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REVISION TEST SERIES

Test No. : 03 Date : 06/11/2022 Duration : 3 Hours M.M. : 720 Batch : IPTY

TOPICS COVERED
Physics : Work, Power, Energy and Circular Motion
Chemistry: IUPAC Nomenclature
Botany : Kingdom Fungi, Kingdom Protista and Kingdom Monera
Zoology : Chemical Co-ordination and Neural Control and Co-ordination (Neuron-Structure and Types, Impulse conduction,
Brain, Spinal Cord, Cranial Nerves, Reflex action)

PHYSICS
Choose the correct () answer:
1. A point P moves in counter-clockwise direction µg
(1) (2) µrg
on a circular path as shown in the figure. The r
movement of P is such that it sweeps out a (3) µrg (4) µg/r
length s = t3 + 5, where s is in metre and t is in
second. The radius of the path is 20 m. The 4. Which of the following statements is false for a
acceleration of P when t = 2s is nearly particle moving in a circle with a constant
y angular speed ?
(1) 13 ms–2 B (1) The velocity vector is tangent to the circle
–2 P(x, y)
(2) 12 ms (2) The acceleration vector is tangent to the
m
20

(3) 7.2 ms –2 circle

x (3) The acceleration vector points to the centre
(4) 14 ms–2 O
A of the circle
2. A bucket tied at the end of a 1.6 m long string (4) The velocity and acceleration vectors are
is whirled in a vertical circle with a constant perpendicular to each other
speed. What should be the minimum speed so
that the water from the bucket does not spill out 5. A particle travels in a circle of radius 20 cm at
during rotation (g = 10 ms2) ? a speed that uniformly increases. If the speed
changes from 5.0 m/s to 6 m/s in 2.0s, then
(1) 4 ms–1 (2) 6.25 ms–1 the angular acceleration is
(3) 16 ms–1 (4) None of these (1) 0.5 rad/s2
3. An automobile is turning around a circular road (2) 2.0 rad/s2
of radius r. The coefficient of friction between
the tyres and the road is µ. The velocity of the (3) 2.5 rad/s2
vehicle should not be more than (4) 3.0 rad/s2
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6. A stone of mass 1 kg is tied to the end of a 12. A train 1 moves from east to west and another
string 1 m long. It is whirled in a vertical circle. train 2 moves from west to east on the equator
If the velocity of stone at the top be 4 ms–1. What with equal speeds relative to ground. The ratio
is the tension in the string at the lowest point?
a1
Take g = 10 ms–2 of their centripetal accelerations a relative to
2
(1) 6 N (2) 66 N
centre of earth is
(3) 5.2 N (4) 76 N
(1) > 1 (2) = 1
7. A body of mass 1 kg is rotating in a vertical
(3) < 1 (4)  1
circle of radius 1m. What will be the minimum
difference in its kinetic energy at the top and 13. A small block slides with velocity 0.5 gr on the
bottom of the circle ? Take g = 10 ms–2
horizontal frictionless surface as shown in
(1) 50 J (2) 30 J figure. The block leaves the surface at P. The
(3) 20 J (4) 10 J angle  is
8. If  depends on t ime t in following way 1 3
 = 2t2 + 3, then  average upto 3 sec is (1) cos
4
(1) 6 rad/sec (2) 4 rad/sec r P
1 4
(3) 12 rad/sec (4) None of these (2) cos 
3
9. The velocity of a particle at highest point of the r
1 3
vertical circle is 3rg . The tension at the (3) sin
4
lowest point if mass of the particle is m is
(1) 2 mg (2) 4 mg 1 4
(4) sin
3
(3) 6 mg (4) 8 mg
10. For a particle performing uniform circular 14. Two particles tied to different strings are whirled
motion, choose the incorrect statement from the in a horizontal circle as shown in figure. The
following ratio of lengths of the strings so that they
complete their circular path with equal time
(1) Magnitude of particle velocity (speed) period is
remains constant
(2) Par ticle velocity remains directed
perpendicular to radius vector
30° L2 45°
(3) Direction of acceleration keeps changing as L1
particle moves
(4) Magnitude of acceleration does not remains m m
constant
(a) (b)
11. In the figure shown, a particle is released from
the position A on a smooth track. If h = 3R then 3 2
the normal reaction at the position B is (1) (2)
2 3
A
(3) 1 (4) None of these
B
h
15. A coin placed on a rotating turntable just slips
R if it is placed at a distance of 4 cm from the
centre. If the angular velocity of the turntable
is doubled, it will just slip at a distance of
(1) 2mg (2) 3mg
(1) 1 cm (2) 2 cm
(3) mg (4) zero
(3) 4 cm (4) 8 cm
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3 RTS/XI-S/03/2022-23/VI-XI-22

16. A body crosses the topmost point of a vertical frequencies. The coefficient of friction between
circle with a critical speed. What will be the the block and the cylinder is
acceleration when the string is horizontal?
g g
(1) 3g (2) (1) 2 2 (2) 2 2
10 g 2 f R 4 f R
(3) g (4) 2g g 2g
17. A weightless rod of length 2l carries two equal (3) 2 2 (4) 2 2
 f R  f R
masses ‘m’, one tied at lower end A and the
21. With what minimum speed v must a small ball
other at the middle of the rod at B. The rod can
should be pushed inside a smooth vertical tube
rotate in vertical plane about a fixed horizontal
from a height h so that it may reach the top of
axis passing through C. The rod is released from
the tube? Radius of the tube is R.
rest in horizontal position. The speed of the
mass B at the instant rod, become vertical is (1) 2g (h  2R )
C
5
l (2) R
2 R
B m
l (3) g (5R  2h ) h v
A m

4gl (4) 2g (2R  h )

3gl
(1) (2)
5 5 22. A particle of mass m moves on a straight line
with its velocity varying with the distance
6gl 7gl traveled according to the equation v  a x ,
(3) (4)
5 5 where a is a constant. The total work done by
18. A particle is rotated in a vertical circle by all the forces during a displacement from
connecting it to a light rod of length l and x = 0 to x = d.
keeping the other end of the rod fixed. The
mad mad 2
minimum speed of the particle when the light (1) (2)
rod is horizontal for which the particle will 2 2
complete the circle is ma 2d m 2ad
(3) (4)
(1) gl (2) 2gl 2 2
23. A particle of mass 0.1 kg is subjected to a force
(3) 3gl (4) None of these which varies with distance as shown in the
figure. If it starts its journey from rest at x = 0,
19. An object moves at a constant speed along a its velocity at x = 12 m is
circular path in a horizontal XY plane, with the
center at the origin. When the object is at F(N)
x = –2m, its velocity is –(4 m/s) ĵ . What is the
10
object’s acceleration when it is y = 2m ?
x(m)
(1) (8m/s2 )jˆ (2) (8m/s2 )iˆ O 4 8 12
(1) 0 m/s
(3) (4m/s2 )jˆ (4) (4m/s2 )iˆ
(2) 20 2 m/s
20. A hollow cylinder of radius R rotates about its
axis which is vertical. A block remains in (3) 20 3 m/s
contact with the inner wall if the frequency of
rotation is f hertz, but f alls at lower (4) 40 m/s

