CWB Level 2 Study Modules 4-5-6-7-8!9!12!17!18-19-22 Flashcards - Quizlet - PDF (CWB 2)

2/17/2020 CWB Level 2 Study Modules 4-5-6-7-8-9-12-17-18-19-22 Flashcards | Quizlet
CWB Level 2 Study Modules 4-5-6-7-8-9-12-17-

18-19-22
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Terms in this set (474)
During arc welding there Heat Affect Zone (HAZ)

is a zone adjacent to the
weld metal that reaches
high temperatures but
https://quizlet.com/256983801/cwb-level-2-study-modules-4-5-6-7-8-9-12-17-18-19-22-flash-cards/ 1/129
does not melt. What is

the name of this region?
In parallel electrical C. the current flowing in each parallel path

circuits, the voltage depends on the resistance in each path
across each resistor is
the same since each path
is connected to the same
voltage source. Select
the correct statement.
A. in each parallel path
the resistance must be
equalized to create
equal voltage.
B. the current flowing in
each parallel path must
be the same as the
voltage.
C. the current flowing in
each parallel path
depends on the
resistance in each path
D. the current flowing in
each parallel path
depends on the
capacitance in each path
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Welding is a joining The application of either heat or pressure

process that by definition
requires:
The duty cycle of a A. a 300 amp/60% duty cycle machine is

welding power supply is rated to deliver 300 amps for 6 minutes in a
based upon delivering its ten minute period
rated output for a
given number of minutes.
Which of the following
statements is correct.
A. a 300 amp/60% duty
cycle machine is rated to
deliver 300 amps for 6
minutes in a ten minute
period
B. a 300 amp/30% duty
deliver 300 amps in a ten
minute period
C. a 250 amp/30% duty
deliver 250 amps for 30
minutes separated by 10
minutes at rest
D. a 300 amp/60% duty
deliver 500 amps
maximum for 6 minutes in
a ten minute period
Conventional B. convert alternating current into direct

transformer-rectifiers; current
A. convert direct current
into alternating current
B. convert alternating
current into direct
current
C. convert alternating
current into pulsed
current
D. convert direct current
into pulsed current
A conventional diode C. an SCR is non-conductive until turned

placed in a circuit allows on, allowing current to flow in one
the passage of current in direction only until the flow of current
one direction only. A stops
silicon controlled
rectifier(SCR) operates
slightly differently. How
does it work?
A. an SCR conducts
current in both directions
until turned on and
current flow is then
prevented
B. an SCR is non-
conductive until turned
onland then allows
current to flow in both
directions
C. an SCR is non-
conductive until turned
on, allowing current to
flow in one direction only
until the flow of current
stops
D. an SCR is a unique
rectifying device which
allows only alternating
c1:1rrent to flow until
turned off
What is the term for C. open circuit voltage
voltage measured across

the output terminals of a
welding
machine when no current
is being drawn?
A. diode voltage
B. operating voltage
C. open circuit voltage
D. terminal voltage
A 60% duty cycle means D. 6 minutes at rated output followed by 4

that the power supply minutes at rest
can deliver its rated
output for:
A 60% of the rated
output only
B. 60% over the rated
output followed by 4
minutes at rest
C. 6 minutes at rest
followed by 4 minutes at
rated output
D. 6 minutes at rated
output followed by 4
minutes at rest
The DC output of a C. a capacitor or capacitor bank is added

single phase power to the output circuit
supply can be "ripply"
and does not produce
the friendliest DC arc.
How is this problem
overcome?
A. single phase power
supplies produce the
smoothest DC of all
common machines
B. a third transformer is
added to the output
circuit to filter out
instability
C. a capacitor or
capacitor bank is added
to the output circuit
D. a 'dual' rectifier bridge
is used to filter the
transformer output
One of the simplest ways B. design the transformer with either a

of controlling the output moving core or moving primary coils
of a welding transformer
is to change
the efficiency of
coupling between the
primary and secondary
coils. How can this be
done?
A slide a piece of wood
between the primary and
the secondary coils
B. design the transformer
with either a moving core
or moving primary coils
C. design the transformer
with a number of taps to
select different output
curves
D. use the timed firing of
SCR's to control total
conduction time
When choosing between A. the process generally determines the

AC and DC output; type of current
A. the process generally
determines the type of
current
B. high current output
machines are always
both AC/DC
C. DC is generally used
for very high output
applications
D. most supplies are
equipped with constant
voltage/constant current
options
Which of the following C. copper

metals has the lowest
electrical resistivity?
A aluminum
B. tungsten
C. copper
D. iron
What is the purpose of B. to convert DC current to high frequency

an inverter? AC current
A. to convert AC current
to DC current of the
same frequency
B. to convert DC current
to high frequency AC
current
C. to convert AC current
to DC current
D. to convert electrode
positive to electrode
negative
How is power flow C. average current in an AC circuit is zero

analyzed in alternating and therefore no work is done
current circuits?
A. AC circuits can be
evaluated the same as
DC circuits when RMS
values of voltage
and current are used
B. when analysing AC
circuits, inductive and
capacitive reactance
must be included
C. average current in an
AC circuit is zero and
therefore no work is
done
D. the peaks and valleys
of sine wave curves
balance to zero with the
load
Which of the following D. taps on the secondary of the

methods is commonly transformer
used to control the
output of a transformer?
A. an auxiliary power
supply which feeds the
secondary as required
B. a saturable reactor in
series with the output

C. resistance placed in
parallel with the primary
of the transformer
D. taps on the secondary
of the transformer
A transformer type B. alternating current

welding power source
without a rectifier
outputs what type of
current?
A. direct current
B. alternating current
C. high frequency current
D. pulsed direct current
When gas tungsten arc B. electrode negative

welding steels electrode
polarity is most
commonly;
A. electrode positive
B. electrode negative
C. alternating current
D. electrode square wave
A disadvantage of SCR A. the output is smoothed out by the

control is that the output addition of capacitor
is very 'choppy'. How is
the output made more
suitable for welding?
A. the output is
smoothed out by the
addition of capacitors
B. the large inductor or

choke will be added to
the circuit
C. the output from an
SCR bridge is smooth
enough for welding
purposes
D. the diodes added to
all SCR controlled
machines to prevent
"choppy" output
Gas tungsten arc and B. outputs high voltage, low current to

plasma arc welding create and maintain a stable conductive
power sources are path for the flow of power
commonly designed with
high frequency units.
What does the high
frequency unit do?
A. increases heat input
due to the increased
frequency which
increases the total time
at high current flow
B. outputs high voltage,
low current to create and
maintain a stable
conductive path for the
flow of power
C. decreases the
cleaning action created
by electrode negative
polarity present in
alternating current arcs
D. outputs balanced
current flow between
electrode positive and

electrode negative
half cycles
Gases are not normally A. requires high voltage

electrically conductive.
To start an arc;
A. requires high voltage
B. requires high
inductance
'C. requires high current
D. requires AC power
What voltage is required A. 110 volts

to cause 5 amps of
current to flow through a
resistance of 22 ohms?
A. 110 volts
B. 0.22 volts
C. 4.4 volts
D. 5 volts
What type of output is E. constant current

usually required for Gas
Tungsten Arc Welding?
A. constant voltage
B. high frequency
C. low power factor
D. low duty cycle
E. constant current
In GTAW, the high C. high frequency systems output high

frequency unit increases voltage but only at low current flow
the incoming AC line
voltage to several
thousand volts. Select
the correct statement.
A. systems are limited to
less than 4,000 volts for
safety reasons
B. the spark gap needs to
be at least 75mm (3")
wide for the spark to
create the arc
C. high frequency
systems output high
voltage but only at low
current flow
D. high frequency
systems only work with
inverter based direct
current arcs
How is a thyrister or SCR B. by a signal called a "gate pulse"

(silicon controlled
rectifier) turned on?
A. by reversing current
through the junction
B. by a signal called a
"gate pulse"
C. SCR's must be
switched mechanically
D. by a capacitor linked
to a high frequency
generator
If a transformer C. a step-down transformer

secondary coil has fewer
turns than the primary
coil, it is described as;
A. an autotransformer
B. a step-up transformer
C. a step-down
transformer
D. a rectifying
transformer
Conventional D. convert high voltage alternating current

transformer-rectifiers; into low voltage, high frequency direct
A. convert high current
frequency current into
lower voltage output
B. convert alternating
current into direct
current at lower than line
voltage
C. convert low voltage
directcurrent into high
frequency alternating
current
D. convert high voltage
alternating current into
low voltage, high
frequency direct current
Name the two main Flux shielding and gas shielding.

methods of arc shielding.
In which direction do the Cathode to anode.

electrons flow in an
electrical arc? From

anode to cathode, or
cathode to anode?
In arc welding, the 30000°C

electric arc is intensely
hot with temperatures
exceeding:
Which arc welding Submerged arc welding. 90 top 95%.

process has the highest
arc efficiency? And what
is its
approximate value?
How do the arc voltage Arc voltage increases and arc stiffness
and arc stiffness change decreases.
when the arc length is
increased?
What is the generic name Tungsten electrode.

for the electrode used in
GTAW and does it melt to
provide filler metal for
the weld?
In the GTAW process Shallow penetration and a wide weld.

what type of penetration
and weld width can be
expected when using

D.C. electrode positive?
Which polarity is chosen Direct current electrode negative. More

most often for direct heat is produced at the workpiece leading
current GTAW welding of to
steels and why? deeper weld penetration.
Why must the shielding Presence of active gases like oxygen and
gas for GTAW be carbon dioxide will oxidize the tungsten
completely inert? electrode and limit its life.
State two advantages of It gives high quality deposits, and the

the GTAW process. process can be used to weld virtually all
metals
and alloys.
What does SMAW stand Shielded Metal Arc Welding

for?
Why is SMAW a very It provides great flexibility in terms of the

commonly used welding broad range of materials and their
process? thicknesses
that can be joined in all welding positions.
Constant voltage power False.

sources are preferred for
SMAW.True or false?
Why is care necessary in Improperly stored electrodes can pick up

proper storage and moisture leading to increased weld metal
handling of electrodes hydrogen content and therefore increased

for welding steels? risk of cold cracking in the weld zone.
Larger diameter False.

electrodes are preferred
for welding the root
passes in V grooves and
for out of position
welds.True or false?
Constant voltage power True.

sources is generally used
for GMAW. True or false?
Which metal transfer (a) Short circuiting mode, (b) Spray.

mode in GMAW would
be applied for welding
(a) cast iron, (b)
aluminum alloy?
Between 100% C02 and 95%Ar-5%C02

95%Ar-5%C02, which
shielding gas will you
chose to ensure spray
transfer in semi-
automatic welding of
carbon steel with ER49S-
6 wire?
State three advantages -High deposition rate,
of the GMAW process -greater percentage of arc time due to

over the SMAW process. infrequent electrode changing,
-more economical use of filler metal in the
absence of stub losses, .
Which welding More feed speed.

