New Q&A.

: Q1,3,11,12,13,14,15,18,19,21,23,56,62,63,64,65,66,80,90,
Update in only Question – Q5 ,77,80,94
Update in only Answer – A4, A5, A20, A27, A89

CAIIB Elective Paper (Information Technology) 2023 Mock-01

20th October 2023
Q1. Which type of cloud deployment model allows users to fully control the
infrastructure?
(a) Public cloud
(b) Private cloud
(c) Hybrid cloud
(d) Community cloud

Q2. ITES stands for ___.

(a) Improving Technology Enlighted Services
(b) Information Technology Ensured Systems
(c) Information Technology Extended Services
(d) Information Technology Enabled Services

Q3. What is a blade server?

(a) A simplified server computer with a modular design
(b) A server that runs virtual desktops
(c) A server that supports virtual network design
(d) A server that specializes in VMware monitoring

Q4. A channel used to communicate across a boundary between two or more

subsystems is referred to as?
(a) Interface
(b) Data path
(c) Walk through
(d) Act gram

Q5. What is Digital Convergence?

(a) Merging of software installation
(b) Merging of networking technologies
(c) Merging of hardware technologies
(d) Merging of digital technologies

Q6. Which of the following options is not affected by information technology?

(a) impact on agricultural sector
(b) impact on population density
(c) impact on business and economy
(d) impact on politics

Q7. Which of the following options is not one of the benefits of using Internet Banking
by the customer?
(a) Less time spent waiting
(b) Authentication Cracking
(c) Availability 24 hours a day, seven days a week
(d) Convenience and Ease

Q8. Which of the following is a service provided by a bank or other financial

institution to its customers that allows them to conduct financial transactions
remotely using a mobile device such as a phone or tablet?
(a) E-mail Banking
(b) SMS Banking
(c) Mobile Banking
(d) Telegraph Banking

Q9. What is the full form of WAP?

(a) Wireless Application Protocol
(b) World Application Protocol
(c) Wide Application Protocol
(d) Web Application Protocol

Q10. Which of the following act which provided legal recognition to electronic
transactions and other means of electronic commerce?
(a) IT Act, 2011
(b) IT Act, 2008
(c) IT Act, 2005
(d) IT Act, 2000

Q11. What is the purpose of push messages in SMS banking?

(a) To request information or perform transactions
(b) To receive account balance inquiries
(c) To initiate marketing messages
(d) To notify customers of successful or unsuccessful transactions

Q12. What is the primary reason for the increasing popularity of Mobile Wallets
among merchants?
(a) To provide manageable payment options to those who are declined for traditional
credit
(b) To offer customers a variety of payment options while streamlining the payment
process
(c) To avoid high card swipe fees charged by credit card companies
(d) To provide quick credit decisions and easy obtainment than traditional credit cards

Q13. Which section of the IT Act covers the punishment for data theft, including theft
of source of Computer documents?
(a) Section 66
(b) Section 65
(c) Section 43
(d) Section 500

Q14. For which purpose do vendors/traders and government officials utilize digital
signatures in the e-Procurement system?
(a) Tender submission and processing
(b) Document verification and fee submission
(c) Data accuracy verification
(d) Online license application and document submission

Q15. Which was the first web browser developed commercially?

(a) Worldwide Web
(b) Line Mode Browser
(c) Apple Safari
(d) Microsoft Internet Explorer

Q16. Who proposed the spiral model first?

(a) IBM
(b) Apple
(c) Barry Boehm
(d) Pressman

Q17. Which one of the following options is a disadvantage of Spiral Model?

(a) High amount of risk analysis
(b) Strong approval and documentation control
(c) Later on, additional functionality can be added
(d) Doesn’t work well for smaller projects

Q18. Which component of web browsers enables easy navigation through

hyperlinks?
(a) Plug-ins
(b) APIs
(c) Search engines
(d) Rendering engine

Q19. Which type of API allows communication between different software programs?
(a) Open (public) APIs
(b) Private APIs
(c) Partner APIs
(d) Closed APIs

Q20. Which of the following is not a Mobile phone Operating System?

