FORESTER & - FOREST GUARD

TEST 2 General Studies

1. African sleeping sickness caused by
a. Plasmodium vivax b. Trypanosoma gambiense
c. Entamoeba histolytica d. Plasmodium falciparum
¬ôÀ¢¡¢ì¸¡Å¢ý ¯Èì¸ §¿¡ö ²üÀ¼ ¸¡Ã½õ?
a. À¢Ç¡Š§Á¡ÊÂõ ¨ÅÅ¡ìŠ b. Ê¡¢ôɧº¡§Á¡ §¸õÀ¢ÂýŠ
c. ±ñ¼Á£À¡ ‟¢Š¼¡Ä¢Ê측 d. À¢Ç¡Š§Á¡ÊÂõ À¡øº¢À¡Ãõ

2. Choose correct answer?

I. Longest bone in the human body is the thigh bone it is about 35cm long.
II. The smallest bone is the stapes, inside the ear.
º¡¢Â¡É¨¾ ¸ñ¼È¢¸?
1. ¦¾¡¨¼ ±ÖõÒ Á¢¸ ¿£ÇÁ¡É ±ÖõÒ ¬Ìõ. þÐ 35¦º.Á£ ¿£Çõ ¦¸¡ñ¼Ð
2. Á¢¸ º¢È¢Â ±ÖõÒ ¸¡¾¢ø ¯ûÇ :«í¸ÅÊ" ±ÖõÀ¡Ìõ

a. II only b. I only c. II and I d. All the above

3. Ozone layer found in the upper atmosphere called

a. Troposphere b. Stratosphere
c. Exosphere d. Mesosphere
µ§º¡ý (O3) ¸¡½ôÀÎõ «ÎìÌ?
a. ð§Ã¡ô§À¡ŠÀ¢Â÷ b. ðŠ§Ã𧼡ŠÀ¢Â÷
c. ±ì§…¡ŠÀ¢Â÷ d. Á£§º¡ŠÀ¢Â÷

4. The release of CFC from refrigerators causes, which types of cancer?

a. Liver cancer b. Lungs cancer
c. Blood cancer d. Skin cancer
ÌÇ¢÷º¡¾É ¦ÀðÊ¢ĢÕóÐ ÅÕõ “CFC” Å¡Ô ®¼Ä¢ý ±ó¾ Ũ¸ ÒüÚ §¿¡¨Â ²üÀÎòи¢ÈÐ
a. ¸øÄ£Ãø ÒüÚ§¿¡ö b. ѨãÃø ÒüÚ§¿¡ö
c. þÃò¾ ÒüÚ§¿¡ö d. §¾¡ø ÒüÚ§¿¡ö

5. Choose the wrong one?

a. Jacob schleiden and Theodar schwann - Cell discovery
b. Porter - Endoplasmic reticulum
c. Leuhossck and Henneguy - Centrioles
1

d. Venkataraman - Ribosomes
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¾Åȡɨ¾ ¸ñ¼È¢¸?
a. §ƒì¸ô ŠÄ£¼ý ¾¢§Â¡¼÷ „£Å¡ý - ¦ºø¨Ä ¸ñ¼È¢ó¾Å÷
b. §À¡÷¼÷ - ±ñ§¼¡À¢Ç¡ŠÀ¢ì Å¨Ä À¢ýÉø
c. 渊 ¦ºì ¦‟ýÉ¢¨¸ - ¦ºý𡢧¡ø¸û
d. ¦Åí¸ðáÁý - ¨Ã§À¡§º¡õ¸û
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6. “Dinosaur” derived from

a. Latin b. Greek c. Arabic d. Spain
"¼Â§É¡º÷" ±ýÀÐ ±ó¾ ¦Á¡Æ¢ ¦º¡ø?
a. þÄò¾£ý b. ¸¢§Ãì¸õ c. «§ÃÀ¢ì d. ŠÀ¡É¢‰

7. “Elephas maximus” botanical name for which animals

a. Lion b. Peacock c. Elephant d. Tiger
±Ä¢·À¡Š §Áì…¢ÁŠ ±ýÀÐ ±ó¾ ®Â¢¡¢ý «È¢Å¢Âø ¦ÀÂ÷?
a. º¢í¸õ b. Á¢ø c. ¡¨É d. ÒÄ¢

8. “Adolesceme” is derived from

a. Spain b. Arabic c. Greek d. Latin
"«§¼¡Ä…ýŠ" ±ýÀÐ ±ó¾ ¦Á¡Æ¢ ¦º¡ø?
a. ŠÀ¡É¢‰ b. «§ÃÀ¢Âõ c. ¸¢§Ãì¸õ d. þÄò¾£ý

9. Choose the wrong one?

I. Cretinism - Pituitary gland
II. Adrenaline - Emergency hormone
III. - cell - Glucagon
¾Åȡɨ¾ ¸ñ¼È¢¸?
1. ¸¢¡¢ÊÉ¢…õ - À¢ðä𼡢 ‟¡÷§Á¡ý
2. «ð¡¢Éø ÍÃÀ¢ - «ÅºÃ ‟¡÷§Á¡ý
3. ¦ºø¸û - ÌÙ측ý

a. III only b. I and III c. I only d. None of these

10. (Drogue) – a day herb derived from?

a. Latin b. Greek c. French d. Arabic
Ê§Ã¡ì ±ýÀÐ ±ó¾ ¦Á¡Æ¢ ¦º¡ø
a. þÄò¾£ý b. ¸¢§Ãì¸õ c. À¢¦ÃïÍ d. «§ÃÀ¢Âõ

11. Match the following:

A. Sarcomas - 1. Lymph nodes
B. Lymphomas - 2. Connective tissue
C. Carcinomas - 3. Bone marrow
D. Leukaemia - 4. Lungs
E. Adenomas - 5. Adrenal
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¦À¡Õòи:
A. º¡÷§¸¡Á¡ 1. ¿¢½ ¿£÷ ÓÊîÍ
B. Ä¢õ§À¡Á¡ 2. þ¨½ôÒ¾¢Í
C. ¸¡÷º¢§É¡Á¡ 3. ±ÖõÒ Áˆ¨ƒ
D. Ö째Á¢Â¡ 4. ѨãÃø

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E. «Ê§É¡Á¡ 5. «ð¡¢Éø

A B C D E
a. 2 1 4 3 5
b. 1 2 4 3 5
c. 4 3 5 2 1
d. 2 1 4 5 3

12. “Mycorrhizae” one of the symbionts made up of?

I. Algae II. Fungi III. Roots IV. Stem
V. Bacteria VI. Virus
"¨Á째¡¨Ãº¡" ±ýÈ Üð΢¡¢¸û ±¾É¡ø ¬ÉÐ?
1. À¡º¢¸û 2. â墨 3. §Å÷¸û 4. ¾ñÎ
5. À¡ìË¡¢Â¡ 6. ¨ÅÊ

a. I and V b. VI and I c. II and IV d. III and II

13. “Claviceps purpuria” which type of organism is this?

a. Bacteria b. Virus c. Fungi d. Protozoa
"¸¢Ç¡Å¢Š ¦ºôŠ À÷À÷¡¢Â¡" ±ýÀÐ ±ó¾ Ũ¸¨Â º¡÷ó¾Ð?
a. À¡ìË¡¢Â¡ b. ¨ÅÊ c. â墨 d. ҧá𧼡§º¡Å¡

14. This organism used as disposable diapers because it soaks liquid well
a. Gelidium b. Sargassum c. UIVA d. Sphagnum moss
ÌÆ󨾸ÙìÌ ®Ãò¨¾ ¯È¢ïÍõ ¸¡ø ºð¨¼Â¡¸ ÀÂýÀÎÅÐ ±Ð?
a. ¦ƒÄ¢ÊÂõ b. º÷¸¡…õ c. ¯øÅ¡ d. ŠÀ¡ìÉõ Á¡Š

15. The first successful group of cryptogams to live on the land are -------
a. Bryophytes b. Pteridophytes c. Gymnosperm d. Angiosperms
Ó¾ý ӾĢø ¿¢Äò¾¢ø Å¡Øõ ¾¢È¨Éô¦ÀüÈ âÅ¡ò ¾¡ÅÃí¸û ¡¨Å?
a. À¢¨Ã§Â¡¨Àð b. ¦¼¡¢§¼¡¨Àð c. ƒ¢õ§É¡Š¦À÷õ d. ¬ïº¢§Â¡Š¦À÷õ

