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Mock Test Solutions in English

Questions

1. Read the poem carefully and answer the following question:

No man is an island entire of itself; every man

is a piece of the continent, a part of the main;

if a clod be washed away by the sea, Europe

is the less, as well as if a promontory were, as

well as any manner of thy friends or of thine

own were; any man's death diminishes me,

because I am involved in mankind.

And therefore never send to know for whom

the bell tolls; it tolls for thee.

Which of the following cannot be inferred from the poem?


A. Just by being human, everyone is part of B. Each death diminishes the strength of the human
humanity. race.
C. No man is expendable. D. It is every man for himself.
E. Death is coming for everyone.
2. Carefully read the following statement:

The big change that I have seen in my four decades as a diplomat was actually in the _______ of India–
US relations. And your question—how do I see the _______—quite honestly, I see today a United States
very international, very much more to engaging—very much more open to engaging a country like India,
which is actually thinking beyond traditional _______, which has been very effective at finding common
ground with _______ or actual partners.
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Which of the following options will BEST fill up the above blanks meaningfully?
A. optimisation; future; cultures; real B. validation; predilection; practices; imaginary
C. transformation; trajectory; alliances; potential D. psychosis; prediction; allies; large
E. cauldron; upswing; relations; unpredictable
3. Which of the following sentences have INCORRECT usage of prepositions?

1) He succeeded by dint of perseverance and sheer hard work.

2) He died fighting on behalf of his country.

3) The loud noise is coming from across the street.

4) We stayed at Chennai for a fortnight.

5) The cat is lying in the floor.

6) There weren’t many people on the auditorium.


A. 1, 2, and 3 B. 4, 5, and 6
C. 3, 4, and 6 D. 3, 4, and 5
E. 2, 3, and 4
4. Read the following passage carefully, and answer the given question.

The case for a catastrophic cause of mass extinction of dinosaurs was strengthened by the discovery of a
worldwide enrichment of the rare element iridium in a narrow band of geological strata formed 66 million
years ago. The source of that iridium was proposed to be from a huge asteroid that collided with the Earth,
coinciding with the time of the mass extinctions. The discovery of the Chicxulub impact crater in the
Yucatan Peninsula on the Gulf of Mexico confirmed, from its size and structure, that a large celestial
object had collided with the Earth at the time that the mass extinctions had occurred. The consequences
of that impact would indeed have been catastrophic, not just in the geographic region around the impact
site, but worldwide because of environmental changes from an atmospheric dust and aerosol cloud that
would have remained for years in the stratosphere.

Which of the following statements can be BEST concluded from the passage?
B. Not all species went extinct during the asteroid
A. Geological disasters happen frequently.
strike.
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C. All species go extinct once every 66 million years. D. Asteroid strikes on Earth are frequent.
E. Mass extinctions of dinosaurs and a large
asteroid hitting Earth are correlated.
5. Carefully read the following statement:

Most people have commented that the three major factors that most impact our world today are the arrival
of infectious diseases, the internet, and global warming. All three are unplanned, _____, and _____ upon
their discovery and remain _____ well after their arrival.
A. Astonishing; amazing; amazing B. Surprising; fulfilling; unfulfilling
C. Amazing; shocking; shocking D. Unpredicted; underestimated; underestimated
E. Unappreciated; unappreciated; indifferent.
6. Which of the following sentences are grammatically CORRECT?

1) The company had many old computers that it wanted to dispose off.

2) My nephew is good at basketball.

3) He has won the race many a times already.

4) Managers should not give negative feedback to your employees.

5) Employees are struggling to cope up with work pressure.

6) I enjoyed a pleasant dinner last night.

Options:
A. 1, 2, and3 B. 4, 5, and 6
C. 2, 3, and5 D. 1, 2, and 6
E. 3, 4, and 5
7. Which of the following conditional sentences are grammatically INCORRECT?

1) The family would have missed the train even if they had not been caught in a traffic jam.

2) I would travel across America if I weren’t afraid of travelling by air.

3) Ramesh won’t take leave unless his boss sanctions it.


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4) Suresh gave the examination without much preparation.

5) Should you wish to join the course, you must let me know this evening.

6) We will be foolish had we shared the secret with her.

Options:
A. 1, 2, and 3 B. 4, 5, and 6
C. 2, 3, and 5 D. 1, 2, and 6
E. 3, 4, and 5
8. Read the following excerpt carefully, and answer the given question.

The overwhelming number of youngsters in our country are physically illiterate, not because they do not
love sports and games, but rather because they have been (socially conditioned) indoctrinated to believe
that success can only come from achieving academic excellence. They have one-track minds.

Which of the following is not likely to be true if the facts stated in the passage are correct?
A. Most youngsters are passionately fond of
B. Most youngsters are academically competitive.
watching sports.
C. Most youngsters devote most of their time to
D. Many youngsters devote a lot of time to sports.
schoolwork.
E. Obesity amongst youngsters is increasing
dramatically.
9. Arrange the following sentences in a LOGICAL sequence:

1) It belongs to the city.

2) When you say ‘not in our backyard,’ you are believing your block belongs to you.

3) Local communities hold enormous power to block development, often through local council members in
New York City or county executives in the suburbs.

4) As the housing crisis intensifies, there are signs that New York’s politicians may finally be willing to
stand up to NIMBYism.
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5) In New York, patience for this kind of NIMBYism—the ‘not in my backyard’ phenomenon in which
communities oppose badly needed new housing—is growing thin.
A. 45321 B. 53421
C. 45123 D. 34521
E. 31245
10. Read the passage carefully and answer the following question:

Social media has helped many elderly people connect with their old friends. It has also provided them
access to content of their interest, which helps them spend their time meaningfully. Further, many elderly
have become content creators, thus giving an outlet to their creativity. However, it has also resulted in
absent-mindedness among them. Many of them remain glued to their screens at the expense of physical
activity. It has also fuelled the spreading of fake news as the elderly are more vulnerable to it and more
likely to share it.

Which of the following can be most reasonably concluded from the argument?
A. Social media has been a blessing in disguise for B. Social media may have both positive and negative
the elderly. effects on diverse age groups.
C. Social media has been more disadvantageous D. Social media may have benefitted more than
than beneficial for the elderly. harmed the elderly.
E. Social media is a double-edged sword for the
elderly.
11. Read the passage carefully, and answer the following question:

In the past, many of the apparently neutral laws related to the workplace (e.g., wage laws, health
coverage laws, and labour organization laws) were put to the use of impeding women’s economic and
social advancement. Women workers were barred from making separate labour unions, even though
many of them were excluded from the general labour unions. In fact, the gap between male-female
employment rates can be traced back to the moment of implementation of these laws. In short, the laws
that should have led to the advancement of women in work pulled them back.

Which of the following would strengthen the author’s argument the most?
B. Prior to the enactment of the above-mentioned
A. Prior to the formation of labour unions, workers
laws, women reported that they were happy with
did not have any influence in the workplace.
their work conditions.
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C. Prior to the enactment of the above-mentioned D. Prior to the enactment of the above-mentioned
laws, some women had considerable influence in the laws, even though there was no gap in the male-
labour unions. female employment rates, wage-related
discrimination amongst men and women was
prevalent.
E. Prior to being barred, women labour unions
regularly voiced their concerns to ensure parity in
the matters of wages and health coverage.
12. Read the passage carefully and answer the THREE questions that follow it.

Cravings are particularly common with certain drugs, including alcohol, nicotine, opiates and cocaine.
Moreover, not only do cravings play this intrusive role in active drug use, but these unwanted desires can
arise and be highly motivating even years into recovery from addiction. Craving is a major predictor of
relapse. A systematic review of studies assessing the link between craving and substance use by using a
method that evaluates craving episodes in real time in daily life found that in 92 per cent of studies craving
was linked to substance use and relapse. Cravings can repeatedly override plans and resolutions to
moderate or abstain from drug use, and this can be a disruptive, frustrating, demoralising and traumatising
experience for those who battle these cravings – an experience that for some lasts a lifetime.

A lot of medical and clinical thinking about addictive craving is driven by a certain neuroscientific picture
that explains cravings in terms of the effects of drugs on the production of dopamine in the brain. In this
picture, the object of a craving is a drug itself or the pleasurable effects that getting high is expected to
produce. But, by focusing narrowly on the brain, this view misidentifies the object of craving in addiction,
or at least puts too much emphasis on the chemical component. When we look at the social and
psychological factors that correlate with addiction, the real object of craving is made salient. In truth,
addictive cravings seek out vital emotional experiences. They aim at numbing out, feeling in control, or
feeling socially connected. Experiences such as these become particularly valuable and simultaneously
elusive under certain environmental conditions. Understanding the object of addictive craving in this way
helps to explain why cravings in addiction are so hard to resist.

One of the most popular dopamine-based explanations of craving focuses on reward-learning. While
some of our desires may be hardwired, most are learned and are very malleable. The mainstream view is
that this learning depends on the dopaminergic system. Phasic dopamine is a reward prediction error
signal: it signals to animals, such as us, the difference between the actual amount of reward in the world at
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a given moment and the amount of reward anticipated. Bursts of dopamine are released when unexpected
rewards, or unexpected cues that signal rewards, are encountered. These bursts tell us to act when we
come across rewarding objects or related cues in our environment.

Which of the following statements BEST summarises the author's view on cravings?
B. Cravings are connected most strongly with reward
A. Cravings tend to fulfil certain emotional
learning, with bursts of dopamine being released
experiences that are otherwise elusive.
when the rewards are unexpected.
C. Cravings cannot be focused exclusively on the D. Cravings are a major predictor of relapse, and this
brain but from a person’s desires to seek out relapse can occur even years after recovery from
important emotional experiences. addiction.
E. Cravings occur because we tend to look for
reward receptors, particularly rewards that are
unexpected.
13. Which of the following statements BEST explains why connecting cravings to the brain only is misleading?
A. Cravings can occur and be highly motivating even B. By concentrating exclusively on the brain, the
years into recovery from addiction. purpose of cravings is misidentified.
C. People seek critical emotional experiences D. Cravings based on reward receptors enable
through cravings for substances. people to seek out important emotional experiences.
E. Cravings are not a physiological issue but a social
and psychological one.
14. Based on the passage, which of the following can BEST help a person avoid addictions?
A. Seeking out critical emotional experiences without
B. Ignoring reward receptors signals from the brain
any aid from drugs
C. Abstaining from peer groups that are heavily into D. Responding to unexpected rewards and
substance abuse dopamine surges in the brain
E. By seeking an environment where the person
feels socially connected and in control.
15. Arrange the following sentences in a LOGICAL sequence.

1) You need to have alternatives that are adapted to local conditions.


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2) They’re looking at underutilised foods, both wild and cultivated, and asking which ones make sense for
our hotter, drier future.

3) Researchers have been working on expanding food diversity in an effort to ‘future-proof’ our diets.

4) They’ve been selected for colour or yield.

5) Our favourite crops are not necessarily the ones that can withstand climate change in the future.
A. 45321 B. 53421
C. 45123 D. 32541
E. 31245
16. Read the passage given below carefully, and answer the THREE questions that follow.

Logic dictates that happiness relies, at least in part, on a person’s ability to regulate their emotions. After
all, emotion regulation is the process of trying to change one’s current emotions to reach a more desired
emotional state. For example, I hate crying at sad movies, so whenever I feel the sadness creeping up, I
usually crack a joke to ward it off. Many of the emotion-regulation strategies people commonly use might
be familiar to you, such as doing fun things, talking with a friend, and trying to think about the situation
differently.

However, there is actually a much simpler way to change how you feel, as my colleagues and I, along with
other researchers, have found. It starts with answering the question ‘How do you feel?’ You might think of
the answer as just a ‘report’ of your current emotional state or mood, end of story. But there’s more to it:
research shows that the mere act of answering this question actually changes the emotions you are
currently feeling.

When we put our feelings into words in this way, scientists call it ‘affect labelling’. In psychology, the word
‘affect’ (the ‘a’ is pronounced as in the word ‘tap’) refers to the family of feelings that include emotions and
moods. So, if someone asks you how you feel or if you ask yourself the same question, you ‘affect label’ if
you respond by saying something like ‘I feel angry’, but not if you just respond with a grunt or a grimace.

