80 MCQ Test - 03 Contact Number: 9667591930 /

Dec 8527521718

Botany - Section A 6 Read the following statements and select

the correct option w.r.t. population attributes
1 Growth rate of a natural population will be equal to a. Population density is necessarily measured in numbers
b. Tiger census is often based on pug marks and fecal
zero when:
pellets
(1) N/K is exactly one
c. Biomass is not a meaningful measure to know
(2) N nears the carrying capacity of the habitat
population size.
(3) N/K equals zero
d. Size of a population for any species is not a static
(4) mortality is greater than natality
parameter
1. (a) & (b)
2 Which of the following breeds only once in a 2. (a) & (d)
lifetime? 3. (c) & (d)
(1) Pacific salmon fish and Bamboo 4. (b) & (d)
(2) Oysters and Pelagic fish
(3) Pacific salmon fish and Pelagic fish 7 Predation, parasitism and commensalism share a
(4) Oysters and Bamboo
common characteristic i.e.
1. Both the interacting species are benefitted
3 Mark the incorrect match (w.r.t. population 2. Interacting species live closely together
interactions) 3. One of the species is benefitted while other is harmed
1. Amensalism : -, 0 4. Both the species belong to same taxonomic group
2. Predation : +, -
3. Commensalism : +, + 8 Select the incorrect statement about competition.
4. Parasitism : +, - 1. Totally unrelated species can also compete for the
same resources
4 The integral form of exponential growth equation 2. In competition, the fitness of one species is lowered in
the presence of another species
will be
3. Resource partitioning promotes co-existence
1. N = N e rt
0 t
4. In general, carnivores appear to be more adversely
2. N − N = e
t 0
rt
affected than plants and herbivores
3. N = N et 0
rt

4.
Nt
=
1

rt
9 Competition can occur
N0 e
1. Between unrelated species
5 Which of the following curve represents Verhulst 2. When two related species have requirement of similar
resources
Pearl Logistic growth in a population?
3. Between closely related species
4. When resource is limited
Choose the correct option
1. a and d only
1. 2.
2. b and c only
3. a, b and c only
4. a, b, c and d

10 The parasitic bird laying its eggs in the nest of its

3. 4. hosts and letting the host incubate them, is an example
of:
(1) brood parasitism
(2) ectoparasitism
(3) endoparasitism
(4) facultative parasitism

Page: 1
 80 MCQ Test - 03 Contact Number: 9667591930 /
Dec 8527521718

11 When all Pisaster starfish were removed from an 16 Read the following statements (A– E) and answer
enclosed intertidal area of the American Pacific Coast, the question which follows them :
the result was: (A) In liverworts, mosses and ferns gametophytes are
(1) extinction of many invertebrate species due to free-living
interspecific competetion (B) Gymnosperms and some ferns are heterosporous
(2) increase in number of many invertebrate species due (C) Sexual reproduction in Fucus, Volvox, and Albugo is
to lack of predation oogameous
(3) immigration of the Pisaster starfish returning the (D) The sporophytes in liverworts is more elaborate than
original conditions that in mosses
(4) the role of Pisater was overtaken by other species (E) Both, Pinus and Marchantia are dioecious
How many of the above statements are correct?
12 Camouflage is an important mechanism where 1. One
1. Predators are never cryptically coloured for easy 2. Two
capturing of their prey 3. Three
2. Prey species are cryptically coloured to avoid being 4. Four
detected easily by the predator
3.Prey produces some poisonous chemicals in their 17 Which of the following lacks a nucleus at maturity?
surroundings to protect themselves from predators 1. Sieve cell
4. Predators evolved some physiological adaptations to 2. Companion cell
reach to the prey present in some harsh habitats 3. Palisade cell
4. Cell of cortex

13 The choronological stages of a logistic growth 18 The floral formula of Tomato/Tobacco is

curve are: 1.
(1) lag phase, acceleration, deceleration, asymptote
(2) lag phase, deceleration, acceleration, asymptote
(3) log phase, acceleration, deceleration, asymptote
(4) log phase, deceleration, acceleration, asymptote
2.
14 Association of cattle egret and grazing cattle
represents
1. Commensalism
2. Protocooperation
3. Mutualism 3.
4. Amensalism

Botany - Section B 4.

