood.
• During the physical activity, the pulse rate and the force of contraction of the heart
increases to supply more oxygen and glucose to the skeletal muscles and to allow
the rapid removal of carbon dioxide.
33. [T] The table below shows several changes that occur in the body of a
professional athlete and in that of a beginner athlete while performing the same
physical exercise.

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 a. Explain why the heart rate and blood pressure increase in both athletes during
exercise.
The heart starts to pump harder and faster to circulate blood to deliver oxygen to the
muscle cells that have high metabolic rate during exercise and remove carbon
dioxide and wastes.
b. During strenuous exercise, muscle cells make ATP using the anaerobic
pathway, in which lactic is produced.
i.Name the process by which muscles make ATP anaerobically.
alcoholic fermentation
ii.Identify the reactants and the products of this process.
reactant: glucose
products: lactic acid and energy
c. The lactic acid that accumulates in the muscles is later broken down in the
liver in the presence of oxygen. Based on the information in the table, indicate
which athlete will be able to break down lactic acid faster after exercise.
Explain your answer.
The professional athlete will be able to break down the accumulated lactic acid in
muscles faster than the beginner athlete.
The professional athlete has higher oxygen absorption which allows the body to
take up more oxygen required for the breakdown of lactic acid.

Chapter 4 The Circulatory and Lymphatic Systems

Section 4.4 Blood Circulation
34. [G] What advantage does a double circulation have over a single circulation?
Blood moves more quickly and at a higher pressure in a double circulation compared
to a single circulation. This is an advantage to organisms which have very
metabolically active tissues that require a high and quick oxygen supply. Oxygen
delivery is more efficient in a double circulatory system than in a single one.
35. Outline double circulation in humans.
Blood passes twice through the heart during one complete cycle in the human body,
that’s why humans are said to have a double circulation. It includes the pulmonary

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 circulation which involves the movement of blood from the heart to the lungs where it
is oxygenated, and the systemic circulation which involves the movement of blood
between the heart and the organs.
36. Outline single circulation in fish.
Fish have a single circulation, in which blood passes through the heart only once for
each complete blood circulation through the whole organism. Blood moves directly
from the gills to the body organs.

Section 4.5 Blood

37. [G] Describe red blood cells.

• Red blood cells have a flexible cell membrane allowing them to pass through narrow
blood vessels.
• Red blood cells have no nucleus or organelles allowing more space for the oxygen
carrying pigment hemoglobin.
• Red blood cells contain hemoglobin which is the oxygen carrying pigment composed
of protein and iron.
• Red blood cells have a biconcave shape, thereby increasing the surface area for the
transport of oxygen into and out of the cell.
• Red blood cells are broken down in the liver and spleen when damaged.
38. What is an advantage of the lack of nucleus and many other organelles in red
blood cells?
The lack of a nucleus and many other organelles in red blood cells provides enough
space to fit the hemoglobin molecules.
39. [G] Identify some functions of white blood cells.
The main function of all white blood cells is to fight off pathogens (e.g., bacteria and
viruses). Some white blood cells can also destroy damaged or worn-out body cells.
Each type of white blood cell performs its function using a specific mechanism.
Phagocytes, for example, are a group of white blood cells that destroy pathogens by
phagocytosis – a process by which a phagocyte engulfs or ingests certain foreign
particles or microorganisms. In contrast, some leukocytes secrete antibodies, which are
Y-shaped proteins that bind to specific pathogens and prevent them from harming
body cells.
40. [G] Describe the function of platelets in blood clotting.
• Following the injury of a blood vessel, platelets become activated and clump at the
site of injury to help plug the injured blood vessel.
• The activated platelets together with the injured tissues, release together with the
injured tissues, chemicals that initiate a set of chemicals reactions that activate a
number of clotting factors.
• This results in the conversion of soluble fibrinogen into insoluble fibrin.
• The fibrin strands then trap the clumped platelets and some leaking red blood cells in
a web or mesh, leading to the formation of a blood clot.
41. [G] What is the function of the blood plasma?
Plasma carries dissolved substances, such as nutrients, plasma proteins (e.g., albumin
and fibrinogen), hormones, carbon dioxide, and urea. Suspended in the blood plasma
are red blood cells and white blood cells, in addition to cellular fragments called
platelets.

42. Distinguish between oxyhemoglobin and deoxyhemoglobin.

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 Oxyhemoglobin is the form of hemoglobin which is bound to oxygen; it has a bright
red color. Deoxyhemoglobin is a form of hemoglobin without oxygen that has a dark
red or a purplish red color.
43. In what form is most of the carbon dioxide transported in the blood?
Carbon dioxide is transported in blood mostly in the form of hydrogen carbonate ions
(bicarbonate ions) dissolved in the blood plasma.
44. [G] How do oxygen and carbon dioxide move between the blood and body cells?
As blood is carried to the respiring body tissues, oxygen diffuses down its
concentration gradient from the blood capillaries to the body tissues. Carbon dioxide
concentration is higher in the tissues than in the blood because body cells produce
carbon dioxide as a waste product of cellular respiration. Thus, at the level of the body
tissues, carbon dioxide diffuses down its concentration gradient from the tissues into
the blood.
45. Compare urea concentration in the blood entering the kidneys to that in the blood
leaving the kidneys.
Blood leaving the kidneys has a lower urea concentration than blood entering the
kidneys because much of the urea is excreted out of the body by the kidneys through
urine.
46. [G]What are the antigens and the antibodies of each of the ABO blood groups?

47. What can happen if the wrong type of blood is given to a recipient during a blood
transfusion?
If the wrong type of blood is given in a transfusion, antibodies in the recipient’s
plasma will bind to antigens on the donated red blood cells. This will cause the red
blood cells to agglutinate, or clump together. Consequently, blood vessels could get
clogged by the agglutinated red blood cells; this is a very serious medical condition,
which can be fatal.
48. Which individuals can donate blood to an individual with AB– blood type?
Individuals of blood types A Rh D-, B Rh D-, AB Rh D-, and O Rh D- can donate
blood to an individual with AB- blood type.
49. Name the blood type that is considered the universal donor and the blood type
that is considered the universal recipient.
Individuals of blood group AB+ are referred to as universal recipients and blood group
O- individuals are referred to as universal donors.
50. During a blood typing test, agglutination was observed with anti-A and anti-B
antibodies but not with anti-D antibody. What is the blood type of the studied
blood sample?
The blood type of the studied blood sample is AB Rh D-.

51. An experiment was conducted to determine the blood group of an individual. The
results are shown in the below figure.

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 a. What is the blood type of this person? Explain your answer.
The blood type of this individual is A Rh D+. Agglutination was observed with the
anti-A serum, but not with the anti-B serum, which means that red blood cells have
A-antigens on their surface and no B-antigens. Also, agglutination was observed
with the anti-D serum, which confirms the presence of the D antigens on red blood
cells.
b. Is it safe to transfuse blood from this individual to an individual of group AB
Rh D+?
Yes, the AB Rh D+ blood type is the universal recipient; it does not have antibodies
against the ABO antigens and the D antigen, and can therefore receive blood
belonging to any group without a risk of agglutination.
52. [T] Human red blood cells (RBCs) of normal size and shape were placed into
three identical test tubes. The contents of each tube are listed in the table below.

a. Knowing that the percentage of salt in human blood is about 9 g/L or 0.9
percent, complete the given table.

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 b. Explain why doctors do not give pure water intravenously (through an IV bag)
to patients who have lost a large amount of blood.
Adding large amounts of pure water directly into a blood vessel would cause the
blood to become hypotonic, causing the lysis of RBCs/ complications/ and possibly
leading to death.
c. Suggest the type of fluid replacement that would be given to patients who have
lost blood. Explain your answer.
The appropriate fluid to give is a 0.9% NaCl solution.
It is an isotonic solution compared to the blood plasma which causes the cells to
remain the same (they will not shrink nor swell).

Section 4.6 The Lymphatic System

53. [G] Describe the functions of the lymphatic system.
• In addition to its role in returning fluid to the blood circulation, the lymphatic
system is also involved in the defense against pathogens.
• As the lymph travels throughout the body, it passes through small, oval-shaped
organs called lymph nodes, which are also part of the lymphatic system. These
nodes house white blood cells and are widely distributed throughout the body.
They filter the lymph to remove pathogens and foreign particles before the lymph
rejoins the blood.

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 • Lymph nodes are also the site where some leukocytes are activated to fight
infections.
• Another important component of the lymphatic system is the spleen. It houses
white blood cells and filters foreign particles and pathogens out of the blood
(lymph nodes filter the lymph, not the blood).
• The spleen also destroys worn-out red blood cells.
54. Compare the composition of the tissue fluid to that of the blood plasma.
Tissue fluid has a composition similar to that of the blood plasma but with less
nutrients (glucose & amino acids) and oxygen and more carbon dioxide. Tissue fluid
has no proteins whereas proteins can be found in the plasma.
55. What are two ways by which the movement of the lymph is facilitated in the
lymphatic vessels?
Many large lymphatic vessels benefit from the contraction of the nearby skeletal
muscles to squeeze lymph forward in the lymphatic vessels. Lymphatic vessels also
have valves to make sure that the lymph moves in one direction.

Section 4.7 Common Diseases of the Circulatory System

56. [G] Describe coronary heart disease.

Coronary heart disease, or CHD is a common disease caused by atherosclerosis. CHD
develops when the coronary arteries are narrowed or blocked due to atherosclerosis.
When a coronary artery is narrowed, the segment of the cardiac muscle nourished by
this artery will run short of oxygen and will not be able to function properly. Partial or
complete blockage of one or more coronary arteries can lead to a condition known as a
heart attack, or myocardial infarction, in which a portion of the heart muscle stops
contracting.
57. [G] Enumerate the risk factors of atherosclerosis and CHD.
• Hypertension
• abnormally high cholesterol levels in the blood
• an unhealthy diet rich in saturated fats
• gender (males generally have a higher risk than females)
• smoking
• lack of exercise
• obesity
• excessive long-term stress
• hereditary factors
• advanced age.
58. List three ways to reduce the risk for developing atherosclerosis and CHD.
• quitting smoking
• maintaining a diet that is low in saturated fats is a lifestyle change that can decrease
the level of cholesterol in the blood
• performing regular exercise is also effective in decreasing blood pressure,
preventing excessive weight gain, and consequently reducing the risk for
atherosclerosis and CHD
59. Identify three possible treatment methods for coronary heart disease.
• prescribed drugs;
• balloon angioplasty
• bypass operations

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60. [T] The table below shows the composition of blood samples taken from three
different individuals.

a. The three samples were taken from men at the same age. Explain why this would
make the comparison more effective.
This would ensure that the changes in numbers are not due to age or gender
differences.
b. Identify the main function of each of the RBCs and WBCs.
The main function of the red blood cells is to carry oxygen throughout the body.
The white blood cells play an important role in protecting the body against infectious
diseases.
c. Which person is least likely able to fight an infection by a virus? Explain your
answer.
Individual A; because he has fewer white blood cells which would weaken the body’s
defense against pathogens.
d. Platelets are involved in the process of blood clotting illustrated in the figure
below.

i. Describe briefly the stages involved in the process of blood clotting.

Following an injury to a blood vessel, platelets become activated as they come into
contact with new surfaces as blood leaks outside the cut blood vessel. Activated
platelets clump at the site of injury to help plug the injured blood vessel.

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 The activated platelets, together with the injured tissues, release chemicals that initiate
a set of chemical reactions that activate a number of clotting factors. Eventually, this
results in the conversion of the soluble plasma protein fibrinogen into insoluble fibrin.
The fibrin strands then trap the clumped platelets and some leaking red blood cells in
a web or mesh, leading to the formation of a blood clot.
ii. People at risk of heart disease are sometimes advised to take aspirin which reduces
the clotting of blood. Which of the three individuals is most likely to be taking this
drug? Explain your answer.
Individual A is most likely to be taking this drug because he has more platelets which
increase blood clotting, and more red blood cells which would make the blood
thicker.

61. An ECG measures the electrical activity of the heart. The figure below shows an
ECG of one heartbeat. The P wave represent atrial contraction (systole), the QRS
segment represents ventricular contraction (systole) and the T wave represents
relaxation of the atria and ventricles (diastole).

a. Complete the table below to show how the electrical activity, during one
heartbeat, corresponds to the opening and closing of the valves in the heart.
Part of ECG shown Result of Atrio-ventricular Semilunar valves
in the figure electrical activity Valves
P Atria contract Opened closed
QRS Ventricles Closed opened
contract
T Atria and opened closed
ventricles relax
The figure below shows the ECG of a student before and during exercise.

b. Calculate the heart rate, before exercise begins.

4 beats → 5 seconds
? beats → 60 seconds
4  60
= 5 = 48 beats/second

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 c. Using the figure describe how the electrical activity of the heart during
exercise differs from the electrical activity before exercise begins.
There is increased activity during exercise.
More frequently occurring QRS segments after exercising. Before exercise 4 QRS
segments in 5 seconds. After start of exercise 6 QRS segments in 5 seconds.
Small difference in the amplitude.
Waves are closer together during exercise
d. Describe the changes in ventilation as the athlete exercises.
Increased depth of breathing and increases rate of breathing.

Chapter 5 The Immune System and Its Diseases

Section 5.1 Pathogens
1. Define the term pathogen.
Pathogens are microorganisms (bacteria, protoctists, and fungi) and viruses that can
cause disease in living organisms.
2. Distinguish between a transmissible and a nontransmissible disease.
Diseases caused by pathogens are called transmissible diseases; these diseases are
contagious and can spread from one individual to another. Conversely, diseases that
are not caused by pathogens are called nontransmissible diseases—these diseases are
not contagious and cannot be spread from one individual to another.
3. [G] List two modes of direct transmission of pathogens and two modes of indirect
transmission.
Direct transmission: sexual and physical contact
Indirect transmission: eating contaminated food, breathing airborne pathogens
4. Why should blood be tested for pathogens before being used in transfusions?
Blood should be tested for the presence of pathogens before being used in transfusions
to help prevent the spread of pathogens from one individual to another.
5. What are vector organisms?
A vector organism carries and transmits a pathogen from an infected organism to
another living organism.
6. What are some personal hygiene practices that lower the risk of infection?
Frequent baths, washing hands regularly, covering one’s mouth while coughing and
sneezing, and brushing the teeth at least twice a day are some personal hygiene
practices that lower the risk of infection.
7. Why is it better to keep animals away from food?
It is better to keep animals away from food because many animals are vectors for
pathogens.
8. State why some foods should not be kept at room temperature for extended
periods of time.
Some food types should not be kept at room temperature for a long period of time
because warm temperatures encourage bacterial growth and result in an increase in the
quantity of bacteria in food; this increases the risk of infection and disease in people
ingesting this food.
9. Why is it important to treat wastewater before releasing it into the environment?
Wastewater is rich in pathogens and therefore should not be allowed to reach drinking
or domestic water sources.
10. List three ways to limit the spread of pathogens and harmful substances from
landfill sites.

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 • pest and rodent control at landfill sites
• lining landfills with waterproof material to prevent leakage of harmful substances
into the soil and ground water
• installing pipes in landfills to either collect harmful gases or allow them to escape
safely

Section 5.2 Innate Immune System

11. [G] Describe the innate immune system.
The innate immune system, also called the nonspecific immune system, is composed
of various types of nonspecific defenses that act immediately against the invasion of
any pathogen.
The innate immune system includes natural barriers in the human body such as the
skin, nasal hair, and other structures that are the body’s first line of defense against
invaders. If pathogens manage to cross these natural barriers, then they are faced with
a second line of defense mechanism that includes a process called inflammation.
12. State why the two lines of defense of the innate immune system are described as
nonspecific.
The two lines of defense of the innate immune system are described as nonspecific
because they defend the body against any foreign invader using the same mechanisms
and do not apply mechanisms specific to a pathogen.
13. [G] Name two chemical and two mechanical barriers against pathogens in the
human body.
The skin and nose hairs form a mechanical barrier against pathogens in the human
body, while tears, mucus and stomach acid form a chemical barrier against pathogens.
14. [G] Describe the stages of inflammation.
• Damaged tissues at the site of infection or injury release chemicals that cause the
increase in the diameter and the permeability of blood vessels.
• Blood flow to the site of damaged tissue increases, causing the area to become red
and warm.
• Some fluid escapes from the blood into the tissues, causing the swelling of the
inflamed area.
• Free nerve endings at the site of inflammation become stimulated by the
inflammation and send nerve impulses to the brain, which produce the pain
sensation that accompanies inflammation.
• White blood cells leave the blood capillaries and migrate into the site of tissue
damage where they destroy pathogens by phagocytosis.
15. What is the complement system?
The complement system is comprised of proteins that can be activated by the presence
of pathogens. It helps the body fight off invaders via several methods, such as
enhancing inflammation.
16. Describe the role of phagocytes (types of white blood cells) during the
inflammatory response.
• Phagocytes, a specific type of white blood cells, recognize a foreign cell
such as a bacterium by its foreign antigen on its cell membrane.
• Phagocytes squeeze between cells and tissues where they engulf and then
ingest harmful pathogens (bacteria).
• The engulfed pathogens are enveloped by the cell membrane, becoming
enclosed in vacuoles inside the phagocytes.

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 • The foreign cell is ingested into the vacuole, then destroyed by the powerful
hydrolytic or degradative enzymes found in the vacuole. This process is
called phagocytosis.
17. Indicate the importance of blood clotting that occurs in parallel with
inflammation when an injury or cut occurs.
When an injury or cut occurs, the blood clotting process occurs in parallel with
inflammation, helping to seal the wound, prevent the entry of pathogens, and reduce or
prevent further blood loss.

Section 5.3 Adaptive Immune System

18. [G] Describe the adaptive immune system.