Studies have shown that when people label their negative emotions, it can decrease how negative they
feel. For this research, participants typically view various negative emotional stimuli (such as images of
snarling dogs or impoverished children) and then the researchers ask them to either label the emotion of
the image (eg, ‘fear’ or ‘sad’) or, for a control comparison, to label the content of the image (eg, ‘animal’ or
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‘person’), and finally the participants will report their emotional feelings. Importantly, at no point do the
researchers instruct the participants to purposefully and effortfully reduce their negative emotions. Most
participants are also unaware that labelling their emotions might change their feelings. The fact that
labelling the emotion provoked by an image nonetheless has this dampening effect on participants’
negative feelings suggests that affect labelling is different from those deliberate emotion-regulation
strategies I mentioned earlier. It seems that affect labelling can help reduce negative emotions ‘implicitly’ –
or without a conscious goal.

You might wonder what this has to do with experiencing more happiness, rather than just less misery.
Relevant here is whether affect labelling works the same way with positive emotions as with negative
emotions – by reducing them – or whether it works differently? To answer this question, my team used
much of the same methodology as in the previous research, but we also had participants label the
emotions or content of positive emotional images (eg, cute puppies or laughing children). In an initial
study, we found a curious result: after participants affect labelled the positive images, they actually
felt more positive emotions.

Which of the following statements BEST contrasts emotion-regulation from affect-labelling?


A. Emotional regulation implies changing one’s B. Emotional regulation implies controlling one’s
emotional state by thinking of something else, while negative emotions, while affect-labelling implies
affect-labelling implies controlling our feelings. expressing one’s negative emotions.
D. Emotional regulation implies consciously
C. Emotional regulation is not as effective or long changing one’s emotions to reach a more intended
lasting as affect-labelling. emotional state, while affect-labelling implies putting
our feelings into words.
E. Emotional regulation implies putting on a stoic
attitude to negative emotions, while affect-labelling
implies expressing one’s negative feelings freely.
17. Which of the following statements can be inferred from the passage?
B. Affect labelling is easier to implement than
A. Affect labelling applies to negative emotions only.
emotional regulation.
C. Intuition states that a person’s happiness lies in D. Affect-labelling implies diverting one’s thoughts
his ability to control his emotions. when encountering a negative situation.
E. Emotional regulation implies an image-based
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approach to changing one’s emotions.


18. Which of the following statements can be BEST concluded from the passage?
A. Both emotion regulation and affect labelling are B. Affect labelling is a simpler method of altering
effective techniques in altering one’s emotions. one’s emotions than emotion regulation.
C. When we put our feelings into words, our D. Affect labelling is effective with negative images
emotional state changes. only.
E. Faced with negative emotions, one should try and
divert one’s mind to happier situations.
19. Read the passage given below carefully, and answer the THREE questions that follow it.

Time, which we are so used to managing, marshalling and accounting for, is bent out of shape; a vivid
time-landscape is flattened to the ground. As Matthew D’Ancona wrote in a piece to mark a month of the
UK lockdown due to the covid pandemic, we are caught in a double bind of “sensory overload and
existential crisis.”

Mark Earls, a behavioural economist tells us that lockdown, while necessary, is not, in fact, good for us.
Whatever gloss we choose to apply or resilient strategies we rightly employ to remain cheerful, sane or
stoic, “human beings are not meant to live in isolation, to live in small cells, not being able to trust
strangers.”

Solidarity, which normally means we draw near to each other, is bent back on itself. Denied the endorphins
of our typical forms of common action, we stay apart in testy and increasingly weary isolation in order to
be committed to our common good.

This rupture in our way of living, while blindingly obvious, produces not instant articulacy about the
meaning of this time and the future we might grasp beyond it, but rather, D’Ancona writes, a sense of
collective “asphasia.” He characterises this condition as “a collective inability to speak with confidence
about the sudden knock of history at every door in the land.” Lambasting the dual face of denial in our
midst — those who think lockdown is all an over-reaction and those who think it’s a chance to hunker
down and embrace new forms of personal fulfilment — D’Ancona tell us, lockdown is not “a surreal
sabbatical” of novel reading but, for most, simply a “nightmare” to be survived.

This rupture is for many, intensified pain and precarity. Rising domestic violence, plummeting mental
health, parents struggling for access to their children in frayed parenting arrangements, rising hunger,
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overwork for some, risky work for many and sudden unemployment for others, are the dreadful tidal flows
of this pandemic that drag us unwillingly into slipstreams we do not know easily how to navigate and
survive.

According to the passage, what can be BEST characterised about the effects of the COVID-19 pandemic
on people?
A. It has afforded us the ability to read novels and B. It is simply a very bad period that is to be
seek new forms of personal satisfaction. endured.
D. It has caused an existential crisis amongst most
C. It has made most people inarticulate.
people.
E. It has caused so much information through our
senses that our brains are not able to process it.
20. Based on the passage, which of the following options BEST describes ‘aphasia’?
B. The COVID-19 pandemic has resulted in more
A. The sudden rupture due to the COVID-19
information coming to our brain than our brain can
pandemic has caused an existential crisis.
effectively process.
D. A group disorder due to the COVID-19 pandemic
C. The sudden rupture due to the pandemic has
that has made most people unable to communicate
enabled people to seek personal satisfaction.
confidently.
E. The COVID-19 pandemic has divided people into
two groups: those who think lockdowns are
unnecessary and those who are in support of them.
21. Which of the following statements is NOT TRUE with regard to the pandemic period?
A. The concept of managing time still remained the B. There was a reduction in solidarity amongst
same. people.
C. For most people, new forms of personal fulfillment
D. It led to decreasing mental health.
were not possible.
E. Our minds and senses were overwhelmed with
information.
22. Read the passage carefully and answer the THREE questions that follow.

Frankfurt also makes a second point: sometimes a person who is coerced into doing an action is morally
responsible for such action. He states that, “It is natural enough to say of a person who has been coerced
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to do something that he could not have done otherwise”.

Frankfurt makes the point that a person who is unable to do otherwise should sometimes still be morally
responsible for his actions even though he had no other alternative. I firmly believe, even in my example of
X, that one does not bear moral responsibility because one does not have the ability to do otherwise.
However, bearing no moral responsibility would leave an absence, allowing for X to do the same action
again if not in the same harsh situation.

There is also the possibility that X was uncaring for what would happen next if he went through with what
Y wanted. Therefore, X could be morally responsible in that situation. Another point in Frankfurt’s essay is
that if X honestly and seriously intended to do what Y wanted him to do regardless, he still would be
responsible even though he could not have done otherwise. Suppose X had already decided to do an
action before he was coerced by Y to do the same action. This would not allow coercion to excuse moral
responsibility because X had an alternative and chose on his own to do an action. Therefore there was
free will involved in the decision that X had made.

Frankfurt makes a point similar to the effect that if X were to be excused from committing a crime, it was
not because there was no alternative. This is a very important concept in itself, because one cannot be
excused just because one was coerced into doing an action. Again, if we look at the case of X, we can
excuse him for his actions, but not because of the power of Y’s coercion. X will not bear the full moral
responsibility as if he were to do it on his own, but he will bear some moral responsibility, and Y will bear
the rest. In my example of X, there was an alternative possibility that X could have clearly chosen,
although it is unfavourable to the reasonable person. This alternative possibility was death, and X could
have chosen this in order to spare B’s life, and X would have remained wholly innocent.

Which of the following statements BEST represents the final conclusion from the passage?
A. A person who is coerced into doing an action is B. If X was coerced to take an action by Y, then Y will
morally responsible for such action. bear the full moral responsibility.
C. If X bears no moral responsibility for being
D. If X was coerced to take an action by Y, then only
coerced into taking an action, then he may do the
Y will bear some moral responsibility.
same action again.
E. A person who is not coerced into doing an action
is not morally responsible for such action.
23. At which point, do the author and Frankfurt differ in their views?
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A. A person who was being coerced to do an action B. A person who is coerced into doing an action is
could have chosen the alternative of death according morally responsible for such action according to the
to the author, but Frankfurt does not agree with this author but not according to Frankfurt.
line of reasoning.
C. If X had already decided to do something before D. A person who is coerced into doing an action is
he was coerced by Y, then X is guilty according to morally responsible for such action according to
Frankfurt but not according to the author. Frankfurt but not according to the author.
E. If X is coerced to do an action by Y, then both are
morally responsible according to the author; but only
X is guilty according to Frankfurt.
24. If X, according to the author, is being coerced to take an action by Y, then when will X be morally
responsible?
A. Even if X is coerced to take an action, X is morally B. If X decides to do an action prior to being
responsible. coerced, then he is morally responsible.
C. If X is coerced to take an action by Y and the
D. If X is coerced to take an action by Y, then Y is
alternative is X’s death, then X will not be morally
morally responsible.
responsible.
E. If X is coerced to take an action by Y and if X is
not uncaring about the action, then X is morally
responsible.
25. Read the poem carefully, and answer the TWO questions that follow.

I tore from a limb fruit that had lost its green.

My hands were warmed by the heat of an apple

Fire red and humming.

I bit sweet power to the core.

How can I say what it was like?

The taste! The taste undid my eyes

And led me far from the gardens planted for a child


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To wildernesses deeper than any master’s call.

Now these cool hands guide what they once caressed;

Lips forget what they have kissed.

My eyes now pool their light

Better the summit to see.

I would do it all over again:

Be the harbor and set the sail,

Loose the breeze and harness the gale,

Cherish the harvest of what I have been.

Better the summit to scale.

Better the summit to be.

According to the poem, which of the following best describes the effect of eating the apple?
B. It empowered the character against anything or
A. It shocked the character to the core.
anyone that could cause harm to her.
C. It liberated her character and opened up new
D. It brought the character closer to God.
knowledge and frontiers for her.
E. It made the character’s mind run wild.
26. What does the summit mentioned in the poem signify?
A. Leaving behind a past that is bound in
B. The act of crossing over into a new area
enslavement
C. The heights of self-realisation and knowledge D. Going beyond one’s abilities
E. Overcoming one's weaknesses
27. Read the following scenario, and answer the THREE questions that follow it.
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Dr. Ayesha is one of the most highly rated professors in Melhi university. She teaches psychology. This
year, due to COVID-19, she has no other option but to teach an entire semester through online classes.
Online class schedules are jam-packed and there is little scope for rescheduling or cancelling classes. Dr.
Ayesha uses her study room, which is just adjacent to the living room and manages to keep out any
disturbance by shutting the door. She has two kids aged 8 and 10. Because of the lockdown, in which only
shops selling essential items are allowed to open, the children also have only online classes, and they
enjoy playing in the living room. Her husband works in a software firm and is also working from home.

It is the middle of the semester. 10 minutes after one of Dr. Ayesha’s classes starts, the servant comes in
with a cup of tea (as instructed by Dr. Ayesha). He knows that there is a class going on, and this is not the
first time he has served tea in the middle of a class. Every class is of 2 hours, and he knows that Dr.
Ayesha enjoys a cup of tea while taking her classes. While leaving the room, he forgets to shut the door.
Suddenly, a football comes flying in, hits the laptop and breaks it. Dr. Ayesha is aghast.

Which of the following should Dr. Ayesha do in descending order of priority? Choose your answer from
amongst the options marked a, b, c, d, and e according to the order mentioned in these options.

a) Advise the servant to be more careful in carrying out his duties.

b) Leave instructions not to disturb her in any of the sessions, unless it is an emergency.

c) See if her husband’s laptop is free, and try to continue her class.
A. b, c, and a B. a, b
C. c, a D. b, a and c
E. c, b
28. Dr. Ayesha has her next class 4 hours after the interrupted class was supposed to end.

Which of the following is the BEST course of action for her regarding the next class?
A. Reschedule the next session after informing the B. Manage the next session with her smartphone
university authorities and the students and then go and then ask her students to understand that it is an
out to buy a new computer. emergency.
D. Borrow her kid’s smartphone, order a new laptop
C. Borrow her husband’s laptop and ask him to
online, and then take her next session using the kid’s
adjust.
smartphone.
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E. Inform the students that she won’t be able to take


their class today.
29. Who would you hold the most responsible for the whole incident?
A. Dr. Ayesha herself for instructing her servant to B. The servant for not having the common sense to
serve tea in the middle of a session. not disturb in the middle of a class.
C. The servant for not being careful enough to keep D. Dr. Ayesha for not reminding the servant to close
the door shut. the door while leaving.
E. The children play football in the living room.
30. Read the following scenario, and answer the THREE questions that follow it.

Finta is a popular fintech start-up company. Instead of having only full-time employees as part of its
workforce, it cuts its costs by hiring a lot of consultants and only a few full-time employees. The
consultants are paid based on a fixed fee, while the full-time employees are paid a fixed monthly salary.

Both the company and the consultants are happy with the arrangement. The company is happy as it saves
significant costs on the front of retirement benefits and other government-mandated welfare contributions
for full-time employees. The consultants are happy as the tax rates on consultant’s fees are lower than
that on full-time employees’ salaries, such that despite the company not providing the consultants with
welfare benefits, they still have a higher post-tax income than their salaried counterparts.

