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MADHYA PRADESH CIVIL JUDGE (PRE.) EXAMINATION - 2023

Mock Test Paper – II
Total Questions: 150
Maximum Marks: 150
Duration: 2:00 Hours
Date: 24/12/2023

1. Provisions of which chapter of the Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973, shall

apply to the State of Nagaland and tribal areas
(a) Chapter VI, VIII and X
(b) Chapter VIII, X and XI
(c) Chapter VII, XI and XII
(d) Chapter V, VII and X
2. Anticipatory bail may be granted in case where any person has reason to
believe that he may be arrested on accusation of having committed a
(a) non-bailable offence
(b) non-bailable and non-compoundable offence
(c) non-cognizable offence
(d) cognizable offence
3. A Magistrate to whom a complaint is made under section 340 of CrPC shall
deal with the case as if it were
(a) a summons case
(b) instituted on a police report
(c) a complaint case
(d) a warrant case
4. Which chapter of the Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973, deals with the
provisions as to accused persons of unsound mind?
(a) Chapter XVII
(b) Chapter XXVI
(c) Chapter XXV
(d) Chapter XXIV
5. Which of the following does not include in the term ‘place’?

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 (a) Vehicle
(b) tent
(c) building
(d) none of the above
6. Section 6 of the Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973, does not mention
(a) Court of Session
(b) Judicial Magistrate of First Class
(c) Court of Chief Judicial Magistrate
(d) Executive Magistrate
07. Who can tender pardon to accomplice under Section 306 of the Code of
Criminal Procedure, 1973?
(a) Magistrate of First Class
(b) Metropolitan Magistrate
(c) Chief Judicial Magistrate
(d) all of the above
8. According to the provisions of section 31 of the Code of Criminal Procedure,
1973, When a person is convicted at one trial of two or more offences, the
court may sentence him for such offences to the several punishments
prescribed therefor but in no case such person be sentenced to imprisonment
for a longer period than
(a) twelve years
(b) fourteen years
(c) eighteen years
(d) twenty-one years
9. The Head of the Directorate of Prosecution shall be the Director of
Prosecution who shall function under the administrative control of the Head of
the
(a) Department of Law and Justice
(b) Ministry of Home Affairs
(c) Home Department in the State
(d) None of the above
10. In which of the following case a police officer shall not be appointed as
Assistant Public Prosecutor, if

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 (a) he has taken any part in the investigation into the offence with respect
to which the accused is being prosecuted
(b) he is below the rank of sub-inspector
(c) both (a) and (b)
(d) neither (a) nor (b)
11. When the officer in charge of the police station receives information that a
person has committed suicide, he will immediately report to the
(a) District Magistrate
(b) Judicial Magistrate
(c) Chief Judicial Magistrate
(d) Executive Magistrate
12. An executive Magistrate may remand the accused for a term not exceeding
(a) 15 days
(b) 14 days
(c) 10 days
(d) 7 days
13. The accused get indefeasible right to bail when investigation is not completed
within
(a) 21 days
(b) 30 days
(c) 60 days or 90 days
(d) 120 days
14. Who can record the confession under section 164 of the Code of Criminal
Procedure, 1973?
(a) any Magistrate
(b) any Metropolitan Magistrate
(c) any Judicial Magistrate
(d) both (c) and (d)
15. The provisions of section 159 applies when
(a) police officer refuse to investigate the matter
(B) police officer investigating the matter
(c) police officer is not investigation the matter properly
(d) all of the above

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16. Which of the following provision of the Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973,
deals with the term ‘FIR’
(a) Section 154
(b) Section 155
(c) Section 156
(d) none of the above
17. Permission to investigate into a non-cognizable offence may be granted by a
(a) Chief Judicial Magistrate
(b) Magistrate having jurisdiction to try the case
(c) any Magistrate
(d) Sessions Judge
18. Public notice issued or an order made under section 144 A of the Code of
Criminal Procedure, 1973, shall not remain in force for more than
(a) one month
(b) two months
(c) three months
(d) four months
19. If the person against whom an order under section 133 is made appears and
shows cause against the order, the Magistrate shall take evidence in the
matter as in a
(a) summons case
(b) Warrant case
(c) Cognizable case
(d) non-bailable case
20. Any Court may alter or add to any charge at any time before
(a) charge sheet is filed
(b) trials begins
(c) evidence of witnesses is taken
(d) judgment is pronounced
21. Who among the following may with the consent of the Court, withdraw the
remaining charges under section 224 of the Code of Criminal Procedure,
1973?
(a) Complainant
(b) Officer conducting the prosecution

