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REVISION TEST SERIES

Test No. : 05 Date : 29/01/2023 Duration : 3 Hours M.M. : 720 Batch : XI-O
TOPICS COVERED
Physics : Gravitation, Mechanics of Solids and Fluids
Chemistry: States of Matter, Thermodynamics
Botany : Plant Growth and Development, Transport in Plants
Zoology : Breathing & Exchange of Gases, Body Fluids and Circulation (Complete)

PHYSICS
Choose the correct () answer:
1. Figure shows a spherical shell of mass M and radius (1) Increases continuously
R. A particle of mass m is moved from point A to point
B. Penetrating into the shell. The potential energy of (2) Decreases continuously
the particle (3) First increases then decreases
A
(4) First decrease then increases
R
4. Two identical satellites A and B are circulating round the
mass = M earth at the height R and 2R respectively (where R is
radius = R
radius of the earth). The ratio of kinetic energy of A to
that of B is
B
1 3
(1) Will continuously increase (1) (2)
2 2
(2) Will continuously decrease
(3) Will first decrease then remains constant 2
(3) 2 (4)
(4) Will first increase then remains constant 5
2. If a particle is dropped from a large height ‘h’, it collides 5. The satellite of mass m is orbiting around the earth in
to the surface of earth with speed 2gh . This is when a circular orbit with a velocity v. What will be its total
energy?
gravity is assumed to be uniform. If variation in g is also
considered, the particle will strike the surface with (1) (3/4) mv2 (2) (1/2) mv2
velocity (3) mv2 (4) –(1/2) mv2
(1)  2gh (2)  2gh 6. With what velocity should a particle be projected so
that its height becomes equal to radius of earth?
(3)  2gh (4) Depends upon mass
1/ 2 1/ 2
3. Two identical spherical masses are kept at some  GM   8GM 
(1)   (2)  
distance as shown. Potential energy when a mass m  R   R 
is taken from surface of one sphere to the other
1/ 2 1/ 2
 2GM   4GM 
m (3)   (4)  
 R   R 
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7. Assuming the radius of the earth as R, the change in 12. Two bodies of masses m1 and m2 get separated by a
gravitational potential energy of a body of mass m, when distance r. How much mass should be transferred from
it is taken from the earth’s surface to a height 3R above m1 to m2 such that the gravitational force of attraction
its surface, is between them is maximum ?

3 m1  m2 m1  m2
(1) 3mgR (2) mgR (1) (2)
4 2 2

3 3 1
(3) 1mgR (4) mgR (3) (m1  m2 ) (4) ( m1  m2 )
2 4 3
8. Gas escapes from the surface of a planet because it
13. A particle of mass m is placed at the centre of a uniform
acquires an escape velocity. The escape velocity will
spherical shell of mass 3 m and radius R. The
depend on which of the following factors :
gravitational potential on the surface of the shell is
(I) Mass of the planet
(II) Mass of the particle escaping Gm 3Gm
(1)  (2) 
R R
(III) Temperature of the planet
(IV) Radius of the planet 2Gm 4Gm
(3)  (4) 
Select the correct option R R
(1) I and II (2) II and IV 14. The time period of an artificial satellite in a circular orbit
(3) I and IV (4) I, III and IV of radius R is 2 days and its orbital velocity is v0. If the
time period of another satellite in a circular is 16 days,
9. Two planets have radii in the ratio x : y and density in
then
the ratio m : n. The acceleration due to gravity ‘g’ is in
the ratio (1) Its radius of orbit is 4R and orbital velocity is v0
(1) nx : my (2) ny : mx
v0
(3) mx : ny (4) my : nx (2) Its radius of orbit is 4R and orbital velocity is
2
10. The particles each of mass M are placed at the three
(3) Its radius of orbit is 2R and orbital velocity v0
corners of an equilateral triangle of side l. What is the
force due to this system of particles on another particle
v0
of mass m placed at the mid point of any side ? (4) Its radius of orbit is 2R and orbital velocity is
2
3GMm 4GMm 15. The height vertically above the earth’s surface at which
(1) 2 (2)
4l 3l 2 the acceleration due to gravity becomes 1% of its value
at the surface is (R is the radius of the earth)
GMm 4GMm (1) 8R (2) 9R
(3) 2 (4) 2
4l l (3) 10R (4) 20R
11. A satellite is moving on a circular path of radius r around 16. A body projected vertically up from the earth reaches
the earth has time period T. If its radius slightly increases a height equal to earth’s radius before returning to the
by r, the change in its time period is earth. The power exerted by the gravitational force is
greatest
3T  T  (1) At the instant just before the body hits the earth
(1) r (2)   r
2  r  r (2) It remains constant all through
(3) At the highest position of the body
2 1/ 2
3T  3T  (4) At the midway position while coming down
(3) r (4) r
2  r  2  r 

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17. A body is projected vertically upwards from the surface (3) In a lift going downward with acceleration
1 (4) In a lift going upward with acceleration
of a planet of radius R with a velocity equal to rd the
3 22. A wide vessel with a small hole in the bottom is filled
escape velocity for the planet. The maximum height with water (density 1g/cc) and kerosene (density
attained by the body is 0.8g/cc) Height of water column is 30 cm and that of
kerosene layer is 20 cm. The velocity of water flow is
R R
(1) (2) (1) 30 cm/s (2) 3 cm/s
2 3
R R (3) 3 m/s (4) 2.2 m/s
(3) (4) 23. A tank containing a liquid has two similar holes on the
5 8
18. Suppose, the acceleration due to gravity at the earth’s opposite sides. The difference in height of two holes
surface is 10 m/s2 and at the surface of Mars it is is y. If the tank has an open top and liquid jets out of
4.0 m/s2. A 60 kg passenger goes from the earth to the the two holes. The net horizontal force experienced by
mars in a space ship moving with a constant velocity. the tank is given by
Neglect all other objects in the sky. Which part of the (1) agy (2) 2 agy
figure best represents the weight (net gravitational force)
of the passenger as a function of time 1 2
(3) agy (4) agy
2 3
weight

24. Figure shows four containers containing same liquid.

600 N A The pressure at depth ‘h’ is

B
C
O h
D Time
(1) A (2) B
(3) C (4) D A B C D
19. Weight of a body of mass m decreases by 1% when
(1) Greatest in A
it is raised to height h (<<R) above the earth’s surface.
If the body is taken to a depth h in a mine, its weight (2) Greatest in D
(1) Decreases by 2% (2) Decreases by 0.5% (3) Least in B and C both
(3) Increases by 1% (4) Increases by 0.5% (4) Equal in all containers
20. Three particles each of mass m kg are at three corners 25. In a hydraulic lift, the radii of large and small pistons
of an equilateral triangle of side l m. The work down to are in the ratio 20 : 1. What weight placed on the small
remove one of the particles to infinity is piston will be sufficient to lift a car of mass 1200 kg?

