1.

The functions of plasmid are

A. DNA replication
B. Protein synthesis
C. Cell wall synthesis
D. None of the above
2. Mycoplasmas are bacterial cells that
A. Fail to reproduce on artificial meida
B. Have a rigid cell wall
C. Are resistant to penicillin
D. Stain well with Gram’s stain
3. The etiologic agent of botulism is a
A. Neurotoxin B. Endotoxin
C. Enterotoxin D. All of the above
4. The bacterial cells are at their metabolic peak
during
A. Lag phase B. Log
C. Stationary D. Decline
5. Endotoxin produced by Gram negative
bacteria is present in
A. Peptidoglycan B. Lippolysacharide
C. Theichoic acid D. Inner membrane
6.Which one of the following produce typical
fried egg appearance colonies on solid media?
A. Mycobacteria B. Mycoplasts
C. Mycoplasms D. Bacteroides
7. Meosomes are the part of
A. Plasma membrane B. ER
C. Lysosomes D. Golgi
8.Inclusion bodies diagnostic of rabies are
called
A. Elementary bodies B. Pascheur bodies
C. Negri bodies D. Guarnieri bodies
9.The major role of minor elements inside
living organisms is to act as
A. Co-factors of enzymes
B. Building blocks of important amino acids
C. Constituents of hormones
D. Binder of cell structure
10. Interferon is formed by
A. Lymphocytes B. Lymphoblasts
C. Fibroblasts D. All of these
Histones are found in
A. Prokaryotes B. Eukaryotes
C. Viruses D. None of these
11 Exotoxin are
A. Heat labile
B. Heat stable
C. Part of cell wall
D. Polymerized complexes
12.The bacterial cell multiplication is usually
by
A. Mitosis B. Meiosis
C. Conjugation D. Binary-fission
13. Teichoic acids and Teichuronic acids are
found in
A. Gram positive bacteria
B. Gram negative bacteria
C. Fungi
D. None of these
14.Meosomes are
A. Kind of ribosomes
B. Formed during cell lysis
C. A part of cell wall
D. Principal sites of respiratory enzymes
15.Bacterial capsule is chemically composed of
A. Polypeptide
B. Polynucleotides
C. Polysaccharides
D. Polypeptides or polysaccharides

16.The differences between Gram positive and

Gram negative bacteria is shown to reside in the
A. Cell wall B. Nucleus
C. Cell membrane D. Mesosomes
17.The motile bacteria is
A. Salmonella typhi
B. Klebsiella pneumoniae
C. Bacillus anthracis
D. Shigella flexneri
18.Lipid contents is more in
A. Gram negative bacteria
B. Gram positive bacteria
C. Same in both
D. None of these
19.Cell-wall is
A. Thick in Gram positive than Gram negative
B. Thick in Gram negative than Gram positive
C. Equal in both
D. In Gram negative cell-wall is absent
20. Phagocytes are
A. Monocytes B. Macrophages
C. Basophils D. All of these
21. Presence of viable bacteria in the blood
stream is called
A. Viraemia B. Septicaemia
C. Bacteraemia D. Bactericidal
22. Mycobacteria are stained with
A. Gram’s staining
B. Simple staining
C. Both a and b D. Ziehl – Neelsen’s staining
23.Influenza virus is identified by using
A. Haemaggulutinin inhibition test
B. Tissue culture method
C. Embryonated eggs
D. Plaque formation
24. Coagulase test is used for
A. Salmonella
B. Staphylococcus
C. Bordetella
D. Pneumococcus