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 (c) Victim
(d) either (a) or (b)
22. The Victim Compensation Scheme under Section 357A was inserted to the
Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973 in
(a) 2003
(b) 2006
(c) 2009
(d) 2013
23. Who can commute the sentence of imprisonment for life under the Code of
Criminal Procedure, 1973?
(a) The Union Government
(b) The appropriate Government
(c) The President of India
(d) all of the above
24. Anticipatory bail may be granted by
(a) the Court of Sessions
(b) the High Court
(c) the Court of Chief Judicial Magistrate
(d) both (a) and (b)
25. No Court shall take cognizance of an offence punishable with fine only, after
the expiry of the period of
(a) three years
(b) one year
(c) six months
(d) three months
26. Which of the following provision of the Indian Penal Code, 1860, provides
jurisdiction in respect of extra-territorial offences
(a) section 2
(b) Section 3
(c) section 4
(d) Section 5
27. Which of the following does not fall in the term ‘person’
(a) company
(b) body of persons

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 (c) association of persons
(d) none of the above
28. Which of the following case is related to the defence of intoxication
(a) Barrow V Issacs
(b) Director of Public Prosecution V Beard
(c) Mc Naughten case
(d) R V Prince
29. Arbitrator is public servant under which of the following clause of section 21 of
the Indian Penal Code, 1860
(a) sixth
(b) fifth
(c) fourth
(d) third
30. A is at work with hatchet, the head flies off and kills a man who is standing
nearby. ‘A’ is guilty of
(a) culpable homicide
(b) murder
(c) grievous hurt
(d) no offence
31. Which provision of the Indian Penal Code, 1860, deals with maxim “qui peccat
ebrius luat sobrius”
(a) Section 83
(b) Section 84
(c) Section 86
(d) Section 95
32. If an offence is punishable with fine only, imprisonment in default of fine shall
be
(a) rigorous
(b) simple
(c) of any description
(d) partly rigorous and partly simple
33. The maximum period of solitary confinement is
(a) 15 days
(b) 30 days

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 (c) 3 months
(d) 6 months
34. Section 34 of the Indian Penal Code, 1860,
(a) is a rule of evidence
(b) creates a substantive offence
(c) neither (a) nor (b)
(d) both (a) and (b)
35. According to the provisions of the Indian Penal Code, 1860, consent is not a
valid consent, if given by a person below the age of
(a) 21 years
(b) 18 years
(c) 16 years
(d) 12 years
36. Which type of insanity is a ground for exemption from criminal responsibility?
(a) Legal insanity
(b) Medical insanity
(c) Moral insanity
(d) any of the above
37. The word ‘injury’ denotes any harm whatever illegally caused to any person in
(a) body
(b) mind
(c) reputation or property
(d) any of the above
38. Which chapter of the Indian Penal Code, 1860, deals with offences against
property
(a) Chapter XVI
(b) Chapter XVII
(c) Chapter XVIII
(d) Chapter XIX
39. The specific offence named ‘dowry death’ under section 304B was added to
the Indian Penal Code, 1860 in
(a) 1982
(b) 1983
(c) 1986

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 (d) 1989
40. Which of the following case is related to the doctrine of transmigration of
motive
(a) Shankarlal Kacharabhi V State of Gujarat
(b) Nanhe V State of U.P
(c) Rajbir Singh V State of U.P
(d) all of the above
41. Whoever voluntarily causes miscarriage without the consent of the woman,
shall be punished with
(a) imprisonment of either description for a term which may extend to
seven years and shall also be liable to fine
(b) imprisonment of either description for a term which may extend to ten
years and shall also be liable to fine
(c) imprisonment for life and shall also be liable to fine
(d) imprisonment for life or imprisonment of either description for a term
which may extend to ten years and shall also be liable to fine
42. According to Section 320 of IPC, how many types of hurt are designated as
‘grievous’
(a) Nine
(b) Eight
(c) Seven
(d) Six
43. A places man with firearms at the outlets of a building and tells Z that they will
fire at Z if Z attempts to leave the building. A has committed
(a) wrongful restraint
(b) mischief
(c) wrongful confinement
(d) Assault
44. Jackson, a school teacher for the purpose of enforcing discipline inflicts
moderate punishment upon a pupil aged about 12 years.
(a) Jackson is guilty of causing hurt
(b) Jackson is guilty of using criminal force
(c) Jackson is entitled to claim defence under section 88 of IPC
(d) Jackson is entitled to claim defence under section 89 of IPC