3Gm 2 3Gm 2 (1) 3 kg (2) 30 kg

(1) (2)
l l (3) 300 kg (4) 3000 kg
26. An ice cube containing a small bubble of air is floating
2Gm 2 2Gm 2 in water contained in a large beaker. When ice melt
(3) (4)
l l completely the level of water will
21. Water rises upto a height h in a capillary on the surface (1) Remains unchanged
of earth in stationary condition. Value of h increases if (2) Go down
this tube is taken
(3) Rise
(1) On sun
(4) First rise then go down
(2) On poles
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27. Two capillary tubes of same radius r but of lengths l1 (1) 2 R 2 T (2) 3R 2 T
and l2 are fitted in parallel to the bottom of a vessel.
The pressure head is P. What should be the length of (3) 4 R 2 T (4) 8R 2T
a single tube that can replace the two tubes so that
the rate of flow is same as before 33. An open vessel containing water is given a constant
acceleration a in the horizontal direction. Then the free
l1l 2 surface of water gets sloped with the horizontal at an
(1) l  l (2) l1 + l2 angle  given by
1 2

1  g  1  g 
1 1 1 (1)   cos   (2)   tan  
(3) l  l (4) l  l a a
1 2 1 2

28. A capillary tube is attached horizontally to a constant 1  a  1  a 

head arrangement. If the radius of the capillary tube (3)   sin  g  (4)   tan  g 
   
is increased by 10%, then the rate of flow of liquid will
change nearly by 34. Water is flowing through a horizontal tube of non-uniform
(1) +10% (2) +46% cross-section. At a place the radius of the tube 1.0 cm
and the velocity of water is 2m/sec. The velocity of water
(3) –10% (4) –40% at a place, where radius of the pipe is 2.0 cm, is
29. Two substances of densities 1 and 2 are mixed in (1) 2.0 m/s
equal volume and the relative density of mixture is 4.
When they are mixed in equal masses, the relative (2) 4 m/s
density of the mixture is 3. The values of 1 and 2 (3) 0.5 m/s
are
(4) 1.0 m/s
(1) 1 = 6; 2 = 2 (2) 1 = 3; 2 = 5
35. A solid floats in a liquid. Now solid melts. The select
(3) 1 = 12; 2 = 4 (4) None of these the correct statement.
30. Water rises in a capillary tube through height h. If the
( 1  density of melting solid, 2  density of liquid)
tube is inclined to liquid surface at 45° the liquid will
rise in the tube up to length. (1) There is no change in liquid level if 1 < 2

h (2) There is no change in liquid level if 1 > 2

(1) (2) h
2 (3) There is rise in liquid level if 1 > 2

(3) (4) 2h (4) There is no change in liquid level if 1 = 2

2h
36. For the arrangement shown in the figure, the density of
31. A large tank filled with water to a height of ‘h’ is to be oil is (w = 1000 kg/m3)
emptied through a small hole at the bottom. The ratio
of time taken for the level to fall from h to h/2 and that
taken for the level to fall from h/2 to zero is
Oil
d =12.3mm l = 135mm
1
(1) 2 (2)
2

1 Water
(3) 2 1 (4)
2 1 (1) 1050 kg/m3 (2) 916 kg/m3
32. A spherical liquid drop of radius R is divided into eight (3) 850 kg/m3 (4) 833 kg/m3
equal droplets. If surface tension is T, then work done
in the process will be
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37. Water flows in a streamlined manner through a capillary

h h
tube of radius r, the pressure difference being p and the (1) (2)
rate of flow Q. If the radius is reduced to r/2 and the  
pressure increased to 2p, the rate of flow becomes
h h
(1) 4 Q (3) (4)
 
(2) Q
43. A tank filled with water has two taps to exhaust and to
(3) Q/4 pour. A hollow spherical ball is half submerged in water.
Through one tap, water is taken out and through other
(4) Q/8 tap, a liquid of density double the density of water is
38. When two soap bubbles of radii r1 = 4 cm and r2 = 3 cm poured in a tank such that the volume of liquid in tank
are touching each other, the radius of curvature of remains constant. Then finally sphere will
common surface is
(1) go down
(1) 1 cm (2) 7 cm
(3) 3.5 cm (4) 12 cm (2) go up
Water
39. A capillary tube of radius r is immersed in water and (3) maintain same height
water rises in it to a height h. The mass of the water in
the capillary tube is m. Another capillary of radius 2r is (4) sink to bottom
immersed in water. The mass of water, that will rise in
this tube, is 44. Assume earth as a uniform sphere of radius R as
shown. A, B and C are three points on a frictionless
(1) m/2 (2) m tunnel through earth. If a body is placed successively
(3) 2 m (4) 4 m at A, B and C, then ratio of respective normal reactions
at these points is
40. Water is being poured in a vessel at a constant rate 
m3/sec. There is a small hole of area a at the bottom of (1) 2 : 3 : 6 A R/2 B C
the tank. The maximum level of water in the vessel is
R/2
proportional to (2) 3 : 2 : 6 R

(1)  (2) 2 (3) 1 : 1 : 1

–1 –2
(3)  (4) 
(4) 4 : 2 : 1
41. Two rain drops of same radius r falling with terminal
velocity v merge and form a bigger drop of radius R. The 45. Assume that the earth is a homogenous uniform solid
terminal velocity of the bigger drop is sphere of mass M and radius R. Which of the following
represents the variation of gravitational potential (V) with
R
  distance r from centre of earth?
(1) v  
r V
V R r
2
R
(2) v   (1) (2)
r
R r
(3) v
V V
(4) 2v R r
42. A body of density  is dropped from rest from a height h
into a lake of density ( > ). The maximum depth the (3) (4)
body sinks inside the liquid is (neglect viscous effect of
R r
liquid)
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CHEMISTRY
46. 16 gm oxygen gas is present at S.T.P. If its volume is 54. A process is both endothermic and spontaneous, then
doubled at constant pressure then work done by the (1) H < 0 (2) S < 0
gas will be
(3) Ssurrounding < 0 (4) G > 0
(1) +22.4 Joule (2) +11.2 Joule
55. An ideal gas occupies 5L at 2 bar. If its pressure is
(3) +11.2 L-atm (4) +44.8 L-atm changed to 1 bar at constant temperature then
47. Numerical value of work done is maximum in case of maximum work done by the gas will be
(1) C3H8(g) + 5O2(g)  3CO2(g) + 4H2O(l) (1) 6.9 J (2) 690 J
(2) C(s) + CO2(g)  2CO(g) (3) 500 J (4) 1000 J