25. Staphylococcus aureus are characterized by

A. Formation of acid in sucrose, dextrose
B. Liquification of gelatin due to production of
gelatinase
C. Strains are catalase positive
D. All of above
E. None of these
26.Fungi differs with bacteria in that it –
A. Contain no peptidoglycan
B. Are prokaryotic
C. Susceptible to griseofulvin
D. Have nuclear membranes
E. All of these
 27.A polysaccharide capsule is present on
cryptococci which –
A. Inhibits phagocytosis
B. Is an aid to diagnose
C. Cross reacts with rheumatoid factor
D. All of these
28.Techoic acid is –
A. Found in the walls of Gram positive bacteria
B. Provide receptors for phages
C. Make up outer wall of Gram negative
bacteria
D. Influence the permeability of the membrane
29. What is the function of bacterial capsule?
A. Production of organism from phagocytosis
B. Helps in adherence of bacteria to surface in
its environment
C. Both a and b
D. None of these
3O. Which of the following is the
charachteristic of bacterial spore?
A. Highly refractile
B. Usually dehydrated
C. Sensitive to formaldehyde
D. All of these
31.Temperature required for pasteurization is
A. Above 150oC B. Below 100oC
C. 110oC D. None of these
32.Separation of a single bacterial colony is
called
A. Isolation B. Separation
C. Pure culturing D. All of these
33. Blood agar medium is
A. Enrichment medium
B. Enriched medium
C. Selective medium
D. Differential medium
34.Temperature used for hot air oven is
A. 100oC for 1 hour
B. 120oC for 1 hour
C. 160oC for 1 hour
D. 60oC for 1 hour
35.Spores are killed by
A. 70% alcohol B. Glutaraldehyde
C. Autoclaving D. Both b and c
36. Example of Anaerobic medium is
A. Robertson cooked-meat medium
B. Nutrient agar
C. Nutrient broth
D. Mac-Conkey’s agar
37.The differentiate lactose and non-lactose
fermentors, the medium used is
A. Wilson &Blair
B. Blood Agar
C. Tetra thionate broth
D. Mac-Conkey’s Agar
38.Cultures are prepared by penetrating the
inoculation loop with suspension into the
medium, they are
A. Stock cultures B. Stabcultures
C. Sub-cultures D. None of these
39. Culture media for fungi are
A. Potato dextrose agar (PDA)
B. Sabouraud’s agar
C. Mycosel agar
D. All of the above
40.Laboratory diagnosis of enteric fever is
based on
A. Blood culture
B. Urine and stool culture
C. Widal test
D. All of the above
41. C.diphtheriae requires
A. LJ medium
B. Mac Conkey’s medium
C. Potassium tellurite medium
D. PDA medium
42. Culture medium for Mycobacterium
tuberculosis
A. L J medium
B. Mac Conkey’s medium
C. Wilson blair medium
D. None of these
43. Lepra bacillus is best cultured on
A. Armadillo’s brain
B. Foot pad of mice
C. Liver of guinea pig
D. Any of the above
44. A sputum exudate reveals lancet-shaped,
gram-positive cocci arranged. in pairs. This
morphology is characteristic of:
A. Streptococcus pyogenes
B. Staphylococcus epidermidis
C. Streptococcus pneumoniae
D. Klebsiella pneumoniae
E. Enterococcus faecalis