parameter is used most
reliably to ensure that a
welding procedure
developed with one
machine is accurately
duplicated on another
machine?
Welding equipment for True.

gas shielded flux cored
arc welding is essentially
the same as for gas metal
arc welding.
The most common gas 75% Argon/25% C02

used with gas shielded
flux cored arc welding is:
The percentage of the A)10-20%

electrode weight derived
from the coating in
lightly coated
electrodes is:
A)10-20%
b)20-35%
c)25-40%
d)up to 55%
When classifying c) Flux type (basic ,acid or rutile)

Stainless Steel SMAW
electrodes the last
number in the
designation (E316-16)
refers to the:
a) Position of welding
b) Alloy type
c) Flux type (basic ,acid
or rutile)
d) Core wire composition
E49XT-1 Electrodes are c) Welding with C02 shielding gas onl

designed for:
a)Vertical up welding
only
b) All positions except V-
down
c) Welding with C02
shielding gas only
d) Welding in the
overhead position with
electrodes 3.2 mm
(1/8")or larger
Rutile type flux cored d) DCEP and give a spray type arc
electrodes operate on:
a) DCEN and give a
globular type arc
b) DCEP and give a
globular type arc
c) DCEN and give a spray
type arc
d) DCEP and give a spray

type arc
Which of the following a) Argon

gases is required to
achieve spray transfer
when welding carbon
steels?
a) Argon
b) Carbon-dioxide
c) Helium
d) Nitrogen
For the ER49S-G d) are not required to meet specific

classification, the chemistry requirements
chemistry requirements
of the electrode:
a) are specified by the
welding supervisor
b) are specified in the
electrode standard
c) are specified by the
electrode manufacturer
d) are not required to
meet specific chemistry
requirements
Which of the following is a) protect the molten metal

an important function of
the electrode coating?
a) protect the molten
metal
b) add hydrogen to weld
metal
c) prevent slag removal
d) maintain electrode
temperature
e) decrease deposition
rate
Calcium carbonate is an c) basic electrodes

important ingredient in
which type of
electrodes?
a) cellulose electrodes
b) rutile electrodes
c) basic electrodes
d) oxide electrodes
Tungsten electrodes of a a) Maximum current carrying capability

given type and size
should be operated near
their:
a) Maximum current
carrying capability
b) Minimum current
carrying capacity
c) Midpoint current
carrying capacity
d) Widest range of
current carrying capacity
Shielded metal arc b) Non-critical applications

welding of aluminum
should be used for:
a) Critical applications
b) Non-critical
applications
c) Thick aluminum
applications
d) Thin aluminum
applications
In general, which GMAW d) pulsed-spray transfer

mode of transfer is NOT
suited for the welding of
thin sheet steel?
a) spray transfer
b) dip transfer
c) short-circuiting
transfer
d) pulsed-spray transfer
Toughness can be best c) the ability of a material to resist the

defined as: growth of a crack
a) a loss of ductility in the
through thickness
direction
b) the ability of a material
to permanently deform
without failure
c) the ability of a material
to resist the growth of a
crack
d) resistance of a metal
to plastic deformation
usually by indentation
CSA W59 recommends c) 120C

that basic electrodes
should be stored in a
holding oven at a
minimum temperature of:
a) 80C
b) 50C
c) 120C
d) 230C
e) 430C
E49XT-3 wires are a) No external shielding gas

classified with:
a) No external shielding
gas
b )High helium gases
c) High Ar based gases
d)100% of co2
Submerged arc welding b) Currents over 2000 amps

fluxes perform functions
similar to those used on
shielded
metal arc welding
electrodes however they
are designed to handle:
a) Lower amperage
ranges
b) Currents over 2000
amps
c) Higher extrusion
pressures
d) Only direct current
electrodes
When defining the c) Flat grooves and horizontal fillets only

position of capability for
FCAW stainless steel

electrodes a "O"
indicates the electrode
can be used for:
a) All position welding
b) Vertical down fillets
and grooves only
c) Flat grooves and
horizontal fillets only
d) Overhead fillets and
grooves only
Basic type flux cored b) DCEP and DCEN and are characterized
electrodes operate on: by globular transfer
a) DCEP only and give a
smooth spray type arc
b) DCEP and DCEN and
are characterized by
globular transfer
c) DCEN only and are
characterized by
globular transfer
d) DCEP only and give a
rough spray type arc
Which of the following is d) E4918-A1

considered to be a Low
Alloy Steel Electrode?
a) E4927
b) E4922
c) E4918
d) E4918-A1
e) E7018-R
The toughness of b) Oxygen

submerged arc welding
weldments is affected
when ____ is
present in the weld
a) Nitrogen
b) Oxygen
c) Aluminum
d) co2
Welds made with self- a) Gross porosity during solidification

shielded electrodes can
suffer from excessive
nitrogen absorption.
Excessive nitrogen in the
weld pool will result in:
a) Gross porosity during
solidification
b) Oxides that are
removed by the fluxing
action
c) No noticeable weld
deposit defects
d) Cracking in the centre
of the weld deposit
When welding aluminum b) Striking an arc on a copper block using

with the gas tungsten arc AC or DCEP polarity
process using a pure
tungsten electrode a ball
is formed on the end.
This is accomplished by:
a) Striking an arc on a
steel block using DCEP
polarity
b) Striking an arc on a
copper block using AC
or DCEP polarity
c) Striking an arc on the
aluminum using DCRP
d) Grinding a ball on the
end of the tungsten
Gas metal arc welding a) 5xxx

electrodes for welding
aluminum have a wider
range of alloys available
than shielded metal arc
welding. Which series of
alloys is available for gas
metal arc welding but
not available for shielded
metal arc welding?
a) 5xxx
b) 9xxx
c) 4xxx
d) 3xxx
Slag from shielded metal c) 5% nitric acid

arc welding electrodes
used to weld aluminum
can be corrosive if not
completely removed, In
some cases washing the
final weld with hot water
and will remove any
residual slag and reduce
corrosion
a) 5% silver nitrate
b) 10% sulphuric acid

c) 5% nitric acid
d) 15% hydrochloric acid
What does the third digit c) Position of welding

(E4918) in the
identification system of
covered electrodes
represent?
a) Weld deposit strength
b) Type of coating
c) Position of welding
d) Type of current
Which type of cored wire Self shielded flux cored wire.

is most suitable for open
air field work?
Gas shielded flux cored
wire?
Self shielded flux cored
arc wire?
Metal cored wire?
Gas shielded flux cored False.

wires with basic
ingredients in the core
are ideally suited for out
of position welding.
Which technique - drag Drag (backhand).

(backhand) or push
(forehand) - is used for
semi-automatic welding
with gas shielded flux

cored arc welding?
In the submerged arc False.

welding process,
granular flux is placed on
the unwelded seam
behind the consumable
electrode.
What is the effect of The deposition rate will increase, however,

change in polarity from the penetration is reduced and the risk of
DCEP to DCEN on a lack of fusion type flaws in groove welds is
submerged arc weld increased.
deposit?
State the greatest The main disadvantage is that the process

disadvantage of the is not suitable for out of position welding.
process?
State the greatest Greatest advantage is very high

advantage of the productivity possible due to high duty
submerged arc welding cycle (mechanized process) and high
process? deposition rate (multiple wires and high
currents).
Fused fluxes are prone to False.

moisture pick-up.
What are the effects of It increases the flux consumption and in

increasing the arc the case of active fluxes, the Mn and Si
voltage when using an content of the weld metal is increased.
active flux for
of carbon steels?
What is the source of Electrical resistance of the workpieces

heat in the resistance
welding process?
Which of arc welding GTAW

process( es) is (are) non-
consumable electrode
type?
The electron beam Narrow, deep penetrating weld and heat

welding process results affected zones
in:
In thermite welding, what Exothermic

is the name of the
reaction from which the
required heat and molten
metal is obtained?
In electroslag welding, Water

what is the usual cooling
medium used on the
copper shoes?
With a tungsten arc, most Electrons

of the current across the
arc is carried by:
The chief feature of an A very narrow weld and heat affected

electron beam weld is: zone
Which gases are used Argon and C02 and their mixtures in
with the GMAW process? various proportions
Which of the following GTAW

processes is a non-
consumable electrode
process?
Projection welding is a The current is localized by using a

resistance spot welding projection or embossment on the part to
process in which: be joined
Which of the following SAW

processes is not used in
the overhead position?
Witch of the following 5% C02 - 95% Ar

shielding gas (mixtures) is
suitable for spray transfer
when welding with 1.1 mm
diameter GMAW ER49S-
6 wire?
The deposition rate of Iron powder

some SMAW electrodes
is increased by including
which of the following in
the flux coating:
The electrode in flux Tubular wire containing flux or other

cored arc welding is: ingredients
What would be a typical 150 - 220 amperes

current range for a 4mm
(5/32") E4918 (E7018)
electrode:
In electric arc welding Efficiency

what is the proportion of
total energy that is
converted into heat that
eventually enters the
plate known as?
With manual welding the a) Weaving techniques

technique will influence
the energy input. Of the
following techniques,
which involves the higher
energy input?
a) Weaving techniques
b) Depositing stringer
beads
When GTA welding, a True

strong positive voltage is
applied to the tungsten
electrode because of its
high melting point.
To initiate an arc requires False

high current and low
voltage power.
How much current will 0.5 amps

flow through a resistance
of 200 ohms when 100
volts is applied?
A generator consists of True

rotating conductors in a
stationary magnetic field
and an alternator
consists of rotating
magnetic field inside the
conductor windings.
In a series circuit current True

may be accurately
measured at any point
because there is only a
single path for current to
flow.
Steep slope minimizes True

the change in current
due to changes in arc

length (constant current).
In some situations a
flatter slope is used to
provide some change in
current when arc length
changes - a common
preference when
manually welding pipe
joints.
What type of output constant current (CC)

current is usually
required for GTAW?
Constant current power True

supplies can be used,
both in DC and AC.
A constant voltage True

power supply is required
for GMAW process.
Motor-generators are True

bulky and heavy, have
many moving parts which
are prone to wear and
require frequent
maintenance.
What is the purpose of Converts DC current to high frequency AC

an inverter? current
When evaluating RMS values allow AC circuits to be

alternating current evaluated in an equivalent manner to DC
circuits, RMS values are circuits
used rather than peak
values.
Why?
Transformers designed True

for higher frequencies
require much less iron
core and windings than
those designed for low
frequencies.
The advantage of False