(a) Android
(b) iOS
(c) Windows
(d) MS DOS

Q21. How can data compression help combat unstoppable data growth in a data
warehouse?
(a) Reducing the cost of data systems
(b) Enabling real-time analytics
(c) Simplifying data analysis
(d) Handling larger volumes of data

Q22. An e-mail data communication system consists which of the following

components?
(a) Data Communication Devices
(b) A Communication channels
(c) Data communication software
(d) All of the above

Q23. What is the main purpose of incorporating gamification into learning

platforms?
(a) To make learning gaming fun
(b) To maximize the benefits of training
(c) To analyze learning analytics
(d) To enhance adaptive learning techniques

Q24. Which of the following is uses a standard phone line and analog modem to
access the Internet at data transfer rates (DTR) of up to 56 Kbps?
(a) Dial-up Lines
(b) Leased Lines
(c) Fiber Broadband
(d) All of the above
Q25. Which of the following is/are advantages of E-mail?
(a) messages can be sent at whatever time suits the user
(b) messages will be in the recipient’s mailbox within minutes
(c) delivery of messages can be confirmed
(d) All of the above

Q26. What is the meaning of ERNET?

(a) Ethernet in Computer Network
(b) Education & Recognition Network
(c) Education & Reverse Network
(d) Education & Research Network

Q27. Which of the following is one of the main phases of the Systems Development
Life Cycle?
(a) design & development
(b) planning and analysis
(c) operation & maintenance
(d) all of the above

Q28. Which of the following is not a development tool?

(a) Programming language
(b) Development Environment
(c) Operating System
(d) None of the above

Q29. Lisp Programming language used for?

(a) Science & Engineering
(b) Artificial Intelligence
(c) Business purpose
(d) None of the above

Q30. EPF Composer is example of which CASE tools?

(a) Dial tools
(b) Process Modelling Tools
(c) Project Management Tools
(d) Document Tools

Q31. GDSS is acronym for?

(a) Group decision support system
(b) General decision support system
(c) Group discussion support system
(d) Groupware deployment support system
Q32. Which of the following is commonly used for tasks such as creating the structure
of relations and deleting relations?
(a) Data Manipulation Language
(b) Relational Schema
(c) Data Definition Language
(d) Embedded DML

Q33. Which of the following is not a disadvantage of File processing system?

(a) Data redundancy and inconsistency
(b) Data isolation
(c) Integrity problem
(d) Data abstraction

Q34. Which of the following statement is true about database?

(a) Organized collection of data or information that can be accessed, updated, and managed
(b) A structured collection of data that cannot be accessed, updated, or managed.
(c) Organized collection of data that cannot be updated
(d) Collection of data or information without organizing

Q35. What is the HDFS in Hadoop?

(a) Minimum Duplication and Redundancy of Data
(b) a distributed file system that handles large data sets running on commodity hardware.
(c) Data in the form of audio or video
(d) No-backup for the data stored

Q36. A process of organizing the data in the database is called?

(a) Generalization
(b) Specialization
(c) Normalization
(d) Aggregation

Q37. A table is in BCNF if it is in 3NF and if every determinant is a ___________ key?

(a) Candidate
(b) Super
(c) Normal
(d) Dependent

Q38. A function that has no partial functional dependencies is in _______ form?

(a) BCNF
(b) 3NF
(c) 4NF
(d) 2NF

Q39. When the values in one or more attributes being used as a foreign key must
exist in another set of one or more attributes in another table, we have created a?
(a) Insertion Anomaly
(b) Referential Integrity Constraint
(c) Normal Form
(d) Multivalued Dependencies

Q40. A common approach to normalization is to ___ the larger table into smaller
tables and link them together by using relationships?
(a) Multiplication
(b) Addition
(c) Divide
(d) Subtraction

Q41. The term Data Warehouse was first coined by?

(a) James Gosling
(b) Bill inmon
(c) Roger Mougalas
(d) Patric Thompson

Q42. Which of the following is correct option that defines Datamart?

(a) Not related to data warehouse
(b) Another type of data warehouse
(c) A group of data collecting
(d) A subgroup of data warehouse

Q43. A goal of data mining includes which of the following?

(a) To update that data exists
(b) To analyze data for expected relationships
(c) To create a new data warehouse
(d) To explain some observed event or conditions

Q44. Which of the following is not a layer in Data Warehouse?

(a) System Operations Layer
(b) Data Transport Layer
(c) Metadata Layer
(d) Data Storage Layer

Q45. ETL stands for?

(a) Extract, Transform and Load
(b) Ethnic Transport Layer
(c) Extract Technique Layer
(d) Econometric Transactional Layer

Q46. What could be considered to be an advantage of using e-learning?

(a) Easy to use
(b) Easy to implement
(c) Quick
(d) Flexibility

Q47. Which of the following is a disadvantage of e-learning?

(a) IT Competency
(b) Expensive
(c) Difficult to use
(d) Ineffective

Q48. What do MOOCs stand for?