16. Russioan botanist, Ivanowsky discovered virus in which year?

É¡¨Å §º÷ó¾ "³Å§É¡Š¸¢" ±ó¾ ¬ñÎ "¨Åè…" ¸ñ¼È¢ó¾¡÷

a. 1982 b. 1881 c. 1981 d. 1892

17. Arrange levels of classification?

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I. Genus II. Species III. Family IV. Order

V. Phylum VI. Class VII. Kingdom
Ũ¸ôÀ¡ðÊý ÀÊ ¿¢¨Ä¸¨Ç Å¡¢¨ºôÀÎòи
1. §À¡¢Éõ 2. º¢üÈ¢Éõ 3. ÌÎõÀõ 4. ШÈ

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5. ¦¾¡Ì¾¢ 6. ÅÌôÒ 7. ¯Ä¸õ

a. VII, VI, V, III, IV, I, II b. V, III, V, IV, I, II, VII

c. VII, V, VI, IV, III, I, II d. VII, II, V, III, V, IV, I

18. “Cyanobacteria” comes under which kingdom

a. Protista b. Fungi c. Monera d. Animalia
"¨ºÂ§É¡ À¡ìË¡¢Â¡" ±ó¾ Ũ¸ôÀ¡ðÊø ¯ûÇÐ
a. ҧáʊ¼¡ b. â墨 c. §Á¡É¢Ã¡ d. Å¢Äí̸û

19. Choose the wrong pair?

I. Mullusca - Snail
II. Echinodermata - Sponges
III. Annelida - Tapeworm
IV. Porifera - Starfish
¾ÅÈ¡É þ¨½¨Â ¸ñ¼È¢¸?
1. ¦ÁøּĢ¸û - ¿ò¨¾
2. Óû§¾¡Ä¢¸û - ¸¼üÀïÍ
3. ŨǾ¨º ÒØ - ¿¡¼¡ôÒØ
4. ШÇԼĢ¸û - ¿ðºò¾¢Ã Á£ý

a. II, IV and I b. II and I c. II and III d. IV, II and III

20. “Before Nucleus” is a meaning for prokaryote referred by which language

a. Latin b. Spanish c. Chinese d. Greek
¬ÃõÀ ¿¢¨Ä ¯ð¸Õ ±ýÈ "ԧ᧸¡¢§Â¡ð¼¡" ±ýÀÐ ±ó¾ Ũ¸ ¦Á¡Æ¢¨Â º¡÷ó¾Ð?
a. þÄò¾£ý b. ŠÀ¡É¢‰ c. º£Éõ d. ¸¢§Ãì¸õ

21. Choose correct one from the following statement?

I. There is no nucleolus in eukaryotic cell
II. Prokaryotic cells has more than one chromosome
III. Cell division occurs in prokaryotic cells
¸£ú¸ñ¼ÅüÈ¢ø º¡¢Â¡É¨¾ ¸ñ¼È¢¸
1. 䧸¡¢§ÂðÎ ¦ºø¸Ç¢ø ¿¢äìÇ¢§Â¡ÄŠ ¸¡½ôÀΞ¢ø¨Ä
2. ҧ᧸¡¢§ÂðÊì ¦ºø¸û ´ýÚìÌ §ÁüÀð¼ ̧á§Á¡§º¡õ¸¨Ç ¦ÀüÚûÇÐ
3. ¦ºø À¢Çò¾ø Ó¨È Ô§Ã¡§¸¡¢§Â¡ðÊì ¦ºø¸Ç¢ø ¸¡½ôÀθ¢ÈÐ

a. I and III b. II only c. III only d. I and II

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22. Choose correct one?

I. Plant cell contains plastids
II. Glycogen is the storage material of plant cells.
III. Lysosomes are found only in the prokaryotic plants cells.

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º¡¢Â¡É¨¾ ¸ñ¼È¢¸?
1. ¾¡Åà ¦ºø¸û ¦ºø ¸½¢¸í¸¨Çô ¦ÀüÚûÇÉ
2. ¾¡Åà ¦ºø¸Ç¢ø ¸¢¨Ç§¸¡ƒý §ºÁ¢ôÒ ¦À¡ÕÇ¡¸ ®ûÇÐ
3. ҧ᧸¡¢§Â¡ðÊì ¾¡ÅÃø¸Ç¢ø ÁðΧÁ ¨Ä§º¡§º¡õ¸û ¸¡½ôÀθ¢ÈÐ

a. III and I b. I only c. III only d. II and I

23. Nucleolus made up of

I. DNA II. Protein III. RNA IV. Fat
¿¢äìÇ¢§Â¡ÄŠ ±¾É¡ø ¬ÉÐ?
1. Ê.±ý.² 2. Òþõ 3. ¬÷.±ý.² 4. ¦¸¡ØôÒ

a. III only b. I and II c. II and III d. III and IV

24. Choose the wrong one?

Chromosomes Shape
I. Acrocentric - Rod shaped
II. Metacentric - J shaped
III. Submetacentric - V shaped
IV. Telocentric - Rod shaped
¾ÅÈ¡É þ¨½¨Â ¸ñ¼È¢¸?
̧á§Á¡§º¡õ ÅÊÅõ
1. «ì§Ã¡ ¦ºñð¡¢ì - §¸¡ø
2. ¦Á𼡠¦ºñð¡¢ì -J
3. ºô¦Á𼡠¦ºñð¡¢ì -V
4. ˧ġ ¦ºñð¡¢ì - §¸¡ø

a. III and IV b. II and IV c. I and IV d. III and II

25. Choose the wrong answer

I. Takes place in Reproductive cells - Amitosis
II. Direct division - Mitosis
III. Indirect cell division - Meiosis
¾Åȡɨ¾ ¸ñ¼È¢¸?
1. þÉô¦ÀÕì¸ ¦ºø¸Ç¢ø ¿¨¼¦ÀÚ¸¢ÈÐ - ²¨Á𼡺¢Š
2. §¿÷Ӹø ÀÌôÒ - ¨Á𼡺¢Š
3. Á¨ÈӸø ÀÌôÒ - Á¢Â¡º¢Š

a. III and I b. II and I c. I only d. III, I and II

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26. Choose wrong one from the following common weeds

I. Chenopodium II. Amaranths III. Fungi IV. Grass
¸£ú¸¡Ïõ ¸¨ÇʸǢø ¦À¡Õ󾡾¨¾ ¸ñ¼È¢¸?
1. ¸¡ðÎ µðŠ 2. «ÁÃ¡ó¾Š 3. â墨 4. Òø

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a. IV and III b. IV only c. III only d. I and III

27. Match the following:

A. Bat - 1. Body setae
B. Earthworm - 2. Thule feet
C. Star fish - 3. Patagium
D. Amoeba - Pseudopodia

¦À¡Õòи?
A. ¦ÅÇÅ¡ø 1. ¯¼Ä º£ð¼¡
B. ÁñÒØ 2. ÌÆ¡ö ¸¡ø¸û
C. ¿ðºò¾¢Ã Á£ý 3. ¦À𼡃¢Âõ
D. «Á£À¡ 4. §À¡Ä¢ì ¸¡ø¸û

A B C D
a. 4 2 1 3
b. 2 4 3 1
c. 3 1 2 4
d. 1 3 2 4

28. What are the functions for melanocytes in skin?

I. It removes waste from our body.
II. Determines skin colour of humans.
III. Helps in hair growth.
§¾¡Ä¢ø ¯ûÇ "¦Á§Ä¡§É¡¨ºðÊý" À½¢¸û?
1. §¾¡Ä¢ø ¸Æ¢× ¦À¡Õ¨Ç ¦ÅÇ¢§ÂüÚ¸¢ÈÐ
2. §¾¡Ä¢ý ¿¢Èò¨¾ ¾£÷Á¡É¢ì¸¢ÈÐ
3. §¾¡Ä¢ø ÓÊ ÅÇ÷žüÌ ÀÂýÀθ¢ÈÐ

a. III only b. I only c. II and I d. II only

29. What is the Ratio between plasma and blood cells present in blood?
þÃò¾ò¾¢ø ®ûÇ "À¢Ç¡ŠÁ¡ (Á) þÃò¾ ¦ºø¸Ç¢ý" Å¢¸¢¾í¸û ¡¨Å?

a. 65:45 b. 45:55 c. 55:45 d. 45:65

30. How many blood platelets, RBC, WBC in blood?

þÃò¾ò¾¢ø ¯ûÇ þÃò¾ ¾ðÎì¸û, º¢ÅôÀÏì¸û, ¦Åû¨ÇÂÏì¸Ç¢ý ±ñ½¢ì¨¸¨Â
¸¡ñ¸?

