JEE SHIKHAR TEST # 08

(Main)
This booklet contains 14 printed pages

XII/Dropper-
SUBJECT : PHYSICS, CHEMISTRY & MATHEMATICS
ALL
Do not open this Test Booklet until you are asked to do so.
11.06.2023
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3. The Test is of 3 hours duration.
4. The Test Booklet consists of 90 questions. The maximum marks are 300.
5. There are three parts in the question paper A, B & C consisting of Physics, Chemistry & Mathematics having
30 questions of equal weightage. Each question is allotted 4 (four) marks for correct response.
Section 1 contains 20 multiple choice questions. Each question has four choices (A), (B), (C) and (D) out of which
ONLY ONE Option is correct. All questions are compulsory.
Section 2 contains 10 integer type questions, out of which 5 questions are compulsory.
6. Candidates will be awarded marks as stated above in instruction No. 5 for correct response of each question. 1/4 (one
fourth) marks will be deducted for indicating incorrect response of each question. No deduction from the total score
will be made if no response is indicated for an item in the answer sheet.
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 PHYSICS 4. Given below are two statements : one is labelled as
SECTION-A Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R.
1. A block of 3 kg is attached to a string whose Assertion A : The nuclear density of nuclides
other end is attached to the wall. An unknown force
10 6 56 20 209
F is applied so that the string makes an angle of 30° 5 B, 3 Li, 26 Fe, 10 Ne and 83 Bi can be arranged

with the wall. The tension T is :

–2
as N N N N N
Bi  Fe  Ne  B  Li .
(Given g = 10 ms )
Reason R : The radius R of nucleus is related to its

mass number A as R = R0 A1/3, where R0 is a

constant.

In the light of the above statement, choose the

correct answer from the options given below :

(1) 20 N (2) 25 N (1) Both A and R are true and R is the correct
(3) 10 N (4) 15 N explanation of A

(2) A is false but R is true

(3) A is true but R is false

(4) Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct

explanation of A
2. A flask contains hydrogen and oxygen in the ratio
of 2 : 1 by mass at temperature 27°C. The ratio of
average kinetic energy per molecule of hydrogen
and oxygen respectively is : 5 For an object placed at a distance 2.4 m from a
(1) 2 : 1 (2) 1 : 1 lens, a sharp focused image is observed on a
(3) 1 : 4 (4) 4 : 1 screen placed at a distance 12 cm from the lens.
A glass plate of refractive index 1.5 and
thickness 1 cm is introduced between lens and
3. The equivalent resistance between A and B is …… screen such that the glass plate plane faces
parallel to the screen. By what distance should
the object be shifted so that a sharp focused
image is observed again on the screen?
(A) 0.8 m

(B) 3.2 m
2 1
(1)  (2)  (C) 1.2 m
3 2
3 1 (D) 5.6 m
(3)  (4) 
2 3

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6. The output Y for the inputs A and B of circuit is 9. As shown in the figure, a current of 2A flowing in
given by
an equilateral triangle of side 4 3 cm . The
magnetic field at the centroid O of the triangle is :

Truth table of the shown circuit is :

A B Y A B Y (Neglect the effect of earth’s magnetic field.)
0 0 1 0 0 1
(1) 0 1 1 (2) 0 1 0
(1) 4 3  104 T (2) 4 3  105 T
1 0 1 1 0 0
1 1 0 1 1 1
(3) 3  104 T (4) 3 3  10 5 T
A B Y A B Y
0 0 0 0 0 0
(3) 0 1 1 (4) 0 1 1
1 0 1 1 0 1
1 1 1 1 1 0 10. In the given circuit, rms value of current (Irms)
through the resistor R is :

7. A vehicle travels 4 km with speed of 3 km/h and

another 4 km with speed of 5 km/h, then its average
speed is :
(1) 4.25 km/h (2) 3.50 km/h
(3) 4.00 km/h (4) 3.75 km/h

(1) 2A

8. As shown in the figure, a point charge Q is placed 1

(2) A
2
at the centre of conducting spherical shell of inner
radius a and outer radius b. The electric field due to (3) 20 A
charge Q in three different regions I, II and III is (4) 2 2A
given by : (I : r < a, II : a < r < b, III : r > b)