(3) 3Fe(s) + 4H2O(g)  Fe3O4(s) + 4H2(g) 56. I : S° values for all elements in their standard states
are positive.
(4) NH4Cl(s)  NH3(g) + HCl(g)
II : H°f of H2(g) is zero at all temperatures.
48. Out of boiling point (I), entropy (II), pH(III) and emf of a
III: S° values for all spontaneous reactions are
cell (IV), extensive properties are
positive.
(1) II (2) I, II
The correct statement(s) is/are
(3) I, II, III (4) I, III, IV
(1) I only (2) II and III only
49. If ideal gas is adiabatically expanded for a fixed volume (3) I and II only (4) I, II and III
change then (T f = final temperature, T i = initial
temperature) 57. For the given reaction G° = –262.4 kJ

(1) T > T (2) (T ) > (T ) H2(g) + Cl2(g)  2H+(aq) + 2Cl–(aq)

f i f rev f irrev
(3) (Tf)irrev > (Tf)rev (4) Both (1) and (3) G°f of Cl–(aq) is
(1) –131.2 kJ mol–1 (2) –262.4 kJ mol–1
50. What is true regarding complete combustion of
gaseous isobutane (3) +131.2 kJ mol–1 (4) +262.4 kJ mol–1
(1) H = E (2) H < E 58. 2 moles of an ideal gas is heated in a closed vessel
from 27°C to 227°C, the work done is
(3) H = E = 0 (4) H > E
(1) +3320 J (2) –3320 J
51. At equilibrium
(3) –800 J (4) Zero
(1) G is zero (2) G is maximum
59. Enthalpy of neutralisation of Ca(OH)2 with a strong acid
(3) G is minimum (4) G is negative will be
52. If the bond dissociation energies of XY, X2 and Y2 (all (1) –57.1 kJ mol–1 (2) –27.4 kcal mol–1
diatomic molecules) are in ratio of 1 : 1 : 0.5 and
(3) –114.2 kJ equiv–1 (4) –27.4 kcal equiv–1
enthalpy of formation of XY is –200 kJ/mol. Then the
bond dissociation energy of X2 will be 60. Enthalpy of atomisation of ethane and propene are
2750 kJ mol–1 and 3350 kJ mol–1 respectively. The bond
(1) 800 kJ/mol (2) 100 kJ/mol
enthalpy of (C=C) will be
(3) 200 kJ/mol (4) 300 kJ/mol
(1) 600 kJ mol–1 (2) 350 kJ mol–1
53. For an ideal gas (3) 250 kJ mol–1 (4) 400 kJ mol–1
 E   E  61. In which case S is positive?
(1)  T   0 (2)   0
(1) H2O(l)  H2O(s)
 P  T  V
(2) Ag+(aq) + Cl–(aq)  AgCl(s)
 E  (3) H2(g)  2H(g)
(3)    0 (4) All of these
 P  T
(4) N(g) + 3H(g)  NH3(g)
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62. H°f(CO2), H°f(H2O), H°f(SO2) and H°C(C2H5SH) are (1) He < N2 < CH4 < CO2
x1, x2, x3 and x4 respectively. H°f of C2H5SH will be (2) CO2 < CH4 < N2 < He
(1) 2x1 + x2 + 3x3 – x4 (2) x4 – 2x1 – 3x2 + x3
(3) He < CH4 < N2 < CO2
(3) x1 + x2 + x3 – x4 (4) 2x1 + 3x2 + x3 – x4
(4) CH4 < He < N2 < CO2
63. A liquid is freezed at its freezing point (250 k) by losing
71. One mole of argon gas will have least density at
1 kJ at 1 atm. S for the process is
(1) 4 Jk –1 (2) –4 Jk–1 (1) STP (2) 0°C and 2 atm

(3) 4 × 10–3 Jk–1 (4) –4 × 10–3 Jk–1 (3) 273° and 2 atm (4) 273°C and 1 atm
64. Calorific value of hydrogen is 200 kJ. The enthalpy of 72. Following graph represents a pressure – volume
formation of H2O will be relationship at fixed temperature for n moles of a real
gas. The graph has two regions marked (I) and marked
(1) 100 kJ (2) –100 kJ (II) which of the following options is true
(3) +400 kJ (4) –400 kJ
Region (II)
65. For an isothermal compression of ideal gas
P
(1) H = 0 (2) U = 0
(3) q = –w (4) All of these Region (I)
66. For the combustion of 2 mole liquid benzene H – U V
will be (at 27°C)
(1) Z < 1 in the region (II)
(1) –900 R (2) –450 R
(2) Z = 1 in the region (II)
(3) +900 R (4) –300 R
(3) Z > 1 for the curve (I)
67. In which process work is done at the expense of
internal energy (4) Z approaches 1 as we move from region (II) to
region (I)
(1) Isothermal (2) Isochoric
73. The pressure of the atmosphere is 2 × 10–6 mmHg at
(3) Adiabatic (4) Isobaric
about 100 miles from the earth and temperature is
68. At the sublimation temperature, for the process –180°C. How many moles are there is 1 mL gas at
CO2(s) CO2(g) this altitude

(1) H, S and G are all positive (1) 3.45 × 10–13 (2) 2.62 × 10–10
(2) H > 0, S > 0 and G < 0 (3) 2.62 × 10–7 (4) 3.45 × 1013
(3) H > 0, S > 0 and G > 0 74. If one litre of O2 at 15°C and 750 mm of Hg pressure
contains N molecules. The number of molecules in two
(4) H > 0, S > 0 and G = 0
litres of SO2 under the same conditions of temperature
69. At what temperature will hydrogen molecules have and pressure will be
same Vrms as nitrogen molecules at 35°C
(1) 22°C (2) 22 K N
(1) (2) N
2
(3) 308 K (4) 11 K
70. What is the correct increasing order of liquefication of (3) 2 N (4) 4 N
the gases shown as in above curve? 75. The compressibility factor (z) and forces working for
He CO2, if one mole of it occupies 0.4 L at 300 K and 40
N2 atm
CH4
CO2 (1) 0.65, attractive
Z
(2) 0.65, repulsive
(3) 1.53, attractive