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45. Rocky asks his servant to beat ‘Z”. Z did so. Rocky is guilty of
(a) no offence
(b) abetment by instigation
(c) criminal assault
(d) criminal conspiracy
46. Which of the following is/are continuing offence
(a) Criminal conspiracy
(b) Domestic violence
(c) abduction
(d) all of the above
47. It cannot be committed in a private place
(a) kidnapping
(b) affray
(c) assault
(d) rioting
48. Grave and sudden provocation is a
(a) question of fact
(b) question of law
(c) mixed question of law and fact
(d) rule of presumption
49. Select the correct statement
1. Mere words do not amount to an assault.
2. To constitute the offence of abetment it is necessary that the act
abetted should be committed.
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 1&2
(d) neither 1 nor 2
50. A finds a valuable ring not knowing to whom it belongs. A sells it immediately
without attempting to discover the owner. A is guilty of
(a) criminal breach of trust
(b) dishonest misappropriation of property
(c) mischief
(d) theft

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51. Which of the following question cannot be determined by the executing court
according to the provisions of the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908
(a) Modification of decree
(b) Execution of decree
(c) Discharge of decree
(d) Satisfaction of decree
52. Which of the following provision of the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908, defines
the term ‘mesne profit’
(a) Section 2 (7)
(b) Section 2 (10)
(c) Section 2 (12)
(d) Section 2 (14)
53. Order XXI of the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908, consists how many Rules
(a) 106
(b) 108
(c) 109
(d) 96
54. Which part of the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908 deals with ‘appeals’
(a) Part VI
(b) Part VII
(c) Part VIII
(d) Part IX
55. Who may declare what shall be the language of any court
(a) High Court
(b) Union Parliament
(c) State Government
(d) Ministry of Law and Justice
56. In execution of a decree for maintenance, the part of salary of a person that
can be attached
(a) one-third of the salary
(b) two-third of the salary
(c) one-fourth of the salary
(d) three-fourth of the salary
57. Provisions related to inter-pleader suit are contained in

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 (a) Section 88
(b) Order XXXV
(c) Section 88 and Order XXXIV
(d) both (a) and (b)
58. The judgment debtor may be detained in custody for the maximum how much
period where the decree is for payment of a sum of money exceeding Rs.
5000/-
(a) not exceeding one month
(b) not exceeding three months
(c) not exceeding six months
(d) not exceeding six weeks
59. Under the provision of section 100 of the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908,
second appeal shall lie before
(a) High Court
(b) Supreme Court
(c) District Court
(d) both (a) and (b)
60. The court shall not order the arrest or detention in the civil prison of a woman
in execution of decree for
(a) partition of property
(b) declaration of title
(c) payment of money
(d) none of the above
61. A judgment passed by a court may be reviewed by
(a) the court to which an appeal lies from the judgment of former court
(b) the court which passed the judgment
(c) High Court
(d) Supreme Court
62. Which provision of the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908, deals with ‘subsistence
allowance’
(a) Section 57
(b) Order XXI Rule 38
(C) Order XXI Rule 37
(d) Both (a) and (b)

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63. Every endeavour shall be made to ensure that the decree is drawn up as
expeditiously as possible and in any case with how many days from the date
on which the judgment is pronounced?
(a) 10 days
(b) 14 days
(c) 15 days
(d) 30 days
64. Procedure on rejection of plaint is dealt under
(a) Order VII Rule 10
(b) Order VII Rule 11
(c) Order VII Rule 12
(d) Order VII Rule 13
65. The Court may allow amendment of pleadings
(a) before submission of Written Statement
(b) before framing of issues
(c) only after submission of list of witnesses
(d) at any stage of the proceedings
66. Summons issued by a Court of Small Cause shall be for
(a) settlement of issues only
(b) the final disposal of the suit only
(c) submission of written statement only
(d) any of the above
67. Which provision of the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908, provides that every
summon shall be accompanied by a copy of the plaint?
(a) Order IV Rule 2
(b) Order V Rule 2
(c) Order V Rule 3
(d) Order VI Rule 4
68. Where a caveat has been lodged, such caveat shall not remain in force after
the expiry of
(a) 30 days
(b) 60 days
(c) 90 days
(d) 120 days