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24. If the kinetic energy of a body is directly 30. A body of mass 1 kg is thrown upwards with a
proportional to time t, the magnitude of force velocity 20 m/s. It momentarily comes to rest
acting on the body is after attaining a height of 18 m. How much
energy is lost due to air friction (g = 10 m/s2)
(A) Directly proportional to t .
(1) 20 J (2) 30 J
(B) Inversely proportional to t . (3) 40 J (4) 10 J
(C) Directly proportional to the speed of the body. 31. A block of mass 1 kg is placed at the point A of
(D) Inversely proportional to the speed of the a rough track shown in the figure. If slightly
body. pushed towards right, it stops at the point B of
the track. The work done by the frictional force
(1) A and B (2) A and C on the block during its transit from A to B is
(3) B and D (4) A and D
25. A chain is held on a frictionless table with one- A
fourth of its length hanging over the edge. If the B
chain has a length L and mass M, how much 1m
0.8m
work is required to pull the hanging part back
on the table
(1) –2 J (2) –4 J
MgL (3) 2 J (4) 4 J
(1) MgL (2)
3 32. A block of mass 100 g is moved with a speed of
5 m/s at the highest point in a closed circular
MgL MgL tube of radius 10 cm kept in a verticalplane.
(3) (4)
9 32 The cross-section of the tube is such that the
26. A spring of force constant 800 N/m has an block just fits in it. The block makes several
extension of 5 cm. The work done in extending oscillations inside the tube and finally stops at
it from 5 cm to 15 cm is the lowest point. The work done by the tube on
the block during the process will be
(1) 16 J (2) 8 J
(1) 0.825 J (2) –0.725 J
(3) 32 J (4) 24 J
(3) –1.45 J (4) 2.05 J
27. A stone projected vertically upwards from the
ground reaches a maximum height h. When it 33. A block weighing 10 kg travels down a smooth
is at a height 3h/4, the ratio of its kinetic and curved track AB joined to a rough horizontal
potential energies is surface (see the figure). The rough surface has
a friction coefficient of 0.20 with the block. If the
(1) 3 : 4 (2) 1 : 3
block starts slipping on the track from a point
(3) 3 : 2 (4) 4 : 1 1 m above the horizontal surface, how far will
28. A machine gun fires 60 bullets per minute with it move on the rough surface ?
a velocity of 700 m/s. If each bullet has a mass
of 50g, then the power developed by the gun is A
(1) 12.25 kw (2) 25.25 kw
(3) 2.25 kw (4) 50 kw
1m
29. A projectile is fired from the top of an 80 m high
cliff with an initial speed of 30 m/s at an
unknown angle. The speed when it hits the B
ground
(1) 50 m/s (2) 100 m/s (1) 3 m (2) 4 m
(3) 45 m/s (4) 80 m/s (3) 5 m (4) 6 m

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34. A particle of mass m is given a velocity u on a 39. A particle of mass m is projected at an angle 
rough horizontal surface of friction coefficient to the horizontal with an initial velocity u. The
µ. The average power imparted by friction until work done by gravity during the time it reaches
it stops is its highest point is

1
µmgu mu 2 cos2  mu 2 cos2 
(1) Zero (2) (1) (2) 
2 2 2
(3) µmgu (2) 2µmgu
mu 2 sin2  mu 2 sin2 
35. A block of mass 2 kg is pulled up on a smooth (3) (4) 
inclineof angle 30° with the horizontal. If the 2 2
2
block moves with an acceleration of 1.0 m/s , 40. The potential energy of 1 kg particle free to
the power delivered by the pulling force at a time move along the X-axis is given by
4 s after the motion starts will be
(1) 12 W (2) 24 W  x4 x2 
V (x )    
(3) 36 W (4) 48 W  4
 2  J
36. The force acting on a body moving along the x- The total mechanical energy of the particle is
axis varies with the position of the particle as 2 J. Then the maximum speed (in m/s) is
shown in the figure.
F 3
(1) (2) 2
2

x1 x2 1
(3) (4) 2
x 2
The body is in stable equilibrium at 41. A body of mass 3 kg is under a constant force
(1) x = x1 which covers a displacement given by the
(2) x = x2 t2
relation s  where t is in second. Work done
(3) Both x1 and x2 3
(4) Neither x1 nor x2 by the force in 2 seconds is
37. Two unequal masses of 1 kg and 2 kg are 8 19
attached at the two ends of a light inextensible (1) J (2) J
3 5
string passing over a smooth pulley. If the
system is released from rest, the net work done 5 3
by the string in 1 sec is (3) J (4) J
19 8
200 42. A particle of mass m is moving in a circular path
(1) J (2) Zero
9 of constant radius r such that its centripetal
acceleration ac is varying with time t as
100 100
(3) J (4)  J ac = k2r3t4
9 9
where k is a constant. The power delivered to
38. A pump motor is used to deliver water at a the particle by the forces acting on it is
certain rate from a given pipe. To increase the
rate three times from the same pipe, the power 1
(1) mk 2r 4t 5 (2) mk 2r 2t
of motor must be increased to 3
(1) 3 times (2) 6 times
(3) 2mk 2r 4t 3 (4) Zero
(3) 8 times (4) 27 times

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43. Power supplied to a particle of mass 2 kg varies 44. A 30 g bullet travelling horizontally at 50 ms–1
penetrates 10 cm into a wooden block. The
3 2 average force exerted by block is
with time as P  t
 2  . Here t is in second. If
 
(1) 4000 N (2) 375 N
velocity of particle at t = 0 is v = 0, then the
velocity of the particle at time t = 2 sec will be (3) 2500 N (4) 4500 N

(1) 1 m/s 45. The kinetic energy K of a particle moving in a

straight line depends upon the distance s as;
(2) 4 m/s K = as2. The force acting on the particle is
(3) 2 m/s (1) 2 as (2) 2 mas
(4) 2 2 m/s
(3) 2 a (4) as 2

CHEMISTRY
46. The IUPAC name of the following compound is 49. What is the common name for the following
H C C CH CH structure?
2 2 3

