You are on page 1of 8

Biology URT EXAM (Released items for 2020-2021)

Directions
This booklet contains Science 2 (Biology) test. There are 25 questions in Biology. This test measures skills and
abilities highly related to course works completed in Grades 1, 2, and 3 STEM schools.

The questions in the test are numbered, and the suggested answers for each question are lettered (A, B, C, and
D). On the answer document, the rows of ovals are numbered to match the questions, and the ovals in each row
are lettered to correspond to the suggested answers.

For each question, first decide which answer is best. Next, locate on the answer document the row of ovals
numbered the same as the question. Then, locate the oval in that row lettered the same as your answer. Finally,
fill in the oval completely. Use a soft lead pencil and make your marks heavy and black (see below an
example). DO NOT USE A PEN.

A B C D

Mark only one answer to each question. If you change your mind about an answer, erase your first mark
thoroughly before marking your new answer. For each question, make certain that you mark in the row of ovals
with the same number as the question.

Only responses marked on your answer document will be scored. Your score on each test will be based only on
the number of questions you answer correctly during the time allowed for that test. You will NOT be penalized
for guessing. IT IS TO YOUR ADVANTAGE TO ANSWER EVERY QUESTION EVEN IF YOU MUST
GUESS.

If you finish a test before time is called for that test, you should use the time remaining to reconsider questions
you are uncertain about in that test.

Lay your pencil down immediately when time is called at the end of the test. You may NOT for any reason fill
in or alter ovals for the test after time is called for that test. To do so will disqualify you from the examination.
Do not fold or tear the pages of your test booklet.

DO NOT OPEN THIS BOOKLET UNTIL TOLD TO DO SO.


Biology URT EXAM (Released items for 2020-2021)
Passage I
Gastrulation is one of the most dramatic and crucial stages of vertebrate embryogenesis. The embryo, at first is
simply a hollow ball of cells, undergoes a transformation into a multilayered structure with a central gut tube
and bilateral symmetry.
Gastrulation :
1
the process by which a gastrula forms from a blastula

formation of pre digestive system

The outer layer of cells formed during gastrulation is considered as ectoderm, the middle layer is considered
mesoderm, and inner layer is considered as endoderm. Since interactions between these three cell layers will
determine the further developmental fate of the embryo, the events occuring during gastrulation are vital for the
proper development of the organism.
Gastrulation begins when cells around the embryonic blastopore begin to invaginate, or move towards the inside
of the embryo. The site where this invagination initiates is referred to as the dorsal lip of the blastopore which
acts as an organizer, inducing the tissue directly around it to begin invagination while triggering tissue further
away to adopt other specific cell fates.
It was later found that the cells of the dorsal lip secrete a diffusible signalling substance that slowly degrades
after its secretion. The result is a concentration gradient of the substance, with higher concentrations existing
closer to the source of the secretion. Cells at different distances from the dorsal lip are exposed to different
concentrations of the substance, leading to the signalling of different behaviors. Due to its effect on
morphogenesis (the "shaping" of the embryo), this substance was referred to as a morphogen (morphogen is
defined as a diffusible substance between cells).
Question numbers (1) to (5) are related to Passage I
1. If the mesodermal cell layer is improperly (not correctly) formed during gastrulation, which of the
following later structures would most likely be affected?
A. Nervous system The three germ layers are the endoderm, the ectoderm, and the mesoderm. Cells in each germ
layer differentiate into tissues and embryonic organs. The ectoderm gives rise to the nervous
B. Heart system and the epidermis, among other tissues. The mesoderm gives rise to the muscle cells
and connective tissue in the body. The endoderm gives rise to the gut and many internal
organs
C. Stomach lining
D. Liver
2. Which of the following could NOT act as a morphogen?
A. A small, inorganic compounds
B. A steroid hormones
C. A secreted proteins Morphogens are secreting signaling molecules that play a key role in the formation of the shape and size of organs.
For example, these molecules play a role in determining the bean-like shape of human kidneys. But when these
D. A membrane proteins molecules malfunction, they can lead to organ defects and cancers
Biology URT EXAM (Released items for 2020-2021)
3. During invagination, sheets of cells around the blastopore increase in length and extend themselves
into the interior of the embryo. Which of the following could be responsible for this process of cell
sheet extension?
I. Cell shape changes within the cell sheet.
II. Mitotic division within the cell sheet.
III. Unidirectional migration of every cell in the sheet.
A. I only
B. II only
C. I and II only
D. I, II and III
4. In an embryo that is about to undergo gastrulation, the outermost cells protect more interior cells
from the external environment. This is partially accomplished by tight junctions which form near
the outer surface of these cells. This outer cell layer is most similar in structure and function to:
A. Epithelial cells.
B. Nerve cells.
C. Smooth muscle cells.
D. Connective tissue cells.
5. The early stages of human embryogenesis look very similar to comparable stages in the formation of
other vertebrate embryos. For example, human embryos have gill slits and a tail at a certain stage
in development. This observation DOES NOT support which of the following statements?
A. Humans evolved from lower vertebrates.
B. Vertebrates embryos should not have gill slits.
C. Vertebrates may share a common ancestor.
D. There is little selective advantage in altering these stages of embryogenesis.