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69. Section 151 of the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908, deals with the inherent
power of
(a) High Court only
(b) Supreme Court only
(c) District Court only
(d) any Court
70. Who among the following may administer the oath to the deponent
(a) any court
(b) any Magistrate
(c) any Notary appointed under the Notaries Act, 1952
(d) all of the above
71. Section 135A of the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908, provides immunity against
arrest for how many days from meeting, sitting or conference to members of
Legislative bodies?
(a) 15 days
(b) 21 days
(c) 40 days
(d) 60 days
72. The Court cannot issue commission for
(a) execution of decree
(b) to make a partition
(c) to examine or adjust accounts
(d) none of the above
73. The Code of Civil Procedure, 1908, provides that clerical mistakes can be
corrected in
(a) judgments only
(b) orders only
(c) decrees only
(d) any of the above
74. An ex-parte decree may be set aside under Order IX
(a) Rule 13
(b) Rule 12
(c) Rule 11
(d) Rule 10

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75. According to the provision of the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908, maximum
adjournments granted in a case are
(a) two
(b) three
(c) five
(d) ten
76. According to the provisions of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872, the subject
matter on which opinion of expert is relevant are
(a) Foreign Law
(b) identity of handwriting
(c) Science
(d) all of the above
77. Palvinder Kaur V State of Punjab is related to
(a) confession
(b) dying declaration
(c) expert evidence
(d) hearsay evidence
78. When a party refuses to produce a document which he has had notice to
produce, he can afterwards use the document as evidence with the consent of
(a) Court
(b) other party
(c) either (a) or (b)
(d) afterwards such document cannot be used as evidence
79. ‘Not proved’ means
(a) it is denied
(b) it is not proved
(c) it is disproved
(d) it is neither proved nor disproved
80. Section 114 of Indian Evidence Act, 1872, deals with
(a) Presumption of fact
(b) Presumption of Law
(c) Irrebuttable presumption of law
(d) none of the above
81. Which of the following is not an exception to the ‘Rule of hearsay’

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 (a) Expert opinion
(b) Dying declaration
(c) Res-gestae
(d) none of the above
82. Section 2 of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872, was repealed by
(a) Repealing Act, 1947
(b) Repealing Act, 1938
(c) Government of India Act, 1935
(d) General Clauses Act, 1897
83. The term ‘Court’ does not include
(a) all Judges
(b) all Magistrates
(c) all arbitrators
(d) all persons legally authorised to take evidence
84. Which of the following is a leading case on confession of a co-accused
(a) Kaushal Rao V State of Maharashtra
(b) Sita Ram V State of U.P
(c) Ram Prakash V State of Punjab
(d) Kashmira Singh V State of Madhya Pradesh
85. Which of the following term has not been defined under Section 3 of the
Indian Evidence Act, 1872
(a) Court
(b) Confession
(c) Evidence
(d) Document
86. Which of the following is an exception to the general rule that admissions are
proved against the maker?
(a) Section 32
(b) Section 17
(c) Section 21
(d) Section 18
87. Section 6 of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872, deals with the concept of
(a) Res-gestae
(b) Plea of alibi

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 (c) Estoppel
(d) Confession
88. A sues B for negligence in providing him with a carriage for hire not
reasonably fit for use, whereby A was injured. The fact that B was habitually
negligent about the carriages which he let to hire, is
(a) relevant
(b) irrelevant
(c) relevant and admissible
(d) to be proved
89. Provisions of Section 13 of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872, applies to
(a) Public rights only
(b) Private rights only
(c) both (a) and (b)
(d) neither (a) nor (b)
90. Which provision of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872, deals with plea of alibi
(a) Section 9
(b) Section 11
(c) Section 13
(d) Section 15
91. Section 41 of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872, deals with the final judgment,
order or decree of a competent Court, in the exercise of
(a) Matrimonial jurisdiction
(b) Probate jurisdiction
(c) Insolvency jurisdiction
(d) any of the above
92. Opinion given by third person under section 50 of the Indian Evidence Act,
1872 is not relevant to prove which of the following offences of IPC?
(a) Sections 494
(b) Section 497
(c) Section 498
(d) all of the above
93. Which of the following need not be proved
(a) facts taken judicial notice by the court
(b) oral evidence