CH CH3 CH3  CH  CH3

CH3
(1) 2–ethyl–3–methylbut–1–ene
(2) 2–isopropylbut–1–ene
(3) 2–methyl–3–ethylbut–3–ene
(4) ethyl isopeopyl ethene
OH
47. The IUPAC name of
(1) 2–hydroxy–4–pentanone
(2) 4–hydroxy–2–pentanone
(3) 2–oxo–4–pentanol
(4) 4–keto–2–pentanol
48. Isobutyl amine is
(1) CH3–CH2–CH2–CH2–NH2
CH3
|
(2) CH3  CH2  CH  NH2
CH3
|
(3) CH3  C  NH2
| primary, secondary, tertiary and quaternary
CH3
CH3
|
(4) CH3  CH  CH2  NH2
|
CH3
(1) n-butane (2) tert-butane
(3) sec-butane (4) Isobutane
50. What is the IUPAC name for the following
compound?
O CH2  C  CH2  CH3
is : |
CH3
(1) 2-Methyl-1-butene
(2) Isopentane
(3) 2-Methylbutene
(4) 3-Methyl-3-butene
51. The IUPAC name of
CH3CHOHCH2CH(CH3)CHO is :
(1) 2–hydroxy–4–methyl pentanal
(2) 4–hydroxy–2–methyl pentanal
(3) 5–hydroxy hexanal
(4) 2–methyl pent–4–ol–1–al
52. Which of the f ollowing alkanes contains
carbon atoms together?
(1) (CH3)3CH
(2) (C2H5)3CH
(3) (CH3)3CCH2CH(CH3)2
(4) (CH3)4C
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CH3 58. The priority orders according to IUPAC rule is

53. The IUPAC name of is O O O

|| || ||
(1)  C  O  R  – C– Cl   C  H  SO3H
(1) 3–methyl cyclohexene
(2) 1–methyl cyclohex–2–ene O O O
(3) 6–methyl cyclohexene || || ||
(2)  SO 3H   C  O  R   C  Cl   C  H
(4) 1–methyl cyclohex–5–ene
54. The IUPAC name of (CH3)3C CH(CH3)2 is O O O
|| || ||
(1) 2, 3, 3-Trimethylpentane (3)  C  H  SO 3H   C  Cl   C  O  R
(2) 2, 3, 3-Trimethylbutane
(3) 2, 2, 3-Trimethylbutane O O O
|| || ||
(4) 1, 1, 1-Trimethylpropane (4)  C  H  SO 3H   C  O  R   C  Cl
55. What is the IUPAC name of (C2H5)4C ?
59. IUPAC name of the compound
(1) Tetraethylmethane
O O
(2) Octane || ||
(3) Triethylethane CH3  C  CH C  CH3
|
(4) 3, 3-diethylpentane OH
56. What is the IUPAC name of the compound (1) 2, 4-Dioxopentan-3-ol
CH3 (2) 2-Hydroxy-1-methylbutane-1, 3-dione
CH3
? (3) 3-Hydroxypentan-2, 4-dione
CH3
(4) 3-Hydroxy-4-oxopentan-2-one
(1) 1, 1, 2-Trimethylcyclopentane 60. Correct IPUAC name of the given structure is
(2) 1, 2, 2-Trimethylcyclopentane
OH
(3) 1, 1, 5-Trimethylcyclopentane
CH3 CH3
(4) 1, 5, 5-Trimethylcyclopentane

Cl
CH3 (1) 1, 3-Dimethylphenol
57. IUPAC name of is (2) 1, 5-Dimethylphenol
Br C2H5
(3) 2, 6-Dimethylphenol
(1) 4-Bromo-6-chloro-2-ethyl-1-methylcyclohex- (4) 2-Hydroxy-3-methyl toluene
1-ene
61. What is the common name of ethanoic acid?
(2) 5-Bromo-1-chloro-3-ethyl-2-methylcyclohex-
2-ene (1) Formic acid

(3) 5-Bromo-3-chloro-1-ethyl-2-methylcyclohex- (2) Acetic acid

1-ene (3) Acetaldehyde
(4) 1-Bromo-5-chloro-3-ethyl-4-methylcyclohex- (4) Propionic acid
3-ene

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CH3 O (1) 4 (2) 6

(3) 7 (4) 8
62. The IUPAC name of CH–O–C–CH3 is

(1) 1-phenyl-1-acetoxyethane
68. IUPAC name of compound is
(2) 1-acetoxyethylbenzene
(3) 1-phenylethylethanoate
(1) 5, 6-Diethyl-3, 8-dimethyldecane
(4) 1-methylbenzylacetate
63. Which functional group always treated as (2) 5, 6-Diethyl-3, 8-dimethyldec-4-ene
substituent in IUPAC nomenclature? (3) 3, 5, 6, 8-Tetramethyldec-6-ene

O (4) 2, 4, 5, 7-Tetraethyloct-3-ene
|| 69. Correct IUPAC name of the following compound
(1) –CHO (2)  C OH is

O Br
||
(3)  C Cl (4) –O–R
Br
64. Which of the following IUPAC name is incorrect?
(1) 2, 3-Dibromo-1-phenylpentane
(1) 3-bromo-5-chlorohexane
(2) 3, 4-Dibromo-5-phenylpentane
(2) 2, 2-diethylpropane
(3) 2, 3-Dibromophenylbenzene
(3) 2-ethylpentane
(4) 3, 4-Dibromophenylbenzene
(4) All of these
65. How many carbon atoms are present in the 70. What will be the correct IUPAC name for the
principle chain of following compound following compound?

OH

Cl
(1) 8 (2) 10
(1) 7-Chloro-2-methylbicyclo [3.2.1] octan-1-ol
(3) 11 (4) 12
(2) 7-Chloro-2-methylbicyclo [3.2.1] octan-8-ol
66. The IUPAC name of (CH3)3CCH(CH3)2 is
(3) 2-Chloro-7-methylbicyclo [3.2.1] octan-8-ol
(1) 2, 3, 3-Trimethylpentane
(2) 2, 3, 3-Trimethylbutane (4) 2-Chloro-7-methylbicyclo [3.2.1] octan-1-ol

(3) 2, 2, 3-Trimethylbutane 71. The IUPAC name of the compound CH3CONHBr

is
(4) 1, 1, 1-Trimethylpropane
(1) 1-Bromoacetamide(2) N-Bromoethanamide
67. How many carbon atoms present in principle
chain of the compound given below (3) Ethanoylbromide (4) All of these
CH3 CH3 72. The structure of spiro [3, 3] heptane is
CH
CH3—CH—CH—CH3 (1) (2)
CH
CH3 CH3
(3) (4)

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73. How many aldehyde (–CHO) groups present in