Inverter based power
sources is that the
circuitry is more
simplified than the
conventional power
source.
Which metal has the Copper

lowest resistivity
between aluminum,
tungsten, copper, iron ?
Welding cable length True

should be kept minimum
where possible. Because
there is a voltage drop

over the length of the
cable, it must be
compensated in order to
maintain the correct
welding voltage.
Choose the correct (1) is CC power source and

statement to match the (2) is CV power source
welding power
characteristics between
(1) is CV power source,
(2) is CC power source,
(1) is CC power source
and (2) is CV power
source
How much current will 0.5 amps

flow through a resistance
of 50 ohms when 25 volts
is applied?
Inductance is a property The higher the frequency, the stronger the

of a circuit just as induced magnetic field
resistance is a property.
Changing current flow
through a circuit creates
an "induced" magnetic
field. What effect does
the frequency of AC
current have on the
strength of the Induced
magnetic field?
From the following, a) Wrought iron

select the ferrous metals; d) Carbon steel
Wrought iron, Copper, e) Stainless steel
Aluminum, Carbon steel,
Stainless steel
What is taconite? Iron ore
"Limestone is a fluxing True

agent that removes
impurities to form a slag.
True or false?
In the basic oxygen The chemical nature of the refractory lining

furnace what does the of the furnace
term "basic" refer to: The
chemical nature of the
molten steel, The
chemical nature of the
refractory lining of the
furnace, The chemical
nature of the steel after
pouring
In the electric furnace, An arc between carbon electrodes and the

what provides the heat to metal
melt the metal charge?
What are the advantages Less segregation, less rolling required, less
of continuous casting cost
over ingot casting?
When making semi-killed b) Silicon

steel what is the usual
deoxidizing material
which is added to the
melt Magnesium, Silicon,
Aluminum Manganese
"Alloy steels and steels True

with greater than 0.3%
carbon are fully killed."
True or false?
"Metals have a crystalline False

structure in which the
atoms are arranged in an
irregular pattern."True or
false?
Ferrite, austenite, and Phases

cementite are known as:
Which is the harder- martensite

martensite or fine
pearlite?
Complete the following Ferrite

sentence-
If a steel Is being heat
treated to produce
maximum hardness, it
must be heated prior to
quenching at a
temperature sufficient to
remove any .......... present.
Martensite is extremely Yes

brittle. Can martensite be
tempered to enhance its
toughness?
When steel is normalized In air

how is the steel cooled?
What are the three major Carbon Steel, low alloy steel, alloy steel.
groups of steels?
Chromium has an effect Corrosion resistance

on hardenabillty, what
other major property
does It affect?
In the SAE and AISI Carbon steel with 0.20% carbon

system of steel
classification what does
the designation 1020
signify?
Section IX of the ASME P1

code has adopted P
number groupings. For
the purpose of
welding procedure
qualification, what is the
P number for carbon
steels ?
Which of the following A516-A533

ASTM specifications are
for pressure vessel
steels?
In steels, a small grain Increase the strength and toughness

size will:
Which of the following Basic oxygen furnace

processes produces
most of the world's
steel?
At what point does the Beyond 1.7%

carbon content indicate
that the material is no
longer steel but cast
iron?
One of the causes of hot high sulphur

shortness is steel is the
presence of:
What are Rimmed steels? have a layer of pure Iron on the surface
What is the typical stress 625*C

relief temperature
specified for welded
steel fabrication?
The elements in alloy Carbides

tool steels can fonn small
hard particles which
provide wear
resistance and limit
tempering. What Is the
name of the particles?
The plates for pressure Around the circumference

vessel are usually formed
with the direction:
What Is the usual charge Completely scrap

In an electric furnace?
To what types of steel is Free machining steels

sulphur along with lead
deliberately added?
Considering that True

increasing the heat input
will reduce the cooling
rate, is the following
statement true or false?
"For thick plates, the
cooling rate is inversely
proportional to the heat

input."
In the metal adjacent to The peak temperature reached

the weld pool certain
metallurgical changes
will occur.
What is the condition
which will determine
what metallurgical
changes will occur?
Complete the following Austenitic grains

statement -
"Regions that are close to
the fusion boundary can
experience temperatures
sufficiently high enough
that growth of the
....................... occurs."
"One feature of False

hydrogen cracking is that
it only occurs when the
weld and heat
affected zone are at high
temperatures. "True of
False?
Which of the illustrations a)

shows poor ductility?
"Hydrogen will not cause True

cracking in a weld unless
there is stress present."
True or false?
Complete the following Martensitic structure

statement -
"In the heat affected
zone of a carbon steel
weld fast cooling rates
will
form a hard
............................................ "
Which of the following Carbon and low alloy steels with a carbon
types of steel is the least content of about 0.10% or less
susceptible to hydrogen
cracking in normal
circumstances:
-Most carbon and steels
used for structural,
-carbon manganese
steels used for structural
and pressure vessel
applications,
-Carbon and low alloy
steels with a carbon
content of about 0.10% or
less, Alloyed steels with
more than 0.10% carbon
"Solidified weld metal False
will have a microstructure

the same as that of the
parent material (plate)."
True or false?
Complete the following Dilution

statement -
"The proportion of
parent metal melted into
the weld is known as the
....... "
In submerged arc
welding, what are fluxes
with a low potential for
transferring often called?
What effect does the It is likely to be lower

presence of large
quantities of oxides have
on the Charpy Vnotch
impact energy?
What type of weld pool A long weld pool

does high welding speed
produce?
Centreline solidification Welding too fast

cracking is most likely
caused by:
When a carbon steel No
weldment is stress
relieved at 625°C are
there any major changes
in the microstructure?
What is the full Controlled Thermal Severity

description of CTS ?
A large ASTM grain size A fine grain

number indicates:
What type of groove A sloping straight Y groove

preparation does the
Tekken test use?
What is the main reason To allow time for hydrogen diffusion after
for preheating a plate? the weld is made
"The risk of cracking from 3%

sulphur is even greater if
the weld metal contains
more than about.
...................... of nickel."
An electric arc converts 7500 joules per second

electrical energy into
heat and light at a
specific rate. At what rate
and light produced from
an arc of 300 amps with
an arc voltage of 25
volts?
If a hard microstructure is The amount of hydrogen

formed in the HAZ, what
is the only remaining
factor than can be
controlled to prevent
cracking?
"At about ..................... 150°C - 20°c

hydrogen will have NO
embrittling effect."
For steel, at which Exceeding 723°C

temperature is there a
partial transformation to
austenite?
What type of cracking Solidification cracking along the centreline

may be caused by
excessive welding
speeds?
Why would a multipass because the heat from one pass refines the
weld normally be grains of the previous pass
tougher than a single
pass weld?
Complete the following Stress

sentence -
When a metal is
subjected to load it will

be resisted by internal
forces within the metal.
The intensity of these
forces through a given
plane is known as
................................. ".
Select the three ways in Tension, Compression, Shear

which a load can act on a
cross-sectional area in a
body; Perpendicular,
Tension, Angular,
Compression, Heliaxial,
Shear
"Strain is the extension True

divided by the original
length. "True or false?
The Modulus of Elasticity, 207 000 MPa

"E", for steel is usually
taken as -
If a plot of stress against Elastic limit

strain is made for a bar
that undergoes plastic
deformation, the stress at
which a permanent set is
first recorded when the
bar is unloaded is
known as -
"Stress is the load True

divided by the original
cross-sectional area."
True or false?
Complete the following Mechanical and hydraulic

statement -
"To carry out tensile tests,
special machines are
needed in order to exert
the necessary force. They
are generally of two
types ; ...................... and
............................... ."
Complete the following Extensometer

sentence -
"If it is desired to
measure the strain during
a test, an .............. .is
placed on the
specimen."
Name the three types of Face bend, root bend, side bend
guided bend tests.
Complete the following 3

statement -
"After bending, the welds
are examined for flaws or
cracks. It is a condition of
almost all codes that the
specimens shall be
considered to have failed
if, on examination of the
convex surface after
bending, there is a crack
or open defect
exceeding .............. mm in
length measured in any
direction.•
What is the purpose of a To reveal internal weld defects

nick break test?
Answer yes or no - Yes

Does a hardness test give
any indication of whether
the material is readily
weldable?
Name the three types of Brinell, Vickers, Rockwell

hardness testing
machines.
Most hardness testing The rebound velocity of a tungsten

machines use the carbide hammer is measured electronically
indentation test where a and converted to a hardness value.
penetrator of a given
material, shape and size
is forced into the surface
of the material being
tested by a given load.
However, one of the
machines uses the
principle of a bouncing
hammer.
How does this hardness
tester work?
In the Rockwell C Scale 150 kg

what is the major load
which is used?
Complete the following Lighter

statement -
"It is essential that there
be no friction in the
loading system of the
machine or a
............ .load will result."
When making a hardness Ten times the depth of the impression

test the thickness of the
specimen is very
important. As a rule, the
thickness should be -
Complete the following Charpy Impact test

sentence -
"The most common
toughness test is the
.................... in which a
notched specimen is
broken by a swinging
pendulum and the
amount of energy
required to break the

specimen is recorded."
"If the fractured ends of True

an impact test specimen
are examined, it is seen
that brittle specimens
breaking with low energy
have a flat crystalline
fracture showing many
shiny facets." True or
false?
"The drop weight test is a True

test for the toughness of
the steel and is not used
for measuring toughness
of weld metal or the heat
affected zone." True or
false?
Complete the following Fracture Mechanic

statement -
"Attempts to relate the
size of cracks, material
toughness, and the stress
to cause fracture have
evolved into the science
of ....................... ."
When hydrostatic testing One and one half times the maximum
a pressure vessel or pipe, working pressure
failing special instruction,
it is usual to test at a
pressure of -
What is the approximate 10 mm
diameter of the tensile
specimen most often
used for all-weld metal
tests?
High hardness values on High strength and low ductility

steel can generally be
related to:
The nil-ductility transition the maximum temperature at which the

temperature determined specimen breaks
from a drop weight test
refers to:
When a 30 m long steel 75mm

cable supports an axial
load, there is a strain of
0.25%, The
elongation of the cable
with the load is:
The module of elasticity 207 000 MPa

(E) of steel is:
Impact tests measure the: energy required to break a specimen
A guided root bend test lack of penetration of fusion
on a weld would best

reveal:
Charpy test values: are used for qualification and quality

control checks
A steel bar of square 85.2 MPa

cross-section, 50 mm x
50 mm is subjected to a
load of 213 kN.
What is the tensile stress
in the bar?
When conducting a because a fast loading rate might increase

tensile test the rate of the yield stress
loading up to the yield
point is usually limited to
some maximum value.
Why?
Complete the following: BCC