P (4) 1.53, repulsive

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76. Which of following curve is incorrect for Charles Law? 83. Let (A) and (B) be the area under the curve for a given
sample of gas. It T1 > T2 then

V
V/T V T1
(1) (2)

Fraction of
molecules
A T2
t°C B
T

Velocity
V

(3) (4) All are correct (1) A = B (2) A > B

T(K) (3) A < B (4) A  B

84. 2 moles of a gas was filled in a closed vessel at 2 atm
77. Compressibility factor ‘Z’ for ideal gas is pressure. The gas shows a 20% increase in pressure
for every 10°C rise in temperature. The volume of the
(1) 1.0 (2) Zero
vessel is
(3) <1 (4) >1
(1) 0.41 L (2) 8.2 L
78. The most probable speed of 8 g of H2 is 200 m/sec (3) 4.1 L (4) 0.2 L
then total translational kinetic energy of H2 gas is
85. Critical temperature is the temperature
(1) 480 J (2) 240 J
(1) Above which a gas can’t be liquefied
(3) 120 J (4) 240 kJ
(2) Above which a liquid can’t exist
79. The average kinetic energy of a molecule of oxygen at (3) Above which condensation does not takes place
27°C is
(4) All are correct
(1) 6.21 × 10–23 J (2) 6.21 × 10–21 J
(3) 3.7 kJ (4) 6.2 kJ P1 = 2atm P2 = 3atm P=?
86. V1 = 1 ltr. + V2 = 2 ltr. = V = 2 ltr.
80. The rms speed of CH4 at T1K and SO2 at T2K are the
same. The ratio T1/T2 is The pressure (P) after mixing is
(1) 0.25 (2) 0.30 (1) 5 atm

(3) 0.20 (4) 0.35 (2) 2.5 atm

81. Which of the following gas has highest partial pressure (3) 2 atm
in atmosphere (4) 4 atm
(1) H2 (2) N2 87. Which of the following is incorrect statement?
(3) O2 (4) CO2 (1) The value of vander Waal’s constant a, b and gas
constant R depends on nature of gases
82. The compressibility factor of a certain gas is
< 1 at STP. The molar volume Vm, is (2) Ideal gas equation has 2 intensive and 2 extensive
properties
(1) Vm = 22.4 L
(3) Density of various gases at NTP follows the order
(2) Vm > 22.4 L SO2 > CO2 > H2S > O2 > H2
(3) Vm < 22.4 L (4) Mixture of NH3 and HCl will not follow Dalton’s Law
of partial pressure
(4) Vm  22.4 L
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88. What will be the nature of forces working at critical (2) 16 gm of oxygen gas at 200 K
condition for a gas? (3) 28 gm of N2 gas at 300 K
(1) Attractive
(4) 1 gm of O3 at 600 K
(2) Repulsive
90. For a real gas having Z > 1, the correct statement is
(3) No net dominant forces
(4) Depends on the types of the gas, attractive for (1) PM > dRT (d = density of gas)
most of them and repulsive for H2 and He
(2) Vreal > 22.7 L at STP
89. Which of the following samples of ideal gas will have
maximum translational kinetic energy? (3) Repulsive forces working
1
(1) mole of CO(g) at 400 K (4) All are correct
2

BOTANY
91. Seed increase in its volume by the adsorption of water C. Imbibition (III) Semipermeable
through
membrane
(1) Osmosis (2) Diffusion
D. Plasmolysis (IV) Free movement of ions
(3) Imbibition (4) Plasmolysis and gases
92. Movement that is aided by cytoplasmic streaming and (1) A  (II), B  (I), C  (IV), D  (III)
occurs from cell to cell through plasmodesmata is
(2) A  (IV), B  (III), C  (I), D  (II)
called
(3) A  (III), B  (I), C  (IV), D  (II)
(1) Apoplastic pathway
(2) Symplastic pathway (4) A  (II), B  (III), C  (IV), D  (I)

(3) Mycorrhizal pathway 97. Chamber A and B are separated by a semimpermeable

membrane. Study the given figure and choose the right
(4) Vaccular pathway option
93. The force resposible for upward conduction of water A B
against gravity comes from
Solute
(1) Transpiration (2) Translocation molecule
(3) Respiration (4) Photosynthesis Water
94. Bidirectional translocation of minerals takes place in (1) Chamber A has higher water potential and water
(1) Xylem (2) Phloem will move from A to B
(3) Parenchyma (4) Cambium (2) Chamber A has lower solute potential and water
will move from A to B
95. The process of loading at the source produces a
______ condition in the phloem (3) Chamber A has higher solute potential and water
will mvoe from B to A
(1) Hypertonic (2) Isotonic
(4) Chamber B has lower water potential and water
(3) Hypotonic (4) Hydroponic
will move from B to A
96. Match column I with column II and find out the correc
98. Dry wooden stakes, if driven into a small crack in a
answer from the code given below
rock and then soaked, can develop enough pressure
Column I Column II to split the rock. Such a pressure is built up through
A. Diffusion (I) Hydrophoilic the phenomenon of
substances (1) Imbibition (2) Prop roots
B. Osmosis (II) Shrinkage of protoplasm (3) Turgor pressure (4) Buttress roots

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99. If a stem is girdled 104. Ringing/girdling experiments demonstrate

