Physics

Core
(Topic 1-8)

WORKBOOK

1
 Contents

Topic 1: Measurements and uncertainties ................................................................................. 3

Topic 2: Mechanics ................................................................................................................. 13

Topic 3: Thermal physics ........................................................................................................ 36

Topic 4: Waves ........................................................................................................................ 50

Topic 5: Electricity and magenetism....................................................................................... 76

Topic 6: Circular motion and gravitation .............................................................................. 100

Topic 7: Atomic, nuclear and particle physics ...................................................................... 112

Topic 8: Energy production................................................................................................... 130

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Topic 1: Measurements and uncertainties
1. The order of magnitude of the weight of an apple is

A. 10–4 N.

B. 10–2 N.

C. 1 N.

D. 102 N.

2. The number of heartbeats of a person at rest in one hour, to the nearest order of magnitude is

A. 101.

B. 102.

C. 103.

D. 105.

diameter of a nucleus
3. The ratio is approximately equal to
diameter of an atom

A. 10–15.

B. 10–8.

C. 10–5.

D. 10–2.

4. The volume of the Earth is approximately 1012 km3 and the volume of a grain of sand is approximately 1
mm3. The order of magnitude of the number of grains of sand that can fit in the volume of the Earth is

A. 1012.

B. 1018.

C. 1024.

D. 1030.

5. Which one of the following contains three fundamental units?

A. Metre Kilogram Coulomb

B. Second Ampere Newton

C. Kilogram Ampere Kelvin

D. Kelvin Coulomb Second

3
6. Which one of the following lists a fundamental unit and a derived unit?

A. ampere second

B. coulomb kilogram

C. coulomb newton

D. metre kilogram

7. Sub-multiples of units may be expressed using a prefix. Which one of the following lists the prefixes in
decreasing order of magnitude?

A. centi- micro- milli- nano-

B. milli- centi- nano- micro-

C. centi- milli- micro- nano-

D. milli- micro- centi- nano-

8. The resistive force F acting on a sphere of radius r moving at speed v through a liquid is given by

F = cvr

where c is a constant. Which of the following is a correct unit for c?

A. N

B. N s–1

C. N m2 s–1

D. N m–2 s

9. Which one of the following measurements is stated correctly to two significant digits?

A. 0.006 m

B. 0.06 m

C. 600 m

D. 620 m

10. When a voltage V of 12.2 V is applied to a DC motor, the current I in the motor is 0.20 A. Which one of
the following is the output power VI of the motor given to the correct appropriate number of significant
digits?

A. 2W B. 2.4 W

C. 2.40 W D. 2.44 W

4
11. An object has an acceleration of 2.0 m s−2. Which of the following gives the change in the speed of the
object after 7.00 s to the correct number of significant digits?

A. 14 m s−1 B. 14.0 m s−1 C. 14.00 m s−1 D. 14.000 m s−1

12. The reading of a constant potential difference is made four times by a student. The readings are

1.176 V
1.178 V
1.177 V
1.176 V

The student averages these readings but does not take into account the zero error on the voltmeter. The
average measurement of the potential difference is

A. precise and accurate.

B. precise but not accurate.

C. accurate but not precise.

D. not accurate and not precise.

13. An ammeter has a zero offset error. This fault will affect

A. neither the precision nor the accuracy of the readings.

B. only the precision of the readings.

C. only the accuracy of the readings.

D. both the precision and the accuracy of the readings.

14. Both random and systematic errors are present in the measurement of a particular quantity. What changes,
if any, would repeated measurements of this quantity have on the random and systematic errors?

Random Systematic

A. reduced reduced

B. reduced unchanged

C. unchanged reduced

D. unchanged unchanged

15. A student measures a distance several times. The readings lie between 49.8 cm and 50.2 cm. This
measurement is best recorded as

A. 49.8  0.2 cm.

B. 49.8  0.4 cm.

C. 50.0  0.2 cm.

D. 50.0  0.4 cm.

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16. When a force F of (10.0  0.2) N is applied to a mass m of (2.0  0.1) kg, the percentage uncertainty
attached to the value of the calculated acceleration is

A. 2%. B. 5%. C. 7%. D. 10%.

17. The radius of a loop is measured to be (10.0 ±0.5) cm. Which of the following is the best estimate of the
uncertainty in the calculated area of the loop?

A. 0.25% B. 5% C. 10% D. 25%

M
18. The density of a metal cube is given by the expression ρ  where M is the mass and V is the volume
V
of the cube. The percentage uncertainties in M and V are as shown below.

M 12

V 4.0

The percentage uncertainty in the calculated value of the density is

A. 3.0. B. 8.0. C. 16. D. 48.

19. The mass of a body is measured with an uncertainty of 2.0 and its volume with an uncertainty of 10.
What is the uncertainty in the density of the body?

A. 0.2 B. 5.0 C. 12 D. 20

20. The sides of a cube are each of length 1.00 m. Each side is measured with an uncertainty of 2. The
absolute uncertainty in the volume of the cube is

A. 0.02 m3. B. 0.06 m3. C. 0.2 m3. D. 0.6 m3.

21. The volume V of a cylinder of height h and radius r is given by the expression

V = πr2h.

In a particular experiment, r is to be determined from measurements of V and h. The uncertainties in V

and in h are as shown below.

V 7%

h 3%

The approximate uncertainty in r is

A. 10%.

B. 5%.

C. 4%.

D. 2%.

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22. An object falls from rest with an acceleration g. The variation with time t of the displacement s of the
object is given by

1
s  gt 2 .
2

The uncertainty in the value of the time is ±6 and the uncertainty in the value of g is ±4. The best
estimate for the uncertainty of the position of the object is

A. 5.

B. 8.

C. 10.

D. 16.

23. Which of the following graphs shows the best-fit line for the plotted points?

A. B.
y y

0 0
0 x 0 x

C. D.
y y

0 0
0 x 0 x

24. The time period T of oscillation of a mass m suspended from a vertical spring is given by the expression

m
T = 2π
k

where k is a constant.

Which one of the following plots will give rise to a straight-line graph?

A. T2 against m

B. T against m

C. T against m

D. T against m

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25. The variation with time t of the speed v of an object is given by the expression

v = u + at

where u and a are constants.

A graph of the variation with time t of speed v is plotted. Which one of the following correctly shows
how the constants may be determined from this graph?

A. B.
v v

0 0
0 t 0 t
gradient = a 1
gradient =
a
–u –u

C. D.
v v

0 0
0 u t 0 u t
gradient = a 1
gradient =
a

26. Which of the following contains three scalar quantities?

A. mass charge speed

B. density weight mass
C. speed weight charge
D. charge weight density

27. Which one of the following includes three vector quantities?

A. velocity weight field strength

B. weight mass field strength

C. velocity energy weight

D. mass energy field strength

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28. The diagram below shows two vectors, x and y.

y
x

Which of the vectors below best represents the vector c that would satisfy the relation
c = x + y?

A. B.

C. D.

29. The diagram below shows two vectors X and Y.

X
Y

Which of the following best represents the vector Z = X – Y.

A. B.
Z Z

C. D.

Z Z

30. Two objects X and Y are moving away from the point P. The diagram below shows the velocity vectors
of the two objects.

Velocity vector for object Y

P
Velocity vector for object X

Which of the following velocity vectors best represents the velocity of object X relative to object Y?
A. B.

C. D.

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31. The diagram below shows a boat that is about to cross a river in a direction perpendicular to the bank at a
speed of 0.8 m s–1. The current flows at 0.6 m s–1 in the direction shown.

Bank

0.8 ms –1
–1
0.6 ms

Boat
Bank

The magnitude of the displacement of the boat 5 seconds after leaving the bank is

A. 3 m.

B. 4 m.

C. 5 m.

D. 7 m.

32. Two forces of magnitudes 7 N and 5 N act at a point. Which one of the following is not a possible value
for the magnitude of the resultant force?

A. 1N

B. 3N

C. 5N

D. 7N

Short answer questions

1. Use the method of rectangular resolution to find the resultant of the following set of forces: 1) 200 N to
the right; 2) 300 N @ 600 above the horizontal to the right. 3) 100 N @ 450 above the horizontal to the left;
4) 200 N vertically downward.

F
2
F
3
45 60 x

F1
F4

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 2. Data analysis question.

Gillian carried out an experiment to investigate the craters formed when steel balls are dropped into sand.
To try and find the relationship between the diameter of the crater and the energy of impact of steel balls
of the same diameter, she dropped a steel ball from different heights h into sand and measured the
resulting diameter d of the crater. The data are shown plotted below.

(a) The uncertainty in the measurement of d is ±0.40 cm; the uncertainty in h is too small to be shown.
Draw error bars for the data point (0.2, 0.047) and the data point (2.0, 0.10).
(2)

(b) Draw a best-fit line for the data points.

(2)

(c) The original hypothesis, made by Gillian, was that the diameter of the crater is directly
proportional to the energy of impact of the steel balls. Explain why the data does not support this
hypothesis.

......................................................................................................................................

......................................................................................................................................

......................................................................................................................................

......................................................................................................................................

......................................................................................................................................
(3)

(d) Since Gillian’s data did not support her hypothesis, she researched to find alternative hypotheses.
She found that there are two theories used to predict a relationship between d and h. In order to
find which theory is best supported by the data, she processed the data in two separate ways. The
processed data are shown below.

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(i) Draw a line of best-fit on each graph.
(2)

(ii) State and explain which theory is best supported by the student’s data.

...........................................................................................................................

...........................................................................................................................

...........................................................................................................................

...........................................................................................................................
(2)
(Total 11 marks)

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Topic 2: Mechanics
1. Which one of the following is a correct definition of displacement?

A. Distance from a fixed point

B. Distance moved from a fixed point

C. Distance from a fixed point in a given direction

D. Distance moved in a given direction

2. The minute hand of a clock hung on a vertical wall has length L.

P
L

The minute hand is observed at the time shown above and then again, 30 minutes later.

What is the displacement of, and the distance moved by, the end P of the minute hand during this time
interval?

displacement distance moved

A. 2L vertically downwards πL

B. 2L vertically upwards πL

C. 2L vertically downwards 2L

D. 2L vertically upwards 2L

3. A particle moves from a point P to a point Q in a time T. Which one of the following correctly defines
both the average velocity and average acceleration of the particle?

Average velocity Average acceleration

displacement of Q and P change in speed from Q to P
A.
T T
displacement of Q and P change in velocit y from Q to P
B.
T T
distance between Q and P change in speed from Q to P
C.
T T
distance between Q and P change in velocit y from Q to P
D.
T T

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4. A ball is thrown vertically upwards from the ground. The graph shows the variation with time t of the
vertical displacement d of the ball.

Which of the following gives the final displacement after time T and the average speed between time t =
0 m aand time t = T?

Displacement Average speed

A. 0 0

0 2D
B.
T

2D 2D
C.
T

D. 2D 0

5. The graph below shows the variation with time t of the displacement s of an object moving along a
straight-line.

s/m

20.0

0.0
0.0 2.0 4.0 t / s

The best estimate of the instantaneous speed of the object at t = 2.0 s is

A. 0.0 ms–1. B. 0.2 ms–1. C. 5.0 ms–1. D. 10.0 ms–1.

6. Four cars W, X, Y and Z are on a straight road. The graph below shows the variation with time t of the
distance s of each car from a fixed point.
s X
Which car has the greatest speed?

A. W W Y

B. X
Z
C. Y
0
0 t
D. Z

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7. The diagram below shows the variation with time t of the velocity v of an object.

0
0 t

The area between the line of the graph and the time-axis represents

A. the average velocity of the object.

B. the displacement of the object.

C. the impulse acting on the object.

D. the work done on the object.

8. An object has initial speed u and acceleration a. After travelling a distance s, its final speed is v. The
quantities u, v, a and s are related by the expression

v2 = u2 + 2as.

Which of the following includes the two conditions necessary for the equation to apply?

A. a has constant direction u and v are in the same direction

B. a has constant direction a, u and v are in the same direction

C. a has constant magnitude a has constant direction

D. a has constant magnitude u and v are in the same direction

9. A stone X is thrown vertically upwards with speed v from the top of a building. At the same time, a
second stone Y is thrown vertically downwards with the same speed v as shown.

Air resistance is negligible. Which one of the following statements is true

about the speeds with which the stones hit the ground at the base of the v
building?
X Y
A. The speed of stone X is greater than that of stone Y. v

B. The speed of stone Y is greater than that of stone X.

Building
C. The speed of stone X is equal to that of stone Y.

D. Any statement about the speeds depends on the height of the

building.

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 10. A body starting from rest moves along a straight-line under the action of a constant force. After travelling
a distance d the speed of the body is v.

initial position
v

d
The speed of the body when it has travelled a distance from its initial
2
position is v

v v v v
A. . B. . C. . D. .
4 2 2 2 2

11. The graph shows the variation with time t of the velocity v of an object.
t

Which one of the following graphs best represents the variation with time t of the acceleration a of the
object?

A. a B. a

0 0
0 t 0 t

C. a D. a

0 0
0 t 0 t

12. The graph shows the variation with time t of the acceleration a of an object.

20

The object is at rest at time t = 0.

15 Which of the following is the

velocity of the object at time t = 6.0 s?

A. 0.50 m s–1.
10
/ ms -2?
aa/ms B. 2.0 m s–1.

C. 36 m s–1.
5
D. 72 m s–1.

0
0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
16
t/s
13. The graph below shows the variation with time t of the acceleration a of a spaceship.

0
0 T t

The spaceship is at rest at t = 0.

The shaded area represents

A. the distance travelled by the spaceship between t = 0 and t = T.

B. the speed of the spaceship at t = T.

C. the rate at which the speed of the spaceship changes between t = 0 and t = T.

D. the rate at which the acceleration changes between t = 0 and t = T.

14. A stone is thrown from a cliff and it lands in the sea as shown below. Air resistance is negligible.

Which of the following statements is correct whilst the stone is in motion?

A. The vertical component of the stone’s displacement is constant.

B. The horizontal component of the stone’s displacement is constant.

C. The vertical component of the stone’s velocity is constant.

D. The horizontal component of the stone’s velocity is constant.

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15. The diagram shows the path of a projectile that is launched with velocity v. Air resistance is negligible.

A second projectile has double the mass of the first projectile and is launched with the same velocity. Air
resistance is still negligible. Which of the following paths best represents the path of the projectile? (The
original path is shown as a dotted line)

16. A football is kicked with an initial velocity u at an angle θ to the horizontal and reaches the ground t
seconds later.

Ignoring air resistance what is the range R of the football?

A. ut B. ut cos θ

C. ut sin θ D. ut tan θ

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17. An object moves in the x-y plane. The graphs below show how the component of its velocity Vx in the
x-direction and the component of its velocity Vy in the y-direction, vary with time t.

The particle is moving

A. in a parabola.

B. with simple harmonic motion.

C. with constant velocity in a straight line.

D. in a circle.

18. A stone is thrown horizontally from the top of a cliff with an initial speed v.

The time of flight of the stone is t and its range R. Air resistance is negligible.
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 For a stone that is thrown horizontally from the top of the cliff with an initial speed 3v, which of the
following is correct?

Time of flight Range

A. t R
B. 3t 3R
C. t 3R
D. 3t R

19. A raindrop falling through air reaches a terminal velocity before hitting the ground. At terminal velocity,
the frictional force on the raindrop is

A. zero.

B. less than the weight of the raindrop.

C. greater than the weight of the raindrop.

D. equal to the weight of the raindrop.

20. A steel sphere is dropped from rest in oil. Which of the following graphs best represents the variation
with time of the speed of the sphere?

A. speed B. speed

0 0
0 time 0 time

C. speed D. speed

0 0
0 time 0 time

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21. A boat is moving in the direction shown with a speed of 5 m s−1 as measured by Nico who is at rest on
the beach. Aziz walks along the deck of the boat in the direction shown with a speed of 2 m s−1 measured
relative to the boat.

positive direction

Aziz
5 m s –1

Nico

If velocity is measured as positive in the direction shown, the velocity of Nico relative to Aziz is

A. − 7 m s−1. B. − 3 m s−1. C. + 3 m s−1. D. + 7 m s−1.

22. A car is heading due East at a speed of 10 m s−1. A bird is flying due North at a speed of 4 m s−1, as
shown below.

N
W E
4 m s –1
S

Car Bird
10 m s –1

Which one of the following vectors represents the velocity of the bird relative to a person in the car?

A. B.

C. D.

23. An object is moving at constant velocity. Which one of the following quantities must have zero
magnitude?

A. Weight of object

B. Momentum of object

C. Kinetic energy of object

D. Resultant force on object

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24. A horse pulls a boat along a canal at constant speed in a straight-line as shown below.
horse

P F

L boat direction of travel

The horse exerts a constant force F on the boat. The water exerts a constant drag force L and a constant
force P on the boat. The directions of F, L and P are as shown. Which one of the following best
represents a free-body diagram for the boat?
A. B. F

L L

P P

C. D. F

L L

25. Three forces of magnitude F1 = 3.0 N, F2 = 4.0 N and F3 = 6.0 N act at a point. The point is in
equilibrium. The magnitude of the resultant of F1 and F2 is

A. 1.0 N. B. 5.0 N. C. 6.0 N. D. 7.0 N.

26. The graph below shows the variation with load F of the length L of a spring.

F2

F1

0
0 L1 L2 L

Which of the following expressions gives the force per unit extension (the spring constant) of the spring?

F1 F2 F2  F1  F2  F1 
A. B. C. D.
L1 L2 L2 L2  L1

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27. A block of mass m is pulled along a horizontal, frictionless surface by a force of magnitude F. The force
makes an angle  with the vertical.

block

The magnitude of the acceleration of the block in the horizontal direction produced by the force F is

F F sin θ F cos θ F tan θ

A. . B. . C. . D. .
m m m m

28. A trolley of mass 1.5 kg is pulled along a horizontal table by a force of 5.0N.

force 5.0N

The frictional force acting on the trolley is 0.50N.

The acceleration of the trolley is

A. 0.30 m s–2. B. 0.33 m s–2. C. 3.0 m s–2. D. 3.3 m s–2.

29. Two blocks having different masses slide down a frictionless slope.

Which of the following correctly compares the accelerating force acting on each block and also the
accelerations of the blocks down the slope?

