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Explanation

X1
The correct answer is D.
Within reason, the technical experts (generally the team members) should resolve the issue. It is unlikely there
will be an opportunity to compromise on the selection of a seller.
Knowledge Area: Resource
Process Group: Executing
Source: PMP® Exam Prep
Page: 396

Explanation
X2
The correct answer is C.
Because the team is inexperienced, the part of procurement that they should attend to first is looking for any
existing procedures related to the procurement process (organizational process assets). Based on the situation
in the question, another good option for this team is to look for anyone who might be able to provide them with
expert judgment. This could be a lawyer or procurement expert. Additionally, since project managers are
supposed to be involved in the procurement process, even if it is managed by another department, the project
manager should be involved in the selection of a contract type.
Knowledge Area: Procurement
Process Group: Planning
Source: PMP® Exam Prep
Page: 507

Explanation
X3
The correct answer is A.
Procurements are closed as part of Control Procurements in monitoring and controlling.
Knowledge Area: PM Framework/Processes
Process Group: Closing
Source: PMP® Exam Prep
Page: 107

Explanation
X4
The correct answer is C.
The law of diminishing returns has nothing to do with choosing between projects. Notice that this question
requires you to understand that projects should be systematically selected and that the selection should be
based on some formal evaluation of all projects available. It is important for the project manager to understand
why the project they are managing was selected.
Knowledge Area: Integration
Process Group: Initiating
Source: PMP® Exam Prep
Page: 128

Explanation
X5
The correct answer is A.
Such a communication must be a formal written communication as it relates to changes to the contract.
Knowledge Area: Communications
Process Group: Monitoring & Controlling
Source: PMP® Exam Prep
Page: 420

Explanation
X6
The correct answer is A.
This question requires you to draw a network diagram, find the critical path, and then determine the effect a
change will have on the project. Expect many such questions, because many project managers do not use
network diagrams, understand float, or manage the critical path. Exam question writers know this is a prevalent
error. The answer to this question? The duration of the critical path changes to 21. The critical path is now Start,
C, D, E, F, End.
Knowledge Area: Schedule
Process Group: Planning
Source: PMP® Exam Prep
Page: 243

Explanation
X7
The correct answer is D.
In initiating, you don't need a precise estimate to get the charter approved. A rough order of magnitude (ROM)
estimate, with a range of -25/+75 percent suffices. It is unlikely the cost of the final resources would be outside
the parameters of a ROM estimate.
Knowledge Area: Integration
Process Group: Initiating
Source: PMP® Exam Prep
Page: 289

Explanation
X8
The correct answer is A.
There is no reason to suspect a brief project scope statement is a problem on the project. Simply making a list of
activities is example of incorrect project management practices, which will appear in choices throughout the
exam. Did you choose accomplishing the project as time allows? Planning should still occur. All projects, even
those without a required completion date (yes, they do exist), should be planned and have a schedule, so that,
among other things, the team knows what should be done by whom, and to control the project and prove project
success. However, because there is no required end date, schedule flexibility can be built into the plan, allowing
for resources being removed and other such delays.
Knowledge Area: Integration
Process Group: Planning
Source: PMP® Exam Prep
Page: 144

Explanation
X9
The correct answer is D.
Think of the Develop Schedule process as all the work necessary to finalize the schedule. Also, remember that
planning, including schedule development, is iterated. Although change requests would not be an output when
the schedule is first planned, it is possible that they would result from iterations, as more is learned about the
project activities.
Knowledge Area: Schedule
Process Group: Planning
Source: PMP® Exam Prep
Page: 262

Explanation
X10
The correct answer is D.
Operations and maintenance are ongoing activities after the project is completed. This work is not considered
part of the project.
Knowledge Area: PM Framework/Processes
Process Group: Closing
Source: PMP® Exam Prep
Page: 109

Explanation
X11
The correct answer is D.
The project manager's role in project executing is not just to manage the overall project effort. Individual
attention must be paid to each knowledge area, and the impacts of each knowledge area on the others.
Integration management requires project managers to keep all the knowledge areas in mind at all times.
Knowledge Area: Integration
Process Group: Executing
Source: PMP® Exam Prep
Page: 150

Explanation
X12
The correct answer is D.
Numeric analysis of project risk and the determining the probability of achieving the project and budget are
completed during the Perform Quantitative Risk Analysis process.
Knowledge Area: Risk
Process Group: Planning
Source: PMP® Exam Prep
Page: 464

Explanation
X13
The correct answer is D.
A work authorization system helps tell the team when work should begin on work packages. A change control
system helps track, approve or reject, and control changes. The configuration management system is part of the
project management information system. Of the two options (PMIS or configuration management system),
configuration management system is the best choice because it helps control documents on the project.
Knowledge Area: Integration
Process Group: Planning
Source: PMP® Exam Prep
Page: 146

Explanation
X14
The correct answer is B.
Earned value (EV) minus planned value (PV) equals schedule variance (SV).
Knowledge Area: Schedule
Process Group: Monitoring & Controlling
Source: PMP® Exam Prep
Page: 294

Explanation
X15
The correct answer is B.
Because you need to release the seller's resources, the best next step is to close the procurement.
Knowledge Area: Procurement
Process Group: Monitoring & Controlling
Source: PMP® Exam Prep
Page: 549
Explanation
X16
The correct answer is B.
The project life cycle is used in the WBS, not created from the WBS. The project management process is not
longer than the project life cycle, and it applies to all projects. Whereas the project management process
describes what you do to manage the project, the project life cycle describes what you need to do to complete
the work.
Knowledge Area: PM Framework/Processes
Process Group: Initiating
Source: PMP® Exam Prep
Page: 59

Explanation
X17
The correct answer is A.
Quality training is a cost of conformance to quality. All the other choices are costs of nonconformance to quality.
Knowledge Area: Quality
Process Group: Executing
Source: PMP® Exam Prep
Page: 329

Explanation
X18
The correct answer is C.
The costs of activities are included in the project cost estimate, and the contingency reserves (to cover identified
risks) are added to that to come up with the cost baseline. Thereafter, the management reserves (to cover
unknown, or unidentified, risks) are added to come up with the cost budget. The management reserves make up
the difference between the cost baseline and the cost budget.
Knowledge Area: Cost
Process Group: Planning
Source: PMP® Exam Prep
Page: 290

Explanation
X19
The correct answer is D.
Notice that this question asks about the use of a tool of project management. Many people can learn from a
book what a lessons learned register is, but questions like this can more readily be answered if you actually use
the tool and know from experience its value. Ask yourself about the other tools of project management. Why are
they beneficial? The best uses of lessons learned are as continuous improvement tools within the current
project, historical records for future projects, and tools for improving the organization’s processes and systems.
There are other tools that are better for accomplishing the things listed in the other choices.
Knowledge Area: PM Framework/Processes
Process Group: Closing
Source: PMP® Exam Prep
Page: 44
Explanation
X20
The correct answer is C.
The resource histogram shows the number of resources used in each time period. In its pure form, a bar chart
shows only activity and calendar date. The organizational chart shows who reports to whom. The responsibility
assignment matrix shows who will do the work.
Knowledge Area: Resource
Process Group: Planning
Source: PMP® Exam Prep
Page: 372

Explanation
X21
The correct answer is D.
Limits on what options you have to complete the project are called constraints.
Knowledge Area: PM Framework/Processes
Process Group: Initiating
Source: PMP® Exam Prep
Page: 45

Explanation
X22
The correct answer is D.
Collecting historical information and determining high-level acceptance criteria are done in project initiating.
Gaining approval of management plans is part of project planning. Confirming that project requirements have
been met occurs in project closing.
Knowledge Area: PM Framework/Processes
Process Group: Closing
Source: PMP® Exam Prep
Page: 109

Explanation
X23
The correct answer is B.
The fact that the project manager was able to quickly recover from this potentially project-changing event
indicates that there was a plan in place for such an occurrence.
Knowledge Area: Risk
Process Group: Executing
Source: PMP® Exam Prep
Page: 474

Explanation
X24
The correct answer is A.
Control charts identify if a process is in control and would not apply to this problem. A matrix diagram is used for
data analysis and is not applicable to this question. Process analysis would have been needed if there was not a
policy in place to keep samples and could be used to determine where the process need improvement to ensure
that shipped products met the international standards. Quality audits look for conformance to existing processes.
An audit would have determined that the team was not complying with company policies, and therefore would
have caught this issue.
Knowledge Area: Quality
Process Group: Executing
Source: PMP® Exam Prep
Page: 334