15 Mark the feature not similar between Agaricus and

morels
1. Production of meiospores
2. Produce edible fruiting bodies
3. Occurrence of dikaryophase
4. Lack of sex organs but not asexual reproduction

Page: 2
 80 MCQ Test - 03 Contact Number: 9667591930 /
Dec 8527521718

19 Given below are two statements: 23 Identify the steps A, B, C and D in given figure
Growth and differentiation in plants are representing the mode of action pf AIDS virus.
Assertion (A): Match the labelling in column I and column II.
closed.
In plants, cells/tissues arising out of the
Reason (R): same meristem have the same structures
at maturity.

Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct
1.
explanation of (A).
Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct
2.
explanation of (A).
3. (A) is true but (R) is false.
4. Both (A) and (R) are false.

20 Which component of the endomembrane system of

a eukaryotic cell is frequently observed in cells involved
in protein synthesis and secretion?
1. Rough endoplasmic reticulum
2. Golgi complex
3. Smooth endoplasmic reticulum
4. Chloroplasts Column
Column II
I
Zoology - Section A aA (i) Viral RNA is introduce into host cell
Viral DNA is produced from RNA by
bB (ii)
21 reverse
The colostrum provides passive Viral DNA incorporates into host
Assertion (A): cC (iii)
immunity to the new-born baby. genome
In this, the ready-made antibodies are New viral RNA is produced by the
Reason (R): dD (iv)
directly given to protect the body. infected cell
1. a(i), b(ii), c(iii), d(iv)
Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct 2.a(ii), b(iii), c(iv), d(i)
1. 3. a(iii), b(iv), c(i), d(iii)
explanation of (A).
4. a(iv), b(i), c(ii), d(iii)
Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is not the correct
2.
explanation of (A).
24 Mark the incorrect statement w.r.t infection
3. (A) is true but (R) is false.
of Entamoeba histolytica
4. (A) is false but (R) is true. 1. It is a protozoan parasite of human
2. it is a characterised by constipation and abdominal
22 Choose the Incorrect statement w.r.t AIDS pain
1. Viral RNA genome is converted into DNA by reverse 3. It is a parasite of small intestine of man
transcriptase 4. Houseflies act as mechanical carriers and serve to
2. It is caused by an enveloped retrovirus HIV transmit the parasite from faeces of infected person to
3. It is an immunodeficiency disease food and food products
4. HIV selectively infects and kills B-ymphocytes

Page: 3
 80 MCQ Test - 03 Contact Number: 9667591930 /
Dec 8527521718

25 Select the incorrect statement with respect to 29 Choose the right combination for innate immunity
cancer. 1. Mucus - Physiological barrier
Most cancers are treated by combination of surgery, 2. Acid in the stomach - physiological barrier
1. 3. neutrophils - cytokine barrier
radiotherapy and chemotherapy.
Transformation of normal cells into cancerous 4. Interferons - physiological barrier
2.
neoplastic cells may be induced by carcinogens.
3. Cancerous cells show property of contact inhibition. 30 Identify A, B, c and D from the given diagram.
Antibodies against cancer-specific antigens are used Select the correct match between the labelling in column
4. I with column II.
for detection of certain cancers.

26 How many of the given statements are correct

a. Intravenous drug abusers are at a high risk of
acquiring HIV infection.
b. Chemical carcinogens like UV rays and X-rays cause
neoplastic transformation.
c. Cancer is the most dreaded infections disease in
humans.
d. Drug used in chemotherapy besides targeting cancer
cells, also inhibit the proliferation of normal cells
in the body leading to hair loss and anaemia.
1. Four Column I Column II
2. Three
a. A (i) Heavy chain of antibody
3. Two
4. One b. B (ii) Light chain of antibody
c. C (iii) Antigen binding site of antibody