(1) Root dies first (2) Shoot die together (1) Phloem is responsible for translocation of food
(3) Both die together (4) None of these (2) Xylem is responsible for ascent of sap
100. Match column I with column II and select the correct (3) Transpiration pull
option from the codes given below
(4) Both (1) & (2)
Column I Column II
105. The concentration of solute in four cells is 0.4 M. they
A. Vein ending (I) Transpiration are placed in four separate containers I, II, III, and IV,
B. Necessary evil (II) Osmosis filled with saline water of concentrations 0.1 M, 0.4
M, 2 M and 3 M respectively. In which container will
C. Semipermeable (III) Transpiration pull
the cell swell?
membrane (1) I (2) II
D. Cohesion (IV) Guttation (3) III (4) IV
E. Stomata closure (V) ABA 106. The Arithmetic growth can be mathematically
(1) A  (IV), B  (I), C  (III), D  (II), E  (V) expressed as
(2) A  (IV), B  (I), C  (II), D  (III), E  (V) (1) Lt = L0 + rt (2) W 1 = W 0 + ert
(3) A  (III), B  (V), C  (I), D  (II), E  (IV) (3) W 1 = W 0 ert (4) Lt = L0 – ert
(4) A  (I), B  (II), C  (III), D  (IV), E  (V) 107. Growth at cellular level, is principally a consequence
of increase in the amount of
101. If a pressure greater than atmospheric pressure is
applied to pure water or a solution, its water potential (1) Protoplasm (2) DNA
(1) Decreases (3) Cell wall (4) Cell organelles
(2) Increases 108. Read the given statements and select the incorrect
statement
(3) Remains constant
(1) One maize root cell can give rise to more than
(4) Become zero
17,500 cells per hour
102. Amphistomatic leaf, with stomata distributed equally
(2) A cell in water melon can increase in size upto
on both surfaces, is an example of
350000 times
(1) Isobilateral leaf (2) Dorsiventral leaf
(3) The grwoth of pollen tube is measured in terms
(3) Xerophytic leaf (4) Hydrophytic leaf of volume
103. Match column I with column II and select the correct (4) The growth of the leaf is measured in term of
option f rom the codes given below surface area
Column I Column I 109. Which one is the correct graph for arithmetic growth?
A. Dixon and Jolly (I) Root pressure
B. Stomata (II) Only water available `
Growth

Growth

to plants
C. Manometer (III) Transpiration (1) (2)

D. Capillary water (IV) Transpiration pull Time Time

E. Potometer (V) Rate of transpiration
(1) A  (IV), B  (III), C  (V), D  (II), E  (I)
Growth

Growth

(2) A  (I), B  (III), C  (IV), D  (II), E  (V)

(3) (4)
(3) A  (IV), B  (III), C  (I), D  (II), E  (V)
(4) A  (V), B  (IV), C  (III), D  (II), E  (I) Time Time

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110. Which of the following is both a growth promotor as 115. Match column I with column II and selct the correct
well as a growth inhibitor? option form the codes given below
(1) Auxin (2) Gibberellic acid Column I Column II
(3) ABA (4) Ethylene A. Auxin (I) Fruit ripening
111. The term ‘auxin precursor’ refers to B. Cytokinins (II) Phototropism
(1) Raw material used in the synthesis of auxin C. Abscisic acid (III) Antagonist to GAs
(2) Compound which inhibits the action of auxin D. Ethylene (IV) Growth of lateral buds
(3) Artificially syntehsized auxin (1) A  (IV), B  (II), C  (III), D  (I)
(4) Active form of auxin (2) A  (II), B  (IV), C  (III), D  (I)
112. Match column I with column II and selec the correct (3) A  (II), B  (III), C  (IV), D  (I)
option from the codes given below
(4) A  (III), B  (IV), C  (II), D  (I)
Column I Column II
116. Climacteric in the plants means
A. Auxins (I) Breaking seed dormancy
(1) Increase in respiration rate before the ripening phase
B. Gibberellins (II) Inducing fruit ripening
(2) Decrease in respiration rate before the ripening
C. Cytokinins (III) Formation of abscission
phase
layer
(3) Increase in respiration rate after the ripening phase
D. Ethylene (IV) Root initiation
(4) Decrease in respiration rate after the ripening phase
(V) Chloroplast development
in leaves 117. Tobacco is an example of
(1) A  (IV), B  (I), C  (V), D  (II) (1) LDP (2) SDP
(2) A  (IV), B  (V), C  (III), D  (II) (3) DNP (4) LSDP
(3) A  (I), B  (III), C  (II), D  (IV) 118. The leaves of Mimosa pudica drop down when touched
(4) A  (III), B  (IV), C  (I), D  (V) due to
113. Read the given statem ents to identify the (1) Thigmotropism (2) Seismonasty
phytohormone that performs these functions (3) Thigmotaxic (4) Thigmonasty
(i) Horizontal growth of seedlings, swelling of the 119. When mature green bananas are put in a sealed
axis and apical hook formation in dicot seedlings plastic bag they remain green for many days. However,
(ii) Promoting senescence and abscission of leaves if they are sealed with a ripe orange, the bananas turn
and flowers yellow within few days. The reason is
(iii) Breaking seed and bud dormancy (1) Orange produces ethylene which induces fruit
ripening
(iv) Initiating germination in peanut seeds
(v) Sprouting of potato tubers (2) Orange removes CO2 which inhibits fruit ripening

(1) ABA (2) Ethylene (3) Orange removes O2 released from green bananas

(3) GA (4) Cytokinins (4) Orange produces CO2 which activates fruit ripening

114. What sould happen if you forget to add cytokinin to 120. Richmond-Lang effect is shown by
the culture medium? (1) Auxins (2) Gibberellins
(1) Callus will not develop shoot buds (3) Kinetin (4) Ethylene
(2) Callus will not develop root buds 121. Sprouting of potato can be prevented in storage by
(3) Callus will stop differentiating (1) Maleic hydrazide (2) Gibberellins
(4) Both (1) & (2) (3) Indole acetic acid (4) Cytokinins