Chromium stabilizes the
___ form of iron
Complete the following: FCC

Nickel stabilizes the ____
form of iron
If a straight chromium Remain as ferrite

steel of 18% Cr and < 0.1
% C is heated to 1000°C
will it transform to
austenite or remain as
ferrite?
What is the predominant Austenite

structure of an 18% Cr, 8%
Ni steel at room
temperature?
The chromium content of no

a stainless steel is 20%. Is
it likely this is a
martensitic grade?
What does the letter L Low carbon (maximum 0.03%)

signify in the designation
316L?
A 14% Cr martensitic steel martensite

heated to 1000°c and air
cooled produces
Determine the minimum 0.3% Ti

specified titanium
content of a type 409
ferritic stainless steel
with 0.05% carbon.
Does an austenitic Greater

stainless steel have a
greater or lesser work
hardening rate than
carbon steel?
A carbon steel 600*C

component operates
satisfactorily at 500°C
under a stress of 50MPa.
If 304 stainless were
substituted, up to what
level could the
temperature be raised?
100% C02 is not generally True

used for GMAW of
stainless steels" True or
false?
The loss of corrosion sensitization

resistance due to carbide
formation and chromium
depletion is known as-
What maximum carbon 0.03%

level is usually specified
to ensure freedom from
sensitization during
welding?
The presence of residual ferrite

delta ferrite in the weld
metal indicates that
primary
solidification was....
A method of controlling to ensure there is a small amount of

weld metal fissuring is residual delta ferrite in the weld metal
Use the Delong diagram 5 FN

to estimate the ferrite
number of a weld metal
with
composition: 13.3%Ni;
20.1%Cr; 0.03%C; 0.6%Si;
1%Mn; 0.01%N.
A stainless steel deposit 18 Ni equivalent; 35 Cr equivalent.

is made on mild steel (
0.2%C, 1%Mn) with 50%
dilution.
What should the Ni and
Cr equivalents of the
electrode be to avoid
formation of
martensite in the
deposit?
"Welds in austenitic False

stainless steels are
always preheated to
prevent hydrogen
induced cracking" True or
false
When a two layer overlay E309

of stainless on carbon
steel is made it is
common practice to use
E308 for the second

layer and E for the first
layer.
Weld metal containing Suffer embrittlement due to sigma

large amounts of ferrite formation
and exposed to high
temperature service may:
Preheat is usually To prevent cracking

required for welding
martensitic stainless
steels:
Why would 650°C be a To avoid temper embrittlement

better temperature to
specify for a PWHT of a
welded martensitic
stainless steel than
550°C?
"Ferritic stainless steels False

are very tolerant of
contamination during
welding because of their
very high ductility" :
Which of the following EXXX-15, EXXX-16

electrode classifications
might be stainless steel
electrodes? EXXX-27,
EXXX-15, EXXX-10, EXXX-
16
"Conventional flame True

cutting with oxy-
acetylene cannot be
used with stainless
steels"True or false?
Which actions might -use aluminum oxide grinding wheels

reduce the risk of carbon reserved for stainless steel
contamination in welding -carefully clean off grease and dirt before
stainless steels? welding
-use C02 for back shielding the weld
If a buttering technique is E309

used to weld 304
stainless to mild steel
what should be used for
the butter layer?
If a clad plate is welded Three

estimate the approximate
number of layers of
stainless weld metal
needed to meet a
specified maximum
carbon of 0.03% in the
final layer. Assume the
electrode has 0.02% C,
the carbon steel has 0.2%
C, and dilution for each
pass is 30%.
The presence of BCC
chromium in iron
stabilizes which crystal
structure?
A straight chromium steel Remain ferritic

with <0.1 % carbon and
18% chromium when
heated to 1000°C will-
Stabilized austenitic They contain elements such as niobium

stainless steels such as (columbium) that tie up the carbon
347 do not become
sensitized in welding
because-
If a plate of austenitic A greater spring-back than a comparable

stainless steel is cold plate of carbon steel
formed it experiences-
Weld decay is caused chromium depletion at the grain

by- boundaries due to carbide precipitation
There is an increased risk the primary solid to form on solidification

of weld metal fissuring is austenite
when-
On the Delong diagram the ferrite number

the amount of ferrite is
indicated by-
Which of the following is E48018 (mild steel) weld metal deposited
likely to result in cracking over E308 weld metal

due to martensite
formation?
Which of the following GMAWwith C02 shielding

processes would not be
recommended for
welding type
304 stainless steel?
An unstabilized stainless solution treatment at 1100°C followed by a

steel with 0.15% carbon rapid cool
has been welded. What
heat
treatment could be
applied to prevent weld
decay in service?
"X-rays are a type of False

electromagnetic wave
but y rays are beams of
tiny charged
particles." True or false?
List three disadvantages Bulky equipment, special safety

of radiography over precautions, some defects not reliably
other inspection detected
methods.
The effect of ...

increasing the
voltage (kV) in an
X-ray machine is
to....
Do y rays generally have Greater

a greater or lesser ability
to penetrate thick steel
than X-rays?
List three disadvantages -Radiation emitted continuously

of y ray over X-ray -Radiation hazard
radiography. -Penetrating power cannot be adjusted
Equipment comparatively fragile
-Radioisotope decays In activity requiring
replacement
-Radiographic contrast generally Electrical
hazard from high less than X-ray
For a given intensity of X- Thickness and type of material

rays striking a specimen,
what are the two main
factors that affect the
intensity that emerges
from the specimen to
strike the film?
Which of the following a) A low energy level with an adequately

conditions gives the long exposure time
better image contrast?
a) A low energy level
with an adequately long
exposure time
b) A high energy level
with a shorter exposure
time
Place the following in Welding slag, steel, tungsten

order of increasing
absorption of X-rays:
Steel-Tungsten-Welding
slag
"The only thing that False, fuzziness Is also caused by inherent

causes fuzziness at the unsharpness and scattering
edge of an image ts
geometric unsharpness.''
List the three dimensions Source size, F; object-to-source distance,

that affect geometrical d:t. thickness, t
unsharpness and the
relation among them.
What is the simplest way Increase the obJect (plate)-to-source

of reducing the distance
geometrical unsharpness
for a given plate and X-
ray machine?
''The purpose of the IOI False

Is to verify that all
defects greater than 2%
of the plate thickness
have been detected."
According to CSA W59- Outine of the IQI and the 2T hole

89 what features of the
IQI image must be
clearly distinguished on
the radiograph when
using X-ray?
If it is not possible to a) Place the IQI on the film side but reduce
place the IQI on the the IOI by one size
source side of the
specimen, what can be
done?
a) Place the IQI on the
film side but reduce the
IOI by one size
b) Place the IQI on the
film side and use the
same IQI size as you
would on the
source side
c) Nothing, you cannot
take a radiograph unless
the IQI Is on the source
side
Some dark crack-like Scratches or cracks Jn the lead Intensifying

Indications appear on a screens.
radiograph. If they are
not due to cracks
in the actual specimen
what else could they
result from?
What is the specified 1.5 to 3.5

range of density of a
radiograph according to
CSA W59-89?
"Since radiography Is a False

volumetric method the
condition of the surface
Is not an
Important factor."
How would you Spatter appears white or fight and may

distinguish spatter from cover the base metal as well as the weld.
porosity on a Porosity is normally confined ro the weld
radiograph? metal and appears dark
"Radiography is not True

recommended by CSA
W59 for fillet welds."
Which of the following a) A crack

defects could most likely
be missed by
radiography:
a) A crack
b) Porosity
c) Slag inclusions
"According to CSA W59- False

M 1989 all backing bars
must be removed prtor
to radiography."
Give two reasons why There may not be access to the Inside; It
the source Is not always may not be possibfe to get ade at source-
placed inside cylinders to-film clstance Inside
or pipes when
radiographing welds.
How may shots would be Four

required to radiograph a
splice weld In a
rectangular hollow
structural section where
there Is no access to the
inside?
"Good visual Inspection True

should always be used in
conjunction with
radiography.
What is the 48 hours

recommended delay
after welding before
doing radiography on
high restraint joints
(according to CSA W59-
M1989)?
If a product is to be So that borderline indicatlons are not

stress relieved why is it Interpreted differently before and after
important to use exactly stress relief
the same procedure for
radiography after stress
relief as is used before?
When doing spot b) 100 mm

radiography according to
CSA W59-M1989 what

minimum length of weld
must each spot show?
a) 50 mm
b) 100 mm
c) 200 mm
What do the letters Canadian General Standards Board

CGSB stand for?
List some of the Items Some would be: a sketch, governing

you would look for when standard, equipment, type of source,
checking over a geometric arrangement, source-to-film
procedure for distance, type of film and processing
radiography.
A radlograph of a groove No
weld in a 25.4 mm thick
dynamically loaded
tension member shows
two 6 mm pores with 50
mm between the edges
of the pores along the
length of the weld. Is this
acceptable to CSA W59-
M1989?
Which organization in Atomic Energy Control Board

Canada controls the use
of gamma ray devices?
The emission of y rays True

from a radioactive
Isotope cannot be
switched off, the source
can only be retracted
into a shielding
container?
If 1 000 rays strike a 10

shielding plate that is
twice the TVL thick, how
many rays emerge the
other side?
If point B is 4 times as far 16 times lower

from a radiation source
as point A, how much
lower will the intensity of
radiation be 11t point B
than point A?
What Is the S.I. Slevert (Sv)

equivalent unit to rem?
How would you shorten Increase the voltage on the machine

the wavelength of X-rays (measured in kV)
emitted by an X-ray
machine?
How do 'Y rays compare Y rays have greater penetrating ability but
with X-rays when applied generally give poorer contrast
to radiography of welds?
Which of the following c) Most welding slags

has the least absorption
for X-rays?
a) Mild steel weld metal
b) Lead
c) Most welding slags
d) Tungsten
e) Low alloy steel plate
Given a source size of 4 0.113 mm

mm, a weld thickness of
25.4 mm, and a plate-to-
source
distance of 900 mm,
what Is the geometrical
unsharpness?
What range of density 1.5 to 3.5

should a radiograph have
according to CSA W59-
M1989?
How large is the hole in 2T (where Tis the thickness of the IOI)
the IOI that must be
clearly distinguished on
an X-ray according to
CSA W59-M1989?
A dark narrow area 2-3 Undercut

mm wide appears on a
radiograph all the way

along the edge of the
area representing the
weld. The joint was a 60°
double Vee groove. What
does this dark area most
likely represent?
CSA W59-M1989 does True

not require backing bars
to be removed but a
badly fitted backing bar
could intertere with
Interpretation of the
radiograph
What is the minimum 100 mm

length of weld that each
spot must show when
doing spot
radiography to CSA W59-
M 1989?
What device is now Thermoluminescent dosimeter (TLD)

commonly used for
measuring the personal
radiation dose of
radiographic workers?
Approximately what Is b) 15 kHz

the upper Dmit of human
hearing?
a) 15 Hz
b) 15 kHz
c) 15 MHz
What Is a typical b) 2.25 kHz

frequency of ultrasonic
testing of welds?
a) 2.25 MHz
b) 2.25 kHz
c) 2.25 Hz
If an ultrasonic wave In a 4.5 MHz

block of steel has a
wavelength of 1.3 mm
and travels at a velocity
of 5.85x10' m's, calcuiate
the frequency.
Do transverse waves In a Slower

solid travel faster or
slower than longltudlnal
waves?
The energy earned by a True

wave Is proportional to
the square of the
amplitude.
tf the amplitude of a 12dB

wave Is reduced to 25%
what is the
corresponding drop In
dB?
The decrease In energy c) attenuation

of an ulraaonic wave as It
travels through a material
is known
as- .
a) amplitude
b) amplification
c) attenuation
Plezoeleotrlc crystals c) do both a) and b)

can-
a) change mechanical
pulsn Into etectrfcal
pulses
b) change electrtcal
pulses Into mechanlcaf
pulses
c) do both a) and b)
What detennfnes the b) The transducer thickness.