a. 2,50,000 to 4,50,000, 4 million, 7000 b. 2,00,000 to 4,00,000, 5 million, 8000

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c. 3,00,000 to 7,00,000, 5 million, 8000 d. None of these

31. Choose the correct answer?

I. Erythrocytes - Blood platelets

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II. Leucocytes - RBC
III. Thrombocytes - WBC
º¡¢Â¡É¨¾ ¸ñ¼È¢¸?
1. ±¡¢ò§Ã¡¨ºðŠ - þÃò¾ ¾ðÎì¸û
2. Ä¢ä째¡¨ºðŠ - þÃò¾ º¢ÅôÀÏì¸û
3. òáõ§À¡¨ºðŠ - þÃò¾ ¦Åû¨ÇÂÏì¸û

a. II only b. III only c. I only d. None of the above

32. „Pleura‟ is double wall membrane present in

a. Liver b. Lungs c. Heart d. Kidney
Òéá ±ýÀÐ ±ó¾ ¯ÚôÀ¢ý ¯¨È¡¸ ¯ûÇÐ
a. ¸øÄ£Ãø b. ѨãÃø c. þ¾Âõ d. º¢Ú ¿£Ã¸õ

33. Who discovered “Sperm cells”?

a. Robert Hooke b. Indhowan
c. Anton van leeuwenhoek d. Ivanosky
Å¢óÐ ¦ºø¨Ä ¸ñ¼È¢ó¾Å÷ ¡÷?
a. þáÀ𠃥ì b. ®ó§¾¡Åý
c. ¬ñ¼ý Å¡ý æÅý ‟¥ì d. ³Å§É¡Šì¸¢

34. Among reptiles, which one has a 4 chambered heart

a. Snake b. Crocodile c. Turtles d. Snull
4 þ¾Â «¨È¸¨Ç ¦¸¡ñ¼ °÷ÅÉ ÅÌô¨À º¡÷ó¾ ´§Ã ¯Â¢¡¢Éõ
a. À¡õÒ b. Ó¾¨Ä c. ¬¨Á d. ¿ò¨¾

35. Choose the wrong pair?

I. Ovum cell - Oestrogen
II. Sperm cell - Progesterone
¾Åȡɨ¾ ¸ñ¼È¢¸?
1. «ñ¼ ¦ºø - ­Šð§Ã¡ƒý
2. Å¢óÐ ¦ºø - ÒÊð§Ã¡ƒý

a. I only b. II only c. II and I only d. All the above

36. Match the following:

A. Nitrification - 1. Rhizobium
B. Ammonification - 2. Pseudomonas
7

C. Nitrogen fixation - 3. Nitrobacter

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D. Denitrification - 4. Fungi
¦À¡Õòи:
A. ¨¿ð§Ã𼡾ø 1. ¨Ã§º¡À¢Âõ
B. «õ§Á¡É¢Â¡Å¡¾ø 2. ݧ¼¡§Á¡É¡Š

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C. ¨¿ðÃý ¦ÅÇ¢§ÂÚ¾ø 3. ¨¿ð§Ã¡À¡ì¼÷
D. ¨¿ðÃý ¿¢¨Ä ¿¢Úò¾ôÀξø 4. â墨¸û

A B C D
a. 4 3 2 1
b. 3 4 2 1
c. 2 1 3 4
d. 1 2 4 3
37. Dense growth of algae on the surface of the water and causes death of other organisation living in the
water is called--------?
a. Nitrification b. Eutrophication
c. Pasteurization d. Magnification

¿£¡¢ý §ÁüÀÃôÀ¢ø «¾¢¸ «Ç× ¬ø¸¡ì¸û ÅÇ÷óÐ ¬ìº¢ƒý «Ç¨Å ̨ÈòÐ ¿£÷Å¡ú
¯Â¢¡¢¸û þÈìÌõ ¦ºÂÖìÌ _____ ±ýÚ ¦ÀÂ÷?
a. ¨¿ð§Ã¡À¢§¸ºý b. äð§Ã¡À¢§¸ºý
c. À¡ŠðΧ縺ý d. §Áì§É¡À¢§¸ºý

38. Choose wrong pair?

I. Complex fertilizers - Triple super phosphate
II. Phosphatic fertilizers - Nitro phosphate
III. Nitrogenous fertilizers - Ammonium sulphate
IV. Potassic fertilizers - Potassium Nitrate

¾ÅÈ¡É þ¨½¨Â ¸ñ¼È¢¸?

1. ¸ÄôÒ ¯Ãí¸û - Ê¡¢ôÀ¢û ÝôÀ÷ À¡Š§Àð
2. À¡ŠÀÊ ®Ãí¸û - ¨¿ð§Ã¡ À¡Š§Àð
3. ¨¿ðÃý ®Ãí¸û - «õ§Á¡É¢Âõ ºø§Àð
4. ¦À¡ð¼¡º¢Â ¯Ãí¸û - ¦À¡ð¼¡º¢Âõ ¨¿ð§Ãð

a. IV and I b. II and I c. III, I and IV d. IV, I and II

39. Find out odd one from the following Micro-Nutrients?

I. Phosphorus II. Zine III. Copper IV. Hydrogen

¸£ú¸ñ¼ "¨Áì§Ã¡ ¾É¢Áí¸Ç¢ø" ¦À¡Õ󾡾¨¾ ¸ñ¼È¢¸?

1. À¡ŠÀÊ 2. Ðò¾ ¿¡¸õ 3. ¾¡Á¢Ãõ 4. ¨‟ðÃý

a. I and IV b. IV and II c. III and II d. IV only

40. Find out soil borne disease?

a. Blight of Rice b. Rust of Wheat c. Blast of Rice d. Tikka diseases

Áñ ãÄõ ÀÃ×õ §¿¡ö¸¨Ç ¸ñ¼È¢¸?

a. Å¡¼ø §¿¡ö b. ÐÕ §¿¡ö c. ¦ÅôÒ §¿¡ö d. Ê측 §¿¡ö
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41. Match the following:

A. Weedicides - 1. Dichloro diphenyl trichloro ethane
B. Fungicides - 2. 2, 4 – Dichloro phenoxy acetic acid
C. Insecticide - 3. Bordeaux mixture
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D. Rodenticide - 4. Arsenic

¦À¡Õòи:
A. ¸¡¨Çì ¦¸¡øÄ¢ 1. D.D.T -¨¼Ì§Ç¡§Ã¡ ¨¼À£ýÉø ð¨Ã̧ǡ§Ã¡ ®ò§¾ý
B. âï¨ºì ¦¸¡øÄ¢ 2. 2, 4 ¨¼Ì§Ç¡§Ã¡ À¢É¡ì…¢ ¬º¢ðÊì ¬º¢ð
C. â즸¡øÄ¢ 3. §À¡÷ð¼¡ìŠ ¸Ä¨Å
D. ±Ä¢ì¦¸¡øÄ¢ 4. ¬÷ºÉ¢ì

A B C D
a. 2 3 4 1
b. 3 2 4 1
c. 3 2 1 4
d. 2 3 1 4

42. Who is called as father of white revolution?

a. Norman Borlac b. M.S. Swaminathan
c. Vargis Kurien d. Subramaniam
¦Åñ¨Á ÒÃðº¢Â¢ý ¾ó¨¾ ±ýÚ «¨Æì¸ôÀð¼Å÷ ¡÷?
a. ¿¡÷Áý §À¡÷Ä¡ì b. ±õ.±Š.ÍÅ¡Á¢ ¿¡¾ý
c. Å÷¸¢‰ Ì¡¢Âý d. ÍôÃÁ½¢Âõ

43. Choose wrong pair?

I. Vittamin B12 - Maturation of WBC
II. Vitamin D - Build and maintain bone mass
III. Vitamin B4 - Functioning of enzymes
IV. Protein - Builds and repairs muscles

¦À¡Õ󾡾¨¾ì ¸ñ¼È¢¸?
1. ¨Åð¼Á¢ý B12 - þÃò¾ ¦Åû¨ÇÂÏì¸Ç¢ý Ó¾¢÷
2. ¨Åð¼Á¢ý D - ±ÖõÒ ¸ðÎÁ¡Éõ
3. ¨Áð¼Á¢ý B4 - ¦¿¡¾¢¸Ç¢ý ¦ºÂøÀ¡Î
4. Òþõ - ¾¨º¸Ç¢ý ¸ðÎÁ¡Éõ

a. III and I b. IV and I c. II and I d. II only

44. Choose wrong one from the following statement?

I. India ranks 4th in the World poultry production.
II. Potassium maintains blood pressure.
III. White leghorn is the most high egg yielding breed in the World.
IV. „Brahma‟ is one of the Indian breeds.