27 Choose the correct option w.r.t Plasmodium. 31 Assertion: Smoking can raise blood pressure and
Man Mosquito increase heart rate.
Infective stages Reason: Nicotine stimulates adrenal glands to release
1. Gametocyte Sporozoite adrenaline and noradrenaline into the blood circulation,
of plasmodium
both of which raise blood pressure and increase heart
Type of
2. Asexual Asexual rate
reproduction
Infective stage
3. Sporozoite Gametocyte Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation
of plasmodium 1.
of A.
Type of
4. Sexual Asexual Both A and R are true and R is not the correct
reproduction 2.
explanation of A.
3. A is true but R is false.
28 In acquired immunity
4. A is false but R is true.
A. Antibodies produced for allergens are of IgA type
B. B-cells themselves do not secrete antibodies but help
T-cells to produce them
C. T-cells are responsible for the graft rejection
D. Each antibody molecule has four peptide chains
Choose the correct answer from the options given below
1. B and C only
2. C and D only
3. A and B only
4. B and D only

Page: 4
 80 MCQ Test - 03 Contact Number: 9667591930 /
Dec 8527521718

32 Consider the figure given below and read the 34 Smoking increases ________ content in blood and
statements given with respect to it reduces the concentration of haembound oxygen.
Fill the blank suitably
1. carbon dioxide
2. Carbaminohaemoglobin
3. Carbon monoxide
4. Carboxylic acid

Zoology - Section B
35 Choose the correct option.
1. Mucous coating of ephithelium lining the GT is
considered as a physiological barrier.
(a) The active chemicals are present in flower tops, 2. Saliva in the mouth is an example of physical barrier
leaves and the resins of the same plant of innate immunity.
(b) Ganja, coke and marijuana can be produced from it 3. Interferons which protect virus-infected cells are
(c) The chemicals extracted from the plant when glycoproteins that constitute cytokine barriers
consumed, affect the brain activity and cause changes in 4. Macrophages in tissues, natural killer cells, PMNLs
mood, behaviour, etc and monocytes in blood are part d]of cellular barriers
1. Statements (a) and (b) are correct while statement (c) providing innate immunity
is incorrect
2. Statements (a) and (c) are correct while statement (b)
is incorrect 36 Match column I with column II based on the
3. Statements (b) are incorrect while statement (c) is
lymphoid organs of human immune system.
correct
4. Statements (b) and (c) are incorrect while statement Column I Column II
(a) is correct Secondary lymphoid organ but
a. Spleen (i)
vestigeal in humans
33 Which of the following is incorrect with respect to Production house of all types of
b. Appendix (ii)
the given figure? lymphocytes and RCBs
Filter of the blood and Graveyards
c. Thymus (iii)
of RCBs
Bone
d. (iv) Primary lymphoid organ
marrow

Choose the correct option

1. a-(i), b-(iii), c-(ii), d-(iv)
2. a-(iii), b-(i), c-(ii), d-(iv)
1. Receptors present principally in brain 3. a-(iii), b-(i), c-(iv), d-(ii)
2. Generally taken by inhalation and oral ingestion 4. a-(iv), b-(i), c-(ii), d-(iii)
3. Abused by some sportspersons
4. Make a person more wakeful, alert and cause
excitement