Accelerating force Acceleration

A. Equal Equal

B. Equal Different

C. Different Equal

D. Different Different

30. A light inextensible string has a mass attached to each end and passes over a frictionless pulley as shown.

pulley

The masses are of magnitudes M and m, where m < M. The

acceleration of free fall is g. The downward acceleration of the mass M is

A.
M  mg . string

M  m
mass M

B.
M  mg .
mass m
M

C.
M  mg .
M  m
Mg
D. .
M  m 
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 31. A constant force of magnitude F acts on a body. The graph shows the variation with time t of the
momentum p of the body.

200

180

160

140

120
–1
p/kg m s 100

80

60

40

20

0
0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
t /s

The magnitude of the force F is

A. 1000 N. B. 200 N. C. 20 N. D. 0.05 N.

32. The velocity of a body of mass m changes by an amount v in a time t. The impulse given to the body is
equal to

v v
A. mt. B. . C. m . D. mv.
t t

33. A net force of magnitude F acts on a body for a time t producing an impulse of magnitude Y. Which of
the following is the magnitude of the rate of change of momentum of the body?

A. F B. Ft C. Y D. Yt

34. The graph below shows the variation with time t of the magnitude of the net force F acting on a body
moving along a straight-line.
F

0
0 t

The shaded area represents

A. the total work done by F.

B. the change in the kinetic energy of the body.

C. the change in the momentum of the body.

D. the change in the velocity of the body.

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 35. Which of the following quantities are conserved in an inelastic collision between two bodies?

Total linear momentum of the bodies Total kinetic energy of the bodies

A. yes yes

B. yes no

C. no yes

D. no no

36. A ball of mass 2.0 kg falls vertically and hits the ground with speed 7.0 ms–1 as shown below.

7.0 ms–1

3.0 ms –1

before after

The ball leaves the ground with a vertical speed 3.0 ms–1.

The magnitude of the change in momentum of the ball is

A. zero. B. 8.0 Ns. C. 10 Ns. D. 20 Ns.

37. A ball of mass m, travelling in a direction at right angles to a vertical wall, strikes the wall with a speed v1.
It rebounds at right angles to the wall with a speed v2. The ball is in contact with the wall for a time Δt. The
magnitude of the force that the ball exerts on the wall is

mv1  v 2 
A. .
t

B. m(v1 + v2)Δt.

mv1  v 2 
C. .
t

D. m(v1 – v2)Δt.

38. The momentum of a system is conserved if

A. no external forces act on the system.

B. no friction forces act within the system.

C. no kinetic energy is lost or gained by the system.

D. the forces acting on the system are in equilibrium.

25
 39. Two spheres X and Y are moving towards each other along the same straight line with momenta of
magnitude PX and PY respectively. The spheres collide and move off with momenta pX and pY
respectively, as illustrated below.
Px PY px pY

X Y X Y

Before collision After collision

Which one of the following is a correct statement of the law of conservation of momentum for this
collision?

A. PX + PY = pX + pY

B. PX – PY = pX + pY

C. PX – PY = pX – pY

D. PX + PY = pX – pY

40. Two spheres of masses m1 and m2 are moving towards each other along the same straight-line with
speeds v1 and v2 as shown.

positive direction

m1 v1 v2 m2

The spheres collide. Which of the following gives the total change in linear momentum of the spheres as
a result of the collision?

A. 0 B. m1v1 + m2v2 C. m1v1 − m2v2 D. m2v2 − m1v1

41. The diagram below shows a trolley of mass 4.0 kg moving on a frictionless horizontal table with a speed
of 2.0 m s–1. It collides with a stationary trolley also of mass 4.0 kg.
–1
2.0ms

4.0kg 4.0kg

Which of the following diagrams shows a possible outcome?

26
42. A truck collides head on with a less massive car moving in the opposite direction to the truck. During the
collision, the average force exerted by the truck on the car is FT and the average force exerted by the car on the
truck is FC. Which one of the following statements is correct?

A. FT will always be greater in magnitude than FC.

B. FT will always be equal in magnitude to FC.

C. FT will be greater in magnitude than FC only when the speed of the car is less than the speed of the
truck.

D. FT will be equal in magnitude to FC only when the speed of the truck is equal to the speed of the
car.

43. A box of mass m is moved horizontally against a constant frictional force f through a distance s at
constant speed v. The work done on the box is

1
A. 0. B. mgs. C. mv2. D. fs.
2

44. The point of action of a constant force F is displaced a distance d. The angle between the force and the
direction of the displacement is θ, as shown below.

Which one of the following is the correct expression for the work done by the force?

A. Fd B. Fd sin θ C. Fd cos θ D. Fd tan θ

45. The graph below shows the variation with displacement d of the force F applied by a spring on a cart.

3
FN
/
2

0
0 1 2 3
–2
dm/ 10
The work done by the force in moving the cart through a distance of 2 cm is

A. 10 × 10–2J.

B. 7 × 10–2J.

C. 5 × 10–2J.

D. 2.5 × 10–2J.

27
 m
46. A body of mass m and speed v has kinetic energy EK. A second body of mass moves at speed 2v.
2
The kinetic energy of this second body is

EK
A. . B. EK. C. 2EK. D. 4EK.
2

47. An object of mass m1 has a kinetic energy K1. Another object of mass m2 has a kinetic energy K2. If the
K1
momentum of both objects is the same, the ratio is equal to
K2

m2 m1 m2 m1
A. . B. . C. . D. .
m1 m2 m1 m2

48. The variation with time of the vertical speed of a ball falling in air is shown below.

Speed

0
0 T time

During the time from 0 to T, the ball gains kinetic energy and loses gravitational potential energy ΔEp.
Which of the following statements is true?

A. ΔEp is equal to the gain in kinetic energy.

B. ΔEp is greater than the gain in kinetic energy.

C. ΔEp is equal to the work done against air resistance.

D. ΔEp is less than the work done against air resistance.

49. The diagram below represents energy transfers in an engine.

input energy useful output energy

engine
EIN EOUT

wasted energy
EW

The efficiency of the engine is given by the expression

EW EW E OUT E OUT
A. . B. . C. . D. .
E IN E OUT E IN EW

28
50. An engine takes in an amount E of thermal energy and, as a result, does an amount W of useful work. An
amount H of thermal energy is ejected. The law of conservation of energy and the efficiency of the
engine are given by which of the following?

Law of conservation of energy Efficiency

A. E=W+H W

W
B. E=W+H
E
W
C. E+H=W
H
W
D. E+H=W
E–H

51. An electric train develops a power of 1.0 MW when travelling at a constant speed of 50 ms–1. The net
resistive force acting on the train is

A. 50 MN. B. 200 kN. C. 20 kN. D. 200 N.

Short answer questions

52. Linear motion

(a) Define the term acceleration.

...................................................................................................................................

...................................................................................................................................
(2)

(b) An object has an initial speed u and an acceleration a. After time t, its speed is v and it has moved
through a distance s.

The motion of the object may be summarized by the equations

v = u + at,

s= 1
2
v  u t.
(i) State the assumption made in these equations about the acceleration a.

.........................................................................................................................
(1)

(ii) Derive, using these equations, an expression for v in terms of u, s and a.

.........................................................................................................................

.........................................................................................................................

.........................................................................................................................
(2)

29
 (c) The shutter speed of a camera is the time that the film is exposed to light. In order to determine the
shutter speed of a camera, a metal ball is held at rest at the zero mark of a vertical scale, as shown
below. The ball is released. The shutter of a camera is opened as the ball falls.
0 cm

scale

camera
196 cm

208 cm

The photograph of the ball shows that the shutter opened as the ball reached the 196 cm mark on
the scale and closed as it reached the 208 cm mark. Air resistance is negligible and the acceleration
of free fall is 9.81 m s–2.

(i) Calculate the time for the ball to fall from rest to the 196 cm mark.

.........................................................................................................................

.........................................................................................................................
(2)

(ii) Determine the time for which the shutter was open. That is, the time for the ball to fall from
the 196 cm mark to the 208 cm mark.

.........................................................................................................................

.........................................................................................................................
(2)
(Total 9 marks)

53. This question is about throwing a stone from a cliff.

Antonia stands at the edge of a vertical cliff and throws a stone vertically
upwards.

The stone leaves Antonia’s hand with a speed v = 8.0ms–1.

The acceleration of free fall g is 10 m s–2 and all distance measurements are
taken from the point where the stone leaves Antonia’s hand.

(a) Ignoring air resistance calculate

(i) the maximum height reached by the stone.

...........................................................................................................................

...........................................................................................................................

...........................................................................................................................
(2)

(ii) the time taken by the stone to reach its maximum height.

...........................................................................................................................

...........................................................................................................................
(1)

30
 The time between the stone leaving Antonia’s hand and hitting the sea is 3.0 s.

(b) Determine the height of the cliff.

.....................................................................................................................................

.....................................................................................................................................

.....................................................................................................................................

.....................................................................................................................................
(3)
(Total 6 marks)

54. This question is about projectile motion.

A sphere is projected horizontally. The sphere is photographed at intervals of 0.10 s. The images of the
sphere are shown against a grid on the diagram. Air resistance is negligible.

31
 (a) Use data from the diagram to determine the acceleration of free fall.

......................................................................................................................................

......................................................................................................................................

......................................................................................................................................

......................................................................................................................................
(3)

(b) Determine the speed of the sphere 1.2 s after release.

......................................................................................................................................

......................................................................................................................................

......................................................................................................................................

......................................................................................................................................

......................................................................................................................................

......................................................................................................................................

......................................................................................................................................

......................................................................................................................................
(5)

(c) On the grid, draw the path of the sphere assuming air resistance is not negligible.
(2)
(Total 10 marks)

55. This question is about a balloon used to carry scientific equipment. balloon

The diagram below represents a balloon just before take-off. The balloon’s
basket is attached to the ground by two fixing ropes.

There is a force F vertically upwards of 2.15 × 103 N on the balloon. The

total mass of the balloon and its basket is 1.95 ×102 kg. basket

(a) State the magnitude of the resultant force on the balloon when it is
attached to the ground. fixing rope fixing rope

...............................................................................................................
(1) 50 50
ground
(b) Calculate the tension in either of the fixing ropes.

...................................................................................................................................

...................................................................................................................................

...................................................................................................................................

...................................................................................................................................
(3)

32
 (c) The fixing ropes are released and the balloon accelerates upwards. Calculate the magnitude of this
initial acceleration.

...................................................................................................................................

...................................................................................................................................
(2)

(d) The balloon reaches a terminal speed 10 seconds after take-off. The upward force F remains
constant. Describe how the magnitude of air friction on the balloon varies during the first 10
seconds of its flight.

...................................................................................................................................

...................................................................................................................................

...................................................................................................................................
(2)
(Total 8 marks)

56. This question is about the collision between two railway trucks (carts).

(a) Define linear momentum.

.....................................................................................................................................

.....................................................................................................................................

In the diagram below, railway truck A is moving along a horizontal track. It collides with a stationary truck B
and on collision, the two join together. Immediately before the collision, truck A is moving with speed 5.0 ms –1.
Immediately after collision, the speed of the trucks is v.

5.0 ms –1

B
A

Immediately before collision

B
A

Immediately after collision

The mass of truck A is 800 kg and the mass of truck B is 1200 kg.

(b) (i) Calculate the speed v immediately after the collision.

...........................................................................................................................

...........................................................................................................................

...........................................................................................................................

...........................................................................................................................
(3)
33
 (ii) Calculate the total kinetic energy lost during the collision.

...........................................................................................................................

...........................................................................................................................
(2)

(c) Suggest what has happened to the lost kinetic energy.

.....................................................................................................................................

.....................................................................................................................................
(2)
(Total 8 marks)

57. This question is about estimating energy changes for an escalator (moving staircase).

The diagram below represents an escalator. People step on to it at point A and step off at point B.
B

30m

40?
A

(a) The escalator is 30 m long and makes an angle of 40°with the horizontal. At full capacity, 48
people step on at point A and step off at point B every minute.

(i) Calculate the potential energy gained by a person of weight 7.0 × 102 N in moving from A to
B.

...........................................................................................................................

...........................................................................................................................

...........................................................................................................................
(2)

(ii) Estimate the energy supplied by the escalator motor to the people every minute when the
escalator is working at full capacity.

...........................................................................................................................

...........................................................................................................................

(iii) State one assumption that you have made to obtain your answer to (ii).

...........................................................................................................................

...........................................................................................................................

34
 The escalator is driven by an electric motor that has an efficiency of 70%.

(b) Using your answer to (a) (ii), calculate the minimum input power required by the motor to drive
the escalator.

.....................................................................................................................................

.....................................................................................................................................

.....................................................................................................................................
(3)
(Total 7 marks)

58. This question is about driving a metal bar into the ground.

Large metal bars can be driven into the ground using a heavy falling object.

In the situation shown, the object has a mass 2.0 × 103 kg and the metal bar has a mass of 400 kg.

The object strikes the bar at a speed of 6.0 m s–1. It comes to rest on the bar without bouncing. As a result
of the collision, the bar is driven into the ground to a depth of 0.75 m.

(a) Determine the speed of the bar immediately after the object strikes it.

.....................................................................................................................................

.....................................................................................................................................

.....................................................................................................................................

.....................................................................................................................................
(4)

(b) Determine the average frictional force exerted by the ground on the bar.

.....................................................................................................................................

.....................................................................................................................................

.....................................................................................................................................

.....................................................................................................................................
(3)
(Total 7 marks)
35
Topic 3: Thermal physics
1. Two different objects are in thermal contact with one another. The objects are at different temperatures.
The temperatures of the two objects determine

A. the process by which thermal energy is transferred.

B. the heat capacity of each object.

C. the direction of transfer of thermal energy between the objects.

D. the amount of internal energy in each object.

2. The kelvin temperature of an object is a measure of

A. the total energy of the molecules of the object.

B. the total kinetic energy of the molecules of the object.

C. the maximum energy of the molecules of the object.

D. the average kinetic energy of the molecules of the object.

3. Two bodies are brought into thermal contact with each other. No thermal energy transfer takes place
between the bodies. It may be deduced therefore, that the bodies must have the same

A. specific heat capacity. B. heat capacity.

C. temperature. D. internal energy.

4. Which two values of temperature are equivalent to the nearest degree when measured on the Kelvin and
on the Celsius scales of temperature?

Kelvin scale Celsius scale

A. 40 313
B. 273 100
C. 313 40
D. 373 0

5. During an experiment, a solid is heated from 285 K to 298 K.

Which one of the following gives the rise in temperature, in deg C, and the final temperature, in °C, of
the solid?

Rise in temperature in deg C Final temperature in °C

A. 13 571

B. 13 25

C. 286 571

D. 286 25

36
6. Which of the following is the internal energy of a system?

A. The total thermal energy gained by the system during melting and boiling.

B. The sum of the potential and the kinetic energies of the particles of the system.

C. The total external work done on the system during melting and boiling.

D. The change in the potential energy of the system that occurs during melting and boiling.

7. A container holds 20 g of neon (mass number 20) and also 8 g of helium (mass number 4).

number of atomsof neon

What is the ratio ?
number of atomsof helium

A. 0.4 B. 0.5 C. 2.0 D. 2.5

8. The molar mass of water is 18 g. The approximate number of water molecules in a glass of water is

A. 1022. B. 1025. C. 1028. D. 1031.

9. The heat capacity of a solid body is defined as

A. the thermal energy required to increase the body’s temperature by one degree.

B. the maximum thermal energy that must be supplied to melt the solid.

C. the total kinetic energy of the solid’s molecules.

D. the average kinetic energy of the solid’s molecules.

10. The specific heat capacity of an object is defined as the thermal energy required to raise the temperature
of

A. the volume of the object by 1 K.

B. unit volume of the object by 1 K.

C. the mass of the object by 1 K.

D. unit mass of the object by 1 K.

11. The specific heat capacity of a metal block of mass m is determined by placing a heating coil in its centre,
as shown in the diagram above.

The block is heated for time t and the maximum temperature change recorded is Δθ. The ammeter and
voltmeter readings during the heating are I and V respectively.

The specific heat capacity is best calculated using which one of the following expressions?

VIt VI
A. c= B. c= A
m m thermometer

m V
C. c=
VI

m
D. c=
VIt heater
metal block
37
12. The specific heat capacity c of a solid block of mass m is determined by heating the block and measuring
its temperature. The graph below shows the variation of the temperature T of the block with the thermal
energy Q transferred to the block.
T

The gradient of the line is equal to

c m 1
A. . B. . C. mc. D. .
m c mc

0 Q

13. Some liquid is contained in a shallow dish that is open to the atmosphere. The rate of evaporation of the
liquid does not depend on

A. the temperature of the liquid.

B. the temperature of the atmosphere.

C. the depth of the liquid.

D. the pressure of the atmosphere.

14. Which of the following correctly shows the changes, if any, in the potential energy and in the kinetic
energy of the molecules of a solid as it melts?

Potential energy Kinetic energy

A. Decreases Increases

B. Increases Stays the same

C. Stays the same Decreases

D. Stays the same Stays the same

15. A substance changes from solid to liquid at its normal melting temperature. What change, if any, occurs
in the average kinetic energy and the average potential energy of its molecules?

Average kinetic energy Average potential energy

A. constant constant
B. increases constant
C. increases decreases
D. constant increases

16. The specific latent heat of vaporization of a substance is greater than its specific latent heat of fusion
because

A. boiling takes place at a higher temperature than melting.

B. thermal energy is required to raise the temperature from the melting point to the boiling point.

C. the volume of the substance decreases on freezing but increases when boiling.

D. the increase in potential energy of the molecules is greater on boiling than on melting.

38
17. The specific latent heat of vaporization of a substance is the quantity of energy required to

A. raise the temperature of a unit mass of a substance by one degree Celsius.

B. convert a unit mass of liquid to vapour at constant temperature and pressure.

C. convert a unit mass of solid to vapour at constant temperature and pressure.

D. convert a unit mass of liquid to vapour at a temperature of 100°C and a pressure of one
atmosphere.

18. A substance is heated at a constant rate. The sketch graph shows the variation with time t of the
temperature  of the substance.

In which region or regions of the graph must there be

more than one phase of the substance present?
Z

A. WX and YZ
X Y

B. WX only

C. WX, XY and YZ W
= 0 t

D. XY only

19. Which of the following is not an assumption on which the kinetic model of an ideal gas is based?

A. All molecules behave as if they are perfectly elastic spheres.

B. The mean-square speed of the molecules is proportional to the kelvin temperature.

C. Unless in contact, the forces between molecules are negligible.

D. The molecules are in continuous random motion.

20. A gas is contained in a cylinder fitted with a piston as shown below.

When the gas is compressed rapidly by the piston its temperature rises because the molecules of the gas

A. are squeezed closer together.

B. collide with each other more frequently.

C. collide with the walls of the container more frequently. piston

gas
D. gain energy from the moving piston.