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122. What is agent orange?
(1) A hazardous chemical used in luminous paints
(2) Colour used in fluorescent lamps
(3) A weedicide containing dioxin
(4) A biodegradable insecticide
123. The exponential growth can be expressed as
W 1 = W 0ert. What is ‘r’ in the expression?
(1) Relative growth rate and depends on final size
(2) Absolute growth rate and depends on initial size
(3) Relative growth and also referred to as efficiency
index
(4) Absolute growth and also referred to as efficiency
index
124. Which one of the following phytohormones is produced
under water deficient condition and plays an important
role in the tolerance response of plants to drought?
(1) Abscisic acid
(2) Cytokinin
(3) Ethylene
(4) Gibberellin
125. Pollen tube shows
(1) Chemotropism (2) Chemonasty
(3) Chemotactic (4) Seismonasty
126. Diagrammatic representation of the sequence of
processes which constitute the development of a cell
of a higher plant is given in figure. Find the A, B, C,
and D.
127. Which of the following statement is incorrect regarding
stomata?
(1) It helps in exchange of oxygen and carbon dioxide
in the leaf
(2) It is open in the day time and close during the
night
(3) Opening or closing of the stomata is a change in
the turgidity of the guard cells
(4) The inner wall of each guard cell, towards the
stomatal aperture is thin and rigid
128. Which of the following statement is not true?
(1) Water, minerals and food are generally moved by
a mass or bulk flow system
(2) Bulk flow can be achieved either through a
positive hydrostatic pressure gradient or a negative
hydrostatic pressure gradient
(3) The bulk movement of substances through the
conducting tissues of plants is called translocation
(4) Xylem translocates mainly water, mineral salts,
organic nitrogen and hormones from the leaves
to other parts of the plants
129. Which of the following statements is incorrect?
(1) The apoplastic movement of water occurs
exclusively through the cell wall without crossing
any membranes
(2) The apoplastic movement occurs from cell to cell
through the plasmodesmata
(3) Endodermis, is impervious to water because of a
band of suberised matrix

Cell Division
Death (4) Sym plastic movement may be aided by
cytoplasmic streaming which occurs in Hydrilla
Senescence leaf
130. The following statements are made regarding
A B
Meristematic Cell translocation of mineral ions
C D (i) Mineral ions are slowly remobilised
Mature cell
(ii) Younger leaves export most of their minerals
(1) A  Differentiation, B  Plasmatic growth, content to older leaves
C  Expansion,D  Maturation (iii) Elements most readily mobilised are P, S, N and
(2) A  Differentiation, B  Plasmatic growth, K
C  Maturation, D  Expansion (iv) Some elements that are structural component like
(3) A  Plasmatic growth, B  Differentiation, calcium are not remobilised
C  Expansion, D  Maturation Which of the above statement are true?
(4) A  Differentiation, B  Maturation, (1) (i) & (iii) (2) (i) & (ii)
C  Plasmatic growth, D  Expansion (3) (iii) & (iv) (4) (ii) & (iii)
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131. Arrange the following events in a correct order that 133. Which one of the following is not related to guttation?
explains the mass flow of materials in the phloem?
(i) Water diffuses into the sieve tube elements
(ii) Leaf cells produce sugar by photosynthesis
(iii) Solutes are actively transported into the sieve
elements
(iv) Sugar is transported from cell to cell in the leaf
(v) Sugar move down the stem
(1) (ii), (iv), (iii), (i), (v)
(2) (ii), (iv), (i), (iii), (v)
(3) (i), (ii), (iii), (iv), (v)
(4) (iv), (ii), (i), (iii), (v)
132. In a fully turgid cell
(1) Water is given out in the form of droplets
(2) Water given out is impure
(3) Water is given out during night and early morning
(4) Guttation is of universal occurrence
134. A cell when dipped in 0.5 M sucrose solution has no
effect but when the same cell will be dipped in 0.5 M
NaCl solution the cell will
(1) Increase in size
(2) Decrease in size
(3) Be turgid
(4) Get deplasmolysed
135. W hich of the following is not a purpose of
transpiration?

(1) s will be negative and p will be positive
(2) p will be negative and s will be positive
(3) Both p and s will be positive
(4) Both s and p are negative
(1) It increases the dry weight of plants
(2) Helps in translocation of sugars from source to
sink
(3) It help in development of better quality of fruit
(4) It causes passive absorption of water

ZOOLOGY
136. C-shaped cartilaginous rings supporting the trachea are (1) Shift towards right (2) Shift towards left
made of (3) Become irregular (4) Remains unchanged
(1) Fibrous cartilage (2) Hyaline cartilage 140. Haemoglobin has least affinity for
(3) Elastic cartilage (4) Calcified cartilage (1) Oxygen
137. The amount of air breathed in and out with the greatest (2) Carbon dioxide
possible efforts is called
(3) Carbon monoxide
(1) Residual volume (2) Tidal volume
(4) Same affinity for all above
(3) Lung volume (4) Vital capacity
141. Hamburger shift is also called
138. The blood leaving the lungs has all its haemoglobin
oxygenated and gives up oxygen to the tissues, (1) Hydrogen shift (2) HCO3 shift
because (3) Chloride shift (4) Na shift
(1) The tissue can absorb O2 from oxyhaemoglobin 142. An irritation of the nasal mucosa may result in
(2) O2 concentration in tissues is lower and CO2 (1) Coughing (2) Sighing
concentration higher than in lungs
(3) Hiccuping (4) Sneezing
(3) O2 concentration in tissues is higher and CO2
143. Two friends are eating together on a table. One of them
concentration lower than in lungs
suddenly starts coughing while swallowing some food.
(4) Oxyhaemoglobin undergoes reduction This coughing would have been due to improper
movement of
139. W hen partial pressure of CO 2 (PCO2 ) rises, the
(1) Neck (2) Tongue
oxygen dissociation curve of haemoglobin at 37°C will
(3) Epiglottis (4) Diaphragm

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144. The figure shows a diagrammatic view of human 149. First heart sound is
respiratory system with labels, A, B, C and D. Select
(1) ‘Lubb’ sound at end of systole
the option which gives correct identification and main
function and/or characteristic (2) ‘Dubb’ or ‘dupp’ sound at the end of systole
(3) ‘Lubb’ sound at beginning of ventricular systole
(4) ‘Dubb’ sound at the beginning of ventricular systole
150. In adult man, normal BP is
(1) 100/80 mm Hg
(2) 120/80 mm Hg
(3) 100/120 mm Hg
(4) 80/120 mm Hg
151. Tachycardia is
(1) Rapid rate of heartbeat
(1) B-Pleural membrane – Surround ribs on both sides
to provide cushion against rubbing (2) Slow rate of heartbeat
(2) C-Alveoli – Thin-walled vascular bag-like structures (3) Abnormal heart rate
for exchange of gases (4) Normal heart rate
(3) D-Lower end of lungs – Diaphragm pulls it/down
152. Which one of the following will be the cardiac output
during inspiration
(in litres per minute) of a heart that has a stroke volume
(4) A-Trachea – Long tube supported by complete of 0.07 litres per cycle and is beating at a rate of
cartilaginous rings for conducting inspired air 90 per minute?
145. What is the PO and PCO2 in the systemic arteries? (1) 63.30 (2) 63.00
2