(a) Massive Online Open Courses
(b) Mobile Online Open Courses
(c) Massive Open Online Courses
(d) Mobile Open Online Courses

Q49. "A hybrid approach to teaching that combines face-to-face, traditional

classroom methods with e-learning." What type of e-learning is described in the
quote?
(a) Synchronous Learning
(b) Blended Learning
(c) Distance Learning
(d) Asynchronous Learning

Q50. "Allows participants to complete training on their own time through web-based
training, such as email, Blackboard, Moodle, and intranets. There is no assistance
from instructors, but participants can use the internet as a resource." What kind of e-
learning is described in this quote?
(a) Distance Learning
(b) Synchronous Learning
(c) Blended Learning
(d) Asynchronous Learning

Q51. AICC stands for?

(a) All India Committee Council
(b) Asynchronous Internet Committee Council
(c) Aviation Industry CBT Committee
(d) Aeronautics Industry Committee Council

Q52. What is a Virtual Classroom?

(a) An online learning environment that is accessed through the internet
(b) YouTube tutorials.
(c) Learners using technology
(d) All of the above

Q53. Electronic Clearance System (ECS) is which of the following category Banking
Software?
(a) Bank’s administration software
(b) Core banking software
(c) MIS related software
(d) Reconciliation and settlement software

Q54. Which of the following is/are Data Security features?

(a) Message validation
(b) Transaction logging
(c) Tracking access of authorized users
(d) All of the above

Q55.Which of the following is a need for Core Banking Technology?

(a) To meet the dynamically changing market & customer needs.
(b) To improve & simplify banking processes so that bank staff can focus on sales &
marketing stuff.
(c) Convenience to customer as well as bank.
(d) All of the above

Q56. Which type of CBDC serves as a digital form of cash for everyday retail
transactions?
(a) Wholesale CBDC
(b) Token-based CBDC
(c) Account-based CBDC
(d) Retail CBDC

Q57. What are the names of the programs that ask servers for data?
(a) Users
(b) Clients
(c) Programs
(d) Hosts
Q58. Which of the following is not a server?
(a) FTP Servers
(b) Backup Servers
(c) Application Servers
(d) Client Servers

Q59. Which of the following is not a Web Server?

(a) Apache
(b) IIS
(c) Nginx
(d) Edge

Q60. Which of the following services are not provided by a Server?

(a) Browsing
(b) Virus Scanning
(c) Data Sharing
(d) Resource Sharing

Q61. Which of the following is/are example of Application Servers?

(a) JBoss
(b) SAP
(c) Netscape
(d) SQL server

Q62. What type of computer fraud involves using spyware to collect information
about people?
(a) Email spoofing
(b) Network spoofing
(c) Phishing
(d) Identity fraud

Q63. In the certification system, which trust model allows anyone with a certificate to
act as a Certification Authority (CA)?
(a) Centralized Authority
(b) Hierarchical Authority
(c) Web of Trust
(d) None of the above

Q64. What is the purpose of a certificate revocation list (CRL)?

(a) To validate the authority's public key
(b) To verify the authenticity of a certificate
(c) To inform people about the revocation of certificates
(d) To ensure the association of a public key with an identified person or entity

Q65. In the context of automated incident response systems (SOAR), what is the
benefit of integrating threat intelligence with firewalls?
(a) Enhancing network traffic filtering
(b) Improving coordination between security tools
(c) Streamlining incident response workflows
(d) Enabling real-time detection of malicious IP addresses

Q66. In the "audit around the computer" approach, the auditor focuses on reviewing:
(a) Computer programs and operations
(b) Computer printouts (outputs) only
(c) Input documents and output reports
(d) Source documents for testing

Q67. What is the full form of IMPS?

(a) Immediate Payment Service
(b) International Payment Service
(c) Internet Marked Payment Service
(d) Indian Money Payment Service

Q68. Which of the following services are available under IMPS?

(a) Funds Transfer and Remittances
(b) Merchant Payments
(c) Grocery bills
(d) All of the above

Q69. When did UPI introduce in India?

(a) 18 April 2014
(b) 11 April 2016
(c) 4 July 2017
(d) 28 October 2018

Q70. BBPS stands for?

(a) Bhat Brand Payment Service
(b) Bharat Bazar Payment Service
(c) Bharat Bill Payment System
(d) Bharat Bill Payment Service

Q71. Which of the following is the modern system of payment system, which has to a
large extent replaced the traditional forms of payment by cash, cheques, etc.?
(a) Credit Card
(b) Debit Card
(c) Aadhar Card
(d) Identity Card

Q72. Which of the following is known as cross-selling by Banks?