21. The temperature of an ideal gas is reduced. Which one of the following statements is true?

A. The molecules collide with the walls of the container less frequently.

B. The molecules collide with each other more frequently.

C. The time of contact between the molecules and the wall is reduced.

D. The time of contact between molecules is increased.

39
 22. When a gas in a cylinder is compressed at constant temperature by a piston, the pressure of the gas
increases. Consider the following three statements.

I. The rate at which the molecules collide with the piston increases.

II. The average speed of the molecules increases.

III. The molecules collide with each other more often.

Which statement(s) correctly explain the increase in pressure?

A. I only

B. II only

C. I and II only

D. I and III only

23. The volume of an ideal gas in a container is increased at constant temperature. Which of the following
statements is/are correct about the molecules of the gas?

I. Their speed remains constant.

II. The frequency of collisions of molecules with unit area of the container wall decreases.

III. The force between them decreases.

A. I only

B. I and II only

C. I and III only

D. II and III only

24. The behaviour of a monatomic gas such as helium will approximate to that of an ideal gas when it is kept
at

A. a temperature close to absolute zero.

B. low pressure.

C. very high pressure.

D. very high temperature.

25. An ideal gas has pressure p0 and volume V0. The number of molecules of the gas is doubled without
changing the temperature. What is the new value of pressure times volume?

p 0V 0 p 0V 0
A. B. C. p0V0 D. 2p0V0
4 2

40
 26. The graph shows the variation with absolute temperature T of the pressure p of a fixed mass of an ideal
gas.

Which of the following is correct concerning the volume and the density of the gas?

Volume Density
A. constant constant
B. constant increasing
C. increasing constant
D. increasing increasing

27. For an ideal gas of constant mass the pressure is always proportional to

A. density and volume.

B. density and temperature.

C. volume and temperature.

D. volume only.

28. The behaviour of real gases is different from that predicted for ideal gases. Which of the following
statements about real gases is not correct?

A. Gas molecules have potential energy.

B. Forces between gas molecules are always negligible.

C. Gas molecules have volume.

D. Real gases can liquefy.

Short answer questions

23. This question is about an experiment to measure the temperature of a flame.

(a) Define heat (thermal) capacity.

41
 .....................................................................................................................................

.....................................................................................................................................

A piece of metal is held in the flame of a Bunsen burner for several minutes. The metal is then quickly
transferred to a known mass of water contained in a calorimeter.

flame

water calorimeter
container

Bunsen burner
lagging (insulation)

The water into which the metal has been placed is stirred until it reaches a steady temperature.

(b) Explain why

(i) the metal is transferred as quickly as possible from the flame to the water;

...........................................................................................................................

...........................................................................................................................

(ii) the water is stirred.

...........................................................................................................................

...........................................................................................................................

The following data are available:

heat capacity of metal = 82.7 J K–1
heat capacity of the water in the calorimeter = 5.46 ×102 J K–1
heat capacity of the calorimeter = 54.6 J K–1
initial temperature of the water = 288 K
final temperature of the water = 353 K

(c) Assuming negligible energy losses in the processes involved, use the data to calculate the
temperature T of the Bunsen flame.

.....................................................................................................................................

.....................................................................................................................................

.....................................................................................................................................

.....................................................................................................................................

.....................................................................................................................................
(4)
(Total 7 marks)
42
24. This question is about the change of phase (state) of ice.

A quantity of crushed ice is removed from a freezer and placed in a calorimeter. Thermal energy is
supplied to the ice at a constant rate. To ensure that all the ice is at the same temperature, it is continually
stirred. The temperature of the contents of the calorimeter is recorded every 15 seconds.

The graph below shows the variation with time t of the temperature θ of the contents of the calorimeter.
(Uncertainties in the measured quantities are not shown.)

20

15

10

C 0

–5

–10

–15

–20
0 25 50 75 100 125 150 175 200
t /s

(a) On the graph above, mark with an X, the data point on the graph at which all the ice has just
melted.

(b) Explain, with reference to the energy of the molecules, the constant temperature region of the
graph.

.....................................................................................................................................

.....................................................................................................................................

.....................................................................................................................................

.....................................................................................................................................

.....................................................................................................................................
(3)

The mass of the ice is 0.25 kg and the specific heat capacity of water is 4200 J kg–1 K–1.

(c) Use these data and data from the graph to

(i) deduce that energy is supplied to the ice at the rate of about 530 W.

...........................................................................................................................

...........................................................................................................................
43
 ...........................................................................................................................

...........................................................................................................................

...........................................................................................................................
(3)

(ii) determine the specific heat capacity of ice.

...........................................................................................................................

...........................................................................................................................

...........................................................................................................................

...........................................................................................................................
(3)

(iii) determine the specific latent heat of fusion of ice.

...........................................................................................................................

...........................................................................................................................

...........................................................................................................................

...........................................................................................................................
(2)
(Total 12 marks)

25. Gases and liquids

(a) Describe two differences, in terms of molecular structure, between a gas and a liquid.

1. .........................................................................................................................

.........................................................................................................................

2. .........................................................................................................................

.........................................................................................................................
(2)

(b) The temperature of an ideal gas is a measure of the average kinetic energy of the molecules of the
gas. Explain why the average kinetic energy is specified.

...................................................................................................................................

...................................................................................................................................

...................................................................................................................................

...................................................................................................................................
(2)

(c) Define heat (thermal) capacity.

...................................................................................................................................

...................................................................................................................................

44
 (d) Water is heated at a constant rate in a container that has negligible heat capacity. The container is
thermally insulated from the surroundings.

The sketch-graph below shows the variation with time of the temperature of the water.

temperature /  C

A B

20
0 420 time / s

The following data are available:

initial mass of water = 0.40 kg

initial temp of water = 20C
rate at which water is heated = 300 W
specific heat capacity of water = 4.2 × 103 J kg–1C−1

(i) State the reason why the temperature is constant in the region AB.

.........................................................................................................................

.........................................................................................................................

(ii) Calculate the temperature  at which the water starts to boil.

.........................................................................................................................

.........................................................................................................................

.........................................................................................................................

.........................................................................................................................

.........................................................................................................................
(5)

(e) All the water is boiled away 3.0 × 103 s after it first starts to boil. Determine a value for the specific
latent heat L of vaporization of water.

...................................................................................................................................

...................................................................................................................................

...................................................................................................................................
(2)
(Total 13 marks)

26. This question is about modelling the thermal processes involved when a person is running.

When running, a person generates thermal energy but maintains approximately constant temperature.

(a) Explain what thermal energy and temperature mean. Distinguish between the two concepts.

.....................................................................................................................................

45
 .....................................................................................................................................

.....................................................................................................................................

.....................................................................................................................................

.....................................................................................................................................

.....................................................................................................................................
(4)

The following simple model may be used to estimate the rise in temperature of a runner assuming no
thermal energy is lost.

A closed container holds 70 kg of water, representing the mass of the runner. The water is heated at a rate
of 1200 W for 30 minutes. This represents the energy generation in the runner.

(b) (i) Show that the thermal energy generated by the heater is 2.2 × 106 J.

...........................................................................................................................

...........................................................................................................................

...........................................................................................................................
(2)

(ii) Calculate the temperature rise of the water, assuming no energy losses from the water. The
specific heat capacity of water is 4200 J kg−1 K−1.

...........................................................................................................................

...........................................................................................................................

...........................................................................................................................

...........................................................................................................................

...........................................................................................................................
(3)

(c) The temperature rise calculated in (b) would be dangerous for the runner. Outline three
mechanisms, other than evaporation, by which the container in the model would transfer energy to
its surroundings.

.....................................................................................................................................

.....................................................................................................................................

.....................................................................................................................................

.....................................................................................................................................

.....................................................................................................................................

.....................................................................................................................................

.....................................................................................................................................

.....................................................................................................................................
(6)

46
 A further process by which energy is lost from the runner is the evaporation of sweat.

(d) (i) Describe, in terms of molecular behaviour, why evaporation causes cooling.

...........................................................................................................................

...........................................................................................................................

...........................................................................................................................

...........................................................................................................................

...........................................................................................................................
(3)

(ii) Percentage of generated energy lost by sweating: 50%

Specific latent heat of vaporization of sweat: 2.26 × 106 J kg−1

Using the information above, and your answer to (b) (i), estimate the mass of sweat
evaporated from the runner.

...........................................................................................................................

...........................................................................................................................

...........................................................................................................................

...........................................................................................................................
(3)

(iii) State and explain two factors that affect the rate of evaporation of sweat from the skin of the
runner.

...........................................................................................................................

...........................................................................................................................

...........................................................................................................................

...........................................................................................................................

...........................................................................................................................
(4)
(Total 25 marks)

27. This question is about changes of state of a gas.

(a) A cylinder fitted with a piston contains 0.23 mol of helium gas.

The following data are available for the helium with the piston in the position shown.

Volume = 5.2 × 10–3 m3

Pressure = 1.0 × 105 Pa
Temperature = 290 K

47
 (i) Use the data to calculate a value for the universal gas constant.

...........................................................................................................................

...........................................................................................................................

...........................................................................................................................

...........................................................................................................................
(2)

(ii) State the assumption made in the calculation in (a)(i).

...........................................................................................................................

...........................................................................................................................
(1)

(b) The gas is now compressed isothermally by the piston so that the volume of the gas is reduced.
Explain why the compression must be carried out slowly.

......................................................................................................................................

......................................................................................................................................

......................................................................................................................................

......................................................................................................................................
(2)

(c) After the compression, the gas is now allowed to expand adiabatically to its original volume. Use
the first law of thermodynamics to explain whether the final temperature will be less than, equal to
or greater than 290 K.

......................................................................................................................................

......................................................................................................................................

......................................................................................................................................

......................................................................................................................................

......................................................................................................................................
(4)
(Total 9 marks)

28. This question is about an ideal gas.

(a) The pressure P of a fixed mass of an ideal gas is directly proportional to the kelvin temperature T
of the gas. That is,

P  T.

State the relation between the

(i) pressure P and the volume V for a change at constant temperature.

.........................................................................................................................

.........................................................................................................................
(1)

48
 (ii) volume V and kelvin temperature T for a change at a constant pressure.

.........................................................................................................................

.........................................................................................................................
(1)

(b) The ideal gas is held in a cylinder by a moveable piston. The pressure of the gas is P1, its volume is
V1 and its kelvin temperature is T1. The pressure, volume and temperature are changed to P2, V2
and T2 respectively. The change is brought about as illustrated below.

heated at constant volume to heated at constant pressure to

pressure P2 and temperature T ′ volume V2 and temperature T2

State the relation between

(i) P1, P2, T1 and T’.

.........................................................................................................................

.........................................................................................................................
(1)

(ii) V1, V2, T’ and T2.

.........................................................................................................................

.........................................................................................................................
(1)

(c) Use your answers to (b) to deduce, that for an ideal gas

PV = KT,

where K is a constant.

...................................................................................................................................

...................................................................................................................................

...................................................................................................................................

...................................................................................................................................
(4)
(Total 8 marks)

49
Topic 4: Waves
1. For a system executing simple harmonic motion, the restoring force acting on the system is proportional
to the

A. displacement of the system from equilibrium.

B. amplitude of oscillation.

C. elastic potential energy.

D. frequency of oscillation.

2. The graphs show how the acceleration a of four different particles varies with their displacement x.
Which of the particles is executing simple harmonic motion?

3. The graph shows how the displacement varies with time for an object
undergoing simple harmonic motion.

Which graph shows how the object’s acceleration a varies with time t?

50
4. The graph below shows how the displacement x of a particle undergoing simple harmonic motion varies
with time t. The motion is undamped.

Which of the following graphs correctly shows how the velocity v of the particle varies with t?

5. The graph shows measurements of the height h of sea level at different times t in the Bay of Fundy.

Which of the following gives the approximate amplitude and period of the tides?

Amplitude Period
A. 6.5 m 6 hours
B. 13 m 12 hours
C. 6.5 m 12 hours
D. 13 m 6 hours

51
6. A particle oscillates with simple harmonic motion with period T.

At time t = 0, the particle has its maximum displacement. Which graph shows the variation with time t of
the kinetic energy Ek of the particle?

7. A mass on the end of a horizontal spring is displaced from its equilibrium position by a distance A and
released. Its subsequent oscillations have total energy E and time period T.
An identical mass is attached to an identical spring. The maximum displacement is 2A. Assuming this
spring obeys Hooke’s law, which of the following gives the correct time period and total energy?

New time period New energy

A. T 4E
B. T 2E
C. 2T 4E
D. 2T 2E

8. The graph below represents the variation with time of the displacement of an oscillating particle.

The motion of the object is

A. over damped.

B. critically damped.

C. lightly damped.

D. not damped.

9. The shock absorbers of a car, in good working condition, ensure that the vertical oscillations of the car
are

A. undamped. B. lightly damped. C. moderately damped. D. critically damped.

52
10. During one complete oscillation, the amplitude of a damped harmonic motion changes from 1.5 cm to
0.30 cm. The total energy at the end of the oscillation is E2 and the total energy at the beginning of the
E
oscillation is E1. The ratio 2 is
E1

1 1
A. . B. . C. 5. D. 25.
5 25

11. Light travels from air into glass as shown below.

The refractive index of the glass is

sin 30 sin 80 sin 60 sin 10

A. B. C. D.
sin 80 sin 30 sin 10 sin 60

12. What is the best estimate for the refractive index of a medium in which light travels at a speed of 2.7 ×
108 m s–1?

A. 0.9 B. 1.0 C. 1.1 D. 2.7

13. Plane wavefronts are incident on a boundary between two media labelled 1 and 2 in the diagram.
The diagram of the wavefronts is drawn to scale.

The ratio of the refractive index of medium 2 to that of medium 1 is

A. 0.50. B. 0.67. C. 1.5 . D. 2.0.

53
14. Which of the following correctly describes the change, if any, in the speed, wavelength and frequency of
a light wave as it passes from air into glass?

Speed Wavelength Frequency

A. decreases decreases unchanged

B. decreases unchanged decreases

C. unchanged increases decreases

D. increases increases unchanged

15. A transverse wave travels from left to right. The diagram below shows how, at a particular instant of time,
the displacement of particles in the medium varies with position. Which arrow represents the direction of
the velocity of the particle marked P?

16. The diagram below is a snapshot of wave fronts of circular waves emitted by a point source S at the
surface of water. The source vibrates at a frequency f = 10.0 Hz.

The speed of the wave front is

A. 0.15 cm s–1.B. 1.5 cm s–1.C. 15 cm s–1.D. 30 cm s–1.

17. Which of the following electromagnetic waves has a frequency greater than that of visible light?

A. Ultraviolet B. Radio C. Microwaves D. Infrared

54
 
18. Two waves meet at a point. The waves have a path difference of . The phase difference between the
4
waves is

π π π
A. rad. B. rad. C. rad. D. π rad.
8 4 2

19. Two waves meet at a point in space. Which of the following properties always add together?

A. Displacement B. Amplitude C. Speed D. Frequency

20. The two graphs show the variation with time of the individual displacements of two waves as they pass
through the same point.

The displacement of the resultant wave at the point

at time T is equal to

A. x1 + x2 .

B. x1 – x2 .

C. A1 + A2.

D. A1 – A2.

21. Two coherent point sources S1 and S2 emit spherical waves.

Which of the following best describes the intensity of the waves at P and Q?

P Q
A. maximum minimum
B. minimum maximum
C. maximum maximum
D. minimum minimum

55
22. An orchestra playing on boat X can be heard by tourists on boat Y, which is situated out of sight of boat
X around a headland.

The sound from X can be heard on Y due to

A. refraction. B. reflection.

C. diffraction. D. transmission.

23. A water surface wave (ripple) is travelling to the right on the surface of a lake. The wave has period T. The
diagram below shows the surface of the lake at a particular instant of time. A piece of cork is floating in
the water in the position shown.

T
Which is the correct position of the cork a time later?
4

cork

A. B.

C. D.

24. Diagram 1 below shows the displacement of part of a medium through which a wave is travelling at time t =
0. Diagram 2 shows the displacement at a later time t = 4.0 s in which the wave has moved forward 10
cm. In this time, the point P on the wave has moved from a crest through zero displacement to a trough.

Diagram 1 Diagram 2

The wavelength of the wave is

A. 5.0 cm. B. 10 cm. C. 20 cm. D. 40 cm.

56
25. A pulse is sent down a string fixed at one end.

Which one of the following diagrams best represents the reflected

pulse?
A. B.

C. D.

26. Plane-polarized light is incident normally on a polarizer which is able to rotate in the plane perpendicular
to the light as shown below.

In diagram 1, the intensity of the incident light is 8 W m–2 and the transmitted intensity of light is 2 W
m–2. Diagram 2 shows the polarizer rotated 90°from the orientation in diagram 1. What is the new
transmitted intensity?

A. 0 W m–2

B. 2 W m–2

C. 6 W m–2

D. 8 W m–3

57
27. An optically active substance

A. completely absorbs polarized light. B. unpolarizes polarized light.

C. polarizes unpolarized light. D. rotates the plane of polarization.

28. Light is diffracted at a single slit. Which of the following graphs best represents how the intensity I of the
diffracted light varies with the diffraction angle θ?

A.

B.

C.

D.

58
29. A beam of coherent light is incident on a single slit of width b. After passing through the slit, the light is
incident on a screen at a distance D from the slit.

Which of the following changes, carried out separately, in respect of b and D will result in an increase in
width of the first diffraction maximum formed on the screen?

b D
A. decrease increase
B. increase increase
C. decrease decrease
D. increase decrease

30. The fundamental (first harmonic) frequency for a particular organ pipe is 330 Hz. The pipe is closed at
one end but open at the other. What is the frequency of its second harmonic?

A. 110 Hz

B. 165 Hz

C. 660 Hz

D. 990 Hz

31. The fundamental (first harmonic) frequency of the note emitted by an organ pipe closed at one end is f.
What is the fundamental frequency of the note emitted by an organ pipe of the same length that is open at
both ends?

f
A.
4

f
B.
2

C. 2f

D. 4f

59
32. An organ pipe of length L is open at one end and closed at the other. Which of the following gives the
wavelength of the second harmonic standing wave in the pipe?