natural frequency of a
given plezoetetrtc
transducer?
a) The amplitude of the
voltage appled.
b) The transducer
thickness.
c) The frequency Is set by
the material being
inspected and cannot be
changed.
Name one plezoelectric Quartz, lithium sulphate.

material.
In conventional b) a short pulse containing several

ultrasonicS the wave Is oaclllatlons at the natUraJ frequency
lnjeeted Into the
specimen as:
a) a contlntJoua wave at
the natural frequency of
the transducer
b) a short pulse
containing several
oaclllatlons at the
natUraJ frequency
Why Is good aoousuc Ultrasonic waves ot the frequency used in

contact between the Inspection do not travel far In air, so good
transdueer anct the test coupling between the transducer and the
specimen needed? specimen is needed
A couplant Is only False

needed If the IUCface Is
rough.
tn A-scan display the a) the ampltude of the reflected wave

vertical dl9P1acement of
the trace represents:
a) the ampltude of the
reflected wave
b) the size of the
reflector
c) distance
In A-scan display the c) distance

horizontal displacement
of the trace is calibrated
to represent:
a) the ampolitude of the
reflected wave
b) the size of the
reflector
c) distance
In what units is the gain dB (decibels)

control (or attenuator)
marked?
What type.of display give B-scan

a cross-sectional view
showing length and
depth of discontinuities?
Give an example wheni On-line examnation of plate for defects

the entire specimen Is such as laminations in a steel mill
Immersed In water which
acts as the couplant.
Acoustic emission rellies True

on detecting very small
amounts mechanical
energy released from
such things as growing
cracks or
structural discontinuities
under load.
In which dlrectlon do the In the same directlon as the direction of

partleles vibrate in a wave propagation
longitudinal wave?
Why does an ultrasonic The velocity is different in the two materials

wave get refraded when
It travels from a plastic
probe unit Into a steel
specimen?
If an incident beam Transverse waves

produces both a
refraded longitidunal and
a refracted transverse
wave which one has the
smaller angle of
refraction?
What type (mode) of Transverse waves

waves is procllced by an
angle probe?
The a6iltyto detect smaU a) lncreastng the frequency

reflectors (sensftlvtty) Is
Increased by:
a) lncreastng the
frequency
b} decreasing the
frequency
c) Is not related to
frequency
The ability of an ulrasonlc b) resolution

test system to distinguish
closely spaced reflectors
Is known
as:
a) senssitivity
b) resolution
o) attenuation
Beam spread Is reduced True

by having a small ratio of
wavelength to transducer
size.
The plate and weld False

surface must always be
ground smooth prior to
ultrasonic examination.
Why should most To Identify plate defects such as

ultrasonic examinations laminations that could interfere with
of welds begin with a examination of the weld with an angle
search of the plate with a probe
normal probe?
When using an angle c) To examine parts of the weld that cannot

probe, when would It be be accessed by the beam directly.
necessary to bounce the
beam ·o11 ·the
baekwatl?
a) The beam cannot
bounce off the back wall
b) This tech~e should not
be used.
c) To examine parts of
the weld that cannot be
accessed by the beam
directly.
Difficulties with UT can True

arise when welds have
backing bars due to
reflectlons from
corners, internal
reflection in the bars, etc.
Which of the following b) Austenltlc statntess steel.

rmaterials requires
special techniques for UT
examination?
a) Carbon steel used in a
pressure vessel.
b) Austenltlc statntess
steel.
c) Structural steel for
bridges.
The transducer in the False, two separate probes could be used

probe always acts as the as the transmitter and receiver
transmitter and the
receiver of the
ultrasonic pulse."
When working to CSA CGSB 48-GP-7M

W59-M1989 to what must
the ultrasonic operator
be certified?
What is lhe term used to Horizontal linearity

describe the degree to
which the distance
measured on lhe screen
is proportional to the
sound path distance in
the specimen?
What two features of an Exit point (index polnt) and angle

angle probe can be
calibrated or checked
using the llW block?
Distance calbration using b) on the other edge to reflect off the

an llW block for a normal curved end
(longitidunal mode)
probe requires the probe
to be placed;
a) on the top of the block
such that the beam
reflects from the 1.5 mm
hole
b) on the other edge to
reflect off the curved
end
o) on the side to reflect
off the back wall
For the transverse mode 1.5 mm side hole

what reflector in the IIW
block is used to calibrate
sensitivity according to
CSA W59-1989?
Resolution cannot be False

checked because it is a
function of the design of
the equipment.
What is a DAC curve? Distance amplitude correction curve. It is

used to correct for the effects of
attenuation
How is it possible to c) By scanning from adjacent to the wefd

inspect most of a weld moving in and out and along the weld.
using an angle probe?
a) By using a very large
probe.
b) By placing the probe
on the weld
reinforcement
c) By scanning from
adjacent to the wefd
moving in and out and
along the weld.
When determining the From the screen if the horizontal sweep is

tocatlon of a reflector properly calibrated
how is the sound path
distance measured?
How would you expect c) It would not vary significantly.

the ampltude of the wave
reflected from a
spherical pore to vary as

the direction of approach
of the beam is changed?
a) It would rise to a
maximum then decrease.
b) It would rise to a peak
only If the probe were
moved In the plane of
the plate.
c) It would not vary
significantly.
Which of the following Lack-of-fusion and cracks

would be considered
planar discontinuities:
porosity, lack-of-fusion,
cracks, suck-back, hollow
beads, thin slag Ines?
The method for c) measuring between the two polnts

measuring the where the amplitude drops to 50% if its
charactiristic length of a maximum valve
reflector according to
CSA W59·1989 Involves:
a) measuring between
the two locatlons where
the amplitude reaches a
peak
b) measuring between
the two points where the
indication has
desappeared.
c) measuring between
the two polnts where the
amplitude drops to 50%
if its
maximum valve
Would you expect the No. The maximum amplitude method

maximum amplitude requires the peak reflections to occur from
method to be an the lips of the discontlnuity. This is not likely
effective way to if the beam stitkes normal to the plane of
determine the size of a the discontinuity.
plate lamination using a
normal probe?
In most codes and False

standards the
acceptance or rejecton
of a discontinuity is
based on whether it is
shown that it will cause
failure.
When using the CSA a) By assuming a loss of 1 dB per 12. 7 mm

WS9-M1989 procedure of sound path greater than 25.4 mm.
how is the effect of
attenuation taken into
account?
a) By assuming a loss of 1
dB per 12. 7 mm of sound
path greater than 25.4
mm.
b) By determining the
DAC curve.
c) Attenuation is
neglected
The indication rating (dB) False

is a measure of the size
of the defect.
Would a reflector with an No

indication rating of 8 dB
and 30 mm long found in
a 20 mm
thick weld with a 70°
probe be acceptable for
a staticaly loaded
structure according to
CSA W59-M1989?
When following ASME Yes

procedure, does the size
of the side hole used for
setting the reference
level, depend on weld
thickness?
Is a DAC curve required Yes

for ASME procedures?
For imperfections c) Unacceptable regardless of length.

interpreted as lack of
fusion, what is the
maximum acceptable
length
according to ASME
Section VI.II Div. 1?
a) 20 mm
b) 1/3T (T la weld
thickness).
c) Unacceptable
regardless of length.
Chromium stabirizes the BCC

________ form of iron
Nickel stabTiizes the FCC

________ form of iron
The property of liquids b) Surface tension

that makes them try to
reduce their surface area
is known as:
a) Capillary action
b) Surface tension
c) Viscosity
The ability of a liquid to True

wet a solid surface can
be measured in terms of
the contact
angle.
The phenomenon by a) Capillary action

which water rises up a
narrow tube or by which
a liquid can
penetrate a crack is
known as:
a) Capillary action
b) Surface tension
c) Viscosity
How must a fluorescent Under black light

dye be viewed?
Which of the following a) Post-emulsifiable

penetrants require c) Post-remover
treatment with a separate
agent before the
excess can be removed?
a) Post-emulsifiable
b) Water-washable
c) Post-remover
d) Solvent-removable
What type of developer Nonaqueous

is normally used with the
solvent-removal process
for spot
checking of welds?
The fluorescent True

postemulsified penetrant
process is often
recommended for high
sensitivity applications
such as detection of
fatigue cracks.
Does the Liquld Yes

penetrant process work
on stainless steel and

aluminum?
Give one way in which a Use a comparator block
change to a liquid
penetrant procedure
could be qualified.
When using liquid False. Grinding can flow the surface and
penetrant inspection, the conceal defects .
surface must be ground
smooth to remove all
irregularities before
applying the penetrant.
According to ASTM E- a) 12 to 52C (60 to 125F)

165, the surface
temperature for liquid
penetrant inspection
should not be outside
the range:
a) 12 to 52C (60 to 125F)
b) 21 to 24C (70 to 75F)
c) -18 to 38C (0 to 100F)
When using the solvent- It may leach penetrant out of

removable method why discontinuities
should the solvent not be
sprayed directly on the
all surface to remove
excess penetrant?
When using post- True

emulsiflable penetrants,
the emulsifier must

remain in contact with
the surface long enough
to mix with the excess
penetrant but not long
enough to reach
penetrant in the
discontinuities.
What could be the effect It could mask indications

of spraying on too much
developer?
What is the difference False Indications are not associated with

between a false discontinuities, nonrefevant indications are
indication and a
nonrelevant indication?
What Is the most likely Poor cleaning

cause of false
indications?
Which of the following c) Continuous line

indications is most likely
to be caused by a crack?
a) Rounded
b) Diffused or weak
c) Continuous line
Which of the following a) Rounded

indications is most likely
to be caused by
porosity?
a) Rounded
b) Diffused or weak
c) Continuous line
According to CSA W59 b) Visual inspection

the criteria used for
evaluating liquid
penetrant testing are the
same as those for:
a) Ultrasonic Inspection
b) Visual inspection
c) Radiographic
inspection
If a small crack is found False. Retained penetrant could

by LPI in an aluminum contaminate the repair. The metal
weld, it may be repaired containing the crack must be removed
by simply welding over it before repair.
to melt out the crack.
Is there a standard for Yes. CGSB 48-GP-9M

certifying operators
using the liquld
penetrant inspection
method?
The local magnetic field a) Flux leakage

across a crack in a
magnetized piece of
steel is known as:
a) Flux leakage
b) Saturation
c) Induction
The strength of the flux Permeability