Explanation
X25
The correct answer is B.
This question includes a lot of things that could be done. Before you read on, look again at the choices. The
project manager need not focus on holding more meetings, and the team should not solve all problems.
Sensitivity analysis is done during the Perform Quantitative Risk Analysis process. Executing the project
management plan is not as proactive as identifying more risks. Only identifying more risks gets to the root cause
of the problems.
Knowledge Area: Integration
Process Group: Executing
Source: PMP® Exam Prep
Page: 150

Explanation
X26
The correct answer is A.
Management reserves address unknown unknowns and are managed by senior management. Contingency
reserves address known unknowns and are managed by the project manager.
Knowledge Area: Risk
Process Group: Monitoring & Controlling
Source: PMP® Exam Prep
Page: 471

Explanation
X27
The correct answer is C.
Active listening, negotiating, and political awareness are all important interpersonal and team skills a project
manager should strive to develop.
Knowledge Area: PM Framework/Processes
Process Group: Executing
Source: PMP® Exam Prep
Page: 49

Explanation
X28
The correct answer is D.
If it is not in the contract (which includes the specifications), a change order is needed to acquire it.
Knowledge Area: Procurement
Process Group: Monitoring & Controlling
Source: PMP® Exam Prep
Page: 549

Explanation
X29
The correct answer is B.
There is no indication that the situation is not part of the communications management plan. Neither the project
charter nor the WBS are related to the cause of the delays. This type of communication is common in a
functional organization.
Knowledge Area: PM Framework/Processes
Process Group: Executing
Source: PMP® Exam Prep
Page: 31

Explanation
X30
The correct answer is A.
This question tests whether you realize that administrative closure can occur at the end of each project phase (if
you have divided the project into phases), as well as at the end of the project.
Knowledge Area: Integration
Process Group: Closing
Source: PMP® Exam Prep
Page: 163

Explanation
X32
The correct answer is C.
This is an example of a project expediter position because you are not evaluating the change, looking for
impacts, etc. You are merely implementing others' requests.
Knowledge Area: PM Framework/Processes
Process Group: Initiating
Source: PMP® Exam Prep
Page: 32

Explanation
X33
The correct answer is B.
The question describes conflict that must be resolved. The best way to do so is for the project manager to
facilitate a resolution with team members involved. Remember that collaborating means problem-solving, and
problem-solving is the best way to resolve conflict.
Knowledge Area: Resource
Process Group: Executing
Source: PMP® Exam Prep
Page: 396

Explanation
X34
The correct answer is B.
The project manager is an integrator. This is a question about your role as an integrator and communicator.
Knowledge Area: Integration
Process Group: Executing
Source: PMP® Exam Prep
Page: 125

Explanation
X35
The correct answer is C.
Team members' reporting on what they are doing may best be done outside of meetings. The main purpose of
status meetings is to exchange project information.
Knowledge Area: Communications
Process Group: Executing
Source: PMP® Exam Prep
Page: 427

Explanation
X36
The correct answer is A.
A WBS does not show dates or responsibility assignments. The business need is described in the project
charter. In this situation, the project scope is being fine-tuned. It would save the project manager time in
effectively managing progressive elaboration if the WBS was used as a communications tool. Using the WBS
helps ensure everyone (including the customer) understands the scope of the work.
Knowledge Area: Scope
Process Group: Executing
Source: PMP® Exam Prep
Page: 202

Explanation
X37
The correct answer is A.
This question is asking which of the choices is the highest need based on Maslow's hierarchy. Self-actualization
is not listed, so the next best choice is esteem.
Knowledge Area: Resource
Process Group: Executing
Source: PMP® Exam Prep
Page: 385
Explanation
X38
The correct answer is C.
Meetings, by definition, are communications tools. There are other ways to determine status and make and
authorize changes. The project manager must use meetings to communicate effectively.
Knowledge Area: Communications
Process Group: Executing
Source: PMP® Exam Prep
Page: 427

Explanation
X39
The correct answer is C.
Those having the problem should resolve the problem. In this case, the two team members should work out the
problem. Because it is impacting the project, the project manager needs to participate in the resolution.
Knowledge Area: Resource
Process Group: Executing
Source: PMP® Exam Prep
Page: 367

Explanation
X40
The correct answer is B.
Lessons learned help to avoid future pitfalls and make use of the good ideas of past projects. This leads to
improvements in future projects. The organization benefits from creating a lessons learned repository.
Knowledge Area: PM Framework/Processes
Process Group: Closing
Source: PMP® Exam Prep
Page: 44

Explanation
X41
The correct answer is A.
The question is asking where this information can be found. The risk management plan identifies how risks will
be managed on the project.
Knowledge Area: Risk
Process Group: Planning
Source: PMP® Exam Prep
Page: 450

Explanation
X42
The correct answer is C.
Inspecting work packages is a monitoring and controlling function. Many people get tricked by the choice of
"obtaining formal acceptance of the project scope from the customer." This can occur throughout the project.
Closing involves formal acceptance of the product of the project. Project performance appraisals are done in
project executing. Only archiving project documents is done in project closing.
Knowledge Area: PM Framework/Processes
Process Group: Closing
Source: PMP® Exam Prep
Page: 110

Explanation
X43
The correct answer is A.
The project risk management plan is created in project planning.
Knowledge Area: Integration
Process Group: Closing
Source: PMP® Exam Prep
Page: 164

Explanation
X44
The correct answer is D.
The CPI is less than one, so the situation is bad. The project is only getting 89 cents out of every dollar invested.
Knowledge Area: Cost
Process Group: Monitoring & Controlling
Source: PMP® Exam Prep
Page: 294

Explanation
X45
The correct answer is D.
This question deals with managing stakeholder engagement. You need to clarify their expectations, which can
be done most effectively face-to-face, and then ensure their issues are addressed by tracking them with the
issue log to a successful conclusion. Meetings and issue logs are both used in the Manage Stakeholder
Engagement process.
Knowledge Area: Stakeholder
Process Group: Executing
Source: PMBOK® Guide
Page: 584

Explanation
X46
The correct answer is C.
Notice that this question uses the words "working to clearly describe" and "prevent." Taken together, they should
tell you the project is in project planning. This eliminates all choices except Develop Project Management Plan
and Plan Quality Management. Coordination and conflict prevention relate to Develop Project Management
Plan, and preventing rework is part of Plan Quality Management.
Knowledge Area: Integration
Process Group: Planning
Source: PMP® Exam Prep
Page: 143, 327

Explanation
X47
The correct answer is B.
The project scope statement and the WBS and WBS dictionary are created before the activities are identified. If
there is confusion or disagreement about what is included in a work package, the project manager should review
the scope baseline components with the team members to help facilitate understanding and evaluate whether
the work is in scope.
Knowledge Area: Schedule
Process Group: Planning
Source: PMP® Exam Prep
Page: 224

Explanation
X48
The correct answer is B.
Formal written communication allows your words to be documented, and they will go to everyone in the same
form. When there are complex problems, you want everyone to receive the same information.
Knowledge Area: Communications
Process Group: Planning
Source: PMP® Exam Prep
Page: 421

Explanation
X49
The correct answer is A.
In a procurement situation, generally only the procurement manager has the authority to approve changes to the
contract. Sometimes the project manager has certain expanded authority to sign in the event of an emergency.
However, an increase in cost is generally not considered an emergency. In this case, a procurement manager
must sign the change. Reporting the issue to the change control board will take too long, and may not be
necessary. An extension of time will not help in this situation. It is best to get the change signed by the
procurement manager.
Knowledge Area: Procurement
Process Group: Monitoring & Controlling
Source: PMP® Exam Prep
Page: 549

Explanation
X50
The correct answer is B.
Design of experiments is an example of a data analysis technique to determine the combination of variables that
most improves quality.
Knowledge Area: Quality
Process Group: Executing
Source: PMP® Exam Prep
Page: 333

Explanation
X51
The correct answer is B.
Quality audits are a necessary part of the Manage Quality process. They help you assess whether the
processes are being followed correctly on the project.
Knowledge Area: Quality
Process Group: Executing
Source: PMP® Exam Prep
Page: 334

Explanation
X52
The correct answer is B.
With normal distribution, the mean indicates you have a 50 percent chance of being over or under your estimate.
Since you have only a 15 percent chance of being over, you are above (or to the right of) the mean.
Knowledge Area: Cost
Process Group: Planning
Source: PMP® Exam Prep
Page: 339