(3) 00.63 (4) 06.30

(1) PO 40 mm Hg; PCO2 45 mm Hg
2
153. Choose the schematic diagram which properly
(2) PO 95 mm Hg; PCO2 104 mm Hg represents pulmonary circulation in humans
2

Oxygenated Deoxygenated
(3) PO 95 mm Hg; PCO2 40 mm Hg (1) Left atrium Blood
 Lungs  
Blood
2

(4) PO 45 mm Hg; PCO2 40 mm Hg Right ventricle

2

Deoxygenated Oxygenated
146. Which one is an allergic disease? (2) Left atrium    Lungs 
Blood Blood
(1) Bronchitis (2) Emphysema
Right ventricle
(3) Pneumonia (4) Bronchial asthma
147. Chordae tendinae are found in Deoxygenated
(3) Right ventricle     Lungs
Blood
(1) Ventricles of heart (2) Atria of heart
(3) Joints of legs (4) Ventricles of brain Oxygenated
  Left atrium
Blood
148. Which of the following has the thickest walls?
(1) Right ventricle Oxygenated
(4) Right ventricle   Lungs
(2) Left ventricle Blood

(3) Right atrium Deoxygenated

   Left atrium
(4) Left atrium Blood

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154. In the below given diagram which blood vessel 159. The total volume of air present in the lungs and
represents vena cava? respiratory passage after maximum inspiration is known
as
(1) Vital capacity
(2) Tidal volume
(3) Functional residual capacity
(4) Total lung capacity
160. The blood in the tissue capillaries becomes
deoxygenated due to
(1) C (2) D
(A) Oxygen diffuses from the blood into the body cells
(3) A (4) B
through tissue fluid.
155. Name the pulmonary disease in which alveolar surface
area involved in gas exchange is drastically reduced (B) Oxygen diffuses from the body cells into the tissue
due to damage in the alveolar walls fluid and then to the capillaries.

(1) Pleurisy (2) Asthma (C) Carbon dioxide diffuses from the blood to the tissue
fluid via body cells.
(3) Emphysema (4) Pneumonia
(D) Higher partial pressure of oxygen in the oxygenated
156. Which of the following events does not occur while
blood than the body cells.
expiration?
(1) A and D only (2) B and C only
(1) Contraction of internal intercostal muscles
(2) Pulmonary volume decreases (3) A and C only (4) A only

(3) Diaphragm becomes dome shaped 161. Select the option that gives the correct sequence of
steps during respiration.
(4) External intercostal muscles contract
(A) Transport of gases by blood.
157. Thoracic chamber is formed dorsally by the ___(i)___,
ventrally by the ___(ii)___, laterally by the ___(iii)___ (B) Diffusion of O2 and CO2 across alveolar membrane.
and on lower side by the dome shaped ___(iv)___. (C) Diffusion of O2 and CO2 between blood and tissues.
Select the correct option to complete the above (D) Inspiration and expiration.
paragraph
(E) Utilisation of O2 by the cells for catabolic reactions
(1) (i)-Vertebral column, (ii)-Sternum, (iii)-Ribs,
and release of CO2 into the blood capillaries.
(iv)-Diaphragm
(1) D  B  E  A  C
(2) (i)-Sternum, (ii)-Vertebral column, (iii)-vertebral
column, iv-Sternum (2) D  A  C  E  B
(3) (i)-Diaphragm, (ii)-Ribs, (iii)-Vertebral column, (3) D  B  A  C  E
(iv)-Sternum
(4) E  D  B  A  C
(4) (i)-Ribs, (ii)-Diaphragm (iii)-Vertebral column,
(iv)-Sternum 162. The feature that is not present in the left lung is

158. Mammalian lungs have an enormous number of minute (1) Cardiac notch (2) Oblique fissure
alveoli (air sacs). This is to allow (3) Horizontal fissure (4) Superior lobe
(1) More surface area for diffusion of gases 163. Which cartilages in the larynx are paired structures?
(2) More space for increasing the volume of inspired (A) Arytenoid cartilage (B) Cuneiform cartilage
air
(C) Cricoid cartilage (D) Corniculate cartilage
(3) More nerve supply to keep the lungs working
(1) A, B and C (2) B and D
(4) More spongy texture for keeping lung in proper
shape (3) A, B and D (4) C and D
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164. The part of the brain that regulates inspiratory volume (V) Formation of clot
and respiratory rate by sending inhibitory signals to
(VI) Release of platelet factor-3 and thromboplastin
inspiratory centre is
(1) VI  IV  II  III  I  V
(1) Pneumotaxic centre
(2) Ventral respiratory group (2) II  VI  III  IV  I  V

(3) Dorsal respiratory group (3) III  VI  II  IV  I  V

(4) Apneustic centre (4) III  II  VI  IV  I  V
165. Match Column-I with Column-II 169. The second heart sound in heart is when
Column-I Column-II (1) The bicuspid and tricuspid valves close
(A) Total lung capacity (I) RV + ERV (2) The blood flows from atria to the ventricles
(B) Vital capacity (II) 3400 – 4800 mL (3) The semilunar valves close
(C) Inspiratory capacity (III) 5000 – 6000 mL
(4) The blood flows into vena cavae
(D) Expiratory capacity (IV) TV + ERV
170. Which of the following statements is incorrect about
(E) Functional residual (V) 3000 – 3500 mL arteries?
capacity
(1) Walls of arteries are thick and muscular
(VI) TV + IRV + ERV
(2) Backward flow of blood is prevented by valves
(VII) 1500–1600 mL
(3) Outermost coat, tunica adventitia is formed of
(VIII) VC + RV connective tissue
(IX) TV + IRV
(4) All arteries carry oxygenated blood except
(X) 2100–2300 mL pulmonary artery
(1) A–(I, X), B–(IV, IX), C–(II, VI), D–(V, VIII), E–(III, VII) 171. The arteries that carry nutrients to the heart wall are
(2) A–(II, V), B–(I, VI), C–(III, X), D–(IV, VII), E–(VIII,IX) called A and belong to B circulation.
(3) A–(III,VIII), B–(II,VI), C–(V,IX), D–(IV,VII), E–(I,X)
(1) A–bronchial arteries, B–systemic
(4) A–(I,VI), B–(V, X), C–(II, III), D–(VII, VIII), E–(IV, IX)
(2) A–pulmonary arteries. B–pulmonary
166. An oval depression present in the right atrium adjoining
the interatrial septum is called (3) A–coronary arteries, B–coronary
(1) Fossa ovalis (2) Crista terminalis (4) A–branchial arteries, B–systemic
(3) Foramen ovale (4) Cisterna chyli 172. The structures present in heart that hold the
167. Individuals that have blood group AB have atrioventricular valves in place while the heart is
pumping blood are called
(1) Both antigens A and B on their RBCs
(2) Both antibodies A and B in their plasma (1) Papillary muscles

