CEE 2078 Memory Based Question Paper with Answers in Help For Entrance.

ZOOLOGY

1. Largest muscle of Human body is

(A) Gluteus maximum (B) Gluteus minimus
(C) Masseter (D) Stapedius
2. In stomach, curdling of milk is caused by
(A) Pepsin (B) Rennin (C) Trypsin (D) Papain
3. Hodgkin disease is related to
(A) TB (B) Cancer (C) Typhoid (D) Diarrhea
4. …………… is excretory organs of Platyhelminthes.
(A) Nephridia (B) Kidney (C) Flame cells (D) Coxal gland
5. Classification of Protozoa is based on
(A) Locomotory organs (B) Feeding habit
(C) Excretory system (D) Habitat
6. Classification of Porifera is based on
(A) Water canal system (B) Spicules
(C) Circulatory system (D) Cell grade
7. Organ of Bojanus is related to …………………. function.
(A) Circulatory (B) Excretory
(C) Respiratory (D) Digestive
8. Forest of nephridia is found in
(A) Prostomium (B) Cingulum (C) Peristomium (D) Pharynx
9. Direct ancestor of human is
(A) Hominid (B) Anthropoid (C) Ape (D) Monkey
10. Which is viviparous animal?
(A) Platypus (B) Shark (C) Bird (D) Reptiles
11. During hibernation frog respires by
(A) Cutaneous (B) Skin and Lungs
(C) Buccopharyngeal (D) Pulmonary
12. Incomplete digestive system is present in
(A) Whipworm (B) Tapeworm (C) Hookworm (D) Ascaris
13. Spermatheca pores are found in
(A) 2/3 3/4 4/5 5/6 (B) 6/7 7/8 8/9 9/10
(C) 3/4 4/5 5/6 6/7 (D) 5/6 6/7 7/8 8/9
14. Frog has
(A) Ear but no pinna (B) Mouth but no tooth
(C) Tongue with no lobe (D) Eye with no eyelid
15. In malarial patient, toxic substance hemozoin is released in
(A) Spleen (B) Liver
(C) Stomach of Female Anopheles Mosquito (D) Salivary gland
16. What volume of blood (in liter) reach kidney in 1 minute?
(A) 1.2 (B) 0.4 (C) 0.8 (D) 12.5
17. Which is correct with its category?
(A) Stimulant – Amphetamine (B) Narcotics – LSD
(C) Tranquilizer – Codeine (D) Sedative – Cocaine
18. Which is incorrect?
(A) Myosin – Contractile protein (B) Myoglobin – Red muscle
(C) Troponin – Fibrous protein (D) Smooth muscle - Involuntary muscle
19. Sea lily is
(A) Antedon (B) Holothurian (C) Atserias (D) Echnius
20. Which is learned behavior?
(A) Tendon reflex (B) Salivation
(C) Blinking of eye (D) Cycling and Dancing
21. Which is incorrect?
CEE 2078 Memory Based Question Paper with Answers in Help For Entrance.

(A) Echinodermata – Water Vascular system

(B) Archaeopteryx – Living fossil
(C) Peripatus – Connecting Link
(D) Mollusca – Gastropoda
22. The simple organic compound that may have first evolved in the direction of
origin of life on earth may have been
(A) Nucleic acid & Protein (B) Ammonia & Protein
(C) Urea & Nucleic acid (D) Urea & protein
23. Which was not present in primitive atmosphere?
(A) Methane (B) Ammonia (C) Hydrogen (D) Oxygen
24. Ameloblast is found in
(A) Pancreas (B) Liver (C) Tooth (D) Small Intestine
25. Infective stage of Plasmodium is
(A) Sporozoite (B) Trophozoite (C) Merozoite (D) Ookinete
26. If sperm has no acrosome, then
(A) Its motility decreases (B) it cannot get nutrition
(C) it can’t penetrate eggs (D) it will be more active
27. A newly married women diagnosed with uterine carcinoma had undergone
hysterectomy. Now she wanted to have a child, then which of the following
situation is better for her?
(A) IVF and eggs lend by surrogate mother
(B) IVF and eggs lend by intended mother, father’s sperm and surrogate womb
(C) IVF and eggs transfer in uterus of intended mother
(D) IVF and eggs lend by surrogate mother and father sperms
28. Symptoms of frequent urination having no glucose in urine suggest that the
person is suffering from
(A) Diabetes mellitus (B) Diabetes polydipsia
(C) Diabetes insipidus (D) Cretinism
29. Organism tolerate narrow range of salinity is
(A) Stenohaline (B) Euryhaline
(C) Homeothermic (D) Poikilothermic
30. In which of the following ex-flagellation occurs?
(A) Microgametocyte (B) Megagametocyte
(C) Sporozoite (D) Oocyte
31. Innominate veins of frog is formed by
(A) External juglar and carotid (B) Lingers and Mandibular
(C) Internal juglar and Subscapular (D) Subcutaneous and subclavian
32. Duration of Atrial systole is
(A) 0.3 second (B) 0.1 second (C) 0.8 second (D) 0.5 second
33. ……………. lines the cavity of brain & secretes CSF.
(A) Astrocytes (B) Glia cells
(C) Schwann cells (D) Ependmyocytes
34. Pearl oyster belongs to class
(A) Pelecypoda (B) Gastropoda
(C) Cephalopoda (D) Aplacophora
35. Semicircular canal in internal ear helps in
(A) Hearing & balancing (B) Balancing
(C) Hearing (D) Decision
36. Which is not found in penis?
(A) Corpus cavernosa (B) Corpus spongiosum
(C) Corpus callosum (D) Glans penis
37. Characteristic feature of mammal is
(A) Ear pinna (B) Scales of skin
(C) Monocular vision (D) Cloaca
CEE 2078 Memory Based Question Paper with Answers in Help For Entrance.