Explanation
X53
The correct answer is B.
Team performance assessments and project performance appraisals would be done before giving rewards. Be
careful if you chose team building. This situation does not involve the team, and the manager is not encouraging
the team member to work better with the team.
Knowledge Area: Resource
Process Group: Executing
Source: PMP® Exam Prep
Page: 394

Explanation
X54
The correct answer is C.
This information is found in the communications management plan.
Knowledge Area: Communications
Process Group: Planning
Source: PMP® Exam Prep
Page: 425

Explanation
X55
The correct answer is D.
A watch list is made up of low-priority risks that, in the Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis process, were
determined to be of too low priority or low impact to move further in the risk management process.
Knowledge Area: Risk
Process Group: Planning
Source: PMP® Exam Prep
Page: 458

Explanation
X56
The correct answer is D.
To answer this question, you must look for a choice that would take longer and cost more. Notice one of the
choices says scope was changed, but that does not necessarily mean it was added to. If the change was to
reduce the scope, it might also have reduced cost. Although it would take time to handle the issue of the need to
find a new supplier, the impacted activity might not be on the critical path and might not affect the schedule.
Purchasing additional equipment definitely adds cost, but not necessarily time. A critical path activity taking
longer and requiring more labor hours to complete would negatively affect both schedule and cost.
Knowledge Area: Cost
Process Group: Monitoring & Controlling
Source: PMP® Exam Prep
Page: 294

Explanation
X57
The correct answer is C.
Be careful when reading a question like this. It can divert your attention with talk about a quality project, etc.
Focus on the question. You need a project scope statement first, before you can create the other parts of the
project management plan listed as choices.
Knowledge Area: Integration
Process Group: Planning
Source: PMP® Exam Prep
Page: 126
Explanation
X58
The correct answer is C.
Plans and reports are part of historical records, but not lessons learned. You can learn from both mistakes and
successes. If you understand the variances and their causes, you can try to avoid them in the future. Lessons
learned are documented throughout the project, and consolidated in the organization’s lessons learned
repository after the project is completed.
Knowledge Area: PM Framework/Processes
Process Group: Closing
Source: PMP® Exam Prep
Page: 44

Explanation
X59
The correct answer is B.
Focus groups are a tool of the Collect Requirements process, and would not be useful in Control Quality. The
other choices are all tools and techniques of the Control Quality process.
Knowledge Area: Quality
Process Group: Monitoring & Controlling
Source: PMBOK® Guide
Page: 298

Explanation
X60
The correct answer is B.
Transference is a risk response strategy. Risk response strategies are determined in the Plan Risk Responses
process.
Knowledge Area: Risk
Process Group: Planning
Source: PMP® Exam Prep
Page: 466

Explanation
X61
The correct answer is C.
In a strong matrix, the project manager has the power. There is no such thing as a functional matrix, and tight
matrix means colocation. In a weak matrix, as described in the question, the functional manager has the power.
Knowledge Area: PM Framework/Processes
Process Group: Initiating
Source: PMP® Exam Prep
Page: 33

Explanation
X62
The correct answer is A.
Many quality tools can be used in multiple quality management processes and for multiple purposes. In the Plan
Quality Management process, you are defining quality for the project and determining how quality will be
measured. Matrix diagrams are used to compare variables and identify key metrics. Benchmarking looks at past
projects to set guidelines from which to measure quality performance. Mind mapping is used in Plan Quality to
help organize related information. Quality audits analyze how well the project is following policies and
procedures, and is the only choice offered that is not used in planning.
Knowledge Area: Quality
Process Group: Planning
Source: PMP® Exam Prep
Page: 329

Explanation
X63
The correct answer is D.
Specifications should come from a technical expert. The only choice listed that meets that description is
engineering. Not every question on the exam will require that a project manager do the work.
Knowledge Area: Quality
Process Group: Executing
Source: PMP® Exam Prep
Page: 335

Explanation
X64
The correct answer is B.
The important words here are "subdividing project work packages." This indicates a WBS has already been
created, and it is being further broken down into activities. If the question said the team was subdividing "project
deliverables," the answer would have been creating a WBS. Remember, that decomposition is a tool for both
creating the WBS and defining activities.
Knowledge Area: Schedule
Process Group: Planning
Source: PMP® Exam Prep
Page: 224

Explanation
X65
The correct answer is C.
Conflict on projects is caused by schedules, project priorities, resources, and technical opinions—in that order.
Personality is the least common source of conflict.
Knowledge Area: Resource
Process Group: Executing
Source: PMP® Exam Prep
Page: 396

Explanation
X66
The correct answer is C.
Cause-and-effect (or why-why) diagrams are often used to stimulate thinking and to explore a desired future
outcome. Determining whether a process is out of control is a function of control charts. Only focusing on critical
issues to improve quality relates to histograms.
Knowledge Area: Quality
Process Group: Monitoring & Controlling
Source: PMP® Exam Prep
Page: 342

Explanation
X67
The correct answer is C.
Did you get tricked into looking at the length of each activity to calculate project length? The start is the
beginning of July and the end is the end of the year, making the maximum duration six months.
Knowledge Area: Schedule
Process Group: Planning
Source: PMP® Exam Prep
Page: 243

Explanation
X68
The correct answer is C.
This situation likely warrants corrective action. It is occurring in Control Quality, not Manage Quality. The
question specifically describes control limits, which are established as the acceptable range by the team.
Specification limits are the customer’s limits of acceptable quality measurements, and are typically outside of the
control limits. Control charting is a made-up term to describe the action of plotting data on a control chart.
Knowledge Area: Quality
Process Group: Monitoring & Controlling
Source: PMP® Exam Prep
Page: 339

Explanation
X69
The correct answer is A.
A cost baseline is an output of the Determine Budget process.
Knowledge Area: Cost
Process Group: Planning
Source: PMP® Exam Prep
Page: 290

Explanation
X70
The correct answer is C.
One way to decide if a change should be approved is to determine whether the work falls within the project
charter. If not, it should be rejected, assigned to a more appropriate project, or addressed as a project of its own.
Knowledge Area: Integration
Process Group: Monitoring & Controlling
Source: PMP® Exam Prep
Page: 162

Explanation
X71
The correct answer is B.
Many project managers spend all their time while the work is being done issuing and using status reports. Great
project managers know that these reports are necessary but are not a replacement for properly managing a
project. By interacting with the team, watching what is going on, and listening to the team members, you will find
out sooner than later what the "real" status of the project is. Reports are normally a week or two behind the
actual work, causing a delay in reacting to problems. That is the biggest disadvantage of progress reports as
opposed to watching what is going on, asking questions, and assisting team members.
Knowledge Area: Communications
Process Group: Executing
Source: PMP® Exam Prep
Page: 428

Explanation
X72
The correct answer is B.
Before you can do anything else, you have to know what you are going to do. Developing the management
strategy will provide the framework for all the rest of the choices presented and the other activities that need to
be done.
Knowledge Area: Integration
Process Group: Executing
Source: PMP® Exam Prep
Page: 143
Explanation
X73
The correct answer is A.
Generally, a contractor can work for whomever they choose. However, it would not be ethical for them to divulge
confidential information about the competitor or your company. Limiting her access to data is likely not practical.
Having the contractor sign a nondisclosure agreement is the best choice.
Knowledge Area: Resource
Process Group: Executing
Source: PMP® Exam Prep
Page: 601

Explanation
X74
The correct answer is B.
Getting acceptance of the project management plan would have meant acceptance of project planning
assumptions and project planning decisions regarding alternatives chosen, communication among stakeholders,
key management reviews, and the baseline for progress measurement and project control.
Knowledge Area: Integration
Process Group: Executing
Source: PMP® Exam Prep
Page: 149

Explanation
X75
The correct answer is A.
Courtesy and consideration is not a "rule" for effective meetings. Since there is no indication that the meeting
was not scheduled in advance or that there isn't a purpose, these cannot be the best answers. "Discussed at
random" implies no agenda. If an agenda is issued beforehand, people will follow the outline and should not
need random discussions.
Knowledge Area: Communications
Process Group: Executing
Source: PMP® Exam Prep
Page: 427

Explanation
X76
The correct answer is B.
This formula compares benefits to costs, not just profit. Payback is equated to benefits here.
Knowledge Area: Integration
Process Group: Initiating
Source: PMP® Exam Prep
Page: 130

Explanation
X77
The correct answer is A.
The Pareto diagram is a histogram that is based on the 80/20 principle. It displays causes of problems and the
frequency of occurrence. If you were to fix 20 percent of the root causes of problems, you would eliminate 80
percent of all the problems encountered.
Knowledge Area: Quality
Process Group: Monitoring & Controlling
Source: PMP® Exam Prep
Page: 343