Passage II

In the 1940s, scientists thought all genetic material was contained


in structures called chromosomes and that chromosomes had been
found only in the nucleus of a cell (not in the cytoplasm):
Chromosomes are composed of 2 types of molecules, proteins and
deoxyribonucleic acid (DNA). Proteins are composed of subunits
called amino acids. DNA consists of chains of subunits called
nucleotides. The parts of that responsible for the transmission of
genetic information are called genes.
Two scientists in the 1940s debate whether genes are made of proteins or DNA.
Protein Hypothesis
Genes are made only of proteins. Proteins make up 50% or more of a cell’s dry weight. Cells contain 20
different amino acids that can be arranged in a virtually infinite number of ways to make different proteins. The
number and arrangement of different amino acids within a protein form the codes that contain hereditary
information. In contrast, only 4 different nucleotides make up the DNA found in cells, and they are believed to
form chains only in certain ratios. As a result, the number of different combinations that DNA can carry is much
smaller than the number that proteins can carry.
Biology URT EXAM (Released items for 2020-2021)
DNA Hypothesis
Genes are made only of DNA. DNA is found exclusively in the cell’s nucleus, whereas proteins are found
throughout the nucleus and cytoplasm. Additionally, the amount of protein in a cell varies from cell type to cell
type, even within the same animal. Though DNA is less abundant than proteins, the amount is consistent from
cell type to cell type within the same animal, except for the gametes (the reproductive cells). Gametes have half
the amount of as other cells in the body. Gametes also have half the typical number of chromosomes. Thus, the
amount of DNA in cell is correlated with the number of chromosomes in the cell. No such correlation is found
for proteins.

Question numbers 6 to 12 are related to this Passage II.


6. Which of the following statements is most consistent with the DNA Hypothesis? The amount of DNA
will generally increase from cell type to cell type as the number of:
A. Amino acids in the nucleus increases from cell type to cell type.
B. Amino acids in the nucleus increases from cell type to cell type.
C. Chromosomes in the nucleus increases from cell type to cell type.
D. Chromosomes in the nucleus increases from cell type to cell type.

7. By referring to the observation that DNA is found exclusively in the nucleus while proteins are found
throughout the cell, the scientist supporting the DNA Hypothesis implies that genes are made only of
DNA because which of the following are also found only in the nucleus?
A. Chromosomes
B. Gametes
C. Vitamins
D. Fatty acids
8. According to the passage, a difference between DNA and proteins is that both types of molecules:
A. Proteins are found only in gametes while DNA is not.
B. Proteins and DNA are abundant in the cytoplasm.
C. Proteins contain 20 different amino acids while DNA contain 4 types of nucleotides.
D. Protein contain nitrogen base while DNA contain peptides.
9. According to the Protein Hypothesis, which of the following observations provides the strongest
evidence that genes are composed of proteins?
A. Proteins composed of 20 amino acids.
B. Protein is composed of smaller subunits than are DNA.
C. Proteins are abundant in the nucleus only.
D. The concentration of proteins is generally consistent from cell to cell.