38. If blood has more CO2, then breathing will be

(A) deeper and faster (B) slower
(C) normal (D) more pH in blood
39. Whale, bat and rat belongs to same group. They secrete milk and also have
(A) Muscular diaphragm (B) Absent neck
(C) Scales on body (D) Aquatic
40. Which is correct?
(A) Mollusca – Haemocoelomate
(B) Platyhelminthes – Eucoelomate
(C) Arthropods – Radial symmetry
(D) Annelida – Water canal system

BOTANY
41. Nucleotide is
(A) Purine/Pyrimidine + Sugar + Phosphate
(B) Sugar + Phosphate
(C) Purine + Sugar + Phosphate
(D) Pyrimidine + Sugar + Phosphate
42. Inflorescence of sunflower is
(A) Head and Capitulum (B) Cymose
(C) Verticillate (D) Cyathium
43. Fruit of Poaceae is
(A) Berry (B) Caryopsis (C) Follicle (D) Synocus

44. Floral formula represents

(A) Solanaceae (B) Brassicaceae

(C) Compositae (D) Poaceae
45. Double fertilization occurs in
(A) Algae (B) Bryophyte
(C) Angiosperm (D) Gymnosperm
46. Most common type of ovule in angiosperm is
(A) Orthotropous (B) Anatropous
(C) Campylotropous (D) Amphitropous
47. In angiosperm, Embryo sac represents
(A) Megasporangium (B) Microsporangium
(C) Female gametophyte (D) Male gametophyte
48. Net ATP in Krebs cycle is
(A) 22 (B) 24 (C) 36 (D) 38
49. Pteridophytes differ from bryophytes having
(A) Archegonia (B) Ovule (C) Antheridia (D) Vascular tissue
50. In area devastated by forest fire, which grows first?
(A) Liverworts (B) Ovule (C) Fern (D) Algae
51. Maximum cellulose is found in
(A) Primary cell wall (B) Secondary cell wall
(C) Tertiary cell wall (D) Middle Lamella
52. Conversion of NH3 to NO3 is-

(A) Nitrogen assimilation (B) Nitrifying

(C) Denitrification (D) Nitrogen fixation
53. Formation of DNA from RNA is called
(A) Transcription (B) Transduction
(C) Replication (D) Reverse Transcriptase
CEE 2078 Memory Based Question Paper with Answers in Help For Entrance.