Explanation
X78
The correct answer is C.
By definition, risk is the uncertainty of some aspect of the project.
Knowledge Area: Risk
Process Group: Planning
Source: PMP® Exam Prep
Page: 442

Explanation
X79
The correct answer is D.
Configuration management involves making sure that everyone is working off the same documents.
Knowledge Area: Integration
Process Group: Executing
Source: PMP® Exam Prep
Page: 146

Explanation
X80
The correct answer is A.
The first issue here is whether the team member has done something that will have a negative impact on the
project as a whole. The second issue is whether the communications management plan and WBS are
appropriate. Therefore, the first thing to do is to review the work packages and deliverables to determine impacts
of the work not done. This action could be followed by any or all of the other choices.
Knowledge Area: Integration
Process Group: Monitoring & Controlling
Source: PMP® Exam Prep
Page: 162

Explanation
X81
The correct answer is D.
The Manage Communications process in executing includes performance reporting, such as variance reports,
and trend reports. In the Close Project or Phase process, a final report documents the success of the project.
Knowledge Area: Communications
Process Group: Executing
Source: PMP® Exam Prep
Page: 428, 111

Explanation
X82
The correct answer is C.
The Perform Quantitative Risk Analysis process numerically analyzes the overall risk exposure and the
probability of achieving project objectives. Risks are then reduced, if possible, in the Plan Risk Responses
process.
Knowledge Area: Risk
Process Group: Planning
Source: PMP® Exam Prep
Page: 464

Explanation
X83
The correct answer is D.
You and the team need to work through the project planning processes and determine the impact of the cost and
schedule requirements on the project. You cannot accept the requirements without proper evaluation.
Knowledge Area: PM Framework/Processes
Process Group: Initiating
Source: PMP® Exam Prep
Page: 90

Explanation
X84
The correct answer is B.
This type of issue must be settled early in the project because the content and extent of the entire project
management plan depends on the deliverables and objectives. The best way to resolve the issue is by
performing a feasibility analysis, which is a problem-solving method. The other choices are really smoothing or
forcing.
Knowledge Area: PM Framework/Processes
Process Group: Initiating
Source: PMP® Exam Prep
Page: 66

Explanation
X85
The correct answer is D.
Since team members should create the activity cost estimates whenever possible, having management or the
project manager create the estimates cannot be correct. Basing activity estimates on the control limits makes no
sense. A key way to improve activity cost estimates is to use historical data.
Knowledge Area: Cost
Process Group: Planning
Source: PMP® Exam Prep
Page: 285

Explanation
X86
The correct answer is C.
Smoothing does not solve the problem. Compromising is lose-lose, but it is not the worst choice. Withdrawal is a
good thing to do when people need time to contemplate or calm down. Forcing demands that others do what
one person thinks should be done, which breeds animosity.
Knowledge Area: Resource
Process Group: Executing
Source: PMP® Exam Prep
Page: 396

Explanation
X87
The correct answer is A.
Understanding the culture, policies, and procedures of the organization in which the project is being performed is
especially challenging in global organizations. The culture, policies, and procedures of the performing office may
be different from those of the office from which the project is managed, and may also vary between international
offices of the same organization. This will influence how the project is managed.
Knowledge Area: PM Framework/Processes
Process Group: Initiating
Source: PMP® Exam Prep
Page: 31

Explanation
X88
The correct answer is C.
The first action is to evaluate the impact of a change. An evaluation encompassing the impact of the change on
the project schedule, cost, quality, risk, resources, and customer satisfaction is required.
Knowledge Area: Integration
Process Group: Monitoring & Controlling
Source: PMP® Exam Prep
Page: 162
Explanation
X89
The correct answer is C.
The project charter is created in initiating. The project management plan and risk management plan are outputs
of project planning. Project records, including the charter and all management plans, are archived in the Close
Project or Phase process.
Knowledge Area: Integration
Process Group: Closing
Source: PMP® Exam Prep
Page: 164

Explanation
X90
The correct answer is C.
You must report the activities.
Knowledge Area: Resource
Process Group: Executing
Source: PMP® Exam Prep
Page: 601

Explanation
X91
The correct answer is C.
Although some of the other choices might result in a fine, bribes can result in jail time.
Knowledge Area: Integration
Process Group: Executing
Source: PMP® Exam Prep
Page: 603

Explanation
X92
The correct answer is B.
Quality is defined as conformance to requirements and specifications. We do not achieve quality if we exceed
expectations, get a verbal OK, or stop adding features requested by the customer. The best answer here is
when the requirements have been met.
Knowledge Area: Quality
Process Group: Monitoring & Controlling
Source: PMP® Exam Prep
Page: 322

Explanation
X93
The correct answer is C.
It is not common for alternatives to be discussed at the bidder conference. They may be included in bids or
proposals and discussed later.
Knowledge Area: Procurement
Process Group: Executing
Source: PMP® Exam Prep
Page: 536

Explanation
X94
The correct answer is C.
Reviewing what is said and not said in the project charter will help determine risks. Notice that some of the other
choices are correct statements but do not answer the question.
Knowledge Area: Risk
Process Group: Planning
Source: PMP® Exam Prep
Page: 445

Explanation
X95
The correct answer is D.
Whenever you are uncertain of whether a payment is a bribe, you should discuss the situation with legal
counsel.
Knowledge Area: Cost
Process Group: Executing
Source: PMP® Exam Prep
Page: 603

Explanation
X96
The correct answer is B.
The scope management plan may be developed in stages, or iterated, throughout project planning.
Knowledge Area: Scope
Process Group: Planning
Source: PMP® Exam Prep
Page: 185

Explanation
X97
The correct answer is C.
Although it is correct that effective scope definition can lead to a more complete project scope statement, this
cannot be the answer, because it does not deal with control. Scope planning occurs before the Control Scope
process, not after it. Controlling the schedule is not the best way to control scope, so that is not the best answer.
The control processes do not act in isolation. A change to one will most likely affect the others. Therefore, the
need to integrate the Control Scope process with other control processes is the best answer.
Knowledge Area: Scope
Process Group: Monitoring & Controlling
Source: PMP® Exam Prep
Page: 209

Explanation
X98
The correct answer is C.
All change requests are accepted or rejected in the integrated change control process. Requested changes are
outputs of Manage Stakeholder Engagement and Control Stakeholder Engagement.
Knowledge Area: Stakeholder
Process Group: Executing
Source: PMP® Exam Prep
Page: 585

Explanation
X99
The correct answer is B.
During monitoring and controlling, project performance is measured and needed changes are identified and
approved.
Knowledge Area: PM Framework/Processes
Process Group: Monitoring & Controlling
Source: PMP® Exam Prep
Page: 100

Explanation
X100
The correct answer is D.
Having a purpose for the meeting, distributing a meeting agenda (and sticking to it!), and distributing minutes
after the meeting are all important aspects of an effective meeting. Some people may not like an energizer
before the meeting, and that is not a "rule" of good meetings.
Knowledge Area: Communications
Process Group: Executing
Source: PMP® Exam Prep
Page: 427

Explanation
X101
The correct answer is C.
Because net present value is the value in today's dollars of different cash flows, the project with the highest NPV
is the best one. The number of years is included in the NPV calculation.
Knowledge Area: Integration
Process Group: Initiating
Source: PMP® Exam Prep
Page: 129

Explanation
X102
The correct answer is B.
If earned value is lower than actual cost, it indicates work is costing more than planned, resulting in cost
overage. Did it confuse you that the testing cost was significantly less than expected but the actual cost was
over the EV? This indicates that other work performed to date has cost more than the amount saved on the
testing.
Knowledge Area: Cost
Process Group: Monitoring & Controlling
Source: PMP® Exam Prep
Page: 294

Explanation
X103
The correct answer is C.
Crashing the schedule gets the maximum duration compression for the least cost.
Knowledge Area: Schedule
Process Group: Monitoring & Controlling
Source: PMP® Exam Prep
Page: 253

Explanation
X104
The correct answer is B.
Manage Quality is the correct choice, as it is concerned with the use of proper processes.
Knowledge Area: Quality
Process Group: Executing
Source: PMP® Exam Prep
Page: 332
Explanation
X105
The correct answer is B.
Facilitation, alternatives analysis, and product analysis are tools and techniques of Define Scope. Inspection is
done during project monitoring and controlling, in the Validate Scope process, and is therefore the exception.
Knowledge Area: Scope
Process Group: Planning
Source: PMBOK® Guide
Page: 150