The adaptive immune system, also called the specific or acquired immune system, is a
subtype of the immune system that involves immune responses specific against pathogens
and uses specialized white blood cells, the B and T lymphocytes.
19. Define antigens.
Antigens are protein markers found on the surface of pathogens.
An antigen is any molecule capable of triggering an immune response.
20. How do lymphocytes recognize the surface markers of pathogens?
• Lymphocytes have receptors on their surface that bind to foreign antigens.
• Lymphocytes are characterized by a high degree of specificity. Each lymphocyte can
mainly bind to one specific antigen. They have complementary shapes.
21. Describe what happens when a T lymphocyte encounters the antigen it binds to.
• When T lymphocytes encounter the particular antigen they bind to, they become activated
and start dividing, giving rise to clones of the activated T lymphocyte—with identical
receptors.
• T lymphocytes can directly attack cells infected with the invading pathogen. They do not
directly attack the pathogen.
• An activated T cell can also give rise to clones of memory T cells, whose function is to
protect the body against future infections by the same pathogen.
22. Specify the role of the memory T cells.
• The memory cells remain, circulating in the body for years.
• If the host encounters the same pathogen at a later date, the memory cells can quickly
change into active lymphocytes and wipe out the pathogen before it is able to cause an
infection or disease.
• Memory T cells allow the adaptive immune system to launch a faster and stronger attack
during subsequent encounters with the same pathogen.
23. Describe what happens when a B lymphocyte encounters the antigen it binds to.
• B lymphocytes are activated once they encounter the particular antigen they bind to.
• Once activated, B cells change into plasma cells which secrete antibodies.
• These plasma cells make hundreds of thousands of identical copies of themselves.
• Plasma cells secrete a special type of molecule, called an antibody, into body fluids such
as the blood and the lymph.
• Similar to T cells, activated B cells give rise to memory cell clones which help the body
launch a stronger and more rapid response in future encounters with the same pathogen.
24. [G] What is the function of antibodies?
• Antibodies are Y-shaped proteins that bind specifically to an antigen. Antibodies have a
shape complementary to their specific antigen.

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• By binding to an antigen, an antibody can neutralize a pathogen and prevent it from
binding to and infecting host tissue cells.
• Moreover, upon binding to a pathogen, an antibody can signal phagocytes to destroy the
captured pathogen.
• Antibodies can also activate the complement system to destroy the invading pathogens.
25. [G] Differentiate between primary and secondary immune response.
A primary response is characterized by a time delay of several days, while in a secondary
response, the delay is greatly diminished. A secondary immune response involves memory
cells and is more effective in eliminating the pathogen than the primary response.
26. [G] Describe the process of vaccination.
• This harmless or attenuated form of a pathogen must contain the antigens of the bacteria
or virus.
• The vaccine triggers a primary immune response but does not cause a disease.
• B lymphocytes recognize the antigens found in vaccines as foreign and produce specific
antibodies to destroy them.
• Some of these activated lymphocytes change into memory cells so that, upon an
encounter with the viable pathogen, the adaptive immune system can launch a faster and
more effective attack and most likely prevent the pathogen from causing an infection or a
disease.
• The memory cells will retain the ability to produce antibodies for many years and
therefore give long-term immunity.
27. Describe how a vaccine can limit the spread of a pathogen among people.
Vaccines play an important role in controlling the occurrence and spread of diseases.
When most individuals in a population are vaccinated against a pathogen, the pathogen
will run out of hosts in which to breed, and thus will have difficulty spreading in the
population.
28. [G] What is the difference between active and passive immunity?
active immunity:
• Active immunity is the defense against a pathogen by the production of
antibodies by the body’s own immune system following exposure to a
pathogen.
• It is gained after a vaccination (artificial active immunity) or an exposure to a
live pathogen when actual infection occurs (natural active immunity).
• It results in the production of memory cells that retain the ability to produce a
specific antibody for many years. Therefore, it gives a long term immunity to a
specific pathogen.
passive immunity:
• Passive immunity is the defense against a pathogen by a transfer of antibodies
from an external source into the body (the antibodies are made by another
organism).
• It is gained after the transfer of antibodies from an external source or via
mother’s milk to an infant during breastfeeding.
• It does not result in production of memory cells, and therefore gives short-term
immunity.
• Passive immunity provides the body with immediate protection against a
pathogen, bypassing the delay that occurs while the body produces its own
antibodies to the invading pathogen during the development of active
immunity.

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Section 5.4 Diseases of the Immune System

(154) 25.
Why is type 1 diabetes considered an autoimmune
disease?

(156) 27.
What is one major difference between AIDS and SCID
diseases?
29. What is an autoimmune disease?
An autoimmune disease is one in which the immune system, which normally defends
the body against foreign pathogens, falsely identifies self-antigens—antigens that are
normally present in our body cells—as foreign and consequently attacks them.
30. [G] Name some diseases that affect the immune system.
Diseases of the immune system include autoimmune diseases such as type 1 diabetes
and immunodeficiency disorders such as AIDS and SCID.
31.
a. Why is type 1 diabetes considered an autoimmune disease?
Type 1 diabetes is considered an autoimmune disease because it results from an
autoimmune attack against the beta cells of the pancreas, which then reduces or halts
the production of insulin, causing an increase in the blood glucose levels.
b. Indicate the symptoms of type 1 diabetes.
Common symptoms in people with untreated diabetes are persistent weakness and
hunger as well as frequent urination and constant thirst.If left untreated, diabetes can
lead to blindness, kidney failure, and heart disease.
c. Indicate the treatment of Type 1 diabetes.
Type I diabetes is mainly treated with insulin injections, which will be required for
the rest of the person’s life.
32. Which body parts or organs are attacked by the immune system in Hashimoto’s
thyroiditis and rheumatoid arthritis?
The immune system attacks the thyroid gland in the Hashimoto’s thyroiditis disease; it
attacks the joints in rheumatoid arthritis.
33.
a. Define sexually transmitted infection.
A sexually transmitted infection is an infection that is transmitted via body [fluids]
through sexual contact.
b. How is HIV transmitted?
HIV is transmitted by
• by sexual activity
• 2-by contaminated blood transfusion
• during pregnancy e.g. from an infected mother or HIV positive mother to her
child
• by contaminated needles shared by drug users.
c. Identify the cell targeted by HIV.
The cells targeted by HIV are the lymphocytes, in particular the T cells.
d. State why the number of individuals infected with HIV may be greater than the
number of reported cases.
• People recently infected with HIV show no symptoms.
• People infected may not have had their blood checked.
e. Explain how the infection with HIV leads to the symptoms of AIDS.

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 HIV is a virus. It infects lymphocytes and therefore reduces the body’s abilities to
make antibodies. For this reason infectious diseases and cancer can develop more
easily.
f. How can AIDs be prevented and treated.
• Increase the awareness of AIDS.
• People who are known to be infected should avoid passing it on.
• People who are not HIV positive should reduce the risk of becoming
infected by using condoms, and avoid sharing contaminated [needles].
• Anti-viral drugs can be used to treat the viral infection. Antibiotics are only
effective against bacterial diseases.
Chapter 6 The Excretory System

Section 6.1 Excretory Products and Their Elimination

1. Define the term excretion.

Excretion is the removal of toxic materials, metabolic waste products, and substances
present in excess from the body.
2. What are some organs of the human excretory system?
The human excretory system includes the kidneys, the ureters, the urinary bladder, and
the urethra, which form the urinary system, in addition to other organs, such as the
skin, the lungs, and the large intestine.
3. Why must urea be regularly eliminated from the body?
Urea must be eliminated regularly from the body because if it is allowed to accumulate
in the body, it may reach harmful levels that are toxic to the body.
4. [G] What are the wastes excreted by the kidney?
Urea must be eliminated regularly from the body because if it is allowed to accumulate
in the body, it may reach harmful levels that are toxic to the body.
5. [G] What is the role of the skin and lungs in excretion?
The skin produces sweat, which is a fluid that contains water, salts, and other
molecules such as urea. The lungs, on the other hand, excrete carbon dioxide gas, a
waste product of cellular respiration, out of the body through exhaled air. Carbon
dioxide gas can become toxic to the body if it accumulates to reach certain harmful
levels. The lungs also excrete water vapor, another byproduct of cellular respiration,
through exhaled air.
6. [G] How is urea produced in the liver?
Urea is produced in the liver as a result of the deamination of excess amino acids.
7. List functions of the liver.
• The liver regulates the amount of glucose in the blood in response to specific
hormones. The liver removes excess glucose form the blood and stores it in the form
of glycogen for short term use.
• The liver produces urea by deaminating excess amino acids.
• Many of the proteins found in the blood are made in the liver, such as fibrinogen,
which is used in blood clotting.
• The liver produces bile salts which are important in lipid digestion.
• The liver breaks down old red blood cells and stores iron from hemoglobin
breakdown.
• The liver stores fat soluble vitamins A and D.
• The liver stores some minerals like potassium.

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 • The liver detoxifies the blood by converting unwanted or toxic (poisonous)
substances into harmless substances that can be passed out in the urine. E.g. drugs,
alcohol and used hormones.
• The liver makes cholesterol for the cell membranes.

8.
a. Which organ has a role in both egestion and excretion in humans?
The large intestine is involved in egestion and excretion.
b. Distinguish between the egestion and excretion processes taking place in the
large intestine.
• Egestion is the removal of undigested food material from the body.
For example, the removal of cellulose from the body, since cellulose is not
digested or absorbed into the blood, and it passes unchanged through the
alimentary canal.
• Excretion is the removal of metabolic waste products produced by the cells.
For example, bilirubin, which is the product of the breakdown of
hemoglobin in worn-out red blood cells, is a metabolic waste product
excreted in feces.
9. Describe the process of deamination.
• Excess amino acids are not stored in the body, they are carried to the liver
where they are deaminated by the removal of their amine NH2 group.
• This results in the production of toxic ammonia which is converted into urea
and released into the blood to be filtered out by the kidneys and excreted in
the urine.
• The remaining acid group (energy-containing molecule) is converted into
glycogen, then into glucose and used for cellular respiration as a source of
energy.
Section 6.2 Organs of the Excretory System

10. [G] Describe the general structure of the kidney and its nephrons.
• Three main parts can be identified in a kidney: the cortex, the medulla, and the renal
pelvis.
• The cortex is the outermost region of the kidney and is light-colored.
• The medulla lies deeper inside and is darker in color compared to the cortex; it can
be easily identified by its pyramidal or cone-shaped tissues.
• The renal pelvis is the innermost region of the kidney; it is a funnel-shaped structure
that is continuous with the ureter.
• Each kidney contains thousands of tiny tubules, called nephrons, which are the
functional units of the kidney, where blood is filtered, and urine is produced.
• Each nephron includes a cup-shaped capsule called the renal capsule, or the
Bowman’s capsule. The renal capsule surrounds a tiny network of capillaries called
a glomerulus. The renal capsule and the glomerulus reside in the renal cortex. A
tubule extends from the renal capsule and becomes twisted or convoluted in the
renal cortex before running straight into the renal medulla, where it forms a loop
(the loop of Henle) and returns toward the renal cortex. In the renal cortex, this
tubule forms another region of convolutions before returning to the renal medulla,
through a duct called the collecting duct, and then moving to the renal pelvis.

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11. Below is a simple diagram showing the functional unit of a kidney. On the
diagram, label the site of the following processes: ultrafiltration, selective
reabsorption and osmoregulation. Identify the parts labelled A-G.

A – Loop of Henle E – Efferent arteriole

B – Bowman’s capsule F – Proximal convoluted tubule
C – Glomerulus G – Afferent arteriole
D – Collecting duct
12. Describe the ureters.
The ureters are the tubes that carry urine produced by the kidneys from the renal pelvis to
the urinary bladder; these tubes contain layers of smooth muscle to help propel urine away
from the kidneys and toward the urinary bladder.
13. [G] List the main steps involved in urine formation.
Urine formation involves blood filtration in the glomerulus and the reabsorption of
useful molecules in the convoluted tubules.
14. What is the importance of the reabsorption step of urine formation?
The reabsorption step of urine formation is important for preventing the loss of
substances needed by the body in urine (e.g., nutrients). During reabsorption, these
substances are brought back from the filtrate into the bloodstream.
15. Describe what happens during ultrafiltration.
• In the nephron, high blood pressure is created in the glomerulus because the
afferent arteriole entering the glomerulus has a larger diameter than that of
the efferent arteriole leaving the glomerulus.
• The increased pressure forces up to one fifth of the blood plasma to leak out
of the glomerulus and fill up the Bowman’s capsule.
• The portion of the plasma that has entered the Bowman’s capsule is the
filtrate and contains water with some glucose, mineral salts, amino acids and
urea.
• It does not contain blood cells and proteins as these are too large to pass out
of the glomerulus.
16.
a. What is selective reabsorption?
Selective reabsorption means only some valuable components of the filtrate
are brought back into the blood.
b. Name the substances reabsorbed back into the filtrate.
The kidney reabsorbs from the filtrate all the glucose and amino acids, most
water and some salts to maintain homeostasis.
c. How are the glucose and amino acids reabsorbed?
Glucose and amino acids are reabsorbed by active transport.

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 d. Where does selective reabsorption occur?
Selective reabsorption occurs in the convoluted tubules.
17.
a. What is osmoregulation? Where does osmoregulation occur? What
hormone is responsible for osmoregulation?
• Osmoregulation is the maintenance of water balance.
• It occurs in the collecting ducts.
• This process is under the control of the hypothalamus in the brain and a
hormone called antidiuretic hormone or ADH.
b. Outline what will happen to the concentration and volume of urine in hot
weather.
• In hot weather, increased sweating will cause a loss of water from the body.
• The water potential of the blood would decrease.
• This would be detected by the hypothalamus which would stimulate the
pituitary gland to release the ADH which would travel dissolved in the blood
plasma to the collecting ducts of the kidney causing them to increase their
permeability.
• More water would be absorbed back into the body and therefore a small
volume of concentrated urine would be produced.
18. Compare the renal artery to the renal vein.
The renal artery is a blood vessel responsible for carrying blood from heart to kidney
while the renal vein is a blood vessel responsible for carrying blood from kidneys to
heart.
Renal artery Renal Vein Explanation
More oxygen, Less oxygen, glucose, The oxygen and nutrients are taken
glucose, amino acids amino acids and other up by the cells of the kidney.
and other nutrients nutrients
More nitrogenous Less urea The kidney removes urea from the
waste as urea blood and passes it on to urine as it
is a waste product from the
deamination of amino acids
Less carbon dioxide More carbon dioxide Produced by the kidney cells as a
result of cellular respiration
Excess water and salts less water and salts Excess water and salts are removed
by the kidney into the urine.

19. [G] Describe how the volume and concentration of urine produced can be
affected by different factors.
When the body is well hydrated, a larger volume of more dilute urine will be produced
to maintain the proper concentration of solutes in bodily fluids. Conversely, if the body
is dehydrated, such as from excessive sweating, a smaller volume of more
concentrated urine will be produced to reduce further water loss from the body. Also,
during periods of dehydration, a hormone called antidiuretic hormone, or ADH, is
released and causes the collecting duct of the nephron to become more permeable to
water; this allows more water to be retained in the body and leads to the production of
a smaller volume of more concentrated urine. When the body is well hydrated, lower
amounts of ADH are released. Consequently, less water is able to leave the collecting
duct to be retained in the body, thus larger volumes of more dilute urine are produced.

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20. [G] Trace the path of urine from the kidneys to the outside of the body.
The urine, produced by the kidneys, is propelled down the ureters to the urinary
bladder and is later excreted via the urethra.
21. Label the human excretory system below.

A – renal artery
B – kidney
C – ureter
D – urinary bladder/bladder
E – urethra
F – renal vein
22. Identify structures X, Y, Z and R in the diagram above and state their function.

• Structure X is the renal vein carrying deoxygenated blood away from the
kidney. It will join the inferior vena cava.
• Structure Y is the renal artery, which branches from the aorta, carrying
oxygenated blood to the kidney.
• Structure Z is the ureter carrying urine from the kidney to the urinary
bladder.
• Structure R is the urethra carrying urine from the bladder to the outside of
the body.
23. What is the function of the sphincter muscles present at the top of the urethra?
Sphincter muscles present at the top of the urethra contract to close the urethra,
preventing urination; conversely, this sphincter muscle relaxes to allow the flow of
urine out through the urethra.
24. [T] The excretory system in humans includes the kidneys, the ureters, the
urinary bladder, and the urethra, which form the urinary system, in addition to
other organs, such as the skin, the lungs, and the large intestine.

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 a) What is excretion?
Excretion is the removal of toxic materials, metabolic waste products, and substances
present in excess from the body.
b) Identify the roles of the skin and the lungs in excretion.
The skin produces sweat, which is a fluid that contains water, salts, and other
molecules such as urea. The lungs excrete carbon dioxide gas, a waste product of
cellular respiration, out of the body through exhaled air.
The lungs also excrete water vapor, another byproduct of cellular respiration, through
exhaled air.
c) The figure below illustrates a section of a kidney.
Identify the structures labelled A to C.

A: cortex
B: medulla
C: renal pelvis
d) Give one function of each of structures D, E, and F.
D: The ureters are the tubes that carry the urine produced by the kidneys from the
renal pelvis to the urinary bladder.
E: The renal artery transports oxygenated blood to the kidneys.
F: The renal veins carry blood from the kidneys to the heart.
Section 6.3 Diseases of the Excretory System and Their Common Treatments
25. [G] List some commonly used treatments for kidney diseases.
Among the treatment options available for kidney failure are kidney
dialysis and kidney transplant.
26. Describe kidney dialysis.
Kidney dialysis is the process by which urea, excess salts, excess water, and other
substances are removed from the blood of a patient suffering from kidney failure
using a special machine called a dialysis unit or a kidney machine. The tubing must be
very long to provide a large enough surface area for adequate diffusion. The dialysis
solution should contain the same concentration of salts and glucose as healthy blood
to prevent excessive loss of glucose or salts
27. What is one advantage and one disadvantage of taking immunosuppressant
drugs following kidney transplant surgery?
An advantage of taking immunosuppressant drugs after kidney transplant surgery is
that the chances of kidney rejection may be minimized by these drugs;
immunosuppressant drugs reduce the efficiency of the recipient’s immune system to

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 help prevent an attack on the transplanted kidney by the recipient’s white blood cells.
A disadvantage of taking immunosuppressant drugs is that the recipient becomes
more vulnerable to infections.
28. What are advantages of kidney transplant over kidney dialysis?
• It is less expensive in the long run than kidney dialysis treatments, which
need to be performed for the rest of the patient’s life.
• There are no dietary restrictions.
• The patient is permanently cured from his disease if the transplant is
successful.
• The patient can lead a normal life without returning to the hospital every few
days.
29. [T] Urea and other excretory products accumulate in the blood of patients
suffering from kidney failure. Therefore, they must be admitted every few days
into the hospital for dialysis treatment.

a. With reference to the figure above, explain the principle of dialysis as

used in kidney machines.
The patient’s blood is made to flow into the kidney machine, where it is
filtered in a sterile environment and then returned to the patient’s body.
The machine consists of a long, selectively permeable tube through which the
patient’s blood is pumped.
This tubing, bathed in a special solution called dialysis fluid, has tiny pores
that allow waste molecules to diffuse out of the blood and into the dialysis
solution. The tubing must be very long and narrow to provide a large surface
area for diffusion.
The dialysis solution is changed regularly to maintain effective diffusion
gradients for the substances that need to be removed from the blood.
b. How does the composition of the dialysis fluid compare to that of the
patient’s blood in terms of urea, water, and salts?
The dialysis fluid has no urea while the blood has high urea.
The dialysis fluid has the same amount of water as blood.
The dialysis fluid has lower amounts of salts compared to the blood.
c. What would happen if the glucose concentration used in the dialysis fluid
is lower than that in the patient’s blood?
The glucose in the patient’s blood will move out to the dialysis fluid.