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 (c) documentary evidence
(d) none of the above
94. In criminal proceedings the fact that the person accused is of good character
is
(a) irrelevant
(b) relevant
(c) inadmissible
(d) irrelevant and inadmissible
95. Oral evidence must be
(a) indirect
(b) direct
(c) either (a) or (b)
(d) discernible
96. The provisions of the Information Technology Act, 2000, shall not apply to
documents or transaction specified in the
(a) First Schedule
(b) Second Schedule
(c) Third Schedule
(d) Fourth Schedule
97. Who among the following shall investigate any offence under the Information
Technology Act, 2000?
(a) a police officer not below the rank of Sub-Inspector
(b) a police officer not below the rank of Inspector
(c) a police officer not below the rank of Deputy Superintendent of Police
(d) a police officer of any rank as authorised by Superintendent of Police
98. “Computer resource” does not mean
(a) computer network
(b) computer system
(c) data
(d) none of the above
99. Which of the following defines the term ‘electronic signature’
(a) Section 2 (na)
(b) Section 2 (ta)
(c) Section 2 (tb)

17
 (d) Section 2 (ua)
100. According to the provision of the Information Technology Act, 2000,
application for renewal of licence shall be made not less than how many days
before the expiry of the period of the validity of the licence?
(a) 21 days
(b) 30 days
(c) 45 days
(d) 60 days
101. Which Chapter of the Information Technology Act, 2000, deals with ‘Electronic
Signature Certificate’?
(a) Chapter VI
(b) Chapter VII
(c) Chapter VIII
(d) Chapter IX
102. Whoever contravenes any rules or regulations made under the Information
Technology Act, 2000, for the contravention of which no penalty has been
separately provided shall be liable to pay a penalty not exceeding
(a) Rs. 5,000/-
(b) Rs. 10,000/-
(c) Rs. 15,000/-
(d) Rs. 25,000/-
103. According to the provision of the M.P Land Revenue Code, 1959, the term
‘agriculture year’ means a year commencing on
(a) 01 January
(b) 01 March
(c) 01 July
(d) 01 April
104. Which provision of the M.P Land Revenue Code, 1959, defines the term
‘improvement’
(a) Section 2 (h)
(b) Section 2 (j)
(c) Section 2 (k)
(d) Section 2 (m)

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105. Which of the following does not include in the definition of timber trees as per
the provisions of the M.P Land Revenue Code, 1959?
(a) Chandan
(b) Tendu
(c) Sagwan
(d) none of the above
106. Which of the following is/are qualification(s) to be appointed as a member of
Board of Revenue
(a) he should be eligible for appointment as a Judge of the High Court
(b) he should hold the office of the District Judge for not less than five
years.
(c) he should be eligible for appointment as a Judge of the Supreme Court
(d) any of the above
107. Except for reasons to be recorded in writing no revenue officer shall enquire
into or hear any case at any place outside the local limits of his jurisdiction.
However, who among the following may enquire into or hear any case at any
place within the district?
(a) Tahsildar
(b) Naib-Tahsildar
(c) Sub-Divisional Officer
(d) Revenue Inspector
108. Which provision of the M.P Land Revenue Code, 1959, deals with inherent
power of Revenue Courts?
(a) Section 31
(b) Section 32
(c) Section 37
(d) Section 42
109. An appeal against an order passed by Sub-Divisional Officer shall lie before
(a) Revenue Officer
(b) Assistant Collector
(c) Collector
(d) Commissioner
110. The period of limitation for filing first appeal under the provisions of the M.P
Land Revenue Code, 1959, shall be