Explanation
X106
The correct answer is A.
A heuristic is a generally accepted rule. Examples are cost per line of code and cost per square foot of floor
space.
Knowledge Area: Schedule
Process Group: Planning
Source: PMP® Exam Prep
Page: 232

Explanation
X107
The correct answer is D.
Cutting scope decreases profits on this type of contract, so that would not be a way for the seller to generate
extra profits. CPFF contracts generally do not limit fee increases. The fee in a CPFF contract is usually paid out
on a continuous basis during the life of the project. One of the ways to change the profit in a cost plus fixed fee
contract is to invoice for items not chargeable to the project. This would not be ethical by the seller but does not
mean that a seller may not try it. Therefore, all invoiced costs should be audited.
Knowledge Area: Procurement
Process Group: Monitoring & Controlling
Source: PMP® Exam Prep
Page: 546

Explanation
X108
The correct answer is C.
You do not necessarily take written notes or express empathy, although the latter might be useful. You do not
mirror the speaker's nonverbal cues, nor do you point them out. The best description of effective listening is
attending to the speaker without distractions, confirming what the speaker says, and taking note of body
language.
Knowledge Area: Communications
Process Group: Executing
Source: PMP® Exam Prep
Page: 422

Explanation
X109
The correct answer is B.
Funding limit reconciliation most likely will affect the project schedule, since work will need to be moved to when
funds will be available.
Knowledge Area: Cost
Process Group: Monitoring & Controlling
Source: PMP® Exam Prep
Page: 290

Explanation
X110
The correct answer is C.
It is the sponsor's role to prevent unnecessary changes and to set priorities among projects. The situation
described in this question implies that such work is not being done and the project manager must therefore go to
the root of the problem: the sponsor.
Knowledge Area: Resource
Process Group: Executing
Source: PMP® Exam Prep
Page: 367

Explanation
X111
The correct answer is B.
You may or may not need your customer's or your sponsor's input, but you will definitely need to include an
analysis of risk.
Knowledge Area: Schedule
Process Group: Planning
Source: PMP® Exam Prep
Page: 252

Explanation
X112
The correct answer is B.
Because the CEO is the project sponsor, analyzing the need for the project or getting stakeholder buy-in would
not be good first choices. Ranking possible projects is often done as part of the project selection process, but
this is not the project manager's responsibility. The project manager should first create a project charter. Work to
achieve stakeholder buy-in might be done after the charter is approved.
Knowledge Area: Integration
Process Group: Initiating
Source: PMP® Exam Prep
Page: 133

Explanation
X113
The correct answer is C.
A feasibility study addresses whether the project should be done. Its purpose is not to determine team members.
Knowledge Area: PM Framework/Processes
Process Group: Initiating
Source: PMBOK® Guide
Page: 30

Explanation
X114
The correct answer is D.
First, you need to determine which part of the question requires preventive action. The information about the
sellers completed statements of work, and the impressive performance of sellers who have already performed
on their contracts describe situations that are progressing well, and do not appear to require preventive action.
The part of the project that requires action by the project manage is the team member not completing their
assignments on time. Removing the team member is too drastic. Only meeting with the team member gets to the
root cause of the problem.
Knowledge Area: Resource
Process Group: Executing
Source: PMP® Exam Prep
Page: 396

Explanation
X115
The correct answer is B.
The rough order of magnitude estimate has a range of -25/+75 percent of actual and is done during the initiating
process group.
Knowledge Area: Cost
Process Group: Planning
Source: PMP® Exam Prep
Page: 289

Explanation
X116
The correct answer is A.
Replanning is uncalled for by the situation described. Reaching the planned completion date does not mean the
project is necessarily finished. A project is complete when all work, including all project management work, is
complete and the product of the project and all project deliverables are accepted. The lessons learned are
project management deliverables and must be completed for the project to be complete.
Knowledge Area: Integration
Process Group: Closing
Source: PMP® Exam Prep
Page: 164

Explanation
X117
The correct answer is C.
Asking the customer to try to get approvals in on time is smoothing. Meeting with the customer to determine a
new due date is problem-solving. Demanding the approvals today is forcing. Postponing a decision reflects the
conflict resolution technique of withdrawal.
Knowledge Area: Resource
Process Group: Executing
Source: PMP® Exam Prep
Page: 396

Explanation
X118
The correct answer is D.
Not having a project charter wastes company time, human resources, and money because there is not a high-
level agreement on the goals and expectations and how the project will fulfill the business case.
Knowledge Area: Integration
Process Group: Initiating
Source: PMP® Exam Prep
Page: 138

Explanation
X119
The correct answer is A.
Fixed costs and sunk costs do not relate to giving up anything. Net present value is a way to determine today's
value of a future cash flow and does not deal with the quoted phrase. The definition of opportunity cost includes
the cost of choosing one project and giving up another, and is the best answer.
Knowledge Area: Integration
Process Group: Initiating
Source: PMP® Exam Prep
Page: 131

Explanation
X120
The correct answer is D.
A cost-benefit analysis might have been completed during project planning, but it may not have related to the
proposed change. A project sponsor is not generally involved in changes within the project. Compiling the
information necessary for a cost-benefit analysis is a form of estimating, and it is best if the person doing the
work creates the estimates. Therefore, the team member should do what was asked, to enable the project
manager to make an informed decision.
Knowledge Area: Integration
Process Group: Monitoring & Controlling
Source: PMP® Exam Prep
Page: 161

Explanation
X121
The correct answer is B.
The first thing that should come to mind is whether this is an ethical situation and whether it violates any
company rules or laws. If it does not violate any of these, it would be best to check the company's qualifications
for completing this work.
Knowledge Area: Procurement
Process Group: Executing
Source: PMP® Exam Prep
Page: 537

Explanation
X122
The correct answer is A.
You should confront the situation by discussing it with the other project manager. You can then find out if the
other project is really on schedule and thereby confirm or deny your information. Meeting with the program
manager or with your manager would be the next step if meeting with the other project manager does not
satisfactorily resolve the issue. You might also develop a risk response plan to deal with the risk to your project.
First, though, you need to meet with the other project manager regarding those late deliverables.
Knowledge Area: Resource
Process Group: Executing
Source: PMP® Exam Prep
Page: 396

Explanation
X123
The correct answer is C.
In a cost-reimbursable contract, the buyer pays all costs. If there is a fixed fee added to the contract, the buyer
pays the actual costs and the fixed fee, $10,000 in this example.
Knowledge Area: Procurement
Process Group: Planning
Source: PMP® Exam Prep
Page: 514

Explanation
X124
The correct answer is C.
The value of work completed relates to the cost performance index. A measure of progress achieved relates to
the schedule performance index. AC + (BAC - EV) is a formula for EAC. (BAC - EV)/(BAC - AC) is the formula
for TCPI and is therefore the correct response. This formula divides the work remaining to be done by the money
remaining to do it.
Knowledge Area: Cost
Process Group: Monitoring & Controlling
Source: PMP® Exam Prep
Page: 295

Explanation
X125
The correct answer is A.
Quality measurements are not an input to the Create WBS process.
Knowledge Area: Scope
Process Group: Planning
Source: PMBOK® Guide
Page: 156

Explanation
X126
The correct answer is C.
Did you notice that there is more than one "correct" answer? What makes evaluating the risk better than the
other choices is that it deals with the immediate problem at hand. Before trying to further decrease the time, it
would be best to know how much time you need to decrease. Performing risk analysis will tell you time impact
and thus allow you to determine the impact of the resource change on activity D.
Knowledge Area: Schedule
Process Group: Monitoring & Controlling
Source: PMP® Exam Prep
Page: 264
Explanation
X127
The correct answer is A.
Ask yourself which choice helps evaluate cost performance. The project budget deals with cost, but not
performance, as there is nothing to compare against the budget listed here. There is no comparison to a
previous budget or a comparison of actual to budget. The only choice that addresses cost and performance is
the CPI (cost performance index).
Knowledge Area: Cost
Process Group: Monitoring & Controlling
Source: PMP® Exam Prep
Page: 294

Explanation
X128
The correct answer is D.
A responsibility assignment matrix is a correlation between activities and resource responsibilities. The matrix
shows all the activities and resource responsibilities for a project.
Knowledge Area: Resource
Process Group: Planning
Source: PMP® Exam Prep
Page: 372
Explanation
X129
The correct answer is C.
Did you notice that the first two sentences are extraneous? The trick here is to determine what the question is
asking and ignore the extraneous data. An "end-of-phase review meeting" is the same as an administrative
closure meeting when a phase of the project is closed out. Cancelling the project has the most impact on the
project team and project direction and therefore, would be the most difficult.
Knowledge Area: Integration
Process Group: Closing
Source: PMP® Exam Prep
Page: 164