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 d. Transplanted kidneys are more efficient than dialysis but there are some
issues regarding the transplantation procedure. Give one concern of
kidney transplants and explain how it may occur.
The recipient’s immune system may reject the transplanted kidney.
Kidney rejection occurs when the recipient’s immune system recognizes the
antigens present on the surface of the cells of the transplanted kidney as
foreign and launches an immune response against them, eventually destroying
the transplanted kidney.
30. An experiment was carried out on two different species of amoeba in the same
pond water. The time for the contractile vacuole to expel a volume of water
equivalent to the animal’s volume was recorded.

a. In which species, A or B, did the contractile vacuole have the greater rate
of water discharge?
B
b. Suggest two reasons why one species might need to discharge water faster
than the other.
Two reasons are:
- The two species have intracellular solutions with different solute
concentrations.
- The size of the organisms in one species is generally larger than the size of
organisms belonging to the other species./ The two species live in ponds with
different solute concentrations (i.e., the water of one pond has a higher or a
lower solute concentration than the water of the other pond)

Chapter 7 The Nervous System and Sense Organs

Section 7.1 Communication, Coordination, and Control

1. Define the terms stimulus, receptor, and effector.

• A stimulus is any change in the internal or external organism's environment that
can cause a response or reaction in the organism.
• The specialized cell that detects a stimulus is called a receptor.
• The body part that responds to a stimulus is called an effector.
2. What are the two main organ systems that specialize in the coordination and
control of activities within the human body?
The two main organ systems that specialize in the coordination and control of
activities within the body are the nervous system and the endocrine system.
3. G What are the main functions of the central nervous system and the peripheral
nervous system?
The central nervous system consists of the brain and spinal cord, and its main
function is to integrate signals received from sensory receptors and generate
an output, in the form of a nerve impulse to produce a meaningful response

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 through a specific effector. The peripheral nervous system consists of the
nerves and receptors. It connects the CNS to different body parts.

Section 7.2 Neurons and Nerve Impulses

4. Draw a labelled diagram of a motor neuron, a sensory neuron, and a relay neuron.

5. a. Describe the cell body of the neuron.

The cell body of a neuron consists of cell membrane, cytoplasm and most of the
organelles including nucleus, mitochondria, rough endoplasmic reticulum and
Golgi apparatus.
b. Describe the axon of a neuron.
• The axon is a long projection that conducts impulses in one direction over
long distances and away from the cell body toward effectors or other
neurons.
• The cytoplasm of an axon lacks rough endoplasmic reticulum and Golgi
apparatus since these two organelles are required for protein synthesis and
packaging. The needed proteins are transported to an axon from the cell
body.
• Axons may be very long, reaching over one meter in length.
• Axons are typically much less branched than dendrites, except at the axon
terminal where extensive branching may be observed.
c. Describe the dendrites of a neuron.
Dendrites are tree-like structures, they are short and branched, and they receive
nerve impulses from other neurons and conducts it towards the cell body in one
direction.The cytoplasm of the dendrites contains most of the organelles found in
the cell body.
6. Compare and contrast axons and dendrites.
Dendrites are short, branched cellular extensions that can receive nerve impulses from
other neurons, and transmit them to the cell body. The cytoplasm of dendrites contains
most of the organelles found in the cell body. Axons generally carry impulses away
from the cell body toward effectors or other neurons. Axons may be very long,
reaching over one meter in length. Axons are typically much less branched than

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 dendrites, except at the axon terminal where extensive branching may be observed.
The cytoplasm of an axon lacks rough endoplasmic reticulum and Golgi apparatus.
7. What advantage does a myelinated axon have over an unmyelinated one?
Nerve impulses travel much faster in myelinated axons than in unmyelinated ones.
8. [G] Identify the main functions of motor neurons, sensory neurons, and relay
neurons.
Motor neuron, sensory neuron, relay neuron are the three types of
neurons:
• Sensory neurons connect a receptor to the CNS so they convey sensory
impulses to the brain and spinal cord.
• Motor neurons connect the CNS to an effector so they transmit motor
impulses from the brain or spinal cord to the muscle or gland.
• Relay neuron or interneuron carries impulses from the sensory neuron to the
motor neuron and are located in the CNS. Therefore, they conduct impulses
between different parts of the CNS.
9. Define synapse.
A synapse is the junction between two adjacent neurons, including the synaptic cleft
together with the ends of the presynaptic and the postsynaptic neurons on either side of
the cleft.
10. [G] Describe the transmission of a nerve impulse across a synapse.

1. Impulses arrive down the axon of the first neuron also known as the pre-
synaptic neuron.
2. Vesicles release neurotransmitters by exocytosis.
3. Neurotransmitters diffuse across synaptic cleft / gap.
4. Neurotransmitters attach to their receptors on the membrane of the second
neuron also known as the post-synaptic neuron.
5. Neurotransmitters transmit the impulse which can continue along the
postsynaptic neuron.
6. Neurotransmitter is broken down by enzyme from second neuron.

11. Describe how a drug can act on a synapse.

A drug may resemble a particular neurotransmitter, and by binding to that
neurotransmitter’s receptor, stimulate or block the receptors of this natural
neurotransmitter. Alternatively, a drug may block the enzyme that degrades the
neurotransmitter, thus lengthening the amount of time the neurotransmitter is active on
the postsynaptic neuron.
Section 7.3 Divisions of the Nervous System

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12. What are two functions of the spinal cord?
The spinal cord connects the brain to different body parts through many nerves. The
spinal cord also mediates many reflexes.
13. What are some bodily functions that are controlled by the brain?
The brain is involved in the control of many important bodily processes, such as body
movements, memory, speech, and regulation of body temperature, heart rate, and
breathing rate.
14. Distinguish between spinal and cranial nerves.
Spinal nerves transmit information between the spinal cord and specific parts of the
body while cranial nerves extend directly from the brain, transmitting information
between the brain and specific parts of the body.
15. [G] Distinguish between a voluntary and an involuntary action.
A voluntary action is an action that you deliberately decide to do. It is an action in which
a conscious choice is made, even if it is in response to a stimulus. An involuntary action
is an action that happens automatically, without conscious awareness or control.
16. [G] Define the terms reflex action and reflex arc.
A reflex action is a very rapid response to a stimulus that usually helps prevent damage
to the body. No thought or processing time is involved in a reflex action; it is
automatic OR A reflex action is a means of automatically and rapidly integrating and
coordinating stimuli with the responses of the effectors (muscles and glands).
In a reflex action, which is a very rapid response to a particular stimulus, the pathway
taken by the nerve impulse from the receptor to the effector is called a reflex arc.
17. Describe the main steps involved in a hand withdrawal reflex in response to
contact with a hot object.
- When you touch a hot object, sensory receptors in the skin send a nerve impulse along
the axon of a sensory neuron to the nearest region of the CNS, which is in the spinal
cord in this example.
- Inside the spinal cord, the sensory neuron carrying the nerve impulse synapse with
several relay neurons which, in turn, form synapses with motor neurons.
- The nerve impulse transmitted by the motor neurons is carried along the motor axons
from the spinal cord to effector muscles.
- The impulse causes some muscles in the hand to contract and others to relax in
coordination such that the hand is withdrawn from the stimulus.
18. Refer to the diagram below showing the pathway taken by a spinal reflex action.

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 a. Name parts A-E.
A. effector (muscle)
B. motor neuron
C. relay neuron
D. sensory neuron
E. receptor
b. If neuron C is damaged, what would be the consequence?
If neuron C, which is the relay neuron, was damaged the impulse transmission
from D, the sensory neuron to B, the motor neuron would stop and therefore the
effector would not respond.
c. Give the correct sequence of structures involved in a reflex arc.
The structures involved in a reflex arc include the following:
Receptor → sensory neuron → relay neuron in CNS → motor neuron → effector
c. Where is the cell body of a motor neuron located in a hand withdrawal reflex
action?
The cell body of a motor neuron is located in the grey matter of the spinal cord.
e. Which neuron has its cell body entirely inside the nervous system?
The relay neuron is entirely inside the nervous system.

Section 7.4 Sensory Organs

19. Define sensory organs.
Sensory organs are groups of sensory and other specialized cells that respond to
specific stimuli or facilitate the detection of sensory information.

20. Name some sensory organs in the human body and state which sense each organ
is responsible for.

21. [G] Briefly describe the structure and function of the eye.
The eye is a sensory organ that responds to light and it is responsible for vision.
• The eye contains two types of light-sensitive receptors: rods and cones. Both are
located in a thin layer that lines the back of the eye called the retina.
• When light stimulates the light receptors in the retina, a cranial nerve called the
optic nerve carries the nerve impulses to the brain which produces a visual image
by analyzing all the signals from each receptor cell.
• Behind the retina is the choroid, a black layer that absorbs excess light scattered
from the retina, thus preventing blurring of vision.
• The white, tough, and opaque outer layer of the eye is called the sclera. At the front
of the eye, the sclera is covered by a thin and delicate membrane, called the
conjunctiva.

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 • The circular transparent part at the front of the eye that is surrounded by the white
sclera is called the cornea.
• The colored, circular part of the eye, which can be seen through the transparent
cornea, is called the iris.
• A gap, which looks like a black circle, at the center of the iris is called the pupil.
• The lens of the eye is located behind the iris, and it is held in place by a ring of
fibrous strands, called suspensory ligaments.

22. Label the structures of the eye.

a. What is the role of the optic nerve?

When light stimulates the rods and cones in the retina, a cranial nerve, called the
optic nerve, carries nerve impulses generated by these receptors to the brain.
b. Identify the light-sensitive part of the eye.
The light sensitive part of the eye is called the retina.
c. Where are the light receptors located?
Light receptors: the rods and the cones are found in the retina.
d. Where in the eye is the optic nerve located?
The optic nerve is located behind the blind spot.
e. Why is the image not seen when light rays fall on the blind spot of the retina?
The blind spot of the retina has no receptors and light falling on the blind spot is
not detected and the image is not seen.
f. What region of the eye has the most cone cells?
The fovea is the region of the eye that contains the most cone cells.
Images that fall on fovea produce the sharpest and most detailed color perception.
23. Describe the fovea.
The fovea is the part of the retina where cone cells are most densely packed. The
sharpest and most detailed color image is produced when light falls on the fovea.
24. Describe the function of the cornea.
The cornea is the transparent, dome-shaped structure on the eye in front of the iris and
pupil. The cornea refract light so that light rays converge on the retina.
25. Describe the function of the iris.
The iris controls the amount of light entering the pupil.
26. Indicate the role of the eye lens.

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 The lens is a flexible structure that does the fine adjustments to create sharp focus. It
can change shape to focus light on the retina when looking at objects at varying
distances.
27. Describe the suspensory ligaments.
The suspensory ligaments hold the lens in place and attach it to the ciliary muscle
(which is a circular smooth muscle that encircles the lens.)
28. State some features of cones and rods.
• Cones are sensitive only to bright light.
• Cones allow the perception of color and sharp, detailed images.
• Three different kinds of cones absorbing light of different colors and wavelengths.
• Cones are found in the retina and are especially concentrated in the fovea.
• Rod cells are scattered over the retina, excluding the fovea.
• Rods are more sensitive to light than cones and can detect dim light.
• Rods give black and white vision and provide images of low sharpness.
29. a. Describe the muscles of the iris.
• The muscles of the iris are responsible for the changes in pupil diameter
observed in a pupil reflex. They control the amount of light entering the eye
by regulating the diameter of the pupil.
• The iris consists of 2 antagonistic (of opposite functions) sets of muscles that
regulate the size of the pupil. The circular muscles and the radial muscles.
• The circular muscles encircle the pupil. The radial muscles radiate out from
the edge of the pupil.
b. Define the pupil reflex.
The diameter of the pupil can be regulated by a cranial reflex action (a reflex
action involving the brain) called the pupil reflex.
c. Indicate the importance of the pupil reflex.
The pupil reflex protects the retina from damage due to excess light and allows
more light to reach the retina in dim light for better vision.
d. Describe how the iris responds when you walk from a dimly lit room into a
brightly lit room.
• Radial muscles of the iris relax.
• Circular muscles of the iris contract.
• Pupil becomes smaller.
• Less light is allowed into the eye preventing damage of the retina.
e. Describe how the iris responds when you walk from a brightly lit room into a
dim room (or dark room)
• Radial muscles of the iris contract.
• Circular muscles of the iris relax.
• Pupil becomes larger.
• More light is allowed into the eye.
30. a. Define accommodation and name the muscle responsible for the
accommodation reflex.
Accommodation is the ability to focus on objects at varying distances. The ciliary
muscle is responsible for the accommodation reflex.
b. Explain how the eye accommodates for a distant object?
• To accommodate the eye for a distant object, the ciliary muscles relax.
• The suspensory ligaments are pulled tight
• which then pulls the lens so that it becomes thin, longer and less convex.

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 • The parallel rays of light from the distant object are bent less and focused on
the fovea of the retina.
c. Describe how the eye accommodates for a near object.
• To accommodate the eye for a near object, the ciliary muscles contract.
• This causes the suspensory ligaments to become slack
• releasing tension on the lens, which then becomes thicker, shorter and more
convex.
• The light bends more and the divergent rays of light from the near object are
bent strongly to focus them on the fovea of the retina.
31. The figure below shows structures found in the skin.

a. Which label is pointing to hair? K

b. Which label is pointing to the hair erector muscle? F
c. Which label is pointing to a sweat gland? M
d. Which labels are pointing to receptors? C & D
e. Which label is pointing to the skin capillaries? E
f. Which label is pointing to an arteriole? H
g. Which label is pointing to fatty tissue? G

32. Indicate the role of the adipose tissue.

Cells that store fat form a layer, called adipose tissue, under the dermis. This layer of adipose
tissue insulates the body, reducing heat loss, and also acts as an energy store.
33. Explain the roles of the skin in humans.
• Sensitivity since it acts as a sense organ. This means the skin has receptors
sensitive to touch, pressure, hotness, coldness and pain.
• Protection by forming a physical barrier. The skin prevents the entry of bacteria
and fungi, reduces evaporation of water and absorbs ultra-violet light.
• Temperature regulation involving sweat glands, hair and blood vessels.
• Excretion: The skin excretes sweat, which is a fluid that contains water, salts, and
other molecules such as urea.

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34. [T] The nervous system coordinates the responses of humans to changes in their
environments. The chart below shows the arrangement of the two major parts of
the nervous system in the body.

a) Identify the missing parts (A, B, C) in the chart.

A: central nervous system;
B: spinal cord;
C: nerves
b) Distinguish between stimuli, receptors, and effectors.
A stimulus is any change in an organism’s environment that can cause a response
in the organism.
The specialized cells that detect the stimulus are called receptors.
The body part that responds to the stimulus is called an effector.
c) Some responses of the human body are voluntary actions while others
involuntary actions. The flowchart below shows the general steps of how a
reflex, an almost instantaneous involuntary response, takes place in humans.
Stimulus → receptor → sensory neuron → interneuron → motor neuron →
effector → response
i. Distinguish between a voluntary and an involuntary action.
A voluntary action is an action that you deliberately decide to do. It is an
action in which a conscious choice is made, even if it is in response to a
stimulus.
An involuntary action is an action that happens automatically, without
conscious awareness or control.
ii. Identify the pathway of the reflex action that occurs in response to
shining a bright light into the eye.
Bright light → retina/cone/rod → sensory neuron → interneuron → motor
neuron → muscles of the iris → pupil becomes smaller
35. [T] The figure below illustrates a reflex action that involves the eye. Part A shows
an eye in bright light conditions, while part B shows an eye in dim light
conditions.

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 a) Identify the stimulus to which the eye responds.
Light intensity is the stimulus to which the eye responds.
b) State the receptor cells that detect the stimulus.
The photoreceptor cells of the retina, mainly the rods and cones
c) Name the effector that responds to the stimulus.
The muscles of the iris are responsible for the changes in pupil diameter observed
in a pupil reflex.
d) What is the name of the nerve that transmits nerve impulses to the brain?
The optic nerve
e) Describe how the nervous system coordinates the response in each case (A
and B) shown in the figure.
In bright light (case A), the radial muscles relax while the circular muscles
contract. As a result, the pupil becomes smaller and less light is allowed into the
eye.
In low light environments (case B), radial muscles present in the iris contract
while the circular muscles relax. As a result, the pupil becomes larger and more
light is allowed into the eye.

Chapter 8 The Endocrine System and Homeostasis

Section 8.1 Characteristics of the Endocrine System

1. Define hormone.
A hormone is a chemical produced by endocrine cells (most of which are grouped
together in endocrine glands) and released into the blood to affect the activity of one or
more specific tissues in another part of the body.
2. Describe briefly how the endocrine system produces a response to a stimulus.
Upon receiving a stimulus, an endocrine gland, or an endocrine tissue, is induced to
release a specific hormone into the bloodstream; hormone molecules are carried by
blood to target organs where they bind to specific receptors present in target cells to
elicit a response.
3. Distinguish between an endocrine and an exocrine gland.
An endocrine gland secretes chemicals directly into the bloodstream to be carried to
near or distant target organs. Conversely, exocrine glands, secrete their chemicals into

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 special ducts that empty into specific organs. Endocrine glands lack such ducts and are
described as ductless glands. Endocrine

Section 8.2 Endocrine Organs and Hormones

4. [G] What is the endocrine function of the pancreas?