Cl
the given compound
Br
CHO O CHO
(3)
OH
F
NH–CHO 2-Bromo-1-chloro-4-Fluorocyclohexane
CHO O OH
(1) 4 (2) 2 Cl
(3) 3 (4) 1 F
74. What is the IUPAC name of Picric acid? (4)
(1) 2, 4, 6-Trinitrobenzoicacid Br
(2) 2, 4, 6-Trinitrophenol
1-Bromo-4-chloro-3-Fluorocyclo hexane
(3) 2, 4, 6-Trinitroaniline
78. The correct IUPAC name of compound is
(4) Ethane-1, 2-dioic acid
O
75. Which is the structure of 4-methylhex-5-en-3- Cl
ol?
O
(1) (2) (1) 1-Chloropentane-1, 4-dione
OH OH (2) 4-Chlorocarbonylbutan-2-one
(3) 4-Oxopentanoylchloride
(3) (4) (4) 3-Oxobutanecarbonylchloride
OH OH
79. In which of the following cyclic ring is not a
76. The IUPAC name of the compound shown below
parent chain
is
Cl
(1)

Br (2)
(1) 2-Bromo-6-chlorocyclohex-1-ene
(2) 6-Bromo-2-chlorocyclohexene
(3)
(3) 3-Bromo-1-chlorocyclohex-1-ene
(4) 1-Bromo-3-chlorohexane
77. Which of the following IUPAC name is incorrect? (4)

80. Select the correct IUPAC name of the following

(1) compound

3-Ethyl-1, 1-dimethyl cyclohexane

(1) 3-Ethyl-1, 5-dimethylcyclopentane
(2) 1-Ethyl-3, 4-dimethylcyclopentane
(2)
(3) 4-Ethyl-1, 2-dimethylcyclopentane
1-Ethyl-3-methyl-5-propylcyclohexane (4) 2-Ethyl-4, 5-dimethylcyclopentane
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81. The IUPAC name of (3) CH 3  CH 2  C  CH 2

Br is |
CH3
(1) 2-Bromo-3-methylbut-3-ene
(4) CH 3  CH  CH  CH 2
(2) 4-Bromo-3-methylpent-2-ene |
CH 3
(3) 2-Bromo-3-methylpent-3-ene
(4) 4-Bromo-2, 3-dimethylbut-2-ene 86. The IUPAC name of

82. The IUPAC name of the following compound is CH 3  CH  CH  C  CHO is

| |
O OH CH 3
C
O (1) 4-Hydroxy-1-methylpentanal
(1) n-propylethanoate (2) 4-Hydroxy-2-methylpent-2-en-1-al
(2) Ethylpropanoate
(3) 2-Hydroxy-4-methylpent-3-ene-5-al
(3) Pentanoic anhydride
(4) 2-Hydroxy-3-methylpnet-2-ene-5-al
(4) n-Propylpropanoate
87. The IUPAC name of
83. The IUPAC name of the following compound is
O OH
O C2H5 || |
O CH3  C  CH 2  CH  CHO is
O
(1) 5-Oxo-4-hydroxy-2-pentanone
(1) 3-Methoxyethylpropanoate
(2) Ethyl-4-methoxybutanoate (2) 4-Hydroxy-5-aldo-2-pentanone

(3) 1, 4-Diethyoxybutane (3) 2-Hydroxy-4-oxopentanal

(4) Ethoxy-3-methoxybutanoate (4) 1-Aldo-4-oxo-2-pentanol

84. The correct IUPAC name of the compound 88. IUPAC name of CH3–O–CH2–CH3 is

CHO (1) Methoxy methane (2) Methoxy ethane

NO2 (3) Ethoxy methane (4) None of these

89. CH  C  CH 2  CH 2  CH  CH 2 , IUPAC name of

OCH3
the compound is
(1) 4-Methoxy-2-nitrobenzaldehyde (1) 1-yne-5-hexene (2) Hex-ene-5-yne
(2) 4-Formyl-3-nitroanisole (3) Hex-5-yne-1-ene (4) Hex-1-en-5-yne
(3) 4-Methoxy-6-nitrobenzaldehyde 90. The IUPAC name of the following compound is
(4) 2-Formyl-5-methoxynitrobenzene CH2–CH–CH 2
85. 2-Methylbut-2-ene will be represented as CN CN CN
(1) 1, 2, 3-tricyano propane
CH 3
| (2) Propane tricarbylamine
(1) CH 3  CH  CH 2CH 3
(3) 1, 2, 3-propane tricarbonitrile
(2) CH 3  C  CH  CH 3
| (4) 3-cyanopropane-1, 5-dinitrile
CH 3

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11 RTS/XI-S/03/2022-23/VI-XI-22

BOTANY
91. Archaebacteria survive in extreme conditions 98. Match the followings
is due to Column-I Column-II
(1) Different cell wall structure
(A) First oxygenic (I) Xanthomonas citri
(2) Different cell membrane structure
photosynthetics
(3) Oxidise various inorganic substances
(B) BGA with protozoa (II) Asexual spore
(4) Both (1) and (2)
(C) Endospore (III)Cyanelle
92. Which of the following organism can respire
without oxygen and do reproduce by means of (D) Citrus canker (IV) Cyanobacteria
elementary bodies? (1) A  (III), B  (IV), C  (I), D  (II)
(1) Mycoplasma (2) Archaebacteria (2) A  (IV), B  (III), C  (II), D  (I)
(3) Cyanobacteria (4) Eubacteria (3) A  (I), B  (II), C  (IV), D  (III)
93. In the absence of histone protein bacterial DNA (4) A  (IV), B  (II), C  (I), D  (III)
is packaged with polyamines, which is called
99. Whitche’s Broom is plant disease, caused by
(1) Prochromosome
(1) Archaebacteria (2) Eubacteria
(2) Chromatid
(3) Cyanobacteria (4) Mycoplasma
(3) Nucleus
100. Find out incor rect statement w. r.t
(4) Advanced chromosome
archaebacteria.
94. Find out correct statement of bacteria.
(1) Methanogens are obligate anaerobes
(1) Peptidoglycan is found only in gram positive
bacteria (2) Halophiles are chemoheterotrophs

(2) Sex pili are found in bacteria having F- (3) Archaebacteria are also called living fossils
plasmid (4) Methanogens contain pigment bacterio-
(3) Pili are helical, hollow, cytoplasmic out rhodopsin in cell membrane
growth for locomotion 101. Find incorrectly said statement w.r.t binary
(4) All statements are correct fission
95. Which of the following is incorrectly said (1) It is sort of sexual reproduction
feature of eubacteria? (2) It occurs in favourable conditions
(1) Polysome – Aggregation of ribosome (3) It includes replication of DNA
(2) Prochromosome – Genophore (4) It occurs without spindle formation
(3) Reserve food material – Starch 102. Which among these is incorrectly matched.
(4) Volutin Grannules – Polymetaphosphate
(1) Nitrobacter  Nitrifying bacteria
96. Which of the following organism is excellent
(2) Klebsiella  Leaf nodules in
biofertilizer of rice field?
Dioscorea
(1) Spirullina (2) Mycoplasma
(3) Streptomyces  Gram –ve mycoplasma
(3) Aulosira (4) Chlorella
(4) Frankia  Actinomycetes
97. Which occurs at heterocyst?
103. A. Site of respiration
(1) Glucose formation
B. Also called condroid
(2) ATP formation
C. Contain respiratory enzymes near it
(3) NADPH + H+ formation
These features are of which cell structure of
(4) Photolysis of water
bacteria?
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12 RTS/XI-S/03/2022-23/VI-XI-22