Explanation
X130
The correct answer is C.
Ensuring continuing understanding of the work, removing roadblocks, and reviewing bids in order to select
sellers all occur in project executing. Ensuring the product scope is as final as possible is done in project
initiating.
Knowledge Area: PM Framework/Processes
Process Group: Initiating
Source: PMP® Exam Prep
Page: 87

Explanation
X131
The correct answer is D.
The only choice that consistently matches activities to the correct process group is bidder conferences, selected
sellers, and project executing. Can you identify the errors in the other choices?
Knowledge Area: Procurement
Process Group: Executing
Source: PMBOK® Guide
Page: 542

Explanation
X132
The correct answer is A.
Manufacturing a product is an ongoing process; it is operational work, not project work. Therefore, the
manufacturing team would have no reason to create a project charter and would have difficulty doing so if they
tried, because of the ongoing nature of the work. If the question referred to a team developing a new product,
however, that would qualify as a project.
Knowledge Area: PM Framework/Processes
Process Group: Initiating
Source: PMP® Exam Prep
Page: 25

Explanation
X133
The correct answer is B.
Without adequate documentation, it is impossible to know what was agreed upon and the status of the project.
Knowledge Area: Integration
Process Group: Monitoring & Controlling
Source: PMP® Exam Prep
Page: 143

Explanation
X134
The correct answer is D.
Cutting resources from an activity would not save time, nor would moving resources from the preferential
dependencies to the external dependencies. Removing an activity from the project is a possibility, but because
the dependencies are preferential and the risk is low, the best choice is to make more activities concurrent, as
this would have less impact on the project.
Knowledge Area: Schedule
Process Group: Monitoring & Controlling
Source: PMP® Exam Prep
Page: 252

Explanation
X135
The correct answer is A.
Don't be confused by the early discussion of schedule compression. The question is asking whether adding
resources provides a constant increase in work effort. The law of diminishing returns says that for each
additional resource, you will not realize the same increase in benefit that you realized from the previous
resource.
Knowledge Area: Schedule
Process Group: Monitoring & Controlling
Source: PMP® Exam Prep
Page: 132

Explanation
X136
The correct answer is C.
The project manager should not necessarily prevent all scope or cost changes, and the sponsor is not involved
in all changes. Changes found early will have less of an impact on the project. Thus, it is best to discover
needed changes as early as possible.
Knowledge Area: Integration
Process Group: Monitoring & Controlling
Source: PMP® Exam Prep
Page: 162
Explanation
X137
The correct answer is B.
A flowchart does not show order of importance. A fishbone diagram identifies possible causes of problems. A
control chart displays process results over time. A Pareto diagram is a histogram that presents information in its
order of priority and helps focus on the most difficult issues.
Knowledge Area: Quality
Process Group: Monitoring & Controlling
Source: PMP® Exam Prep
Page: 343

Explanation
X138
The correct answer is A.
Reporting the issue to the HR department is inappropriate, since it is the functional manager's responsibility to
deal with it. Reassigning project work is not problem-solving, it is more like avoidance or withdrawal. Having the
discussion at a team meeting is a form of penalty. The question is saying that you as the project manager have
done everything in your power already. There is even a reward system in place. Therefore, it is time to ask for
help from management. Functional management is responsible for addressing individual performance problems.
Knowledge Area: Resource
Process Group: Executing
Source: PMP® Exam Prep
Page: 398

Explanation
X139
The correct answer is A.
Because of the size and varying locations of the team members, in-person meetings are impractical. Limiting
communication to only a few team members will not be effective, and will likely create dissatisfaction among
team members who are not designated to represent their groups. A resource breakdown structure is needed to
clearly show responsibilities, but will not be useful in the team development the project manager is trying to
achieve. A team charter is a working agreement developed by the members of the project team. It describes the
approach the team will take regarding communications, decision-making, and conflict resolution, as well as
ground rules for team meetings. Since the team is involved in creating the charter, they are likely to adhere to it,
and can refer to it if any team members are not following the agreed-upon guidelines.
Knowledge Area: Resource
Process Group: Planning
Source: PMP® Exam Prep
Page: 375

Explanation
X140
The correct answer is C.
Authorizes means officially starts a project. That occurs in project initiating.
Knowledge Area: PM Framework/Processes
Process Group: Initiating
Source: PMP® Exam Prep
Page: 85

Explanation
X141
The correct answer is A.
The larger the BCR, SPI, and CPI the better. A project with high priority normally holds more senior
management commitment.
Knowledge Area: Integration
Process Group: Executing
Source: PMP® Exam Prep
Page: 130

Explanation
X142
The correct answer is C.
This question is designed to determine whether you understand that estimates should be in a range and what
the standard ranges are. The range of a definitive estimate can be +/-10 percent or -5/+10 percent.
Knowledge Area: Cost
Process Group: Planning
Source: PMP® Exam Prep
Page: 289

Explanation
X143
The correct answer is A.
Know your conflict resolution techniques. This is an example of problem-solving. Problem-solving and
compromising are considered the two best conflict techniques.
Knowledge Area: Resource
Process Group: Executing
Source: PMP® Exam Prep
Page: 396
Explanation
X144
The correct answer is A.
Remember that questions are written from the perspective of a buyer (unless stated otherwise). Think from a
buyer’s perspective. A seller might terminate for nonpayment. The other choices are all types of default, which is
grounds for the buyer to terminate a contract.
Knowledge Area: Procurement
Process Group: Closing
Source: PMP® Exam Prep
Page: 550

Explanation
X145
The correct answer is A.
Based on the situation described, the impact on the project is unknown. Having the seller change their project
management plan, by stopping some or all of their work, will have a definite impact on the project. The most
proactive choice is for the project manager to take action at the same time the specifications are being
investigated.
Knowledge Area: Procurement
Process Group: Monitoring & Controlling
Source: PMP® Exam Prep
Page: 546

Explanation
X146
The correct answer is D.
Time estimates for the activities should be created by the team and should not be added together to create the
project estimate. Some activities may take place concurrently; these would be identified in the network diagram.
Knowledge Area: Schedule
Process Group: Planning
Source: PMP® Exam Prep
Page: 227

Explanation
X147
The correct answer is B.
In a weak matrix organization, the power resides with the functional manager. When the organization goes to a
strong matrix organization, the power shifts to the project manager.
Knowledge Area: PM Framework/Processes
Process Group: Initiating
Source: PMP® Exam Prep
Page: 31

Explanation
X148
The correct answer is C.
Administrative closure is performed at the end of each phase of the project. Outputs are consistent regardless of
the phase.
Knowledge Area: Integration
Process Group: Closing
Source: PMP® Exam Prep
Page: 164

Explanation
X149
The correct answer is A.
Selected sellers, agreements, and project management plan updates are outputs, not tools and techniques of
the Conduct Procurements process. Procurement documents, selection criteria, and make-or-buy decisions are
outputs of the Plan Procurement Management process. A contract change control system, inspections, and a
records management system are tools of the Control Procurements process. A weighting system, a method to
rate and score proposals, and expert judgment are all tools of the Conduct Procurements process.
Knowledge Area: Procurement
Process Group: Executing
Source: PMBOK® Guide
Page: 482

Explanation
X150
The correct answer is A.
Organizational project management (OPM) provides a framework and direction for how projects, programs,
portfolios, and organizational work should be done to meet the organization’s strategic goals.
Knowledge Area: PM Framework/Processes
Process Group: Initiating
Source: PMP® Exam Prep
Page: 27

Explanation
X151
The correct answer is B.
Expectations are not as direct or straightforward as requirements. Nonetheless, they are important to recognize
and address to ensure stakeholder satisfaction with the project. Therefore, the project manager must do
additional work to uncover the expectations of stakeholders.
Knowledge Area: Stakeholder
Process Group: Initiating
Source: PMP® Exam Prep
Page: 574

Explanation
X152
The correct answer is B.
The formula is [n x (n - 1)]/2. Therefore (9 x 8)/2 = 36. This question is really asking, “How many total
communication channels are there?” Remember that when in monitoring and controlling, a change to any aspect
of the project may other parts of the project. In this situation, we would need to recalculate the communications
channels and consider changes to the communications management plan.
Knowledge Area: Communications
Process Group: Monitoring & Controlling
Source: PMP® Exam Prep
Page: 425