The endocrine cells of the pancreas are scattered throughout the tissue of this organ, in
groups called the islets of Langerhans. Two of the hormones produced by the islets of
Langerhans are insulin and glucagon. These two hormones regulate blood glucose
levels. Insulin causes a decrease in blood glucose levels, while glucagon causes an
increase in blood glucose levels; thus, glucagon and insulin have opposite effects on
blood glucose levels.
5. How is the level of glucose in the blood regulated following a carbohydrate-rich
meal?
• After a meal rich in carbohydrates, the amount of glucose in the blood rises above
normal levels.
• The islets of Langerhans cells in the pancreas detect the increase in blood glucose
levels and secrete insulin into the blood.
• The liver and muscle cells, two major target organs of insulin, respond to insulin
by absorbing glucose from the blood to be used in cellular respiration or to be
stored in the form of glycogen.
• This lowers the blood glucose levels, bringing them back within the normal range.
6. How are the levels of glucose in the blood regulated during fasting?
• During fasting, glucose levels in the blood drop below normal levels.
• The Islets of Langerhans cells in the pancreas respond by secreting glucagon into
the blood.
• Glucagon is released into the blood stream in response to a low level of blood
sugar.
• Glucagon stimulates the breakdown of glycogen to glucose in muscle cells and in
the liver, from which glucose is then released into the blood, raising glucose levels.
• Glucagon increases the blood glucose level back to a normal value.
7.
a. Describe type I diabetes.
• Type 1 diabetes typically appears early in life, during childhood or
adolescence.
• It is an autoimmune disease that results when the beta cells of the islets of
Langerhans are attacked and destroyed by the body’s immune system.
• Since beta cells are responsible for the production of insulin, individuals
with type 1 diabetes produce little or no insulin and elevated blood glucose
levels.
b. Outline the symptoms of type 1 diabetes.
• Since people with type 1 diabetes produce little or no insulin, blood glucose
levels cannot be reduced to normal values, and a condition known as
hyperglycemia (an excess of glucose in the bloodstream) will likely occur.
This happens following a meal rich in carbohydrates.
• Symptoms of hyperglycemia could include blurred vision, increased thirst,
and frequent urination.
• Hyperglycemia can also cause glucose to be excreted in the urine.
c. Outline the treatment of diabetes.

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 • Checking blood glucose levels regularly using a sensor.
• Checking urine for glucose using a simple dipstick.
• Eat small frequent meals.
• Injections of insulin.
• Avoiding meals rich in carbohydrates.
8. [G] What is the role of adrenaline in the fight-or-flight response?
The hormone released by the adrenal glands is adrenaline. It is responsible for the
‘fight or flight situations’ response.
• Adrenaline increases the heart rate, the pulse rate and blood pressure, supplying
more blood to the organs involved in the fight-or-flight response, specifically the
skeletal muscles and the brain.
• Adrenaline causes blood vessels in the organs of the digestive system to constrict,
temporarily diverting blood to organs that are involved in the fight-or-flight
response.
• Adrenaline causes muscles of the digestive organs to relax and stimulates skeletal
muscles to become tense and contract more forcefully.
• Adrenaline causes blood vessels in the skin to undergo vasoconstriction, become
constricted, causing the skin to become pale.
• Adrenaline increases the breathing rate and causes the dilation of the airways to
improve oxygen supply to the actively respiring organs involved in the fight-or-
flight response (brain and skeletal muscles).
• Adrenaline stimulates the liver to break glycogen down into glucose, which is then
released into the bloodstream. This provides a rapid supply of extra glucose to the
brain, the contracting skeletal muscles, and other organs to meet their high energy
needs (by cellular respiration) due to vigorous action.
• Adrenaline causes the adipose tissue to breakdown fats into fatty acids. More fatty
acids are available for energy production.
• Adrenaline causes the pupils to dilate allowing more light into the eyes, which helps
see danger more clearly.
9. [G] Describe the endocrine functions of the ovaries and testes.
• In addition to being the female reproductive organs, the ovaries also have an
endocrine function: they secrete the hormones estrogen and progesterone. These
hormones regulate the activity of the female reproductive organs and are
responsible for the development of secondary female sexual characteristics at
puberty.
• The testis (pl., testes) is the male reproductive organ that produces the male
gametes, also called sperm. The testes also have an endocrine function: they secrete
the primary male sex hormone testosterone. Testosterone plays a central role in the
development of male reproductive organs and in the production of sperm. An
increase in testosterone levels at puberty stimulates the development of secondary
male sexual characteristics. This hormone also plays a role in regulating bone
density and muscle size and strength.

10. The graph below shows the variation in blood glucose levels of an individual
throughout the hours of the day after waking up at 7 o’clock.

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 a. Using the graph above, determine the highest and the lowest values of this
individual’s blood glucose levels.
The highest blood glucose level value for this individual based on the graph is
125 mg/dL; the lowest is 85 mg/dL (or 84 mg/dL).
b. State the times of the day when this individual most likely started having
breakfast and lunch.
This individual most likely started having breakfast at around 7:30 am and
lunch at around 12:00 pm.
c. Explain the mechanism by which blood glucose levels were lowered after
reaching the peak at 9 o’clock.
After reaching a peak at 9 o’clock in the morning, blood glucose levels were
lowered by the secretion of insulin. The liver and the muscle cells, two major
target organs of insulin, responded to this hormone by absorbing glucose from
the blood to be used for respiration or to be stored in the form of glycogen.
This results in lower blood glucose levels, bringing them back down to normal
values.
Section 8.3 Homeostasis and Hormone Control
11. [G]
a. What is homeostasis?
The ability or tendency of a living organism to maintain internal body
conditions constant within set limits is called homeostasis.
b. What are three examples of this process in the human body?
One example is maintaining a body temperature near 37°C which allows most
human enzymes to operate at optimum efficiency. Other examples include
keeping blood glucose levels constant and regulating the solute and water
contents of tissue fluids.
12. Define the term thermoregulation.
Thermoregulation is the process by which the body maintains a constant internal
temperature.
13. Why do people shiver when they feel cold?
Shivering is stimulated by the hypothalamus as a heat-producing mechanism when
body temperature drops. Shivering results in the release of heat energy, which is then
distributed through the body via the blood.

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14. How can the constriction of the arterioles in the surface of the skin help conserve
heat?
The constriction of the arterioles that nourish the surface of the skin restricts blood
flow to subdermal tissues, below layers of fat, thereby conserving heat by preventing
its dissipation from blood circulating near the surface of the skin.
15. Why do people sweat in hot weather?
Sweat glands are stimulated to produce sweat as a heat-loss mechanism when the body
temperature rises in hot weather. When the water in sweat evaporates from the surface
of the skin, it takes with it heat from the surface of the body.
16. How can the dilation of arterioles at the surface of the skin help cool the body?
When the arterioles that nourish the skin surface dilate, blood flow to the surface of the
skin increases. This facilitates loss of heat, carried by blood, from the surface of the
skin into the surrounding environment.
17.
a. [G] Define negative feedback.
The homeostatic mechanism in which a stimulus triggers a response that can
regulate or oppose the initial stimulus is called negative feedback. Negative
feedback is a mechanism that reverses a deviation from the set point, and in turn,
maintains body parameters within their normal range.
b. [G] Describe the role negative feedback loop involved in the control of body
temperature when it rises above set point.
The hypothalamus contains temperature receptors that sense the temperature of
the blood. If the temperature rises above the set point signals are sent to different
parts of the body to carry out the following.
• Hair erector muscles relax so hair lies flat and heat can be lost from the
body.
• The arterioles supplying blood to the capillaries of the skin undergo
vasodilation. More blood carrying heat flows through the capillaries and heat
is lost from the blood to the air.
• The sweat glands secrete sweat. The water from the sweat evaporates taking
with it heat from the body.
Once the body temperature is lowered back to set point, all of the above
cease. This is an example of negative feedback.
c. [G] Describe the role negative feedback loop involved in the control of body
temperature when it falls below the set point.
The hypothalamus contains temperature receptors that sense the temperature of
the blood. If the temperature falls below the set point signals are sent to different
parts of the body to carry out the following.
• Hair erector muscles contract so hair stands up straight and a layer of air is
trapped at the surface of skin, acting as an insulator and thereby preventing
the loss of heat from the body.
• The arterioles supplying blood to the capillaries of the skin undergo
vasoconstriction. Less blood flows through the capillaries and less heat is
lost from the blood to the air.
• The sweat glands don’t secrete sweat.
• Muscles in the body contract and relax very quickly. This is called shivering.
The heat produced by the muscles is distributed to all parts of the body via
the blood.
Once the body temperature is raised back to set point, all of the above cease.
This is an example of negative feedback.

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 18. G In a table form, differentiate between the nervous system and the endocrine
system.

19. [T] One aspect of homeostasis in the human body is thermoregulation which is
controlled by the hypothalamus. The graph below shows the changes in the body
temperature of a person over a certain duration of time.

a) What is homeostasis?
The ability or tendency of a living organism to maintain internal body conditions
constant within set limits is called homeostasis.
b) What possibly caused the change observed from time 45 minutes till point X?
There was an increase in body temperature from time 45 minutes till point X.
This could be to an increase in air temperature.
c) What possibly caused the change observed between points X and Y?
There was a decrease in body temperature between points X and Y.
This could be due to heat-loss mechanisms activated by the body to cool the body
and lower the temperature.
d) Give three reasons why it is important to maintain the body’s temperature
around the range of 37C.
To prevent the denaturing of enzymes due to high temperature/
To maintain a stable and constant rate of metabolic reactions/
To avoid damage to the structure of proteins/
To avoid damage to cell membranes/

Section 8.4 Commercial Use of Hormones

20. Describe three medical applications of hormones.

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 Three medical applications of hormones are:
- administering levothyroxine pills to treat hypothyroidism
- treating growth hormone deficiency with injections of growth hormone
- using insulin injections to treat type 1 diabetes patients. /- administering glucagon
injections to treat severe hypoglycemia in diabetic patients. /- using estrogen and
progesterone pills for contraception. / - using estrogen. /progesterone pills to reduce
the symptoms of menopause. /- administering injections of FSH and LH to help treat
some cases of infertility. /- using anabolic steroids to treat certain muscular disorders.
21. Describe two uses of hormones in agriculture.
Two uses of hormones in agriculture are:
- using anabolic steroids to increase meat production in cattle; and
- using bovine somatotropin (BST) to increase milk yields in dairy cows. /
- using plant hormones to increase fruit production and plant
growth/development

Chapter 9 Drugs

Section 9.1 Drugs and Their Modes of Action

1. Define drug.
A drug is any chemical taken into the body that affects the way the body functions by
altering specific chemical reactions.
2. What could happen when a person misuses a drug?
Misusing any type of drug is very dangerous because drugs can alter a person’s thinking
and judgment and can cause direct or indirect health problems, including addiction
which may, in severe cases, lead to death.
3. Explain one mode of action of drugs.
Some drugs mimic the action of molecules naturally present in the body, such as
naturally triggered by them. / Some drugs block or inhibit the effects of molecules
naturally present in the body. These drugs bind to the receptors intended for molecules
produced by the body but do not elicit the response naturally triggered by these
molecules. These drugs prevent natural molecules from binding to their receptors and
producing their natural effects in the body.
4. [G] Distinguish between stimulant and depressant drugs.
• Stimulants are drugs that speed up the actions of the nervous system and make an
individual feel more alert.
• Caffeine is a stimulant.
• Depressants are drugs that slow down the actions of the nervous system and make
people feel more relaxed and/or sleepy.
• Nicotine, which is found in tobacco, can act as a depressant when consumed at low
doses; however, it can be a stimulant when consumed at high doses.
5. What is drug synergism?
Drug synergism is a type of interaction between two or more drugs in which together
they produce an effect that is greater than the sum of the effect of each drug when used
separately.

Section 9.2 Medicinal Drugs

6. Define medicinal drugs.

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 Medicinal drugs are chemical substances produced by drug companies to treat or
prevent diseases and their symptoms.
7. What are antibiotics?
Antibiotics are a class of medicinal drugs used to treat bacterial infections.
8. [G] Antibiotics do not target human cells or viruses. Explain why.
• For example, penicillin kills bacteria by interfering with the formation of bacterial
cell walls. Because the bacterial cell walls are subsequently weakened, the bacteria
burst due to osmotic pressure. Human cells are not affected by penicillin because they
do not have cell walls.
• Other antibiotics kill bacteria by interfering with their DNA replication, protein
synthesis, or metabolic pathways but have no effect on human cells if taken properly
because human cells and bacteria do not share the enzymes targeted by these types of
antibiotics.
• Bacteria and viruses also do not use similar mechanisms or metabolic pathways, and
they are very different from each other in structure. For example, penicillin does not
affect viruses because these disease-causing particles do not have a cell wall.
9. Indicate how viral infections are treated.
Some viral infections can be treated with special antiviral drugs, which target one of
several steps in the viral replication process.
10. List the different factors allowing drug resistance to develop in some bacteria.
• Using the same antibiotic to treat all bacterial infections.
• Using antibiotics recurrently and for a long period of time.
• Interrupting a course of antibiotics treatment when feeling better.
• Not only using antibiotics to treat bacterial infections, but using antibiotics to treat
viral infections.
• Bacterial strains might pass the gene for resistance to other strains.
11. [G] Describe how bacterial resistance to antibiotics can occur.
• The risk of antibiotic resistance increases each time antibiotics are used. When a
bacterial infection is treated using an appropriate type of antibiotics, bacterial cells
will be killed.
• However, a small number of these bacteria may survive if they carry a mutation that
allows them to resist the effects of this type of antibiotics.
• The result is a small number of bacteria carrying this mutation, which can grow and
reproduce, giving rise to a large population of bacteria that are resistant to this type
of antibiotic.
• Moreover, these resistant bacteria can pass the gene responsible for the resistance to
other strains or types of bacteria, allowing them to become resistant to that particular
type of antibiotics as well.
• The antibiotic-resistant bacteria give rise to a large population of resistant bacteria.
12. State two ways by which the risk of antibiotic resistance can be reduced.
• Prescribe antibiotics only when it is absolutely necessary and only for suitable types
of infections. Antibiotics should be prescribed for bacterial and not viral infections.
• Compete the courses of antibiotics and finish the prescription even after starting to
feel better.
13. Give an example of antibiotic-resistant bacteria.
• A group of Staphylococcus aureus bacteria known as methicillin-resistant
Staphylococcus aureus (MRSA) has become resistant to several commonly used
antibiotics.

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 • MRSA infections can affect different parts of the body and are difficult to treat, since
these bacteria are susceptible to a limited number of antibiotics.
14.
a. Give an example of an antibiotic.
One example is penicillin, which is derived from a species of the fungus
Penicillium.
b. Describe the commercial production of penicillin in fermenters.
In the commercial production of penicillin:
• The fungus Penicillium is grown in special containers called fermenters, under
optimal growth conditions.
• The fungus Penicillium is grown in a medium that is rich in carbohydrates and
amino acids.
• The contents of the fermenter are constantly stirred so that the temperature is
consistent throughout the fermenter and the fungi are in constant contact with
nutrients and oxygen.
• The fungi are incubated under controlled conditions while the fungi grow and
secrete penicillin.
• After a specified period of penicillin production, the culture is filtered, and the
medium is processed to extract and concentrate the penicillin.
15. [T] The human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) infects white blood cells. HIV
infected individuals may be treated with a variety of drugs.
a) Define the term drug.
A drug is any chemical taken into the body that affects the way the body functions
by altering specific chemical reactions.
b) Explain why antibiotics cannot be used to treat HIV.
Bacteria and viruses do not use similar mechanisms or metabolic pathways, and
they are very different from each other in structure. Thus, antibiotics do not act on
viruses and cannot treat viral infections.
c) Suggest the type of drugs that can be used to treat HIV.
The HIV infections can be treated with special antiviral drugs, which target one of
several steps in the viral replication process, and there are many medicinal drugs
that can be used to reduce or alleviate the symptoms of viral infections.
d) Explain two reasons why patients need to follow the recommendations of
their medical doctor and the instructions of the medical prescription when
taking medicinal drugs.
To fully benefit from the drugs, they are using; to avoid harmful side effects OR
Taking more than the medically recommended dose of a drug causes a drug
overdose. An overdose can cause serious health problems, and even death. On the
other hand, taking less than the prescribed dose of a medicinal drug decreases the
efficacy of the medication, which may cause a disease to get worse and possibly
necessitate hospitalization.

Section 9.3 Drug Misuse and Addiction

16. Describe the mode of action of heroin in specific synapses in the brain.
Heroin mimics a group of neurotransmitters secreted in the human body called
endorphins. Endorphins reduce the sensation of pain, hunger, and thirst, and they induce
a feeling of happiness. When heroin is metabolized in the body, it gives rise to
morphine, which binds to endorphin receptors on postsynaptic membranes in specific
synapses in the brain; morphine produces a more intense and exaggerated response than
endorphins do.

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7. Define drug tolerance and drug addiction.
Drug tolerance is a condition that occurs when the body gets used to encountering a
certain drug, and subsequently, needs a larger amount of the drug to produce the
original effect. Drug addiction refers to the dependence of an individual on a drug and
an inability to stop taking it without suffering physically and psychologically
8. [G] List the health problems associated with alcohol intake.
• Alcohol is a depressant drug, and, even in small amounts, it slows an individual’s
reaction time—the time required by an individual to respond to a stimulus.
• It reduces one’s ability to concentrate.
• It distorts one’s perception of distance.
• Impairment of cognitive skills.
• It increases recklessness.
• Alcohol consumption reduces self-control; therefore, it can increase aggressiveness
in some individuals, and alcohol use is often associated with violent and criminal
behavior.
• Heavy alcohol consumption increases one’s risk of heart attack, stroke, and the risk
of several types of cancer, such as mouth and liver cancer.
• It can also reduce the number of red blood cells, leading to anemia.
• It can cause irreversible shrinkage of certain regions of the brain, which may result
in impaired cognitive skills and memory disorders.
• In addition, the LIVER is greatly affected by heavy alcohol consumption, because it
is responsible for most of the alcohol metabolism in the body. The liver can become
heavily scarred due to excessive alcohol intake and subsequently unable to function
properly.