11. A machine gun of mass 10 kg fires 20 g bullets at

the rate of 180 bullets per minute with a speed of
100 m s–1 each. The recoil velocity of the gun is :
(1) 0.02 m/s
(2) 2.5 m/s
(1) EI = 0, EII = 0, EIII  0
(3) 1.5 m/s
(2) EI  0, EII = 0, EIII  0
(4) 0.6 m/s
(3) EI  0, EII = 0, EIII = 0
(4) EI = 0, EII = 0, EIII = 0

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12. Sound travels in a mixture of two moles of (1) 2 (2)
2
helium and n moles of hydrogen. If rms speed
of gas molecules in the mixture is 2 times 1
(3) 2 (4)
the speed of sound, then the value of n will be 2

(A) 1

15. An electron accelerated through a potential

(B) 2
difference V1 has a de-Broglie wavelength of .
(C) 3 When the potential is changed to V2, its de-Broglie
V 
(D) 4 wavelength increases by 50%. The value of  1 
 V2 
is equal to :

(1) 3
13. Match List I with List II.
List I List II 9
(2)
A Torque I. kg m–1 s–2 4
B Energy density II. kg ms–1 3
–2 –2 (3)
C Pressure gradient III. kg m s 2
D Impulse IV. kg m2 s–2
Choose the correct answer from the options given (4) 4
below :

(1) A-IV, B-III, C-I, D-II

16. The maximum error in the measurement of

(2) A-I, B-IV, C-III, D-II
resistance, current and time for which current
(3) A-IV, B-I, C-II, D-III flows in an electrical circuit are 1%, 2% and 3%
respectively. The maximum percentage error in
(4) A-IV, B-I, C-III, D-II the detection of the dissipated heat will be:
(A) 2

(B) 4

14. For a simple harmonic motion in a mass spring (C) 6

system shown, the surface is frictionless. When the
mass of the block is 1 kg, the angular frequency is (D) 8
1. When the mass block is 2 kg the angular
frequency is 2. The ratio 2/1 is :

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17. A current carrying rectangular loop PQRS is made 20. A point source of 100 W emits light with 5%
of uniform wire. The length PR = QS = 5 cm and efficiency. At a distance of 5 m from the source, the
PQ = RS = 100 cm. If ammeter current reading intensity produced by the electric field component
changes from I to 2I, the ratio of magnetic forces is :
per unit length on the wire PQ due to wire RS in the 1 W 1 W
(1) (2)
I 2I 2 m 2 40  m 2
two cases respectively f PQ : f PQ is :
1 W 1 W
(3) (4)
10 m2 20  m 2
O

SECTION – B:
(One Integer Value Correct Type)
(1) 1 : 2 (2) 1 : 4
This section contains 10 questions, out of which
(3) 1 : 5 (4) 1 : 3
5 question are compulsory. Each question, when
worked out will result in one integer from 0 to 9
(both inclusive).
18. A force is applied to a steel wire ‘A’, rigidly
clamped at one end. As a result elongation in the 0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9
wire is 0.2 mm. If same force is applied to another A B C D AB AC AD BC BD CD
steel wire ‘B’ of double the length and a diameter
2.4 times that of the wire ‘A’, the elongation in the
21. A faulty thermometer reads 5°C in melting ice and
wire ‘B’ will be (wires having uniform circular
95°C in steam. The correct temperature on absolute
cross sections)
scale will be………. K when the faulty
(1) 6.06 × 10–2 mm thermometer reads 41°C.
(2) 2.77 × 10–2 mm
22. If the potential difference between B and D is zero,
(3) 3.0 × 10–2 mm 1
–2 the value of x is  . The value of n is ……..
(4) 6.9 × 10 mm n

19. An object is allowed to fall from a height R above

the earth, where R is the radius of earth. Its velocity
when it strikes the earth’s surface, ignoring air
resistance, will be :

(1) 2 gR (2) gR

gR 23. The velocity of a particle executing SHM varies

(3) (4) 2gR
2 with displacement (x) as 4v2 = 50 – x2. The time
O x
period of oscillations is s. The value of x is
7
 22 
………  Take   
 7 
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24. In a Young’s double slit experiment, the intensities 28. In an ac generator, a rectangular coil of 100 turns
 each having area 14 × 10–2 m2 is rotated at
at two points, for the path difference and
4
360 rev/min about an axis perpendicular to a

( being the wavelength of light used) are
3 uniform magnetic field of magnitude 3.0 T. The
I1 and I2 respectively. If I0 denotes the intensity maximum value of the emf produced will be
produced by each one of the individual slits, then
I1  I2 ________ V.
 .......
I0