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 (a) 45 days
(b) 60 days
(c) 30 days
(d) 90 days
111. Sant Ravidas Global Skill Park, the largest global skill park of Madhya
Pradesh is being built in
(a) Gwalior
(b) Bhopal
(c) Ujjain
(d) Chhindwara
112. 20th Asian Games 2026 will be hosted by
(a) Japan
(b) Laos
(c) Macau
(d) Yemen
113. The 53rd and 54th district of Madhya Pradesh will be formed out of the territory
of
(a) Sehore and Ujjain
(b) Rewa and Betul
(c) Rewa and Ujjain
(d) Damoh and Sagar
th
114. 5 Aircraft and Small Aircraft Summit 2023 was held at
(a) Bengaluru
(b) Bhopal
(c) Hyderabad
(d) Khajuraho
115. What is ‘Unmesh’
(a) Woman and Child Development Programme
(b) Poverty Alleviation Programme
(c) Asia’s largest international literature festival
(d) An initiative to provide employment opportunity to youth
116. Who among the following has been awarded Nobel Prize in Chemistry in 2023
(a) Pierre Agostini
(b) Anne L’Huillier

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 (c) Aleksey Yekimov
(d) none of the above
117. Booker Prize 2023 has been awarded to Paul Lynch for his novel
(a) The Promise
(b) Shuggie Bain
(c) Prophet Song
(d) Time Shelter
118. Qualifying farmers are entitled annually for how much amount under PM-
KISAN Yojana?
(a) Rs. 2000/-
(b) Rs. 6000/-
(c) Rs. 8000/-
(d) Rs. 12,000/-
119. What is India’s rank in Global Innovation Index 2023?
(a) 85
(b) 92
(c) 126
(d) 42
120. The Headquarters of International Civil Aviation Organisation is situated at
(a) Montreal, Canada
(b) New York, USA
(c) Geneva, Switzerland
(d) Rome, Italy
121. Gautam Buddha’s mother was from which clan?
(a) Maya clan
(b) Shakya clan
(c) Koliyan clan
(d) Licchavis clan
122. The temple of Sas-bahu is situated at
(a) Hampi
(b) Gwalior
(c) Mysore
(d) Aurangabad

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123. Who said on the death of Rani Laxmibai “sleeping beauty is the only man
among all Indian rebel leaders”
(a) Havlock
(b) Niel
(c) Guff
(d) Hugh Rose
124. Which of the following is the chief characteristic of ‘mixed farming’?
(a) Rearing of animals and cultivation of crops together.
(b) Cultivation of both cash crops and food crops.
(c) Cultivation of two or more crops in the same field at the same time
(d) Cultivation of crop and fodder together at the same time
125. Indira Sagar dam is on which river
(a) Tapti
(b) Mahi
(c) Narmada
(d) Godawari
126. Who won the title of Miss International India 2023?
(a) Praveena Anjana
(b) Zoya Afroz
(c) Kashish Methwani
(d) Simrithi Bathija
127. Old Parliament House has been named as
(a) Samvidhan Bhavan
(b) Samvidhan Sadan
(c) Samvidhan Sabha Bhavan
(d) Loktantra Bhavan
128. Who authored the book ‘The Golden Years’
(a) Dr. Manoj Kumar
(b) Dr. Vijay Darda
(c) Anne Frank
(d) Ruskin Bond
129. Who is the Chairman of Madhya Pradesh Public Service Commission
(a) Dr. Manoj Soni
(b) Arvind Saxena

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 (c) Dr. Rajesh Lal Mehra
(d) Dr. Krishna Kant Sharma
130. India’s first human space mission ‘Gaganyaan’ will be launched in
(a) 2024
(b) 2025
(c) 2026
(d) 2028
131. The ability of an operating system to control the activities of multiple programs
at the same time is known as
(a) Simulating
(b) Streamlining
(c) Multiuser
(d) Multitasking
132. A collection of wires that connects several devices is called
(a) bus
(b) link
(c) bidirectional wires
(d) cables
133. Speed of processor is measured in
(a) bit
(b) byte
(c) hertz
(d) procetz
134. RAM is also called as
(a) cache memory
(b) volatile memory
(c) virtual memory
(d) non-volatile memory
135. The central part of a disk is known as
(a) hub
(b) loop
(c) cluster
(d) ray
136. To quit the active program, press