L
A.
2

B. L

C. 4L

4L
D.
3

33. A standing wave is established in air in a pipe with one closed and one open end.

The air molecules near X are

A. always at the centre of a compression.

B. always at the centre of a rarefaction.

C. sometimes at the centre of a compression and sometimes at the centre of a rarefaction.

D. never at the centre of a compression or a rarefaction.

Short answer questions

1. Simple harmonic motion

(a) A body is displaced from equilibrium. State the two conditions necessary for the body to execute
simple harmonic motion.

1. .........................................................................................................................

.........................................................................................................................

2. .........................................................................................................................

.........................................................................................................................
(2)

(b) In a simple model of a methane molecule, a hydrogen atom and the carbon atom can be regarded as
two masses attached by a spring. A hydrogen atom is much less massive than the carbon atom such that any
displacement of the carbon atom may be ignored.

The graph below shows the variation with time t of the displacement x from its equilibrium
position of a hydrogen atom in a molecule of methane.

60
The mass of hydrogen atom is 1.7 ×10–27 kg. Use data from the graph above

(i) to determine its amplitude of oscillation.

.........................................................................................................................
(1)

(ii) to show that the frequency of its oscillation is 9.1 × 1013 Hz.

.........................................................................................................................

.........................................................................................................................
(2)

(iii) to show that the maximum kinetic energy of the hydrogen atom is 6.2 × 10–18 J.

.........................................................................................................................

.........................................................................................................................

.........................................................................................................................
(2)

(c) Assuming that the motion of the hydrogen atom is simple harmonic, its frequency of oscillation f is
given by the expression

1 k
f ,
2 mp

where k is the force per unit displacement between a hydrogen atom and the carbon atom and mp is
the mass of a proton.

(i) Show that the value of k is approximately 560 N m–1.

.........................................................................................................................

.........................................................................................................................
(1)

(ii) Estimate, using your answer to (c)(i), the maximum acceleration of the hydrogen atom.

.........................................................................................................................

.........................................................................................................................
(2)

61
2. Travelling waves

(a) Graph 1 below shows the variation with time t of the displacement d of a travelling (progressive)
wave. Graph 2 shows the variation with distance x along the same wave of its displacement d.

Graph 1 4
d / mm
2

0
0.0 0.1 0.2 0.3 0.4 0.5 0.6
t /s
–2

–4

Graph 2 4
d / mm
2

0
0.0 0.4 0.8 1.2 1.6 2.0 2.4
x / cm
–2

–4

(i) State what is meant by a travelling wave.

.........................................................................................................................

.........................................................................................................................
(1)

(ii) Use the graphs to determine the amplitude, wavelength, frequency and speed of the wave.

Amplitude: .................................................................................................
(1)

Wavelength: .................................................................................................
(1)

Frequency: .................................................................................................
(1)

Speed: .................................................................................................
(1)

Refraction of waves

(b) The diagram below shows plane wavefronts incident on a boundary between two media A and B.

62
 medium A
medium B

refractiveindex of medium B
The ratio is 1.4.
refractiveindex of medium A

The angle between an incident wavefront and the normal to the boundary is 50.

(i) Calculate the angle between a refracted wavefront and the normal to the boundary.

.........................................................................................................................

.........................................................................................................................

.........................................................................................................................

.........................................................................................................................
(3)

(ii) On the diagram above, construct three wavefronts to show the refraction of the wave at the
boundary.
(3)
(Total 11 marks)

3. This question is about waves.

(a) With reference to the direction of energy transfer through a medium, distinguish between a
transverse wave and a longitudinal wave.

.....................................................................................................................................

.....................................................................................................................................

.....................................................................................................................................

.....................................................................................................................................

.....................................................................................................................................
(3)

(b) A wave is travelling along the surface of some shallow water in the x-direction. The graph shows
the variation with time t of the displacement d of a particle of water.

63
d / mm 10

0
0 0.05 0.1 0.15 0.2 0.25 0.3
–2 t/s

–4

–6

–8

–10
Use the graph to determine for the wave

(i) the frequency,

...........................................................................................................................
(2)

(ii) the amplitude.

...........................................................................................................................
(1)

(c) The speed of the wave in (b) is 15 cm s–1. Deduce that the wavelength of this wave is 2.0 cm.

.....................................................................................................................................

.....................................................................................................................................
(2)

(d) The graph in (b) shows the displacement of a particle at the position x = 0.

On the axes below, draw a graph to show the variation with distance x along the water surface of
the displacement d of the water surface at time t = 0.070 s.

(3)

64
 (e) The wave encounters a shelf that divides the water into two separate depths. The water to the right
of the shelf is deeper than that to the left of the shelf.

wave fronts
shelf
direction of
travel of wave
30 

deep water
shallow water

The angle between the wavefronts in the shallow water and the shelf is 30°. The speed of the wave
in the shallow water is 15 cm s–1 and in the deeper water is 20 cm s–1. For the wave in the deeper
water, determine the angle between the normal to the wavefronts and the shelf.

.....................................................................................................................................

.....................................................................................................................................

.....................................................................................................................................

.....................................................................................................................................

.....................................................................................................................................

.....................................................................................................................................

.....................................................................................................................................

.....................................................................................................................................
(3)
(Total 14 marks)

4. This question is about oscillations and waves.

(a) A rectangular piece of wood of length l floats in water with its axis vertical as shown in diagram 1.

The length of wood below the surface is d. The wood is pushed vertically downwards a distance A
such that a length of wood is still above the water surface as shown in diagram 2. The wood is then
released and oscillates vertically. At the instant shown in diagram 3, the wood is moving
downwards and the length of wood beneath the surface is d + x.

(i) On diagram 3, draw an arrow to show the direction of the acceleration of the wood.
(1)

65
 (ii) The acceleration a of the wood (in m s–2) is related to x (in m) by the following equation.

14
a=  x
l

Explain why this equation shows that the wood is executing simple harmonic motion.

...........................................................................................................................

...........................................................................................................................

...........................................................................................................................

...........................................................................................................................
(2)

(iii) The period of oscillation of the wood is 1.4 s. Show that the length l of the wood is 0.70 m.

...........................................................................................................................

...........................................................................................................................

...........................................................................................................................

...........................................................................................................................

...........................................................................................................................
(3)

(b) The wood in (a), as shown in diagram 2, is released at time t = 0. On the axes below, sketch a
graph to show how the velocity v of the wood varies with time over one period of oscillation.

(1)

(c) The distance A that the wood is initially pushed down is 0.12 m.

(i) Calculate the magnitude of the maximum acceleration of the wood.

...........................................................................................................................

...........................................................................................................................

...........................................................................................................................

...........................................................................................................................
(2)

66
 (ii) On your sketch graph in (b) label with the letter P one point where the magnitude of the
acceleration is a maximum.
(1)

(d) The oscillations of the wood generate waves in the water of wavelength 0.45 m.
The graph shows how the displacement D, of the water surface at a particular distance from the
wood varies with time t.

Using the graph, calculate the

(i) speed of the waves.

...........................................................................................................................

...........................................................................................................................

...........................................................................................................................

...........................................................................................................................
(2)

(ii) ratio of the displacement at t = 1.75 s to the displacement at t = 0.35 s.

...........................................................................................................................

...........................................................................................................................

...........................................................................................................................

...........................................................................................................................
(2)

(iii) ratio of the energy of the wave at t = 1.75 s to the energy at t = 0.35 s

...........................................................................................................................

...........................................................................................................................
(1)
(Total 15 marks)

5. This question is about polarization.

(a) A beam of unpolarized light of intensity I0 is incident on a polarizer. The polarization axis of the
polarizer is initially vertical as shown.

67
 The polarizer is then rotated by 180°in the direction shown. On the axes below, sketch a graph to
show the variation with the rotation angle θ, of the transmitted light intensity I, as θ varies from 0°
to 180°. Label your sketch-graph with the letter U.

(2)

(b) The beam in (a) is now replaced with a polarized beam of light of the same intensity.
The plane of polarization of the light is initially parallel to the polarization axis of the polarizer.

The polarizer is then rotated by 180°in the direction shown. On the same axes in (a), sketch a
graph to show the variation with the rotation angle θ, of the transmitted light intensity I, as θ varies
from 0°to 180°. Label your sketch-graph with the letter P.
(2)
(Total 4 marks)

68
6. This question is about polarization.

(a) State what is meant by polarized light.

......................................................................................................................................

......................................................................................................................................
(1)

(b) Unpolarized light is incident on the surface of a plastic. The angle of incidence is θ.
The reflected light is viewed through an analyser whose transmission axis is vertical.

The variation with θ of the intensity I of the transmitted light is shown in the graph.

(i) Explain why there is an angle of incidence, for which the intensity of the transmitted light is
zero.

...........................................................................................................................

...........................................................................................................................

...........................................................................................................................
(2)

(ii) Calculate the refractive index of the plastic.

...........................................................................................................................

...........................................................................................................................

...........................................................................................................................

...........................................................................................................................
(2)
69
 (c) Unpolarized light from a source is split, so that there is a path difference of half a wavelength
between the two beams.

A lens brings the light to focus at point P on a screen. The lens does not introduce any additional
path difference.

State and explain whether any light would be observed at P, in the case in which the polarizers
have their transmission axes

(i) parallel.

...........................................................................................................................

...........................................................................................................................

...........................................................................................................................

...........................................................................................................................
(2)

(ii) at right angles to each other.

...........................................................................................................................

...........................................................................................................................

...........................................................................................................................

...........................................................................................................................
(2)
(Total 9 marks)

7. This question is about interference of light.

Two coherent narrow beams of light pass through two identical evacuated tubes, as shown below.

70
 The two coherent narrow beams are brought to a focus at point P on a screen.

(a) State what is meant by coherence.

......................................................................................................................................
(1)

(b) State, with reference to the wavelength, the condition that must be satisfied for a bright fringe to be
formed on the screen at point P.

......................................................................................................................................

......................................................................................................................................
(1)

(c) Air is allowed to enter gradually into one of the evacuated tubes. The brightness of the light at
point P is seen to decrease and then increase again repeatedly.

(i) State the effect on the wavelength of the light in the evacuated tube as the air is introduced.

...........................................................................................................................
(1)

(ii) Suggest why there is a variation in the brightness of the light at point P.

...........................................................................................................................

...........................................................................................................................
(1)
(Total 4 marks)

8. This question is about two-source interference.

A double slit is arranged so that its plane is normal to a beam of laser light, as shown below.

The wavelength of the light is 640 nm. The slit separation in the double slit arrangement is 0.85 mm.
Coherent light emerges from the slits and an interference pattern is observed on a screen. The screen is
parallel to the plane of the double slits. The distance between the slits and the screen is 2.4 m.

(a) (i) State what is meant by coherent light.

...........................................................................................................................
(1)

71
 (ii) Explain how an interference pattern is formed on the screen.

...........................................................................................................................

...........................................................................................................................

...........................................................................................................................

...........................................................................................................................
(3)

(b) Calculate the separation of the fringes in the interference pattern on the screen.

......................................................................................................................................

......................................................................................................................................

......................................................................................................................................
(2)

(c) The interference pattern in (b) consists of a series of alternate light and dark fringes. The intensity
of the light from one slit is now reduced. Suggest the effect on the appearance of the fringes.

......................................................................................................................................

......................................................................................................................................

......................................................................................................................................

......................................................................................................................................
(2)
(Total 8 marks)

9. This question is about standing (stationary) waves.

(a) Describe two ways that standing waves are different from travelling waves.

1. ..................................................................................................................................

......................................................................................................................................

2. ..................................................................................................................................

......................................................................................................................................
(2)

(b) An experiment is carried out to measure the speed of sound in air, using the apparatus shown
below.

72
 A tube that is open at both ends is placed vertically in a tank of water, until the top of the tube is
just at the surface of the water. A tuning fork of frequency 440 Hz is sounded above the tube. The
tube is slowly raised out of the water until the loudness of the sound reaches a maximum for the
first time, due to the formation of a standing wave.

(i) Explain the formation of a standing wave in the tube.

...........................................................................................................................

...........................................................................................................................
(2)

(ii) State the position in the tube that is always a node.

...........................................................................................................................

...........................................................................................................................
(1)

(iii) The tube is raised a little further. Explain why the loudness of the sound is no longer at a
maximum.

...........................................................................................................................

...........................................................................................................................

...........................................................................................................................
(3)

(c) The tube is raised until the loudness of the sound reaches a maximum for a second time.
Between the two positions of maximum loudness, the tube has been raised by 36.8 cm.
The frequency of the sound is 440 Hz. Estimate the speed of sound in air.

......................................................................................................................................

......................................................................................................................................

......................................................................................................................................
(2)
(Total 10 marks)

10. This question is about standing waves.

(a) State two properties of a standing (stationary) wave.

1. ..................................................................................................................................

......................................................................................................................................

2. ..................................................................................................................................

......................................................................................................................................
(2)

(b) The diagram shows an organ pipe that is open at one end.

73
 The length of the pipe is l. The frequency of the fundamental (first harmonic) note emitted by the
pipe is 16 Hz.

(i) On the diagram, label with the letter P the position along the pipe where the amplitude of
oscillation of the air molecules is the largest.
(1)

(ii) The speed of sound in the air in the pipe is 330 m s–1. Calculate the length l.

...........................................................................................................................

...........................................................................................................................

...........................................................................................................................
(3)

(c) Use your answer to (b)(ii) to suggest why it is better to use organ pipes that are closed at one end
for producing low frequency notes rather than pipes that are open at both ends.

......................................................................................................................................

......................................................................................................................................

......................................................................................................................................

......................................................................................................................................
(2)
(Total 8 marks)

11. This question is about microwave radiation.

A microwave transmitter emits radiation of a single wavelength towards a metal plate along a line normal
to the plate. The radiation is reflected back towards the transmitter.

A microwave detector is moved along a line normal to the microwave transmitter and the metal plate.
The detector records a sequence of equally spaced maxima and minima of intensity.

(a) Explain how these maxima and minima are formed.

......................................................................................................................................

......................................................................................................................................

......................................................................................................................................

......................................................................................................................................

......................................................................................................................................
(4)

(b) The microwave detector is moved through 130 mm from one point of minimum intensity to
another point of minimum intensity. On the way it passes through nine points of maximum
intensity. Calculate the

74
 (i) wavelength of the microwaves.

...........................................................................................................................

...........................................................................................................................
(2)

(ii) frequency of the microwaves.

...........................................................................................................................

...........................................................................................................................

...........................................................................................................................
(2)

(c) Describe and explain how it could be demonstrated that the microwaves are polarized.

......................................................................................................................................

......................................................................................................................................

......................................................................................................................................

......................................................................................................................................

......................................................................................................................................

......................................................................................................................................
(3)
(Total 11 marks)

75
Topic 5: Electricity and magnetism

1. Two identical spherical conductors X and Y are mounted on insulated stands. X carries a charge of +8.0
nC and Y carries a charge of –2.0 nC.

+8.0nC –2.0nC

conductor X insulated stands conductor Y

The two conductors are brought into contact and are then separated. Which of the following gives the
charge on each conductor?

Charge on X Charge on Y

A. 0.0 nC 0.0 nC

B. +8.0 nC –2.0 nC

C. +5.0 nC +5.0 nC

D. +3.0 nC +3.0 nC

2. The diagram below shows a positively charged rod brought near an isolated uncharged metal plate.

As a result of bringing the rod near to the plate,

A. the metal plate will gain a charge dependent on the

separation of the rod and the plate. + + ++

rod + + ++
B. the metal plate will remain uncharged.

C. the metal plate will gain a negative charge.

plate
D. the metal plate will gain a positive charge.

3. An isolated, uncharged metal conductor is brought close to a positively charged insulator.

++++
++++
insulating handle
insulator
conductor

The conductor is earthed (grounded) for a short time and then the insulator is removed.

Which of the following best represents the charge distribution on the surface of the conductor as a result
of these actions?

76
 A. B. ——
—
— — —
— — —
—
— — —
— —
—

C. D.

4. X and Y are two identical conducting spheres separated by a distance d. X has a charge +6 μC and Y has
a charge –2 μC. The electric force between them is + F (ie attractive). The spheres are touched together
and are then returned to their original separation d. The force between them now is

F F Z q3
A. +F. B. –F. C.  . D.  .
3 3

5. Three equal point charges X, Y and Z are fixed in the positions shown.
1.0 m

The distance between q1 and q2 and the distance between q2 and q3 is 1.0 m. The
electric force between the charges at X and Y is F. The electric force between the
charges at X and Z is X
1.0 m
90
Y
q1 q2

F F
A. . B. . C. F. D. 2F.
2 2

6. The electric field strength at a point may be defined as

A. the force exerted on unit positive charge placed at that point.

B. the force per unit positive charge on a small test charge placed at that point.

C. the work done on unit positive charge to move the charge to that point from infinity.

D. the work done per unit positive charge to move a small test charge to that point from infinity.

7. Two positive point charges P and Q are held a certain distance apart.

X P Y Q Z
+ +

At which point(s) could the electric field strength, due to the charges, be zero?

A. X only B. Y only C. Z only D. X and Z only

8. Two point charges of magnitude +2Q and −Q are fixed at the positions shown below. At which point is
the electric field due to the two charges most likely to be zero?

+2Q –Q

A. B. C. D.

9. The diagram below shows two parallel conducting plates that are oppositely charged.

The line XY is perpendicular to the plates. + + + + +

X

Which of the following diagrams shows the variation along the line XY of the
magnitude E of the electric field strength between the plates? Y
– – – –
77 –
 A. B.
E E

X Y distance X Y distance

C. D.
E E

X Y distance X Y distance

10 . Three positive point charges of equal magnitude are held at the corners X, Y and Z of a right-angled
triangle. The point P is at the midpoint of XY. Which of the arrows shows the direction of the electric
field at point P?

11. The radius of a charged spherical conductor is R. Which of the following graphs best shows how the
magnitude of the electrical field strength E varies with distance r from the centre of the sphere?

78
12. Which of the following gives the acceleration of an electron of electric charge e and mass m in a uniform
electric field of strength E?