 22 
 Take   
 7 
25. Magnetic flux (in weber) in a closed circuit of
29. A stone tied to 180 cm long string at its end is
resistance 20 Ω varies with time t(s) as
φ = 8t2 – 9t + 5. The magnitude of the induced making 28 revolutions in horizontal circle in every
current at t = 0.25 s will be ______ mA
minute. The magnitude of acceleration of stone is

1936
ms 2 . The value of x ________.
x

26. A body of mass 2 kg is initially at rest. It starts

moving unidirectionally under the influence of a
source of constant power P. Its displacement in 4s  22 
 Take   
1 2  7 
is  P m. The value of  will be …… 30. A uniform disc of mass 0.5 kg and radius r is
3
projected with velocity 18 m/s at t = 0 s on a rough

horizontal surface. It starts off with a purely sliding

27. As shown in figure, a cuboid lies in a region with motion at t = 0 s. After 2s it acquires a purely

electric field E  2x 2 i  4yj  6kˆ N/C. The rolling motion (see figure). The total kinetic energy
magnitude of charge within the cuboid is n 0 C . of the disc after 2s will be ________ J
The value of n is _______ (if dimension of cuboid (given, coefficient of friction is 0.3 and
is 1 × 2 × 3 m3)
g = 10 m/s2).

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 CHEMISTRY 34. Decreasing order towards SN1 reaction for the
following compounds is:
SECTION-A
31. Which of the following reaction is correct ?

(1) 2LiNO3 
 2LiNO2  O2

(2) 4LiNO3 
 2Li2 O  2N 2 O 4  O2

(3) 4LiNO3 
 2Li 2 O  4NO2  O2

(1) a > c > d > b (2) a > b > c > d
(4) 2LiNO3 
 2Li  2NO2  O2
(3) b > d > c > a (4) d > b > c > a

32. The most stable carbocation for the following is:

NH2 NH2 NH2
CH3 CH3
NH2
+ +
35.
+
+ Br Br
(a) (b) (c) (d) NO2
(X) (Y)
(1) c (2) d
(3) b (4) a In the above conversion of compound (X) to
product (Y), the sequence of reagents to be used
will be:
(1) (i) Br2, Fe (ii) Fe, H+ (iii) LiAlH4
(2) (i) Br2(aq) (ii) LiAlH4 (iii) H3O+
33. The correct order of pKa values for the following
(3) (i) Fe, H+ (ii) Br2(aq) (iii) HNO2 (iv) CuBr
compounds is:
(4) (i) Fe, H+ (ii) Br2(aq) (iii) HNO2 (iv) H3PO2
OH OH OH OH

N NO2
(a) (b) (c) (d)
36. Maximum number of electrons that can be
(1) c > a > d > b
accommodated in shell with n = 4 are:
(2) b > d > a > c
(3) b > a > d > c (1) 16 (2) 32

(4) a > b > c > d (3) 50 (4) 72

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37. Match List I with List II: 40. Chlorides of which metal are soluble in organic

List I List II solvents:

(Complexes) (Hybridisation) (1) Ca
(A) [Ni(CO)4] I sp3
(2) Mg
(B) [Cu(NH3)4]2+ II dsp2
(3) K
(C) [Fe(NH3)6]2+ III sp3d2
(4) Be
(D) [Fe(H2O)6]2+ IV d2sp3

(1) A – II, B – I, C – III, D – IV

(2) A – I, B – II, C – III, D – IV 41.
(3) A – II, B – I, C – IV, D – III
(4) A – I, B – II, C – IV, D – III
Bonding in which of the following diatomic
molecule(s) become(s) stronger, on the basis of
MO Theory, by removal of an electron ?
(A) NO (B) N2

(C) O2 (D) C2

38. The Cl – Co – Cl bond angle values in a (E) B2

fac-[Co(NH 3 ) 3 Cl 3 ] complex is/are: Choose the most appropriate answer from the
(1) 90° & 180° (2) 90° options given below :-