Now, the government has changed the tax provisions and the tax rate on consultants’ fees has become
equal to that on full-timers’ salaries. The consultants feel that, in the absence of benefits, they are being
underpaid. As a result, a lead consultant Shyam has mobilised all the other consultants into refusing to
work until they are given the status of full-time employees with all the attendant benefits. This will,
however, put the company in a tough financial spot as its profitability is already stretched and many
investors have pulled out post COVID-19 .

As Shyam has become a de-facto leader of the consultants, CEO Shubhi Sharma decides to hold a
meeting with him and reach a solution.

Which of the following will be the BEST solution that Shubhi can offer, considering the entire situation?
B. Offer perquisites to Shyam in lieu of his help in
A. Threaten Shyam that she would fire all the
convincing all the consultants to retain their present
consultants if they don’t return to work in 2 days.
status and resume work.
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C. Promise Shyam that she would heed the D. Assure Shyam that all the full-timers will also be
consultants’ demands as soon as the company converted into consultants to ensure parity across
reaches the investor-set profitability mark. the organisation.
E. Offer all the consultants a salary hike equivalent
to the welfare benefits that they would have received
as full-time employees.
31. Shyam meets with the CEO, Shubhi Sharma, to discuss the situation and does not find the solution
offered by her acceptable. He wants to meet her again and convince her that agreeing to the demands of
the consultants is in the company’s financial interest.

Which of the following, if true, would best help him in achieving his objective?
B. All the consultants can immediately find jobs in
A. The skills offered by the consultants are highly
other fintech companies if their current demands are
specialised in the fintech industry but are not unique.
not met.
C. The revenue that the existing consultants will
D. The consultants’ mental health will be terribly
generate for the company in each year will far
impacted if they have to leave the organisation
outweigh the costs of converting them to full timers
because their demands are not met.
and providing them with the attendant benefits.
E. As most of the consultants are in their advanced
years, the costs of making them full timers for
remaining job years are less than those of hiring new
consultants that the company will need to resume its
work.
32. The act of defiance from the consultants at Finta gathers media steam and stirs up a larger debate on ‘gig
economy’ as the increasing trend of hiring employees as consultants and not offering them the welfare
benefits available to full-time employees. Finta, along with other fintech companies, comes under heavy
criticism for pioneering this practice. Some of Shubhi’s clients refuse to work with Finta because of its bad
public image.

Which of the following is the BEST measure that Shubhi can take to redeem the company’s tarnished
reputation?
A. Resign from the organisation by taking full B. Make an offer of a lower fee to the clients who
responsibility for all the events that have happened have currently refused to work with her to win their
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so far. business back.


C. Release a media statement that hiring
consultants is a standard practice across not just the D. Call all the consultants, apologise to them, accept
fintech sector but the entire IT industry, and Shyam all their demands, and offer them hefty hikes.
has provoked all her consultants.
E. Release proof that her employees preferred the
status of a consultant over that of a full-time
employee at the time of joining because of the
previous tax benefits.
33. Read the following scenario, and answer the THREE questions that follow it.

Ketaki is one of the best students in her batch in a university. She joins a reputed financial consultancy
firm after being picked up from the campus. This firm has a long-standing relation with the university as it
recruits freshers every year from this university.

Ketaki’s boss is also an alumnus of this university, but he graduated 5 years ago. Ketaki has not met her
boss Ravi but has heard a lot about him on the campus. Ravi is known to be a very good groomer of talent
and a thorough professional. He also does not give any sort of preferential treatment to any of his
subordinates.

Ketaki wants a role that involves dealing with clients directly and has requested Ravi for the same. It is
Ravi’s discretion to assign roles to new joinees.

Which of the following is the best reason for Ravi not accepting this request?
A. He is not supposed to do any favours just
B. Clients prefer to deal with experienced hands.
because Ketaki is from his alma mater.
C. A woman is not easily trusted by clients. D. Ketaki should be first trained properly.
E. One of the professors had recommended Ketaki.
34. Ravi has agreed to assign Ketaki her role of choice on the condition that she must first accompany Ravi in
client meetings. He has instructed her to avoid giving any inputs and just watch and learn before
independently facing clients. In the first such meeting, Ketaki points out a certain detail that Ravi has not
yet touched upon but is quite crucial.

Which of the following would be the best way for Ravi to respond?
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A. Remind Ketaki of the earlier instructions and ask B. Thank Ketaki for her contribution and move on.
her to stick to it.
D. Introduce Ketaki to the client as one the most
C. Ask Ketaki to focus on taking notes instead.
promising youngsters.
E. Acknowledge Ketaki’s points and also point out
that the details will be brought up at the appropriate
time.
35. It has been six months since Ketaki started working under Ravi’s supervision. It has been a very good
experience for her. Despite the rumours that Ravi is a very stern taskmaster, she has found Ravi to be
quite appreciative of whatever good work she has done. Suman is the supervisor of another section and
gets along very well with Ravi. One day, in an office get-together, Ketaki is introduced to Suman. In the
course of their conversation, Suman tells Ketaki that Ravi has feelings for Ketaki and that Ravi himself
confessed to Suman. She further tells Ketaki that Ravi is a married man and also a known womaniser.
She gives friendly advice to Ketaki to avoid any unusual interactions with Ravi.

What should Ketaki do?


B. Confide to a friend in the HR department
A. Remind Suman to mind her own business. unofficially so that she can be prepared for any
unforeseen event in the future
C. Confront Ravi about what Suman said to find out D. Tell Suman that nothing unusual has happened so
the truth. far, and it would be unwise to do anything.
E. Ask her female team members if any of them
have experienced any unwanted advances from
Ravi.
36. Read the following scenario, and answer the THREE questions that follow it.

Simpalese is a big law firm in India. The CEO of an e-commerce company approached Simpalese to
defend his company Commart from a lawsuit. Commart is an e-commerce company. Recently, its internal
servers were hacked, which resulted in the leak of personal and financial data of 25% of its user base.
This leak happened in a matter of 5 minutes, thereby raising questions on the company’s data security
measures. The users have now filed a class-action lawsuit (a collective lawsuit by a group of people)
against Commart.
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Siya is a defence lawyer with Simpalese. The above case was assigned to Siya. The primary argument of
the prosecutor is that Commart’s laxity in its data security has put 5 lakh users at risk as their personal and
financial data has been leaked. Thus, it should be made liable to pay heavy damages to the aggrieved.

Which of the following would be the strongest argument that Siya could make to get the damages
reduced?
A. The users knew that their data could be at risk B. Commart has been making far less profits than
when they entered it on an online platform. the industry standard.
D. The hacker used technology that was more
C. Commart has taken tough security measures to
advanced than the most sophisticated firewall
protect the data of the remaining 75% users.
technologies.
E. Cybersecurity is an evolving field that keeps trying
to catch up with cybercrime.
37. An anonymous source provides hard evidence to Simpalese that the CEO was herself involved in the
leak. Siya is in a dilemma as to whether she should make use of this evidence in the court or not. What is
the best course of action for Siya?
B. She should use it in the court because it is her
A. She cannot not use it in the court because the
ethical duty as a citizen to report the evidence of a
interests of the client come first for a defence lawyer.
crime.
C. She can use it in the court after a consultation
D. She should not use it in the court as it will
with the board of directors as she represents
complicate the case even further.
Commart and not the CEO.
E. She should discuss the matter with the CEO first
to find out the truth of the matter before jumping to
any decision.
38. Simpalese succeeds in getting the damages reduced for Commart. However, in the aftermath, a lot of
users switch to other e-commerce platforms that promise better data security. As the company runs into
losses, its employees start exiting in droves, many without even serving their notice periods.

Which of the following would be the best measure for Simpalese to stop this mass exit?
A. Send a legal notice to all employees who have B. Assure the employees that the company is
exited without serving the notice period, so that other working on regaining consumer confidence and the
employees do not do so. losses will be behind it with their help.
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C. Reach out to the employees that profits and D. Give promotions to the employees who decide to
losses are a part of the business, and they should stay with the company in these tough times.
not panic on seeing the current losses.
E. Get a new clause incorporated in the employees’
contracts that they will have to pay a 3-month salary
penalty if they leave without serving the notice
period.
39. Read the following scenario and answer the THREE questions that follow.

Every year, a lot of people die by being hit by a train while crossing railway tracks. While there are strict
fines and penalties on anyone caught crossing a railway track, the practice continues unabated. Sabaa
has just been appointed as an Indian Railway Services officer to a region where the death rate owing to
this practice is particularly high.

Following are some measures that can be taken to address this issue:

1) Install sophisticated sensors that blare a warning siren when a human being tries to cross a track.

2) Investigate why people are crossing the railway tracks.

3) Display notifications throughout the railway station and surrounding areas that crossing railway tracks is
dangerous and a punishable crime.

4) Carry out random inspections to see that the personnel responsible are catching the offenders.

5) Run awareness campaigns in the neighbouring areas from where people can cross tracks.

Which of the following reflects the best sequence in the DECREASING order of immediacy in which these
measures should be taken?
A. 21345 B. 53421
C. 13245 D. 31542
E. 12345
40. On investigation, Sabaa found that most of the people who crossed railway tracks knew the dangers it
posed. She was unable to understand how an aware human being of sound mind could then take such a
step.
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Which of the following, if true, would help her understand people’s decision of crossing the tracks?

1) Most people were drunk at the time they crossed the tracks.

2) The habits of human beings can become a non-conscious routine.

3) The human brain can underestimate the speed of large moving objects.

4) Many people who crossed the tracks had been diagnosed with severe depression.

5) Human beings generally underestimate the risk of train accidents.


A. 1 & 4 B. 1, 2 & 3
C. 3, 4 & 5 D. 1, 2, 3, 4 & 5
E. 2, 3, 4 & 5
41. Which of the following would be the most effective measure?
A. Displaying new warnings about trespassing being
B. Displaying death statistics due to crossing railway
dangerous that have an increased font size and use
tracks at the railway station.
the bold format.
C. Putting up posters at trespassing points with a D. Making constant announcements at the train
photograph capturing a person’s face in the final station about the danger of being hit by a train while
moment before (s)he is hit by a train. trespassing.
E. Running televised features that show the crying
kin members of a victim and the difficulties they go
through after his death.
42. Read the following scenario and answer the THREE questions that follow.

You are a freelancing HR consultant who specialises in recruiting, retaining, and training manpower.
Karma Educations run a chain of educational institutions, and recently they lost some teachers to
competitors. Karma Educations has hired you to come up with a process to attract and appoint the
replacement for these teachers. You have been given freedom to design an ad campaign as a part of the
process, provided you do not go beyond their budget. It is summer vacation now and you have a month to
produce results.

Review the following:


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a) Refer to the earlier process of recruitment that Karma Educations used to follow.

b) Dig up resumes from your record and find the suitable candidates.

c) Design and run an ad campaign that would target candidates whose values match that of the Karma’s
and validate the candidates' credentials at the time of shortlisting.

d) Seek for experts from the management of Karma educations on how to design the ad campaign.

Organise the above according to descending order of effectiveness.


A. b, a, c, d B. c, d, a, b
C. a, c, b, d D. c, b, a, d
E. c, d, b, a
43. You have run a successful ad campaign and there has been a very good response with 5000 candidates
applying for 30 vacancies. Karma Education wants you to shortlist 180 candidates (from the 5000) so that
they can be interviewed properly.

Which of the following would you go for as the best way of shortlisting 180 interviewees from 5000
applicants?
A. Conduct tests to ascertain the academic B. Design a scheme on the basis of suitable
proficiency of the applicants. academic qualifications.
C. Shortlist on the basis of their reputation as
D. Shortlist on the basis of the age of the applicants.
teachers.
E. Decide on the basis of a lottery system.
44. You have somehow completed the requirement described in the previous question and shortlisted 180
candidates to be interviewed. The management is also happy with this process, and they have asked you
to start the interview process. The interview will be conducted by a panel of 3 members, of which 2 are
going to be nominated by the management and the other one will be you or an expert you recommend.

Two days before the process begins, the principal of one of the institutions approaches you and tells you
that one of the panel members is going to be him. He wants you to take care of the interview of one of the
candidates, who is his relative and is the sole breadwinner of his family.

What should be your response?