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 (a) Alt + F7
(b) Alt + F6
(c) Alt + F5
(d) Alt + F4
137. In JPEG, the alphabet ‘E’ stands for
(a) Electronic
(b) Expert
(c) Explorer
(d) Extension
138. What is full form of ‘GIF’
(a) Graphics Interchange Format
(b) Gnome Interconnected File
(c) General Input Folder
(d) Graphic Icon File
139. What is the smallest and largest font size available in Font size tool formatting
bar?
(a) 8 and 64
(b) 6 and 72
(c) 8 and 72
(d) 6 and 84
140. Portrait and Landscape are
(a) Page Layout
(b) Page Orientation
(c) Paper Size
(d) Paper Layout
141. He said, “The Principal was out of station yesterday but would come back
today or tomorrow.”
(a) He said that the Principal was out of station previous day but would
come back that day or tomorrow.
(b) He said that the Principal had been out of station the previous day but
would come back that day or the next day.
(c) He told that the Principal had gone out of station yesterday but would
come back that day or tomorrow.

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 (d) He said that the Principal had been out of station yesterday but would
come back today or tomorrow.
142. Select the word which has similar meaning to the word bawdy.
(a) blissful
(b) flattery
(c) scold strongly
(d) indecent
143. Select the word which is most opposite in meaning of the word encomium.
(a) Immortal
(b) Censure
(c) Eulogise
(d) Commotion
144. Which of the following explain the meaning of the idiom “straight from the
horse’s mouth”?
(a) from reliable source
(b) from a source which cannot be relied upon
(c) from the source of production
(d) not to give in to pressure
145. Use the word which can be substituted for a person who fishes with a rod.
(a) debutante
(b) termagant
(c) angler
(d) coiffeur
146. Select most appropriate word for the blank space and indicate your choice
The punch made the boxer________with pain.
(a) gape
(b) wince
(c) grumble
(d) fumble
147. The passengers were very happy_______the friendly and warm treatment
given to them.
(a) by
(b) to
(c) from

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 (d) about
148. Find out which part of the sentence has an error. If there is no mistake, the
answer is ‘no error’
It is an established fact that the transcendental American poets and
philosophers, who lived in the latter half of the nineteenth century, were more
influenced by Indian philosophy, in particular by Upanishadic philosophy.
(a) It is an established fact that the transcendental American poets and
philosophers,
(b) who lived in the latter half of the nineteenth century,
(c) were more influenced by Indian philosophy, in particular by
Upanishadic philosophy
(d) no error
149. Find the misspelt word
(a) Hack
(b) Hawl
(c) Halve
(d) Hark
150. Select the one which best expresses the same sentence in passive voice
My uncle promised me a present.
(a) I was promised a present by my uncle.
(b) A present was promised by my uncle to me.
(c) I had been promised a present by my uncle.
(d) I was promised by my uncle a present.

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 MADHYA PRADESH CIVIL JUDGE (PRE.) EXAMINATION – 2023
MOCK TEST SERIES
TEST – II
Answer Key
Date: 24/12/2023
Q. No. Ans. Q. No. Ans. Q. No. Ans. Q. No. Ans. Q. No. Ans.
1. B 31. C 61. B 91. D 121. C
2. A 32. B 62. A 92. D 122. B
3. B 33. C 63. C 93. A 123. D
4. C 34. A 64. C 94. B 124. A
5. D 35. D 65. D 95. B 125. C
6. C 36. A 66. B 96. A 126. A
7. D 37. D 67. B 97. B 127. B
8. B 38. B 68. C 98. D 128. D
9. C 39. C 69. D 99. B 129. C
10. A 40. D 70. D 100. C 130. A
11. D 41. D 71. C 101. B 131. D
12. D 42. B 72. A 102. D 132. B
13. C 43. C 73. D 103. C 133. C
14. D 44. D 74. A 104. B 134. B
15. A 45. B 75. B 105. D 135. A
16. D 46. D 76. D 106. A 136. D
17. B 47. B 77. A 107. C 137. B
18. C 48. A 78. C 108. B 138. A
19. A 49. A 79. D 109. C 139. C
20. D 50. B 80. A 110. A 140. B
21. D 51. A 81. A 111. B 141. B
22. C 52. C 82. B 112. A 142. D
23. B 53. A 83. C 113. C 143. B
24. D 54. B 84. D 114. D 144. A
25. C 55. C 85. B 115. C 145. C
26. C 56. B 86. C 116. C 146. B
27. D 57. D 87. A 117. C 147. A
28. B 58. B 88. B 118. B 148. C
29. A 59. A 89. C 119. D 149. B
30. D 60. C 90. B 120. A 150. A

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