(3) 180° (4) 90° & 120° (1) (A), (B), (C) only (2) (B), (C), (E) only

(3) (A), (C) only (4) (D) only

39. Given below are two statements: One is labelled as

Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R.
O
Assertion A : can be easily reduced
OH
42. The wave function () of 2s is given by
using Zn-Hg/ HCl to
1/2
1  1   r   r /2a 0
Reason R : Zn-Hg/HCl is used to reduce carbonyl  2s    2 e
2 2  a 0   a0 
group to –CH2 – group.
At r = r0, radial node is formed. Thus, r0 in terms of
In the light of the above statements, choose the
a0
correct answer from the options given below:
(1) A is false but R is true (1) r0 = a0

(2) A is true but R is false (2) r0 = 4a0

(3) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct a0
(3) r0 
explanation of A 2
(4) Both A and R are true and R is the correct (4) r0 = 2a0
explanation of A

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43. KMnO4 oxidises I– in acidic and neutral/faintly 47. Boric acid in solid, whereas BF3 is gas at room
alkaline solution, respectively to temperature because of
(1) I2 & IO3 (2) IO3 & I2 (1) Strong ionic bond in Boric acid
(2) Strong van der Waal’s interaction in Boric acid
(3) IO3 & IO3 (4) I2 & I2
(3) Strong hydrogen bond in Boric acid
(4) Strong covalent bond in BF3

44. Bond dissociation energy of E–H bond of the

“H2E” hydrides of group 16 elements (given
below), follows order.
48. OH OH
(A) O (B) S
(C) Se (D) Te
(1) A > B > C > D (2) A > B > D > C Br
(Major product)
(3) B > A > C > D (4) D > C > B > A
The given reaction can occur in the presence of
45. White precipitate of AgCl dissolves in aqueous
(a) Bromine water (b) Br2 in CS2, 273 K
ammonia solution due to formation of :
(c) Br2/FeBr3 (d) Br2 in CHCl3, 273 K
(A) [Ag(NH3)4]Cl2

(B) [Ag(Cl)2(NH3)2 ] Choose the correct answer from the options given
below
(C) [Ag(NH3)2]Cl (1) (a) and (c) only (2) (a), (b) and (d) only
(3) (b) and (d) only (4) (b), (c) and (d) only
(D) [Ag(NH3)Cl]Cl

46. Match List I with List II: 49. Formulae for Nessler’s reagent is:
(1) KHg2I2 (2) KHgI3
List II
(3) K2HgI4 (4) HgI2
List I (Mixture) (Separation
Technique)

(A) CHCl3 + C6H5NH2 I Steam distillation

Differential
(B) C6H14 + C5H12 II
extraction
50. 1 L, 0.02 M solution of [Co(NH3)5SO4]Br is mixed
(C) C6H5NH2 + H2O III Distillation with 1L, 0.02 M solution of [Co(NH3)5Br]SO4. The
Organic compound Fractional resulting solution is divided into two equal parts
(D) IV (X) and treated with excess AgNO3 solution and
in H2O distillation
BaCl2 solution respectively as shown below:
(1) A-IV, B-I, C-III, D-II 1 L Solution (X) + AgNO3 solution (excess)Y
(2) A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II 1 L Solution (X) + BaCl2 solution (excess)Z
The number of moles of Y and Z respectively are
(3) A-II, B-I, C-III, D-IV (1) 0.02, 0.02 (2) 0.01, 0.01
(4) A-III, B-I, C-IV, D-II (3) 0.02, 0.01 (4) 0.01, 0.02

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 55. Consider the following equation :
SECTION – B:
2SO2 (g)  O2 (g) 2SO3 (g), H  190 kJ
(One Integer Value Correct Type)
This section contains 10 questions, out of which The number of factors which will increase the
yield of SO3 at equilibrium from the following is
5 question are compulsory. Each question, when
_______
worked out will result in one integer from 0 to 9
A. Increasing temperature
(both inclusive). B. Increasing pressure

0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 C. Adding more SO2

D. Adding more O2
A B C D AB AC AD BC BD CD
E. Addition of catalyst

51. 1 mole of ideal gas is allowed to expand reversibly

and adiabatically from a temperature of 27°C. The 56. Sugar moiety in DNA and RNA molecules
-1
work done is 3 kJ mol . The final temperature of respectively are
the gas is _______K. (A)  -D-2-deoxyribose,  -D-deoxyribose
Given Cv=20 J mol–1K–1.
(B)  -D-2-deoxyribose,  -D-robose

52. The major product of the following reaction, if it (C) D-ribose,  -D-2-deoxyribose
occurs by SN2 mechanism is :
OH (D) D-deoxyribose,  -D-2-deoxyribose
K2CO3
+ Br
acetone

57. Number of compounds from the following which

will not dissolve in cold NaHCO3 and NaOH
O O
solutions but will dissolve in hot NaOH solution is
(1) (2)
_____ .