A. Commit to nothing as you do not know anything B. Deny the request as this could be a trap set by
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about the other panelist whose opinion will also be a the management to check if you are corruptible.
deciding factor in the interview process.
C. Submit the name of an expert of your choice so
that you will be free from this unnecessary pressure D. Report the matter to the concerned authorities.
to be complicit in this wrongdoing.
E. Agree to the proposal; you could get into trouble
for refusing to comply.
45. Read the following scenario and answer the THREE questions that follow.

CIMJ is a government business school with a resident MBA course and an integrated 5-year management
course. The students pursuing both the courses live inside the college campus. The girls’ hostels and
boys’ hostels are located opposite each other. The students often stop to chat and sometimes play in the
college grounds post-dinner. To relieve the stress of a particularly hectic day, a group of girls decides to
play hide-and-seek post-dinner. As they hide in various corners of the college, a male worker of the
college tries to forcibly pull one of the girls inside a washroom. She shouts for help, and her friends and
the college guards rush and nab the worker. The visibly shaken girl is taken safely to her hostel room by
her friends.

The senior authorities decide not to inform the police of this incident, and simply fire the male worker.
However, the parents of various students find this measure insufficient and call for a meeting with the
director.

It is found that the college does not have a hostel warden living inside the campus because of lack of
space, and there are no female guards in the college.

As parents of various students are anguished to learn this, what would be the BEST action to take in the
capacity of the director of the college?
A. Question the parents about what the girls were B. Assure the parents that female guards will be
doing when they were out of their hostel rooms at appointed, and hostel wardens will live inside the
night despite knowing that there are no wardens or campus once the college shifts to a new campus that
female guards on the campus. is currently under construction.
C. Decide a curfew time in the evening for student D. Convey to the parents that female guards who will
safety after which no student, male or female, can regularly patrol college grounds will also be
idly chat or play on the college grounds.
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appointed in the current campus and will be


available for security-related concerns.
E. Implement a rule that girls cannot wear shorts and
skirts on the college grounds as it provokes male
workers.
46. In the meeting, the director questions the upbringing and morals of the students who go out at night while
wearing short clothes. He refuses to file a police complaint against the male staffer. This made both the
students and the parents furious.

Which of the following should be the next move of the students and parents?
A. Secretly leak this entire incident to the media, B. Withdraw their wards en-masse from the institute
thereby revealing the warped mentality of the as they are not safe when the director holds such a
director and file a police complaint against him. mindset.
C. Write to the Ministry of Education, which governs D. Write to the Ministry of Education and Ministry of
the B-school, and file a police complaint themselves Women and Child Welfare and seek their
about the incident. intervention in the matter.
E. Complain to the advisory Board of Directors
against the director for his statements and his
refusal to file a police complaint on the institute’s
behalf.
47. The college decides to shift campus to a bigger area so that the hostel warden, students, and faculty
members can be accommodated inside. Female guards are also appointed. Yet, the students' admissions
to the college dwindle and those to other government business schools increase.

Which of the following should the director do to resolve this problem?


B. Shift the campus back to the original site as the
A. Release a public statement to assure the parents
students may not be taking admission because of
that their wards are safe inside the new campus.
the new location.
C. Follow student forums to know how students
D. Set up a committee to submit a report on the
currently decide to accept/reject some business
current state of safety in college.
schools over others.
E. Set up a committee to submit a report on the
educational facilities that are available in other
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government business schools.


48. Direction: Based on the given information, solve the questions that follow it.

The chart given below shows the percentage distribution of total marks of five students (Akash, Badal,
Aasman, Dharti, and Bhoomi) in mathematics for the last three class tests.

It is also known that:

1. The total marks scored by the five students in Test 1 were 20 less than the total marks of Test 2, which
in turn is 40 less than total marks of Test 3.

2. The marks of all the students in each of the three tests were integers. The maximum marks for each of
the tests were 50.

3. The total mark in all the three tests is a multiple of 50 but not a multiple of 13.

4. None of the students scored less than 20 marks in any of the tests.
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5. The marks scored by both Aasman and Bhoomi in three tests were in AP with a common difference of
5. Both of them scored the least marks in Test 1 and the highest marks in Test 3.

6. The marks scored by Aakash and Dharti are the same in Test 1, which is 20% more than the marks
scored by Aasman in Test 2.

7. The ratio of Dharti’s marks in Test 2 to that in Test 3 is 2 : 3.

8. The ratio of Badal’s marks in Test 2 to that in Test 3 is 8 : 7.

Who scored the least marks in Test 3?


A. Aakash B. Badal
C. Aasman D. Dharti
E. Bhoomi
49. How many students scored at least 64% marks in at least 2 tests?
A. 2 B. 3
C. 4 D. 5
E. 1
50. In the final evaluation, an annual exam was conducted for 50% marks. The remaining 50% weightage was
given to the scores from tests 1, 2, and 3 in the following manner: 10% from Test 1 + 15% from Test 2 and
25% from Test 3. Which student can score the minimum marks in the final exam and still be the top scorer
in the final evaluation?
A. Aakash B. Badal
C. Aasman D. Dharti
E. Bhoomi
51. In an arithmetic progression (AP), the sum of the squares of the first three terms is 725 and their sum is
45. Which of the following can be its 25th term?
A. 145 B. –120
C. –100 D. 120
E. 105
52. Priya has two bags. The first bag consists of 8 oranges and 7 sweet limes, and the second bag consists of
6 oranges and 9 sweet limes. She asked one of her cousins, Sonu, to pick one fruit from the 1st bag and
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asked another cousin, Monu, to pick one fruit from the other bag. What is the probability that both of them
picked a different fruit?
A. B.

C. D.

E.
53. Naveen bought some plastic chairs for his coaching institute from a local vendor, whereas he asked the
vendor to write an unique number on each chair. The vendor wrote the numbers from 1 to N without
missing any number. During the transit, two chairs with consecutive numbers broke. Find the numbers on
broken chairs if the sum of the numbers on the remaining chairs is 11126
A. 101; 102 B. 100; 101
C. 99; 100 D. 98; 99
E. None of the above
54. If a + b = 13, a2 + ab + b2 = 129, and b3 + 387 = a3, then find the value of a − b.
A. 5 B. 4
C. 3 D. 2
E. Cannot be determined
55. For an annual meeting in a corporate company, employees were asked to be seated in particular rows.
The managers are supposed to sit in the front rows, associates behind them, and then the interns. A row
cannot have employees with different designations. An equal number of people are to be seated on each
row. Find the minimum number of rows occupied if the number of managers, associates, and interns are
72, 108, and 132, respectively.
A. 20 B. 26
C. 30 D. 36
E. 40
56. Fatima lives on the 48th floor of a building. One day she was standing on the balcony of her flat and she
accidentally dropped a ball from the balcony. She notices that the ball rebounds to 75% of the height after
hitting the ground from which it was accidentally dropped and this process is repeated till the ball comes to
rest. If the balcony is located 60 meters above the ground and the height of Fatima is negligible, find the
total distance travelled by the ball during this process before it comes to rest.
A. 360 metres B. 400 metres
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C. 380 metres D. 420 metres


E. 450 metres
57. Direction: Read the information given below carefully, and answer the questions that follow it.

Ajinkya, Ben, Chaminda, Dilshan, and Ejaz participated in a test. The test had seven questions, each of
which had either ‘yes’ or ‘no’ as the correct answer. So, each question can be answered as either ‘yes’ (Y)
or ‘no’ (N). None of the questions can be left unanswered by any of the five people. The following table
shows the response to each of the questions by the five people. It is known that Dilshan answered only
one question correctly.

What can be the maximum possible value of the sum of the number of questions answered correctly by
the five people in the test?
A. 16 B. 19
C. 18 D. 20
E. 17
58. Which of the following cannot be the sum of the number of questions answered correctly by the five
people in the test?
A. 16 B. 20
C. 18 D. 15
E. None of the above
59. If the number of questions answered correctly by Chaminda is less than that by Ejaz and if the number of
questions answered by Ajinkya, Chaminda, Dilshan, and Ejaz are four consecutive integers, then which of
the following questions was/were answered incorrectly by Ben?
A. 3 B. 5
C. 7 D. 2
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E. More than one of the above


60. Jibin wanted to sell his car and camera. He sold his car at a loss of 20% and his camera at a profit of 40%.
He incurred an overall loss of Rs. 40,000. If he had sold that car at a loss of 10% instead of 20%, then he
would have made a profit of Rs. 50000. Find the price (in Rs.) at which Jibin sold his car.
A. 620000 B. 650000
C. 690000 D. 720000
E. 800000
61. Prem started writing all the natural numbers one after the other on a piece of paper. If the paper can fit
only 2901 digits, then find the last digit written by Prem on the paper.
A. 0 B. 1
C. 2 D. 3
E. 4
62. Namay and Samay decided to go to a coffee shop that is situated between their homes on a straight road.
Namay rides the cycle at twice the speed of Samay on cycle. They both start from their respective homes
at the same time and meet each other at the coffee shop after 24 minutes on their cycles. Find the
distance between their homes in metres if Samay can cover 3.6 km in half an hour.
A. 8000 m B. 8260 m
C. 8420 m D. 8620 m
E. 8640 m
63. Nayak runs a watch repair shop. He received a watch that runs at a speed that is half the normal speed.
While repairing the watch by mistake, he increased the speed to make it twice the normal speed. He set
the watch to 12 o’clock and continued to work. The customer came a little later to collect the watch. While
handing it to the customer, Nayak saw that the minute hand and hour hand are facing exactly opposite
directions. Find the correct time at which the customer collected the watch if the customer received the
watch before 1 o’clock.
A. B.

C. D.

E.
64. Vinay, who is a mathematics wizard, never answers any question directly. Pranay (a friend of Vinay)
borrowed Vinay's car for some urgent work. When Pranay asked for the car number, Vinay replied by
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saying, ‘A largest four digit number that when divided by 4, 5, 6, and 7 gives remainders 1, 2, 3, and 4,
respectively.’ Find the car number of Vinay.
A. 9660 B. 9657
C. 9663 D. 9697
E. 9677
65. In a triangle ABC, a median is drawn from Point A to Line BC. Line BC meets Line BC at Point D. Now, a
median is drawn from Point D to Line AC such that it meets the line at Point E. If the length of the sides
AB, BC, and CA of the triangle is 10 cm, 12 cm, and 16 cm, then find the length of Median DE.
A. 6 cm B. 5 cm
C. cm D. 2 cm
E. 6.5 cm
66. Direction: Based on the given information, solve the questions that follow it.

Six wholesale dealers (Champu, Pampu, Dampu, Hampu, Gampu, and Kampu) sell wheat in five different
districts of a state.

The cost price per kg at which each wholesaler buys wheat is a distinct natural number. The selling price
per kg at which each of the wholesalers sells wheat is a distinct natural number.

Profit per kg for each of the wholesale dealers is a non-zero multiple of 7.

The following information is also known:

a. The price at which Champu sells wheat per kg is Rs. 35, and the profit he earns by selling one kg of
wheat is Rs. 42 less than that of Gampu.

b. The price at which Hampu purchases the wheat per kg is Rs. 28, and the profit he earns by selling one
kg of wheat is Rs. 21 more than that of Champu.

c. The price at which Gampu sells wheat per kg is 70 and his cost price is Rs. 7 per kg more than that of
Dampu.

d. The price at which Pampu sells wheat per kg is the same as the profit earned by Gampu, and his
purchase price per kg is the same as the profit earned by Hampu.
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e. The profit per kg that Dampu makes is Rs. 21 less than that of Hampu.

f. The price at which Kampu buys wheat per kg is 14 more than that at which Hampu buys wheat, and his
profit per kg is Rs. 7 less than that of Champu.

What will be the profit earned by Hampu by selling 10 kg of wheat?


A. Rs. 280 B. Rs. 210
C. Rs. 140 D. Rs. 420
E. None of the above
67. What is the cost price of wheat for Gampu?
A. Rs. 14 per kg B. Rs. 21 per kg
C. Rs. 28 per kg D. Rs. 35 per kg
E. Rs. 49 per kg
68. What is the minimum selling price of wheat for any of the wholesale dealers?
A. Rs 7 per kg B. Rs 14 per kg
C. Rs 21 per kg D. Rs 28 per kg
E. Rs 35 per kg
69. The sum of the radii of two circles that touch each other externally is 18 cm. If the sum of the areas of
these two circles is 565.2 cm2, then find the difference between the radius of the larger circle and that of
the smaller circle (use π = 3.14).
A. 6 cm B. 7 cm
C. 5 cm D. 4 cm
E. Cannot be determined
70. Find the sum of all the possible integral values of x that satisfies the inequality:

x2 – 10x + 63 < 42
A. 20 B. 10
C. 25 D. 15
E. 18
71. In a class, there are 50 students whose average weight is 60 kg. Five students left the class and six others
joined. The average weight of the class increased by 1 kg. The average weight of students who joined the
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class is 16.66% more than the average weight of the students who left the class. Find the average weight
of students who left the class.
A. 55.5 kg B. 56.5 kg
C. 57.5 kg D. 58.5 kg
E. 59.5 kg
72. If ‘a’ and ‘b’ are real positive integers and if log a + log (a4b6) = 6, then find the value of a + b.
2 4

A. 8 B. 6
C. 4 D. 5
E. Cannot be determined
73. Direction: Based on the given information, solve the questions that follow it.