¸£ú¸ñ¼ ÜüڸǢø ¾Åȡɨ¾ ¸ñ¼È¢¸?

1. §¸¡Æ¢ ¯üÀò¾¢Â¢ø þó¾¢Â¡ ¯Ä¸ «ÇÅ¢ø ¿¡ý¸¡ÅÐ þ¼ò¾¢ø ¯ûÇÐ
2. ¦À¡ð¼¡º¢Âõ þÃò¾ «Øò¾ò¨¾ ÀáÁ¡¢ì¸¢ÈÐ
3. ¦Åû¨Ç ¦Äì‟¡ý Ũ¸ ®Ä¸¢§Ä§Â Á¢¸ «¾¢¸ Ó𨼸¨Ç ¦¸¡ÎìÌõ
9

4. "ôÃõÁ¡" ±ýÀÐ þó¾¢Â §¸¡Æ¢ þÉí¸Ç¢ý ´ýÚ

Page

a. I and III b. II and IV c. IV and I d. IV only

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45. Choose vitamins not found is egg?

Óð¨¼Â¢ø ¯ûÇ ¨Åð¼Á¢ý¸Ç¢ø ¦À¡Õ󾡨¾ ¸ñ¼È¢¸?

a. Vitamin B6 b. Vitamin D c. Vitamin B12 d. Vitamin B1

46. Choose wrong pair?

I. Bee production - Sericulture
II. Fish production - Apiculture
III. Earthworm - Vermiculture
IV. Silkworm production - Pisciculture

¦À¡Õ󾡾¨¾ ¸ñ¼È¢¸?
1. §¾É£ ÅÇ÷ôÒ - ¦º¡¢ì¸øîº÷
2. Á£ý ÅÇ÷ôÒ - ±À¢ì¸øîº÷
3. ÁñÒØ ÅÇ÷ôÒ - ¦Å÷Á¢ì¸øîº÷
4. ÀðÎÒØ ÅÇ÷ôÒ - À¢º¢ì¸øîº÷

a. I and IV b. III, I and IV c. IV, II and I d. II and IV

47. Which of the following statement is not correct?

1. The cancerous cells are invade to the other areas through blood streams, where they cause
secondary tumors, this stage is called Ado ptosis
2. Normal cells in the body follow on orderly path of growth, division and death. This is called
metastasis

À¢ýÅÕõ ÜüڸǢø ±Ð ¾ÅÚ?

1. ÒüÚ ¦ºø¸û ´÷ þ¼ò¾¢Ä¢ÕóÐ Áü§È¡÷ þ¼ò¾¢üÌ þÃò¾ µð¼õ ãÄÁ¡¸ ÀÃÅ¢ þÃñ¼¡õ
¿¢¨Ä ÒüÚì ¸ðʨÂò §¾¡üÚŢ츢ÈÐ. þ¾¨É «§À¡¼¡º£Š ±ýÀ÷
2. º¡¾¡Ã½Á¡¸ ¦ºø¸û ´÷ ´Øí¸¡É Ó¨È¢ø À¢¡¢óÐ ÅÇ÷óÐ À¢ý þÈ츢ýÈÉ. þîÍÆüº¢
Ó¨ÈìÌ ¦Á𼡊¼¡º¢Š ±ýÚ ¦ÀÂ÷

a. 1 only b. 2 only c. All the above d. None of these.

48. Which one of the following is not correctly matched (cancer types)
1. Sarcoma - connective tissue
2. Lymphoma - immune system
3. Leukemia - bone marrow
4. Adenoma - lung
5. Carcinoma - pituitary gland

À¢ýÅÕÅÉÅüÚû ±Ð ¾ÅÈ¡¸ ¦À¡Õó¾¢ÔûÇÐ (ÒüÚ §¿¡ö Ũ¸¸û)

1. º¡÷§¸¡Á¡ - þ¨½ôÒò ¾¢Íì¸û
2. Ä¢õÀ§À¡Á¡ - §¿¡ö ¾¨¼¸¡ôÒ Áñ¼Äõ
3. Ö째Á¢Â¡ - ±ÖõÒ Áˆ¨ƒ
10

4. «Ê§É¡Á¡ - ѨãÃø
Page

5. ¸¡÷º¢§É¡Á¡ - À¢ðä𼡢 ÍÃôÀ¢

a. 1, 3 b. 3, 4 c. 2, 4 d. 4, 5.

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49. Match the following
1. Pituitary - A. Oestrogen
2. Thyroid - B. Adrenalin
3. Pancreas - C. Growth Hormone
4. Adrenal - D. Thyroxin
5. Ovary - E. Insulin

¦À¡Õòи:
1. À¢ðä𼡢 - A. ­ŠÊ§Ã¡ƒý
2. ¨¾Ã¡öÎ - B. «ð¡¢É¡Ä¢ý
3. ¸¨½Âõ - C. ÅÇ÷ ‟¡÷§Á¡ý
4. «ð¡¢Éø - D. ¨¾Ã¡ì…¢ý
5. «ñ¼îÍÃôÀ¢ - E. þýÍÄ¢ý

1 2 3 4 5
a. A B C D E
b. D E A B C
c. C D E B A
d. E D C B A

50. Which of the following statement is correct recording cockroach

1. Fore wings are elytra and forms a protective covering
2. Hind wing is membranous and is used for flight

¸ÃôÀ¡ý â ÀüȢ À¢ýÅÕõ ÜüڸǢø ±Ð º¡¢?

1. Óý þ¨½ þÈ쨸¡ÉÐ ¾ÊòÐì ¸¡½ôÀÎõ. þÐ ¯¼¨Ä ãÊôÀ¡Ð¸¡ì¸¢ÈÐ
2. À¢ý þ¨½ þÈ쨸¸û ¦Áý¨É¡ÉÐ. þÐ ÀÈôÀ¾üÌ ÀÂýÀθ¢ÈÐ

a. 1 only b. 2 only c. All the above d. None of these.

51. The HCF of 10a2b2c2, 15ab2c3, 20b3c2 is

a. 5a2b2c2 b. 5ab c. 5b2c2 d. 60a2b3c3

52. The HCF of x2 – 6x + 9, x3 – 27 is of

x2 – 6x + 9 x3 – 27 –

a. x + 3 b. x – 3 c. x2 – 9 d. x – 9

53. Find LCM of 6/7, 5/14, 10/21

a. 1/42 b. 30/7 c. 1/36 d. 60/147

54. Which is greater √ √ , 2√ , 6√ ?

a. 2√ d. 6√
11

b. √ c. √
Page

55. LCM of two numbers is 72 and HCF is 12. If one of the number is 24. The other number is
LCM 72 HCF 12 24-

a. 18 b. 30 c. 48 d. 36

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56. The ratio of three numbers is 35:55:77 and their HCF is 24. Then the numbers are

35 : 55 : 77 24

a. 280, 440, 616 b. 840, 1320, 1848 c. 420, 660, 924 d. 105, 165, 231

57. Three numbers are in the ratio 3: 4: 5 and their LCM is 2400. Their HCF is

3:4:5 2400

a. 40 b. 80 c. 120 d. 200

58. The least number which when increased by 1 divisible by 12, 18, 24, 32 is

12, 18, 24, 32 –

a. 288 b. 289 c. 287 d. 279

59. The traffic light at one particular crossing change after every 40 seconds. The traffic light at the next
crossing after every 32 seconds. At a certain time they change together. After what time will they
again change together?