Ee m
A. E B. Ee C. D.
m Ee

13. Which diagram best represents the electric field due to a negatively charged conducting sphere?

14. Which one of the following is a correct definition of electric potential difference between two points?

A. The power to move a small positive charge between the two points.

B. The work done to move a small positive charge between the two points.

C. The power per unit charge to move a small positive charge between the two points.

D. The work done per unit charge to move a small positive charge between the two points.

15. The work done on a positive point charge of magnitude 3.0 nC as it is moved at constant speed from one
point to another is 12 nJ. The potential difference between the two points is

A. 0.0 V. B. 0.25 V. C. 4.0 V. D. 36 V.

16. Which of the following is the correct value of the electronvolt, measured in SI Units?

A. 1.6 × 10–19 N B. 1.6 × 10–19 J C. 9.1 × 10–31 N D. 9.1 × 10–31 J

17. In the circuit below, n charge carriers pass the point P in a time t. Each charge carrier has charge q.

The current in the circuit is given by the expression

q nq qt
A. . B. . C. . D. nqt. P
t t n

79
18. The variation with potential difference V of the current I in an electric lamp is shown below.

P
Ip

0
0 Vp V

At point P, the current is Ip, the potential difference is Vp and the gradient of the tangent to the curve is G.
What is the resistance of the lamp at point P?

1 Ip Vp
A. B. G C. D.
G Vp Ip

19. The graph below shows the current/voltage characteristics of a filament lamp.

The resistance of the filament at 4.0 V is

A. 250 Ω.

B. 4 000 Ω.

C. 8 000 Ω.

D. 64 000 Ω.

20. Which of the following is a correct statement of Ohm’s law?

A. The resistance of a conductor is always constant.

B. The current in a conductor is always proportional to the potential difference across the conductor.

C. The resistance of a conductor increases with increasing temperature.

D. The resistance of a conductor is constant only if the temperature of the conductor is constant.

21. The graph below shows the variation with voltage V of the current I in three resistors X, Y and Z.

Which of the following corresponds to resistors for which the I

resistance increases with increasing current? X

A. X only B. Z only
Y
C. X and Z D. Y and Z
Z

0
0 V

80
22. Which graph best represents the relationship between the current I and the voltage V of a filament lamp.
A. V B. V

0 0
0 I 0 I

C. V D. V

0 0
0 I 0 I

23. A battery is connected in series with a resistor R. The battery transfers 2 000 C of charge completely
round the circuit. During this process, 2 500 J of energy is dissipated in the resistor R and 1 500 J is
expended in the battery.

The emf of the battery is

A. 2.00 V. B. 1.25 V. C. 0.75 V. D. 0.50 V.

24. Which one of the following shows a correct circuit, using ideal voltmeters and ammeters, for measuring
the I-V characteristic of a filament lamp?
A. B.
A

A
V V

C. D.

A A
V V

25. In the circuit shown, the voltmeter has a resistance of 20 kΩ and the battery has an emf of 6.0 V and
negligible internal resistance. 6.0 V

The reading on the voltmeter is

A. 2.0 V. B. 3.0 V. 10 k 20 k

C. 4.0 V. D. 6.0 V.

V
20 k

81
26. In the circuits below, the cells each have the same emf and zero internal resistance. All the resistors have
the same resistance.

Circuit X Circuit Y Circuit Z

Which of the following gives the current through the cells in order of increasing magnitude?

Lowest current Highest current

A. X Y Z

B. Z X Y

C. Y Z X

D. Y X Z

27. In the two circuits X and Y below, each cell has an emf E and negligible internal resistance. Each resistor
has a resistance R.
circuit X circuit Y

E E

R
R

The power dissipated in circuit X is P.

The best estimate for the power dissipated in circuit Y is

P P
A. . B. . C. 2P. D. 4P.
4 2

28. A conductor of constant resistance dissipates 6.0 W of power when the potential difference across it is 12
V. The power that will be dissipated in this conductor when the potential difference across it is 24 V is

A. 6.0 W. B. 12 W. C. 24 W. D. 48 W.

29. In the circuit below, resistors X, Y and Z are connected in series with a 9.0 V supply.

0 +9.0 V

3000  3000 

X Y Z

82
 Resistors X and Z are fixed resistors of resistance 3000 . The resistance of resistor Y may be varied
between zero and 3000 .

Which of the following gives the maximum range of potential difference V across the resistors X and Y?

A. 0 to 6.0 V B. 3.0 V to 6.0 V C. 4.5 V to 6.0 V D. 4.5 V to 9.0 V

30. A resistor of resistance 1.0  is connected in series with a battery. The current in the circuit is 2.0 A.
The resistor is now replaced by a resistor of resistance of 4.0 . The current in this circuit is 1.0 A.

2.0 A   A

1.0  4.0 

The best estimate for the internal resistance of the battery is

A. 1.0 . B. 2.0 . C. 4.0 . D. 5.0 .

31. In the circuit below, the battery has negligible internal resistance. Three identical lamps L, M and N of
constant resistance are connected as shown.

The filament of lamp N breaks. Which of the following shows the subsequent changes to the brightness
of lamp L and lamp M?

Lamp L Lamp M

A. stays the same decreases

B. increases stays the same

C. increases decreases

D. decreases increases

1
32. In the circuit below, which meter is not correctly connected? A

3
V
A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 4
2
A

4
V
83
33. A copper wire, of electric resistance R, has a length L and a cross-section area S. Another copper wire has a
S
length 2L and a cross-section area of . Which of the following is the resistance of this wire?
2

R R
A. B. C. 2R D. 4R
4 2

34. Two resistors, made of the same material, are connected in series to a battery. The length of resistor X is
twice that of resistor Y, and X has twice the cross-sectional area of Y.

resistanceof X
Which of the following gives ?
resistanceof Y

1 1
A. B. C. 1 D. 4
4 2

35. The tungsten filament of a lamp has a cross-sectional area A and length L. For a potential difference V
across the filament, the current in the filament is I. The resistivity of the tungsten equals

V A IL VL IA
A. . B. . C. . D.
IL V A IA VL

36. In the circuit below, which of the following will cause the greatest
increase in the reading of the voltmeter?

A. An increase in temperature

B. An increase in light intensity

C. A decrease in temperature

D. A decrease in light intensity

37. The circuit shows a light-dependent resistor (LDR) in series with a resistor and a cell. The emf of the cell is
ε. The internal resistance of the cell is negligible.

When light shines on the LDR, the potential difference across the resistor will

A. stay the same.

B. decrease.

C. increase but always be less than ε.

D. increase and exceed ε.

84
38. Which of the following correctly gives the resistance of an ideal ammeter and resistance of an ideal
voltmeter?

Ammeter Voltmeter
A. infinite infinite
B. zero zero
C. zero infinite
D. infinite zero

39. The Earth’s magnetic field may be compared with that of a bar magnet.

Which of the following diagrams correctly shows the orientation of the bar magnet in this model?
A. geographical north pole B. geographical north pole

S N

N S

C. geographical north pole D. geographical north pole

N S

S N

40. A current-carrying solenoid is placed with its axis pointing east-west as shown below. A small compass is
situated near one end of the solenoid.
N

W E axis of
solenoid

The axis of the needle of the compass is approximately 45°to the axis of the solenoid. The current in the
solenoid is then doubled. Which of the following diagrams best shows the new position of the compass
needle?

A. B.
W E W E

C. D.
W E W E

85
41. A long, straight current-carrying wire is placed normal to the plane of the page. The current in the wire is
into the plane of the page.

Which of the following diagrams best represents the magnetic field around the wire?
A. B.

C. D.

42. Two long, vertical wires X and Y carry currents in the same direction and pass through a horizontal sheet
of card.

X Y

Iron filings are scattered on the card. Which one of the following diagrams best shows the pattern formed
by the iron filings? (The dots show where the wires X and Y enter the card.)

A. B.

C. D.

86
43. A strip of aluminium foil is held between the poles of a strong magnet, as shown below.

direction of current magnet

aluminium foil

When a current is passed through the aluminium foil in the direction shown, the foil is deflected. In
which direction is this deflection?

A. Vertically downwards

B. Vertically upwards

C. Towards the North pole of the magnet

D. Towards the South pole of the magnet

44. A magnetic force acts on an electric charge in a magnetic field when

A. the charge is not moving.

B. the charge moves in the direction of the magnetic field.

C. the charge moves in the opposite direction to the magnetic field.

D. the charge moves at right angles to the lines of the magnetic field.

45. The diagram below shows a charged particle about to enter a region of uniform magnetic field directed
into the page.

charged particle
magnetic field

Which of the following correctly describes the change, if any, in the kinetic energy and the momentum of
the particle in the magnetic field?

Kinetic energy Momentum

A. Changed Changed

B. Changed Unchanged

C. Unchanged Changed

D. Unchanged Unchanged

87
46. The currents in two parallel wires are I and 3I in the directions shown in the diagram below.
wire 1 wire 2
The magnetic force on wire 2 due to the current in wire 1 is F. The
magnitude of the force on wire 1 due to the current in wire 2 is

F F
A. . B. . C. F. D. 3F.
3 2

I 3I

47. The diagram below shows three parallel wires P, Q and R that are equally
spaced.

The currents in the wires are each of the same magnitude I and are in the
directions shown. The resultant force on wire Q due to the current in
wire P and in wire R is

A. perpendicular and into the plane of the paper. I I I

B. perpendicular and out of the plane of the paper.

C. in the plane of the paper to the right.

D. in the plane of the paper to the left.

wire P wire Q wire R

48. A straight conductor is in the plane of a uniform magnetic field as shown.

current I

magnetic field

The current in the conductor is I and the conductor is at an angle θ to the magnetic field.
The force per unit length on the conductor due to the current in the magnetic field is P.
Which is the correct expression for the magnitude of the magnetic field strength?

P sin  P cos P P
A. B. C. D.
I I I sin  I cos

49. A positively charged particle enters a region of uniform magnetic field. The direction of the particle’s
velocity is parallel to the direction of the magnetic field as shown in the diagram below.

region of uniform magnetic field

charged particle

Which of the following diagrams correctly shows the path of the charged particle while in the region of
magnetic field?

88
 A. B.

C. D.

50. An electron is travelling in the direction shown and enters a region of uniform magnetic field.

direction of travel of
the electron direction of region of uniform
e– magnetic field magnetic field

On entering the field the direction of the force acting on the electron is

A. into the plane of the paper.

B. out of the plane of the paper.

C. towards the top of the page.

D. towards the bottom of the page.

Short answer questions

1. This question is about the electric field due to a charged sphere and the motion of electrons in that field.

The diagram below shows an isolated, metal sphere in a vacuum that carries a negative electric charge of
9.0 nC.

(a) On the diagram draw arrows to represent the electric field pattern due to the charged sphere.
(3)

(b) The electric field strength at the surface of the sphere and at points outside the sphere can be
determined by assuming that the sphere acts as though a point charge of magnitude 9.0 nC is
situated at its centre. The radius of the sphere is 4.5 × 10–2 m. Deduce that the magnitude of the
field strength at the surface of the sphere is 4.0 ×104 Vm–1.

.....................................................................................................................................

.....................................................................................................................................
(1)

89
 An electron is initially at rest on the surface of the sphere.

(c) (i) Describe the path followed by the electron as it leaves the surface of the sphere.

...........................................................................................................................

...........................................................................................................................
(1)

(ii) Calculate the initial acceleration of the electron.

...........................................................................................................................

...........................................................................................................................

...........................................................................................................................

...........................................................................................................................

...........................................................................................................................
(3)

(iii) State and explain whether the acceleration of the electron remains constant, increases or
decreases as it moves away from the sphere.

...........................................................................................................................

...........................................................................................................................

...........................................................................................................................
(2)

(iv) At a certain point P, the speed of the electron is 6.0 × 106 ms–1. Determine the potential
difference between the point P and the surface of the sphere.

...........................................................................................................................

...........................................................................................................................

...........................................................................................................................

...........................................................................................................................

...........................................................................................................................
(3)
(Total 13 marks)

2. This question is about electric charge at rest.

(a) Define electric field strength at a point in an electric field.

.....................................................................................................................................

.....................................................................................................................................

.....................................................................................................................................
(2)

Four point charges of equal magnitude, are held at the corners of a square as shown below.

90
 2a
+Q +Q

P 2a

–Q –Q

The length of each side of the square is 2a and the sign of the charges is as shown. The point P is at the centre
of the square.

(b) (i) Deduce that the magnitude of the electric field strength at point P due to one of the point
kQ
charges is equal to .
2a 2

...........................................................................................................................

...........................................................................................................................
(2)

(ii) On the diagram above, draw an arrow to represent the direction of the resultant electric field
at point P.
(1)

(iii) Determine, in terms of Q, a and k, the magnitude of the electric field strength at point P.

...........................................................................................................................

...........................................................................................................................

...........................................................................................................................

...........................................................................................................................
(3)
(Total 8 marks)

3. This question is about electrical resistance.

(a) A heating coil is to be made of wire of diameter 3.5 ×10–4 m. The heater is to dissipate 980 W
when connected to a 230 V d.c. supply. The material of the wire has resistivity
1.3 × 10–6 Ω m at the working temperature of the heater.

(i) Define electrical resistance.

...........................................................................................................................

...........................................................................................................................
(1)

(ii) Calculate the resistance of the heating coil at its normal working temperature.

...........................................................................................................................

...........................................................................................................................
(2)

91
 (iii) Show that the length of wire needed to make the heating coil is approximately 4 m.

...........................................................................................................................

...........................................................................................................................
(2)

(b) Three identical electrical heaters each provide power P when connected separately to a supply S
which has zero internal resistance. On the diagram below, complete the circuit by drawing two
switches so that the power provided by the heaters may be either P or 2P or 3P.

(2)

(Total 7 marks)

4. This question is about electric circuits.

(a) (i) Define emf and state Ohm’s law.

emf: ....................................................................................................

....................................................................................................

Ohm’s law: ....................................................................................................

....................................................................................................
(2)

(ii) The graph below shows the I-V characteristic of a particular electrical component.

0
0 I

State show the resistance of the component is determined from the graph.

.........................................................................................................................

.........................................................................................................................
(1)

92
(b) In the circuit below an electrical device (load) is connected in series with a cell of emf 2.5 V and
internal resistance r. The current I in the circuit is 0.10 A.

e.m.f. = 2.5V

I = 0.10A

load

The power dissipated in the load is 0.23 W.

Calculate

(i) the total power of the cell;

.........................................................................................................................

.........................................................................................................................
(1)

(ii) the resistance of the load;

.........................................................................................................................

.........................................................................................................................
(2)

(iii) the internal resistance r of the cell.

.........................................................................................................................

.........................................................................................................................

.........................................................................................................................
(2)

(c) A second identical cell is connected into the circuit in (b) as shown below.

I = 0.15A

load

The current in this circuit is 0.15 A. Deduce that the load is a non-ohmic device.

...................................................................................................................................

...................................................................................................................................

...................................................................................................................................
(4)
(Total 12 marks)
93
5. This question is about electrical energy and associated phenomena.

Current electricity

A cell of electromotive force (emf) E and internal resistance r is connected in series with a resistor R, as
shown below.

E r

The cell supplies 8.1 × 103 J of energy when 5.8 × 103 C of charge moves completely round the circuit. The
current in the circuit is constant.

(i) Calculate the emf E of the cell.

...........................................................................................................................

...........................................................................................................................

...........................................................................................................................
(2)

(ii) The resistor R has resistance 6.0 Ω. The potential difference between its terminals is
1.2 V. Determine the internal resistance r of the cell.

.....................................................................................................................................

.....................................................................................................................................

.....................................................................................................................................

.....................................................................................................................................
(3)

(iii) Calculate the total energy transfer in the resistor R.

.....................................................................................................................................

.....................................................................................................................................

.....................................................................................................................................
(2)

(iv) Describe, in terms of a simple model of electrical conduction, the mechanism by which the energy
transfer in the resistor R takes place.

.....................................................................................................................................

.....................................................................................................................................

.....................................................................................................................................
(5)
(Total 12 marks)

94
6. This question is about electric circuits.
A
Susan sets up the circuit below in order to measure
the current-voltage (I-V) characteristic of a small
filament lamp. 3.0 V
V

The supply is a battery that has an emf of 3.0 V and the ammeter and voltmeter are considered to be ideal. The
lamp is labelled by the manufacturer as “3 Volts, 0.6 Watts”.

(a) (i) Explain what information this labelling provides about the normal operation of the lamp.

...........................................................................................................................

...........................................................................................................................

...........................................................................................................................

...........................................................................................................................

...........................................................................................................................
(2)

(ii) Calculate the current in the filament of the lamp when it is operating at normal brightness.

...........................................................................................................................

...........................................................................................................................

...........................................................................................................................

...........................................................................................................................
(2)

Susan sets the variable resistor to its maximum value of resistance. She then closes the switch S and
records the following readings.

Ammeter reading = 0.18 A Voltmeter reading = 0.60 V

She then sets the variable resistor to its zero value of resistance and records the following readings.

Ammeter reading = 0.20 A Voltmeter reading = 2.6 V

(b) (i) Explain why, by changing the value of the resistance of the variable resistance, the potential
difference across the lamp cannot be reduced to zero or be increased to 3.0 V.

...........................................................................................................................

...........................................................................................................................

...........................................................................................................................
(2)

95
 (ii) Determine the internal resistance of the battery.

...........................................................................................................................

...........................................................................................................................

...........................................................................................................................

...........................................................................................................................
(3)

(c) Calculate the resistance of the filament when the reading on the voltmeter is

(i) 0.60 V.

...........................................................................................................................

...........................................................................................................................
(1)

(ii) 2.6 V.

...........................................................................................................................

...........................................................................................................................
(1)

(d) Explain why there is a difference between your answers to (c)(i) and (c)(ii).

.....................................................................................................................................

.....................................................................................................................................

.....................................................................................................................................
(2)

(e) Using the axes below, draw a sketch-graph of the I-V characteristic of the filament of the
lamp. (Note: this is a sketch-graph; you do not need to add any values to the axes.)
I

0
0 V
(1)

The diagram below shows an alternative circuit for varying the potential
X
difference across the lamp.

The potential divider XZ has a potential of 3.0 V across it. When the contact is
at the position Y, the resistance of XY equals the resistance of YZ which equals Y
3.0 V
12 Ω. The resistance of the lamp is 4 Ω.
Z
(f) Calculate the potential difference across the lamp.
96
 .....................................................................................................................................

.....................................................................................................................................

.....................................................................................................................................
(4)
(Total 18 marks)

7. (a) On the diagram below, draw the magnetic field pattern around a long straight current-carrying
conductor.

current-carrying wire

(3)

The diagram below shows a coil consisting of two loops of wire. The coil is suspended vertically.