The following graph gives the market share (by volume) of six refrigerator manufacturing companies
(Levi, Pica, Mano, Zero, Suko, and Dira) and the average price of the refrigerators sold by each of these
companies for 2020 .

In 2020, which refrigerator manufacturing company had the maximum market share in terms of revenue
from the sale of refrigerators?
A. Pica B. Zero
C. Suko D. Dira
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E. None of the above


74. By what percent is the revenue of Zero more or less than the revenue of Suko from the sale of
refrigerators in 2020?
A. 18.18% less B. 11.11% more
C. 22.22% less D. 27.27% more
E. None of the above
75. In 2021, Dira was shut down. Due to this, the market shares (by volume) of Mano and Zero increased
proportionally such that the ratio of their market shares were the same as that in 2020, while the market
shares of the other companies remained unchanged. The average price of the refrigerators sold by each
of the companies does not change in 2021.

By what percent was the revenue of Zero from the sale of refrigerators more or less than that of Suko in
2021?
A. 26.25% less B. 18.51% more
C. 27.25% less D. 22.72% more
E. None of the above
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Solutions

1. D
Sol. Poem summary: According to the poet, no man is totally self-sufficient but is rather a part of
humanity. If one man dies, then humanity gets weakened. Every man’s death diminishes the
poet. The poet urges all not to ask who death is coming for because it is coming for everyone.
Number of words:
Type of question: Inference/Indirect idea-based question

From the summary, options A, B, C, and E can be inferred.


Option D contradicts the ‘no man is an island’ segment of the poem.
Hence, the correct answer is option D.
2. C
Sol. For the first blank, ‘optimisation’, ‘validation’, and ‘transformation’ can all be considered.
Eliminate options D and E.
For the second blank, ‘future’ and ‘trajectory’ can be considered. Eliminate option B.
The US is actually thinking beyond traditional _________. Only alliances can be considered
for the third blank. Eliminate option A.
‘Potential’ as used in ‘potential or actual partners’ is the correct word for the fourth blank.
Hence, the correct answer is option C.

3. B
Sol. The prepositional usage in 4 is incorrect. It should be as follows:
We stayed in Chennai for a fortnight.
5 has incorrect prepositional usage. It should be as follows:
The cat is lying on the floor.
6 is incorrect. It should be as follows:
There weren’t many people in the auditorium.
Hence, the correct answer is option B.
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4. E
Sol. The passage describes only one geological disaster. From this, we cannot assume that
geological disasters occur frequently. Eliminate option A.
The passage mentions that mass extinctions did occur. From the passage we cannot conclude
if all species went extinct or not.
Option C is a nonsensical option that cannot be concluded from the passage.
Option D, too, cannot be concluded with any degree of certainty.
Option E can be concluded from the passage. Refer to the following extract: ‘The case for a
catastrophic cause of mass extinction of dinosaurs was strengthened by the discovery of a
worldwide enrichment of the rare element iridium in a narrow band of geological strata formed
66 million years ago. The source of that iridium was proposed to be from a huge asteroid that
collided with the Earth.’
Hence, the correct answer is option E.
5. D
Sol. The arrival of infectious diseases and global warming are certainly not a cause for
appreciation. They may be unplanned, but they cannot be said to be unappreciated. Eliminate
option E.
For the second blank, only underestimated will fit the blank. ‘Amazing’, ‘fulfilling’, and
‘unappreciated’ are incorrect as the discovery of infectious diseases and global warming, and
‘shocking’ is not the correct word for the invention of the internet. Eliminate options A, B, and
C.
All the three discoveries were underestimated. Therefore, ‘underestimated’ is the correct word
for the third blank.
Hence, the correct answer is option D.
6. D
Sol. 3 is incorrect. It should be as follows:
‘He has won the race many times already.’
4 is incorrect. It should be as follows:
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‘Managers should not give negative feedback to their employees.’


5 is incorrect. It should be as follows:
‘Employees are struggling to cope with work pressure.’
1, 2, and 6 are correct.
Hence, the correct answer is option D.
7. B
Sol. 4 is incorrect. It should be as follows:
‘Suresh took the examination without much preparation.’
5 is incorrect. It should be as follows:
‘Should you wish to join the course, you must let me know by this evening.’
6 is incorrect. It should be as follows:
‘We would have been foolish if we had shared the secret with her / had we shared the secret
with her.’
Hence, the correct answer is option B.

8. D
Sol. Options A, B, and C can be concluded from the passage.
‘Physically illiterate’ implies lack of fitness. One such effect could be obesity from a lack of
exercise. Eliminate option E.
Option D cannot be concluded as it tends to contradict the passage. The passage states that
most youngsters are physically illiterate and focus only on academics.
Hence, the correct answer is option D.

9. B
Sol. The paragraph is about NIMBYism. Therefore, sentence 5, which describes what NIMBYism
is, will be the opening sentence. Eliminate options A, C, D, and E.
5 and 3 form a pair as both talk about the immense power of local communities.
3 and 4 form a pair. 3 talks about the power of local communities in blocking development,
while 3 talks about the fact that at last New York’s politicians may finally be willing to stand up
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to NIMBYism due to the housing crisis.


2 and 1 form a pair. 2 states what local communities believe in, which is no new construction
in our backyard, and 1 concludes the paragraph by stating that the block actually belongs to
the city.
Therefore, the correct sequence is 53421.
Hence, the correct answer is option B.
10. E
Sol. Option A is rejected as a blessing in disguise means ‘an apparent misfortune that eventually
has good results’. The author has not implied that social media has been beneficial on the
whole.
The paragraph is exclusively about the elderly. Eliminate option B.
Options C and D make comparisons between advantages and disadvantages when the author
does not. Hence, they can be rejected.
Option E is the most suitable as a double-edged sword means something that has both
positive and negative effects.
Hence, the correct answer is option E.
11. E
Sol. To strengthen this argument, we have to support the idea that the conditions of women in work
worsened post the enactment of the aforesaid laws.
Option A talks about all the workers in general. It can be eliminated.
Option B is a tempting option, but it is unsound on two accounts. One, we do not know what
the women reported after the enactment of laws. Secondly, instead of giving evidence of what
actually happened, it talks about what women ‘reported’.
Option C talks about ‘some’ women having influence. We do not know what proportion they
made. Also, it is not stated whether this ‘considerable’ influence was used in advancing
women in work or not.
Option D in a way weakens the argument by saying that employment rates may not be good
indicators of workplace discrimination between men and women.
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Option E strengthens the conclusion by showing the function of women unions in the
advancement of women. As they were barred post the enactment of laws, the laws pulled
back the advancement of women.
Hence, the correct answer is option E.
12. C
Sol. Passage summary: The passage is about the fundamental reasons for why people have
cravings for drug usage. These reasons may not be focused exclusively on the brain but also
for a desire to seek out important emotional experiences.
Genre: Psychology
Number of words: 402
Type of question: Main idea-based question
Refer to the following relevant extract:
‘But, by focusing narrowly on the brain, this view misidentifies the object of craving in
addiction, or at least puts too much emphasis on the chemical component. When we look at
the social and psychological factors that correlate with addiction, the real object of craving is
made salient. In truth, addictive cravings seek out vital emotional experiences.’
This extract gives the main idea of the passage. It is clear from the extract that cravings
cannot be focused exclusively on the brain but from a person’s desires to seek out vital
emotional experiences. Thus, option C best summarises the author’s view on cravings.
The main point of the passage is that cravings should not be narrowly focused on the brain or
its chemical component but rather on the fact that craving is due to a person trying to seek out
vital emotional experiences.
This explanation eliminates options A, B, D, and E, which are small parts of the passage but
do not give the gist about cravings.
Hence, the correct answer is option C.
13. B
Sol. Passage summary: The passage is about the fundamental reasons for why people have
cravings for drug usage. These reasons may not be for reasons focused exclusively on the
brain but also for a desire to seek out important emotional experiences.
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Genre: Psychology
Number of words: 402
Type of question: Specific idea-based question
Refer to the following relevant extract:
‘A lot of medical and clinical thinking about addictive craving is driven by a certain
neuroscientific picture that explains cravings in terms of the effects of drugs on the production
of dopamine in the brain. In this picture, the object of a craving is a drug itself or the
pleasurable effects that getting high is expected to produce. But, by focusing narrowly on the
brain, this view misidentifies the object of craving in addiction.’
Thus, this extract corroborates option B by stating that the purpose of the cravings is
misidentified by concentrating exclusively on the brain.
The above explanation eliminates options A, C, D, and E as they do not explain why cravings
explained exclusively in the brain are misleading.
Hence, the correct answer is option B.
14. E
Sol. Passage summary: The passage is about the fundamental reasons for why people have
cravings for drug usage. These reasons may not be for reasons focused exclusively on the
brain but also for a desire to seek out important emotional experiences.
Genre: Psychology
Number of words: 402
Type of question: Specific idea-based question
Option A is incorrect. People consume drugs in order to seek out critical emotional
experiences.
Option B may not be possible or feasible according to the passage.
Option C has not been mentioned in the passage.
Option D, if implemented, would lead to addiction.
Option E is correct. The passage mentions that people consume drugs to seek out vital
emotional experiences and feel socially connected. If a person can feel socially connected,
then this dependency on drugs would reduce.
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Hence, the correct answer is option E.


15. D
Sol. 3 is clearly the opening sentence as it mentions a field that the researchers are working on.
3 and 2 form a pair. 2 with ‘They’re’ is referring to researchers mentioned in 3.
2 and 5 form a pair. 2 talks about the fact that researchers are looking at underutilised foods,
both wild and cultivated, and asking which ones make sense for our hotter, drier future, while 5
states that these foods may not be our favourite foods.
5 and 4 form a pair, with 5 talking about our favourite crops and 2 stating the reason that these
crops are favourite foods, which is that they have been selected for colour or yield.
1 concludes the paragraph by saying that alternative foods are required that are well adapted
to local conditions.
Thus, the correct sequence is 32541.
Hence, the correct answer is option D.
16. D
Sol. Passage summary: The passage gives a short introduction to emotional regulation. The bulk
of the passage deals with affect labelling, what it is, and how effective it can be to alter a
person’s emotional state.
Genre: Psychology
Number of words: 510
Type of question: Specific idea-based question
Motion regulation is the process of trying to change one’s current emotions to reach a more
desired emotional state. For example, ‘I hate crying at sad movies, so whenever I feel the
sadness creeping up, I usually crack a joke to ward it off.’
‘Affect-labelling’ involves putting one’s feelings into words.
Option D has these definitions for ‘emotional regulation’ and ‘affect labelling’.
Option A is incorrect. ‘Affect labelling’ means the ability to express feelings in words.
Option B is incorrect. ‘Emotional regulation’ means consciously changing one’s emotional
state.
Option C cannot be determined from the passage.
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Option E is incorrect. ‘Emotional regulation’ means consciously changing one’s emotional


state and not ‘putting on a stoic attitude’.
Hence, the correct answer is option D.
17. B
Sol. Passage summary: The passage gives a short introduction into emotional regulation. The bulk of the
passage deals with affect labelling, what it is, and how effective it can be to alter a person’s emotional
state.

Genre: Psychology

Number of words: 510

Type of question: Specific idea-based question

Option A is incorrect. Refer to the following extract:

‘...after participants affect labelled the positive images, they actually felt more positive emotions.’

Option C is incorrect. The first line of the passage states that logic dictates that a person’s happiness lies
in his ability to control his emotions.

In option D, ‘diverting one’s thoughts’ refers to emotional regulation.

Option E is incorrect. It affects labelling that at times uses images.

Option B can be inferred. Refer to the following extract:

‘However, there is actually a much simpler way to change how you feel.’

Hence, the correct answer is option B.


18. C
Sol. Passage summary: The passage gives a short introduction into emotional regulation. The bulk of the
passage deals with affect labelling, what it is, and how effective it can be to alter a person’s emotional
state.

Genre: Psychology
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Number of words: 510

Type of question: CR-based question

The passage does not mention if emotional regulation is effective or not. Eliminate option A.