54. A dwarf pea plant was treated with gibberellic acid; it grows as tall as the
homozygous tall pea plant. If this gibberellic acid treated plant is now crossed
with a pure tall pea plant, then the phenotypic ratio in the next generation is
likely to be
(A) 100% dwarf (B) 100% tall
(C) 75% tall, 25% dwarf (D) 50% tall, 50% dwarf
55. Which is incorrect about Marchantia?
(A) Leafy gametophyte and erect (B) Stalked gametophytes
(C) Inverted archegonia (D) Gemma cup
56. Gymnosperms have naked seed due to absent of
(A) Ovary (B) Seed coat
(C) Ovule (D) Embryo sac
57. Conjoint, collateral and open vascular bundle is found in
(A) Dicot root (B) Dicot stem (C) Monocot root (D) Monocot stem
58. Function of Golgi bodies is
(A) Carbohydrate metabolism (B) Protein synthesis
(C) ATP formation (D) Glycosylation of Lipid and Protein
59. Bacteria divide in every minutes, it takes 1 hour to fill a cup. Then half of cup is
filled in
(A) 50 min (B) 1 hr (C) 59 min (D) 30 min
60. Which is not the contrivances of cross pollination?
(A) Self-sterility
(B) Female & Male flower mature at different time
(C) Female and Male flower mature at same time
(D) Dicliny
61. If haploid chromosome is 20, then monosomy and tetrasomy has
(A) 20, 40 (B) 39, 42 (C) 40, 42 (D) 19, 22
62. Which organelle eats old organelles?
(A) Lysosome (B) Golgi body (C) Mitochondria (D) Chloroplast
63. If Adenine in DNA is 29%, then cytosine is
(A) 58% (B) 21% (C) 42% (D) 71%
64. Most abundant protein is
(A) Cellulose (B) Rubisco (C) Collagen (D) Actin
65. The loss of water in the form of water droplets along with minerals takes place
from small pores on the leaf margin, these pores are called
(A) Hydathodes (B) Lenticel (C) Stomata (D) Ostia
66. Pores in the cork cell of stem allows gaseous exchange between atmosphere and
internal tissue
(A) Stomata (B) Lenticel (C) Hydathode (D) Leaf margin
67. Osmotic pressure is measured by
(A) Potometer (B) Osmometer
(C) Photometer (D) Auxometer
68. Coenocytic hyphae is
(A) Uninucleated & septate (B) Multinucleated & septate
(C) Uninucleated & aseptate (D) Multinucleated & aseptate
69. DNA replication occurs in
(A) Interphase (B) Prophase (C) Anaphase (D) Metaphase
70. The inheritance of characters from father to grandson via daughter is called
(A) Linkage (B) Crisscross inheritance
(C) Mutation (D) Polygenic inheritance
71. If starch converts to organic acid in guard cell then stomata
(A) Opens (B) Close (C) Not affected (D) Flaccid
72. In human male linkage group is equal to
(A) Haploid chromosome +1 (B) Haploid chromosome
CEE 2078 Memory Based Question Paper with Answers in Help For Entrance.

(C) Haploid chromosome -1 (D) Diploid chromosome

73. In F2 generation, if both parental characters are seen along with intermediate
phenotype, then it is known as
(A) Incomplete dominance (B) Co-dominance
(C) Sex-linked (D) Linkage
74. In Kathmandu valley, photochemical smog is seen due to
(A) Ozone + PAN + NOx (B) Smoke + SO2
(C) OZONE + SO2 + PAN (D) Smoke + SO2 + PAN
75. Force responsible for water transfer from cell to cell is
(A) DPD (B) DP (C) TP (D) Wall pressure
76. If decomposer is removed from environment, then
(A) Minerals don’t get recycled (B) Photosynthesis is affected
(C) Energy will be stopped (D) Consumers will not get food
77. A plant cell has potential to develop into a full plant. This is called
(A) Totipotency (B) Gene cloning
(C) Tissue culture (D) Regeneration
78. Chloroplast is semi-autonomous organelle due to
(A) They contain DNA but due to lack of protein
(B) They contain DNA and have some protein
(C) They originate from Golgi bodies
(D) They don’t have genetic materials
79. Diversification in plant life appeared due to
(A) Long period evolutionary change (B) Abrupt mutation
(C) Sudden change (D) By seed dispersal
80. Plants that grow in salty soil are called
(A) Oxylophytes (B) Hydrophytes
(C) Chasmophytes (D) Halophytes

CHEMISTRY

81. 15% pure ethyl alcohol on fractional distillation gives 85% ethyl alcohol by
weight which is known as
(A) Absolute alcohol (B) Methylated spirit
(C) Rectified spirit (D) Wash
82. Benzene diazonium chloride reacts with phenol in acidic medium to give
(A) P-Hydroxyazobenzene (B) Diphenylether
(C) Benzene (D) Chlorobenzene
83. Reduction of nitrobenzene by sodium arsenite in alkaline medium gives
(A) Azobenzene (B) Hydroxyazobenzene
(C) Azoxybenzene (D) Aniline
84. IUPAC name of (CH3)2CHCOOH is
(A) 2-methyl propanoic acid (B) 2-methyl butanoic acid
(C) Propanoic acid (D) Butanoic acid
85. Electrolytic reduction of nitrobenzene in conc. sulphuric acid gives
(A) O-aminophenol (B) P-amiophenol
(C) Aniline (D) Azobenzene
86. Aldehyde and Ketone can be distinguished by
(A) Fehling’s solution (B) Sodium thiosulphate
(C) FeCl3 (D) Sodium bicarbonate
87. Hybridization of ‘C’ in ethane is
(A) sp2 (B) sp3 (C) sp (D) sp3d
88. Which represents homologous series of alkanol?
(A) CnH2n (B) CnH2nO (C) CnH2n+2O (D) CnH2n+1O
89. How many alpha-hydrogen are present in CH3 - CH = CH - CH3?
CEE 2078 Memory Based Question Paper with Answers in Help For Entrance.