0.20 cm

6.0 cm

Each loop has a diameter of 6.0 cm and the separation of the loops is 0.20 cm. The coil forms part of an
electrical circuit so that a current may be passed through the coil.

(b) (i) State and explain why, when the current is switched on in the coil, the distance between the
two loops changes.

...........................................................................................................................

...........................................................................................................................

...........................................................................................................................
(3)

When there is a current I in the coil, a mass of 0.10 g hung from the free end of the coil returns the
separation of the loops to the original value of 0.20 cm.

The circumference C of a circle of radius r is given by the expression

C = 2πr.

97
 (ii) Calculate the current I in the coil. You may assume that each loop behaves as a long straight
current-carrying wire.

...........................................................................................................................

...........................................................................................................................

...........................................................................................................................

...........................................................................................................................
(5)
(Total 11 marks)

8. This question is about motion of a charged particle in a magnetic field.

A charged particle is projected from point X with speed v at right angles to a uniform magnetic field. The
magnetic field is directed out of the plane of the page. The particle moves along a circle of radius R and
centre C as shown in the diagram below.

region of magnetic field Y

out of plane of page

R C X
charged particle

(a) On the diagram above, draw arrows to represent the magnetic force on the particle at position X
and at position Y.
(1)

(b) State and explain whether

(i) the charge is positive or negative;

.........................................................................................................................
(1)

(ii) work is done by the magnetic force.

.........................................................................................................................

.........................................................................................................................

.........................................................................................................................
(2)

v
(c) A second identical charged particle is projected at position X with a speed in a direction
2
opposite to that of the first particle. On the diagram above, draw the path followed by this particle.
(2)
(Total 6 marks)

98
9. This question is about the force between current-carrying wires.

Diagram 1 below shows two long, parallel vertical wires each carrying equal currents in the same
direction. The wires pass through a horizontal sheet of card. Diagram 2 shows a plan view of the wires
looking down onto the card.
eye

sheet of card

diagram 1 diagram 2

(a) (i) Draw on diagram 1 the direction of the force acting on each wire.
(1)

(ii) Draw on diagram 2 the magnetic field pattern due to the currents in the wire.
(3)

(b) The card is removed and one of the two wires is free to move. Describe and explain the changes in
the velocity and in acceleration of the moveable wire.

.....................................................................................................................................

.....................................................................................................................................

.....................................................................................................................................

.....................................................................................................................................

.....................................................................................................................................
(3)
(Total 7 marks)

99
Topic 6: Circular motion and gravitation
1. Points P and Q are at distances R and 2R respectively from the centre X of a disc, as shown below.

The disc is rotating about an axis through X, normal to the plane of the disc. Point P has linear speed v
and centripetal acceleration a. Which one of the following is correct for point Q?

Linear speed Centripetal acceleration

Q

A. v a P 2R
R
B. v 2a X

C. 2v 2a

D. 2v 4a

2. A particle P is moving in a circle with uniform speed. Which one of the following diagrams correctly
shows the direction of the acceleration a and velocity v of the particle at one instant of time?

A. a B. a
v

P v P

C. D.

a P a P
v

3. The centripetal force that causes a car to go round a bend in the road is provided by

A. the force produced by the car engine acting on the wheels.

B. the friction between the tyres and the road.

C. the weight of the car.

D. the force exerted by the driver on the steering wheel.

4. The centripetal force F acting on a particle of mass m that is travelling with linear speed v along the arc of a
circle of radius r is given by

v2 mv 2
A. F= . B. F = mv2r. C. F = mr2v. D. F= .
mr r

100
5. A brick is placed on the surface of a flat horizontal disc as shown in the diagram below. The disc is rotating
at constant speed about a vertical axis through its centre. The brick does not move relative to the disc.

Which of the diagrams below correctly represents the horizontal force or forces acting on the brick?

6. A cyclist rides around a circular track at a uniform speed. Which of the following correctly gives the net
horizontal force on the cyclist at any given instant of time?

Net horizontal force along Net horizontal force normal to

direction of motion direction of motion
A. zero zero
B. zero non zero
C. non zero zero
D. non zero non zero

7. A particle of mass m is moving with constant speed v in uniform circular motion. What is the total work
done by the centripetal force during one revolution?

m v2
A. Zero B.
2

C. mv2 D. 2πmv2

101
8. A stone attached to a string is moving in a horizontal circle. The constant speed of the stone is v.
The diagram below shows the stone in two different positions, X and Y.

Which of the following shows the direction of the change of velocity of the stone when moving from
position X to position Y?

9. A communications satellite is moving at a constant speed in a circular orbit around Earth. At any given
instant in time, the resultant force on the satellite is

A. zero.

B. equal to the gravitational force on the satellite.

C. equal to the vector sum of the gravitational force on the satellite and the centripetal force.

D. equal to the force exerted by the satellite’s rockets.

10. A spherical planet of uniform density has three times the mass of the Earth and twice the average radius.
The magnitude of the gravitational field strength at the surface of the Earth is g.
What is the gravitational field strength at the surface of the planet?

A. 6g

2
B. g
3

3
C. g
4

3
D. g
2

102
11. A spacecraft travels away from Earth in a straight line with its motors shut down. At one instant the speed
of the spacecraft is 5.4 km s–1. After a time of 600 s, the speed is 5.1 km s–1. The average gravitational
field strength acting on the spacecraft during this time interval is

A. 5.0 × 10–4 N kg–1

B. 3.0 × 10–2 N kg–1

C. 5.0 × 10–1 N kg–1

D. 30 N kg–1

12. The weight of an object of mass 1 kg at the surface of Mars is about 4 N. The radius of Mars is about half
the radius of Earth. Which of the following is the best estimate of the ratio below?

mass of Mars
mass of Earth

A. 0.1

B. 0.2

C. 5

D. 10

13. An astronaut in orbit around Earth is said to be “weightless”. This is due to the fact that the

A. gravitational force on the astronaut is zero.

B. astronaut and the spacecraft experience the same acceleration.

C. astronaut and the spacecraft experience the same gravitational force.

D. gravitational field at the position of the spacecraft is zero.

14. The mass of Earth is ME, its radius is RE and the magnitude of the gravitational field strength at the
g
surface of Earth is g. The universal gravitational constant is G. The ratio is equal to
G

ME
A.
R E2

R E2
B.
ME

C. MERE

D. 1

103
15. A small sphere X of mass M is placed a distance d from a point mass. The gravitational force on sphere X
is 90 N. Sphere X is removed and a second sphere Y of mass 4M is placed a distance 3d from the same
point mass. The gravitational force on sphere Y is

A. 480 N.

B. 160 N.

C. 120 N.

D. 40 N.

16. Newton’s law of gravitation for the force F between two point objects of masses M and m, separated by a
distance d may be written as

Fd2 is proportional to Mm.

The expression may also be used for the force of attraction between the Sun and the Earth, although they
are not point masses. This is because

A. the gravitational constant G is not involved in the expression.

B. the force between the Sun and the Earth is very large.

C. the separation of the Sun and the Earth is much greater than their radii.

D. the mass of the Earth is much less than the mass of the Sun.

17. In Newton’s universal law of gravitation the masses are assumed to be

A. extended masses. B. masses of planets. C. point masses. D. spherical masses.

18. Gravitational field strength at a point may be defined as

A. the force on a small mass placed at the point.

B. the force per unit mass on a small mass placed at the point.

C. the work done to move unit mass from infinity to the point.

D. the work done per unit mass to move a small mass from infinity to the point.

19. The acceleration of free fall of a small sphere of mass 5.0 × 10–3 kg when close to the surface of Jupiter is
25 ms–2. The gravitational field strength at the surface of Jupiter is

A. 2.0 × 10–4 N kg–1.B. 1.3 × 10–1 N kg–1.C. 25 N kg–1.D. 5.0 × 103 N kg–1.

20. The mass of Mars is approximately 0.1 times the mass of Earth and its diameter is approximately 0.5
times that of Earth.

What is the approximate gravitational field strength on the surface of Mars?

A. 2N kg–1 B. 4N kg–1 C. 25N kg–1 D. 50N kg–1

104
21. Planet X has radius R and mass M. Planet Y has radius 2R and mass 8M.

Which one of the following is the correct value of the ratio

gravitational field strengthat surface of planet X

?
gravitational field strengthat surface of planet Y

1 1
A. 4 B. 2 C. D.
2 4

Short answer questions

1. This question is about the kinematics and dynamics of circular motion.

(a) A car goes round a curve in a road at constant speed. Explain why, although its speed is constant, it
is accelerating.

.....................................................................................................................................

.....................................................................................................................................

.....................................................................................................................................
(2)

In the diagram below, a marble (small glass sphere) rolls down a track, the bottom part of which has been
bent into a loop. The end A of the track, from which the marble is released, is at a height of 0.80 m above
the ground. Point B is the lowest point and point C the highest point of the loop. The diameter of the loop
is 0.35 m. A

marble

0.80 m C

0.35 m

ground B

The mass of the marble is 0.050 kg. Friction forces and any gain in kinetic energy due to the rotating of
the marble can be ignored. The acceleration due to gravity, g = 10 ms–2.

Consider the marble when it is at point C.

(b) (i) On the diagram opposite, draw an arrow to show the direction of the resultant force acting
on the marble.

(ii) State the names of the two forces acting on the marble.

...........................................................................................................................

...........................................................................................................................
(2)

105
 (iii) Deduce that the speed of the marble is 3.0 ms–1.

...........................................................................................................................

...........................................................................................................................

...........................................................................................................................

...........................................................................................................................
(3)

(iv) Determine the resultant force acting on the marble and hence determine the reaction force of
the track on the marble.

...........................................................................................................................

...........................................................................................................................

...........................................................................................................................

...........................................................................................................................

...........................................................................................................................
(4)
(Total 12 marks)

2. This question is about circular motion.

A ball of mass 0.25 kg is attached to a string and is made to rotate with constant speed v along a
horizontal circle of radius r = 0.33 m. The string is attached to the ceiling and makes an angle of 30°with
the vertical.

(a) (i) On the diagram above, draw and label arrows to represent the forces on the ball in the
position shown.
(2)

(ii) State and explain whether the ball is in equilibrium.

...........................................................................................................................

...........................................................................................................................

...........................................................................................................................

...........................................................................................................................
(2)

106
 (b) Determine the speed of rotation of the ball.

......................................................................................................................................

......................................................................................................................................

......................................................................................................................................

......................................................................................................................................

......................................................................................................................................

......................................................................................................................................
(3)
(Total 7 marks)

3. This question is about forces.

A solid iron ball of mass 770 kg is used on a building site. The ball is suspended by a rope from a crane.
The distance from the point of suspension to the centre of mass of the ball is 12 m.

(a) Calculate the tension in the rope when the ball hangs vertical and stationary.

......................................................................................................................................

......................................................................................................................................
(1)

(b) The ball is pulled back from the vertical and then released. It falls through a vertical height of 1.6
m and strikes a wall.

(i) Calculate the speed of the ball just before impact.

...........................................................................................................................

...........................................................................................................................

...........................................................................................................................
(2)

(ii) Calculate the tension in the rope just before impact.

...........................................................................................................................

...........................................................................................................................

...........................................................................................................................
(3)

107
 (c) The ball is brought to rest in 0.15 s. The sketch graph below shows how the force the ball exerts on
the wall varies with time.

(i) State what quantity is represented by the area under the graph.

...........................................................................................................................
(1)

(ii) Determine the maximum force Fmax exerted by the ball on the wall.

...........................................................................................................................

...........................................................................................................................

...........................................................................................................................

...........................................................................................................................
(3)
(Total 10 marks)

4. This question is about gravitational fields.

(a) Define gravitational field strength.

...................................................................................................................................

...................................................................................................................................

...................................................................................................................................
(2)

(b) The gravitational field strength at the surface of Jupiter is 25 N kg–1 and the radius of Jupiter is 7.1
× 107 m.

(i) Derive an expression for the gravitational field strength at the surface of a planet in terms of
its mass M, its radius R and the gravitational constant G.

.........................................................................................................................

.........................................................................................................................

.........................................................................................................................
(2)

108
 (ii) Use your expression in (b)(i) above to estimate the mass of Jupiter.

.........................................................................................................................

.........................................................................................................................

.........................................................................................................................

.........................................................................................................................
(2)
(Total 6 marks)

5. This question is about gravitational and electric fields.

(a) The equation for the magnitude of the gravitational field strength due to a point mass may be
written as below.

KX
Y=
s2

The equation for the magnitude of the electric field strength can also be written in the same form.

In the table identify the symbols used in the equation.

Symbol Gravitational field quantity Electrical field quantity

Y
K
X
s
(4)

(b) The magnitude of the electrostatic force between the proton and electron in a hydrogen atom is FE.
The magnitude of the gravitational force between them is FG.

FE
Determine the ratio .
FG

......................................................................................................................................

......................................................................................................................................

......................................................................................................................................

......................................................................................................................................
(3)
(Total 7 marks)

6. This question is about electric and gravitational fields

(a) State, in terms of electrons, the difference between a conductor and an insulator.

......................................................................................................................................

......................................................................................................................................
(1)

109
 (b) Suggest why there must be an electric field inside a current-carrying conductor.

......................................................................................................................................

......................................................................................................................................

......................................................................................................................................

......................................................................................................................................

......................................................................................................................................
(3)

(c) The magnitude of the electric field strength inside a conductor is 55 N C–1. Calculate the force on a
free electron in the conductor.

......................................................................................................................................

......................................................................................................................................
(1)

(d) The electric force between two point charges is a fundamental force as is the gravitational force
between two point masses. State one similarity between these two forces and one difference (other
than the fact that one applies to charge and the other to mass).

Similarity: ...................................................................................................................

......................................................................................................................................

Difference: ..................................................................................................................

......................................................................................................................................
(2)

(e) The force on a mass of 1.0 kg falling freely near the surface of Jupiter is 25 N. The radius of
Jupiter is 7.0 ×107 m.

(i) State the value of the magnitude of the gravitational field strength at the surface of Jupiter.

...........................................................................................................................
(1)

(ii) Calculate that the mass of Jupiter is about 1.8 ×1027 kg.

...........................................................................................................................

...........................................................................................................................

...........................................................................................................................
(2)
(Total 10 marks)

7. This question is about force fields.

(a) Outline what is meant by a field of force.

......................................................................................................................................

......................................................................................................................................
(2)

110
 (b) Five particles A to E are each placed in a different type of field. Complete the table to identify the
nature of the field in which each particle is situated.

Charge on Initial direction of Direction of

Particle Type of field
particle motion of particle force on particle
in direction of
A uncharged stationary
field .....................................
along direction of opposite to
B negative
field direction of field .....................................
normal to direction normal to
C positive
of field direction of field .....................................
normal to direction in direction of
D positive
of field field .....................................
opposite to direction in direction of
E uncharged
of field field .....................................
(5)
(Total 7 marks)

8. This question is about gravitational and electric fields.

(a) The equation for the magnitude of the gravitational field strength due to a point mass may be
written as below.

KX
Y=
s2

The equation for the magnitude of the electric field strength can also be written in the same form.

In the table identify the symbols used in the equation.

Symbol Gravitational field quantity Electrical field quantity

Y
K
X
s
(4)

(b) The magnitude of the electrostatic force between the proton and electron in a hydrogen atom is FE.
The magnitude of the gravitational force between them is FG.

FE
Determine the ratio .
FG

......................................................................................................................................

......................................................................................................................................

......................................................................................................................................
(3)
(Total 7 marks)

111
Topic 7: Atomic, nuclear and particle physics
1. The Geiger-Marsden alpha particle scattering experiment provides evidence for the existence of

A. atomic nuclei.

B. neutrons.

C. protons.

D. nuclear energy levels.

2. In the Geiger-Marsden experiment, α particles are scattered by gold nuclei. The experimental results
indicate that most α particles are

A. scattered only at small angles.

B. scattered only at large angles.

C. absorbed in the target.

D. scattered back along the original direction.

3. The atomic line spectra of elements provides evidence for the existence of

A. photons.

B. electrons.

C. quantized energy states within nuclei.

D. quantized energy states within atoms.

4. Which one of the following correctly gives the number of electrons, protons and neutrons in a neutral
atom of the nuclide 65
29 Cu ?

Number of electrons Number of protons Number of neutrons

A. 65 29 36

B. 36 36 29

C. 29 29 65

D. 29 29 36

5. The number of nucleons in a nucleus is the number of

A. particles in the nucleus.

B. neutrons in the nucleus.

C. protons in the nucleus.

D. protons plus neutrons in the nucleus.

6. Isotopes provide evidence for the existence of

A. protons. B. electrons. C. nuclei. D. neutrons.

112
7. Ag-102, Ag-103 and Ag-104 are three isotopes of the element silver.

Which one of the following is a true statement about the nuclei of these isotopes?

A. All have the same mass.

B. All have the same number of nucleons.

C. All have the same number of neutrons.

D. All have the same number of protons.

8. Which of the following identifies the significant interaction(s) between nucleons inside the nucleus?

A. Nuclear only B. Coulomb only

C. Nuclear and Coulomb D. Gravitational, nuclear and Coulomb

9. The nucleus of an atom contains protons. The protons are prevented from flying apart by

A. the presence of orbiting electrons.

B. the presence of gravitational forces.

C. the presence of strong attractive nuclear forces.

D. the absence of Coulomb repulsive forces at nuclear distances.

10. The unified mass unit is defined as

12
A. the mass of one neutral atom of 6 C.

1 12
B. of the mass of one neutral atom of 6 C.
12

1 12
C. of the mass of one neutral atom of 6 C.
6

12
D. the mass of the nucleus of 6 C.

11. Which of the following best describes why alpha-particles travel only a short distance in air?

A. They undergo radioactive decay.

B. They undergo elastic collisions with air molecules.

C. They ionize air molecules.

D. They are attracted by the nuclei of air molecules.

12. A nucleus of the isotope potassium-40 40 

19 K 
decays to form a nucleus argon-40  40
18 
Ar Which one of
the following correctly identifies the other two particles resulting from this decay?