Option B makes a comparison between two approaches, which is absent in the passage.

Option C can be concluded. Refer to the following extract:

‘It starts with answering the question ‘How do you feel?’ You might think of the answer as just a ‘report’ of
your current emotional state or mood, end of story. But there’s more to it: research shows that the mere
act of answering this question actually changes the emotions you are currently feeling. When we put our
feelings into words in this way, scientists call it ‘affect labelling.’

Option D contradicts the passage. ‘Affect labelling’ is effective with both positive and negative images.

Option E is an instance of emotional regulation. This technique has not been stated in the passage.

Hence, the correct answer is option C.


19. B
Sol. Passage summary: The passage talks about the negative factors that concern people during
the COVID-19 pandemic lockdown period. It can lead to a lack of solidarity, existential crisis,
and sensory overload in people.
Genre: Psychology
Number of words: 337
Type of question: CR-based question
The bulk of the passage tells us how bad the COVID-19 pandemic period has been in all
senses. ‘This rupture is for many, intensified pain and precarity.’ Thus, option B is the correct
answer.
Option A is incorrect and an inaccurate framework from the passage.
Option C is incorrect. The COVID-19 pandemic has made most people have a collective
inability to speak with confidence.
Option D with ‘most’ is too strongly worded. We do not know if this is true.
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Option E refers to sensory overload, but the best characteristic of the COVID-19 period is that
it is very bad and has to be somehow endured.
Hence, the correct answer is option B.
20. D
Sol. Passage summary: The passage talks about the negative factors that concern people during
the COVID-19 pandemic lockdown period. It can lead to a lack of solidarity, existential crisis,
and sensory overload in people.
Genre: Psychology
Number of words: 337
Type of question: Specific idea-based question
From the passage it is clear that aphasia has to do with speech. Eliminate options A, B, C, and
E.
Refer to the following extract:
‘...a sense of collective “aphasia.” He characterises this condition as “a collective inability to
speak with confidence about the sudden knock of history at every door in the land.”’
Thus, option D is the correct answer.
Hence, the correct answer is option D.
21. A
Sol. Passage summary: The passage talks about the negative factors that concern people during the COVID-
19 pandemic lockdown period. It can lead to a lack of solidarity, existential crisis, and sensory overload in
people.

Genre: Psychology

Number of words: 337

Type of question: Specific idea-based question

Option A is not true. Refer to the following extract:

’Time, which we are so used to managing, marshalling and accounting for, is bent out of shape.’

Option B is true. Refer to the following extract:


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‘Solidarity, which normally means we draw near to each other, is bent back on itself. Denied the
endorphins of our typical forms of common action, we stay apart in testy and increasingly weary
isolation…’

Option C is true. Refer to the following extract:

‘...those who think it’s a chance to hunker down and embrace new forms of personal fulfilment —
D’Ancona tell us, lockdown is not “a surreal sabbatical” of novel reading but, for most, simply a
“nightmare” to be survived.’

Option D is true. Refer to the following extract:

‘This rupture is for many, intensified pain and precarity. Rising domestic violence, plummeting mental
health…’

Option E is also true. Refer to the following extract:

‘we are caught in a double bind of “sensory overload.’

Hence, the correct answer is option A.


22. A
Sol. Passage summary: The passage is a discourse between Frankfurt and the author on the
question of morality. Frankfurt feels that a person who is coerced into doing an action is
morally responsible for such action. The author initially disagrees with this assertion but then
expands on the various possibilities of holding a coerced person morally responsible.
Genre: Psychology
Number of words: 403
Type of question: Specific idea-based question
Refer to the following extract:
‘This is a very important concept in itself, because one cannot be excused just because one
was coerced into doing an action.’
The final paragraph is about a person who is coerced into doing an action is still morally
responsible for that action. Thus, option A is the correct answer.
Options B, C, and D do not pertain to the final conclusion reached in the final paragraph.
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Option E is outside the scope of the passage since the passage is dealing with only those who
are coerced into doing an action.
Hence, the correct answer is option A.
23. D
Sol. Passage summary: The passage is a discourse between Frankfurt and the author on the
question of morality. Frankfurt feels that a person who is coerced into doing an action is
morally responsible for such action. The author initially disagrees with this assertion but then
expands on the various possibilities of holding a coerced person morally responsible.
Genre: Psychology
Number of words: 403
Type of question: Specific idea-based question
Refer to the following relevant extract:
‘Frankfurt also makes a second point: sometimes a person who is coerced into doing an action
is morally responsible for such action... Frankfurt makes the point that a person who is unable
to do otherwise should sometimes still be morally responsible for his actions even though he
had no other alternative. I firmly believe, even in my example of X, that one does not bear
moral responsibility because one does not have the ability to do otherwise.’
Thus, option D is the correct answer.
The above explanation eliminates options A, B, C, and E.
Hence, the correct answer is option D.
24. B
Sol. Passage summary: The passage is a discourse between Frankfurt and the author on the
question of morality. Frankfurt feels that a person who is coerced into doing an action is
morally responsible for such action. The author initially disagrees with this assertion but then
expands on the various possibilities of holding a coerced person morally responsible.
Genre: Psychology
Number of words: 403
Type of question: Specific idea-based question
Refer to the following extract:
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‘Suppose X had already decided to do an action before he was coerced by Y to do the same
action. This would not allow coercion to excuse moral responsibility because X had an
alternative and chose on his own to do an action. Therefore there was free will involved in the
decision that X had made.’
If free will was thus involved in X’s case, then X would be morally responsible. Thus, option B
is the correct answer.
Options A, C, D, and E digress from the passage and can be eliminated.
Hence, the correct answer is option B.
25. C
Sol. Poem summary: The poem is based on the mythical consumption of the forbidden apple from
the tree of knowledge by Eve. The first stanza tells us that it ‘undid my eyes’ and led me far
from the gardens planted for a child to a wilderness deeper than any master’s call. Wilderness,
here, signifies new unexplored areas.
The poem is based on the mythical consumption of the forbidden apple from the tree of
knowledge by Eve. The first stanza tells us that it ‘undid my eyes’ and led me far from the
gardens planted for a child to a wilderness deeper than any master’s call. Wilderness, here,
signifies new unexplored areas. This makes C the best answer.
The feeling is more than just shock. Eliminate option A.
In option B, being empowered certainly matches the idea in the poem, but the next words
seem to be just limited to prevention of harm.
Options D and E cannot be surmised from the passage.
Hence, the correct answer is option C.
26. C
Sol. Poem summary:The poem is based on the mythical consumption of the forbidden apple from
the tree of knowledge by Eve. The first stanza tells us that it ‘undid my eyes’ and led me far
from the gardens planted for a child to a wilderness deeper than any master’s call. Wilderness,
here, signifies new unexplored areas.
The poem is based on the mythical consumption of the forbidden apple from the tree of
knowledge by Eve. It is also clear from the poem that after eating the apple, the character
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reached new heights of self-realisation after crossing previously forbidden frontiers. This
makes option C the best answer.
In option A, the idea of enslavement is too limited to cover all the aspects.
Option B is incorrect because the poet hints towards reaching new heights and not new areas.
Options D and E also mean the acts of crossing a certain boundary but not the
boundary/highest point itself.
Hence, the correct answer is option C.
27. C
Sol. There is still around 110 minutes of the class left, and her first priority should be to continue
the class. This is all the more important knowing that the schedule is jam-packed, and
rescheduling of any class is not easy. Step c should be the first priority (as this step also
comes with the condition of her husband’s laptop being free). Step a follows but can be
deceptive as it implies the servant’s duties as a whole and is the least relevant amongst the
steps. Step b doesn’t follow as Dr. Ayesha enjoys tea during her classes, and this is not the
first time tea is being served in the middle of a class.
Hence, the correct answer is option C.
28. D
Sol. Option A is not feasible as rescheduling the class is very difficult because of the jam-packed schedule.
Also, the idea of going out is not likely to work as only shops selling essential items are open. It is also
given in the passage that it is the middle of the semester. She has to make arrangements for her
remaining classes in the semester. This means that options B and C are also incomplete. Also, option C
implies that Dr. Ayesha’s work would be affected. Option D is a reasonable attempt to take care of all the
problems.
Hence, the correct answer is option D.
29. C
Sol. The main fault is with the servant for not keeping the door shut. It was not the first-time that tea was being
served; on his way to the study room, he also most probably saw the children playing in the living room.
Option B gives us the wrong reason. The servant had instructions to serve tea. Option D is also out of the
question as Dr. Ayesha may not have noticed that the door was kept open as she was in the middle of a
class.
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Hence, the correct answer is option C.


30. C
Sol. Option A is aggressive and extreme and is unlikely to diffuse the situation.
Option B is unethical as it amounts to a soft bribe to Shyam.
Option C takes into account the interests of the company’s profitability, investors, and the
consultants as well and is the best solution out of the lot.
Option D does not address the problem and will create more dissent in the organisation.
Option E will put the company in a tough financial spot.
Hence, the correct answer is option C.
31. C
Sol. Option A states that these skills are not unique and would not convince Shubhi about the
company’s financial interests.
Option B, while tempting, does not specify whether the consultants are willing to find
alternative jobs. It also does not state the kind of jobs that they will find. Also, it is possible that
Shubhi can also find employees who are willing to work as consultants.
Option C is the correct option because of guaranteed future returns.
Option D is not an argument related to financial interests.
Option E is close but incorrect because of the costs being incurred without much future
benefits.
Hence, the correct answer is option C.
32. E
Sol. Option A may not redeem the company’s reputation.
Option B does not solve the problem. The client has refused to work with Finta because of a
bad image and may not want to come back even for a lower fee.
Option C is evading responsibility for the issue. Just because something is a standard
practice, that does not make it an ethical practice.
Option D may not be feasible for the company as its profitability is already stretched.
Option E is the best choice as it will amount to showing that Finta gave both the choices to its
employees and is, thus, not exploiting them.
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Hence, the correct answer is option E.


33. B
Sol. The best answer is option B. If the client prefers dealing with experienced people, then
Ketaki’s request is likely to be denied as Ravi is a thorough professional; he would prioritise
the clients’ preference above all. Option A loses out as Ravi may not be doing any favours to
Ketaki if she is suitable for the job. Option C is gender biassed. Option D loses out to option B
as even with the best training or qualifications, if freshers are not preferred by clients, there is
a good reason to deny the request.
Hence, the correct answer is option B.
34. E
Sol. The key information here is that Ravi may have not missed the detail; he could be planning to
bring it up later. This makes option E a better option than B. Options A and C are rude
suggestions, considering that the meeting is going on and that the client is still present.
Hence, the correct answer is option E.
35. D
Sol. Option A may sound curt to Suman. Options B and E are nothing short of rumour-mongering as it’s not
advisable to go around defaming someone without concrete proof. Option C is too extreme. Option D is
the best step according to what Ketaki’s own experience with Ravi has been.
Hence, the correct answer is option D.
36. D
Sol. We have been told that the company’s data security measures are being questioned.
Option A is not a sound argument because, while there is always some amount of risk in
entering one’s data on the internet, any user provides their personal and financial information
to a company with the expectation that it will take the best possible measures to protect their
measures.
Option B just says that the company earns less profits than its peers in the industry. This does
not in any way show its incapability in paying the fines.
Option C does not negate the fact that the company’s security measures could be lax earlier;
so, it should be punished for that.
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Option D is sound because it says that the hacker took the data with such ease not because of
the company’s lax security but because of how skilled he/she/they was. So, the leak probably
could not be prevented despite strict measures.
Option E is vague and broad and does not concern itself with the immediate case.
Hence, the correct answer is option D.
37. C
Sol. It is clearly written in the case that Simpalese are defending Commart. So, the client is the
company and not the CEO. So, option A is rejected.
Option B is inferior to option C because Siya is not merely an unbiased citizen in this case.
She has a legal arrangement with the accused company and is, thus, bound by it.
Option C is the most sound as this ensures that she is acting in the best interests of her client.
Option D is vague as it does not say what kind of complications will arise because of it.
Option E is futile because the CEO may lie. Moreover, the question says that it is ‘hard’
evidence. Further, Siya is not an investigator but is a lawyer.
Hence, the correct answer is option E.
38. B
Sol. A and E are punitive measures and are unlikely to motivate employees to stay with the
company for a long term. Also, if the employees stay back because of the notices, they might
not work properly because of being forced.
Between B and C, B is better as it even talks about addressing the root cause of the losses
and will provide a better assurance to employees than C.
D may not hold any real meaning to the employees if the company does not address the
cause of its losses and bounce back from the crisis. Further, this measure is short-term in
nature and does not even consider the performance of various employees.
Hence, the correct answer is option B.
39. D
Sol. The immediate priority should be to prevent deaths. Therefore, the first thing to do is to display
notifications at the station and in surroundings so that a person is reminded of the
consequences just before he/she is thinking of taking such an action. Hence, 3 comes first.
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A sensor that blares a sensor could serve as a warning for the offender and can also help in
rescue efforts. So, 1 is also immediate and should come next.
Generating awareness about the loss of lives can bring a behavioural change in the people
and should be implemented next. Hence, 5 is the next.
Random inspection would make the personnel more responsible and that can help in saving
many lives. Hence, 4 comes next.
Investigating the reason people cross railway tracks is important because it has the potential
to completely eliminate the problem, but it could take more time and comes after the
immediate measures needed to stem loss of life. Hence, 2 comes at the end.
Hence, the correct answer is option D.
40. D
Sol. All the options can help Sabaa understand people’s decision of crossing the tracks:
1: A drunk person can cross a railway track as (s)he might not be in his/her senses.
2 & 5: These options provide behavioural explanations.
3: A person who underestimates the speed of a train can go wrong with his timing of crossing
the track.
4: A person diagnosed with depression might not be able to make sound decisions.
Hence, the correct answer is option D.
After Sabaa’s investigation revealed that the act of people crossing the tracks can be
explained by neurological and behavioural motivations, she decided to look at her
interventions afresh and implement some measures accordingly.
41. E
Sol. A appears to be correct but E makes more sense as E shows the aftereffects of a person’s
death due to accidents. Also, the suffering of the kin members tends to impact people more
than warnings and hoardings.
B and D just confine themselves to the station. Trespassing can happen from the surrounding
areas as well.
C is unrealistic, as it is not possible to capture a person’s face just before being hit by a train.
Had there been so much time, the victim would have been saved.
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Hence, E is the correct answer.