Induced When a material
is placed in a given
magnetic field depends
on what property of the
material?
The level of residual c) Retentivity

magnetic flux remaining
in a ferromagnetic
material when an applied
field is removed is known
as:
a) Coercive force
b) Saturation
c) Retentivity
What is the range of 30-70%

applied field (relative to
saturation) normally used
in magnetic
particle Inspection?
The lines of force In a b) At right angles to the direction of the

magnetic field formed by current
an electric current are:
a) Parallel to the
direction of the current
b) At right angles to the
direction of the current
The direction of the a) Parallel to the axis of the coil

magnetic field in the
centre of a coil is:
a) Parallel to the axis of
the coil
b) At right angles to the
axis of the coil
Which of the following b) Ampere turns

terms might be used to
indicate the strength of
the magnetic field
in a coil?
a) Voltlamp characteristic
b) Ampere turns
c) B-H curve
The most favourable True

direction for detecting a
crack when using prods
is when the
crack liees along the line
between the prods.
When trying to detect a b) Across the weld

centreline crack In a
weld, you would. place a
yoke:
a) Along the weld axis
b) Across the weld
How are arc strikes Turn the power on after the prods are in
avoided when using place, and tum power off before removing
prods? prods
What would be a typical About 600 amps

current for prods spaced
150mm (6 in) apart?
An advantage of False. AC has no depth capacity

altemating current is the
abllity to detect defects
up to 3mm below the
surface.
What advantage does Higher sensitivity

the wet fluorescent
particle method have
over the dry particle
method?
Although surfaces should True

be clean and dry, it is still
possible for a yoke to
work through a thin
coating of paint.
What weight should an a) 4.5 kg (10 lb)

AC yoke be capable of
lifting?
a) 4.5 kg (10 lb)
b) 45 kg (100 lb)
c) 0.45 kg (1 lb)
Write down at least three Composition, microstructure, work

changes in a material that hardening, heat treatment
could cause a magnetic
particle indication in the
absence of a
discontinuity.
Give one source of Excessive magnetizing field, residual

nonrelevant indications magnetism
not due to material
changes.
A well-defined line c) A crack open to the surface

indication with tightly
held, heavy powder
buildup is likely to
represent
a) Porosity
b) A sub-surface crack
c) A crack open to the
surface
According to CSA W59 c) Radiographic Inspection

the criteria used for
evaluating magnetic
particle testing are the
same as those for:
a) Ultrasonic inspection
b) Visual Inspection
c) Radiographic
Inspection
Give two applications •When the part is to be plated or painted

when demagnetization and adhering particles would interfere
might be specialized. •On shafts or other rotating components
where adhering particles could contribute
to
failure
•Parts to be machined
•When followed by welding where residual
magnetism could cause arc blow
•When a residual field is undesirable in
service, e.g., aircraft parts
•When stringent postcleaning requires all
inspection materials to be removed
A disadvantage of False. Photographs or adhesive tape

magnetic particle transfers can be used
Inspection is that it Is
impossible to obtain any
kind of permanent
record of the indication.
Is there a standard for Yes, CGSB 48-GP-SM

the certification of
operators for magnetic
particle inspection?
What is the name of the Han detector

device that measures the
small electrical potential
created at right angles to
an electric current when
placed In a magnetic
field?
The eddy current False

technique only works on
ferromagnetJc materials
such as steel.
What is a typical a) 6mm

maximum depth of
detection for the eddy
current method In
nonferrous
metals?
a) 6mm
b) 35mm
c) 0.25mm
Is there a standard for Yes, CGSB 48-GP-13M

certifying operators for
the eddy current
method?
For what research Measuring the growth of fatigue cracks

application has the
potential drop method
been used?
If a leak test is done on a False

pressure vessel, the
nonnal hydrostatic proof
test may be
omitted.
The ability of a liquid to Capillary action

penetrate a narrow
opening depends on the
phenomenon of:
When using a post- After dipping or spraying on an emulsifier

emulsifiable penetrant, then water washing
the excess penetranl is
removed:
What is the normal 12 to 52C (60 to 125F)

operating temperature
for a liquid penetrant
according to ASTM E-
165?
To remove excess Wipe away excess penetrant with a clean

penetrant when using the cloth then wipe surface clean with a
solvent-removable cloth lightly moistened with solvent
process in a portable kit remover
for spot checking:
Which of the following The attraction of magnetic particles to a

best describes the basis flux leakage field formed when a
of the magnetic particle discontinuity lies at an angle to the induced
inspection method? magnetic field
In which direction is the Parallel to th axis of the coil

magnetic field at the
centre of a short coil of
50 turns and 50 mm
diameter?
When using an AC yoke, Because discontinuities lying parallel to the

two tests are done with line between the poles of the yoke
the angle of the yoke at are readily detected
90 to each
other. Why?
What is the depth No effective depth capability

capability for AC
magnetic particle
methods?
According to CSA W59 Radiographic inspection

the criteria for evaluating
magnetic particle testing
are the sameas those for:
The eddy current True

method is based on
detecting changes in the
inductive reactance of a
coil due to disturbance
of the eddy current by a
discontinuity and can be
used on nonferrous
metals
How is the excess D. Wipe away the excess penetrant with a

penetrant removed when clean cloth, then wipe surface clean with a
portable solvent- cloth lightly moistened with solvent
removable LPI is remover
conducted?
A. Spray the solvent
remover and wipe clean

with a sponge cloth
immediately
B. Spray the solvent
remover and allow to dry
by vaporization
C. Apply solvent remover
by brushing and wipe
clean before drying out
D. Wipe away the excess
penetrant with a clean
cloth, then wipe surface
clean with a cloth lightly
moistened with solvent
remover
E. Spray solvent remover
and allow to soak in
before wiping clean
How is a change in the C. By detecting the change in reactance of

eddy current due to a the inducing coil
crack detected when
using the eddy current
method?
A. By measuring the
voltage change in the
part being inspected
B. By detecting the flux
leakage field due to the
induced flux
C. By detecting the
change in reactance of
the inducing coil
D. By directly measuring
the current in the part
being inspected
E. By applying magnetic
particles which build up

around the crack
How are penetrants A. type of dye, form of developer, method

classified by ASTM E- of excess penetrant removal
165?
A. type of dye, form of
developer, method of
excess penetrant
removal
B. method of excess
penetrant removal, form
of developer
C. type of dye in the
penetrant, form of
developer
D. compatibility of the
materials to be
inspected, the type of
dye, form of develope
What weight of steel E. 4.5 kg (10 Ibs) for AC yoke, 18 kg (40 Ibs)
should the yoke type for DC yoke
equipment lift for
assessing their field
strengths?
A. 18 kg (40 Ibs) for AC
yoke
B. 10 kg (22 lbs) for DC
yoke
C. 1.8 kg (4 lbs) for AC
yoke, 5 kg (11 Ibs) for DC
yoke
D. 10 kg (22 Ibs) for AC
yoke, 20 kg (44 Ibs) for
DC yoke
E. 4.5 kg (10 Ibs) for AC
yoke, 18 kg (40 Ibs) for
DC yoke
How is a magnetic D. an induced flux transverse to the crack

particle indication allow poles to form at the crack faces
formed around a crack in
a piece of steel?
A. A flux is induced in the
steel parallel to the crack
B. An electric current is
made to flow along the
crack
C. The part is placed
inside a coil with the
crack parallel to the axis
of the coil
D. an induced flux
transverse to the crack
allow poles to form at
the crack faces
E. all external fields are
disturbed by the
presence of the crack
Select the correct C. An AC yoke should be placed across

statement; the weld to detect fusion boundary cracks
A. A DC yoke should be
placed along the weld to
detect fusion boundary
cracks
B. An AC yoke should be
placed along the weld to
detect fusion boundary
cracks
C. An AC yoke should be
placed across the weld
to detect fusion
boundary cracks
D. The prods should be
placed across the weld
to detect fusion
boundary cracks
Which test listed below is D. Helium test

the most sensitive one
for detecting leaks?
A. Liquid penetrant spray
B. Vacuum box and soap
film
C. Eddy current test
D. Helium test
E. Magnetic particle test
If LPI is to be done in B. By using a comparator block to gauge

lower than normal the new procedure
temperatures, how
should the new
procedure be qualified?
A. By increasing the
dwell time to
compensate for the
temperature change
B. By using a comparator
block to gauge the new
procedure
C. Change the type of
penetrants
D. The normal LPI
procedure should not be

deviated from
What type of developer B. non-aqueous

requires solvent
remover?
A. water soluble
B. non-aqueous
C. water-suspendable
D. no developer requires
solvent remover
E. dry powder
Which of the following C. Permeability

material properties
influences the magnitude
of the induced flux
over the strength of the
applied magnetic field?
A. Flux leakage
B. Coersive force
C. Permeability
D. Retentivity
E. Size of defect
Select the correct C. The penetrant enters the crack by

statement? capillary action. It can be used in all
A. The penetrant enters positions.
the crack by force of
gravity
B. The LPI method can
only be used in the flat,
or near flat position
C. The penetrant enters
the crack by capillary

action. It can be used in
all positions.
D. The penetrant enters
the crack by the forced
spray. Therefore, it can
be used in all
positions.
E. The penetrant enters
the crack by capillary
action but runs out easily
if the piece is
not in the flat position
What is the normal C. 12° to 52°C

operating temperature
range for LPI according
to ASTM E-165?
A. 0° to 40°C
B. 0° to 50°C
C. 12° to 52°C
D. 20° to 50°C
E. 10° to 100°C
Which of the following B. An AC yoke placed across the weld

techniques is most likely
to detect a longitudinal
surface crack
lying along the fusion
boundary of a weld?
A. An AC yoke placed
along the weld
B. An AC yoke placed
across the weld
C. Prods placed across
the weld
D. The part placed inside
a coil with the weld
parallel to the coil axis
E. A DC yoke placed
along the weld
When removing excess C. the surface should not be sprayed

penetrant from surfaces directly with solvent
under examination;
A. If shot blasting is
required it should be
done prior to welding or
after LPI
B. Rust and scales must
be removed prior to LPI
C. the surface should not
be sprayed directly with
solvent
D. If a component part is
cold it must be warmed
above the minimum
temperature
E. the component must
be cooled to below
100°C before removing
penetrant
How deep can a D. AC has no effective depth capability

subsurface defect be
detected with an AC
yoke?
A. 6 mm for nonferrous
metals
B. 3 mm or less
C. 6 mm in steel
D. AC has no effective
depth capability
E. Any depth
Which of the following B. continuous straight line