(A) 6 (B) 2 (C) 5 (D) 7

90. Which of the following is used in warfare?
(A) CCl3NO2 (B) COCl2 (C) N2O (D) CH2Cl2
91. When CH3Cl is treated with aq. KOH, compound A is formed and when A is treated
with Cu at 300°C gives B. Identify B.
(A) Methanol (B) Ether (C) Methanal (D) Acetone
92. Aldol condensation reaction is given by
(A) CH3CHO (B) Toluene
(C) HCHO (D) CH3CH2OH
93. Which of the following reaction is characteristic of aldehyde having no alpha
hydrogen?
(A) Cannizaro’s reaction (B) Schmidit reaction
(C) Aldol reaction (D) Perkin’s reaction
94. Acidic hydrogen is present in
(A) Ethene (B) Ethyne (C) Ethane (D) Propane
95. HX is treated with unsaturated alkene to form alkyl halide. This is an example of
(A) Electrophilic addition reaction (B) Nucleophilic addition reaction
(C) Electrophilic substitution reaction (D) Free radical reaction
96. Boiling point is more in para-nitrophenol than ortho-nitrophenol due to
(A) Intermolecular H-bond in paranitrophenol and intramolecular H-bond in
orthonitrophenol
(B) Intramolecular H-bond in paranitrophenol and intermolecular H-bond in
orthonitrophenol
(C) More molecular weight
(D) Less molecular weight
97. Lipid hydrolysis yields fatty acid and
(A) Glycerol (B) Glycol (C) Oxalic acid (D) Formic acid
98. Marshall’s acid is
(A) H2S2O7 (B) H2S2O8 (C) H2S05 (D) H2SO4
99. Baking powder contains
(A) Citrate (B) Tartarate (C) Oxalate (D) Fumarate
100. Which of the following reaction evolves chlorine?
(A) HCl + Br2 (B) KCl + HCl (C) KClO3 + I2 (D) HOCl + Br2
101. Neutron was discovered by
(A) Chadwick (B) Thomson (C) Rutherford (D) E. Goldstein
102. Maximum percentage of nitrogen is present in
(A) Urea (B) Ammonia (C) CAN (D) N2O
103. Hypo and I2 reacted to give
(A) Tertathionate (B) Sulphate (C) Sulphite (D) Nitrate
104. Radioactive hydrogen isotope is
(A) Proton (B) Deuterium (C) Tritium (D) Cadmium
105. Which of the following is used as purgative in medicine, treating barium poison
and barbiturate poisoning?
(A) Epson salt (B) Magnesia (C) Gypsum (D) Slaked lime
106. Which bivalent metal ion get dissolved in HCl and precipitated in H2S?
(A) Co++ (B) Mn++ (C) Zn++ (D) Cd++
107. Mg++ is isoelectronic with
(A) Na+ (B) Ca+ (C) K+ (D) F
108. Which is used in advertising tube light?
(A) Helium (B) Neon (C) Argon (D) Krypton
109. Froth floatation is based on
(A) Wetting process (B) Specific gravity
(C) Density (D) Molecular weight
110. Lunar caustic is
CEE 2078 Memory Based Question Paper with Answers in Help For Entrance.