9. [T] Even though the misuse of many types of drugs is dangerous, some people are
tempted to take drugs, such as heroin, recreationally for nonmedical purposes.
The table below shows the number of heroin drug users who were diagnosed as
HIV positive between 2002 to 2006 in countries of the European region according
to the World Health Organization.

a) Explain how people who take heroin are likely to become infected with HIV.
The needles used for heroin injections are often passed from one individual to
another without being sterilized, which increases the risk of transmission of
pathogens, such as HIV (the virus that causes AIDS), from one individual to
another.
b) Describe the changes in the number of heroin drug users diagnosed as HIV
positive between 2002 and 2006.
The number of heroin users which were diagnosed as HIV positive decreased
gradually from year 2002 to 2005; Then, from year 2005 to 2006, the number
increased.
c) Suggest one explanation for the changes observed.
The numbers decrease between 2002 and 2005 because users reduced the sharing
of needles for injection/ because the number of individuals using the drug

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 decreased. /because of increased awareness. The numbers increased between 2005
and 2006 because users increased the sharing of the needles for injection/ because
the number of individuals using the drug increased. / because of decreased
awareness.
d) List two effects of heroin use on the body.
Heroin is a depressant drug that affects a person’s ability to think clearly. /
It slows down many brain functions, including those of the hypothalamus. /
Heroin slows breathing rate and reduces pain. /The temptation to take heroin is
strong due to the intense feeling of happiness it produces, which wears off quickly
and is replaced by anxiety and depression.
10. [T] The following graph shows the relative risk of having a fatal car accident as a
function of blood alcohol concentration.

a) The blood alcohol limit for a person driving a motor vehicle is 0.08 g/dL. If a
person has a blood alcohol concentration of 0.12 g/dL, how much would his
alcohol limit be above the legal limit?
It would be 1.5 times/2 times greater than the legal limit.
b) Give two reasons why it is dangerous to drive when having a blood alcohol
concentration above the legal limit.
Alcohol is a depressant drug, and, even in small amounts, it slows an individual’s
reaction time - the time required by an individual to respond to a stimulus.
Alcohol also reduces one’s ability to concentrate, distorts one’s perception of
distance, and increases recklessness. This can make driving quite dangerous.
c) Alcohol is cleared from the bloodstream by the action of the liver, at a rate of
about 20 (mg/dL) per hour. How many hours after drinking the alcohol by
the person described in part (a) would that person be safe to drive i.e. (have
blood alcohol concentration below legal limit)?
It would take this person at least 2 hours to reach the legal maximum limit of 0.08
g/dL. Therefore, it would take this person a little more than 2 hours to go below
the limit and be allowed to drive.
22. [T] Individuals A, B, C, D, and E were given five different drinks. The table
below shows the heart rates of the five individuals before and 20 minutes after
consuming their drinks.

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a) Identify the individual(s) who most likely consumed a drink containing a
stimulant. Justify your answer.
Individuals A and D most likely consumed a drink containing a stimulant, since their
heart rates are higher after consuming their drinks.
b) Identify the individual(s) who most likely consumed a drink containing a
depressant. Justify your answer.
Individuals C and E most likely consumed a drink containing a depressant, since their
heart rates were lower after consuming their drinks.
c) Identify the individual(s) who most likely consumed a drink of mineral water.
Justify your answer.
Individual B most likely consumed mineral water, since his/her heart rate was the
same before and after consuming the drink.
d) Suggest one chemical that could have been present in the drink given to
individual A and one chemical that could have been present in the drink given to
individual E.
Caffeine is a stimulant and could have been present in the drink of individual A. A
depressant, such as alcohol, could have been present in the drink of individual E.
Accept other correct examples of stimulants for individual A and other correct
examples of depressants for individual E.

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 Level M Biology Course Revision Questions-T2

Chapter 10 Gene Expression and Cell Division

Section 10.1 DNA, Genes, and Chromosomes
1. What are chromosomes?
• A chromosome is a DNA molecule packaged with the help of certain proteins into
threadlike filaments.
• Chromosomes carry genetic information in the form of genes.
2. How are alleles and genes related?
A gene is a portion or fragment of DNA that codes for a specific protein or
polypeptide. There may be several forms, or versions, of a gene; a version of a
particular gene is called an allele.
3. Define autosomes and recognize their normal number in human body cells.
The chromosomes of the other 22 pairs (or 44 chromosomes) are called autosomes,
these chromosomes are not involved in sex determination. The two chromosomes of
each autosomal pair are called homologous chromosomes.
4. Which sex chromosomes are normally present in men and in women?
• One pair (2 chromosomes) of the 23 pairs of chromosomes present in human body
cells consists of sex chromosomes, which are the chromosomes involved in sex
determination.
• The two sex chromosomes in humans are the X chromosome and the Y
chromosome.
• Normally, women have two X chromosomes or XX in each of their body cells, and
men have one X chromosome and one Y chromosome or XY in each of their body
cells.
5. Describe the homologous chromosomes.
• Homologous chromosomes carry the same genes at the same location on each
chromosome.
• They appear to have the same size and shape.
• They may carry different alleles for the same gene (because one of the homologous
chromosomes carries the alleles inherited from the mother and the other carries the
alleles inherited from the father).
• Each chromosome comes from a different parent.
6. [G] What is the difference between diploid and haploid cells?
• Diploid cells contain two sets of chromosomes while haploid cells contain
one set of chromosomes.
• In humans, the body cells are diploid and there is a pair of each type of chromosome
and in a human diploid cell there are 23 pairs.
• In contrast, sex cells, or gametes are haploid because they contain 23 unpaired
chromosomes.
7. Give examples of haploid and diploid cells.
• Human body cells are diploid because they contain two sets of 23 chromosomes (23
chromosome pairs). One set of 23 chromosomes comes from the father and another
set of 23 chromosomes comes from the mother for a total of 46.
• The zygote, cells of the embryo and somatic cells, such as liver and kidney cells are
diploid.

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 • In contrast, sex cells or gametes, including both the egg and sperm. are haploid
because they contain only one set of 23 chromosomes.
Section 10.2 Protein Synthesis
8. [G] Define gene expression.
Gene expression is the process by which the genetic information in a gene is used to
produce proteins and other gene products.
9. How does DNA control cell function?
DNA controls cell function by controlling the production of proteins, including
enzymes, membrane carriers and receptors for neurotransmitters.
10. What is the name given to the particular structure of DNA?
The particular structure of DNA is called a double helix. It is a very long molecule,
composed of two strands joined together. It is compared to a twisted ladder.
11. How do the bases pair up in DNA?
The bases on the two strands of DNA are held together by bonds forming cross links:
-The base A always makes a base pair with T.
-G always makes a base pair with C.
12. What determines the shape of a protein molecule?
Genes are comprised of DNA. The sequence of bases in a gene determines the sequence
of amino acids used to make a specific protein. A row of 3 bases codes for one amino
acid. Different sequences of amino acids give different shapes to protein molecules.
13. Explain how protein is made.
• The gene (made of DNA) coding for the protein remains in the nucleus.
• mRNA molecules, which are copies of the gene (DNA) are made in the nucleus and
move to the cytoplasm.
• The mRNA passes through ribosomes.
• The ribosome assembles amino acids into protein molecules.
• The specific sequence of amino acids is determined by the sequence of bases in the
mRNA.
14. [G] What is the function of each of mRNA and tRNA in protein synthesis?
mRNA carries the genetic information required to synthesize proteins from the nucleus
to the cytoplasm. tRNA binds to ribosomes during protein synthesis and plays an
integral role in attaching the correct amino acids to the growing protein chain.
15. Are all the human genes expressed in all body cells? Explain your answer.
All the cells in the human body (except gametes) carry the same genes, but not all of
these genes are expressed in every cell. A specific gene is expressed only in the cell
type that needs the protein coded by this gene.
16. The table shows the codes for some of the amino acids found in human proteins.
Amino Acid DNA base sequence
ALANINE GCC
CYSTEINE ACA
GLYCINE CCC
HISTIDINE GTA
ISOLEUCINE TAA
LYSINE TTT
METHIONINE TAC
PHENYLALANINE AAA
PROLINE CCG
TYROSINE ATG
VALINE CAT

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 a. The following is a sequence of bases in a section of DNA.
TAC – ATG – CCC – GCC – GTA
If the DNA is read from left to right, write out the sequence of amino acids
coded by this DNA by referring to the table.
Methionine, tyrosine, glycine, alanine, histidine
b. Sometimes a base letter is lost, perhaps as a result of exposure to radiation.
Write out the new code sequence if the ninth letter(C) is lost in this way.
TAC – ATG – CCG – CCG – TA
c. Write out the sequence of amino acids if this altered DNA sequence is used.
(You need 3 bases in a row to specify an amino acid).
Methionine – tyrosine – proline – proline
Section 10.3 Cellular Division
17. Define the terms mitosis and meiosis.
• Mitosis is a type of cellular or nuclear division that gives rise to genetically
identical cells. In mitosis, a diploid cell gives rise to two diploid daughter cells
that are identical to each other and to their parent cell.
• Meiosis is a type of cellular or nuclear division that gives rise to genetically
different daughter cells, which have half the number of chromosomes as that of
their parent cell. In meiosis, a diploid parent cell gives rise to four haploid
daughter cells.
18. State some functions of mitosis.
• Mitosis allows an organism to produce new cells and grow.
• It allows a single-celled zygote to become a multicellular organism.
• It participates in the repair of injured body parts.
• It allows the replacement of worn-out cells.
• It can be a part of some types of asexual reproduction or vegetative reproduction
in plants, e.g. by stolons in strawberries.
19. Why does a cell duplicate its genetic material prior to mitosis?
• Prior to mitosis and meiosis, a cell duplicates its genetic material, so that each
daughter cell can receive a full set of chromosomes from its parent cell.
• During DNA duplication, also called DNA replication, an identical copy of each
chromosome is produced, and each chromosome becomes a pair of two identical
strands, each now called a chromatid.
• Identical chromatids, known as sister chromatids, are joined together near their
centers by the centromere.
20. [G] Define stem cells.
Stem cells are undifferentiated, or unspecialized, cells that can divide by mitosis and
produce daughter cells that can become specialized.
21. What is one main difference between adult and embryonic stem cells?
• Embryonic stem cells are found in early stage embryos, before specialization and
differentiation occur. They have the potential to differentiate into the different
specialized cells that make up a newborn baby.
• By the time a human child becomes an adult, most stem cells will have
differentiated, but a few stem cells remain in particular locations in the body.
These cells are referred to as adult stem cells. They function like embryonic stem
cells, but the range of differentiation of adult stem cells is more limited and
depends mainly on the nature of the tissues that these cells are found in.

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22. The two gametes made by meiosis will come together by fertilization to form a cell
called a zygote, which will divide by mitosis to become an embryo. State the role of
the embryonic stem cells within the embryo.
Embryonic stem cells are undifferentiated cells that have the ability to divide by mitosis
to produce any type of cell in any part of the body.
23. Describe the role of stem cells in the bone marrow.
Stem cells in the bone marrow are adult stem cells that can divide by mitosis to produce
red blood cells, platelets and white blood cells. They cannot produce nerve cells or
liver cells.
24. What kind of nuclear division results in gametes and why do gametes have only
one-half of a full set of chromosomes?
Gametes are formed by meiosis. Gametes have only one-half of a full set of
chromosomes so that the resulting zygote has one full set of chromosomes. The halving
of the number of chromosomes is necessary for maintaining a constant total number of
chromosomes from generation to generation.
25. G Differentiate between mitosis and meiosis.
Mitosis Meiosis
Mitosis involves one division of the Meiosis involves two divisions of the
nucleus. nucleus.
Mitosis gives rise to 2 diploid daughter Meiosis gives rise to 4 haploid daughter
cells. cells.
Mitosis results in somatic cells (liver cell, Meiosis results in gametes.
kidney cell, skin cell, etc).
Daughter cells formed by mitosis are Daughter cell formed by meiosis are non-
genetically identical. identical.
No pairing up and separation of Pairing up and separation of homologous
homologous chromosomes. chromosomes.
Maintain the original chromosome Original chromosome number is halved
number
26. Briefly describe meiosis.
• Meiosis is a reduction division in which the chromosome number is halved from
diploid to haploid.
• Meiosis gives rise to genetically different daughter cells.
• In meiosis, a diploid parent cell gives rise to four haploid daughter cells.
27. Identify the importance of meiosis in humans.
• Meiosis preserves the number of chromosomes in the zygote.
o When the male gamete and the female gamete fuse, they form a zygote.
Thus each gamete must have only half of a full set of chromosomes so that
the zygote will have one complete set of chromosomes.
o The halving of the number of chromosomes that occurs in meiosis is
essential for maintaining a constant total number of chromosomes from
generation to generation.
• Meiosis also helps increase the genetic variation among sexually reproducing
individuals. The independent assortment of chromosomes and crossing over create
genetic variation during meiosis.
28. [G] What is the independent assortment of chromosomes?
The random distribution of homologous chromosomes between daughter cells during
meiosis is called the independent assortment of chromosomes.
29. [G] What is crossing over?

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 Crossing over is the exchange of genetic material between the chromatids of
homologous chromosomes that occurs while chromosomes are paired up during meiosis
I
Chapter 11 Genetics and Variations:
Section 11.1 Inheritance and Its Patterns
1. Define the term genetic inheritance.
Genetic inheritance is the transmission of genetic information from one generation to
another.
2. [G] Distinguish between homozygous and heterozygous individuals.
Individuals carrying identical alleles for a particular gene are referred to as homozygous
for the trait coded by this gene. Individuals carrying different alleles for a particular
gene are referred to as heterozygous for the trait coded by this gene.
3. Distinguish between the gametes produced by homozygous individuals and those
produced by heterozygous individuals.
All the gametes produced by an individual who is homozygous for a particular gene
will carry the same allele for this particular gene.
Half of the gametes produced by an individual who is heterozygous for a particular
gene will carry one of the alleles for the particular gene, and the other half of the
gametes will carry another allele for this gene.
4. Define dominant allele and recessive allele.
A dominant allele is an allele that is expressed whether one or two copies of it exist. A
recessive allele is an allele that is expressed only when no dominant allele of the gene
exists, that is, only when two copies of the recessive allele are present in the cells.
5. Define the terms genotype and phenotype.
The genetic makeup of an individual, in terms of the alleles present for each gene, is
called a genotype. The observable features or traits, which are influenced by the
genotype, are called the phenotype.
6. Consider the example of fur color discussed throughout this section. A female with
the genotype BB gave birth to five offspring. What color(s) would you expect the
fur of her offspring to be? Justify your answer.
The female is homozygous for black fur. Thus, all the gametes produced by this female
will carry the B allele, and all of her offspring will have the B allele in their genotype.
Since the B allele is a dominant allele and it produces black fur, it will be expressed in
all of her offspring, and they will all have black fur.
7. Define codominance. Give an example.
• Codominance is an interaction that occurs when both alleles in a heterozygous
genotype affect the phenotype and two different forms of a trait are equally
expressed at the same time.
• A common example of codominance is the inheritance pattern of the ABO blood
group antigens.
8.
a. List the alleles responsible for the ABO blood groups.
The ABO blood group gene (I) has three different alleles, IA, IB, and IO or i.
b. State what each blood group allele codes for.
• The allele IA codes for the production of antigen A on the surface of red
blood cells (RBCs).
• The allele IB codes for the production of antigen B on the surface of RBCs.

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 • The allele IO or i does not code for the production of any ABO antigen on
the surface of RBCs.
c. Explain why the IA and IB alleles are described as codominant.
The alleles IA and IB are codominant with respect to each other, meaning
individuals with the IAIB genotype will have both A and B antigens expressed on
the surface of their red blood cells.
d. Which of the blood group alleles is recessive?
IA and IB are dominant over IO; in other words, the allele IO is recessive with
respect to alleles IA and IB.
e. Identify the antigens found on the surface of the red blood cells in individual
with the genotypes IA IO and IB IO.
Individuals with an IA IO genotype will have A antigen on their red blood cells,
and individuals of genotype IB IO will have B antigens on their red blood cells.
f. List all possibly genotypes of the ABO blood grouping and the respective
phenotypes.

9. Draw a genetic diagram depicting a cross between a parent heterozygous for blood
group A and another parent heterozygous for blood group B. State the expected
phenotypic ratio in the next generation.

The phenotypic ratio in the offspring is expected to be 1 blood group A: 1 blood group B:
1 blood group AB: 1 blood group O.
There is a 25% chance of each blood group being expressed.
10. Construct a genetic diagram describing inheritance between a female with type O
blood and a heterozygous male with type B blood.

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 • The probability that the couple’s offspring will have a genotype of IBIO is 1/2, and
the probability of a genotype of IOIO is 1/2 or 0.5.
• The phenotypic ratio of offspring with type B blood to offspring with type O
blood is 1:1.
11. Can two parents with a blood group AB give birth to a child with a blood group
O? Explain your answer.
No, they cannot. A child with blood group O would have a genotype of 𝐼 𝑂 𝐼 𝑂 . For this to
happen, the child would need to inherit one IO allele from the mother and one IO allele
from the father. The parents with blood group AB, have the genotype 𝐼 𝐴 𝐼 𝐵 , and thus
both parents produce gametes that carry either
the 𝐼 𝐴 allele or the 𝐼 𝐵 allele. These parents cannot produce gametes carrying the 𝐼 𝑂
allele, since they do not have this allele in their genotype, thus the child cannot receive
an IO allele from either parent and cannot have blood group O.
12. [G] Define sex-linked genes.
Genes that are found on either sex chromosome are said to be sex-linked genes.
13. Which of the two sex chromosomes carries more genes?
The X chromosome is much larger and carries more genes than the Y chromosome.
14. Explain why females are more often silent carriers of X-linked disorders.
• If the trait is caused by a recessive allele, it is more commonly present in males than
females.
• Females are carriers as they would need 2 alleles to express the trait.
• In females, a recessive disease-causing allele on one of the X chromosomes can be
masked in the phenotype by a dominant normal allele on the other X chromosome.
15. Explain why a color-blind man cannot pass on the condition to his son.
The allele for color blindness is found on the X chromosome. A man can only pass on
the Y chromosome to his son.
16. Why are the X-linked genes carried by males in normal cases always of maternal
origin?
Males always inherit the X chromosome from their mothers and the Y chromosome
from their fathers because mothers (biological mothers) do not have Y chromosomes.
Thus, all the X-linked genes inherited by a male are normally of a maternal origin.