LPI indications is most
likely caused by a crack?
A. diffused or weak
indications
B. continuous straight line
C. small dots
D. at intermittent or
continuous line with
slight jags
E. rounded
A liquid that wets a B. A small contact angle

surface is characterized
by:
A. No capillary action
B. A small contact angle
C. High density
D. High surface tension
E. Low fluorescence
How is excess penetrant A. By dipping or spraying on an emulsifier

removed when using a then water washing
post-emulsifiable
penetrant?
A. By dipping or spraying
on an emulsifier then
water washing
B. By brushing on an
emulsifier then using a
solvent
C. By water washing
immediately after the
dwell time
D. By using a solvent
immediately after the
dwell time
E. By brushing on an
emulsifier then water
washing
Which LPI process is C. Fluorescent post-emulsifiable penetrant

most suitable for
detecting fatigue cracks?
A. Water soluble
B. Solvent-removal with
visible dye
C. Fluorescent post-
emulsifiable penetrant
D. All methods have the
same sensitivity
E. Fatigue cracks cannot
be detected by LPI
Select the correct D. Surface tension spreads liquids accross

statement regarding surfaces when spilled
surface tension of
liquids?
A. viscosity is caused by
high surface tension
B. Surface tension makes
liquids keep minimum
surface area
C. Surface tension makes
liquids stick to solid
surfaces
D. Surface tension
spreads liquids accross
surfaces when spilled
What is the direction of A. Parallel to the centerline of the coil

the magnetic field in the
center of a short current
carrying coil?
A. Parallel to the
centerline of the coil
B. Concentric with the
coil
C. The field is zero
strength at the center
D. It is decided by the
right hand rule
What is "contact angle"? A. the angle formed between liquid and

A. the angle formed solid surfaces
between liquid and solid
surfaces
B. the angle of the brush
applying the penetrant
C. the angle of the spray
nozzle applying the
developer
D. the angle at which two
parts meet
How can arc strikes be B. Turn the current on after the prods are in
avoided when using place and turn off before removing
prods?
A. Always ensure the
current is on before
placing the prods
B. Turn the current on
after the prods are in
place and turn off before
removing
C. Ensure the prods are
removed before turning
off the current
D. Always use steel
prods, never copper or
aluminum
E. Always use DC prods
for steel welds
What causes capillary B. the surface tension of liquid

action?
A. gravity pulling the
liquid downward
B. the surface tension of
liquid
C. oil on the surface of
parts
D. polyeurethane
coatings
The property of liquids D. Surface tension

that makes them try to
reduce their surface area
is known as:
A. Capillary action
B. Fluorescence
C. Viscosity
D. Surface tension
E. Density
Which of the following D. The degree of blackness on a film

correctly describes the
term "film density"?
A. The same as film
speed
B. The thickness of the
film
C. The exposure time
required to produce the
sharpest image
D. The degree of
blackness on a film
E. The degree of contrast
between light and dark
region
What do the small round C. Porosity

dark spots most likely
represent which appear
on a radiograph near the
start of a gas tungsten
arc weld bead?
A. Tungsten inclusions
B. Slag entrapment
C. Porosity
D. Spatters
E. Undercut
What is the S.I. unit used A. Sievert

to measure the amount
of potential damage-
causing
radiation absorbed?
A. Sievert
B. Curie
C. Rem
D. Roentgen
E. Rad
If dark lines appear on a E. Scratches or cracks in lead intensifying

radiograph that are not screens
due to discontinuities in
the weld, what else
could cause them?
A. Stale film
B. Overexposure
C. Faulty cassette
D. Insufficient developer
agitation
E. Scratches or cracks in
lead intensifying screens
What is the probable D. Scratches or cracks in lead intensifying

cause for dark lines on screens
the radiograph of a plain
metal plate?
A. Insufficient developer
agitation
B. Defective film
C. Overexposure
D. Scratches or cracks in
lead intensifying screens
E. Defective x-ray
equipment
Where should the IQI be D. Place the IQI on the film side and
placed if it cannot be reduce the IQI by one size
placed on the source

side?
A. Place the IQI on the
film side and increase the
exposure time
B. Place the IQI on the
film side and examine the
appearance of 4 T
diameter hole
C. Place the IQI on the
film side and examine the
appearance of 1 T
diameter hole
D. Place the IQI on the
film side and reduce the
IQI by one size
E. Place the IQI on the
film side and increase the
IQI by one size
What is the geometric D. 0.12 mm

unsharpness for a source
size of 4 mm, a weld
thickness of 24 mm, and
plate to source distance
of 800 mm?
A. 3.0 mm
B. 1.2 mm
C. 2.4 mm
D. 0.12 mm
E. 6.0 mm
Which of the following A. Geometric unsharpness

could be the cause of
fuzziness at the edges of
a radiographic image?
A. Geometric
unsharpness
B. low density material
C. scratches on lead
screens
D. film side penetrameter
How can the contrast of B. by using low energy levels

x-ray images be
improved?
A. by using shorter wave
x-rays
B. by using low energy
levels
C. by reducing the
exposure time
D. by using high energy
levels
E. by increasing to high
voltage
Which of the following C. When a surface defect is detected by

statements is true visual inspection, it should be repaired
regarding visual prior
inspection in conjunction to radiography
with
radiography?
A. When radiography is
specified, no visual
inspection is needed
B. A thorough visual
inspection often means
the specified
radiography can be
omitted
C. When a surface defect

is detected by visual
inspection, it should be
repaired prior
to radiography
D. The visual inspection is
normally done after
radiography to assist
interpretation of
defects
E. In (c), the defect
should only be repaired
after radiography
A dark, narrow area C. undercut

about 2-3 mm wide
appears on a radiograph
of a double vee groove
weld along the edge of
the area representing the
weld. What does this dark
area most likely
represent?
A. lack of side wall fusion
B. incomplete
penetration
C. undercut
D. slag entrapment
E. weld metal crack
How are shorter wave D. by increasing the voltage

lengths produced from
an x-ray tube?
A. by increasing the
beam current
B. by reducing the
voltage
C. by reducing the beam
current
D. by increasing the
voltage
E. the wave length is
fixed
Do radiographic C. Yes, they are required to be certified by

personnel have to be Canadian General Standards Board.
certified?
A. There is no regulation
which requires
certification of operators
B. Yes, they are required
to be certified to CSA
Standard W59
C. Yes, they are required
to be certified by
Canadian General
Standards Board.
D. It is not mandatory,
but most companies
require it
E. It is at the discretion of
individual inspectors
Which of the following E. CSA W59 does not require the removal
statements is true of backing bars on statically loaded
regarding backing bar on structures but poorly fitted backing bars
a weld joint to be may interfere with proper interpretation of
radiographed? the radiograph
A. Radiograph must be
taken before the backing

is removed if it is
required by code or
contract specifications
B. CSA W59 requires all
backing bars to be
removed before
radiography
C. backing bars need not
be removed but care
must be taken in fitting to
prevent false indications.
D. Backing bars are an
integral part of the weld
and must never be
removed before
radiography
E. CSA W59 does not
require the removal of
backing bars on statically
loaded structures but
poorly fitted backing
bars may interfere with
proper interpretation of
the radiograph
What is the target in an x- D. tungsten

ray tube made of?
A. stainless steel
B. copper
C. carbon
D. tungsten
E. uranium
How are the wave D. By the voltage of the filament

lengths of x-rays from an transformer

x-ray tube controlled?
A. By changing the
current on the filament
B. By changing the
current from the filament
to the x-ray target
C. By the voltage
between the filament and
the x-ray target
D. By the voltage of the
filament transformer
E. The wave length of
each x-ray tube is a fixed
value
Which of the following C. Two shots, each 30° to the plate, either
techniques is most likely side of the weld
to detect lack of side
wall fusion in a double
vee groove weld with a
60° groove angle?
A. One shot at 30° to the
plate surface
B. One shot at 90° to the
side wall
C. Two shots, each 30° to
the plate, either side of
the weld
D. Two shots normal to
the plate surface
E. One shot at 60° to the
plate surface and parallel
to the weld line
Which of the following A. lead plates

materials is usually used
to shield the x-ray or
gamma ray source?
A. lead plates
B. copper plates
C. asbestos sheets
D. tungsten plates
Select the correct C. Gamma rays can be used on thicker

statement; materials
A. Steel absorbs more x-
rays than copper
B. X-ray equipment is
small and portable, no
electrical hazard
C. Gamma rays can be
used on thicker materials
D. Gamma ray equipment
requires high initial cost
compared to X-ray
equipment
According to the E. Cracks are not permitted

radiographic acceptance
criteria in CSA W59 what
is the maximum
permissible length of
cracks?
A. 5 mm
B. 25 mm
C. Any length
D. It depends on the
clearance which is given
in a graph
E. Cracks are not
permitted
When radiographing a B. to increase the source-to-film distance

pipe with the source
inside, give one reason
why the source might not
be placed at the center:
A. the source is always
placed at the center
B. to increase the source-
to-film distance
C. to reduce exposure
times
D. to reduce the number
of shots required
E. the source is never
placed inside
What does the A. All defects larger than 2.3% of the plate
discernible outline of a thickness are detectable
0.51 mm thick IQI on a
radiograph of a 22 mm
thick weld mean?
A. All defects larger than
2.3% of the plate
thickness are detectable
B. A thickness change of
0.51 mm (2.3%) is
detectable
C. The geometric
unsharpness is less than
0.51 mm
D. Any defect deeper

than 0.51 mm will be
detectable
E, Any defect longer than
0.51 mm will be
detectable
A radiographic indication B. Undercut

2 to 3 mm wide is
observed running along
the toe of a double vee
groove weld. Of the
choices below, which
one is it most likely to
be?
A. Weld metal crack
B. Undercut
C. Slag inclusion
D. Lack of side wall
fusion
E. Incomplete
penetration
Which of the following C. Gamma-rays

types of electromagnetic
waves has the shortest
wave length?
A. Ultraviolet light
B. X-rays
C. Gamma-rays
D. Infrared
E. Short wave radio
broadcast
Which indications must B. All indications giving a response greater

be investigated than 20% of the DAC reference level.
according to ASME
procedures?
A. All indications
regardless of amplitude.
B. All indications giving a
response greater than
20% of the DAC
reference level.
C. All indications giving a
the DAC reference level.
D. All indications giving a
response greater than 6
dB below the DAC
reference level.
E. All indications giving a
the uncorrected
reference level.
When comparing x-rays C. Gamma rays generally have greater

to gamma rays; penetrating power but less contrast than x-
A. The penetrating power rays
of x-rays cannot be
adjusted as it can for
gamma rays
B. Gamma ray equipment
requires a large cooling
system
C. Gamma rays generally
have greater penetrating
power but less contrast
than x-rays
D. Both x-ray and gamma

ray equipment can be
turned off when not in
use
E. Gamma ray equipment
presents greater
electrical hazards than x-
ray equipment
If a longitudinal wave in C. 1 mm
steel has a wavelength of
1 mm, roughly what is the
smallest size of reflector
that could be detected?
A. 0.01 mm
B. 10 mm
C. 1 mm
D. 100 mm
E. 0.05 mm
Which of the following is B. Procedures often require an initial scan

true? to find significant reflectors with the gain
A. Procedures often set
require an initial scan to higher than the reference level.
find significant reflectors
with the gain set
at the reference level.
B. Procedures often
require an initial scan to
with the gain set
higher than the reference
level.
C. Procedures often
with the gain set

lower than the reference
level.
D. Procedures usually do
not allow initial scans.
E. Scanning at levels
other than the reference
level is not permitted by
code
What is the basis for E. Cracks, lack of fusion, or incomplete

rejection in ASME penetration are rejected regardless of
Section VIII, Division 1? length. Other indications are rejected on
A. It is the same as CSA the basis of amplitude and length.
W59.
B. It is based on
amplitude and length of
indications.
C. Indications are
classified according to
type of defect and
rejection is based on
length only.
D. Indications are
classified according to
type of defect and
rejection is based on
amplitude only.
E. Cracks, lack of fusion,
or incomplete
penetration are rejected
Other indications are
rejected on the basis of
amplitude and length.
What is the change of B. 2 times

amplitude of an
ultrasonic wave when the
energy is increased by
6 decibels?
A. 4 times
B. 2 times
C. 9 times
D. 16 times
What does CSA W59 C. Use the 1.5 mm hole

require for amplitude
calibration (sensitivity) for
an angle probe
using the llW block?
A. The three holes must
be distinguishable on the
screen
B. Use the large round
hole
C. Use the 1.5 mm hole
D. Amplitude calibration
is not required according
to CSA W59
E. The IIW block cannot
be used
What is a transducer? C. the plastic block which sets the angle of