(A) AgNO3 (B) AgCl (C) MgCO3 (D) CaH2

111. What volume of decinormal NaOH is required to completely neutralize 10 ml of
0.5 M H2SO4?
(A) 200 ml (B) 100 ml (C) 50 ml (D) 400 ml
112. No. of atoms/molecule in 1 molar mass is known as
(A) Avogadro number (B) Dalton number
(C) Mole (D) Normality
113. Which is not used in salt bridge?
(A) KCl (B) NH4NO3 (C) KNO3 (D) Na2CO3
114. Which is used as indicator in titration of CH3COOH against NaOH?
(A) Phenolphthalein (B) Methyl orange
(C) Methyl red (D) Methyl blue
115. Ratio of rate of diffusion of oxygen and hydrogen ion is
(A) 1/4 (B) 8 (C) 2 (D) 16
116. If molecular mass of gas ‘A’ is 32 times than that of Hydrogen gas, then ratio of rate
of diffusion is
(A) 4 (B) 8 (C) 16 (D) 2
117. The mole fraction of solute in 2.5 molal aqueous solution is
(A) 0.043 (B) 4.3 (C) 0.135 (D) 0.231
118. 22 gm of oxalic acid is present in the 500 ml of the solution (1.1 gm/mL-1) then
percentage (w/w) of oxalic acid is
(A) 2% (B) 4% (C) 6% (D) 8%
119. Which is correct about pH scale?
(A) Acid may have pH zero (B) Weak base have pH = 13.5
(C) Acid have pH more than 7 (D) Base have pH 4
120. Which is used in Galvanization?
(A) White vitriol (B) Green vitriol (C) Blue vitriol (D) Calvarite
121. Unit of rate constant of first order reaction is
(A) min-1 (B) mol min-1 (C) mol-1 min-1 (D) mol2 min-2
122. In Enargite, Cu is 48.25%, As is 19.68% and S is 32.123%. Then the Empirical
formula of Enargite is
(A) Cu3AsS4 (B) Cu4AsS3 (C) CuAsS2 (D) CuAsS
123. Setting of Plaster of Paris involves
(A) Dehydration (B) Hydration to yield another hydrate
(C) Reduction (D) Combination
124. Strongest force is present in
(A) Atom (B) Nucleus (C) Electron (D) Mass
125. Which compound is formed by passing chlorine through bleaching powder?
(A) CaCl2 (B) Ca(OCl)2 (C) CaOCl2 (D) Ca
126. In Rutherford experiment, many alpha particles went un-deflected due to
(A) Atom contains large empty space (B) Nucleus centrally located
(C) Repulsion by electron (D) Repulsion by neutron
127. CaCO3 in water is
(A) Solution (B) Colloid (C) Suspension (D) Gel
128. Modern periodic table is based on
(A) Atomic weight (B) Electro negativity
(C) Atomic number (D) Electron affinity
129. Self-linking property of carbon is called as
(A) Isomerism (B) Catenation (C) Cracking (D) Pyrolysis
130. The ionization energy of Hydrogen atom is 13.6 eV. Then, ionization energy of He+
in first excited state is
(A) 3.4 eV (B) 54.4 eV (C) 13.6 eV (D) 1.5 eV
CEE 2078 Memory Based Question Paper with Answers in Help For Entrance.

PHYSICS

131. For what minimum height ‘h’, a body is released on a smooth inclined plane so
that it revolves in vertical circle of radius ‘R’ after reaching the ground.
(A) 5/2 R (B) 5/4 R (C) 3/5 R (D) 2R
132. Two bodies are projected at angle 45° and 60° respectively with horizontal. If both
bodies attain same vertical height, then ratio of their range will be?
(A) √3 : 2 (B) √3 : 1 (C) 3: 1 (D) 1:1
133. Escape velocity for earth is 11 km/s. If satellite is launched at 45° with horizontal,
then escape velocity would be
(A) 11 km/s (B) 11√3 km/s (C) 11/√2 km/s (D) 11.2 km/s
134. A body of mass ‘m’ moving with velocity ‘u’ collide with another body of same
mass at rest then get embedded in it. The loss of kinetic energy is equal to
(A) E (B) E/2 (C) E/3 (D) E/4
135. A body is moving in circular path with uniform motion then which is correct?
(A) Path is periodic & SHM (B) Neither periodic nor SHM
(C) Is SHM but not periodic (D) Is periodic but not SHM
136. A train of mass ‘m’ is moving with velocity ‘v’ making an angle ‘Ɵ’ with horizontal
straight line then power delivered is?
(A) mgv cos Ɵ (B) mgv sin Ɵ (C) 2 mg cos Ɵ (D) mv cos Ɵ
137. A body does not wet glass if it makes
(A) acute angle (B) right angle (C) Greater than 90° (D) O°
138. A boat having length 3 m and breadth 2 m is floating on a lake. The boat sinks by 1
cm when a man gets on it. The mass of the man is
(A) 80 kg (B) 60 kg (C) 120 kg (D) 100 kg
139. When H2O is kept in a glass then meniscus is
(A) Concave upward (B) Concave downward
(C) Convex upward (D) Convex upward
140. If the K.E. change is 4%, then momentum changes by
(A) 2% (B) 8% (C) 6% (D) 1%
141. When refrigerator works between 0 Celsius and room temperature of 27° Celsius
°