I. Sale of a debit card to a credit card holder
II. Sale of Insurance policy to a depositor
III. Issuance of cash against cheque presented by a third party.
(a) only (I)
(b) only (I) & (II)
(c) only (II) & (III)
(d) All (I), (II) &(III)

Q73. PIN stands for?

(a) Professional Identity Number
(b) Personal Internet Number
(c) Personal Identification Number
(d) People Identity Number

Q74. Improve customer satisfaction by maintaining adequate stock is the benefits of?
(a) SCM
(b) CRM
(c) E-Commerce
(d) None of the above

Q75. OBI stands for?

(a) Open Box on Internet
(b) Open Buying on Internet
(c) Open Bank on Internet
(d) Open Business on Internet

Q76. Which of the following is/are approach for E-banking?

I. Develop a sound business case to chart your e-business investment.
II. Review the internal process and security protocols in support of E-business
strategy.
III. Deliver a working pilot service.
IV. Implement your chosen solution as a fully integrated part of your business.
(a) only (II) &(IV)
(b) only (I) & (II)
(c) only (II) & (III)
(d) All (I), (II), (III) & (IV)
Q77. Cyber law is also called?
(a) Computer Misuse Act
(b) Offenses against right to privacy,
(c) Unlawful use of Computers
(d) All of the above

Q78. The original IT Act contained how many sections?

(a) 90
(b) 117
(c) 94
(d) 99

Q79. Which among the following was established under IT Act, 2000 to resolve
disputes arising from the law?
(a) Technology Disputes Bureau
(b) IT Disputes Tribunal
(c) Cyber Administrative Tribunal
(d) Cyber Appellate Tribunal

Q80. Which among the following is/are the major insertions in IT Act,2000 through
Information Technology (Amendment) Act, 2008?
(a) Section 66A which penalized sending “offensive messages”
(b) it introduced provisions addressing – pornography, child porn, cyber terrorism and
voyeurism
(c) both (a) & (b)
(d) None of the above

Q81. Which of the following is/are example of Embedded Finance?

(a) Embedded Payments
(b) Embedded Card Payments
(c) Embedded Lending
(d) All of the above

Q82. Which of the following is not a type of Big Data?

(a) Structured
(b) Tran scripted
(c) Semi-structured
(d) Unstructured

Q83. What is the name of Microsoft cloud services?

(a) Azure
(b) AWS
(c) Bluemix
(d) iCloud

Q84. 5G is the next generation of _____communications?

(a) Semi wired
(b) Wired
(c) Wireless
(d) None of above

Q85. Amazon Web Services falls into which of the following cloud-computing
category?
(a) Platform as a Service
(b) Infrastructure as a Service
(c) Back-end as a Service
(d) Software as a Service

Q86. RPA stands for?

(a) Report Process Activated
(b) Robot Particular Automation
(c) Robot Process Automation
(d) Report Process Automation

Q87. What is the name of icici bank's chatbot in India?

(a) iPal Chatbot
(b) Eva Chatbot
(c) SIC Chatbot
(d) ADI Chatbot

Q88. Which of the following is related to information security?

(a) Confidentiality
(b) Integrity
(c) Availability
(d) All of the above

Q89. Which of the following is not involve in intrusion prevention mechanisms?

(a) Watering
(b) Lighting
(c) Guarding
(d) Locking

Q90. Which trend in data warehousing is characterized by the growing use of cloud
technology and automation?
(a) Incorporating AI operations
(b) Utilizing commodity servers
(c) Autonomous or self-healing DBs
(d) Cloud & Automation

Q91. ‘A set of characters which may be allocated to a person, a terminal or a facility

which are required to be keyed into the system before further access is permitted’?
(a) Security Code
(b) Password
(c) Authentication
(d) Prevention

Q92.What is a database security technology that monitors and analyses database

activity?
(a) Database activity monitoring
(b) Database activity locking
(c) Database activity preventing
(d) Database activity securing

Q93. What type of firewall is used to perform a simple check on all data packets
coming from a network router, inspecting specifications such as source and
destination IP address, port number, protocol, and other surface-level data?
(a) Proxy Firewall
(b) NAT Firewall
(c) Packet-filtering firewalls
(d) Web Application Firewalls

Q94. Which of the following is monitors packets on the network wire and attempts to
discover if a hacker is attempting to break into a system or cause a denial of service
(DoS) or distributed DoS attack?
(a) Network intrusion detection system
(b) System integrity verifiers
(c) Virtual Private Network
(d) Encryption

Q95. Which of the following prominent industries are widely using biometric
authentication?
(a) Banking
(b) Healthcare
(c) Law Enforcement Sector
(d) All of the above
Q96. Which of the following can reformat and transform data making it safer on its
trip between computers?
(a) Data Translation
(b) Cryptography
(c) Intrusion Detector
(d) Network Security

Q97. Blowfish is the example of?