10. Mitochondria are organelles located in the cytoplasm that are responsible for energy transformation
in a cell. After the 1940s, it was observed that mitochondria contain their own genes. This observation
contradicts evidence stated in which hypothesis?
A. The Protein Hypothesis, because if genes are made of proteins, the observation would show that proteins
are present inside the nucleus.
B. The DNA Hypothesis, because if genes are made of DNA, the observation would show that DNA is
present outside the nucleus.
C. The DNA Hypothesis, because if genes are made of DNA, the observation would show that DNA is
present inside the nucleus.
D. The Protein Hypothesis, because if genes are made of proteins, the observation would show that proteins
are present outside the nucleus.
Biology URT EXAM (Released items for 2020-2021)

11. The scientist who describes the DNA Hypothesis implies that the Protein Hypothesis is weakened by
which of the following observations?
A. Proteins are found only in the nucleus.
B. Protein molecules are composed of many subunits.
C. For a man, the amount of protein in different types of cells is not the same.
D. For a man, the amount of protein in the gametes is half that found in other types of cells.
12. Which of the following illustrations of a portion of a protein molecule is consistent with the
description in the passage?

Passage III
Urease is an enzyme used by plants to break down urea (a nitrogen-containing compound) into carbon dioxide
and ammonia. Plants need nitrogen to grow and can obtain it from ammonia, but not from urea. In soybean
plants there are 2 different kinds of urease, one produced in the seeds and the other produced in the leaves of the
plant. Mutations in the chromosomes of the soybean can stop production of either enzyme. In the following
experiments, 3 types of soybean plants were used: normal soybeans and 2 mutant strains, 1 lacking the seed
urease (Strain 1) and 1 lacking the leaf urease (Strain 2).
Experiment 1
Separate areas in a field were planted with normal, Strain 1, and Strain 2 soybeans. All types of soybeans
appeared to grow, flower, and produce seeds equally well. There were no externally detectable differences
among the strains.
Experiment 2
Small pieces of plant tissue of equal weight were obtained from each type of soybean plant and separately
placed on media in culture dishes. Tissue growing in this way will become an unorganized clump of cells
referred to as callus. To provide a controlled nitrogen source, half the tissue samples of each type were placed
on media containing urea, and the other half of the samples were placed on media containing ammonia. After 30
days, the weight gain for each of the callus samples was determined. Results are shown in the table below.

Weight gain (mg)


Plant type Urea Ammonia
Normal 150 180
Strain 1 155 160
Strain 2 50 170
Biology URT EXAM (Released items for 2020-2021)
Question numbers 13 to 17 are related to this Passage III.
13. Which of the following not describes the role of urease in the plants grown in the field?
A. Urease activity in leaves is not essential for soybean growth.
B. Urease activity in seeds is not essential for soybean growth.
C. Urease breaks down into carbon dioxide and ammonia.
D. Urease is essential to the growth of soybeans.
14. Which of the nitrogen sources in Experiment 2 served as the control group?
A. Urea, because it cannot be used by Strain 2.
B. Urea, because it can be broken down by urease.
C. Ammonia, because it will inhibit the effects of urease.
D. Ammonia, because all 3 strains of soybeans can use it.
15. Mutant strains are most useful in experiments like those in the passage because they:
A. Can be modified to suit almost any type of research.
B. Differ from normal strains in unknown, unpredictable ways.
C. Provide a natural, noninvasive way to vary a characteristic.
D. May produce unexpected results.
16. In studying the metabolic needs of the soybean strains, Experiment 2 was probably more accurate
than Experiment 1 because in Experiment 2 the:
A. Nitrogen source in the media were more controlled.
B. Nutrients in the soil could not be measured.
C. Nutrients in the soil were more controlled.
D. Callus was much different from the plants.
17. Suppose a third strain were found that was unable to produce either form of urease. If this strain
were subjected to the same procedures as those in the passage, what would be the expected results?
A. Callus would not grow on urea or on ammonia; the plant would not grow in the field.
B. Callus would not grow on urea but would grow on ammonia; the plant would grow in the field.
C. Callus would not grow on urea but would grow on ammonia; the plant would not grow in the field.
D. Callus would grow on urea and on ammonia; the plant would grow in the field.

Passage IV
Fishes are appropriate indicators of trends in aquatic biodiversity because their enormous variety reflects a wide
range of environmental conditions. Fish also have a major impact on the distribution and abundance of other
organisms in waters they inhabit.