A. a device which the probe in relation to the part surface
transforms electrical
energy into mechanical
energy, and vice versa
B. the device which
converts beam mode
from longitudinal to
transverse
C. the plastic block which
sets the angle of the
probe in relation to the
part surface
D. a steel block of known
dimensions and features
used for caibration
purposes
Why might you scan a D. To locate any reflectors that might

plate with a normal screen parts of the weld and inhibit
probe prior to using an inspection with the angle probe.
angle probe in a weld
inspection?
A. To get a preliminary
idea of the defects
present in the weld.
B. You would normally
use the angle probe
before the normal probe.
C . To measure the plate
thickness.
D. To locate any
reflectors that might
screen parts of the weld
and inhibit inspection
with the angle probe.
E. You would never use a
normal probe first.
What is the CSA W59 D. The operator must be certified to

requirement of an Canadian General Standards Board (CGSB)
ultrasonic operator?
A. There is no specific
requirement
B. The operator must be

certified by an
independent inspection
company
C. The operator must be
certified by the Canadian
Welding Bureau
D. The operator must be
certified to Canadian
General Standards Board
(CGSB)
E. It is not mandatory, but
is recommended
What is the correct D. Lay the block flat, place the probe on
procedure to calibrate the side and adjust the screen traces at
the screen trace for equal
distance with a normal intervals corresponding to the thickness of
probe and an IIW block? the block
A. Reflect the beam from
one of the round holes to
obtain the maximum
signal and
measure the distance
between the hole and
the probe
B. Place the probe near
the curved end,
maximize the signal and
read the distance off
the scale
C. Reflect the beam from
the curved end with the
probe at a fixed distance,
then
adjust the screen trace
accordingly
D. Lay the block flat,
place the probe on the
side and adjust the
screen traces at equal
intervals corresponding
to the thickness of the
block
E. The I IW block is not
suitable for distance
calibration
What is the common A. Measuring the distance on the surface

method for measuring between two peaks where the amplitude
the length of a defect? drops to 6 dB below the maximum value.
A. Measuring the
distance on the surface
between two peaks
where the amplitude
drops to 6 dB below the
maximum value.
B. Measuring the
between two peaks
where the amplitude
average value.
C. Measuring the
between two peaks
where the amplitude
reference level.
D. Measuring the
between two peaks
where the reflection

disappears.
E. Measuring the
where the amplitude is at
its maximum.
What happens to a sound B. the wavelength changes

wave when it travels into
a different media?
A. the frequency
changes
B. the wavelength
changes
C. the decibels increase
D. the waves are
refracted
What limitation does the C. difficult to find defects close to the

finite pulse length place transducer
on the pulse-echo
ultrasonic method?
A. thick material cannot
be tested
B. it limits the angle of an
angle probe
C. difficult to find defects
close to the transducer
D. increases signal loss
E. there are no limitations
How would you inspect D. Move the probe away from the weld so
the upper half of a the beam bounces off the lower surface to
groove weld in a plate strike the upper portion of the weld.
using an angle probe?

A. Move the probe as
close as possible to the
weld.
B. You cannot use an
angle probe, you must
use a normal probe
placed on the weld
reinforcement.
C. Place the angle probe
on the weld
reinforcement.
D. Move the probe away
from the weld so the
beam bounces off the
lower surface to strike
the upper portion of the
weld.
E. You cannot inspect the
upper portion of the
weld. You have to inspect
from the
other side of the plate
What type of scan C. C-scan

provides a display of a
single plan view of the
size and shape of a
discontinuity?
A. A-scan
B. B-scan
C. C-scan
D. P-scan
Which of the following C. The reflected signals have the(same

indications is caused by a amplitude)beam approaching from

spherical pore? different
A. If the probe is rotated angles
about the reflector, the
amplitude first increases
and then
quickly decreases.
B. If the probe is moved
slightly, the amplitude
increases to a maximum
and then
decreases.
C. The reflected signals
have the(same
amplitude)beam
approaching from
different
angles.
D. The reflected signal
has the same amplitude
as the reference level if
calibration
was with a spherical
pore.
E. It cannot be identified
Which of the following is E. Procedures often require an initial scan

true regarding ultrasonic to find significant reflectors with the gain
testing procedures? set
A. Scanning at levels at the reference level
other than the reference
level is not permitted by
code.
B. Procedures usually do
not include initial scans.
C. Procedures often

with the gain set
lower than the reference
level.
D. Procedures often
with the gain set
higher than the reference
level.
E. Procedures often
with the gain set
at the reference level
What effect might mode C. the reflection on the screen shifts

conversion have on the because of the velocity change
appearance reflectors?
A. There are no effects
due to mode change
B. Mode conversion due
to internal reflection
cannot occur
C. the reflection on the
screen shifts because of
the velocity change
D. It changes the
effective angle of the
probe
E. It is used to inspect
inaccessible locations
Which of the following D. Move the probe away from the weld to
would be a procedure reflect off the lower surface and strike the
for detecting flaws in the
upper half of a double
vee groove weld with an
angle probe?
A. Angle probe cannot
be used to examine
groove joints
B. Move probe as close
as possible to the weld
toe
C. discontinuities cannot
be detected from the
upper surface
D. Move the probe away
from the weld to reflect
off the lower surface and
strike the
upper portion of the
weld.
E. Place the angle probe
directly above the weld
line
What is the basis of the C. It is based on amplitude and length of

ultrasonic acceptance indication with no attempt to identify the
criteria in CSA W59? flaw.
A. It is based on
identifying the type and
size of defects.
B. it is based on
classifying defects as
planer or non-planar and
then rejecting them
according to length.
C. It is based on
amplitude and length of

indication with no
attempt to identify the
flaw.
D. It is based on the
amplitude of the
reflection only.
E. It is based on rejecting
all cracks, lack of fusion,
or incomplete
penetration
When examining groove A. to match the preparation angle

joints in aluminum, how is
the angle of the probe
selected?
A. to match the
preparation angle
B. to parallel the
preparation angle
C. only normal probes
can be used
D. to parallel the joint
surfaces
The amplitude of a wave C. attenuation

decreases as it travels in
a material which is known
as:
A. amplitude drop
B. frequency change
C. attenuation
D. decibel loss
E. distance-amplitude
correction
What is the typical B. 2.25 MHz

frequency for ultrasonic
testing of welds on
steel?
A. 2.25 Khz
B. 2.25 MHz
C. 25.0 Khz
D. 25.0 MHz
E. 225 Hz
When ultrasonic testing B. The large grain size makes it difficult to

an electroslag weld in inspect and low frequencies are preferred
the as-welded condition,
what difficulty might be
encountered?
A. The large grain size
makes it easier to inspect
than welds made by
other welding
processes
B. The large grain size
makes it difficult to
inspect and low
frequencies are
preferred
C. It is the same as any
other types of welds
D. The reinforcements
must be removed before
it is possible to inspect
E. If higher frequency is
used it will be the same
as UT of other types of
welds
What is the wavelength B. 293 mm

of a 20 kHz sound wave
traveling in steel with a
velocity 5.85 x
103 m/s?
A. 3.42 mm
B. 293 mm
C. 3.42 m
D. 2.93 mm
E. 117 mm
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CWB Level 2 Study Modules 4-5-6-7-8-9-12-17-

Terms in this set (474)

During arc welding there Heat Affect Zone (HAZ)

does not melt. What is

In parallel electrical C. the current flowing in each parallel path

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Welding is a joining The application of either heat or pressure

The duty cycle of a A. a 300 amp/60% duty cycle machine is

Conventional B. convert alternating current into direct

A conventional diode C. an SCR is non-conductive until turned

What is the term for C. open circuit voltage

voltage measured across

A 60% duty cycle means D. 6 minutes at rated output followed by 4

The DC output of a C. a capacitor or capacitor bank is added

One of the simplest ways B. design the transformer with either a

When choosing between A. the process generally determines the

Which of the following C. copper

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What is the purpose of B. to convert DC current to high frequency

How is power flow C. average current in an AC circuit is zero

Which of the following D. taps on the secondary of the

series with the output

A transformer type B. alternating current

When gas tungsten arc B. electrode negative

A disadvantage of SCR A. the output is smoothed out by the

B. the large inductor or

Gas tungsten arc and B. outputs high voltage, low current to

electrode positive and

Gases are not normally A. requires high voltage

What voltage is required A. 110 volts

What type of output is E. constant current

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In GTAW, the high C. high frequency systems output high

How is a thyrister or SCR B. by a signal called a "gate pulse"

If a transformer C. a step-down transformer

Conventional D. convert high voltage alternating current

Name the two main Flux shielding and gas shielding.

In which direction do the Cathode to anode.

electrical arc? From

In arc welding, the 30000°C

Which arc welding Submerged arc welding. 90 top 95%.

What is the generic name Tungsten electrode.

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In the GTAW process Shallow penetration and a wide weld.

expected when using

Which polarity is chosen Direct current electrode negative. More

State two advantages of It gives high quality deposits, and the

What does SMAW stand Shielded Metal Arc Welding

Why is SMAW a very It provides great flexibility in terms of the

Constant voltage power False.

Why is care necessary in Improperly stored electrodes can pick up

handling of electrodes hydrogen content and therefore increased

Larger diameter False.

Constant voltage power True.

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Which metal transfer (a) Short circuiting mode, (b) Spray.

Between 100% C02 and 95%Ar-5%C02

State three advantages -High deposition rate,

of the GMAW process -greater percentage of arc time due to

Which welding More feed speed.

Welding equipment for True.

The most common gas 75% Argon/25% C02