(a) Security breaching
(b) Trojan horses
(c) Symmetric Encryption
(d) Asymmetric Encryption

Q98. What is the BCP?

(a) Business Community Planning
(b) Business Continuity Process
(c) Business Coordinate Process
(d) Business Continuity Planning

Q99. _________is essentially an audit of computer system?

(a) System Audit
(b) CPU Audit
(c) Networking Audit
(d) Data Audit

Q100. RFB stands for?

(a) Request for Board
(b) Request for Breach
(c) Request for Bid
(d) Registered for Bid

Solutions: -

S1. Ans.(b)
Sol. A private cloud is a cloud computing deployment model in which the infrastructure is
dedicated to a single organization. This gives the organization full control over the
infrastructure, including the hardware, software, and data. Private clouds are often used by
organizations that have sensitive data or applications that require high performance or
availability.
S2. Ans. (d)
Sol. ITES stands for Information Technology Enabled Services. ITES is also known as
remote services or web-enabled services. ITES encompasses a wide range of approaches
and processes that employ IT to improve and expand an organization's efficiency.
Knowledge process outsourcing (KPO), games process outsourcing (GPO), and knowledge
management are all examples of ITES services.
S3. Ans. (a)
Sol. A blade server is a simplified server computer with a modular design. It is typically
housed in a blade enclosure, which can hold multiple blade servers. Blade servers are often
used in data centers because they can save space and power, and are easy to scale and
manage.
S4. Ans. (a)
Sol. An interface is a channel used to communicate across a boundary between two or
more subsystems. An interface can be either hardware or software.
S5. Ans. (d)
Sol. Digital convergence is the process of merging different digital technologies into a
single unified system, leading to the development of new products and services, such as
smartphones, smart TVs, and social media.
S6. Ans. (b)
Sol. Impact on population density is not affected by Information Technology.
S7. Ans. (b)
Sol. Authentication Cracking is a risk of using Internet Banking by the customer.
S8. Ans. (c)
Sol. Mobile Banking is a service provided by a bank or other financial institution that
allows its customers to conduct financial transactions remotely using a mobile device such
as a mobile phone or tablet.
S9. Ans. (a)
Sol. Wireless Application Protocol (WAP) is a specification for a set of communication
protocols that standardize how wireless devices, such as mobile phones and radio
transceivers, can connect to the internet and access services such as email, the web,
newsgroups, and instant messaging.
S10. Ans. (d)
Sol. The Government of India enacted the IT Act, 2000 with effect from October 17, 2000
which provided legal recognition to electronic transactions and other means of electronic
commerce.
S11. Ans. (d)
Sol. Push messages in SMS banking are used to notify customers of successful or
unsuccessful transactions, account alerts, and security warnings. They can help
customers to stay informed about their accounts and transactions.
S12. Ans. (c)
Sol. Mobile wallets are becoming increasingly popular among merchants because they
offer lower fees and a number of other benefits, such as increased sales, improved
customer satisfaction, and reduced fraud.
S13. Ans. (b)
Sol. Section 65 of the IT Act covers the punishment for data theft, including theft of source
of Computer documents. It applies to computer source code that is required to be kept or
maintained by law for evidence. Violation of this section can lead to imprisonment for up to
three years, a fine of up to five lakh rupees, or both.
S14. Ans. (a)
Sol. Digital signatures are used in the e-Procurement system to authenticate the identity
of vendors/traders and government officials, and to ensure the integrity of tender
documents. This helps to prevent fraud and corruption, and to create a more transparent
and efficient procurement process.
S15. Ans. (d)
Sol. Microsoft Internet Explorer was the first commercially developed web browser,
released in 1995. It was the first to support W3C's HTML 3.2 standard, include a GUI, email
client, and search engine. It was the dominant browser for many years, but its popularity
has since declined.
S16. Ans. (c)
Sol. The spiral model, proposed by Barry Boehm in 1986, is such an evolutionary process
aimed at rapid development of more complete versions of the software or system by taking
into account the technical and managerial risks associated with each evolutionary level.
S17. Ans. (d)
Sol. Doesn’t work well for smaller projects is a disadvantage of Spiral Model.
S18. Ans. (d)
Sol. The rendering engine is the component of web browsers that enables easy navigation
through hyperlinks. It interprets HTML and CSS code to display web pages and uses
different techniques to indicate visited hyperlinks or provide additional information about