A. − and v B. − and v

C. + and v D. + and v

113
 30 30
13. The nucleus 15
P undergoes radioactive decay to the nucleus 14
Si. The particles emitted in the decay
are

A. a positron and an antineutrino.

B. an electron and an antineutrino.

C. a positron and a neutrino.

D. an electron and a neutrino.

14. In a laboratory when aluminium nuclei are bombarded with α-particles, the following reaction may take
place.

2 He  13 Al  15 P  0 n
4 27 30 1

This reaction is an example of

A. nuclear fission. B. nuclear fusion.

C. natural radioactive decay. D. artificial transmutation.

15. K-capture is a process that occurs when a nucleus captures an electron from the innermost shell of
electrons surrounding the nucleus.

55
When K-capture occurs in iron-55 ( 26 Fe), the nucleus is changed into a manganese (Mn) nucleus. Which
equation represents this change?

A. 55
( 26 Fe) + 0
1
e → 55
27
Mn

B. 55
( 26 Fe) + 11 e → 56
27 Mn

C. 55
( 26 Fe) + 01 e → 55
25 Mn

D. 55
( 26 Fe) + 11 e → 56
25 Mn

16. When the isotope aluminium-27 is bombarded with alpha particles, the following nuclear reaction can
take place.

4
2 He  27
13 Al  X  neutron

Which of the following correctly gives the atomic (proton) number and mass (nucleon) number of the
nucleus X?

Proton number Nucleon number

A. 15 30

B. 16 31

C. 30 15

D. 31 16

114
17. The binding energy per nucleon of the nucleus 73 Li is approximately 5 MeV. The total energy required
to completely separate the nucleons of this nucleus is approximately

A. 15 MeV. B. 20 MeV.

C. 35 MeV. D. 50 MeV.

18. The graph below illustrates the variation with nucleon number (mass number) N of the binding energy
per nucleon E of nuclei.

Which of the labelled nuclei is the most stable?

E C

B D

19. 64
A freshly-prepared sample of cobalt-64 ( 27 Co ) decays by the emission of γ-ray photons. The decay may
be represented by the nuclear equation

64
27 Co  64
27 Co + energy.

After this decay, the binding energy per nucleon has

A. increased in magnitude because energy has been emitted from the nucleus.

B. decreased in magnitude because energy has been emitted from the nucleus.

C. stayed constant because the number of nucleons in the nucleus is unchanged.

D. stayed constant because the proton number is unchanged.

20. Two light nuclei of masses m1 and m2 fuse in a nuclear reaction to form a nucleus of mass M. Which of
the following expressions correctly relates the masses of the nuclei?

A. M  m1 + m2

B. M  m1 + m2

C. M = m1 + m2

D. M = m1 − m2

115
21. The equation of a nuclear reaction is shown below.

2
1 H  21 H  23 He  01 n

The reaction is an example of

A. artificial transmutation.

B. fission.

C. natural radioactivity.

D. fusion.

22. The graph below shows the variation with mass (nucleon) number of the average binding energy per
nucleon.

mass number
0

average binding
energy per
nucleon
IV
I
III
II

Which direction indicates a fission reaction with a release of energy?

A. I

B. II

C. III

D. IV

23.  
The rest-mass of a nucleus of lithium-7 73 Li is mL. The rest-mass of a proton is mP and the rest-mass of
a neutron is mN. The speed of light in free space is c.

Which of the following is a correct expression for the binding energy of a lithium-7 nucleus?

A. (3mP + 4mN – mL)c2

B. (3mP + 4mN + mL)c2

C. (4mP + 3mN – mL)c2

D. (3mP + 7mN – mL)c2

116
24. The source of the Sun’s energy is

A. fission.

B. radioactivity.

C. fusion.

D. ionization.

25. Radioactive decay is a random process. This means that

A. a radioactive sample will decay continuously.

B. some nuclei will decay faster than others.

C. it cannot be predicted how much energy will be released.

D. it cannot be predicted when a particular nucleus will decay.

26. A sample of a radioactive isotope of half-life T 1 initially contains N atoms. Which one of the following
2

gives the number of atoms of this isotope that have decayed after a time 3T 1 ?
2

1
A. N
8

1
B. N
3

2
C. N
3

7
D. N
8

27. The initial activity (rate of decay) of a sample of mass 25 g of a radioactive isotope is A0. The half-life
of the isotope is T 1 . Which of the following gives the initial activity and half-life of a sample of mass 50
2

g of this isotope?

Activity Half-life

A. A0 T1
2

B. 2A0 T1
2

C. A0 2T 1
2

D. 2A0 2T 1
2

117
28. A nuclide X has a half-life of 10 s. On decay the stable nuclide Y is formed. Initially a sample contains
only atoms of X.

After what time will 87.5% of the atoms in the sample have decayed into nuclide Y.

A. 9.0 s

B. 30 s

C. 70 s

D. 80 s

29. A sample of material contains 64 g of a radioactive isotope. After sixty minutes 2.0 g of the isotope
remain. The half-life of this isotope is

A. 10 minutes.

B. 12 minutes.

C. 15 minutes.

D. 20 minutes.

Short answer questions

30. This question is about atomic spectra.

An electron undergoes a transition from an atomic energy level of 3.20 × 10–15 J to an energy level of
0.32 × 10–15 J. Determine the wavelength of the emitted photon.

..............................................................................................................................................

..............................................................................................................................................

..............................................................................................................................................

..............................................................................................................................................

..............................................................................................................................................
(Total 3 marks)

31. This question is about nuclear binding energy.

(a) (i) Define nucleon.

...........................................................................................................................
(1)

(ii) Define nuclear binding energy of a nucleus.

...........................................................................................................................

...........................................................................................................................
(1)

The axes below show values of nucleon number A (horizontal axis) and average binding energy per
118
nucleon E (vertical axis). (Binding energy is taken to be a positive quantity).

E / MeV 9

0
0 25 50 75 100 125 150 175 200 225 250
A

(b) Mark on the E axis above, the approximate position of

56
(i) the isotope 26
Fe (label this F).
(1)

2
(ii) the isotope 1
H (label this H).
(1)

238
(iii) the isotope 92
U (label this U).
(1)

(c) Using the grid in part (a), draw a graph to show the variation with nucleon number A of the average
binding energy per nucleon E.
(2)

3
(d) Use the following data to deduce that the binding energy per nucleon of the isotope 2
He is 2.2
MeV.

3
nuclear mass of 2
He = 3.01603 u
mass of proton = 1.00728 u
mass of neutron = 1.00867 u

.....................................................................................................................................

.....................................................................................................................................

.....................................................................................................................................

.....................................................................................................................................
(3)

1 H  1 H  2 He  01 n energy is released.
2 2 3
In the nuclear reaction

119
 (e) (i) State the name of this type of reaction.

...........................................................................................................................
(1)

(ii) Use your graph in (c) to explain why energy is released in this reaction.

...........................................................................................................................

...........................................................................................................................
(2)
(Total 13 marks)

32. This question is about radioactivity and nuclear energy.

(a) Define the following terms,

(i) Isotope

...........................................................................................................................
(1)

(ii) Radioactive half-life

...........................................................................................................................

...........................................................................................................................
(1)

Thorium-227 (Th-227) results from the decay of the isotope actinium-227.

(b) (i) Complete the following reaction equation.

89 Ac  90Th 
227 227

(1)

Th-227 has a half-life of 18 days and undergoes -decay to the isotope Ra-223 (Ra-223). A sample of
Th-227 has an initial activity of 32 arbitrary units.

(ii) Using the axes below, draw a graph to show the variation with time t (for t = 0 to t = 72 days)
of the activity A of Th-227.
(2)
32

24

activity / 16
arbitrary units

0
0 18 36 54 72
time / days 120
 (iii) Determine from your graph, the activity of thorium after 50 days.

...........................................................................................................................
(1)

(iv) Outline the experimental procedure to measure the activity of Th-227.

...........................................................................................................................

...........................................................................................................................

...........................................................................................................................

...........................................................................................................................
(2)

In the decay of a Th-227 nucleus, a γ-ray photon is also emitted.

(c) Use the following data to deduce that the energy of the γ-ray photon is 0.667 MeV.

mass of Th-227 nucleus = 227.0278 u

mass of Ra-223 nucleus = 223.0186 u
mass of helium nucleus = 4.0026 u
energy of α-particle emitted =5.481 MeV
unified atomic mass unit (u) = 931.5 MeV c–2

You may assume that the Th-227 nucleus is stationary before decay and that the Ra-223 nucleus
has negligible kinetic energy.

.....................................................................................................................................

.....................................................................................................................................

.....................................................................................................................................
(3)
(Total 11 marks)

33. Radioactive decay

(a) The nucleon number (mass number) of a stable isotope of argon is 36 and of a radioactive isotope
of argon is 39.

(i) State what is meant by a nucleon.

.........................................................................................................................

.........................................................................................................................
(1)

(ii) Explain, in terms of the number of nucleons and the forces between them, why argon-36 is
stable and argon-39 is radioactive.

.........................................................................................................................

.........................................................................................................................

.........................................................................................................................

.........................................................................................................................
(4)

121
 (b) A particular nucleus of argon-39 undergoes the decay shown by the nuclear reaction equation
below.

39
18 Ar  K  β 

(i) State the proton (atomic) number and the nucleon (mass) number of the potassium (K)
nucleus.

Proton number: .........................................................................................

Nucleon number: .........................................................................................

(2)

(ii) Use the following data to determine the maximum energy, in J, of the − particle in the
decay of a sample of argon-39.

Mass of argon-39 nucleus = 38.96431 u

Mass of K nucleus = 38.96370 u

.........................................................................................................................

.........................................................................................................................

.........................................................................................................................

.........................................................................................................................
(3)

(c) The graph below shows the variation with time t of the activity A of a sample of argon-39.
1750

1600

1450

1300

1150

1000
activity / Bq
850

700

550

400

250

100
0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12

2
time / 10 years

Use the graph to determine the half-life of argon-39. Explain your reasoning.

...................................................................................................................................

...................................................................................................................................

...................................................................................................................................

...................................................................................................................................
(2)
122
 (Total 12 marks)
34. This question is about nuclear power production.

(a) The purpose of a nuclear power station is to produce electrical energy from nuclear energy. The
diagram below is a representation of the principal components of a nuclear reactor pile used in a
certain type of nuclear power station that uses uranium as a fuel.

The function of the moderator is to slow down the neutrons produced in a reaction such as that
described above.

Explain,

(i) why it is necessary to slow down the neutrons.

.........................................................................................................................

.........................................................................................................................

.........................................................................................................................

.........................................................................................................................
(3)

(ii) the function of the control rods.

.........................................................................................................................

.........................................................................................................................

.........................................................................................................................
(2)

(b) With reference to the concept of fuel enrichment in a nuclear reactor explain,

(i) the advantage of enriching the uranium used in a nuclear reactor.

.........................................................................................................................

.........................................................................................................................

.........................................................................................................................

.........................................................................................................................
(3)

(ii) from an international point of view, a possible risk to which fuel enrichment could lead.

.........................................................................................................................

.........................................................................................................................

.........................................................................................................................

.........................................................................................................................
(2)
123
(c) A particular nuclear reactor uses uranium-235 as its fuel source. When a nucleus of uranium-235
absorbs a neutron, the following reaction can take place.

235
92 U  01 n  144
54 Xe  38 Sr  2 0 n
90 1

The following data are available.

5 –2
rest mass of 235
92 U = 2.1895 × 10 MeV c

rest mass of 144

54 Xe = 1.3408 × 105 MeV c–2
rest mass of 90
38 Sr = 8.3749 × 104 MeV c–2
rest mass of 1
0 n = 939.56 MeV c–2

(i) Show that the energy released in the reaction is approximately 180 MeV.

.........................................................................................................................

.........................................................................................................................
(1)

(ii) State the form in which the energy appears.

.........................................................................................................................
(1)

(d) The energy released by 1 atom of carbon-12 during combustion is approximately 4 eV.

(i) Using the answer to (c)(i), estimate the ratio

energy density of uranium - 235

.
energy density of carbon - 12

.........................................................................................................................

.........................................................................................................................
(3)

(ii) Suggest, with reference to your answer in (d)(i), one advantage of uranium-235 compared
with fossil fuels.

.........................................................................................................................

.........................................................................................................................
(1)

(e) When a uranium-238 nucleus absorbs a neutron the following reaction can take place.

238
92 U  01 n  239
92 U

The isotope uranium-239 is radioactive and decays with a half-life of 23 minutes to form an
isotope of neptunium-239 (Np-239).

(i) Define radioactive half-life and explain what is meant by an isotope.

Radioactive half-life:

.........................................................................................................................

.........................................................................................................................

124
 Isotope:

.........................................................................................................................

.........................................................................................................................
(2)

(ii) Complete the reaction equation for this decay.

239
92 U
(3)

(iii) The isotope neptunium-239 undergoes radioactive  decay to form an isotope of plutonium.
Outline one advantage and one disadvantage of this decay in relation to nuclear power
production.

Advantage:

.........................................................................................................................

Disadvantage:

.........................................................................................................................
(4)
(Total 25 marks)

35. This question is about particle physics.

(a) Possible particle reactions are given below. They cannot take place because they violate one or
more conservation laws. For each reaction identify one conservation law that is violated.

(i) μ–  e– + γ

Conservation law: .....................................................

(1)

(ii) p + n  p + π0

Conservation law: .....................................................

(1)

(iii) p  π+ + π–

Conservation law: .....................................................

(1)

(b) State the name of the exchange particle(s) involved in the strong interaction.

.....................................................................................................................................
(1)
(Total 4 marks)

125
 36. This question is about deducing the quark structure of a nuclear particle.

When a K– meson collides with a proton, the following reaction can take place.

K– + p  K0 + K+ + X

X is a particle whose quark structure is to be determined.

The quark structure of mesons is given below.

particle quark structure

K– su
K+ us
K0 ds

(a) State and explain whether the original K– particle is a hadron, a lepton or an exchange particle.

.....................................................................................................................................

.....................................................................................................................................

.....................................................................................................................................
(2)

(b) State the quark structure of the proton.

.....................................................................................................................................

.....................................................................................................................................

.....................................................................................................................................
(2)

(c) The quark structure of particle X is sss. Show that the reaction is consistent with the theory that
hadrons are composed of quarks.

.....................................................................................................................................

.....................................................................................................................................

.....................................................................................................................................
(2)
(Total 6 marks)

37. This question is about particle physics.

A neutron can decay into a proton, an electron and an antineutrino according to the reaction

n  p + e + ve .

(a) Deduce the value of the electric charge of the antineutrino.

.....................................................................................................................................
(1)

126
 (b) State the name of the fundamental interaction (force) that is responsible for this decay.
(1)

.....................................................................................................................................

(c) State how an antineutrino differs from a neutrino.

.....................................................................................................................................
(1)
(Total 3 marks)

38. This question is about fundamental particles and conservation laws.

Nucleons are considered to be made of quarks.

(a) State the name of

(i) the force (interaction) between quarks;

...........................................................................................................................
(1)

(ii) the particle that gives rise to the force between quarks.

...........................................................................................................................
(1)

(b) Outline in terms of conservations laws, why the interaction v + p = n + e+ is observed but the
interaction v + p = n + e+ has never been observed. (You may assume that mass-energy and
momentum are conserved in both interactions.)
(3)
(Total 5 marks)

39. This question is about the decay of a neutron.

The diagram below illustrates a neutron decaying into a proton by emitting a −-particle.

proton particle X
-particle

particle Y

neutron

State the name of

(a) the force involved in this decay;

...................................................................................................................................
(1)

(b) the particle X;

...................................................................................................................................
(1)

127
 (c) the exchange particle Y involved in the decay.

...................................................................................................................................
(1)
(Total 3 marks)

40. This question is about radioactive decay.

The decay process of a neutron is given by the following equation.

n  p  e  ve

(a) Complete the table below.

particle n p e– ve

baryon number

lepton number

(2)

(b) Baryon number and lepton number are both conserved in this decay process. State one other
property that is conserved.

...................................................................................................................................
(1)
(Total 3 marks)

41. This question is about fundamental interactions.

(a) The Feynman diagram below represents a – decay via the weak interaction process.

The exchange particle in this weak interaction is a virtual particle.

(i) State what is meant by a virtual particle.

.........................................................................................................................

.........................................................................................................................
(1)

(ii) Determine whether the virtual particle in the process represented by the Feynman diagram is
a W+, a W– or a Z0 boson.

.........................................................................................................................
(2)

128
 (b) The order of magnitude of the mass of the W and Z0 bosons is 100 GeV c–2. Estimate the range of
the weak interaction.

...................................................................................................................................

...................................................................................................................................

...................................................................................................................................

...................................................................................................................................
(3)
(Total 6 marks)

42. This question is about a proton.

The proton is made out of three quarks.

(a) Explain why the three quarks in the proton do not violate the Pauli exclusion principle.

...................................................................................................................................
(2)

1
(b) Quarks have spin 2
.Explain how it is possible for the proton to also have spin 12 .

...................................................................................................................................

...................................................................................................................................
(2)
(Total 4 marks)

129
Topic 8: Energy production
1. Degraded energy is energy that is

A. stored in the Earth’s atmosphere.

B. available from non-renewable energy sources.

C. converted into work in a cyclical process.

D. no longer available for the performance of useful work.

2. The Sankey diagram of a fossil-fuelled power station is shown below.

Which of the following best identifies the thermal energy removed by water
and the useful electrical energy output of the station?

Thermal energy removed Useful electrical energy output

A. 2 1
B. 2 3
C. 3 1
D. 1 2

3. World energy resources include coal, nuclear fuel and geothermal energy. Which of the following lists
these resources in order of primary energy use in the world?

A. nuclear, geothermal, coal

B. nuclear, coal, geothermal

C. coal, geothermal, nuclear

D. coal, nuclear, geothermal

4. Which of the following correctly shows a renewable and a non-renewable source of energy?

Renewable Non-renewable
A. oil geothermal
B. wind biofuels
C. ocean waves nuclear
D. natural gas coal

5. Which of the following energy sources results from the solar energy incident on Earth?

A. Nuclear fission B. Wind energy C. Nuclear fusion D. Geothermal energy

6. A coal-fired power station has a power output of P and its efficiency is ε. It burns a mass of coal M every
second. The best estimate of the energy density of the coal used is

M P P
A. PεM B. C. D.
P M M

7. Which of the following fuels has the highest energy density?

A. Coal B. Gas C. Oil D. Uranium

130
8. Which of the following is the best estimate for the overall efficiency of a typical coal power station?