40
32

a. 160 sec b. 80 sec c. 300 sec d. 120 sec

60. The least number, which when divided by 12, 15, 20 and 54 leaves in each case a remainder of 8, is

12, 15, 20 54- 8

a. 504 b. 548 c. 544 d. 536

61. The least number of five digits which is exactly divisible by 7, 9, 11, 15 is
7, 9, 11 15-
12
Page

a. 10395 b. 10935 c. 13070 d. 13470

62. The least perfect square number divisibly by 3, 4, 5, 6 and 8 is

3, 4, 5, 6 8
a. 900 b. 1200 c. 2500 d. 3600
 THE IMPACT IAS ACADEMY
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63. Find the greatest possible length which can be used to measure exactly the lengths 7m, 3m 85cm and
12m 95 cm
7 3 85 12 95

a. 35 cm b. 25cm c. 42cm d. 15 cm

64. The greatest number that will divide 43, 91 and 183 so as to leave the same remainder in each case is

43, 91 183

a. 4 b. 7 c. 9 d. 13

65. The greatest number which can divide 1356, 1868 and 2764 leaving the same remainder 12 in each
case is
1356, 1868 2764
12

a. 164 b. 124 c. 64 d. 260

66. The number of number – pairs lying between 40 and 100 with their HCF as 15 is

15 40 100

a. 5 b. 3 c. 4 d. 6

67. The sum of two numbers is 528 and their HCF is 33. The numbers of pairs of numbers satisfying the
above conditions is
528 33

a. 7 b. 6 c. 5 d. 4

68. The greatest number of four digits which is divisible by 15, 25, 40, 75 is

15, 25, 40 75

a. 9000 b. 9600 c. 9400 d. 9800

13

69. A number which divided by 2, 3, 4, 5 and 6 leaves remainder 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5, it is divisible by 7, then
Page

least possible number is

2, 3, 4, 5 6 1, 2, 3, 4
5 7-

a. 117 b. 119 c. 113 d. 121

 70. The HCF of two numbers is 8, which one of the following can never be their LCM?

a. 24 b. 48 c. 56 d. 60

71. The sum of two numbers is 289 and their HCF is 17. The number of pairs of numbers satisfying the
above condition is?

289 HCF17
?

a. 2 b. 8 c. 4 d. 5

72. The Greatest number which on dividing 40, 45, 53 leaves remainder 5, 3, 4, respectively is

40, 45, 53- 5, 3, 4

?

a. 4 b. 5 c. 6 d. 7

73. The greatest number that will divide 52, 87 and 122 so as to leave the same remainder in each case
is

52, 87 122
,

a. 36 b. 7 c. 35 d. 8

74. The least number which when divided by 20, 34, 48 leaves reminder of 14, 28, 42 respectively. Find
least possible number?

20, 34, 48 14, 28, 42

?

a. 4072 b. 4073 c. 4074 d. 4075

75. The product of two numbers is 7776. And their H.C.F is 18. Then find that number satisfying the
condition
14
Page

7776. . . 18 ,

a. 36, 216 b. 72, 108 c. 54, 144 d. Both (b) & (c)
 76. The Average of 10 numbers‟ is 8, Average of first 5 numbers‟ is 5.5 and that the average of last 4
number‟s is 9.5 Then find the middle number?

10 8 , 5 5.5 4
9.5 .

a. 14.5 b. 6.5 c. 9.5 d. 12.5

77. The Arithmetic Mean of a group of 100 observations was calculated as 73. It was later found that one
observation was wrongly taken as 75 instead of 50. The correct mean is

100 73 . 50
75 . ?

a. 73.25 b. 73.5 c. 72.5 d. 72.75

78. The Sum of 6 numbers is 666. The Average of first two numbers is 85 and the third number is 96.
What is the average of last 2 numbers is?

6 666, 85 96
?

a. 150 b. 200 c. 250 d. 300

79. The Arithmatic mean of 100 numbers was computed as 79.75. It was later found that two numbers
82 and 33 have been misread as 32 and 133 respectively. What is the correct mean of the numbers?

100 79.75 , 82 33
32 133
, ?

a. 79.85 b. 79.25 c. 79.50 d. 80.25

80. The Arithematic mean of 15 numbers is -20. If 5 is added to every number, then the new arithmetic
mean is

15 -20, 5-

a. -5 b. -10 c. -15 d. 10

81. If the mean x, x + 2, x + 4, x + 6, x + 8 is 20 then find the value of x

15
Page

x, x + 2, x + 4, x + 6, x + 8 20 X-

a. 8 b. 16 c. 32 d. 4
 82. The average of a boy‟s marks in 7 subjects is 75. His average in 6 subject other than science is 72.
How many marks did he get in science?

7 75 6
72

a. 75 b. 78 c. 93 d. 90

83. The average of 11 results in 50. If the average of first six results is 49 and that of last six is 52. Find
the sixth result

11 50 6 49 6
52. 62

a. 45 b. 50 c. 56 d. 66

84. The average age of 4 sisters is 7 years. If the age of mother is included, the average is increased by 6
years. The age of the mother is

7 6

a. 37 years b. 34 years c. 33 years d. 28 years

85. The average salary of all workers in the factory Rs.60. the average salary of 12 officers is Rs.400. the
average salary of rest is Rs.56. find the total no.of workers in the factory?

60 12
400. 56

a. 1116 b. 1032 c. 1212 d. 1132

86. The average weight of a group of 25 boys was calculated to be 30kg. It was later discovered that one
weight was misread as 25kg instead of 35kg. Then the correct average is

25 30 35
25

a. 30 kg b. 30.2 kg c. 30.4 kg d. 31 kg
16
Page

87. What is the average of first 10 prime numbers?

10

a. 10 b. 12.5 c. 10.9 d. 12.9

 88. What is the average of squares of the first 20 natural numbers?
20

a. 141.5 b. 143.5 c. 147.5 d. 149.5

89. The average of first 5 numbers in the multiple of 4 is _____?

a. 11 b. 10 c. 12 d. 13

90. The average of 9, 6, 7, 8, 5 and x is 8, then the value of „x‟ is?

9, 6, 7, 8, 5 X- 8 X-

a. 13 b. 12 c. 11 d. 10

91. The average of 5 consecutive odd numbers is 61. Then the difference between the largest and smallest
number is?

5 61

a. 3 b. 5 c. 8 d. 7

92. The arithmetic mean of 10 numbers is -7. If 5 is added to every number, then the new arithmetic
mean is
10 -7. 5-

a. -2 b. 12 c. -7 d. 17

93. In a class of 30 students the average age is 14 years. By the inclusion of the teacher‟s age, the average
age is increased by 1 year. What is the age of the teacher?

30 14

a. 45 b. 50 c. 40 d. 55

94. Five years ago the average age of A, B, C, D was 45 years. By including X the present average of all
the five is 49 years. Then the present age of X is
17
Page

A, B, C, D 45 A, B, C,
D, X 49 X-

a. 64 years b. 40 years c. 48 years d. 45 years

 95. Sum of three consecutive even integer is 54. Find the least among them

54

a. 18 b. 15 c. 14 d. 16

96. The average of 7 consecutive positive integers is 26. The smallest of these integers is:

7 26

a. 21 b. 23 c. 25 d. 28

97. The average of five numbers is 20. If we eliminate one number from it, the average will be reduced
by 5. What is the number eliminated?

5 20 5

a. 5 b. 40 c. 20 d. 15

98. The average age of a husband, his wife and son 3 years ago was 27 years and that of his wife and son
5 years ago was 20 years. What is the husband‟s present age?

27
5 20

a. 50 b. 30 c. 40 d. 45

99. The average of 13, 23, 33, 44, …… 53 is

a. 40 b. 41 c. 43 d. 45

100. The average of 7.5, 3.2, 20.5 and x is 10. The value of x is

7.5, 3.2, 20.5 X- 10 X-

a. 10.5 b. 12.5 c. 8.8 d. 12.8

101. Which commission recommended 27% reservation for backward committee?

a. Sarkaria Commission b. Mandal Commission
c. Kalelkar Commission d. Shah Commission
18
Page

27%
?
a. b.
c. d.
 102. Which schedule of the Indian Constitution specifies the powers, authority and responsibility
of Panchayats?
a. Seventh schedule b. Ninth schedule
c. Eleventh Schedule d. Twelfth schedule

,
?
a. b.
c. d.

103. Consider the following statements:

Assertion(A): Fundamental Duties do not have any legal sanctions
Reason(R): The Fundamental Duties cannot be enforced by courts.
a. Both A and R are true R is explains A
b. Both A and R are true R does not explain A
c. A is true but R is false
d. A is false but R is true

A:
R:
a. A R , R A
b. A R , R A
c. A , R
d. A R

104. Which Article with administrative Tribunals?

a. Article 323 b. Article 323A c. Article 323B d. Article 321

a. 323 b. 323 A c. 323 B d. 321

105. Match the feature of the constitution with the Country from which they have been borrowed:
Feature Country
A. Rule of Law - 1. Ireland
B. Judicial of Review - 2. Australia
C. Idea of concurrent subjects - 3. USA
D. Directive Principle of State Polity - 4. England

:
19

( )
Page

A. - 1.
B. - 2.
C. - 3.
 D. - 4.

A B C D
a. 4 3 2 1
b. 1 2 3 4
c. 2 3 1 4
d. 4 3 1 2

106. Right of Education is given through which of the following Amendment?

a. 86th b. 87th c. 88th d. 89th

107. Which of the following words did not find a place in the preamble of the Constitution of India
as adopted by the Constitution Assembly on 26th Nov 1949?
a. Socialist b. Republic c. Sovereign d. Democracy

1949 26

a. b. c. d.