45. The ability to clot blood plasma (coagulase

+) is one of the most reliable laboratory criteria
available for the identification of:
A. Escherichia coli
B. Streptococcus pyogenes
C. Staphylococcus aureus
D. Haemophilus influenzae
E. Streptococcus agalactiae
 46. Bacterial virulence is:
A. Ability of an infectious agent to cause
disease
B. Ability of a microorganism to produce a
toxin
C. Quantitative ability of a bacterium to cause
disease
D. Ability of a bacterium to invade body tissues
47. Listeria monocytogenes differs from
Corynebacterium diphtheriae by:
A. Gram positive bacillus
B. Gram variable in staining
C. Non-spore forming rods
D. Do not have irregularly staining
metachromatic granules
48. Pathogenic Neisseria spp. For man have
following properties EXCEPT:
A. Oxidase negative B. Occur intracelularly in
neutrophils
C. Facultative anaerobic growth D. Gram
negative cocci in coffee bean pairs
49. Causative organism of human plague:
A. Paseurella multocida B. Yersinia
enterocolitica
C. Yersinia pseudotuberculosis D. Yersinia
pestis
50. The doubling time of M.tuberculosis
growth is:
A. 30 Minutes B. 1 Hour
C. 18 Hours D. 5 Days
51. The two major drugs for first line treatment
of Tuberculosis are:
A. INH and RMP B. PZA and EMB
C. INH and Streptomycin D. INH and EMB
52.The most important drug for treatment of
Leprosy is:
A. Dapsone
B. Rifampicin
C. Clofazimine
D. Isoniazid
53. Involved in causation of cholera:
A. V.cholerae o1
B. V.cholerae 01 and 0139
C. V.parahaemolyticus
D. V.cholerae
54. The inhibition of growth of alpha-
hemolytic colonies by optochin (P disc)
provides an excellent screening tool in the
identification of:
A. Staphylococci
B. Meningococci
C. Streptococci
D. Pneumococci
55. A nonmotile, gram-negative rod, isolated
from a patient's stool culture is responsible for
diarrhea. The probable diagnosis is:
A. Typhoid fever
B. Cholera
C. Staphylococcal food poisoning
D. Shigellosis E. Amebiasis
56. Once isolated in the laboratory,
Staphylococcus can be easily distinguished
from Streptococcus on the basis of:
A. The catalase reaction B. The oxidase
reaction C. The lactose fermentation reaction
D. The glucose fermentation reaction E. The
colony pigmentation reaction
57. The use of chemical agents on skin or
living tissue to inhibit or eliminate microbes is
known as:
A. Sterilization
B. Antisepsis
C. Disinfection
D. Pasteurization
E. Cleansing
58. The etiologic agent of epidemic typhus
(louse-borne typhus) is:
A. Coxiella burnetii
B. Rickettsia typhi
C. Rickettsia akari
D. Rickettsia prowazekii
 59. Although rickettsial infections are often
diagnosed clinically, confirmation of the
diagnosis is usually by:
A. serology
B. culture of the organism from blood samples
C. culture of the organism from endothelial
cells
D. PCR (polymerase chain reaction) of
circulating blood cells
60. Q fever is a disease which is:
A. diagnosed primarily in large urban cities in
the northeastern United States
B. usually transmitted by inhalation or ingestion
of organisms, not by a vector
C. manifested by a characteristic rash with
vesicles (blisters) beginning on the face and
spreading to the trunk
D. caused by Rochalimaea/Bartonella henselae
61. Characteristics of mycoplasma and
ureaplasma include:
A. the presence of a thin gram positive-like cell
wall with no cell membrane
B. rapid growth on MacConkey's agar, slow
growth on basic nutrient agar
C. the presence of only a cell membrane with
no cell wall
D. rapid growth on MacConkey's medium
routine blood agar plates
62. Endotoxin:
A. is produced by Gram-positive bacteria.
B. has profound biological effects due to the
Lipid A moiety
C. has important enzymatic activities.
D. is composed of protein.