42. D
Sol. Step C is the most comprehensive and immediate option and is going to be the most effective.
Between steps d, b and a, b is more likely to produce results as step a will provide just a
guideline as to how things were done in the past, and you may or may not like to implement it.
a mentions the next thing to be done. d comes at the end because it can be time-consuming.
Hence, the correct answer is option D.
43. A
Sol. The most suitable and practical thing to shortlist candidates is to conduct proficiency tests.
Hence, A is the correct answer. B is incorrect because academic qualifications might not be a
good indicator of a person’s teaching capability. C is incorrect because the reputation of
teachers is something that cannot be measured tangibly. (Also, there are 5000 of them). D is
incorrect because age has very little to do with the ability as a teacher and E is incorrect
because a lottery system depends only on chance.
Hence, the correct answer is option A.
44. D
Sol. The suggestion made by this man is unethical and could even be unlawful. In such a case, the best thing
to do is to report it to your point of contact/ concerned authorities in the system. Since you have come to
know of a possible wrongdoing in a process you are a part of, not reporting it makes you complicit in it.
Options A and C can be eliminated because of this. Option B sounds too farfetched to be true. In Option
E, you have knowingly become a part of wrongdoing.
Hence, the correct answer is option D.
45. D
Sol. Option A evades responsibility for the issue and amounts to victim-blaming.
Option B will not satisfy the parents as they will feel that their wards are not safe for the time
being.
While option C looks like a safety measure, it does not address the problem of not having any
hostel warden on campus and as well as not having any female guards. It also borders on
policing the students.
Option D is the best measure, considering the present circumstances of the college.
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Option E is downright patriarchal and amounts to victim-blaming.


Hence, the correct answer is option D.
46. C
Sol. Option A is unethical. It is better to report the Director to his superiors. Option B is extreme
and does not address the problem.
Option C is appropriate as it will lead to a police complaint, and it involves informing a higher
authority of the director’s words.
Option D does not address the problem.
Option E uses the word ‘advisory’, which implies that their authority is advisory in nature.
Further, the director could himself be a member of this group of directors; thus, the group’s
remedial actions may not be impartial.
Hence, the correct answer is option C.
47. C
Sol. We do not know for sure that the students are rejecting CIMJ because of safety concerns.
There could be many factors that are governing their decision.
Releasing a public statement may not address the concerns of the students. In fact, it might
make them wonder why the director is releasing such a statement in case they are not aware
of the incident in the campus grounds. Thus, option A is rejected.
Option B will be a fruitless and expensive exercise if location is not a concern for the students.
It may further bring back the problem of lack of space.
Option C is the best choice as it first investigates why students may not be joining CIMJ.
Option D, while a good exercise in itself, may not solve the current problem at hand.
Option E again assumes that students are preferring other colleges because of educational
facilities; however, the reason may really be related to campus placements, pedagogy, or
something else.
Hence, the correct answer is option C.
48. C
Sol. By using statements 1, 2, 3, and 4, we get the following:

Let the total marks of all the five students for all the three tests be y.
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Let the total marks of the five students in Test 1 be x.

Thus, the total marks for Test 2 and Test 3 will be x + 20 and x + 60, respectively.

100 ≤ x ≤ 250, and 300 ≤ y ≤ 750

So, 3x + 80 = y (where x and y are integers, 100 ≤ x ≤ 223, and 380 ≤ y ≤ 749).

y is a multiple of 50.

The possible values of y can be 400, 450, 500, 550, 600, 650, and 700.

But y should be 2 more than a multiple of 3 (3K + 2 form, where K is an integer).

So, only possible values are 500 and 650.

But as y is not a multiple of 13, y = 500.

Hence, x = = 140

Thus, x = 140 and y = 500

Thus, the total marks for Test 1, Test 2, and Test 3 are 140, 160, and 200 respectively. So, the total marks
in the three Tests is 500.

The marks scored by the five students are as follows:

Aakash: 0.20 × 500 = 100

Badal: 0.25 × 500 = 125

Aasman: 0.15 × 500 = 75

Dharti: 0.22 × 500 = 110

Bhoomi: 0.18 × 500 = 90

By using statements 5, 6, and 7, we get the following:


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Let the marks of Aasman in three tests be x, x + 5, and x + 10.

Now, x + x + 5 + x + 10 = 75 or x = 20

Thus, his marks in tests 1, 2, and 3 are 20, 25, and 30, respectively.

Similarly, we get the marks of Bhoomi as 25, 30, and 35 in tests 1, 2, and 3, respectively.

Marks of Aakash and Dharti in Test 1 = 1.2 × 25 = 30

Thus, Badal’s marks in Test 1 = 140 − (30 + 20 + 30 + 25) = 35

Let Dharti’s marks in Test 2 and 3 be 2x and 3x, respectively.

Now, 2x + 3x = 110 −30 = 80 or x = 16

So, Dharti’s marks in Test 2 and Test 3 are 32 and 48, respectively.

The sum of marks of Badal in Test 2 and Test 3 = 125 − 35 = 90

Since the ratio of Badal’s marks in Test 2 to that in Test 3 is 8 : 7, so marks of Badal in Test 2 =
.

Thus, his marks in Test 3 = 90 − 48 = 42

So, marks of Akash in Test 2 = 160 − (30 + 32 +25 + 48) = 25

Also, his marks in Test 3 = 200 − (30 + 48 + 35 + 42 ) = 45

The final table is as follows:


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From the final table, we find that Aasman scored the least marks in Test 3.

Hence, option C is the correct answer.


49. A
Sol. By using statements 1, 2, 3, and 4, we get the following:

Let the total marks of all the five students for all the three tests be y.

Let the total marks of the five students in Test 1 be x.

Thus, the total marks for Test 2 and Test 3 will be x + 20 and x + 60, respectively.

100 ≤ x ≤ 250, and 300 ≤ y ≤ 750

So, 3x + 80 = y (where x and y are integers, 100 ≤ x ≤ 223, and 380 ≤ y ≤ 749).

y is a multiple of 50.

The possible values of y can be 450, 500, 550, 600, 650, and 700.

But y should be 2 more than a multiple of 3 (3K + 2 form, where K is an integer).

So, only possible values are 500 and 650.

But as y is not a multiple of 13, y = 500.

Hence, x = = 140

Thus, x = 140 and y = 500


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Thus, the total marks for Test 1, Test 2, and Test 3 are 140, 160, and 200. So, the total marks is 500.

The marks scored by the five students are as follows:

Aakash: 0.20 × 500 = 100

Badal: 0.25 × 500 = 125

Aasman: 0.15 × 500 = 75

Dharti: 0.22 × 500 = 110

Bhoomi: 0.18 × 500 = 90

By using statements 5, 6, and 7, we get the following:

Let the marks of Aasman in three tests be x, x + 5, and x + 10.

Now, x + x + 5 + x + 10 = 75 or x = 20

Thus, his marks in tests 1, 2, and 3 are 20, 25, and 30, respectively.

Similarly, we get the marks of Bhoomi as 25, 30, and 35 in tests 1, 2, and 3, respectively.

Marks of Aakash and Dharti in Test 1 = 1.2 × 25 = 30

Thus, Badal’s marks in Test 1 = 140 − (30 + 20 + 30 + 25) = 35

Let Dharti’s marks in Test 2 and 3 be 2x and 3x, respectively.

Now, 2x + 3x = 110 −30 = 80 or x = 16

So, Dharti’s marks in Test 2 and Test 3 are 32 and 48, respectively.
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The sum of marks of Badal in Test 2 and Test 3 = 125 − 35 = 90

Since the ratio of Badal’s marks in Test 2 to that in Test 3 is 8 : 7, so marks of Badal in Test 2 =
.

Thus, his marks in Test 3 = 90 − 48 = 42

So, marks of Akash in Test 2 = 160 − (30 + 32 +25 + 48) = 25

Also, his marks in Test 3 = 200 − (30 + 48 + 35 + 42 ) = 45

The final table is as follows:

64% marks means 0.64 × 50 = 32 marks.

Badal scored at least 32 marks in all the three tests.

Dharti scored at least 32 marks in Test 2 and Test 3.

Thus, only two students scored at least 64% marks in at least 2 tests.

Hence, option A is the correct answer.


50. B
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Sol. By using statements 1, 2, 3, and 4, we get the following:

Let the total marks of all the five students for all the three tests be y.

Let the total marks of the five students in Test 1 be x.

Thus, the total marks for Test 2 and Test 3 will be x + 20 and x + 60, respectively.

100 ≤ x ≤ 250, and 300 ≤ y ≤ 750

So, 3x + 80 = y (where x and y are integers, 100 ≤ x ≤ 223, and 380 ≤ y ≤ 749).

y is a multiple of 50.

The possible values of y can be 450, 500, 550, 600, 650, and 700.

But y should be 2 more than a multiple of 3 (3K + 2 form, where K is an integer).

So, only possible values are 500 and 650.

But as y is not a multiple of 13, y = 500.

Hence, x = = 140

Thus, x = 140 and y = 500

Thus, the total marks for Test 1, Test 2, and Test 3 are 140, 160, and 200. So, the total marks is 500.

The marks scored by the five students are as follows:

Aakash: 0.20 × 500 = 100

Badal: 0.25 × 500 = 125

Aasman: 0.15 × 500 = 75

Dharti: 0.22 × 500 = 110

Bhoomi: 0.18 × 500 = 90


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By using statements 5, 6, and 7, we get the following:

Let the marks of Aasman in three tests be x, x + 5, and x + 10.

Now, x + x + 5 + x + 10 = 75 or x = 20

Thus, his marks in tests 1, 2, and 3 are 20, 25, and 30, respectively.

Similarly, we get the marks of Bhoomi as 25, 30, and 35 in tests 1, 2, and 3, respectively.

Marks of Aakash and Dharti in Test 1 = 1.2 × 25 = 30

Thus, Badal’s marks in Test 1 = 140 − (30 + 20 + 30 + 25) = 35

Let Dharti’s marks in Test 2 and 3 be 2x and 3x, respectively.

Now, 2x + 3x = 110 −30 = 80 or x = 16

So, Dharti’s marks in Test 2 and Test 3 are 32 and 48, respectively.

The sum of marks of Badal in Test 2 and Test 3 = 125 − 35 = 90

Since the ratio of Badal’s marks in Test 2 to that in Test 3 is 8 : 7, so marks of Badal in Test 2 =
.