108. Consider the following statements:

Assertion(A): Enjoyment of rights is conditional on the performance of duties.
Reason(R): The society cannot safeguard the individual‟s interests unless the individual fulfills his
obligations to other.
a. Both A and R are true and R explains A
b. Both A and R are true R does not explain A
c. A is true but R is false
d. A is false but R is true

A:
R: ,

a. A R , R A
b. A R , R A
c. A , R
d. A R

109. The importance of the Constitution (Ninety fifth) Amendment Act 2010 is
20

a. Extend the SCs and STs Reservation bill

Page

b. Newly formed State of Chhattisgarh

c. Reservation for the socially backward
d. Reservation for the educationally backward

95 2010-
 a.
b.
c.
d.

110. Who has the power to appoint the Finance Commission in India?
a. Prime Minister b. President c. Speaker d. Vice President

?
a. b. c. d.

111. Consider the following statement:

I. Period of the members of the Rajya Sabha is 5 years.
II. The Rajya Sabha is not subject to dissolution for any reasons
Which one is/are correct?

, ?
I. 5
II.

a. I only b. II only c. Both I and II d. Neither I nor II

112. Which Country introduced the rule of law for the first time?
a. England b. America c. China d. India

“ ‛ ?
a. b. c. d.

113. Match the following:

A. Article 54 - 1. Appointment of Governor of a State
B. Article 73 - 2. Chief Minister and Council of Minister in a State
C. Article 164 - 3. Election of the President of India
D. Article 155 - 4. Prime Minister and Council of Ministers appointment

:
A. 54 - 1.
B. 73 - 2. ( )

C. 164 - 3.
D. 155 4.
21

- ( )
Page

A B C D
a. 3 4 2 1
b. 3 2 1 4
c. 1 2 4 3
d. 3 2 4 1
 114. Which one of the following powers of the President of India has been wrongly listed?
a. He is the Supreme Commander of the Armed forces of India
b. He makes all the major executive appointments of the Union Government
c. He Presents the budget before the Parliament for its approval
d. He can declare war and make peace

?
a.
b.
c.
.
d.

115. Which Article empowers the President to dissolve the Lok Sabha at any time before its
tenure?
a. Article 85 b. Article 95 c. Article 81 d. Article 75

?
a. 85 b. 95 c. 81 d. 75

116. Who presides over the joint sessions of the Parliament?

a. The President b. The Voice President
c. The Speaker d. The Prime Minister

( ) ?
a. b.
c. d.

117. Which Article of the constitution provides for the imposition of President‟s rule in the States?
a. Article 354 b. Article 355 c. Article 356 d. Article 357

a. 354 b. 355 c. 356 d. 357

118. When the problem of corruption in public service assumed serious dimensions, the
Government of India appointed a high power committee under the Chairmanship of
I. K. Santhanan II. A. Ayyangar III. P.V. Subbiah IV. K. Hanumanthaiya
22
Page

I. . II. . III. . , IV. .

a. II only b. IV only c. I only d. III only

 119. Which article of the Indian Constitution justifies the importance of the Ninth Schedule?
a. Article 31B b. Article 31C c. Article 31D d. Article 33

?
a. 31-B b. 31-C c. 31-D d. 33

120. Which articles deals with the duties and powers of the comptroller and Auditor General of
India?
a. Article 147 b. Article 148 c. Article 150 d. Article 149

?
a. 147 b. 148 c. 150 d. 149

121. The Union Territory of Delhi became known as National Capital Territory of Delhi since
1991 after this amendment
1991-

a. 89th b. 81st c. 74th d. 69th

122. Rajya Sabha members are elected by

a. Directly by people b. By members of State legislatures
c. Local Government institutions d. Only by State upper houses

a. b.
c. d.

123. The 55th Constitutional Amendment Act 1986 provided for the establishment of the State of
a. Goa b. Sikkim
c. Arunachal Pradesh d. Pondicherry

1986- 55-
a. b.
c. d.

124. How many Anglo-Indian Members can the President nominated to the Lok Sabha?
23
Page

a. 5 b. 4 c. 7 d. 2
 125. Lok Sabha consists of _____ members

a. 500 b. 545 c. 550 d. 552

126. Select the false statement from the following:

I. Prime Minister is the head of State and the President is the head of Government
II. Judiciary is the Guardian of Indian Constitution
III. High Courts in States comes under the Jurisdiction of State Government

:
I. ,

II.
III.

a. I and II only b. II and III only c. I and III only d. All the above

127. Which Constitutional Amendment changed the preamble of the constitution of India?
a. 42nd Constitutional Amendment b. 61st Constitutional Amendment
nd
c. 72 Constitutional Amendment d. 74th Constitutional Amendment

?
a. 42-
b. 61-
c. 72-
d. 74-

128. Match the following:

A. Article 370 - 1. Legislative assembly
B. Article 153 - 2. Chief Minister
C. Article 163 - 3. Governor
D. Article 170 - 4. Jammu and Kashmir

:
A. 370 - 1.
B. 153 - 2.
C. 163 - 3.
24

D. 170 - 4.
Page

A B C D
a. 2 1 4 3
b. 3 4 1 2
 c. 1 2 3 4
d. 4 3 2 1

129. Match the following:

A. Lok Sabha - 1. 30 age
B. Rajya Sabha - 2. 21 age
C. President of India - 3. 25 age
D. Panchayat president - 4. 35 age

:
A. - 1. 30
B. - 2. 21
C. - 3. 25
D. - 4. 35

A B C D
a. 3 1 4 2
b. 1 3 4 2
c. 4 2 1 3
d. 2 3 4 1

130. The Minimum Wages Act was enacted in the year?

a. 1946 b. 1947 c. 1948 d. 1949

131. Fundamental duties of the citizens were added in the constitution by the recommendation of:
a. Swaran Singh Committee b. Santhanam Committee
c. Shah Committee d. Mehta Committee

?
a. b.
c. d.

132. The anti-defection law was passed in the year

a. 1955 b. 1965 c. 1975 d. 1985

25
Page

133. What is the chronological order in which the following States of Indian Union were created?
I. Goa II. Uttarkhand III. Jharkhand IV. Chattisgarh

:
 I. II. III. IV.

a. I, IV, II, III b. I, II, III, IV c. I, III, IV, II d. I, III, II, IV

134. Consider the following Statement:

The Supreme Court of India tenders advice to the President of India on matters of Law or fact.
I. On its own initiative
II. If he seeks such an advice
III. Only of the matters relate is the fundamental rights of the citizen
Which of the statement given above is/are correct?

: ?

I.
II.
III.

a. I only b. II only c. III only d. I and II only

135. The Chairman of Public Accounts Committee is appointed by the:

a. The Prime Minister b. Speaker of the Lok Sabha
c. President d. Union Finance Minister

a. b.
c. d.

136. Match the following:

Country Party System
A. China - 1. Two party
B. United States - 2. No party
C. Switzerland - 3. Single party
D. Brunei - 4. Multi party

A. - 1.
B. - 2.
C. 3.
26

-
Page

D. - 4.

A B C D
a. 3 1 4 2
b. 1 3 2 4
 c. 3 4 1 2
d. 3 1 2 4

137. „Economic Justice‟ as one of the objectives of the Indian Constitution has been provided in
a. The preamble and the Fundamental rights
b. The preamble and the Directive principle of state policy
c. The fundamental rights and the Directive principle of State policy
d. Fundamental duties and Directive principle of State Policy

„ ’
?
a.
b.
c.
d.

138. Where was the first municipal Corporation established?

a. Madras b. Bombay c. Calcutta d. Delhi

?
a. b. c. d.

139. Match the following by choosing answer on the basis of formation of each states
A. Kerala - 1. 1975
B. Sikkim - 2. 1966
C. Haryana - 3. 1986
D. Mizoram - 4. 1956

A. - 1. 1975
B. - 2. 1966
C. - 3. 1986
D. - 4. 1956

A B C D
a. 4 3 1 2
b. 4 3 2 1
c. 4 1 2 3
d. 4 1 3 2
27
Page

140. Which of the following is correctly matched?

I. Article 153 - Executive power of the State
II. Article 155 - Qualification for Appointment as Governor
III. Article 161 - Oath or affirmation by the Governor
IV. Article 167 - Duties of Chief Minister Regarding the furnishing of information
with Governor
 ?
I. 153 -

II. 155 -

III. 161 -

IV. 167 -

a. I only b. II only c. III only d. IV only

141. Which of the following statement on Rajya Sabha is not true?

a. It is a continuous chamber
b. It is not subject to dissolution
c. 1/3rd members retire every year
d. Retiring members are eligible for reelection and recombination

?
a.
b.
c. 1/3
d.