O
O O
O
(4)
O OH O
(2)
, ,

53. An organic compound undergoes first order

decomposition. If the time taken for the 60%
decomposition is 540 s, then the time required for
O
90% decomposition will be is _______ s.
O
Given : ln 10 = 2.3; log 2 = 0.3
O
54. Lead storage battery contains 38% by weight H3 C CH3 ,
solution of H2SO4. The van’t Hoff factor is 2.67 at
this concentration. The temperature in Kelvin at
which the solution in the battery will freeze is ____ .

Given Kf = 1.8 K kg mol–1

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58. A short peptide on complete hydrolysis produces 3
moles of glycine (G), two moles of leucine (L) and
two moles of valine (V) per mole of peptide. The
number of peptide linkages in it are _______

59. The strength of 50 volume solution of hydrogen

peroxide is ______ g/L .
Given:
Molar mass of H2O2 is 34 g mol–1
Molar volume of gas at STP = 22.7 L.

60. The electrode potential of the following half cell at

298 K
X | X2+ (0.001 M) || Y2+ (0.01 M) | Y is _____×10–2
V.
Given :
E0x2 |x  2.36V

E0Y2 |Y  0.36V

2.303RT
 0.06V
F

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 MATHEMATICS x3 ax 2
64. If the functions f (x) = + 2bx + and
SECTION-A 3 2
8 2 - (cos x + sin x)7 x3
61. lim g(x) = + ax + bx 2 , a ¹ 2b have a common
x®
p 2 - 2 sin 2x is equal to 3
4
extreme point, then a + 2b + 7 is equal to
(1) 14 (1) 4
3
(2)
(2) 7 2
(3) 3
(3) 14 2 (4) 6

(4) 7 2

65. The range of the function f ( x ) = 3 - x + 2 + x is

(1) é 5, 10 ù
ë û
(2) é 2 2, 11 ù
ë û
62. Let A be a point on the x-axis. Common tangents
are drawn from A to the curves x2 + y2 = 8 and (3) é 5, 13 ù
ë û
2

y = 16x. If one of these tangents touches the two (4) é 2, 7 ù

curves at Q and R, then (QR)2 is equal to
ë û
(1) 64
(2) 76
(3) 81
(4) 72
66. The solution of the differential equation
63. Let q be the maximum integral value of p in [0, 10] for
dy æ x 2 + 3y 2 ö
= -ç 2 2 ÷
, y(1) = 0 is
5
dx è 3x + y ø
which the roots of the equation x 2 - px + p = 0 are
4 xy
(1) log e x + y - = 0
( x + y)
2
rational. Then the area of the region {(x, y) : 0 £ y
£ (x – q)2, 0 £ x £ q} is xy
(2) log e x + y + = 0
(1) 243 ( x + y)
2

(2) 25
2xy
125 (3) log e x + y + = 0
(3) ( x + y)
2
3
(4) 164 2xy
(4) log e x + y - = 0
( x + y)
2

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 (8 ) ( ) 71. If P is a 3 × 3 real matrix such that PT = aP + (a – 1)I,
13 9
67. Let x = 3 + 13 and y = 7 2 + 9 . If [t]
where a > 1, then
denotes the greatest integer £ t, then (1) P is a singular matrix
(1) [x] + [y] is even (2) Adj P > 1
(2) [x] is odd but [y] is even
(3) [x] is even but [y] is odd
1
(3) Adj P=
(4) [x] and [y] are both odd 2
(4) Adj P= 1