Thus, his marks in Test 3 = 90 − 48 = 42

So, marks of Akash in Test 2 = 160 − (30 + 32 +25 + 48) = 25

Also, his marks in Test 3 = 200 − (30 + 48 + 35 + 42 ) = 45


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The final table is as follows:

Akash: 0.1(30) + 0.15(25) + 0.25(45) = 18

Badal: 0.1(35) + 0.15(48) + 0.25(42) = 21.2

Aasman: 0.1(20) + 0.15(25) + 0.25(30) = 13.25

Dharti: 0.1(30) + 0.15(32) + 0.25(48) = 19.8

Bhoomi: 0.1(25) + 0.15(30) + 0.25(35) = 15.75

Clearly, Badal can be the top scorer in the final evaluation in spite of scoring the minimum marks in the
annual examination.

Hence, option B is the correct answer.


51. C
Sol.
Let the first three terms of the AP be (a – d), a, and (a + d).

According to the question, we get the following:

a – d + a + a + d = 45

3a = 45

a = 15 …(i)

(a – d)2 + a2 + (a + d)2 = 725


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a2 + d2 – 2ad + a2 + a2 + d2 + 2ad = 725

3a2 + 2d2 = 725

By using the value of ‘a’ from equation (i), we get the following:

3(15)2 + 2d2 = 725

675 + 2d2 = 725

d2 = 25

d=±5

Case I: When d = 5

25th term = 10 + (25 – 1)5 = 130

Case II: When d = –5

25th term = 20 + (25 – 1)(–5) = –100

From the options, we find that –100 is present.

Hence, option C is the correct answer.


52. A
Sol. There are two possibilities here.
Case I: Orange from the 1st bag and sweet lime from the 2nd bag

Probability .
Case II: Sweet lime from the 1st bag and orange from the 2nd bag

Probability

So, the total required probability


Hence, option A is the correct answer.
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53. C
Sol. Let the numbers on broken chairs be n and (n + 1).

Sum of 1st 140 numbers = = 9870


So, N > 140

Sum of 1st 150 numbers = = 11325


Sum of the numbers on broken chairs = 11325 – 11126 = 199
So, the numbers on broken chairs will be 99 and 100 (99 + 100 = 199).
Hence, option C is the correct answer.
54. C
Sol.
b3 + 387 = a3

(a – b)(a2 + ab + b2) = 387

(a – b)(129) = 387

a–b=3

Hence, option C is the correct answer.

55. B
Sol. As the minimum number of rows have to be occupied, the maximum number of employees
must be seated in each row.
The maximum number of employees in each row will be equal to the highest common factor of
72, 108, and 132 = HCF (72, 108, 132) = 12.

Number of rows occupied by managers =

Number of rows occupied by associates =

Number of rows occupied by interns


The minimum number of rows is 6 + 9 + 11 = 26.
Hence, option B is the correct answer.
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56. D
Sol. When the ball is dropped, it will travel 60 metres before it hits the ground and then it will travel
75% of the total distance towards the balcony and then the same distance towards the ground.
This process will be repeated till the ball comes to rest.

So, distance travelled by the ball =

60 + 75% of 60 + 75% of 60 + 75% of 75% of 60 + 75% of 75% of 60 + …...

= 60 + 2(60 × + 60 × + 60 × + …….)

= 60 + 2( ) = 60 + 2(180) = 420 meters

Hence, option D is the correct answer.

57. D
Sol. The responses of Dilshan and Ben are different for each of the seven questions.

As Dilshan answered only one question correctly, Ben must have answered six questions correctly and
one question incorrectly.

Case 1: Ben answered question number 7 incorrectly.

Case 2: Ben answered question number 6 incorrectly.


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Case 3: Ben answered question number 5 incorrectly.

Case 4: Ben answered question number 4 incorrectly.

Case 5: Ben answered question number 3 incorrectly.


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Case 6: Ben answered question number 2 incorrectly.

Case 7: Ben answered question number 1 incorrectly.

Case 2:

The maximum possible value of the sum of the number of questions answered correctly by the five people
in the test is 20.
58. D
Sol. The responses of Dilshan and Ben are different for each of the seven questions.
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As Dilshan answered only one question correctly, Ben must have answered six questions correctly and
one question incorrectly.

Case 1: Ben answered question number 7 incorrectly.

Case 2: Ben answered question number 6 incorrectly.

Case 3: Ben answered question number 5 incorrectly.

Case 4: Ben answered question number 4 incorrectly.


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Case 5: Ben answered question number 3 incorrectly.

Case 6: Ben answered question number 2 incorrectly.

Case 7: Ben answered question number 1 incorrectly.


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The sum of the number of questions answered correctly by the five people in the test cannot be 15.
59. C
Sol. The responses of Dilshan and Ben are different for each of the seven questions.

As Dilshan answered only one question correctly, Ben must have answered six questions correctly and
one question incorrectly.

Case 1: Ben answered question number 7 incorrectly.

Case 2: Ben answered question number 6 incorrectly.


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Case 3: Ben answered question number 5 incorrectly.

Case 4: Ben answered question number 4 incorrectly.

Case 5: Ben answered question number 3 incorrectly.

Case 6: Ben answered question number 2 incorrectly.


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Case 7: Ben answered question number 1 incorrectly.

Case 1:

Only question number 7 was answered incorrectly by Ben.


60. D
Sol. Let the cost price of the car be ‘100x’ and that of the camera be ‘100y’.

So, according to the question, we can write the following:

SP of that car = 80x and that of camera = 140y

Loss occurred in selling the car = 100x 80x = 20x

And profit occurred in selling the camera= 140y 100y = 40y

Overall loss = 20x 40y

…(1)

In the second case, SP of the car = 90x


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So, loss occurred = 100x 90x = 10x

So, overall profit = 40y 10x

40y 10x = 50000 …(2)

By solving both equations (1) and (2), we get x = 9000 and y = 3500.

So, selling price of the car = 80x = 80 9000 = Rs. 720000

Hence, option D is the correct answer.

61. C
Sol. The numbers written on paper must be 1234567891011…2900 digits.

Number of single-digit numbers = 9

Number of two-digit numbers = 2( 99 − 10 +1) = 2(90) = 180

Number of three-digit numbers = 3 (999 − 100 +1) = 3(900) = 2700

Thus, 1 to 999 has 2889 digits. We need the next 12 more digits

The next numbers are 1000, 1001, and 1002.

So, the last digit on the paper is 2.

Hence, option C is the correct answer.


62. E
Sol.
From the given information, we can find the following:

Speed of Samay = m/s

So, speed of Namay = 2 2 m/s = 4 m/s

As they are moving in the opposite directions, we can write the following:
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So, the relative speed is (2 + 4) = 6 m/s.

Therefore, the distance between their homes is 8640 m.

Hence, option E is the correct answer.

63. D
Sol. The normal speed of the hour hand and minute hands are 0.5 degree per minute and 6
degrees per minute, respectively.

Thus, the new speeds of the hour hand and minute hand will be 1 degree per minute and 12
degrees per minute, respectively.

As the hands of the clock run in the same direction, the relative speed will be the difference
between their respective speeds.

12 – 1 = 11 degrees per minute

At 12:00, both the hands were coinciding.

They will be opposite to each other when the minute hand covers 180 degrees more than the
hour hand.

To do that, the minute hand will need minutes = 16 minutes.

So, the required time = 16 minutes past 12 o’clock.

Hence, option D is the correct answer.

64. B
Sol. Let N be the number that when divided by 4, 6, and 7 gives remainder 1, 2, 3, and 4,
respectively.
The common difference between divisors and remainders is constant,
i.e., (4 − 1) = 3, (5 − 2) = 3, (6 − 3) = 3, (7 − 4) = 3
N = LCM(divisors) − Common difference
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N = LCM(4,5,6,7) − Common difference


LCM (4, 5, 6, 7) = 420
To find the greatest 4-digit number, divide 9999 with 420.

So, the greatest 4-digit number that is divisible by 420 is 9660.


Hence, the required answer is 9660 − 3 = 9657.
65. B
Sol. Consider the triangle given below.

From Triangle ABC, we get the following using Apollonius Theorem:

AB2 + AC2 = 2(BD2 + AD2)

100 + 256 = 2(36 + AD2)

178 = 36 + AD2

AD2 = 142

From Triangle ADC, we get the following using Apollonius theorem:

AD2 + DC2 = 2(DE2 + CE2)


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142 + 36 = 2(DE2 + 64)

178 = 2(DE2 + 64)

89 = DE2 + 64

DE = 5 cm

Hence, option B is the correct answer.

66. E
Sol. By using statement, a, b, and e, we get the following:

Let the profit that Gampu makes in selling one kg of rice is Rs. ‘x’

By using statements c, d, and f, we get the following:

63 – x ⇒ x < 63

and x – 49 > 0 (since profit is not zero) , so x > 49

Thus, the only possibility for x is 56 (since x is a multiple of 7).


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By plugging x = 56, we get the final table as follows:

From the final table, we find that Hampu earns Rs. 35 per kg. Thus, by selling 10 kgs, he will earn Rs.
350.

Hence, option E is the correct answer.


67. A
Sol. By using statement, a, b, and e, we get the following:

Let the profit that Gampu makes in selling one kg of rice is Rs. ‘x’

By using statements c, d, and f, we get the following:

63 – x ⇒ x < 63
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and x – 49 > 0 (since profit is not zero) , so x > 49

Thus, the only possibility for x is 56 (since x is a multiple of 7).

By plugging x = 56, we get the final table as follows:

From the final table, we find that the purchase price of Gampu is Rs. 14 per kg.

Hence, option A is the correct answer.


68. C
Sol. By using statement, a, b, and e, we get the following:

Let the profit that Gampu makes in selling one kg of rice is Rs. ‘x’

By using statements c, d, and f, we get the following:


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63 – x ⇒ x < 63

and x – 49 > 0 (since profit is not zero) , so x > 49

Thus, the only possibility for x is 56 (since x is a multiple of 7).

By plugging x = 56, we get the final table as follows:

From the final table, we find that the least selling price is Rs. 21 per kg.

Hence, option C is the correct answer.


69. A
Sol. Let the radii of the two circles by ‘a’ cm and ‘b’ cm.

So, a + b = 18 …(i)

Also, 3.14(a2 + b2) = 565.2

a2 + b2 = 180

By using equation (i), we get the following:


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a2 + (18 – a)2 = 180

a2 + 324 + a2 – 36a = 180

a2 – 18a + 72 = 0

(a – 12)(a – 6) = 0

So, a = 12 or a = 6

Thus, the corresponding values of b will be 6 and 12, respectively.

Required answer = 12 – 6 = 6

Hence, option A is the correct answer.

70. D
Sol.
x2 – 10x + 63 < 42

x2 – 10x + 21 < 0

x2 – 7x – 3x + 21 < 0

(x – 7)(x – 3) < 0

The above inequality will hold true for 3 < x < 7.

Thus, the possible values of x are 4, 5, and 6.

Required sum = 4 + 5 + 6 = 15

Hence, option D is the correct answer.

71. A
Sol. Total weight of the students initially = 50 60 kg = 3000 kg

Let ‘a’ is the average weight who left the class.


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Total weight of the students who left = 5a kg

Total weight of the remaining 45 students = (3000 – 5a) kg

Total weight of the six new students who joined = kg

Total weight of the 51 students = (3000 – 5a + 7a) = (3000 + 2a) kg

Average of the 51 students =

Then, a = 55.5 kg

Hence, option A is the correct answer.


72. E
Sol.
log2a + log4(a4b6) = 6

log2a + log2(a2b3) = 6

log2(a3b3) = 6

a3b3 = 26

Since ‘a’ and ‘b’ are real positive integers, we get either a = 1 and b = 4 or a = 2 and b = 2.

Thus, the value of (a + b) can be 5 or 4.

Hence, option E is the correct answer.

73. D
Sol. Here, we need to determine the company for which the product of the market share (by
volume) and the average price is the highest.
By observing the graph, we can say it is either Suko or Dira.
Suko (40 22 = 880) is less than Dira (50 18 = 900).
Hence, option D is the correct answer.
74. A
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Sol. Let the total sales of the refrigerators in 2020 be 10000.


Thus, the total revenue of Zero will be as follows:
0.24 × 10000 × 30 = 72000 (in thousands)
Also, the total revenue of the company Suko will be as follows:
0.22 × 10000 × 40 = 88000 (in thousands)

Thus, the desired percentage is 18.18% less.


75. D
Sol. Ratio of market shares of Manu and Zero in 2020 = 1 : 3

The new market share of Zero in 2021 will be 24% + 36%.


Let the total sales of the refrigerators in 2021 be 10000.
Thus, the total revenue of the company Zero will be as follows:
0.36 × 10000 × 30 = 108000 (in thousands)
Also, the total revenue of the company Suko will be as follows:
0.22 × 10000 × 40 = 88000 (in thousands)

Thus, the desired percentage is 22.72% more.


Hence, option D is the correct answer.

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