Explanation
X153
The correct answer is C.
Fast tracking does not result in decreases in project resources, project costs, or the level of management
oversight required. Fast tracking means making more activities happen at the same time. The result is a
decrease in project duration.
Knowledge Area: Schedule
Process Group: Monitoring & Controlling
Source: PMP® Exam Prep
Page: 252
Explanation
X154
The correct answer is C.
Team members are harder to motivate if their loyalty is to their functional organization rather than to the project
team.
Knowledge Area: Resource
Process Group: Executing
Source: PMP® Exam Prep
Page: 31

Explanation
X155
The correct answer is C.
First find EV = SV + PV = $550K. Calculate SPI = EV / PV = 550K/500K = 1.10. To find the CPI, you need to first
calculate AC. To calculate the AC correctly, you need to use a little algebra. Use the exercise in Rita’s Exam
Prep book to help you with this. Your SPI is 1.1, and your PV is $1,300,000. Therefore, you need to add AC to
both sides of the equation $10K + AC = $550K – AC + AC. On the right side of the equation, the –AC+AC cancel
each other out. Then you need to subtract CV on each side of the equation: $10K + AC – $10K = $550K - $10K.
On the left side of the equation, the $10K - $10K cancel each other out, leaving AC= $550K-$10K or AC =
$540K. After the conversion, you will determine that AC is $540K. You use AC = EV - CV = $540K. Now you can
compute CPI = EV/AC = $550K/$540K = 1.02. In the other choices, the calculations are wrong, but fit if you
make a computational mistake.
Knowledge Area: Cost
Process Group: Monitoring & Controlling
Source: PMP® Exam Prep
Page: 294

Explanation
X156
The correct answer is D.
In Plan Scope Management, the project manager and team consider ways to determine requirements, produce
the product of the project, and control the project. In the Define Scope process, alternatives analysis is used to
further define the decisions made in scope planning regarding how the project will meet requirements.
Knowledge Area: Scope
Process Group: Planning
Source: PMBOK® Guide
Page: 136, 153

Explanation
X157
The correct answer is D.
The project manager has more power in a strong matrix organization.
Knowledge Area: PM Framework/Processes
Process Group: Initiating
Source: PMP® Exam Prep
Page: 31
Explanation
X158
The correct answer is C.
EV is the value of the work completed. In this case, one side is done ($11 x 125 = $1,375), 75 feet of the second
side is done ($11 x 75 = $825) and the culvert is complete ($500) for a total of $2,700. Since the AC is $2,700,
CV = $0. You are budget neutral.
Knowledge Area: Cost
Process Group: Monitoring & Controlling
Source: PMP® Exam Prep
Page: 294

Explanation
X159
The correct answer is B.
Assuring management that it was determined in planning that the project would meet quality standards is not
productive, since it does not solve the problem. An analogous estimate looks at the past history of other projects.
This would not be appropriate to determine how the current project is going. The quality management plan does
not provide results. The quality team could help to determine whether the team is following the correct processes
to satisfy the relevant quality standards.
Knowledge Area: Quality
Process Group: Executing
Source: PMP® Exam Prep
Page: 332

Explanation
X160
The correct answer is D.
If the scope change request had been properly handled, the impact of the change would have been identified
and addressed immediately.
Knowledge Area: Scope
Process Group: Monitoring & Controlling
Source: PMP® Exam Prep
Page: 209

Explanation
X161
The correct answer is C.
The key aspect of the Validate Scope process is acceptance of the deliverable.
Knowledge Area: Scope
Process Group: Monitoring & Controlling
Source: PMP® Exam Prep
Page: 206

Explanation
X162
The correct answer is C.
As the project manager, it is your professional and social responsibility to ensure company policies are followed
throughout the project.
Knowledge Area: Resource
Process Group: Executing
Source: PMP® Exam Prep
Page: 601

Explanation
X163
The correct answer is B.
Did you notice there is a lot of data not relevant to answering the question? Expect distractors to appear in many
questions on the exam. Quality efforts should produce a decrease rather than an increase in cost risk as a result
of less rework. Quality efforts should also provide increased cost effectiveness due to less rework. This leaves
the best answer: “Improved quality leads to increased productivity, increased cost effectiveness, and decreased
cost risk.”
Knowledge Area: Quality
Process Group: Monitoring & Controlling
Source: PMP® Exam Prep
Page: 329

Explanation
X164
The correct answer is C.
The key words here are "potential problems." They are looking into the future and, therefore must be in Plan
Quality Management.
Knowledge Area: Quality
Process Group: Planning
Source: PMP® Exam Prep
Page: 328

Explanation
X165
The correct answer is D.
The question could be read as "What do you do first to deal with this situation?" You might do any of the other
choices when first assigned as project manager, but only creating a control chart deals with the problem
presented.
Knowledge Area: Quality
Process Group: Monitoring & Controlling
Source: PMP® Exam Prep
Page: 338

Explanation
X166
The correct answer is B.
Did this one trick you? Normally, one would report a copyright violation. Here there isn't a copyright violation,
however. The team member is offering, but they have not already done it. This is why the correct answer is to
refuse the offer and inform the team member that this would be a violation of copyright law. Don't worry, you will
get used to these tricky questions. Remember that the questions you will see on the actual exam may have
different words, but they will test the same concepts. Watch out for this type of tricky question where the
situation is changed just slightly from what one would expect, therefore changing the answer.
Knowledge Area: Risk
Process Group: Executing
Source: PMP® Exam Prep
Page: 601

Explanation
X167
The correct answer is A.
Corrective action is anything done to bring expected future performance in line with the project management
plan. Such action should always be an output of such a meeting, but the other choices may not be outputs.
Knowledge Area: Schedule
Process Group: Monitoring & Controlling
Source: PMP® Exam Prep
Page: 263

Explanation
X168
The correct answer is C.
Although the SV is $10 million, this does not indicate all the activities are proceeding on schedule. You need to
find out if the activities leading up to the critical deliverable are on schedule, in order to comfort your manager.
Remember that earned value management (EVM) is a way to discover trends or indications of the way the
project is going. You need to examine the details to be sure. You cannot determine schedule problems based on
the CPI. The SPI is 1.02, not 1.05, but this does not tell you all the activities are proceeding on schedule. To find
SV and SPI you must first find EV. EV = CPI x AC = 1.25 x $400M = $500M. Therefore, SV = EV - PV = $500M -
$490M = $10M and SPI = EV / PV = $500M / $490M = 1.020 (use 3-decimal place accuracy).
Knowledge Area: Cost
Process Group: Monitoring & Controlling
Source: PMP® Exam Prep
Page: 294

Explanation
X169
The correct answer is C.
The key word here is "overall." Control Quality is incorrect because they are not addressing the specific work
performance (i.e., the table is too short). The Manage Quality process is used to make sure standards and
processes are being followed.
Knowledge Area: Quality
Process Group: Executing
Source: PMP® Exam Prep
Page: 332

Explanation
X170
The correct answer is B.
Planning cannot continue if the team does not know enough about so many work packages. It would be
impractical to move on in the process. Including this problem as an identified risk is ineffective in addressing it. A
review of the project charter might help, but the detailed project scope would be included in the project scope
statement created during the Define Scope process.
Knowledge Area: Schedule
Process Group: Planning
Source: PMP® Exam Prep
Page: 224

Explanation
X171
The correct answer is D.
In a project-oriented organization, the entire company is organized by projects, giving the project manager the
most power.
Knowledge Area: PM Framework/Processes
Process Group: Initiating
Source: PMP® Exam Prep
Page: 31

Explanation
X172
The correct answer is B.
Cost increases and contract disputes for payments will not necessarily interfere with schedule. If a post-
implementation review meeting slips, it may not interfere with the project schedule. Delays in obtaining required
approvals is the only choice that always causes a time delay, and is therefore the most likely to threaten the
project schedule.
Knowledge Area: Risk
Process Group: Monitoring & Controlling
Source: PMP® Exam Prep
Page: 455

Explanation
X173
The correct answer is B.
Quality cannot be inspected in; you must plan for and execute a quality strategy. Increasing inspection is the
only answer that is not proactive.
Knowledge Area: Quality
Process Group: Planning
Source: PMP® Exam Prep
Page: 324