r
68. A vector v in the first octant is inclined to the
x-axis at 60°, to the y-axis at 45° and to the z-axis r r
72. Let l Î ¡ , a = l ˆi + 2ˆj - 3k,
ˆ b = ˆi - lˆj + 2k.
ˆ
at an acute angle. If a plane passing through the r r r
points ( ) r
2, -1,1 and (a, b, c), is normal to v ,
If (( ar + b ) ´ (ar ´ b )) ´ (ar - b ) = 8iˆ - 40jˆ - 24k,ˆ
r r
(r ) (r )
2
then then l a + b ´ a - b is equal to
(1) 2a + b + c= 1 (2) a + b + 2c= 1
(1) 140
(3) a + 2b + c= 1 (4) 2a - b + c= 1 (2) 132
Official Ans. by NTA (3) (3) 144
Allen Ans. (3) (4) 136
69. Let f, g and h be the real valued functions defined
ìx
ï , x¹0 r r r r
on ¡ as f ( x ) = í x , 73. Let a and b be two vectors. Let a = 1, b = 4 and
ï 1, x = 0
î r r r r r r
( )
a × b = 2. If c = 2a ´ b - 3b, then the value of
ì sin ( x + 1) r r
ï , x ¹ -1 b × c is
g ( x ) = í ( x + 1) and h(x) = 2[x] – f(x),
ï (1) –24 (2) –48
î 1, x = -1
(3) –84 (4) –60
where [x] is the greatest integer £ x. Then the
(
value of lim g h ( x - 1) is
x ®1
)
74. Let a1 = 1, a 2 , a 3 , a 4 ,..... be consecutive natural
(1) 1 (2) sin(1)
(3) –1 (4) 0 æ 1 ö -1 æ 1 ö
numbers. Then tan -1 ç ÷ + tan ç ÷
è 1 + a1a 2 ø è 1 + a 2a3 ø
æ 1 ö
70. The number of ways of selecting two numbers a and b, +..... + tan -1 ç ÷ is equal to
è 1 + a a ø
a Î {2, 4, 6,.....,100} b Î {1,3,5,.....,99}
2021 2022
and
p p
such that 2 is the remainder when a + b is divided (1) - cot -1 ( 2022 ) (2) cot ( 2022 ) -
-1

4 4
by 23 is
p p
(3) tan ( 2022 ) - - tan -1 ( 2022 )
-1
(1) 186 (2) 54 (4)
(3) 108 (4) 268 4 4

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CatalyseREduventures (India) Pvt. Ltd. 12
75. The parabolas : ax2 + 2bx + cy = 0 and dx2 + 2ex + fy = 0 78. Let S be the set of all values of a1 for which the
intersect on the line y = 1. If a, b, c, d, e, f are mean deviation about the mean of 100 consecutive
positive real numbers and a, b, c are in G.P., then positive integers a1, a2, a3, ….., a100 is 25. Then S is
(1) d, e, f are in A.P. (1) f (2) {99}
d e f (3) ¥ (4) {9}
(2) , , are in G.P.
a b c
3 ìï æ üï
2 2 2
1ö æ 2ö æ 1ö
d e f 79. lim í4 + ç 2 + ÷ + ç 2 + ÷ + ... + ç 3 - ÷ ý
(3) , , are in A.P. n ®¥ n nø è nø nø
a b c îï è è þï
(4) d, e, f are in G.P. is equal to
19
(1) 12 (2)
3
(3) 0 (4) 19
76. The shortest distance between the lines 80. For a, bÎ ¡, suppose the system of linear
x+7 y-6 7-x equations
= = z and = y - 2 = z - 6 is
-6 7 2 x–y+z=5
2x + 2y + az = 8
(1) 2 29 3x – y + 4z = b
has infinitely many solutions. Then a and b are the
(2) 1 roots of
(1) x 2 - 10x + 16= 0 (2) x 2 + 18x + 56 = 0
37 (3) x 2 -18x + 56 = 0 (4) x 2 +14x + 24 = 0
(3)
29
SECTION – B:
(4)
29 (One Integer Value Correct Type)
2
This section contains 10 questions, out of which
5 question are compulsory. Each question, when
77. Let a, b, c > 1, a3, b3 and c3 be in A.P., and logab, worked out will result in one integer from 0 to 9
logca and logbc be in G.P. If the sum of first 20 (both inclusive).
a + 4b + c
terms of an A.P., whose first term is
3 0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9
a - 8b + c A B C D AB AC AD BC BD CD
and the common difference is is – 444,
10
81. 50th root of a number x is 12 and 50th root of
then abc is equal to
(1) 343 another number y is 18. Then the remainder
(2) 216 obtained on dividing (x + y) by 25 is _____.
343
(3)
8 82. Let A = {1, 2, 3, 5, 8, 9}. Then the number of
125 possible functions f :A ® A such
(4)
8
that f (m × n ) = f ( m ) × f ( n ) for every m,
Official Ans. by NTA (2)
Allen Ans. (2) n Î A with m× n Î A is equal to _____.
Official Ans. by NTA (432)
Allen Ans. (432)
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CatalyseREduventures (India) Pvt. Ltd. 13
83. Let P ( a1 , b1 ) and Q ( a 2 , b 2 ) be two distinct 87. If the value of real number a > 0 for which x2 – 5ax
+ 1 = 0 and x2 – ax – 5 = 0 have a common real
points on a circle with center C ( )
2, 3 . Let O
3
roots is then b is equal to _____.
be the origin and OC be perpendicular to both CP 2b
35
and CQ. If the area of the triangle OCP is ,
2
then a12 + a 22 + b12 + b 22 is equal to _____.
88. The number of seven digits odd numbers, that can
be formed using all the seven digits 1, 2, 2, 2, 3, 3, 5
is _____.