63. Regarding the paroxysmal stage of

pertussis:
A. It begins with coryza, sneezing and diarrhea.
B. It is characterized by a violent, repetitive
cough.
C. It lasts for less than a week.
D. The bronchial epithelium is normal during
this stage.
E. There is no sign of hypersensitivity to the
proteins of the bacteria.
64. Which of the following does NOT apply to
the endotoxin of the enteric organisms?
A. derives from 0-antigen
B. derives from lipid A
C. pyrogenic in humans
D. secreted by many different
Enterobacteriaceae members
65. Generally, Enterobacteriaceae DO NOT
exhibit:
A. motility
B. nitrate reductase
C. gram-negative bacilli
D. cytochrome oxidase
E. glucose fermentation
66. The pathogenic mechanisms that make
Helicobacter pylori the causative agent of
gastritis include the following EXCEPT:
A. urease production
B. invasive abilities
C. motility
D. microaeophilism
67. Campylobacter jejuni gastroenteritis is
associated with consumption of contaminated
water or foods which include the following
EXCEPT:
A. milk
B. chicken
C. clams
D. hamburger
68. A naked virus only has a/an
A. capsid.
B. capsomere.
C. nucleocapsid.
D. envelope.
E. antigenic surface.
69. The core of every virus particle always
contains
A. DNA.
B. capsomeres.
C. enzymes.
D. DNA and RNA.
E. either DNA or RNA.
70. New, nonenveloped virus release occurs by
A. lysis.
B. budding.
C. exocytosis.
D. both lysis and budding.
E. both budding and exocytosis.
71. Which of the following is a unique
characteristic of viruses that distinguishes them
from the other major groups of
microorganisms?
A. cause human disease
B. lack a nucleus
C. cannot be seen without a microscope
D. contain genetic material
E. lack cell structure
 72. The signals for the initiation of
transcription in bacteria occur in the promoter
sequence is
A. TAAT B. CAAT
C. both A & B D. AUG
73. During replication the RNA primers are
removed and replaced with DNA by
A. DNA Polymerase I B. DNA polymerase II
C. DNA Polymerase III D. Restriction
endonuclease
74. The mode of action of the protein
synthesis inhibitor erythromycin is
A. blocks the activity of transpeptidase enzyme
B. binds on 50 S subunit
C. binds on 30 S subunit D. block binding of
next aa-tRNA
75.The antibiotic Rifampin inhibits bacterial
growth by
A. bind with DNA polymerase B. binds with
DNA ligase
C bind with DNA-dependent RNA polymerase
D. bind with DNA gyrase
76. The mode of action of the antibiotic
amphotericin B is
A. interferes fungal cell membrane synthesis
B. inhibiting the synthesis of 1,3-β- glucan
C bind to the fungal cytochrome P-450
D. Disruption of the mitotic spindle
77. Soft chancre, a sexually transmitted
disease is caused by
A. H.influenza B. H aegyptius
C. H ducreyi D. Haemophilus parainfluenzae
78. The following species of salmonella is
responsible for causing septecemia
A. S.panama B.S.london
C. S.typhi D. S. choleraesius
79. The media selectively used for the
isolation of Shigella sps.,is
A. Hektoen enteric agar B.Wilson Blair
Bismuth sulphate media
C. YEMA media D. Robertson Cooked meat
media
80. Which of the following spirochetes are
transmitted primarily by sexual contact?
A. Treponema pallidum subspecies pallidum B.
Borrelia recurrentis
C.Treponema pallidum subspecies endemicum
D. Borrelia burgdorferi
81. Which of the following is a scientific
name?
A. gram-positive streptococcus B.
Staphylococcus
C. Streptococcus pyogenes D. anthrax E.
Streptobacilli
82. The specimens are Gram stained and
analyzed microscopically. The laboratory
technician observes spherical purple-colored
cells arranged in short chains. Based upon this
evidence, which of the following microbes is
most likely the pathogen affecting the patient?
A. Bacillus cereus
B. Vibrio cholerae
C. Staphylococcus aureus
D. Streptococcus pneumonia

83. An important characteristic of all fungal

infections is that:
A. They are usually transmitted from person to
person
B. They are usually simple and straightforward
to treat
C. They cause serious disease in debilitated,
and/or immunocompromised patients
D. They are usually mixed infections with a
combination of fungi and bacteria in the same
tissue site

84. Not a feature of carcino embryonic

antigen:
A. High CEA level is normally restricted to
cells of the gut, pancreas, and liver in the course
of 2-6 months of gestation, and low level is
found in serum of normal adult(2.5g/ml.)
B. CEA level of serum is increased in many
carcinomas, such as the colon, pancreas,
stomach, and breast
C. It is a circulating glycoprotein normally
synthesized and secreted by the yolk sac and
fetal liver.
D. The level of serum CEA is used to monitor
the persistence or recurrence of the tumors after
treatment.

85. Incorrect statement about the “negative

selection” in immunological tolerance:
A. Selected cells then mature to (SP) single
positive (CD4 or CD8) T lymphocytes and
migrate to the medulla
B. Those that bind with high affinity with self-
peptide-MHC complexes are induced to
undergo apoptosis
C. After negative selection, these Single
Positive cells pass from the thymus into the
circulatory system
D. All the Double Positive thymocytes actually
exit the thymus as mature T cells

86. Which of the following statement is not

true regarding peripheral B cell tolerance?
A. B cells recognize antigen, but do not receive
T cell help undergo apoptosis
B. B cells recognize antigen, but do not receive
T cell help engaged with inhibitory receptors,
prevents activation.
C. B cells become anergic because of block in
signal from ag receptor.
D. Anergic B cells, leave lymphocytes and
activated

87. Lapse of Immunological surveillance

occurs due to all EXCEPT
A. Fast Rate of proliferation
B. Smoke screen
C. High levels of immunogenicity
D. Low levels of class I MHC molecules