them.
S19. Ans. (a)
Sol. Open APIs allow communication between different software programs by providing
documented and easy-to-access interfaces. They are becoming increasingly popular as they
enable developers to build new and innovative applications more easily and businesses to
integrate their systems with others.
S20. Ans. (d)
Sol. MS DOS is a disk operating system that was developed by Microsoft in the 1980s. It was
one of the first operating systems to be used on personal computers. MS DOS is not a
mobile phone operating system.
S21. Ans. (d)
Sol. Data compression reduces the size of data files without losing important information. It
can be used to combat data growth in a data warehouse by reducing the size of the data
stored in the warehouse. This can free up storage space and make it possible to store
larger volumes of data.
S22. Ans. (d)
Sol. An e-mail data communication system consists of the following components
-Source/Destination (Computers), Data communication devices (modems), A
communication channel (cable) and Data communication software.
S23. Ans. (b)
Sol. Gamification is used in learning platforms to make learning more engaging and
motivating, which can lead to improved training outcomes and increased employee
productivity. Some benefits of using gamification in learning platforms include increased
engagement, improved motivation, better retention, and increased satisfaction.
S24. Ans. (a)
Sol. A dial-up line is a connection or circuit between two sites through a switched
telephone network. In the data communication world, a dial-up line forms a link between
two distant computers or local area networks. Dial-up lines provide any-to-any
connections.
S25. Ans. (d)
Sol. Advantages of E-mail are: – messages can be sent at whatever time suits the user,
messages will be in the recipient’s mailbox within minutes, delivery of messages can
be confirmed, copies can be sent automatically to everyone on a distribution list, messages
can be read at the user’s convenience and telex terminal can be replaced.
S26. Ans. (d)
Sol. ERNET (Education & Research Network) India, an autonomous scientific society
under the administrative control of the Ministry of Electronics & Information Technology is
functioning under the overall control and guidance of its Governing Council.
S27. Ans. (d)
Sol. The main phases of the Systems Development Life Cycle are: -
 planning and analysis,
 design & development,
 implementation,
 testing & acceptance and
 operation & maintenance.
S28. Ans. (c)
Sol. The development tools are (programming language and development environment)
and deployment environment (operating system, hardware, network and standards).
S29. Ans. (b)
Sol. Lisp stands for “LISt Processing.” Lisp has long been a popular language for
applications in artificial intelligence. The name LISP derives from "LISt Processor".
Linked lists are one of Lisp's major data structures, and Lisp source code is made of lists.
S30. Ans. (b)
Sol. EPF Composer is example of Process Modelling tools. Process modelling is method to
create software process model, which is used to develop the software. Process modelling
tools help the managers to choose a process model or modify it as per the requirement of
software product.
S31. Ans. (a)
Sol. Group decision support system (GDSS) technology promotes digital communication
with a variety of tools and resources, which supports project collaboration. These
programs are used to support specialized projects that call for collaboration, group input,
and different meeting protocols.
S32. Ans. (c)
Sol. The term "DDL" refers to the Data Definition Language, which is used to perform all
other necessary tasks such as deleting relation and related schemas when defining the
structure relation.
S33. Ans. (d)
Sol. In DBMS, data abstraction means hiding unnecessary background details from the end
user in order to make data access simple and secure. There are three levels of data
abstraction in DBMS: Internal or Physical Level: This is the layer where raw data is stored
on physical hard drives in file format.
S34. Ans. (a)
Sol. Organized collection of data or information that can be accessed, updated, and
managed is called Database.
S35. Ans. (b)
Sol. HDFS is a distributed file system that handles large data sets running on
commodity hardware. It is used to scale a single Apache Hadoop cluster to hundreds (and
even thousands) of nodes. HDFS is one of the major components of Apache Hadoop, the
others being MapReduce and YARN.
S36. Ans. (c)
Sol. Normalization is the process of organizing the data in the database.
S37. Ans. (a)
Sol. A table is in BCNF if it is in 3NF and if every determinant is a candidate key.
S38. Ans. (d)
Sol. The 2nd Normal Form (2NF) eliminates the Partial Dependency.
S39. Ans. (b)
Sol. Referential Integrity is a set of constraints applied to foreign keys that prevents you