then coefficient of performance of refrigerator is

(A) 9 (B) 10 (C) 17 (D) 12
142. If 420 J is lost by 20 g of water, what is the change in temperature?
(A) 10°C (B) 5°C (C) 20°C (D) 25°C
143. If pressure of closed container is ‘P’ then translational kinetic energy per unit
volume (KE) is given by
2 3 3
(A) KE=3P (B) KE=2 P (C) P=2KE (D) P=2KE
144. At absolute zero temperature, the black body ………..
(A) doesn’t radiate (B) maximally radiates
(C) radiation is quadrupled (D) radiation doubles
145. Equal masses of two liquid having specific heat capacity s1 at 20°C and other s2 at
40°C are mixed to having resulting solution temperature 32°C. Then the ratio of
their specific heat capacity s1:s2 is
(A) 3:2 (B) 4:1 (C) 3:1 (D) 2:3
146. Which is incorrect?
(A) Isothermal = Temperature constant
(B) Adiabatic = Heat and Temperature Constant
(C) Isochoric = Volume Constant
(D) Isobaric = Pressure Constant
147. Two wires of same material having same length and cross section area A are
joined in series having resistivity ρ1 and ρ2 respectively. The equivalent resistivity
of the combination will be
CEE 2078 Memory Based Question Paper with Answers in Help For Entrance.

ρ1 + ρ2 ρ1 ρ2
(A) 2
(B) ρ1+ ρ2 (C) ρ1 - ρ2 (D) ρ
1 + ρ2
148. The maximum voltage is obtained when two capacitor 3µF and 8µF are connected
in
(A) Parallel (B) Series
(C) Parallel with resistance (D) Series with Resistance
149. Soft iron is used to make the core of the transformer because of its
(A) Low Coercivity and Low Retentivity
(B) Low Coercivity and High Retentivity
(C) High Coercivity and Low Retentivity
(D) High Coercivity and High Retentivity
150. If wire is stretched to double its length then change in their resistance will be
(A) 2 times (B) 3 times (C) 4 times (D) 16 times
151. If the change in current per second is 1 A/sec then Emf induced in a coil will be
equal to
(A) Magnetic field (B) Flux (C) Self-Inductance (D) Permittivity
152. If 10 m long potentiometer wire has resistance 20ohm and is connected with
10ohm external resistance in series and battery of emf 3 volt. The potential
gradient across the wire will be
(A) 0.02 v/m (B) 0.2 v/m (C) 10 v/m (D) 0.5 v/m
153. Through two parallel wires A and B, 10A and 2A of current are passed respectively
in opposite direction. If the wire A is infinitely long and length of the wire is B is 2
m, then force on the conductor B which is situated at 10 cm distance from A will be
(A) 8 × 10-3 N (B) 4π × 10-3 N (C) 8 × 10-5 N (D) 9 × 10-5 N
154. The work done in carrying an electron from point A to B in an electric field is
1699J. The potential difference between A and B will be
(A) 1022 V (B) 10-19 V (C) 10-23 V (D) 1024 V
155. A coil of area 0.04 m having 1000 turns is suspended perpendicularly to a
2

magnetic field of magnitude 5 × 10-5 Wb/m2. If it is rotated through 180° about an

axis passing through one of its diameter in 0.1 second. Calculate average induced
Emf in it.
(A) 4 × 10-2 V (B) 20 V (C) 400 V (D) 4 × 10-4
156. A person can’t see an object beyond 100 cm. The lens used to remove this defect
will be the power of
(A) -1 D (B) 1 D (C) 2 D (D) -2 D
157. Critical angle of diamond is
(A) 41° (B) 49° (C) 24° (D) 39°
158. If height of object is ‘h’ and object distance is ‘u’ fro concave mirror of focal length
‘f’ then height of image will be
ℎ𝑓 𝑢−𝑓 ℎ(𝑢−𝑓) 𝑓2
(A) 𝑢−𝑓 (B) 𝑓
(C) √ 𝑓
(D) h (𝑢−𝑓)2
159. An old man cannot read newspaper near than 100 cm from his eyes. He is
suffering from
(A) Hypermetropia, corrected by biconcave lens
(B) Myopia, corrected by biconvex lens
(C) Presbyopia corrected by bifocal lens
(D) Astigmatism corrected by cylindrical lens
160. A prism of angle A having refractive index 1.5 produces angle of minimum
deviation equal to 5o. Calculate the value of angle of prism.
(A) 10° (B) 5° (C) 9° (D) 8°
161. When a slab having thickness 4 cm and refractive index 1.5 is placed in path of
one interfering light. Then path difference will be
(A) 2 cm (B) 4 cm (C) 8 cm (D) 5 cm
CEE 2078 Memory Based Question Paper with Answers in Help For Entrance.