Page: 5
 80 MCQ Test - 03
Dec
37
Given below are two statements:
Assertion (A): Frog is a ureotelic animal.
They excrete nitrogenous waste in form
Reason (R):
of urea.
Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct
1.
explanation of (A).
Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct
2.
explanation of (A).
3. (A) is true but (R) is false.
4. Both (A) and (R) are false.
38 Match the name of the animal (Column I), with one
characteristic (Column II), and the phylum/class
(column III) to which it belongs :
39 Read the following statements A and B (about
chordates) and choose the correct answer from the given
options:
Protochordates are exclusively marine and have
A:
notochord present only in larval tail.
In all vertebrates, notochord is replaced by a bony
B:
vertebral column in the adult.
1. Both statements A and B are correct
2. Both statements A and B are incorrect
3. Only statement A is correct
4. Only statement B is correct
Contact Number: 9667591930 /
8527521718
40 Read the given statements and select the correct
option
White blood cells are enucleated and are relatively
A: lesser in number which averages 6000-8000 mm-3 of
blood
Human heart is protected by a three walled
B:
membranous bag, pericardium
1. Both Statements A and B are correct
2. Both statements A and B are incorrect
3. Only Statement A is correct
4. Only statement B is correct
Chemistry - Section A
41 A solution of [Ni(H2O)6]2+ is green, but a solution
of [Ni(CN)4]2– is colorless because:
There are paired electrons in [Ni(H2O)6]2+ while all
1.
electrons are unpaired in [Ni(CN)4]2–
There are unpaired electrons in
2+
2. [Ni(H2O)6] while all electrons are paired
in [Ni(CN)4]2–
There are unpaired electrons
3.
in [Ni(H2O)6]2+ and [Ni(CN)4]2–
4. None of the above.
42 If 1/3rd of the total chlorine of the compound is
precipitated by adding AgNO3 to its aqueous solution,
then the most likely structure of CrCl3.6H2O is:
1. CrCl3.6H2O
2. [Cr(H2O)3Cl3](H2O)3
3. [CrCl2(H2O)4]Cl.2H2O
4. [CrCl.(H2O)5]Cl2.H2O
43 IUPAC name of [Pt(NH3)3(Br)(NO2)Cl]Cl is:
1. Triamminebromidochloridonitroplatinum(IV)Chloride
2. Triamminebromonitrocholoroplatinum(IV)Chloride
3. Triamminechlorobromonitroplatinum(IV)Chloride
4. Triamminenitrochlorobromoplatinum(IV)Chloride
Page: 6
 80 MCQ Test - 03 Contact Number: 9667591930 /
Dec 8527521718

44 The sum of the coordination number and oxidation 49 [Cr(NH3)6]3+ is paramagnetic ,while [Ni (CN)
2−
]
4

number of the metal M in the complex is diamagnetic because;

[M(en)2(C2O4)]Cl is: Electrons in the 3d orbitals remain unpaired in
1.
1. 9 2. 6
2−
[Ni (CN) ]
4

3. 7 4. 8 Electrons in the 3d orbitals remain unpaired in

2.
[Cr(NH3)6]3+
45 The denticity of EDTA is:
Electrons in the 3p orbitals remain unpaired in
1. Monodentate 2. Hexadentate 3.
[Cr(NH3)6]3+
3. Bidentate 4. Tridentate
Electrons in the 3p orbitals remain unpaired in
4.
46 The incorrect option among the following is:
2−
[Ni (CN) ]
4

[Co(NO2)(H2O)(en)2]Cl2,
1. Hydrate isomerism 50 The low spin complex among the following is -
[CoCl(NO2)(en)2]Cl·H2O
[Cu(NH3)4[PtCl4], 1. [Fe(CN)6]3-
2. Co-ordination isomerism
[CuCl(NH3)3][PtCl3(NH3)] 2. [Co(NO2)6]3-
[Ni(CN)(H2O)(NH3)4]Cl, 3. [Mn(CN)6]3-
3. Ionization isomerism
[NiCl(H2O)(NH3)4]CN 4. All of the above
[Cr(NO2)(NH3)5][ZnCl4],
4. Linkage isomerism 51 The complex ion among the following that cannot
[Cr(NO3)(NH3)5][ZnCl4]
absorb visible light is:
1. [Ni(CN)4]2-
47 Optical isomerism is exhibited by:
2. [Cr(NH3)6]3+
1. [Cr(Ox)3]3+ 2. [PtCl2(en)2]2+
3. [Fe(H2O)6]2+
3. [Cr(NH3)2Cl2en]+ 4. All of the above
4. [Ni(H2O)6]2+

48 The total possible co-ordination isomers for the

52 The complex among the following with the highest
following compounds are:
value of crystal field splitting energy is :
[Co (en) ][Cr(C2 O4 ) ] +3
3 3
1. [F e(H O) ] 2
6
[Cu(N H3 ) ][CuCl4 ]
4 3−

[N i(en) ][Co(N O2 ) ]
2. [Ru(CN ) 6
]
3 6
+2
1. 4, 4, 4 3. [F e(H 2 O)
6
]

2. 2, 2, 2 4. [F e(N H
3+

3 )6 ]
3. 2, 2, 4
4. 4, 2, 4
53 The electronic arrangement of an octahedral
complex with a d
4
configuration, if ∆0 < pairing energy
is:
1. t e 4
2g
0
g