17. Describe the inheritance of sex-linked recessive alleles in males and females.
• Males inherit one copy of the genes that are on the X chromosome.
• If males inherit the recessive allele on the X chromosome then its effect is seen
immediately.
• Females inherit two copies of the genes that are on the X chromosomes.

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 • If females inherit one recessive allele on the X chromosome then its effect can be
masked by the second allele on the second X chromosome if it is dominant.
• In conclusion woman are less effected by sex-linked recessive alleles and sex-linked
conditions are more common in males than females.
18. Indicate the possible genotypes and phenotypes of healthy versus hemophilic
individuals.

19. Can a healthy mother give birth to a boy suffering from hemophilia?
Explain your answer.
Yes. Hemophilia is mainly an X-linked disorder. A healthy mother may carry either the
𝑋 𝐻 𝑋 𝐻 or the 𝑋 𝐻 𝑋 ℎ genotype. If the mother is a carrier—having the 𝑋 𝐻 𝑋 ℎ genotype—
there is a risk that she will pass the 𝑋 ℎ allele to her son and, therefore, give birth to a
hemophilic child. However, if she is homozygous—
having the 𝑋 𝐻 𝑋 𝐻 genotype—there is no risk that the mother will pass an 𝑋 ℎ allele to
her son.
20. Describe the color blindness disorder.
• Color blindness is an example of an X-linked condition.
• It is characterized by the inability to distinguish certain colors from one another.
• A certain gene on the X chromosome regulates the production of three different
types of cone receptors in the retina that enable an individual to recognize blue,
green, and red light.
• Red green color-blind individuals carry a recessive altered allele of this gene, which
results in the production of only two types of cone receptors instead of three.
• Since this condition is X-linked, it is more common in males than females.
21. Let 𝒙𝑩 denote the normal allele of a gene that regulates the production of cone
cells in the retina and 𝒙𝒃 denote the allele that results in color blindness. Draw a
table summarizing the genotypes and phenotypes of non-color-blind and color-
blind individuals based on gender.

Section 11.2 Genetic Probabilities

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22. Define monohybrid cross.
A monohybrid cross is a genetic cross between two organisms in which the inheritance
of only one trait is being considered.
23. [G] A homozygous drosophila with black eyes was crossed with a
homozygous drosophila with red eyes. All the F1 had black eyes.
Construct a genetic diagram to describe the cross between two members
of the F1 generation.

24. Four offspring were produced in the cross described in the figure below.

Is it certain that the phenotypic ratio of the offspring will be 3:1? Justify
your answer.
No, it is not certain that the phenotypic ratio of the obtained offspring will be 3:1
because the number of offspring produced is very small/ not large enough. A large
number of F2 offspring, however, will likely approach a phenotypic ratio of 3:1.
25. [G] What is a test cross?
A test cross can be performed to determine whether an individual with a dominant
phenotype is homozygous or heterozygous for a studied trait. It involves crossing the
individual having the dominant phenotype with an individual who is known to be

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 homozygous recessive for the studied trait. A phenotypic ratio of 1:1 will be observed if
the individual with the dominant phenotype is heterozygous. However, if the individual
with the dominant phenotype is homozygous, all of the offspring will have the
dominant phenotype.
26. Suppose you are studying an organism that expresses a dominant
phenotype for a particular trait. You want to know whether the organism
is homozygous or heterozygous for this trait. Construct a genetic diagram
describing a test you could perform to identify the genotype of this
organism.

The organism with the dominant phenotype should be crossed with an organism who is
known to have the recessive phenotype.
27. What is the chance that a conceived child will be a male?
The phenotypic ratio of males to females is 1:1. Thus, each time a child is conceived,
there is a 50% chance that the child will be male and a 50% chance that the child will be
female.
28. Construct a genetic diagram that describes sex inheritance in humans.

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29. Construct a genetic diagram to describe a cross between a healthy male
and a healthy female carrier of an X-linked condition.

30. What is the phenotypic ratio of healthy to hemophilic males in the cross
illustrated in the figure below?

The phenotypic ratio of healthy to hemophilic males in the cross described in the figure
is 1:1—there is a 1 in 2 chance of producing a hemophilic son and a 1 in 2 chance of
producing a healthy son.
31. Consider the inheritance of color blindness. Construct a genetic diagram
to describe a cross between a woman having red-green color blindness
and a man with normal vision and state the phenotypic ratio of non-color-
blind to color-blind offspring.
Let 𝑋 𝐵 denote the normal allele, which regulates the production of cone cells in the
retina and 𝑋 𝑏 denote the allele related to color blindness

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 The phenotypic ratio of healthy to color-blind offspring is 1:1. (All females will have
normal vision but will be carriers, and all males will be color-blind.)
32. What is a pedigree?
A pedigree is a chart that shows the ancestral history of a group of related individuals
and presents information regarding the inheritance of a certain characteristic through
multiple generations.
33. Are each of the individuals 1 and 2 in the pedigree shown in the figure
blow heterozygous or homozygous? Justify your answer.

Both individuals 1 and 2 in the pedigree are heterozygous. Both parents have black fur,
and one of their offspring (individual 6) has white fur. Thus, both individuals 1 and
individual 2 must carry an allele that codes for black fur, which is expressed, and an
allele that codes for white fur, which is not expressed but can be passed to their
offspring and produce an offspring with white fur.
34. Construct a genetic diagram that describes a cross between two animals having
white fur, knowing that the white fur allele is recessive.

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35. Construct the genetic diagram describing X-linked inheritance in a cross between
a hemophilic man and a healthy woman. Indicate the probability that this couple
will give birth to a healthy son.

The probability that this couple will give birth to a healthy son, having the genotype
H
X Y, is 1. In other words, every son this couple produces will be healthy.
36. In mice, black fur (B) is dominant to white fur (b). The diagram below shows the
inheritance for fur color in mice through three generations.

a) What type of diagram is shown above?

The diagram depicted above is a pedigree diagram or a family tree.
b) What are the genotypes of mice 1 and 2
The genotype of mouse 1 is Bb and that of mouse 2 is bb.
c) What is the genotype of mouse 3?
The genotype of mouse 3 is Bb.
d) Identify the genotypes of the offspring of mice 8 and 9.
Mice 12 14, 17, and 19: bb
Mice 13, 15, 16, and 18: Bb
e) List all of the offspring of mouse 1 and 2.

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 3,4,5,6,7,8,10 and 11
37. The pedigree chart below represents the inheritance of color-blindness in a family.
Color blindness is caused by a recessive allele on the X chromosome.
Normal male

Color blind male

Normal female

Color blind female

a. State the genotype of individual 1, 2, 3,4,5,6, and 7.

Individual 1: 𝑿𝑨 𝒀
Individual 2:𝑿𝒂 𝑿𝒂
Individual 3: 𝑿𝒂 Y
Individual 4: 𝑿𝑨 𝑿𝒂 . She is not color blind but we know she is a carrier because
she has an affected son. Sons can only inherit sex-linked traits from their mothers.
Individual 5: 𝑿𝑨 𝒀
Individual 6: 𝑿𝑨 𝑿𝒂 She is not color blind, but her mother was color blind and she
had to have inherited one X chromosome from her and therefore she is a carrier.
Individual 7: 𝑿𝒂 𝒀
b. If individual 1 and 2 have another son, what is the probability that he will be
color-blind? Draw a genetic diagram to support your answer.
Parent phenotype Normal male Color blind female
Parent genotype 𝑨
𝑿 𝒀 𝑿𝒂 𝑿𝒂
Gametes 𝑿𝑨 Y 𝑿𝒂
Offspring genotype 𝑿𝑨 𝑿𝒂 𝑿𝒂 𝒀
Offspring phenotype Normal female (carrier) color blind male
All of the female offspring will be carriers and all of the males will be color blind.
If they have another son, there is a 100 percent chance that he will be color blind.
c. If individual 3 and 4 have another son, what is the probability that he will be
color-blind? Draw a genetic diagram to support your answer.
Parent phenotype Color blind male carrier female
𝒂
Parent genotype 𝑿 𝒀 𝑿𝑨 𝑿𝒂
Gametes 𝑿𝒂 Y 𝑿𝑨 𝑿𝒂
Offspring genotype 𝑿𝑨 𝑿𝒂
𝒂 𝒂
𝑿 𝑿 𝑿𝑨 𝒀 𝑿𝒂 𝒀
Offspring phenotype Carrier female color blind female
normal male color blind male

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 Half the female offspring will be carrier and the other half will be color-blind.
Half the male offspring will be normal and half will be color-blind.
If they have another son, there is a fifty percent chance that he will be color blind.
d. Explain how the pedigree chart supports the idea that color blindness is a
sex-linked characteristic.
There are four color-blind males and one color-blind female.
38. Feather color in a certain breed of chicks is determined by two alleles, 𝑪𝑩 𝒂𝒏𝒅 𝑪𝑾 .
The chicken can be black, grey or white.
a. What kind of pattern on inheritance does feather color follow.
Feather color is an example of incomplete dominance, in which the allele for
white feathers is not completely masked by the allele for black feathers. In this
case we do not represent the alleles by capital and lower case letters.
b. State all possible phenotypes and genotypes for feather color in the chicks.
Black: 𝐶 𝐵 𝐶 𝐵
White: 𝐶 𝑊 𝐶 𝑊
Grey: 𝐶 𝑊 𝐶 𝐵
c. Predict the ratio of chicks with black, grey and white feathers if a chicken
with grey feathers mates with a chicken with white feathers. Draw a genetic
to support your answer.
Parent phenotype Grey feathers White feathers
𝑾 𝑩
Parent genotype 𝑪 𝑪 𝑪𝑾 𝑪𝑾
Gametes 𝑪𝑾 𝑪𝑩 𝑪𝑾
Offspring genotype 𝑪𝑾 𝑪𝑾 𝑪𝑾 𝑪𝑩
Offspring phenotype White Grey
1 white: 1 grey

39. [T] The pedigree below shows the inheritance of color-blindness among members
of the same family. Colorblindness is characterized by the inability to perceive
certain wavelengths of light.
Note that the shaded square and circle refer to an affected man and affected
woman, respectively. The half-shaded circle refers to a carrier woman.

a) What do the roman numbers on the left side of the pedigree indicate?
The roman numbers refer to the generations that exist in the family.

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 b) With reference to the pedigree shown above, identify the type of inheritance
of color-blindness in humans.
The colorblind trait follows a recessive X-linked inheritance.
c) Explain why all the male offspring of parents 1 and 2 are not colorblind even
though their father is.
Human males normally have one X chromosome from their mother and one Y
chromosome from their fathers. Therefore, the male offspring of parents 1 and 2
took one Y chromosome from their father which does not carry the colorblind
allele. They took one of the two X chromosomes from their mothers (individual 2)
which are healthy in this case because they both carry the normal vision allele.
d) Explain why all the females of parents 1 and 2 are carriers even though their
mother is healthy.
Human females normally have two X chromosomes, one from each parent.
The female offspring of parents 1 and 2 are all carriers because they all take the
one X chromosome from their father which has the recessive colorblind allele;
And they take one of the two X chromosomes from their mother which carries the
normal vision allele.
e) Explain why only woman 19 in this pedigree is colorblind.
The woman 19 inherited the one X chromosome from her father which definitely
has the colorblind allele because the father is affected with this disease. She also
inherited one of the two chromosomes from her mother that carry the colorblind
allele and not the healthy one.
40. [T] The pedigree below shows the inheritance of Huntington disease (a progressive
brain disorder) in a family.

a) Huntington’s disease is caused by an autosomal trait. Explain this statement.

The term autosomal refers to the non-sex chromosomes.
In humans, these include chromosomes 1 through 22.
Therefore, an autosomal trait is one whose alleles are found on chromosomes 1
through 22.
b) There are no carriers for Huntington’s disease; an individual either has it or
does not. Is the trait coding for this disease dominant or recessive?
It is a dominant trait.
c) Identify the genotype of individuals 1, 2, 3, and 4 using appropriate symbols.
Individual 1: Hh
Individual 2: hh
Individual 3: hh
Individual 4: Hh
d) Couple 3 and 4 decided to have another child. What is the probability that
the resulting child will have Huntington disease? Explain your answer using
a genetic diagram.

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 The probability that the child will have Huntington disease is ½.

41. [T] A student wanted to investigate the inheritance of flower color in snapdragon
plants. Snapdragon flowers may have one of three colors: red, white, or pink. The
students performed a cross between two purebred plants, one with red flowers and
the other with white flowers. The results are summarized below.

a) Identify the inheritance pattern of flower color in snapdragon plants and

explain how it occurs.
Incomplete dominance;
In incomplete dominance, none of the alleles completely dominates over the other,
giving an intermediate phenotype.
b) The student then crossed members of the first generation. Illustrate the cross
showing the gametes of the parents, the possible genotypes of the offspring,
and the possible phenotypes of the offspring.

c) What do we call the offspring that resulted from the cross between the first-
generation plants?
second generation / F2 generation
d) What is the probability that an offspring with red flowers results from the
cross described in part (b)?
The probability is 1/4
e) What would the probability of having offspring with white flowers in a cross
between a snapdragon with pink flowers and another with red flowers be?
The probability is zero.

Section 11.3 Population Variations

42. Define the term variation.

Differences between individuals that belong to the same species are called variations.
43. Identify sources of genetic variation within populations.
• Mutations
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 • Crossing over and independent assortment of alleles during meiosis,
• Random mating and random fertilization during sexual reproduction, since it
allows for the random fusion of any male and female gamete carrying different
combinations of gene alleles.
44. [G] Differentiate between continuous and discontinuous variation with examples.
Continuous variation
• A characteristic showing continuous variation is controlled by many pairs of
genes.
• A characteristic showing continuous variation is usually influenced by both
genetic and environmental factors.
• A characteristic showing continuous variation shows no distinct phenotype as
there is a continuous spectrum of varieties. There is a range of phenotypes
between two extremes.
• Examples include body length and body mass.
Discontinuous variation
• A characteristic showing discontinuous variation is controlled by one gene pair.
• A characteristic showing discontinuous variation cannot be influenced by the
environment.
• Discontinuous variation occurs when the different types of variations can be
placed into discrete categories.
• A trait that exhibits discontinuous variation has a distinct number of phenotypes
instead of a continuous range of phenotypes (with no intermediates).
• Your blood group will be one of four types (A, B, AB or O), the ability to roll
your tongue and the presence of horns in cattle are all example of discontinuous
variation.
45. [G] What are the factors that affect phenotypic variation?
Genetic variations contribute to phenotypic variations. For example, the three different
alleles present for the ABO gene account for the four different phenotypes observed in
the ABO blood group system. Moreover, different alleles contribute to variations in
height, eye color, skin color, and various other traits. Environmental factors can also
contribute to the phenotypic variation observed in some traits. Although different gene
alleles account for variations in skin color, sun exposure—an environmental factor—
also contributes to the variation observed in this trait. In general, discontinuous
phenotypic variation is controlled by genetic factors only, whereas continuous
phenotypic variation is influenced by both environmental and genetic factors.
46. How do new alleles arise?
Mutations give rise to different alleles. Mutations can give rise to different gene alleles
since they induce differences in DNA base sequences.
47. [G] Define the terms mutation and mutagen.
A permanent change in the genetic material of a cell is called a mutation. An external
agent that can cause mutations is called a mutagen.
48. Give examples of mutagens that increase the rate of mutation.
Ionizing radiation and some chemicals increase the rate of mutation
49. Define gene mutation and give an example.
A mutation is a genetic change. A gene mutation is a change in the base sequence of
DNA. Sickle cell anemia is an example of a mutation of a gene involved in the
synthesis of hemoglobin protein.

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50. The variation in the height of individuals in a human population and in a
pea plant population was illustrated in the two graphs below.

a. What type of variation is shown in each graph?

Graph A: Continuous variation
Graph B: Discontinuous variation
b. Which graph shows height variation in humans?
Graph A

Section 11.4 Natural Selection

51.
a.Define adaptive features.
An adaptive feature is an inherited feature that helps an organism survive and
reproduce in its environment.
b. Describe adaptation.
Adaptation is the process, resulting from natural selection, by which populations
become more suited to their environment over many generations.
c. What is fitness?
Fitness is the probability of an organism surviving and reproducing in the
environment in which it is found.

52. [G] What does the theory of natural selection state?

• Organisms within a population exhibit genetic variation.

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 • Organisms produce more offspring than will survive until adulthood.
• Organisms will begin to compete for resources. There is a struggle for survival.
• Organisms well adapted to their environment have a greater chance to survive
and reproduce.
• Well adapted organisms will pass on their alleles that produce advantageous
characteristics to their offspring.
• The population will gradually become more adapted to the environment.
53. Explain the process of natural selection by using peppered moth as an
example.
• Genetic variation resulted in two forms of the peppered moth, light-colored
speckled (spotted) and dark-colored or black.
• The normal speckled coloring is caused by the recessive allele (c) while the
black color is caused by the dominant allele (C). The allele for black color arose
as a result of a mutation.
• In non-industrial areas where there is no pollution the light-colored speckled
variety is better camouflaged and has a survival value. In such areas the light-
colored speckled variety will survive and reproduce and have more offspring
passing on the allele for light-colored speckled color to the next generation.
• In industrial areas (where there is soot covering the tree barks) where there is
pollution the black variety is better camouflaged and has survival value. In such
areas the black variety will survive, reproduce and have more offspring, passing
on the allele for black color to the next generation.
• The selection pressure causing the changes in allele frequency is predation by
birds.
54.
a. Describe the mutation causing sickle cell anaemia.
• Sickle cell anemia is a disease caused by a mutation in a gene that is involved in
hemoglobin production.
• A small change in the DNA sequence of an allele coding for normal hemoglobin
results in the altered disease-causing allele.
• Consequently, the altered allele codes for a faulty hemoglobin, which has a
different amino acid sequence than a normal hemoglobin molecule.
• When the oxygen concentration in the blood becomes low, the faulty
hemoglobin precipitates and forms crystals inside the red blood cells, causing
these cells to become sickle-shaped, hence the name sickle-cell anemia.
b. State the genotype for the condition, sickle cell trait.
• Heterozygous individuals (genotype HbAHbS) are said to have the sickle cell
trait and are described as carriers of the disease.
• Heterozygous individuals (genotype HbAHbS) produce both normal and sickle-
shaped red blood cells because the HbA and HbS alleles are codominant.
c. What is one advantage of sickle cell trait?
Sickle cell trait gives immunity to malaria. The deformed red blood cells due to
defective hemoglobin are not conducive for malaria parasites to thrive.
d. Describe the resistance to malaria present in carriers of the sickle cell trait
using the theory of natural selection.
• Individuals with the HbSHbS genotype do not have a survival advantage,
because they are affected with sickle cell disease, and individuals who have the
HbAHbA genotype and live in areas of the world where malaria is present do not
have a survival advantage, because they are highly susceptible to malaria.