162. Threshold wavelength of photoelectric emission from a metal surface is 5500A°.

Photoelectrons will be emitted when this surface is illuminated with
monochromatic radiation from
(A) 25 W violet light (B) 50 W infrared light
(C) 50 W red light (D) 25 W infrared light
163. Super conductor have
(A) Infinite conductance (B) Large conductance
(C) Small conductance (D) No conductance
164. Holes are found in
(A) Metal (B) Non-metal
(C) Semiconductor (D) Superconductor
165. The ionization energy of the hydrogen atom is 13.6 eV. Following Bohr’s theory,
the energy corresponding to a transition between second and third orbit is
(A) 1.9 eV (B) 2.5 eV (C) 10.2 eV (D) 0.9 eV
166. Radioactivity 1 disintegration per second is equivalent to
(A) 3 × 1020 curie (B) 1 Becquerel
(C) 10 Rutherford
6 (D) 106 Becquerel
167. In NPN transistor the collector current is 18mA. If 90% of electrons emitted reach
the collector, then base current will be
(A) 2 mA (B) 5mA (C) 8mA (D) 20mA
168. If frequency gets doubled then stopping potential will be
(A) more than double (B) less than double
(C) half (D) same
169. If radius of 1st Bohr’s orbit is 0.53A° then radius of second Bohr’s orbit is
(A) 4 × 0.53 A° (B) 2 × 0.53 A° (C) 5 × 0.53 A° (D) 8 × 0.53 A°
170. In NPN transistor electron moves from
(A) emitter to collector (B) emitter to base
(C) base to collector (D) base to emitter
171. The depletion layer in silicon diode is 2µm wide and the knee voltage is 1.5 volt,
then electric field in depletion layer will be
(A) 750 kv/m (B) 80 kv/m (C) 9 kv/m (D) 100 kv/m
172. Wilson cloud chamber is used for
(A) detect mass (B) detect charged particle
(C) detect energy (D) detect moisture in atmosphere
173. Quark in proton is
(A) uud (B) udd (C) u𝑢 (D) u𝑑
174. If neutron have the quark of up and down then neutrons decomposes to give
electron, neutrino and …….?
(A) pion (B) proton (C) neutrino (D) taunt
175. In resonance experiment using tuning fork of 1000 Hz. It was observed that the
difference in length between the fundamental frequency and first overtone is
0.175 m. Using the above information, calculate the velocity of sound.
(A) 332 m/s (B) 330 m/s (C) 350 m/s (D) 340 m/s
176. If intensity of sound is increased by 20 times then loudness increases by
(A) 13 (B) 12 (C) 10 (D) 20
177. Sound travels through medium because
(A) Pressure is passed on (B) Energy do not move on
(C) Mass do not move (D) Momentum do not move
178. Find the number of photon emitted per second by 600 MW source of
monochromatic light of frequency 1 × 1015 Hz?
(A) 6 × 1015 (B) 6 × 1019 (C) 6 × 1027 (D) 6 × 10-27
CEE 2078 Memory Based Question Paper with Answers in Help For Entrance.

179. In a diffraction pattern due to a single slit of width ‘a’, the first minimum is
observed at an angle of 30° when light of wavelength 5000A° is incident on the slit.
The first secondary maximum is observed at angle of
1 3 1 2
(A) sin−1 2 (B) sin−1 4 (C) sin−1 4 (D) sin−1 3
180. Center of mass is not affected by
(A) mass of individual (B) relative distance between particles
(C) internal force acted on particles (D) position of particles

MAT

181. Fill it.

1 2 5 6
5 H ? 8

5 J N 7
3 2 4 3

(A) S (B) P (C) D (D) X

182. Fill it. aa_aa/bb_b_/a_baa/bb_bb
(A) babba (B) bbaab (C) baaab (D) babaa
183. If COVID-19 is coded as EQXFK-21 then SARS-02 is coded as
(A) VAMT-06 (B) UCTU-04 (C) XYAP-05 (D) XACT-07
184. Count Triangle and Square.

(A) 40 and 8 (B) 40 and 10

(C) 44 and 10 (D) 44 and 8
185. Minimum number of balls move to flip the triangle is
O O O O O
O O O O O
O O O O O
O O O O O

(A) 3 (B) 4 (C) 6 (D) 7

186. Light is seen at interval of 13 second. If first light is seen at 1 hour 54 min 50
second, then up to 3 hours, 17 min and 49 second, how many times light is seen?
(A) 384 (B) 576 (C) 724 (D) 872
187. 6:13:32: ……. : 130
(A) 69 (B) 74 (C) 76 (D) 65
188. Fill it.
W C A J

T F E H

K J ?
CEE 2078 Memory Based Question Paper with Answers in Help For Entrance.