2. e 4 0
t
g 2g

3. t 3
2g
1
eg

4. e 2 2
t
g 2g

Page: 7
 80 MCQ Test - 03 Contact Number: 9667591930 /
Dec 8527521718

54 The crystal field stabilization energy (CFSE) for 58 Match the catalysts given in Column I with the
[CoCl6]4 - is 18000 cm-1. The CFSE for [CoCl4]2- processes given in Column II.
will be ; Column I - (Catalyst) Column II - (Process)
1. 6000 cm −1 Ni in the presence of
A. 1. Contact process
2. 16000 cm −1 hydrogen
3. 18000 cm −1
B. Cu2Cl2 2. Vegetable oil to ghee
4. 8000 cm −1

C. V2O5 3. Sandmeyer reaction

D. Finely divided iron 4. Haber's process
Chemistry - Section B Decomposition of
5. KClO
3
55 A paramagnetic ion among the following, forms an
outer orbital complex is ;
2+
Codes
1. [N i(N H ) ]
3
6 A B C D
2+
2. [Zn(N H 3)
6
] 1. 3 4 2 5
3. [Cr(N H 3) ]
3+
2. 2 3 1 4
6
3+ 3. 5 4 3 2
4. [Co(N H 3) ]
6
4. 4 5 3 2
56 A metal ion present in vitamin B12 is ;
59 Match the following:
1. Fe(II)
2. Co(III) Ions Number of unpaired electrons
3. Zn(II) i. Mn3+ a. 2
4. Ca(II) ii. Cr3+ b. 4

57 The d-block elements that may not be regarded as iii. V3+ c. 1

transition elements are : iv. Ti3+ d. 3
Mn, Fe, Ni because these have partially filled d-
1.
subshell. i ii iii iv
Mn, Fe, Ni because these have completely filled d- 1. c d b a
2.
subshell. 2. b d a c
Zn, Cd, and Hg because these have completely filled 3. d b a c
3.
d-subshell.
4. b d c a
Zn, Cd, and Hg because these have partially filled d-
4.
subshell.
60 Which of the following ions displays the d-d
transition and paramagnetism?
1. CrO 2−

2. Cr O2
2−

3. MnO −

4. MnO 2−

Page: 8
 80 MCQ Test - 03 Contact Number: 9667591930 /
Dec 8527521718

Physics - Section A 65 A mass of 30 g is attached with two springs

having spring constant 100 N/m and 200 N/m and other
61 The relative velocity of two adjacent layers of ends of springs are attached to rigid walls as shown in
the given figure. The angular frequency of oscillation
a liquid is 6 cm/s and the perpendicular distance between
will be
layers is 0.1 mm. The velocity gradient for liquid (in per
second) is:
1. 6 2. 0.6
3. 0.06 4. 600

62 Three rods made of the same material, having the

same cross-sectional area but different lengths 10 cm, 20
1. 100
rad /s
cm and 30 cm are joined as shown. The temperature of 2π

the junction will be:- 2. 100

π
rad /s

3. 100 rad/s
4. 200π rad/s

66 Which one of the following statements is true?

1. Both light and sound waves in the air are transverse.
The sound waves in the air are longitudinal while the
2.
light waves are transverse.
Both light and sound waves in the air are
3.
longitudinal.
4. Both light and sound waves can travel in a vacuum.

67 The displacement of a particle is given by

sin(100t − 50x), where x is in metres
−4
y = 5 × 10

1. 10. 8°C and t is in seconds. The velocity of the wave is:

2. 14. 6°C 1. 5000 m/sec
3. 16. 4°C 2. 2 m/sec
4. 18. 2°C 3. 0.5 m/sec
4. 300 m/sec
63 An ideal gas is compressed to half its initial volume
68 If a wave is travelling in a positive X-direction with
by means of several processes. Which of the following
processes results in the maximum work being done on A = 0.2 m, velocity = 360 m/s, and λ = 60 m, then the
the gas? correct expression for the wave will be:
1. Adiabatic 1. y = 0.2 sin[2π (6t + )]
x