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 • However, individuals who have the HbAHbS genotype are both healthy and less
susceptible to malaria.
• Individuals with the sickle cell trait (but not sickle cell disease) have the most
reproductive success in each generation in regions where malaria is present.
d. Construct a genetic diagram showing the results of a cross between a
homozygous healthy individual for hemoglobin and a carrier of the sickle cell
trait.

e. Construct a genetic diagram describing the cross between two heterozygous

carriers of the sickle cell trait.

• Two such individuals have a 50% chance of producing offspring with the
heterozygous genotype (like their parents), a 25% chance of producing offspring
with the HbSHbS genotype, and a 25% chance of producing offspring with the
HbAHbA genotype.
• This continues from generation to generation, thereby making the heterozygous
genotype the most numerous in regions where malaria is present.
55. a. Describe how bacteria become resistant to antibiotics.
• When antibiotics are used most bacteria die.
• Some may have gene for antibiotic resistance.
• Mutation gave rise to this gene.

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 • Bacteria with these genes survive when certain antibiotics are applied. The
bacteria pass on resistance by reproduction.
• These bacteria have little competition as other bacteria without the gene are
killed by the antibiotic.
• As the population of bacteria become adapted by evolving to be antibiotic
resistant the antibiotic becomes ineffective.
b. Explain how antibiotic resistance is transmitted from one bacterial cell to
another.
• Bacteria reproduce asexually by binary fission.
• Their chromosome is replicated and passed on to the two daughter cells.
• The gene for resistance can also be passed on through the small circular forms
of DNA known as plasmid.
c. Explain why antibiotics should not be used to treat viral diseases.
Antibiotics inhibit ribosomes for protein synthesis and enzymes for making cell
walls, both of which are not found in viruses as they are not cells.
e. Explain how the evolution of drug resistant strains of bacteria can be
prevented.
• Complete the course of antibiotics.
• Do not use antibiotics for viral infections.
• Use antibiotics less often.
• It is less likely for bacteria to develop resistance when several antibiotics are
used at the same time.
56. Define the term artificial selection.
Artificial selection is the process by which humans apply a selection pressure by
breeding for a specific characteristic. This is also known as selective breeding.
57. Enumerate features of artificial selection.
Artificial selection:
• includes human intervention.
• increases the occurrence of a desirable trait.
• involves selective breeding: parents with desirable trait are bred.
• leads to an increase of a desirable trait within offspring generations.
58. Enumerate the traits selected for during selective breeding.
• Increased crop yield.
• Increased milk yield in dairy cattle.
• Increased meat quantity in beef cattle.
• Improved appearance in ornamental plants.
• Sheep that produce more wool.
• Increasing disease resistance of crops.
• Improving appearance and flavor of tomatoes
59. Describe the process of artificial selection/selective breeding using cattle as an
example.
• Desired features are chosen. For example, high growth rates and high milk
yields. Individuals expressing these traits are chosen for breeding.
• The alleles responsible for these traits are passed on to the next generation.
• Again individuals from the next generation expressing these traits are chosen for
breeding. This will be repeated for several generations.
• Alleles coding for desired traits will increase in frequency, while alleles coding
for undesired traits will decrease in frequency.
60. [G] Differentiate between artificial selection and natural selection.
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 • Both natural and artificial selection can cause changes in the distribution of
adaptive features in a population over generations.
• Natural selection is influenced by the environment whereas artificial selection is
influenced by humans.
• Natural selection produces greater biodiversity.
• Artificial selection involves the growth of one variety of a certain species over
many generations which can cause a drop in the biodiversity in an ecosystem,
which consequently reduces the stability of the ecosystem.
• Natural selection may lead to the evolution of new species. Artificial selection
does not lead to the evolution of new species.
• Artificial selection is a fast process whereas natural selection is a slow process.
• In artificial selection the proportion of heterozygotes in a population is reduced
whereas in natural selection the proportion of heterozygotes in a population
remains high.
• The characteristics selected by humans during artificial selection are desirable to
humans and not necessarily characteristics that improve the fitness of the
organisms in the environment, whereas natural selection selects traits that
improve an organism’s ability to survive in the natural environment.
33. [T] Humans have selectively bred plants and animals for thousands of years
including dogs that possess specific desirable traits which make them suited to jobs
like herding sheep and aid in hunting.
a) List the general steps of the process of selective breeding.
People choose specific parent organisms with desirable characteristics then breed
them to increase the chance that these traits will be inherited by the next generation.
This is repeated for many generations to result in an increase in the number of
offspring showing the desirable traits.
b) Selective breeding is also called artificial selection and differs from natural
selection that occurs naturally and spontaneously in the environment without
human intervention. How does natural selection occur in a population?
Because resources are limited in nature, organisms with heritable traits that allow
their survival will have a greater chance to reproduce; and will tend to leave more
offspring than their peers, causing the traits to increase in frequency over
generations.
c) Both natural and artificial selection can cause changes in the distribution of
adaptive features in a population over generations. However, dogs and other
domesticated species are usually less fit than their wild relatives. Explain this
statement.
The domesticated species are usually less fit than their wild relatives because the
characteristics selected by humans during artificial selection are not necessarily
characteristics that will make an organism well adapted to the natural environment.
34. [T] Various adaptive features can be found among animal and plant species.
For example, camels have several adaptive features that make them more fit and
allows them to survive in the harsh conditions of deserts. Another example is the
polar bear which is adapted to the arctic region.
a) What is an adaptive feature?
An adaptive feature is a heritable feature (function, structure, or behavior) of a living
organism that helps the organism carry out vital processes and survive in its
particular environment.
b) What does the fitness of an organism mean?

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 Fitness is the ability of an organism to survive and reproduce successfully in its
environment.
c) What are two features of camels that make them well adapted to their
environment?
Two adaptive features of camels are their long and bushy eyelashes;
and their ability to close their nostrils, which help prevent desert sand from entering
their eyes and noses.
d) The polar bear is characterized by its thick white fur, small ears, sharp teeth,
and large paws. Choose two of these traits and explain how each helps the polar
bear survive in its environment.
The thick fur helps keep the bear war;
The white fur aids it in camouflage;
The small ears reduce heat loss;
The sharp teeth help it cut its food easily;
The large paws help it walk on ice.
Section 11.5 Genetic Engineering

35. [G] Define genetic engineering and describe some of its uses.
Genetic engineering alters the genetic material of an organism by removing, changing,
and/or inserting individual genes or DNA fragments.
• An example of genetic engineering is the production of plants that are resistant
to herbicides. Plants can then be sprayed with herbicide, killing only the
competing weed species and thereby increasing crop yield.
• Plants have been genetically modified to contain a certain substance called Bt,
which is toxic to insects. Insect pests are killed if they eat the plants. This
reduces the use of insecticides.
• The insertion of genes into crop plants to improve nutritional qualities. The
production of golden rice which has been enhanced to be rich in vitamin A. A
deficiency in this vitamin may cause night blindness.
• The insertion of human genes into bacteria to produce human proteins.
Genetically engineered bacteria have been used for producing insulin used for
treating type I diabetes.
36. Define restriction enzymes.
Restriction enzymes are enzymes that cut DNA into fragments at specific sites.
37. Outline the steps involved in the genetic engineering of bacteria to produce insulin.
• The insulin gene is extracted from human cells.
• Restriction enzymes are used to cut the DNA at particular points. They leave
short lengths of unpaired bases at either end of the cut DNA, called sticky ends.
• A plasmid is a ring of DNA found in bacteria. It is cut using the same
restriction enzyme that was used for cutting the human DNA.
• The human insulin gene and cut plasmids are now mixed together.
• An enzyme called DNA ligase links the two strands of DNA firmly together.
• Once the plasmids contain the human insulin gene we call them recombinant
plasmids, because they contain a combination of bacterial and human DNA.
• The bacteria are allowed to take up the genetically modified plasmids.
• The bacteria are then placed in fermenters where they will reproduce asexually.
• The bacteria follow instructions from the human DNA to make insulin.
38. State some concerns regarding the use and/or consumption of GM crops

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 • The accidental transfer of herbicide-resistance genes in the GM crop plants to
weeds could lead to the production of superweeds with herbicide resistance that
is very difficult to get rid of.
• Harming human health by consuming pest-resistant GM crops because these
plants produce and contain toxins that kill insects.
• Harming good insects: The toxins produced by pest-resistant plants may harm
the insects that are beneficial to humans and the environment, such as bees and
ladybugs.
• Emerging insects develop resistance to the insecticide toxins produced by GM
crops.
39. [T] Human insulin can now be made using bacteria that have been genetically
engineered while in the past, it used to be collected from animal tissues.

a) Define genetic engineering.

Altering the genetic material of an organism by removing, changing, and/or inserting
individual genes or DNA fragments is called genetic engineering.
b) State the advantage of using bacteria to produce insulin rather than collecting it
from animal tissues.
The use of genetically modified (GM) bacteria for the production of insulin
eliminates the need to kill animals and allows for the production of larger quantities
of insulin in much less time.
c) Identify the structures labelled A to D on the figure.
A: bacterial plasmid
B: cut DNA fragment containing the insulin gene
C: recombinant plasmid
D: modified bacterium containing the recombinant plasmid
d) What is one other product that can be produced using genetically-modified
bacteria?
Production of antibiotics/
Production of pest-resistant crops/
Production of herbicide-resistant crops/

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 Production of crop plants enriched with valuable nutrients
40. [T] A group of proteins called tissue plasminogen activators (TPAs) that are
involved in the breakdown of blood clots have been recently successfully
manufactured using genetic engineering techniques. The major steps involved in
this process are illustrated below.

a) Identify the structures labelled A and B.

A: plasmid
B: recombinant plasmid
b) Name the enzymes used in both steps 1 and 2 of this process.
The enzymes used are called restriction enzymes.
c) Specify the enzymes used in step 3 of this process.
The enzyme used is called DNA ligase.
d) Explain what happens after step 4.
The bacteria that have taken up the recombinant plasmid are then selected and put in
fermenters, under optimum growth conditions, where they reproduce and increase in
number. Large populations of bacteria that carry the desired gene in recombinant
plasmids are then extracted from the fermenter and purified to be used.

Chapter 12 Human Reproduction and Development

Section 12.1 Reproductive Systems
1. Define sexual reproduction.
Sexual reproduction is the process involving the fusion of the nuclei of the gametes by
fertilization to form a zygote and the production of offspring that are genetically different
from each other.
2. [G] What are the major parts of the human male reproductive system?
The major organs and structures of the male reproductive system include the testes,
scrotum, epididymis, sperm ducts, seminal vesicles, prostate gland, urethra, and penis.

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 • Males normally have a pair of testes (sing., testis), which are the organs that
produce the male gametes, called sperm or spermatozoa, and the male sex
hormone testosterone. The testes are held outside the body in a sac of skin called
the scrotum.
• The scrotum helps maintain the testes at an optimum temperature for sperm
production; the production of healthy, viable sperm requires a temperature that is
slightly lower than normal body temperature.
• Sperm are carried from the testes to the epididymis, a highly convoluted tube
where the sperm mature (become capable of fertilization) and are stored
temporarily. The sperm ducts carry the sperm from each epididymis and
eventually join the urethra below the urinary bladder.
• The urethra opens to the outside of the body via an opening in the penis, the male
genital (reproductive) organ through which urine and semen leave the body.
3. [T]
The diagram below shows part of the human male reproductive system.

a) Name the parts labelled A to F.

A: urethra
B: prostate gland
C: seminal vesicle
D: sperm duct
E: epididymis
F: testis/testes
b) Identify the part that produces the male gametes and name the process by
which gamete cells are produced in humans.
Testis;
Meiosis
c) A gamete cell is called haploid. Explain this statement with referring to the
chromosome content in the gamete cells compared to body cells.
The gamete cells are haploid because they contain only one set of 23 chromosomes.
Chromosomes in diploid cells are paired, while those in haploid cells are not paired.
4. What are the components of semen?
Semen is composed of sperm and fluids secreted by the seminal vesicles and the prostate
gland.
• The seminal vesicle secretes fluid rich in fructose to nourish the sperm.

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 • The prostate gland secretes a fluid that has a slightly basic pH to helps neutralize the
acidity of the female reproductive tract.
5. [G] What are the major parts of the human female reproductive system?
The major parts of the female reproductive system include two ovaries, two oviducts
(fallopian tubes), a uterus, and a vagina.
• The paired ovaries produce the female gametes, called the eggs or ova (sing., ovum),
and the female sex hormones estrogen and progesterone.
• A pair of ducts called the oviducts (fallopian tubes) receive eggs from the two
ovaries.
• The oviducts conduct released eggs to the uterus— the organ in which the embryo
develops in the female body.
• The necklike structure at the base of the uterus that projects into the vagina is called
the cervix.
• The vagina is the organ that extends from the cervix to the outside of the body; this
organ receives the semen and is the passageway for delivery during childbirth.
6. [T] The figure below illustrates different parts of the female human reproductive
system.

a) Name the structures labelled A to E.

A: ovary
B: oviduct
C: uterus
D: cervix
E: vagina
b) Identify the site where the processes of fertilization and implantation take
place.
Fertilization takes place in the oviduct.
Implantation takes place in the wall of the uterus.
c) The figure below illustrates a female gamete cell.
i. Identify the site of production of the female gamete cells.
The female gamete cell is produced in the ovaries.
ii. The gamete cell is viewed at 100X magnification. Calculate the actual size
of the cell.

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 The actual size of the cell can be calculated using the following:
14 mm / 100 = 0.14 mm

7. [G] What is puberty and what are the changes associated with it in humans?
The period of development during which humans become sexually mature is called
puberty. During this period, sperm production starts in males and the first ovulation
occurs in females marking the start of the menstrual cycle. The secondary sexual
characteristics appear in boys including the appearance of pubic and facial hair, the
deepening of the voice, and muscular development and in girls including breast
development, the appearance of pubic hair, and an increase in the size of the pelvis.
8. What is the role of testosterone in puberty?
• An increase in the levels of testosterone in males is necessary for normal sperm
production.
• Increased levels of testosterone are also associated with the appearance of the
male secondary sexual characteristics.
9. What is the role of estrogen in puberty?
• An increase in the level of estrogen in a female’s body triggers the first
ovulation to occur.
• Increased levels of estrogen are also associated with the appearance of female
secondary sexual characteristics during puberty.
10. a. Draw an annotated diagram of a human sperm cell.

b. State the role of sperm cells and described how they are specialized to carry out
their function.
• The sperm cells are the male reproductive cells.
• A sperm cell is motile and much smaller than an egg.
• A sperm cell can be divided into a head, a middle piece and a tail.
• The head of the sperm contains the haploid nucleus that carries the cell’s
genetic material or chromosomes

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 • The head also contains a structure called the acrosome, which is a vesicle
containing enzymes that are released to dissolve the layer of jelly around the
egg during fertilization.
• The middle piece of the sperm contains mitochondria to carry out respiration, to
produce the energy needed to propel the sperm forward.
• The tail also known as the flagellum of the sperm propels the sperm forward
through the female reproductive system.
c. How long do sperm survive once inside of the female reproductive tract?
Sperm cells survive for 2 or 3 days before disintegrating.
11. a. Draw and label a simple diagram of an ovum.

b. Relate the structure of the egg cells to their role in reproduction.

• The ova or egg cells are the female reproductive cells.
• An egg cell is a large and immotile cell.
• The cytoplasm of the egg cell is rich in nutrients to nourish the egg once it is
fertilized.
• The nucleus of the egg cell is haploid meaning it has half the number of
chromosomes in its nucleus when compared to as other body cells.
• The ova or egg cells are surrounded by a jelly coating.
c. Describe the role of the layer of jelly surrounding the egg cell.
• The jelly coating surrounding the egg cell plays an important role in
fertilization. It is weakened by the powerful digestive enzymes of the sperm.
• After one sperm enters an egg during fertilization, this layer of jelly hardens to
prevent other sperm cells from entering the egg.

c. Why does an ovum have a larger volume of cytoplasm than a sperm?

An ovum has a larger volume of cytoplasm than a sperm because:
• The ovum supplies nutrient materials for the embryo’s development.
• Fusion of male and female gametes occurs in the cytoplasm of ovum.
• It is the site of zygote formation.
d. G Differentiate between an egg cell and a sperm cell.

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Section 12.2 The Menstrual Cycle
12. a. Define implantation.
Implantation is when the embryo embeds itself into the uterine lining and attaches
itself to the uterine wall.
b. Describe menstruation.
• Menstruation or a period is the discharge of endometrial fragments and some
blood from the vagina about once per month.
• The first menstruation occurs at puberty shortly after the first ovulation.
• The average duration of the menstrual cycle is 28 days.
• Menstruation lasts about five days, after which the endometrium begins to
prepare again to receive an embryo in case the next egg released from the ovary
is fertilized.
13. [G] What is the menstrual cycle and what are its main stages?
The sequence of events that occur in a female from the first day of menstruation to the
first day of the following menstruation is called the menstrual cycle. Its main stages are
the following:
• The uterine lining disintegrates into fragments if fertilization does not occur.
• The uterine wall is being prepared to receive an embryo.
• An egg is released from the ovary to the oviduct.
• The uterine wall becomes ready to receive and nourish an embryo if the egg is
fertilized.
14. Outline the events and hormonal changes occurring during the menstrual cycle in
females.
• The first five days of the cycle the endometrium is shed through the vagina.
This is known as menstruation and occurs due to low levels of estrogen and
progesterone.
• The pituitary gland then begins to release FSH which acts on the ovary and
causes one of the ovarian/graafian follicles to develop and mature.
• The ovarian follicle releases estrogen which stimulates the repair of the uterus
lining.
• High levels of estrogen stimulate the release of LH from the pituitary gland. LH
acts on the ovary and causes the ovarian/graafian follicle to burst releasing the
ovum into the oviduct. This is known as ovulation.
• The remains of the ovarian follicle become the corpus luteum which will then
release progesterone which causes further thickening of the uterine lining.
• If fertilization and pregnancy does not occur the corpus luteum disintegrates and
levels of estrogen and progesterone drop causing the endometrium to be shed
through the vagina.
15. In a table form, state the functions of the four female hormones.