(3) Antibody only against B antigen in their plasma (2) Chordae tendineae
(4) Antibody only against A antigen in their plasma (3) Columnae carneae
168. Arrange the given steps of blood coagulation in a (4) Trabeculae carneae
sequence and select the correct option.
173. The Eustachian valve guards the opening of
(I) Depolymerisation of fibrinogen by thrombin into
(1) Superior vena cava
monomers
(II) Release of enzyme complex thrombokinase (2) Pulmonary trunk and aorta
(III) An injury/trauma occurs (3) Inferior vena cava
(IV) Breakdown of prothrombin into thrombin (4) Coronary sinus

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174. Match column I with colum II . (There can be more 176. People living at sea level have around 5 million RBCs
than one match for items in column I) per cubic millimeter of their blood whereas those living
Column-I Column-II at an altitude of 5400 metres have around 8 million.
This is because at high altitude
(A) Lymphocytes (I) Agranulocyte
(1) People eat more nutritive food, therefore more
(B) Basophils (II) Three-lobed nucleus RBCs are formed
(C) Thrombocytes (III) Barr body in female (2) People get pollution-free air
mammals (3) Atmospheric O2 level is less and hence more
(D) Neutrophils (IV) Antibody production RBCs are needed to absorb the required amount
of O2 to survive
(E) Monocytes (V) 60-65% of WBCs
(4) There is more UV radiation which enhances RBCs
(VI) Non nucleated cell
production
fragments
177. Open vascular system is found in
(VII) Blood clotting
(1) Man (2) Fish
(VIII) Large rounded nucleus
(3) Prawn (4) Snake
(IX) Bean shaped nucleus
178. Hepatic portal vein carries
(X) Release heparin and
(1) Oxygenated blood from liver to intestine
histamine
(2) Deoxygenated blood from liver to intestine
(1) A–(I, X), B–(IV, IX), C–(II, VI), D–(V, VIII), E–(III, VII)
(3) Oxygenated blood from intestine to liver
(2) A–(II, V), B–(I, VI), C–(III, X), D–(IV, VII), E–(VIII,IX)
(4) Deoxygenated blood from intestine to liver
(3) A–(III,V), B–(VII,IX), C–(VIII,X), D–(I,VI), E–(II,IV)
179. The P wave represents the ______ in ECG
(4) A–(IV,VIII), B–(II, X), C–(VI, VII), D–(III, V), E–(I, IX)
(1) Electrical excitation of the atria
175. Select the incorrect statement
(2) Depolarisation of atria
(1) Injury to semilunar valves causes soft hissing noise,
(3) Contraction of both the atria
called heart murmur
(4) All of these
(2) SA node is known as pacesetter of heart
180. Coronary artery disease (CAD) is also referred to as
(3) Damage of a patch of cardiac muscle leads to
heart attack (1) Heart failure (2) Cardiac arrest
(4) T-wave in ECG represents repolarization of (3) Atherosclerosis (4) Thrombosis
ventricles


Space For Rough Work
18 RTS/XI-S/05/2022-23/XXIX-I-23

ANSWERS
Test No. 05, 29-01-2023 XI-O

1. (3) 24. (4) 47. (1) 70. (1) 93. (1) 116. (1) 139. (1) 162. (3)

2. (3) 25. (1) 48. (1) 71. (4) 94. (2) 117. (2) 140. (2) 163. (3)

3. (3) 26. (1) 49. (3) 72. (4) 95. (1) 118. (2) 141. (3) 164. (1)

4. (2) 27. (1) 50. (2) 73. (1) 96. (2) 119. (1) 142. (4) 165. (3)

5. (4) 28. (2) 51. (3) 74. (3) 97. (1) 120. (3) 143. (3) 166. (1)

6. (1) 29. (1) 52. (1) 75. (1) 98. (1) 121. (1) 144. (2) 167. (1)

7. (2) 30. (3) 53. (3) 76. (2) 99. (1) 122. (3) 145. (3) 168. (3)

8. (3) 31. (3) 54. (3) 77. (1) 100. (2) 123. (3) 146. (4) 169. (3)

9. (3) 32. (3) 55. (2) 78. (2) 101. (2) 124. (1) 147. (1) 170. (2)

10. (2) 33. (4) 56. (3) 79. (2) 102. (1) 125. (1) 148. (2) 171. (3)

11. (1) 34. (3) 57. (1) 80. (1) 103. (3) 126. (3) 149. (3) 172. (2)

12. (2) 35. (4) 58. (4) 81. (2) 104. (4) 127. (4) 150. (2) 173. (3)

13. (4) 36. (2) 59. (2) 82. (3) 105. (1) 128. (4) 151. (1) 174. (4)

14. (2) 37. (4) 60. (1) 83. (1) 106. (1) 129. (2) 152. (4) 175. (2)

15. (2) 38. (4) 61. (3) 84. (3) 107. (1) 130. (3) 153. (3) 176. (3)

16. (1) 39. (3) 62. (4) 85. (4) 108. (3) 131. (1) 154. (2) 177. (3)

17. (4) 40. (2) 63. (2) 86. (4) 109. (1) 132. (1) 155. (3) 178. (4)

18. (3) 41. (2) 64. (4) 87. (1) 110. (4) 133. (4) 156. (4) 179. (4)

19. (2) 42. (1) 65. (4) 88. (1) 111. (1) 134. (2) 157. (1) 180. (3)

20. (4) 43. (2) 66. (1) 89. (3) 112. (1) 135. (2) 158. (1)

21. (3) 44. (3) 67. (3) 90. (4) 113. (2) 136. (2) 159. (4)

22. (3) 45. (4) 68. (4) 91. (3) 114. (1) 137. (4) 160. (1)

23. (2) 46. (3) 69. (2) 92. (2) 115. (2) 138. (2) 161. (3)