2. Isobaric
60

3. Isochoric 2. y = 0.2 sin[π (6t + )]

x

60
4. Isothermal
3. y = 0.2 sin[2π (6t − )]
x

64 The translatory kinetic energy of a gas per g is 60

4. y = 0.2 sin[π (6t − )]

x

1.
3
2.
RT 3 RT
60
2 N 2 M

3.
3
4.
3
RT N KT
2 2

Page: 9
 80 MCQ Test - 03 Contact Number: 9667591930 /
Dec 8527521718

69 The percentage increase in the speed of transverse 74 The rate of energy transfer in a wave depends:
waves produced in a stretched string if the tension is directly on the square of the wave amplitude and
increased by 4%, will be: 1.
square of the wave frequency
1. 1% directly on the square of the wave amplitude and
2. 2% 2.
square root of the wave frequency
3. 3%
directly on the wave frequency and square of the
4. 4% 3.
wave amplitude
70 The equation of a wave on a string of linear mass directly on the wave amplitude and square of the
4.
wave frequency
density 0.04 kg m-1 is given by:
y=0.02 (m) sin[2π (
t

0.04(s)
−
x

0.50(m)
. The tension in
)]
Physics - Section B
the string will be:
1. 4.0 N 75 The equation of a stationary wave is given as y = A
2. 12.5 N sin 0. 5πt cos(0. 2πx), where t is in seconds and x in
3. 0.5 N centimetres. Which of the following is correct?
4. 6.25 N 1. Wavelength of the component waves is 10 cm.
71 The speed of sound in a medium is v. If the density 2. The separation between a node and the nearest
antinode is 2.5 cm.
of the medium is doubled at constant pressure, what will
3. Frequency of the component wave is 0.25 Hz.
be the new speed of sound?
4. All of these
1. √2v
2. v
3.
v
76 A string is cut into three parts, having fundamental
√2
frequencies n1, n2, and n3 respectively. The original
4. 2 v
fundamental frequency "n" is related by the expression:
72 A transverse wave moves from a medium A to a 1. = + +
1 1 1 1

n n1 n2 n3

medium B. In medium A, the velocity of the transverse 2. n = n × n × n 1 2 3

wave is 500 ms and the wavelength is 5 m. The 3. n = n + n + n

−1
1 2
n1 +n2 +n3
3

frequency and the wavelength of the wave in medium B 4. n = 3

when its velocity is 600 ms , respectively are:

−1

1. 120 Hz and 5 m 2. 100 Hz and 5 m 77 A standing wave is represented by

3. 120 Hz and 6 m 4. 100 Hz and 6 m where Y and A are in
Y = A sin(100t) cos(0 .01 x)

millimetres, t is in seconds and x is in metres. The

73 Two waves represented by the following equations velocity of the wave is:
are travelling in the same medium, 1. 104 m/s
y = 5 sin 2π(75t − 0 .25 x),
1
2. 1 m/s
y2 = 10 sin 2π(150t − 0 .50 x)
3. 10–4 m/s
The intensity ratio I1/I2 of the two waves will be:
1. 1 : 2 4. Not derivable from the above data
2. 1 : 4
3. 1 : 8 78 A closed pipe and an open pipe have their first
4. 1 : 16 overtones identical in frequency. Their lengths are in the
ratio:
1. 1:2 2. 2:3
3. 3:4 4. 4:5

Page: 10
 80 MCQ Test - 03 Contact Number: 9667591930 /
Dec 8527521718

79 Two organ pipes closed at one end produce 5 beats

per second in fundamental mode. If the ratio of their
lengths is 10:11, then their frequencies (in Hz) are:
1. 55, 50 2. 105, 100
3. 75, 70 4. 100, 95

80 Two sitar strings, A and B, playing the note 'Ga,' are

slightly out of tune and produce 6 Hz beats. The tension
in the string A is slightly reduced, and the beat frequency
is found to be reduced to 3 Hz. If the original frequency
of A is 324 Hz, what is the frequency of B?
1. 316 Hz
2. 318 Hz
3. 319 Hz
4. 314 Hz

Fill OMR Sheet*

*If above link doesn't work, please go to test link from
where you got the pdf and fill OMR from there. After
filling the OMR, you would get answers and explanations
for the questions in the test.

CLICK HERE to get

FREE ACCESS for 2
days of ANY
NEETprep course

Page: 11