A. 5% B. 30 % C. 60 % D. 90 %

9. The efficiency of a modern natural gas power station is approximately

A. 10 %. B. 50 %. C. 5 %. D. 90 %.

10. The design of a nuclear power station includes an electrical generator. The function of the generator is to
convert

A. nuclear energy to kinetic energy.

B. kinetic energy to thermal energy.

C. thermal energy to electrical energy.

D. kinetic energy to electrical energy.

11. Which of the following correctly describes both the role of the moderator and of the control rods in a
nuclear reactor?

Moderator Control rods

A. slows down the neutrons maintain a constant rate of fission
B. cools down the reactor extract thermal energy
C. cools down the reactor maintain a constant rate of fission
D. slows down the neutrons extract thermal energy

12. Critical mass refers to the amount of fissile material that

A. will allow fission to be sustained.

B. is equivalent to 235 g of uranium.

C. will produce a growing chain reaction.

D. is the minimum mass necessary for fission to take place.

13. In a nuclear power station, uranium is used as the energy source and plutonium-239 is produced.
Which of the following is true?
A. Plutonium-239 is produced by nuclear fusion.
B. A moderator is used to absorb plutonium-239.
C. Control rods are used to slow down plutonium-239.
D. Plutonium-239 can be used as a fuel in another type of nuclear reactor.

14. Which of the following correctly shows the energy change in a photovoltaic cell and in a solar heating
panel?

Photovoltaic cell Solar heating panel

A. solar → electrical solar → thermal
B. electrical → thermal solar → electrical
C. solar → electrical electrical → thermal
D. electrical → thermal solar → thermal

131
15. Water is contained in a tidal basin behind a dam. The water has a depth h at high tide and zero at low tide,
as shown in the diagram.

The gravitational potential energy of the water stored in the basin between a high tide and a low tide is
proportional to

A. h. B. h. C. h2. D. h3.

16. The power per unit length P of an oscillating water column (OWC) is due to the action of a surface wave
of amplitude A. Which of the following correctly relates P and A, and correctly identifies the nature of the
energy of the water column?

Relation between P and A Nature of energy

A. P  A kinetic
B. P  A kinetic and potential
C. P  A2 kinetic
D. P  A2 kinetic and potential

17. A wind turbine produces a power P when the wind speed is v. Assuming that the efficiency of the turbine
is constant, the best estimate for the power produced when the wind speed becomes 2v is

A. 2P. B. 4P. C. 6P. D. 8P.

18. Surface X has a temperature TX and emissivity εx. Surface Y has a temperature TY and emissivity εy. The
two surfaces emit radiation at the same rate.

TX
What is the ratio ?
TY

1 1
4
y y
4
4 x 4   
A. 


 B.   C.  
 D.  X 
y  y 
 x    x   

19. The diagram shows the variation with wavelength of the power per unit wavelength I radiated from an
area of 1 m2 of two different bodies.

Which of the following is a correct comparison of the temperature and of the emissivity of the two
bodies?

Temperature Emissivity
A. same same
B. same different
C. different same
D. different different
132
20. What is the phenomenon that best explains why greenhouse gases absorb infrared radiation?

A. Resonance B. Interference C. Refraction D. Diffraction

21. Greenhouse gases

A. reflect infrared radiation but absorb ultraviolet radiation.

B. reflect ultraviolet radiation but absorb infrared radiation.

C. transmit infrared radiation but absorb ultraviolet radiation.

D. transmit ultraviolet radiation but absorb infrared radiation.

22. The diagram shows an energy balance climate model for a planet.

The intensities of the reflected and radiated radiation are given in terms of the incident intensity I. Which
of the following is the albedo of this planet?

A. 0.15 B. 0.25 C. 0.40 D. 0.60

23. In which of the following places will the albedo be greatest?

A. A forest B. A grassland C. An ocean D. A polar ice cap

24. Large areas of rainforests are cut down and burned every year. The result of these actions is

A. reduced albedo.

B. reduced carbon fixation.

C. increased evaporation rate.

D. increased mass of atmospheric methane.

25. What is the unit of surface heat capacity?

A. J kg–1 K–1 B. J K–1 C. J m–2 K–1 D. J m–3 K–1

26. Most climate scientists agree that the enhanced greenhouse effect is due to

A. cyclical changes of the Earth’s orbit.

B. volcanic activity.

C. the burning of fossil fuels.

D. increased solar activity.

133
 27. The volume of the Pacific Ocean is V and the volume expansivity of seawater is γ. If the average
temperature of the Pacific Ocean increases by ∆T, what would be the fractional increase in volume of the
Pacific Ocean?

V 
A. γV ∆T B. C. γ∆T D.
T T

Short answer questions

28. This question is about fossil fuels.

(a) A Sankey diagram for the generation of electrical energy using fossil fuel as the primary energy
source is shown.

(i) State what is meant by a fuel.

...........................................................................................................................

...........................................................................................................................
(1)

(ii) State two examples of fossil fuels.

1. .......................................................................................................................

2. .......................................................................................................................
(2)

(iii) Explain why fossil fuels are said to be non-renewable.

...........................................................................................................................

...........................................................................................................................

...........................................................................................................................

...........................................................................................................................
(2)

(iv) Use the Sankey diagram to estimate the efficiency of production of electrical energy and
explain your answer.

...........................................................................................................................

...........................................................................................................................

...........................................................................................................................
(2)

134
 (b) Despite the fact that fossil fuels are non-renewable and contribute to atmospheric pollution there is
widespread use of such fuels. Suggest three reasons for this widespread use.

1. ..................................................................................................................................

......................................................................................................................................

2. ..................................................................................................................................

......................................................................................................................................

3. ..................................................................................................................................

......................................................................................................................................
(3)
(Total 10 marks)

29. This question is about fossil fuels and the greenhouse effect.

(a) State two reasons why most of the world’s energy consumption is provided by fossil fuels.

1. ..................................................................................................................................

......................................................................................................................................

2. ..................................................................................................................................

......................................................................................................................................
(2)

(b) A power station has an output power of 500 MW and an overall efficiency of 27 %.
It uses natural gas as a fuel that has an energy density of 56 MJ kg–1.

(i) Define energy density.

...........................................................................................................................

...........................................................................................................................
(1)

(ii) Determine the rate of consumption of natural gas in the power station.

...........................................................................................................................

...........................................................................................................................

...........................................................................................................................
(3)

(c) Outline why the enhanced greenhouse effect may result in an increase in the temperature of the
Earth’s surface.

......................................................................................................................................

......................................................................................................................................

......................................................................................................................................

......................................................................................................................................
(3)

135
 (d) (i) The solar intensity at the position of the Earth is 1380 W m–2. The average albedo of Earth is
0.300. State why an average value of albedo is quoted.

...........................................................................................................................

...........................................................................................................................
(1)

(ii) Show that the average reflected intensity from the Earth is about 100 W m–2.

...........................................................................................................................

...........................................................................................................................

...........................................................................................................................

...........................................................................................................................

...........................................................................................................................

...........................................................................................................................
(4)

(e) One of the expected results of global warming is an increased sea level. The increase in volume ΔV
for a temperature increase ΔT is given by ΔV = γVΔT. Show, using the following data, that the
resulting rise in sea level is about 0.5 m.

Temperature increase = 2.0 °C

Surface area of oceans on Earth = 3.6 × 108 km2
Average ocean depth = 3.0 km
γ = 8.8 × 10–5 K–1

......................................................................................................................................

......................................................................................................................................

......................................................................................................................................

......................................................................................................................................

......................................................................................................................................
(2)
(Total 16 marks)

30. This question is about power production and global warming.

(a) In any cyclical process designed to continuously convert thermal energy to work, some energy is
always degraded. Explain what is meant by degraded energy.

......................................................................................................................................

......................................................................................................................................

......................................................................................................................................
(2)

136
(b) A nuclear power station uses uranium-235 (U-235) as fuel. Outline the

(i) processes and energy changes that occur through which thermal energy is produced.

...........................................................................................................................

...........................................................................................................................

...........................................................................................................................

...........................................................................................................................

...........................................................................................................................
(4)

(ii) role of the heat exchanger of the reactor and the turbine in the generation of electrical
energy.

...........................................................................................................................

...........................................................................................................................

...........................................................................................................................

...........................................................................................................................
(3)

(c) Identify one process in the power station where energy is degraded.

......................................................................................................................................
(1)

(d) The maximum power output of the Drax coal-fired power station in the UK is 4.0 GW. Determine
the minimum mass of pure U-235 that would be required by a nuclear power station to provide the
same maximum annual energy output as the Drax power station.

Energy density of U-235 = 82 TJ kg–1

1 year = 3.2 × 107 s

......................................................................................................................................

......................................................................................................................................

......................................................................................................................................

......................................................................................................................................
(2)

(e) The Drax power station produces an enormous amount of carbon dioxide, a gas classified as a
greenhouse gas. Outline, with reference to the vibrational behaviour of molecules of carbon
dioxide, what is meant by a greenhouse gas.

......................................................................................................................................

......................................................................................................................................

......................................................................................................................................

......................................................................................................................................
(3)

137
 (f) It has been suggested that the production of greenhouse gases by coal-fired power stations has
increased global warming. One piece of evidence to support this suggestion is the increase in
sea-level due to an increase in temperature of the oceans. Over the past 100 years it is suggested
that sea-levels have risen by 6.4 × 10–2 m due to volume expansion.

Using the following data, determine the average rise in temperature in the top levels of the oceans
in the last 100 years.

Mean depth of oceans that is affected by global warming = 4.0 × 102 m

Coefficient of volume expansion of sea water = 5.1 × 10–5 K–1

......................................................................................................................................

......................................................................................................................................

......................................................................................................................................

......................................................................................................................................

......................................................................................................................................
(3)
(Total 18 marks)

31. This question is about solar heating panels.

(a) A village consists of 120 houses. It is proposed that solar panels be used to provide hot water to the
houses.

The following data are available.

average power needed per house to heat water = 3.0 kW

average surface solar intensity = 650 W m–2
efficiency of energy conversion of a solar panel = 18 %

Calculate the minimum surface area of the solar panels required to provide the total power for
water heating.

......................................................................................................................................

......................................................................................................................................

......................................................................................................................................

......................................................................................................................................

......................................................................................................................................
(3)

(b) Suggest two disadvantages of using solar power to provide energy for heating water.

1: ..................................................................................................................................

......................................................................................................................................

2: ..................................................................................................................................

......................................................................................................................................
(2)
(Total 5 marks)

138
32. This question is about a pumped-storage power station.

(a) The diagram, not to scale, shows a pumped-storage power station used for the generation of
electrical energy.

Water stored in the tank is allowed to fall through a pipe to a lake via a turbine. The turbine is
connected to an electrical generator. The pumped-storage ac generator system is reversible so that
water can be pumped from the lake to the tank.

The tank is 50 m deep and has a uniform area of 5.0 ×104 m2. The height from the bottom of the
tank to the turbine is 310 m. The density of water is 1.0 × 103 kg m–3.

(i) Show that the maximum energy that can be delivered to the turbine by the falling water is
about 8 × 1012 J.

...........................................................................................................................

...........................................................................................................................

...........................................................................................................................
(3)

(ii) The flow rate of water in the pipe is 400 m3 s–1. Calculate the power delivered by the falling
water.

...........................................................................................................................

...........................................................................................................................

...........................................................................................................................
(2)

(b) The energy losses in the power station are shown in the following table.

Source of energy loss Percentage loss of energy

friction and turbulence of water in pipe 27
friction in turbine and ac generator 15
electrical heating losses 5

(i) Calculate the overall efficiency of the conversion of the gravitational potential energy of
water in the tank into electrical energy.

...........................................................................................................................

...........................................................................................................................
(1)

139
 (ii) Sketch a Sankey diagram to represent the energy conversion in the power station.

(2)

(c) The electrical power produced at the power station is transmitted by cables to the consumer.

(i) Outline how the energy losses in transmission are minimized.

...........................................................................................................................

...........................................................................................................................

...........................................................................................................................

...........................................................................................................................
(3)

(ii) State one advantage and one disadvantage that a pumped-storage system has compared to a
tidal water storage system.

Advantage: .......................................................................................................

...........................................................................................................................

Disadvantage: ...................................................................................................

...........................................................................................................................
(2)
(Total 13 marks)

33. This question is about wave power.

(a) Outline how the energy of a wave can be converted to electrical energy.

......................................................................................................................................

......................................................................................................................................

......................................................................................................................................
(2)

(b) A wave on the surface of water is assumed to be a square-wave of height 2A, as shown.

The wave has wavelength λ, speed v and has a wavefront of length L. For this wave,
140
 (i) show that the gravitational potential energy EP stored in one wavelength of the wave is given
by

1 2
EP = A λgρL
2

where ρ is the density of the water and g is the acceleration of free fall.

...........................................................................................................................

...........................................................................................................................
(3)

(ii) deduce that the gravitational wave power P per unit length of the wavefront is given by

1 2
P= A vg ρ
2

...........................................................................................................................

...........................................................................................................................

...........................................................................................................................
(2)

(c) The density of sea-water is 1.2 × 103 kg m–3. Using the expression in (b)(ii), estimate the
gravitational power per metre length available in a wave of height 0.60 m.

......................................................................................................................................

......................................................................................................................................

......................................................................................................................................
(2)

(d) In practice a water wave is approximately sinusoidal in cross-section. Outline whether a sine wave
of the same height as in (b) transfers a greater or a smaller amount of power than that derived in
(b)(ii).

......................................................................................................................................

......................................................................................................................................

......................................................................................................................................
(2)
(Total 11 marks)

34. This question is about the energy balance of the Earth.

(a) The intensity of the Sun’s radiation at the position of the Earth is approximately
1400 W m–2.

Suggest why the average power received per unit area of the Earth is 350 W m–2.

......................................................................................................................................

......................................................................................................................................

......................................................................................................................................
(2)
141
(b) The diagram shows a simplified model of the energy balance of the Earth’s surface.

The diagram shows radiation entering or leaving the Earth’s surface only.

The average equilibrium temperature of the Earth’s surface is TE and that of the atmosphere is TA =
242 K.

(i) Using the data from the diagram, state the emissivity of the atmosphere.

...........................................................................................................................
(1)

(ii) Show that the intensity of the radiation radiated by the atmosphere towards the Earth’s
surface is 136 W m–2.

...........................................................................................................................

...........................................................................................................................

...........................................................................................................................
(1)

(iii) By reference to the energy balance of the Earth’s surface, calculate TE.

...........................................................................................................................

...........................................................................................................................

...........................................................................................................................

...........................................................................................................................
(2)

(c) (i) Outline a mechanism by which part of the radiation radiated by the Earth’s surface is
absorbed by greenhouse gases in the atmosphere.

...........................................................................................................................

...........................................................................................................................

...........................................................................................................................

...........................................................................................................................

...........................................................................................................................

...........................................................................................................................
(3)

142
 (ii) Suggest why the incoming solar radiation is not affected by the mechanism you outlined in
(c)(i).

...........................................................................................................................

...........................................................................................................................

...........................................................................................................................

...........................................................................................................................
(2)

(iii) Carbon dioxide (CO2) is a greenhouse gas. State one source and one sink (object that
removes CO2) of this gas.

Source: ..............................................................................................................

Sink: ..................................................................................................................
(2)
(Total 13 marks)

35. This question is about the greenhouse effect.

(a) The graph shows part of the absorption spectrum of nitrogen oxide (N2O) in which the intensity of
absorbed radiation A is plotted against frequency f.

(i) State the region of the electromagnetic spectrum to which the resonant frequency of nitrogen
oxide belongs.

...........................................................................................................................
(1)

(ii) Using your answer to (a)(i), explain why nitrogen oxide is classified as a greenhouse gas.

...........................................................................................................................

...........................................................................................................................

...........................................................................................................................
(2)

143
 (b) Define emissivity and albedo.

Emissivity: ...................................................................................................................

......................................................................................................................................

Albedo: ........................................................................................................................

......................................................................................................................................
(3)

(c) The diagram shows a simple energy balance climate model in which the atmosphere and the
surface of Earth are two bodies each at constant temperature. The surface of the Earth receives
both solar radiation and radiation emitted from the atmosphere. Assume that the Earth’s surface
behaves as a black body.

The following data are available for this model.

average temperature of the atmosphere of Earth = 242 K

emissivity, e of the atmosphere of Earth = 0.720
average albedo, α of the atmosphere of Earth = 0.280
solar intensity at top of atmosphere = 344 W m–2
average temperature of the surface of Earth = 288 K

Use the data to show that the

(i) power radiated per unit area of the atmosphere is 140 W m–2.

...........................................................................................................................

...........................................................................................................................

...........................................................................................................................

...........................................................................................................................

...........................................................................................................................
(2)

(ii) solar power absorbed per unit area at the surface of the Earth is 248 W m–2.

...........................................................................................................................

...........................................................................................................................
(1)

144
 (d) It is hypothesized that, if the production of greenhouse gases were to stay at its present level then
the temperature of the Earth’s atmosphere would eventually rise by 6.0 K.

Calculate the power per unit area that would then be

(i) radiated by the atmosphere.

...........................................................................................................................

...........................................................................................................................
(1)

(ii) absorbed by the Earth’s surface.

...........................................................................................................................

...........................................................................................................................
(1)

(e) Estimate, using your answer to (d)(ii), the increase in temperature of Earth’s surface.

......................................................................................................................................

......................................................................................................................................

......................................................................................................................................

......................................................................................................................................

......................................................................................................................................

......................................................................................................................................
(3)
(Total 14 marks)
36. This question is about wind power.
The maximum theoretical wind power P for air of speed v moving normally through area A
Where ρ is the density of air is given by
 Av3
P
2
(a) (i) Air of density 1.3 kg m–3 and speed of 9.0 m s–1 is incident on a wind turbine having
blades of diameter 15 m. Calculate the maximum wind power incident on the turbine.

.................................................................
.................................................................
.................................................................
. . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . [2]
(ii) State why it is impossible in practice to extract all of the power P in (i) from the air.

.................................................................
. . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . [1]

145
(iii) State two reasons why wind turbines are not placed close to one another.

1. . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .
. ...........................................................
2. . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .
. . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . [2]
(b) A nuclear power station has an output power of 200 MW. It is proposed to replace the
power station with a series of wind turbines each with an energy output of 750 kW.
State and discuss one advantage and one disadvantage such a change might bring if this
proposal was to take place.
Advantage: . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .
.........................................................
.........................................................
Disadvantage: . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .
.........................................................
. . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . [4]

146