142. Which of the following statement is wrong?

I. The Directive principle of State policy are enumerated in part IV of constitution
II. The fundamental rights are enshrined in part III of the constitution
III. The term „secular‟ was added by the 44th Constitutional Amendment Act of 1976
IV. The term „socialist‟ was added by the 42th Amendment of 1976

?
I.
II.
III ‘ ’ 44 1976

IV. ‘ ’ 1976 42

a. III only b. I and II only c. I, II and III d. IV only

28
Page

143. Which house of Indian Parliament can create a new All India service?
a. Lok Sabha b. Rajya Sabha
c. Parliament house d. None of these

?
 a. b.
c. d.

144. Consider the following Statement:

Assertion(A): The secret expenditure is a limitation on the auditing role of the comptroller and
auditor general of India.
Reason(R): The comptroller and auditor general of India is controlled by the executive.
a. Both A and R are individually true and R is the correct explanation of A
b. Both A and R are individually true but R is not a correct explanation of A
c. A is true but R is false
d. A is false but R is true

A:

R:
a. A R , R A
b. A R , R A
c. A , R
d. A R

145. Which of the following is correctly matched?

Constitution Article
I. Fundamental Rights - 12-35
II. Fundamental Duties - 36-51
III. Directive principle of State policy - 51 A
IV. Citizenship - 1 to 4

I. - 12 – 35
II. - 36 – 51
III. - 51 A
IV. - 1 4

a. I only b. II and III only c. III and IV only d. IV only

146. The principle law officer of the Government of India is

a. Advocate General b. CAG
29

c. Attorney General d. Chief Secretary

Page

a. b. CAG
c. d.
 147. During the period of which Indian Prime Minister was there hung Parliament?
a. Jawaharlal Nehru b. Indira Gandhi
c. I.K. Gujral d. Rajiv Gandhi

?
a. b.
c. . . d.

148. The Governor is appointed by

a. Judge b. Prime Minister
c. Chief Minister d. President

a. b.
c. d.

149. How long can a money bill be delayed by the Rajya Sabha?

a. Two months b. Six months c. 30 days d. 14 days

150. Arrange the Prime Ministers of India in chronological order of their term in office:
I. Thiru. Jawaharlai Nehru II. Tmt.Indira Gandhi
III. Thiru. Morarji Desai IV. Thiru.Lal Bahadur Shastri

I. . II.
III. . IV. .

a. I, IV, II, III b. I, II, III, IV c. IV, I, III, II d. II, III, IV, I

151. The word citizen is derived from

a. Greek b. Latin c. Spanish d. Urdu

a. b. c. d.

152. Which of the following States was a Union territory before obtaining its Statehood?
a. Delhi b. Chandigarh c. Goa d. Gujarat
30
Page

?
a. b. c. d.
 153. Match the following:
A. Law Making - 1. Court
B. Judiciary - 2. Impeachment
C. President - 3. No confidence motion
D. Cabinet - 4. Legislature

:
A. - 1.
B. - 2.
C. - 3.
D. - 4.

A B C D
a. 2 3 1 4
b. 4 1 2 3
c. 2 3 4 1
d. 1 2 3 4

154. Who appoints the Comptroller and Auditor General of India?

a. President b. Speaker c. Prime Minister d. Vice President

?
a. b. c. d.

155. The Lok Sabha Secretariat works under the direct supervision of
a. The President of India b. The Prime Minister
c. The Speaker d. The Minister for Parliament

a. b.
c. d.

156. Consider the following Statements:

Assertion(A): The Preamble of Indian Constitution defines the objectives of the Indian Republic.
Reason(R): It embodies the spirit of the Constitution, the determination of the Indian people to build
up a new and independent nation which will ensure the triumph of justice, liberty, equality and
fraternity.
a. Both A and R are true R is explains A
b. Both A and R are true R does not explain A
c. A is true but R is false
31

d. A is false but R is true

Page

A:
 R: .
, ,

a. A R , R A
b. A R , R A
c. A , R
d. A R

157. Consider the following statement:

Assertion(A): Fundamental Rights are not absolute but qualified.
Reason(R): The State can impose restriction on Fundamental Rights.
a. Both A and R are true R is explains A
b. Both A and R are true R does not explain A
c. A is true but R is false
d. A is false but R is true

A:
R:
a. A R , R A
b. A R , R A
c. A , R
d. A R

158. Which of the following statements about Deputy Speakers is true?

I. He is not sub-ordinate to the speaker
II. He is sub-ordinate to the Speaker
III. He is not directly responsible to the House.
IV. The same process of removal applicable to both Speaker and Deputy Speaker.

?
I.
II.
III.
IV.
.

a. I and II only b. II and III only c. III and IV only d. I and IV only

159. How many members are elected from Tamil Nadu to Rajya Sabha?
32
Page

a. 16 b. 18 c. 19 d. 21
 160. When the office of Cabinet Secretary was created in India?
?

a. 1950 b. 1952 c. 1953 d. 1955

161. Which word was inserted to the preamble in 1976?

a. Democratic b. Secular c. Sovereign d. Republic

1976- ?

a. b.
c. d.

162. Who called the preamble as the “Identity Card of the Constitution”?
a. Dr.B.R. Ambedkar b. N.A. Palkhivala
c. Ram Manohar d. Jaya Prakash Narayan

?
a. . . . b. . .

c. d.

163. Which of the following statement feature of the Indian Constitution is true?
I. It has Universal Adult Franchise
II. It provides Double Citizenship
III. It provides social equality
IV. It is more rigid than flexible

?
I.
II.
III.
IV.

a. I and IV only b. II and III only c. I and III only d. II and IV only

164. The Chairperson of the Public Service Commission jointly setup by Two or more States is
appointed by
a. Government of the biggest States b. The President of India
c. Chief Secretary of the biggest State d. Chief Minister of the biggest State
33
Page

,
a. b.
c. d.
 165. Consider the following statements:
I. In case of dispute, over a bill the constitution provides for a Joint Sitting of the Lok Sabha and the
Rajya Sabha for solving the dispute.
II. There is no constitutional provision like Joint Sitting of the State Assembly and the State Council
if there is a dispute between them over a bill.
a. Both the statement is correct
b. Statement I is correct but statement II is incorrect
c. Statement I is incorrect but statement II is correct
d. Both the statement is incorrect

I. , ,

II.

a.
b. I II
c. I II
d.

166. Consider the following statements:

I. There are 25 High Courts in India
II. Punjab, Haryana and the Union Territory of Chandigarh have a common High Court.
III. National capital Territory of Delhi has a High Court of its own.
Choose the correct statement?

I. 25
II. ,

III.
?

a. II and III only b. I and II only c. I, II and III d. III only

167. Consider the following statements about the Attorney-General of India

34

I. He is appointed by the President of India

Page

II. He must have the same qualification as are required for a judge of the Supreme Court
III. He must be a member of either house of parliament
IV. He can be removed by impeachment by parliament
 I.
II.
III.
IV.
?

a. I and II only b. I and III only c. II, III and IV only d. III and IV only

168. The Parliament consists of

a. Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha
b. The President, Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha
c. Lok Sabha, Council of Ministers and Rajya Sabha
d. Lok Sabha, Rajya Sabha and Vice President

a.
b. ,
c. ,
d. ,

169. Who is the real executive in a State?

a. Governor b. The Speaker
c. The Chief Minister d. The Chief Minister and the Council of Ministers

?
a. b.
c. d.

170. Comptroller and Auditor General is appointed by the

a. President b. Vice-President
c. Rajya Sabha d. Lok Sabha

a. b.
c. d.

171. Which one of the following statement about Comptroller and Auditors General of India is not
correct?
a. He has no direct access to the parliament and no minister can represent him
35

b. He salary and emoluments are chargeable on the consolidated fund of India

Page

c. He can disallow any expenditure which in his opinion violates the constitution
d. He has been debarred from holding any office of profit under the union or State government after
his retirement
 THE IMPACT IAS ACADEMY
CHENNAI / HOSUR / BANGALORE

a.

b.

c.

d. ,

172. Who decides whether A bill is a Money bill or not?

a. Speaker b. The Finance Minister
c. Finance Secretary d. President

?
a. b.
c. d.