P G Q O

(A) F (B) X (C) D (D) S

189. Which is the missing section?

?
(A) (B)

(C) (D)

190. Find the missing part.

?
(A) (B)

(C) (D)

191. Niva, Mina, Sita, Gita, Rita are five friends in circle in clockwise facing at center,
Sita move to Mina and Mina move to Sita and also move to Rita and Rita move to
Gita place, then
(A) Mina is right to Sita (B) Niva is right to Sita
(C) Gita is right to Sita (D) Rita is right to Niva
CEE 2078 Memory Based Question Paper with Answers in Help For Entrance.

192. If Reeta works Geeta works too. If Geeta works, Mina doesn’t work. If Mina not
works, riya not works too. Then which one is correct?
(A) If Geeta works, Reeta works too
(B) If Minaa works, Geeta works too
(C) If Riya works, Mina works too
(D) If Reeta works, Riya works too
193. The multiple of two-digit number is 18. If we add 27 then the number is reversed.
What is the original number?
(A) 36 (B) 63 (C) 27 (D) 72
194. If Ram bahadur walks 5 km north, then 2 km south and then finally travel 4 km
left. In which direction, Ram bahadur travels?
(A) 5 km NE (B) 5 km E (C) 7 km S (D) 7 km SW
195. If a man cycle 36 km/hr., he took 2 minutes to complete 1 round. The ratio of
length and breadth is 2:3 then breadth will be
(A) 720 m (B) 360 m (C) 800 m (D) 900 m
196. You have 12 coins and the one is tampered one. If weighing balance can measure
two coins at once, then for how many times you should weigh to find out the
weight of tampered one?
(A) 6 times (B) 9 times (C) 5 times (D) 3 times
197. Arrange in sensible order.
1. Population 2. Poverty 3. Unemployment 4. Disease 5. Death
(A) 32145 (B) 13245 (C) 45321 (D) 23451
198. From the given Venn diagram find the number of female experience teacher but
not in PG.
F = Female Experience, T = Teacher, P = PG.

U
F T
5 8 3

2
4 1

9
P

(A) 4 (B) 9 (C) 6 (D) 8

199. The tank can fill 770 liter of fuel and its already had 200-liter fuel. Find amount of
money to fill the tank at rate of Rs. 4 per 5 liters.
(A) Rs. 200 (B) Rs. 456 (C) Rs. 500 (D) Rs. 570
200. If Bibek and Shankar play cricket and volleyball, Shaknar and Ramesh play cricket
and football, Ramesh and Mukesh play football and Tennis, Shankhar and Mukesh
play Tennis and Volley ball then who play circket, Volleyball and Tennis?
(A) Bibek (B) Ramesh (C) Shankhar (D) Mukesh
CEE 2078 Memory Based Question Paper with Answers in Help For Entrance.

Answers
1. A 2. B 3. B 4. C 5. A 6. B 7. B 8. B 9. A 10. B
11. A 12. B 13. D 14. A 15. A 16. A 17. A 18. C 19. A 20. D
21. B 22. A 23. D 24. C 25. A 26. C 27. B 28. C 29. A 30. A
31. C 32. B 33. D 34. A 35. B 36. C 37. A 38. A 39. A 40. A
41. A 42. A 43. B 44. A 45. C 46. B 47. C 48. B 49. B 50. C
51. B 52. B 53. D 54. B 55. B 56. A 57. B 58. D 59. C 60. C
61. B 62. A 63. B 64. B 65. A 66. B 67. D 68. D 69. A 70. B
71. A 72. A 73. A 74. A 75. A 76. A 77. A 78. B 79. A 80. D
81. C 82. A 83. C 84. A 85. B 86. A 87. B 88. C 89. A 90. A
91. C 92. A 93. A 94. B 95. A 96. A 97. A 98. B 99. B 100. C
101. A 102. A 103. A 104. C 105. A 106. D 107. A 108. B 109. A 110. A
111. B 112. A 113. D 114. A 115. A 116. A 117. A 118. B 119. A 120. A
121. A 122. A 123. B 124. B 125. B 126. A 127. C 128. C 129. B 130. C
131. A 132. B 133. A 134. B 135. D 136. A 137. C 138. B 139. B 140. A
141. B 142. B 143. B 144. A 145. D 146. B 147. A 148. B 149. B 150. C
151. C 152. B 153. C 154. A 155. A 156. A 157. C 158. D 159. C 160.A
161. A 162. A 163. A 164. C 165. A 166. B 167. A 168. A 169. A 170. B
171. A 172. B 173. A 174. B 175. B 176. A 177. A 178. C 179. B 180. C
181. A 182.D 183.B 184. C 185. A 186. A 187. A 188. D 189. B 190. D
191. B 192. A 193. C 194. A 195. B 196. B 197. D 198. D 199. B 200. C