(1) Flagella (2) Lateral mesosome (1) Diatoms (2) Desmids

(3) Glycocalyx (4) Col-plasmid (3) Euglenoids (4) Dinoflagellates
104. Select correct statement w.r.t. Protista 110. In which among the following organisms
stimulation by cAMP/chemical acrasin take
(1) Kingdom Protista included unicellular
many cells closer by chemotactic movement?
prokaryotes
(1) Acellular slime mould
(2) This kingdom forms a link bet ween
kingdom monera and one more kingdom (2) Cellular slime mould
i.e. plantae (3) Euglenoids
(3) Protistans are ancestors of all multicelled (4) Both (1) & (3)
eukaryotes 111. Find out correct statement w.r.t. communal
(4) All unicellular eukaryotes, with respect to slime moulds
their mode of nutrition are included in (1) Complete absence of flagellate cells
Protista
(2) Form microcyst after plasmogamy in
105. Find incorrect match among these. myxamoeba
(1) Chrysophytes – Desmids (3) Zygote does not follow meiosis and directly
(2) Completely lack cell wall – Mycoplasma germinate
(3) Cell wall with silica – Dinoflagellates (4) Does not produce sporocarp
(4) Pigments identical to higher plants – 112. Select incorrect match w.r.t. Acellular slime
Euglena moulds
106. Which of the following lacking flagella except in (1) Cytoplasmic threads – Capilitium
the reproductive stage? (2) Multinucleate,diploid mass – Plasmodium
(1) Diatoms (2) Dinoflagellates (3) Sporocarp – Absent
(3) Euglena (4) Both (1) & (2) (4) Sexual reproduction – Isogamous
107. Find incorrect statement regarding diatoms 113. Find incorrect statement for protistian fungi
(1) Reserve food is leucosin (1) Having naked protoplast
(2) Pigments are chl-a, chl-b, -carotene and (2) Creeping over debries like fallen leaves
xanthophyll (3) Spore dispersed by water current
(3) Asexual reproduction is by binary fission (4) Lack chlorophyll
(4) Sexual reproduction is from isogamy 114. Find incorrect animal like feature in Euglena
anisogamy or oogamy (1) Presence of contractile vacuole and stigma
108. Select the correct features of class dinophyceae (2) Presence of pellicle
A. Whirling whips (3) Presence of cell wall
B. Soap box model of cell wall (4) Presence of paraflagellar body
C. Vibrio shape 115. Find incorrect regarding monera
D. Mesokaryon (1) Bacteria are sole members
E. Pusule [Non-contractile vacuole] (2) Simple in structure
F. Longitudinal binary fission (3) Complex in behaviour
(1) A, D, E (2) A, B, C, D (4) Vast majourity of bacteria are autotrophs
(3) B, D, E (4) A, B, E, F 116. Bioluminescence is shown by

109. Which group members release toxins that may (1) Noctiluca (2) Euglena
kill marine animals? (3) Gonyaulax (4) Gymnodium

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13 RTS/XI-S/03/2022-23/VI-XI-22

117. Which one does not belong to monera? (2) Motile str uctures are absent in
(1) Archaebacteria (2) Mycoplasma besidiomycetes

(3) Cyanobacteria (4) Slime moulds (3) Greenish and bluish growth on bread,
citrus fruits and old leather is due to
118. Heterokont flagella is found in moulds belonging to ascomycetes
(1) Gonyaulax (4) Zoospores of ascomycetes are biflagellate
(2) Euglena with heterokont flagellation
(3) Acellular slime moulds 126. Which pair belongs to basidiomycetes?
(4) Both (1) & (2) (1) Peziza and stink horns
119. In Penicillium species having branched (2) Morchella and mushrooms
condiophores, the ultimate branches bearing
tufts of flask shaped sterigmata or the phialides (3) Puff balls and Amanita sp.
are called (4) Puff balls and Claviceps
(1) Metulae (2) Conidiophores 127. Match column I with column II and select the
(3) Rami (4) None of these correct option.
120. Asexual spores in ascomycetes are mainly Column-I (Kingdom) Column-II (Class)
(1) Ascospores (2) Conidia (A) Morels (I) Deuteromycetes
(3) Zoospores (4) Sporangiospores (B) Smut (II) Ascomycetes
121. Which of the following is the best use of lichens (C) Bread mould (III) Basidiomycetes
in case of pollution?
(D) Imperfect fungi (IV) Zygomycetes
(1) They act as bioindicator of air pollution
(1) A  (III), B  (IV), C  (I), D  (II)
(2) They treat polluted air and water
(2) A  (II), B  (III), C  (IV), D  (I)
(3) They promote pollution by absorbing uv-
rays (3) A  (III), B  (IV), C  (II), D  (I)

(4) They have no role curing pollution (4) A  (II), B  (I), C  (IV), D  (III)

122. Which structure is not the characteristic of 128. Powdery mildew fungal disease is caused by
mushrooms? (1) Neurospora – Ascomycetes member
(1) Basidiospore (2) Erysiphe – Ascomycetes member
(2) Metulae (3) Puccinia – Basidiomycetes member
(3) Dikaryotic mycelium (4) Agaricus – Basidiomycetes member
(4) Eukaryotic structure
129. Match the following columns.
123. Puccinia graminis tritici grows on wheat and its
Column-I Column-II
secondary host is
(A) Rhizopus (I) Ascomycetes
(1) Rye (2) Barberi
(3) Brassica (4) All of these (B) Penicillium (II) Basidiomycetes

124. Ascocarp of Penicillium is (C) Ustilago (III) Deuteromycetes

(1) Perithecium (2) Apothecium (D) Alternaria (IV) Zygomycetes

(3) Acrostroma (4) Cleistothecium (1) A  (IV), B  (III), B  (I), D  (II)
125. Find out the incorrect statement. (2) A  (II), B  (III), C  (IV), D  (I)
(1) In basidiomycetes, sexual reproduction does (3) A  (IV), B  (I), C  (II), D  (III)
not involve sex organs (4) A  (III), B  (IV), C  (II), D  (I)

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14 RTS/XI-S/03/2022-23/VI-XI-22