The proximate causes of fish species decline can be divided into five broad categories: (1)
competition for food, (2) habitat alteration, (3) pollution,(4) introduction of exotic species, and (5) commercial
exploitation. Although one or two principal causes of decline can be identified for each species, the decline is
typically the result of multiple, cumulative, long-term effects.

For example, since the building of the high dam in Aswan a lot of changes happen to biodiversity in south
Egypt, the region's fishing industries struggled to grow because the fish that did live in the river and lakes were
predominately small-bodied and bony. So, to solve the commercial use they brought the (Nile perch).

The Nile perch can grow far larger than many of the other Nile fish, and was perfect for commercial fishing.
Being a carnivorous fish, the Nile perch made the smaller native fish its prey. As the population of the Nile
perch grew, the populations of the other species plummeted.
Biology URT EXAM (Released items for 2020-2021)
Question numbers (18) to (21) are related to Passage IV
18. From the previous what is the type of the human impact on the biodiversity?
I- Introduce an invasive species.
II- Distribution of network.
III- Breeding and cloning.
A. I only is correct.
B. II only is correct.
C. III only is correct.
D. II and III are correct.
19. Biological evolution matches most closely to which of the following descriptions:
A. Genetic drift over time.
B. The change of inherited characteristics of a population.
C. The preservation of endangered species.
D. The origins of life.
20. There are several conditions that are required for natural selection to produce evolutionary change.
Which of the following was NOT included?
A. Variation.
B. Offspring resemble parents.
C. Sexual reproduction that produces a variety of characters.
D. Some variants are more likely to survive or reproduce than others.
21. The two processes that lead to biological evolution are:
A. Self-reproduction and natural selection
B. Changing cell structures and self-reproduction over time
C. Mutation and changing cell structures over time
D. Natural selection and mutation
Biology URT EXAM (Released items for 2020-2021)
Passage V:
When Charles Darwin visited the Galapagos island in 1830s, he noticed that 13 different species of finches were
all very similar, but different in the size and shape of their beak. Some of the birds had long thin beaks while the
others had short thick ones; others still had shapes somewhere in between. He noticed that each of the species
occupied separate islands; each of them had different types of food. Each beak, he realized, was suited to their
diet. These finches turned out to be crucial in helping Darwin shape his theory. Darwin realized that the birds
had grown beaks specialized for their environment because nature had forced them to, over many generations.
Long ago, birds with many different types of beaks had probably been present on each island. However, over
time, the birds with beaks better suited for each of the islands’ food supply—for example, birds with long, thin
beaks on islands where insects were prominent—had flourished, while finches with other kinds of beaks had
dwindled. Over time, the poorly suited finches had died out altogether, leaving only those finches with proper
adaptations to thrive.

Without evolution, there would be no natural selection. Evolution refers to the process by which traits inherent
to a species of animal change, and sometimes grows more specialized to the environment.
Charles Darwin may have been the first to describe the process of selective breeding. But the practice may be
more than 2,000 years old. The Romans are said to have practiced selective breeding among their livestock,
showing favor to cows that produced a lot of milk. But it wasn’t until the 18th century that farmers began
practicing it on a large, industrial scale.
Question numbers (22) to (25) are related to Passage V
22. Which scientific theory did Charles Darwin shape?
A. circumnavigation
B. cell theory
C. theory of evolution
D. climate change theory
23. From the passage describe the sequence of events by which an insect population can become immune
to pesticides?
A. A pesticide is designed to kill all of a particular species of insect.
B. Insects breed very quickly.
C. A single insect undergoes a genetic mutation that allows it to survive the pesticide and reproduce.
D. The population of insects that can be killed by pesticides falls.
24. The different types of beaks that Darwin found on finches in the Galápagos helped him shape his
theory. What evidence from the text supports this conclusion?
A. Charles Darwin may have been the first to describe the process of selective breeding.
B. Darwin realized that birds had grown specialized to their environment because nature had forced them to.
C. Darwin found thirteen different types of finch beaks on the Galápagos Islands when he visited in the 1830s.
D. Evolution refers to the process by which traits inherent to a species of animal change.
25. Why natural selection could be important to the survival of certain animal species?
A. It leads to a population of animals that are able to change their environment.
B. It leads to a population of animals with the traits best suited for an environment.
C. It makes animals more aggressive and violent toward humans.
D. It leads to more cooperation between humans and animals.

You might also like