from entering a row in a child table that has no corresponding row in the parent table, i.e.,
entering NULL or invalid foreign keys.
S40. Ans. (c)
Sol. A common approach to normalization is to divide the larger table into smaller tables
and link them together by using relationships.
S41. Ans. (b)
Sol. Bill Inmon, the recognized father of the data warehousing concept, defines a data
warehouse as a subject-orientated, integrated, time variant, non-volatile collection of data
in support of management's decision-making process.
S42. Ans. (d)
Sol. Datamart is defined as a subgroup of the data warehouses.
S43. Ans. (d)
Sol. A goal of data mining includes to explain some observed event or conditions.
S44. Ans. (b)
Sol. Except Data Transport Layer, all are the layers in a Data Warehouse.
S45. Ans. (a)
Sol. ETL, which stands for extract, transform and load, is a data integration process that
combines data from multiple data sources into a single, consistent data store that is loaded
into a data warehouse or other target system.
S46. Ans. (d)
Sol. Flexibility could be considered to be an advantage of using e-learning.
S47. Ans. (a)
Sol. IT Competency is a disadvantage of e-learning.
S48. Ans. (c)
Sol. MOOCs stands for Massive Open Online Courses.
S49. Ans. (b)
Sol. "A hybrid approach to teaching that combines face-to-face, traditional classroom
methods with e-learning." Blended Learning is described in the quote.
S50. Ans. (d)
Sol. "Allows participants to complete training on their own time through web-based
training, such as email, Blackboard, Moodle, and intranets. There is no assistance from
instructors, but participants can use the internet as a resource." Asynchronous learning is
described in this quote.
S51. Ans. (c)
Sol. AICC (‘Aviation Industry CBT Committee’) is an international group of technology-
based training professionals that creates CBT-related guidelines for the aviation industry in
the development, delivery, and evaluation of CBT and related training technologies.
S52. Ans. (a)
Sol. A Virtual Classroom is an online learning environment that is accessed through the
internet.
S53. Ans. (d)
Sol. Reconciliation and settlement software Viz., Inter Branch Reconciliation (IBR), Real
Time Gross Settlement (RTGS), Electronic Clearance System (ECS).
S54. Ans. (d)
Sol. Data security features: -
• Message validation
• Transaction logging
• Tracking access of authorized users
S55. Ans. (d)
Sol. Core Banking System is required: -
 To meet the dynamically changing market & customer needs.
 To improve & simplify banking processes so that bank staff can focus on sales
& marketing stuff.
 Convenience to customer as well as bank.
 To speed up the banking transactions.
  To expand presence in rural & remote areas.
S56. Ans. (d)
Sol. Retail CBDC is the type of CBDC that serves as a digital form of cash for everyday retail
transactions. It is designed to be a convenient and efficient way to pay for goods and
services, both online and in person.
S57. Ans. (b)
Sol. Programs that request data from servers is called Clients.
S58. Ans. (d)
Sol. Client Server is not a server.
S59. Ans. (d)
Sol. Edge is not a Web Server.
S60. Ans. (a)
Sol. Browsing services are not provided by a Server.
S61. Ans. (a)
Sol. JBoss is the example of Application Server.
S62. Ans. (d)
Sol. Identity fraud is the type of computer fraud that involves using spyware to collect
information about people, such as their Social Security numbers, credit card numbers, and
bank account numbers. This information can then be used to commit other types of fraud.
S63. Ans. (c)
Sol. The Web of Trust is a distributed trust model in which anyone can act as a CA, but the
trustworthiness of a certificate is determined by the other participants in the WoT.
S64. Ans. (c)
Sol. A CRL is a list of certificates that have been revoked by the CA that issued them. Clients
can check the CRL to see if a certificate has been revoked before accepting it.
S65. Ans. (a)
Sol. Integrating threat intelligence with firewalls can help to enhance network traffic
filtering and prevent successful attacks.
S66. Ans. (c)
Sol. The "audit around the computer" approach focuses on reviewing input documents
and output reports to verify the accuracy of accounting records.
S67. Ans. (a)
Sol. IMPS stands for Immediate Payment Service.
S68. Ans. (d)
Sol. Funds Transfer and Remittances, Merchant Payments and Grocery bills etc.
services are available under IMPS.
S69. Ans. (b)
Sol. UPI Introduced in India 11 April 2016.
S70. Ans. (c)
Sol. Bharat Bill Payment System (BBPS) is an integrated bill payment system in India
offering interoperable and accessible bill payment service to customers through a network
of agents of registered member as Agent Institutions, enabling multiple payment modes,
and providing instant confirmation of payment.
S71. Ans. (a)
Sol. Credit Card is the modern system of payment system, which has to a large extent
replaced the traditional forms of payment by cash, cheques, etc.