130. Clamp connections are found in (1) Both are made up of cellulose
(1) Phycomycetes (2) Both have mucopeptide
(2) Ascomycetes (3) Both are made up of N-acetylglucosamine
(3) Basidiomycetes (4) None of these
(4) Deuteromycetes 134. Ergot of rye is caused by a species of
131. The fungus without mycelium is (1) Phytophthora (2) Uncinula
(1) Puccinia (2) Phytophthora (3) Ustilago (4) Claviceps
(3) Rhizopus (4) Saccharomyces 135. ‘Foolish seedling disease’ of rice in Japan was
132. The accumulated food reserve in fungi is caused by

(1) Protein (2) Starch (1) The deficiency of nitrogen

(3) Glycogen (4) Fat (2) A bacterium

133. Which is correct for the structure of cell wall (3) A fungus
of bacteria and fungi? (4) A virus

ZOOLOGY
136. Mark the correct statement 140. Salt water balance through kidney is regulated
(A) Hormones are nutrient chemicals and are by
produced in large amount. (1) Gluco corticoids
(B) Endocrine glands are duct less glands. (2) Mineralocorticoids
(C) The posterior pituitary is under direct (3) Gonadocorticoids
neural regulation of Hypothalamus.
(4) Catecholamine
(1) A, B and C (2) B and C
(3) A only (4) C only 141. Which of the following results in hyperthyroidism

137. Hypothalamus is (1) Cretinism

(1) Basal part of diencephalon (2) Myxoedema
(2) Darsal part of diencephalon (3) Hashimoto disease
(3) Lateral part of diencephalon (4) Grave’s disease
(4) Basal part of Hind Brain 142. Which of the following statement is not related
138. Mark incorrect statement for oxytocin to Insulin
(1) Oxytocin acts on the smooth muscles of (1) Gives hypoglycemic effect
body and stimulate their contraction
(2) Promotes break down of proteins
(2) Oxytocin is der ivativ e of amino acid
Tyrosine (3) Stimulate conversion of glucose into
glycogen
(3) Oxytocin is pr oduced by Neurons of
Hypothalamus (4) Stimulate formation of proteins from amino
acids
(4) Oxytocin also called Birth Hormone
143. Which of the following is not related with
139. Protein present in follicular space of thyroid
diabetes insipidus
gland that helps to store thyroid hormone is
(1) Thyroglobulin (2) Thyroalbumin (1) Polyuria (2) Polydypsia

(3) Myosin (4) Actin (3) Glycosuria (4) Both (1) and (2)

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15 RTS/XI-S/03/2022-23/VI-XI-22

144. Common feature between glucagon and 152. Significance of chemical synapse is
adrenalin is (1) Makes impulse conduction unidirectional
(1) Released by same gland (2) Makes impulse conduction bidirectional
(2) Both induces glycogenolysis (Breakdown of (3) Increases speed of conduction
glycogen)
(4) Do not effect speed of conduction
(3) Both are derivative of same amino acid
153. Slatatory conduction is
(4) Both (1) and (3)
(1) Fast
145. Gland related to immunity is
(2) Occurs in myelinated fibres
(1) Pancreas
(3) Utilizes less energy
(2) Thyroid (4) All of these
(3) Parathyroid 154. Mark correct statement for brain
(4) Thymus (1) Number of neurons are about 100 million
146. Mark the correct match (2) Number of interconnections are 2.5 million
(1) Insulin  -cells billion
(2) Glucagon  -cells (3) Hind brain called prosencephalon
(3) Somatostatin  -cells (4) Rhombencephalon is fore brain

(4) All of these 155. Which lobe of crebral hemisphere is for

perecption of touch, pain, heat and cold
147. Which of the following is not released by
adenohypophysis (1) Occipital lobe (2) Temporal lobe
(3) Frontal lobe (4) Parietal lobe
(1) ADH (2) FSH
156. Purkinje cells are present in
(3) TSH (4) LH
(1) Cerebrum (2) Cerebellum
148. Given statements belongs to _______ hormone
(3) Mid brain (4) Pons varols
– Causes lightning of skin
157. Frog’s brain differ from human brain in
– Derivative of amino acid
(1) Meninges
– Regulate ovary maturation
(2) Number of Cranial nerves
(1) Thyroxine (2) Melatonin
(3) Corpus collosum
(3) Thymosine (4) Adrenalin
(4) All of these
149. Which hormone gives osteoclastic effect
158. Corpora quadrigemina is part of
(1) PTH (2) Calcitonin
(1) Mid brain (2) Fore brain
(3) T 3 (4) GH (3) Hind brain (4) Spinal cord
150. Mark the correct match 159. Weight of brain is about
(1) Pseudounipolar neuron – Dorsal root ganglion (1) 2.4 kg (2) 1.4 kg
(2) Microglia cells – Ecotodermal in origin (3) 3.4 kg (4) 0.4 kg
(3) Motor nerve – Affarent nerve 160. Dancig is a type of _________ reflex
(4) Sensory nerve – Efferent nerve (1) Complex reflex
151. Depolarization means (2) Skeletal reflex
(1) Influx of K+ (2) Eflux of K+ (3) Polysynaptic reflex
(3) Influx of Na+ (4) Eflux of Na+ (4) All of these
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16
161. Cauda equina of spinal cord mainly includes
(1) Cervical and thoracic nerves
(2) Thoracic and lumbar
(3) Lumbar and sacral
(4) Cervical and caudal
162. Mark the incorrect statement
(1) Dorsal root of spinal nerve has dorsal root
ganglion
(2) Ventral root of spinal nerve has ventral
root ganglion
(3) Spinal nerves are mixed type
(4) Human has 31 pair of spinal nerves
163. Pick the odd wrt nature of cranial nerve
(1) Ist cranial nerve
(2) IInd cranial nerve
(3) IIIrd cranial nerve
(4) VIIIth cranial nerve
164. CSF is secreted by
(1) Anterior choroid plexus
(2) Posterior choroid plexus
(3) Dura mater
(4) Both (1) and (2)
165. Which meninx called soft mother
(1) Dura mater (2) Arachnoid mater
(3) Pia mater (4) Cerebral cortex
166. The _____________ converts short term memory
to long term memory
(1) Amygdala (2) Hippocampal lobes
(3) Septum (4) Purkinje cells
167. Bronze like pigmentation in skin is due to over
secretions of
(1) Adrenal gland (2) Pituitary
(3) Hypothalamus (4) Thymus 173. Injury localized to the hypothalamus would most
168. In a resting nerve there is a mechanism
known as sodium pump which results in
(1) Na+ being pumped out
(2) Na+ being pumped in
(3) K+ being pumped out
(4) Both Na+ and K+ pumped out
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RTS/XI-S/03/2022-23/VI-XI-22
169. Cerebral hemisphere is the centre of
(1) Thinking
(2) Will power
(3) Reasoning
(4) All of these
170. Which part of brain controls emotions like love,
anger and pleasure?
(1) Medulla oblongata
(2) Hypothalamus
(3) Cerebrum
(4) Cerebellum
171. The PNS is consist of somatic neural system
and autonomic neural system, how many
statements are incorrect for PNS?
(A) The somatic neural system relays impulses
from the CNS to voluntary muscles.
(B) Autonomic neural system transmits
impulses from the CNS to the involuntary
organs and smooth muscles of the body.
(C) The autonomic neural system is further
classified into sympathetic neural system
and parasympathetic neural system.
(D) The somatic neural system relays impulses
from the CNS to skeletal muscles.
(1) Less than two
(2) Two
(3) More than two
(4) None of the statement is incorrect
172. Cavity of cerebral hemispheres called
(1) Lateral ventricle
(2) Paracoel
(3) Ist and IInd ventricle
(4) All of these
likely disrupt
(1) Executive functions, such as decision
making
(2) Regulation of body temperature
(3) Vision
(4) Co-ordination during locomotion
17 RTS/XI-S/03/2022-23/VI-XI-22