Explanation
X174
The correct answer is A.
The second team member sending an email is likely to offend the other team member and escalate the
argument, rather than convince the team member. The team member asking at the next team meeting for the
team member who misunderstands to present his interpretation singles him out as likely being wrong and will
increase his defensiveness, as well as potentially confuse the others. It is the responsibility of the project
manager to make sure that all team members understand the objectives and deliverables. The project manager
sending out an email that restates the information that the team member misunderstood is not likely to help
since the one-way communication will probably continue to be misunderstood, and, with one-way
communication, the project manager will receive no feedback or confirmation of understanding. The project
manager reviewing the project scope statement in a meeting treats all team members with respect and
preserves an individual's integrity while identifying gaps in the document. It not only helps to clarify the objectives
and deliverables for the confused team member, but allows the project manager to watch body language and to
hear from the other team members to make certain all team members understand, as well as identifying and
resolving any other issues.
Knowledge Area: Scope
Process Group: Executing
Source: PMP® Exam Prep
Page: 601

Explanation
X175
The correct answer is D.
The Implement Risk Responses occurs during project executing. It involves following plans to address risk
events as they occur during the project.
Knowledge Area: Risk
Process Group: Executing
Source: PMP® Exam Prep
Page: 475

Explanation
X176
The correct answer is D.
This question combines topics from various knowledge areas. Did you fall into the trap of calculating the float for
Z? The amount of float for one activity and the number of resources does not tell you anything in this case. The
CPI is greater than one and the SPI is less than one. Therefore, the thing to be most worried about is the
schedule.
Knowledge Area: Schedule
Process Group: Monitoring & Controlling
Source: PMP® Exam Prep
Page: 294

Explanation
X177
The correct answer is B.
It is best to deal with the problem directly, before using withdrawal, penalizing, or meeting with managers.
Knowledge Area: Resource
Process Group: Executing
Source: PMP® Exam Prep
Page: 396

Explanation
X178
The correct answer is B.
Reporting that the project is on schedule is unethical. It is best to report the true status of the project and your
plan of action to resolve the problem.
Knowledge Area: Communications
Process Group: Executing
Source: PMP® Exam Prep
Page: 604

Explanation
X179
The correct answer is D.
Activities A and C are the least expensive. It would cost an additional $6,000 to crash them.
Knowledge Area: Schedule
Process Group: Monitoring & Controlling
Source: PMP® Exam Prep
Page: 253

Explanation
X180
The correct answer is B.
Answering sellers' questions, advertising, and proposal evaluation occur during the Conduct Procurements
process. Make-or-buy decisions are made earlier—in the Plan Procurement Management process.
Knowledge Area: Procurement
Process Group: Planning
Source: PMP® Exam Prep
Page: 509
Explanation
X181
The correct answer is D.
To solve, where D = number of days: 240D = 6,800 + 70D. 170D = 6,800. D = 40. See the discussion in the
book PMP® Exam Prep.
Knowledge Area: Procurement
Process Group: Monitoring & Controlling
Source: PMP® Exam Prep
Page: 508

Explanation
X182
The correct answer is A.
Change requests are an output of Plan Risk Responses, Implement Risk Responses, and Monitor Risks.
Knowledge Area: Risk
Process Group: Executing
Source: PMBOK® Guide
Page: 396

Explanation
X183
The correct answer is C.
Communication blockers can range from a lack of cultural sensitivity to a failure to provide concise messages.
Blockers cause miscommunication and can lead to disagreement and confusion. The major result of
communication blockers and miscommunication as a whole is conflict.
Knowledge Area: Communications
Process Group: Executing
Source: PMP® Exam Prep
Page: 426

Explanation
X184
The correct answer is B.
This is not a core competency of the company. There is time and data for a detailed procurement statement of
work. In this case, it is better to shift risk to another company through a fixed-price contract.
Knowledge Area: Procurement
Process Group: Planning
Source: PMP® Exam Prep
Page: 510

Explanation
X185
The correct answer is C.
Assessment refers to the first few steps of risk management. These steps must be repeated throughout the
project whenever there is a change to the project or a new risk is identified.
Knowledge Area: Risk
Process Group: Monitoring & Controlling
Source: PMP® Exam Prep
Page: 455
Explanation
X186
The correct answer is D.
The unexpected functionality reported by the project manager is outside the scope of the project. Adding extra
functionality is the definition of gold plating. Gold plating a project wastes time and probably cost. It makes the
project unsuccessful.
Knowledge Area: Quality
Process Group: Monitoring & Controlling
Source: PMP® Exam Prep
Page: 324

Explanation
X187
The correct answer is B.
You need to know the definition of each choice in order to determine the best answer. With Monte Carlo
analysis, you can perform multiple simulations based on three-point estimates.
Knowledge Area: Schedule
Process Group: Planning
Source: PMP® Exam Prep
Page: 259

Explanation
X188
The correct answer is A.
Beta distribution uses weighted averages to compute activity durations.
Knowledge Area: Schedule
Process Group: Planning
Source: PMP® Exam Prep
Page: 233

Explanation
X189
The correct answer is C.
Performance measures are determined earlier in the project so they can be used to measure progress during
the project—making determining performance measures the only correct answer to this question.
Knowledge Area: PM Framework/Processes
Process Group: Closing
Source: PMP® Exam Prep
Page: 109

Explanation
X190
The correct answer is C.
A risk list, process updates, and sensitivity analysis are not outputs of the Plan Risk Responses process.
Residual risks, fallback plans, and contingency reserves are all outputs of the Plan Risk Responses process,
making this the correct answer.
Knowledge Area: Risk
Process Group: Planning
Source: PMP® Exam Prep
Page: 470

Explanation
X191
The correct answer is D.
Quality metrics are an output of the Plan Quality Management process. They are an input to the Manage Quality
process, the process in which quality audits take place.
Knowledge Area: Quality
Process Group: Executing
Source: PMP® Exam Prep
Page: 334

Explanation
X192
The correct answer is C.
Recovering costs from the insurance company is the result of transference, not passive acceptance. Accepting a
risk can be passive (what happens, happens) or active (creating contingency plans). Any of the other choices
could be an outcome of passively accepting a risk on the project.
Knowledge Area: Risk
Process Group: Monitoring & Controlling
Source: PMP® Exam Prep
Page: 467

Explanation
X193
The correct answer is D.
Work for each phase must be inspected and accepted before the phase can be closed out.
Knowledge Area: Integration
Process Group: Closing
Source: PMP® Exam Prep
Page: 164

Explanation
X194
The correct answer is B.
Cost-benefit analysis and gaining support from stakeholders must have already occurred, as you are being
requested to create a project charter. Management plans are not created until project planning. In order to create
the project charter, you need to know the business objectives, or business case, of the project.
Knowledge Area: Integration
Process Group: Initiating
Source: PMP® Exam Prep
Page: 134

Explanation
X195
The correct answer is A.
This question relates real-world situations to risk types. Did you realize the entire first paragraph is extraneous?
Based on the question, you cannot remove the work to avoid it, nor can you insure or outsource it to transfer the
risk. This leaves acceptance as the only correct choice.
Knowledge Area: Risk
Process Group: Planning
Source: PMP® Exam Prep
Page: 467

Explanation
X196
The correct answer is D.
The only estimate that is usually made in the initiating process group is the rough order of magnitude estimate.
This estimate is accurate to -25 percent to +75 percent. As the project progresses and more is known, this
estimate will be refined to a more limited range.
Knowledge Area: Cost
Process Group: Initiating
Source: PMP® Exam Prep
Page: 289

Explanation
X197
The correct answer is C.
Leveling resources generally extends the schedule. Monte Carlo analysis does not directly address the
constraints of this situation. To compress the schedule, you could either crash or fast track. However, the
situation says that the network diagram cannot change. This eliminates fast tracking, which leaves crashing the
project as the best answer.
Knowledge Area: Schedule
Process Group: Planning
Source: PMP® Exam Prep
Page: 253

Explanation
X198
The correct answer is D.
With proper planning, you will be able to communicate effectively and accurately. In this case, you are not
gathering the correct information to report to the client.
Knowledge Area: Communications
Process Group: Executing
Source: PMP® Exam

Explanation
X199
The correct answer is C.
Consensus is not a result of voting. Rather, it is achieved through facilitated sessions wherein everyone agrees
to accept the decision supported by the group as a whole.
Knowledge Area: Scope
Process Group: Planning
Source: PMP® Exam Prep
Page: 188

Explanation
X200
The correct answer is C.
It is unlikely that all stakeholders will be completely satisfied with the outcome of the project, as all of their
requirements may not be supported by the project objectives. Project objectives deal with both project and
product scope. There are risks involved in achieving project objectives, which will be analyzed in project
planning. Project objectives included in the project charter must be measurable.
Knowledge Area: Integration
Process Group: Initiating
Source: PMP® Exam Prep
Page: 137

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