173. Which of the following are/is stated in the Constitution of India?

I. The President shall not be a member of either houses of Parliament.
II. The Parliament shall consist of the President and two houses.
Choose the correct answer from the codes given below:

?
I.
II. .

a. Neither I nor II b. Both c. I only d. II only

174. Who among the following become the Prime Minister of India without being earlier the Chief
Minister of a State?
I. Moraji Desai II. Charan Singh III. V.P. Singh IV. Chandra Sekar
Select the correct answer from the codes given below:

?
I. II. III. . . IV.
36

:
Page

a. I, II and IV b. I, II and III c. II only d. IV only

175. The Vice President of India is elected by

I. The members of Lok Sabha
 II. The members of Rajya Sabha
Out of these

I.
II.

a. Neither I nor II b. Both c. I only d. II only

176. Match the following:

A. Deputy Chairman of the Rajya Sabhya - 1. Appointed by the President
B. Speaker of the Lok Sabha - 2. Appointed by the Lok Sabha
C. Chairman of Public Accounts Committee - 3. Elected by the Lok Sabha
D. Chief Election Commissioner - 4. Elected by the Rajya Sabha

:
A. - 1.
B. - 2.
C. - 3.
D. - 4.

A B C D
a. 4 3 2 1
b. 2 3 4 1
c. 3 2 1 4
d. 1 3 2 4

177. Who said that, “Prime Minister is the captain of the ship of the State”?
a. Munro b. Ramsay Muir c. Jannings d. H.J.Laski

“ ‛ ?
a. b. c. d. H.J.

178. Consider the following statements:

Assertion(A): India is a Republic Polity.
Reason (R): India shall have no hereditary ruler and the people shall elect their Government.
Now select your answer according to the coding scheme given below:
a. Both A and R are true R is explains A
b. Both A and R are true R does not explain A
37

c. A is true but R is false

Page

d. A is false but R is true

:
 :

a. A R , R A
b. A R , R A
c. A , R
d. A R

179. Zero hour is the innovation in the parliamentary procedure of

a. UK b. USA
c. India d. France

_____
a. b.
c. d.

180. Match the following:

A. Right to equality - 1. Article 23 – Article 24
B. Right to freedom - 2. Article 19 – Article 22
C. Right against exploitation - 3. Article 25 – Article 28
D. Right to freedom of religion - 4. Article 14 – Article 18

:
A. - 1. 23 – 24
B. - 2. 19 – 22
C. - 3. 25 – 28
D. - 4. 14 – 18

A B C D
a. 4 2 1 3
b. 4 2 3 1
c. 1 2 3 4
d. 4 3 2 1

181. Choose the correct answer from the following statements:

I. Indian President is an elected Head.
II. He is liable to impeachment
III. His powers are par with the President of the USA.

I.
38

II.
Page

III.

a. I is correct b. I and II are correct

c. II is correct d. III is correct
 182. Which of the following is correctly matched?
I. Eleventh Schedule - Specifies the powers, authority and responsibility of municipalities.
II. Twelveth Schedule - Specifies the powers, authority and responsibilities of Panchayats
III. Second Schedule - Names of the States and their territorial jurisdiction
IV. Eighth Schedule - Language recognized by the constitution

?
I. -

II. -

III. -

IV. -

a. I only b. II only c. III only d. IV only

183. In which case held in the Supreme Court was the „Basic Structures‟ created?
a. Kesavananda Bharati Case b. Golaknath Case
c. Minarva Mills Case d. Life insurance corporation of India Case

‚ ‛
?
a. b.
c. d.

184. Match the following:

A. The President - 1. First Citizen of India
B. The Chief Minister - 2. Appointed by the Governor
C. Supreme Court - 3. Guardian of our constitution
D. National Symbol - 4. Unique identification

:
A. - 1.
B. - 2.
C. - 3.
D. - 4.

A B C D
a. 1 2 3 4
b. 1 4 3 2
39

c. 3 2 4 1
Page

d. 2 1 4 3

185. Which of the following would be called a Secular State?

a. The State which is antireligious
b. The State which is irreligious
 c. The State which declares all the religious as state religion
d. The State which has no religion of its own and all persons shall equally entitled freedom of
conscience and right freely to profess, practices and propagate religion

?
a.
b.
c.
d. ,
,

186. Ram Nath Kovind took office as the ____th president?

?

a. 15 b. 13 c. 14 d. 16

187. Who is called as the father of local Government in India?

a. Lord Lee b. Lord Ripon c. Lord MaCaulay d. Lord Atlee

?
a. b. c. d.

188. The 44th Constitutional Amendment Act, 1978 relating to the declaration of national
emergency requires the President of India to Act in according with the
a. Collective advice of the entire Council of Ministers
b. Advice of the union cabinet
c. Advice of the attorney general of India
d. Advice of the Supreme Court

44 1978-
?
a.
b.
c.
d.

189. Match the following:

A. Part II of the Constitution - 1. Directive Principle of State Policy
B. Part IV of the Constitution - 2. State Governments
40

C. Part VI of the Constitution - 3. Amendment

Page

D. Part XX of the Constitution - 4. Citizenship

:
A. II - 1.
 B. IV - 2.
C. VI - 3.
D. XX - 4.

A B C D
a. 4 1 2 3
b. 4 1 3 2
c. 1 4 2 3
d. 2 1 4 3

190. Match the following:

A. 24th Amendment - 1. Abolition of Right to property
B. 42nd Amendment - 2. Anti-detection law
C. 44th Amendment - 3. Fundamental duties
D. 52nd Amendment - 4. Supremacy of parliament over fundamental right

:
A. 24 - 1.
B. 42 - 2.
C. 44 - 3.
D. 52 - 4.

A B C D
a. 4 3 2 1
b. 3 4 2 1
c. 4 3 1 2
d. 1 4 3 2

191. A new all India service can be created by

a. An amendment of the constitution
b. An executive order
c. Passing a resolution under Article 312 of the constitution by the Rajya Sabha
d. An order of Cabinet committee on appointments

?
a.
b.
c. 312-
41

d.
Page

192. Which one of the following shall not be considered an adequate ground for the issue of
Proclamation of national emergency?
a. War b. External aggression
c. Armed rebellion d. Internal disturbance
 a. b.
c. d.

193. By which of the following amendments, the Indian President is bound to Act according to the
advice tendered to him by the council of Ministers?
a. 42nd Amendment b. 44th Amendment
th
c. 45 Amendment d. 46th Amendment

,
?
a. 42 b. 44
c. 45 d. 46

194. In a democracy a civil servant must be committed to the:

I. Goals of the constitution
II. Common good
III. Ruling party ideology
IV. Execution of public policies

, :
I.
II.
III.
IV.
:

a. I, III and IV b. II, III and IV c. I, II and III d. I, II and IV

195. In which of the following, council of states has equal powers with the house of people?
a. In the matter of creating new All India Service
b. In amending the constitution
c. In the removal of the government
d. In marking cut motions

?
a.
42

b.
Page

c.
d.
 196. Which of the following is/are not the function of the department of personal and
administrative reforms?
I. Advise the Government on policy matters
II. Provides management consultancy services to public organization
III. Impacts management education and disseminate information
IV. Supervises the various administrative department

/
?
I.
II.
III.
IV.

a. I, II and III b. II and III c. IV only d. III only

197. If the president of India exercises his power as provided under Article 356 of the constitution
in respect of a particular State, then
a. The assembly of the State is automatically dissolved
b. Article 19 is automatically suspended
c. Parliament assumes the power to legislate on the subjects in the State list
d. Governor of that State assumes the power to legislate on the subjects in the State list

356
?
a.
b. 19
c.

d.

198. Which of the following statement is/are incorrect?

I. Appleby committee was appointed in the year 1953
II. Indian institute of Public Administration was started after the recommendation made by A.D.
Gorwala
III. N. Gopalsamy Ayyangar Committee recommended the creation of an organisation and methods
division in the Government.
IV. Ashok Chandra Committee submitted a report on the efficient conduct of State Enterprises.
43

/ ?
Page

I. 1953
II. .

III. .
 IV.

a. I and II b. I and III c. II and IV d. II and III

199. Who was the Chairman of the language commission in 1955?

a. Sir.B.G.Kher b. Kothari c. Mudaliar d. Balwantrai Mehta

1955 ?
a. . . . b. c. d.

200. Which part of the constitution of India say about the Election Commission?
a. Part III b. Part XV c. Part XX d. Part XXII

?
a. III b. XV c. XX d. XXII
44
Page