174. Identify the correct statement
(1) The juxtaglomer ular cells of kidney
produces ADH
(2) Gastrin stimulates the secretion of HCl
and pepsinogen
(3) Secretin acts on endocrine pancreas and
stimulates secretion pancreatic salts
(4) Glucagon is a hypoglycemic agent
175. Flow of CSF in brain is maintained by
(1) Ciliated columnar epithelium
(2) Brushbordered epithelium
177. Hyper secretion of GH from pituitary in the adult
causes a disease called
(1) Gigantism (2) Dwarfism
(3) Cretinism (4) Acromegaly
178. Mark correct statement for ANF (At rial
Natriuretic Factor)
(1) Released by atrial wall of heart
(2) Decreases blood pressure
(3) Causes vasodilation
(4) All of these
179. Daily rhythms (24 hours) are associated with

(3) Neuroglia cells (1) Pineal

(2) Pituitary
(4) Microglia cells
(3) Thymus
176. The function of oxytocin is to help in
(4) Hypothalamus
(1) Muscle contraction
180. A man has less I.Q., this is due to deficiency of
(2) Lactation which hormone?
(3) Child birth (1) Thyroxine (2) Adrenaline
(4) All of these (3) Aldosterone (4) All of these



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18 RTS/XI-S/03/2022-23/VI-XI-22

ANSWERS
Test No. 03, 06-11-2022 IPTY

1. (4) 24. (3) 47. (2) 70. (2) 93. (1) 116. (1) 139. (1) 162. (2)

2. (1) 25. (4) 48. (4) 71. (2) 94. (2) 117. (4) 140. (2) 163. (3)

3. (2) 26. (2) 49. (4) 72. (4) 95. (3) 118. (4) 141. (4) 164. (4)

4. (2) 27. (2) 50. (1) 73. (2) 96. (3) 119. (1) 142. (2) 165. (3)

5. (3) 28. (1) 51. (2) 74. (2) 97. (2) 120. (2) 143. (3) 166. (2)

6. (2) 29. (1) 52. (3) 75. (2) 98. (2) 121. (1) 144. (2) 167. (2)

7. (3) 30. (1) 53. (1) 76. (3) 99. (4) 122. (2) 145. (4) 168. (1)

8. (1) 31. (1) 54. (3) 77. (4) 100. (4) 123. (2) 146. (4) 169. (4)

9. (4) 32. (3) 55. (4) 78. (3) 101. (1) 124. (4) 147. (1) 170. (2)

10. (4) 33. (3) 56. (1) 79. (2) 102. (3) 125. (4) 148. (2) 171. (4)

11. (3) 34. (2) 57. (3) 80. (3) 103. (2) 126. (3) 149. (1) 172. (4)

12. (3) 35. (4) 58. (2) 81. (2) 104. (3) 127. (2) 150. (1) 173. (2)

13. (1) 36. (2) 59. (3) 82. (4) 105. (3) 128. (2) 151. (3) 174. (2)

14. (2) 37. (2) 60. (3) 83. (2) 106. (1) 129. (3) 152. (1) 175. (1)

15. (1) 38. (4) 61. (2) 84. (1) 107. (2) 130. (3) 153. (4) 176. (4)

16. (2) 39. (4) 62. (3) 85. (2) 108. (1) 131. (4) 154. (2) 177. (4)

17. (3) 40. (1) 63. (4) 86. (2) 109. (4) 132. (3) 155. (4) 178. (4)

18. (2) 41. (1) 64. (4) 87. (3) 110. (2) 133. (3) 156. (2) 179. (1)

19. (1) 42. (3) 65. (3) 88. (2) 111. (1) 134. (4) 157. (4) 180. (1)

20. (2) 43. (3) 66. (3) 89. (4) 112. (3) 135. (3) 158. (1)

21. (4) 44. (2) 67. (2) 90. (3) 113. (3) 136. (2) 159. (2)

22. (3) 45. (1) 68. (2) 91. (4) 114. (3) 137. (1) 160. (4)

23. (4) 46. (1) 69. (1) 92. (1) 115. (4) 138. (2) 161. (3)
19 RTS/XI-S/03/2022-23/VI-XI-22

SOLUTIONS - REVISION TEST SERIES

Test No. : 03 Date : 06/11/2022 Batch : IPTY

1. (4) s = t3 + 5 8. (1) i = 3 rad (at t = 0)

f = 2(3)2 + 3
ds
v  3t 2 , = 2 × 9 + 3 = 21 rad
dt
Therefore tangential acceleration 21 – 3 18
   6 rad/sec
3 3
dv
at   6t 2
dt
9. (4) TL – TH = 6 mg; TH 
m  3gr   mg
at t = 2 sec r
at = 6t = 12 m/s2
 TL = 8mg
at t = 2 sec, centripetal acceleration 10. (4)
v 2 (3  4)2 1 2
 ac   m/s2 11. (3) mv B  mg (3R  2R )
R 20 2

 a  (ac )2  (at )2  14 m/s2. vB  2gR

2. (1) v min  10  1.6  4 m/s mv B2

N   mg  mg
R
mv 2 12. (3)
3. (2) mg 
r 13. (1) Using conservation of energy

 v  rg 1 1
mv 2  mgh  mv 2p
2 2
4. (2)

6–5  v 2  2gh  v 2p
5. (3) at   0.5 m/s 2
2
(0.5 gr ) 2  2  10  r (1 – cos  )  v 2p
r  a t
The body leaves the contact when N = 0
a t 0.5 mv 2p
  
r 0.2 mg cos    v 2p  gr cos 
r
= 2.5 rad/s2
v 2p  gr cos 
2
6. (2) v A – v c2  4gl  4  10  1 = 40
0.25 (gr) + 2gr(1– cos ) = gr cos 
2
 v A  v c2  40  16  40  56 0.25 + 2 – 2 cos  = cos 
1 9 3
mv 2 56  2  3 cos   3 cos    cot  
 T A  mg   1  10  1   10  56 4 4 4
R 1
14. (2) Time period of conical pendulum
= 66 N
l cos 
1 1 T  2
7. (3) K  mv A2 – mv c2 g
2 2