84. The 8th common term of the series Official Ans. by NTA (240)

S1 = 3 + 7 + 11 + 15 + 19 + ....., Allen Ans. (240)

89. A bag contains six balls of different colours. Two

S2 = 1 + 6 + 11 + 16 + 21 + ....
balls are drawn in succession with replacement.
is _____.
The probability that both the balls are of the same
colour is p. Next four balls are drawn in succession
with replacement and the probability that exactly

85. Let a line L pass through the point P(2, 3, 1) and be three balls are of the same colours is q. If p : q = m

parallel to the line x + 3y – 2z – 2 = 0 = x – y + 2z. : n, where m and n are coprime, then m + n is equal
to _____.
If the distance of L from the point (5, 3, 8) is a,
then 3a2 is equal to _____. Official Ans. by NTA (14)

Official Ans. by NTA (158) Allen Ans. (14)

Allen Ans. (158) 90. Let A be the area of the region

86. If
ò
æ 1 ö
sec 2x - 1 dx = a loge cos2x + b + cos 2x ç 1 + cos x ÷
{( x, y ) : y ³ x , y ³ (1 - x ) , y £ 2x (1 - x )}.
2 2

è b ø
Then 540 A is equal to
+ constant, then b – a is equal to _____.

14
CatalyseREduventures (India) Pvt. Ltd. 14
Read the following instructions carefully :
1. The candidates should fill in the required particulars on the Test Booklet and Answer Sheet (Side-1) with Blue/Black
Ball Point Pen.
2. For writing/marking particulars on Side-2 of the Answer Sheet, use Blue/Black Ball Point Pen only.
3. The candidates should not write their Roll Numbers anywhere else (except in the specified space) on the Test
Booklet/Answer Sheet.
4. Out of four options given for each question, only one option is the correct answer.
5. For each incorrect response, one-fourth (1/4) of the total marks allotted to the question would be deducted from the
total score. No deduction from the total score, however, will be made if no response is indicated for an item in the
Answer Sheet.
6. Handle the Test Booklet and Answer Sheet with care, as under no circumstances (except for discrepancy in Test
Booklet Code and Answer Sheet Code), another set will be provided.
7. The candidates are not allowed to do any rough work or writing work on the Answer Sheet. All calculations/writing
work are to be done in the space provided for this purpose in the Test Booklet itself, marked ‘Space for Rough
Work’. This space is given at the bottom of each.

8. On completion of the test, the candidates must hand over the Answer Sheet to the invigilator on duty in the
Room/Hall. However, the candidates are allowed to take away this Test Booklet with them.
9. Each candidate must show on demand his/her Admit Card to the invigilator.
10. No candidate, without special permission of the Superintendent or Invigilator, should leave his/her seat.
11. The candidates should not leave the Examination Hall without handing over their Answer Sheet to the Invigilator on
duty and sign the Attendance Sheet again. Cases where a candidate has not signed the Attendance Sheet a second
time will be deemed not to have handed over the Answer Sheet and dealt with as an unfair means case. The
candidates are also required to put their left hand THUMB impression in the space provided in the
Attendance Sheet.
12. Use of Electronic/Manual Calculator and any Electronic Item like mobile phone, pager etc. is prohibited.
13. The candidates are governed by all Rules and Regulations of the CatalyseR with regard to their conduct in the
Examination Hall. All cases of unfair means will be dealt with as per Rules and Regulations of the CatalyseR.
14. No part of the Test Booklet and Answer Sheet shall be detached under any circumstances.
15. Candidates are not allowed to carry any textual material, printed or written, bits of papers, pager, mobile
phone, electronic device or any other material except the Admit Card inside the examination hall/room.