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 LH • Stimulates the ovulation
• Stimulates the corpus luteum to produce progesterone.
FSH • Stimulates the ovarian follicle to develop
Estrogen • High levels of estrogen stimulate the repair of uterine
lining
• Low levels stimulate breakdown of endometrium
Progesterone • Stimulates the further development and repair of the uterus
lining
• Low levels stimulate breakdown of endometrium
N.B. Low levels of estrogen and progesterone stimulate the breakdown of
endometrium.
16. a. Refer to the diagram below, which represents an illustration of the changes in
the uterine wall thickness and hormone concentrations in the blood during the
menstrual cycle to answer the following questions. (Q37-45)

b. How are the levels of estrogen and progesterone at the beginning of the cycle.
At the beginning of the cycle, estrogen and progesterone levels are low. These low
levels cause the shedding of the uterine lining through the vagina. This is
menstruation.
c. Name the hormone that stimulates the development of follicles.
FSH is a hormone secreted by the pituitary gland. FSH stimulates follicles to
develop.
d. Name the hormone secreted by the follicles as they develop, and specify its
function.

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 • The follicles secrete estrogen as they develop, causing estrogen levels to
increase gradually in the blood.
• Estrogen stimulates the growth of the uterine lining after menstruation and
causes the endometrium to become thick and spongy.
• When estrogen reaches a certain level, the pituitary gland secretes a surge of
LH.
e. What causes the LH surge that precedes ovulation during the menstrual cycle?
The LH surge that precedes ovulation is caused by a gradual increase in levels of
estrogen in the blood.
f. What triggers ovulation?
The LH surge triggers ovulation, in which the mature follicle bursts, releasing the
egg to the oviduct.
g. Describe the changes that occur in the estrogen levels and the mature follicle
after ovulation.
• Following ovulation, estrogen secretion drops.
• The mature, now empty follicle gives rise to a structure called the corpus
luteum.
• Progesterone is secreted by the corpus luteum, therefore progesterone level
increases following ovulation.
h. What hormone is secreted by the corpus luteum?
Progesterone is secreted by the corpus luteum.
i. Indicate the function of progesterone secreted by the corpus luteum.
The corpus luteum (yellow body) secretes progesterone, which maintains the
developed lining of the uterus and keeps it richly vascularized and ready to receive
an embryo in case fertilization occurs.
j. Specify the fate of the corpus luteum if fertilization does occur.
If fertilization occurs, the corpus luteum persists. Progesterone levels remain high
and the uterine lining is maintained.
k. What do the low progesterone and estrogen levels at the end of the menstrual
cycle cause?
Low levels of progesterone and estrogen at the end of the menstrual cycle cause the
disintegration of the uterine lining (i.e., menstruation).
l. During which day is there a high chance of fertilization following copulation?
Support your answer.
Day 11 to day 15 (if menstrual cycle is 28 days). This is when ovulation has
occurred and the ova are available in the oviduct for fertilization by the sperm.

Section 12.3 Pregnancy and Human Development

17. [G] Describe the process of fertilization in humans.
• Fertilization is the fusion of the nucleus of a male gamete (sperm cell) with the
nucleus of a female gamete (egg cell) and it produces a diploid cell called a zygote,
or fertilized egg.
• Fertilization usually occurs at the top part of the oviduct, close to the ovary.
• When sperm reach the jelly layer surrounding the egg, enzymes released from their
acrosomes start to digest holes in the layer of jelly to form a path to the plasma
membrane of the egg.
• The first sperm cell to reach the egg’s plasma membrane enters the egg; the
cytoplasmic contents of the sperm head enter the egg, while the tail, or flagellum,
remains outside the egg.

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 • Once a sperm head enters the egg, the layer of jelly surrounding the egg hardens to
prevent other sperm from entering the egg.
• The haploid nucleus of the fertilizing sperm fuses with the haploid nucleus of the
egg, forming a diploid zygote, or fertilized egg.
18. Define an embryo.
In early development, the zygote divides by mitosis to form an embryo which is a ball of
cells that implants into the lining of the uterus.
19. List the stages of development that a baby goes through, and describe each
stage.
Zygote → embryo → fetus → baby
• Zygote: is the result of the fusion of the sperm nucleus with the nucleus of the ovum
(fertilization), returning the chromosome number to the diploid number and bringing
together chromosomes from two different sources.
• Embryo forms when the zygote divides repeatedly by mitosis to give a ball of
identical cells called the embryo. The cells have not become specialized.
• Fetus: Cells of embryo continue to divide and start to specialize, where one region of
the embryo develops into the fetus and another region develops into a placenta.
The fetus has all body organs forms. The heart and the brain form early on. The
lungs develop later.
20. Use the figure below to label the following parts.

A. Uterine muscle
B. Endometrium
C. Oviduct
D. Uterine cavity
E. Fetus
F. Amnion/ amniotic sac
G. Amniotic fluid
H. Cervix
I. Villi of placenta
J. Placenta
21. Define amnion.
The embryo and the fetus are enclosed by a transparent membrane called the amnion.
22. Define amniotic fluid.
The amniotic fluid is the fluid held in the amnion, which cushions and supports the
developing embryo or fetus.
23. [G] What are the main roles of the placenta and umbilical cord?

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 The placenta connects the embryo (and later the fetus) with the wall of the uterus and
allows the exchange of material (e.g., nutrients, gases, and wastes) between maternal and
embryonic/fetal blood. The umbilical cord connects the embryo (or fetus) to the placenta.
24. a. Define placenta.
The placenta is an organ that connects the embryo (and later the fetus) with the wall
of the uterus and allows the exchange of material including nutrients, gases, and
wastes between maternal and embryonic/fetal blood.
b. Indicate the functions of placenta.
The placenta has many functions including:
• It plays a role in providing the fetus with immunity, as it allows antibodies to
cross from maternal to fetal blood during fetal development.
• It acts as an endocrine organ by producing hormones, such as progesterone, that
are needed to maintain the uterine lining throughout pregnancy.
• It connects the embryo, and later the fetus with the wall of the uterus.
• It allows the exchange of material (e.g., nutrients, gases, and wastes) between
maternal and embryonic blood.
c. Describe the role of the villi in the placenta.
The villi are fingerlike projections that provide a large surface area for contact with
the uterine lining.
d. Describe the diffusion of materials (oxygen and nutrients, carbon dioxide and
wastes) across the walls of the placental villi.
• At the placental villi, carbon dioxide and other waste materials diffuse from the
embryonic capillaries, through the thin walls of the placental villi, to the
maternal blood.
• Oxygen and nutrients such as glucose, amino acids, fatty acids, minerals, and
vitamins diffuse from the maternal blood, across the walls of placental villi to
the embryonic blood.
25. a. Describe the umbilical cord and the blood vessels contained in it.
• The umbilical cord is a cord that connects the embryo (or fetus) to the placenta.
• This cord contains two arteries and one vein, namely the umbilical arteries and
the umbilical vein.
b. Identify the type and number of blood vessels found in the umbilical cord.
The umbilical cord contains two umbilical arteries that carry deoxygenated blood
into placenta and one umbilical vein that carries oxygenated blood back to fetus.
c. Which blood vessel carries oxygen and nutrients from the placenta to the fetus?
The umbilical vein carries oxygen and nutrients from the placenta to the fetus.
d. How does the blood in the umbilical vein differ from that in the umbilical
artery?
The blood in the umbilical vein contains glucose, amino acids and oxygen from the
placenta while the umbilical arteries carry blood low in oxygen but high in waste
products.
e. What is usually carried in the umbilical arteries?
In the umbilical arteries, there is blood
26. a. Describe the role of progesterone during pregnancy.
Progesterone sustains the lining of the uterus, preventing menstruation during
pregnancy.
b. Identify the sources of progesterone during pregnancy.
• After fertilization, the corpus luteum is prevented from disintegrating so that it
can secrete enough progesterone to sustain the pregnancy.

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 • Later on in the pregnancy the placenta maintains the levels of progesterone.
c. What may cause miscarriage to occur?
Abnormally low levels of progesterone during pregnancy put the uterine lining at
risk of disintegrating, which would result in the failure of the pregnancy, or a
miscarriage.
carrying wastes such as carbon dioxide, excess water, and traces of urea.
27. [T] The table below lists several functions of some structures of the female
reproductive system.

a) Complete the table by identifying the structure that performs each function.

b) After implantation, the embryo (and later on the fetus) relies on its mother's
diet to sustain its nutritional needs for growth and development in the womb.
Which organ allows the exchange of material between maternal and embryonic
blood in order to provide the embryo with nutrients and other material
necessary for its growth?
Placenta
c) Which structure connects this organ to the embryo?
Umbilical cord
d) What are two other roles of the organ identified in part (b)?
The placenta removes waste material from the embryo blood. / The placenta also
plays a role in providing the fetus with immunity, as it allows antibodies to cross
from maternal to fetal blood during fetal development. / In addition, the placenta
acts as an endocrine organ by producing hormones, such as progesterone, that are
needed for a healthy pregnancy.
28. Define labor.
The series of events by which the fetus is expelled from its mother’s uterus is called
labor or childbirth.
29. What is “water breaking”?
“Water breaking” is the breaking or tearing of the amnion and the subsequent release of
amniotic fluid during the initial stages of labor.
30. [G] Order the main steps involved in natural childbirth.
31. When is a C-section used to deliver a baby?
• A C-section or caesarean section is an operation in which the mother is anaesthetized
and the baby is surgically removed from her uterus.
• When the fetus does not assume the head-first position in the uterus before birth, an
operation, referred to as a C-section, may be necessary to surgically remove the baby
from the uterus.
32. What are three changes that a pregnant woman is advised to make to her diet?
Justify your answer.

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 • A pregnant woman should increase her intake of iron so that her body can produce
more red blood cells to keep up with the increasing demand for oxygen and supply the
developing baby with the oxygen it needs.
• She should also increase the amount of calcium in her diet to ensure that her bones are
not weakened while her body provides the calcium necessary for fetal bone formation.
• Pregnant women should also consume adequate amounts of folic acid to help prevent
spinal cord and brain defects in the baby.
33. List some harmful substances that can cross the placenta and indicate their
detrimental effects on the developing baby.
• Toxic substances, such as nicotine, carbon monoxide, and alcohol, are able to cross
the placenta and reach the embryonic/fetal blood.
• rubella virus (German measles)
These substances can harm the developing baby and slow its growth. They also can
lead to serious birth defects.
34. Why is it recommended that a pregnant woman avoid smoking?
It is recommended that a pregnant woman avoid smoking because it results in
insufficient supply of oxygen to the fetus, leading to the following:
• It increases the risk of miscarriage
• It causes fetal brain damage
• May stunt (reduce) fetal growth
35. [G] What are some advantages of breast milk over formula milk?
• Mother’s milk contains the right proportion of protein, fat, sugar, vitamins and
salts for the baby to grow.
• It also contains antibodies that defend the baby’s body against infections
(antibodies are not found in artificial milk). Breastfed babies are therefore less
likely to suffer from illness.
• It is supplied at the correct body temperature and is free from bacteria.
• It is free of pathogens because it is produced inside the mother’s body.
• It is naturally produced, for free, while formula milk can be quite expensive.
• It provides emotional and psychological support to both the baby and its mother.
36. The figure below shows the changes in a woman’s body temperature during her
menstrual cycle. In the days after ovulation, there is an increase in body
temperature.

a) Using the figure, indicate which day ovulation most likely occurred.

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 b) Describe how the daily recording of body temperature may help a woman identify
when menstruation is about to begin.
c) During which span of days is the chance of fertilization following copulation the
highest in the studied female: day 6 to day 8; day 14 to day 16; or day 26 to day 28?
a) Day 16
b) After ovulation, the temperature increases and remains slightly elevated for several
days. Then, it drops the day before menstruation.
c) Day 14 to day 16

Section 12.4 Methods of Birth Control

37. What are two indicators of ovulation in the female body?
Two indicators of ovulation in the female body are a slight rise in her body temperature,
which occurs slightly after ovulation, and the texture and color of the cervical mucus,
which becomes more transparent, slippery, and of a liquid texture at the time of ovulation
38. [G] What are different methods of contraception in humans?
• Some methods of contraception are described as being mechanical because they
provide a physical barrier between the egg and the sperm; these include condoms,
diaphragms, and cervical caps.
• Chemical methods of contraception involve the use of chemicals or drugs that affect
fertility and prevent pregnancy. These methods include the use of spermicides and
intrauterine device (IUD).
• A surgical method of birth control for males is the vasectomy, which involves cutting
and tying or sealing the sperm ducts to prevent sperm from reaching the urethra. A
similar method of sterilization can be used in women, in which the oviducts are cut
and tied, preventing eggs from reaching the uterus and sperm from reaching an egg.
39. How do spermicides reduce the chance of pregnancy?
Spermicides reduce the chance of pregnancy by killing the sperm that are
deposited into the woman’s body during sexual intercourse.
40. What do birth control pills typically contain?
Birth control pills typically contain synthetic estrogen and progesterone.
41. [G] Describe some fertility treatment methods.
Some methods of infertility treatments include:
- artificial insemination: Sperm are first collected from the male and are usually stored at
a low temperature in a clinic; the collected sperm can be stored for months or even years
under proper conditions. As part of a clinical procedure, collected sperm cells are placed
in the female’s vagina so they may fertilize an egg in the woman’s oviduct; thus, the
procedure is scheduled to be performed around the time of the woman’s ovulation.
- in vitro fertilization: In IVF, fertility drugs are administered to stimulate the
development of several ova, or eggs, in the ovaries. These eggs are then removed from
the ovaries and put in a petri dish with sperm cells from the husband. Thus, fertilization
occurs outside the body in the dish. The resulting zygotes are allowed to go through
several mitotic divisions in vitro and are then implanted in their mother’s uterus to
develop normally.
42. [T] figure below illustrates the stages of embryo development after the process of
fertilization in the human body.

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a) List the stages of embryo development shown in the figure in the correct
order.
4-1-6-2-3-5
b) The sperm and egg cells that combine during fertilization are called haploid,
while the produced fertilized egg cell is called diploid. Explain this statement.
The gametes are haploid because they contain only one set of 23 chromosomes.
Chromosomes in diploid cells are paired, while those in haploid cells are not paired.
During the process of fertilization in humans, a haploid male gamete (a sperm cell)
containing 23 chromosomes unites with a haploid female gamete (an egg cell)
containing 23 chromosomes, giving rise to a diploid fertilized egg, or zygote,
containing two sets of chromosomes, that is, 23 pairs of chromosomes.
c) Explain what determines if a fertilized egg develops into a female rather than
a male.
The male gamete has either X or Y chromosome in its nucleus, while the egg cell
always has X chromosome in its nucleus.
Therefore, for the fertilized egg to develop into a female, the male gamete must have
an X chromosome.
d) Couples can control the number of children they want to have by using
different methods of birth control or contraception. These include natural,
mechanical, chemical, and surgical methods. Describe briefly two of these
methods using an example.
The natural methods of contraception involve the avoidance of sexual intercourse
(abstinence) either at all times or only during the days of the female’s menstrual
cycle when the probability that fertilization will occur is highest. A common
mechanical barrier used for contraception is the condom. /
Diaphragms and cervical caps are also mechanical barrier methods of birth control.
Chemical methods of contraception involve the use of chemicals or drugs that affect
fertility and prevent pregnancy. One of these methods is the use of spermicides,
which are chemicals that kill sperm. / Contraceptive pills are another form of
chemical contraception. /Hormonal contraceptives can also be administered in long-
lasting injections or implants under the skin. / An intrauterine device (IUD), also
called an intrauterine contraceptive device (IUCD), is a small device, containing
copper, that is inserted by a doctor into a woman’s uterus for contraception. It mainly
functions by preventing implantation. /Another similar device is called the
intrauterine system, or IUS. This T-shaped device is also placed inside the uterus.
This device releases hormones to prevent fertilization and implantation.

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 A surgical method of birth control for males is the vasectomy, which involves cutting
and tying or sealing the sperm ducts to prevent sperm from reaching the urethra. /A
similar method of sterilization can be used in women, in which the oviducts are cut
and tied, preventing eggs from reaching the uterus and sperm from reaching an egg.
Section 12.5 Sexually Transmitted Infections
43. G Define sexually transmitted diseases and give some examples.
Diseases caused by infections transmitted via contact between mucous membranes and bodily
fluids during sexual intercourse are called sexually transmitted diseases. Examples of such
diseases include syphilis, gonorrhea, and AIDS
44.
a. How is HIV transmitted?
HIV is transmitted by
• by sexual activity
• 2-by contaminated blood transfusion
• During pregnancy/breast feeding e.g. from an infected mother or HIV positive
mother to her child
• by contaminated needles shared by drug users.
b. Identify the cell targeted by HIV.
The cells targeted by HIV are the lymphocytes, in particular the T cells.
c. When is a person with an HIV infection said to have developed AIDS?
An individual is said to have developed AIDS when the number of T cells drops so
significantly that the body becomes unable to launch an effective immune response
or to produce antibodies.
d. State why the number of individuals infected with HIV may be greater than the
number of reported cases.
• People recently infected with HIV show no symptoms.
• People infected may not have had their blood checked.
e. Explain how the infection with HIV leads to the symptoms of AIDS.
HIV is a virus. It infects lymphocytes and therefore reduces the body’s abilities to
make antibodies. The body cannot effectively fight off pathogens or destroy its own
cancer cells. For this reason, infectious diseases and cancer can develop more
easily.
f. How can AIDs be prevented and treated.
• Increase the awareness of AIDS.
• People who are known to be infected should avoid passing it on.
• People who are not HIV positive should reduce the risk of becoming infected by
using condoms, and avoid sharing contaminated needles.
• Anti-viral drugs can be used to treat the viral infection. Antibiotics are only
effective against bacterial diseases.

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