1  L1 cos 30 L cos 45

 m ( 5gl ) 2 – ( gl ) 2  2  2 2
2  g g

1 1
 m[5gl – gl ]   m[4gl ] L1 cos 45 2
2 2  
L2 cos 30 3
1
  1  [4  10  1]  20 J
2
20 RTS/XI-S/03/2022-23/VI-XI-22

  5ml 2  2
15. (1) 3mgl   
 2 
 
o
r 6g
   v B  lB
5l

6
µmg = mr2  gl
5
g
 18. (2) O
r Bv

r  2  g = const. l light rod

C gl  v C A m
16. (2)
The minimum velocity at A for which the
B
3gl  v B particle completes the motion in vertical
g circle about O is V A  4gl
A
 V A2  V B2  2gl
v B2  v C2  2gl
 4gl  v B2  2gl  v B  2gl
= 3gl

3gl y
ac   3g 19. (1) P
l
an
a=g
o x
c
 2
a  (3g )  (g )  ( 10)g2 2m
4m/s R=2m
17. (3)
C v 2 (4) 2
l  an    8 m/s 2
R 2
B m
when the particle is at P acceleration is
l
–(8 m /s 2 ) ˆj
A m

Decrease in P.E. = mgl + 2mgl

20. (2)
(for B) (for A)
f
= 3mgl mR2
In vertical position N
µN=mg
1 1
K .E .  I 1 2  I 2  2
2 2
µmR (2f)2 = mg
1
 (I 1  I 2 ) 2
2 g
 µ
2 2
4 f R
1
 (ml 2  4ml 2 ) 2 21. (4) Applying conservation of energy
2
1
 5ml 2  2 mgh  mv 2  mg (2R )
  2
 2 
 
 v2 = 4gR – 2gh
Applying conservation of energy
v  2g (2R – h )
21 RTS/XI-S/03/2022-23/VI-XI-22

22. (3) Change in kinetic energy is the work done = mgh

by the forces (work energy theorem)
3
U  mgh
1 1 4
W  Kf  K i  mv 2f  mvi2
2 2
3
E mgh  k  mgh
1 1 3h 4
 m[a 2d  0]  ma 2d . 4
2 2
1
23. (4) Area under F-x graph gives work done  k mgh
4
1  K : U = 1 : 3.
W  [12  4]  10  80  K f  K i
2
W 1 mv 2
28. (1) P  
1 t 2 t
 mv 2f (Ki = 0)
2
1 50  10 3  60  (700)2
1  
  0.1  v 2f 2 60
2
vf = 40 m/s. 1 3  49  104 49
     103 W
2 60 4
1
24. (3)  K.E. = Ct = mv 2 = 12.25 kW.
2
1 1
 v  k0t1/2 29. (1) mgh  mv 2  mV 2
 v 2  kt 2 2
dv 1 (Conservation of energy)
a  k0t 1/2
dt 2  V = 2gh + v2 = 2 × 10 × 80 + (30)2
2

 F = ma = 1600 + 900 = 2500

 V = 50 m/s
 1 1 30. (1) Using Work-energy Theorem
 F  and F  
v
 t  Wg + Wa = K = Kf – Ki
Reference
L 1
25. (4) L ; M 0 m (20)2
8 2
4 4
1
  1  400  200
M  mass of chain 2
L  length of the chain – mgH + Wa = – 200
M   L  MgL –1 × 10 × 18 + Wa = – 200
 W  U   g    . Wa = –20 J.
 4  8 32
31. (1) Using Work-energy Theorem
26. (2) W = change in spring energy
Wg + W = K = 0
1 2 1 2 mg (h) + Wf = 0
 kx f  kxi
2 2 Wf = – mg h
1 = –1 × 10 × (10 – 0.8)
 k [(15)2  (5)2 ]  10 4
2 = – 2 J.
32. (3) Wg + Wf = K = Kf – Ki
1
  800  [20  10]  10 4 1
2 0  100  103  25
2
= 400 × 200 × 10–4 = 8 J
27. (2) P.E. = mgh = U mgh + Wf = –12.5 × 0.1 = –1.25
K.E. = 0 = k (100 × 10–3) × 10 × 20 × 10–2 + Wf = –1.25
h 0.2 + Wf = – 1.25
 E = Utk
Wf = –1.45 J.
22 RTS/XI-S/03/2022-23/VI-XI-22

33. (3) mgh = µmgd

 1 3
h 1
38. (4) P  2 a v 
 
 d   5m
µ 0.2   density of liquid
a  area of cross-section of tube (pipe)
W
34. (2) P  delivering liquid (water)
t
 P  v3
1
W  mu 2
2 u 2 sin2 
39. (4) W = –mgh where h 
Retardation produced = µg 2g
Using v = u + at
dU
0 = u – µgt 40. (1) F   0  x 1
dr
u Thus at this point P.E. is minimum
 t 
µg
1 1
=    0.25J
1 mu 2
1 4 2
P   µg  µmgu
2 u 2 9
KE = ME – (PE) = J
35. (4) F  mg sin   ma 4

1 1 2 9 3
F  mg sin   ma  2  10   2 1  2 1 v  4  v  ms–1
2 2
= 10 + 2 = 12 N 2t 4
v = u + at = 0 + 1 × 4 = 4 m/s 41. (1) V  ; V(t = 0) = 0; V(t = 2) =
3 3
P = Fv = 48 W.
36. (2) Factual 1  16  8
W  K   3  J
2  9  3
m1  m2 g
37. (2) a g
m1  m2 3 v2 dv
42. (3) ac   v = kr2t2; a   2krt
r dt
2m1m2 2 1 2 4g
T  g g F = Ma, P = Fv = 2mk2r4t3
m1  m2 3 3
v 2
Displacement of each block dv 3 2  mv 2  3 t 3 
43. (3) mv dt  2 t   2   2  3 

1 g
  (1)2 
g  0   0
2 3 6
 v = 2 ms–1
For 1 kg block  and for 2 kg block  44. (2) K = Fx  F = 375 N
 Work done by T on 1 kg block
1
45. (1) mv 2  as 2
g 4g 4g 2 2g 2 2
   
6 3 18 9 Differentiate
Work doen by T on 2 kg block
1 dv
2
m 2v  a  2s
g 4g 2g 2 ds
  
6 3 9
 Net work done by T is zero.


23 RTS/XI-S/03/2022-23/VI-XI-22

Space For Rough Work

24 RTS/XI-S/03/2022-23/VI-XI-22

Space For Rough Work