S72. Ans. (d)
Sol. Sale of a debit card to a credit card holder, Sale of Insurance policy to a depositor
and Issuance of cash against cheque presented by a third party all are known as cross-
selling by Banks.
S73. Ans. (c)
Sol. PIN stands for personal identification number.
S74. Ans. (a)
Sol. The benefits of SCM (Supply Chain Management) are: Lower operating costs through
reduced inventory, improve customer satisfaction by maintaining adequate stock, improve
productivity through better data integrity, fewer order entry errors, less rework, and faster
communications, and the bottom-line is an improved competitive position.
S75. Ans. (b)
Sol. OBI stands for Open Buying on Internet use for high volume low-cost transactions.
S76. Ans. (d)
Sol. The approach for E-banking is: -
 Develop a sound business case to chart your e-business investment.
 Review the internal process and security protocols in support of E-business
strategy.
 Deliver a working pilot service.
 Implement your chosen solution as a fully integrated part of your business.
S77. Ans. (d)
Sol. Cyber law is also called Computer Misuse Act, Computer Crime Act, Computer Related
Offenses, Fraudulent Access to Computer, Unlawful use of Computers, Offenses against
right to privacy, Computer Crime and Abuse, Electronic Transaction Act in different
countries.
S78. Ans. (c)
Sol. The original Act contained 94 sections, divided into 13 chapters and 4 schedules.
S79. Ans. (d)
Sol. Cyber Appellate Tribunal was established under IT Act, 2000 to resolve disputes
arising from the law.
S80. Ans. (c)
Sol. Section 66A which penalized sending “offensive messages”, Section 69, which gave
authorities the power of “interception or monitoring or decryption of any information
through any computer resource and it introduced provisions addressing – pornography,
child porn, cyber terrorism and voyeurism are the major insertions in IT Act,2000
through Information Technology (Amendment) Act, 2008.
S81. Ans. (d)
Sol. Embedded Payments, Embedded Card Payments and Embedded Lending are
Some examples of Embedded Finance.
S82. Ans. (b)
Sol. Tran scripted is not a type of Big Data.
S83. Ans. (a)
Sol. Azure is the name of Microsoft cloud services
S84. Ans. (c)
Sol. 5G is the next generation of wireless communications.
S85. Ans. (b)
Sol. Amazon Web Services falls into Infrastructure as a Service (IaaS) cloud-computing
category.
S86. Ans. (c)
Sol. Robotic Process Automation (RPA) software is geared towards automating
mundane, repetitive, rule-based processes, enabling accounting staff to devote more time
to serving clients and other higher-value work.
S87. Ans. (a)
Sol. iPal Chatbot: Conversational Banking & AI Chatbot Solutions - ICICI Bank.
S88. Ans. (d)
Sol. Computer Security which is also at times referred to as information security is
concerned with three main areas: -
 Confidentiality: Only authorized users can access the data resources and
information.
 Integrity: Only authorized users should be able to modify the data when needed.
 Availability: Data should be available to users when needed.
S89. Ans. (a)
Sol. Watering is not involved in intrusion prevention mechanisms. The intrusion
prevention mechanisms involve locking, guarding, lighting, and automated entry booths.
S90. Ans. (d)
Sol. The trend of cloud computing and automation is transforming data warehousing by
making it more accessible, scalable, cost-effective, and efficient.
S91. Ans. (b)
Sol. Passwords is ‘a set of characters which may be allocated to a person, a terminal or a
facility which are required to be keyed into the system before further access is permitted’.
S92. Ans. (a)
Sol. Database activity monitoring (DAM) is a database security technology that monitors
and analyses database activity. It is also known as Enterprise database auditing and Real-
time protection.
S93. Ans. (c)
Sol. Packet-filtering firewalls is used to perform a simple check on all data packets
coming from a network router, inspecting specifications such as source and destination IP
address, port number, protocol, and other surface-level data.
S94. Ans. (a)
Sol. Network intrusion detection system (NIDS) monitors packets on the network wire
and attempts to discover if a hacker/cracker is attempting to break into a system or cause a
denial of service (DoS) or distributed DoS (DDoS) attack.
S95. Ans. (d)
Sol. Some prominent industries which are widely using biometric authentication are: -
1.Banking, 2. Healthcare,3. Law Enforcement Sector.
S96. Ans. (b)
Sol. Cryptography can reformat and transform data making it safer on its trip between
computers.
S97. Ans. (c)
Sol. Blowfish is the example of Symmetric Encryption.
S98. Ans. (d)
Sol. BCP is Business Continuity Planning. Used to Planning to continue business
operations.
S99. Ans. (a)
Sol. System Audit is essentially an audit of computer system.
S100. Ans. (c)
Sol. RFB stands for the request for bid.