NEET Level Test (10-Dec-23)

Contact Number: 9667591930 / 8527521718

Physics - Section A 4. Alternating equal and opposite charges, each

1. A pair of equal and opposite charges of
magnitude Q are placed a distance d apart. At
the mid-point of these charges, is placed a
dipole of dipole moment p. The maximum
possible torque on the dipole is:
of magnitude q are placed at the six vertices of
a regular hexagon of side a. If one of the
negative charges is now removed, the
electrostatic potential at the centre of the
1
hexagon is: (k = 4πε )
0

q 2q
2kQ 2kQ 1. k
a
2. k
1. p.
(d/2)
2 2. p.
(d/2)
a

q
√3q

kQ kQ
3. k 4. k
2a
2a
3. p.
(d/2)2
4. p.
(d/2)

5. Three charges are arranged at the three

2. The electric field, between the two plates of a corners of an equilateral triangle of side a, as
parallel plate capacitor of capacitance C, shown in the figure.
charged by means of a charge Q (d is the
separation between the plates), is given by:
1
(k = )
4πε0

Q Q
1. k 2.
d2 Cd
The electric field at the centre of the triangle
3.
Qd
4.
QC
will vanish if:
C d
1. q = Q 2. q = −Q
3. q = −2Q 4. q = 0

3. Two hemispheres, one of radius R and the

other of radius 2R carry charges +Q and −Q
respectively, on their surfaces. They are placed 6. Three charges are arranged at the three
so that they share a common centre O, as corners of an equilateral triangle of side a, as
shown. The potential at their common centre shown in the figure.
1
is: (k = 4πε )
0

The electric field at the centre of the base of the

triangle will vanish if:
1. q = Q 2. q = −Q
Q Q
1. k 2. k
2R
3. q = −2Q 4. q = 0
R

Q
3. −k
2R
4. zero

Page: 1
 NEET Level Test (10-Dec-23)
Contact Number: 9667591930 / 8527521718

7. Given below are two statements: 10. Two identical uncharged capacitors are
The electrostatic field of a connected in series and a charge Q passes from
charge distributed uniformly A to B. After this happens,

Assertion (A): over the surface of a sphere

vanishes within the sphere,
only at its centre.
This cancellation occurs at the
centre due to the symmetry of
Reason (R):
the sphere and the symmetric,
uniform charge distribution.
Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the
1.
correct explanation of (A).
Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the
2.
correct explanation of (A).
3. (A) is true but (R) is false.
4. (A) is false but (R) is true.
Left capacitor has charge Q, Right one has
1.
no charge.
2. Both capacitors have charges Q each.
Left capacitor has charge Q, Right one has
3.
charge (−Q).
Neither capacitor has any charge, as the
4. charge has passed from A to B and left
them.
11. The equivalent resistance between A and B
is:

8. Two resistances of 4 Ω and 6 Ω are

connected in series and potential difference of
60 V is applied to the combination.

The voltage across each resistor

Statement I:
is 60 V.
The current through each 1. 20 Ω 2. 4.8 Ω
Statement II:
resistor is 6 A. 3. 10 Ω 4. 5 Ω

Statement I is incorrect and Statement II is

1.
correct. 12. A non-conducting cylinder of radius R
Both Statement I and Statement II are carries a total charge Q distributed uniformly
2.
correct. over its curved surface. A point charge q is
Both Statement I and Statement II are taken from the centre A, of one of its ends to
3. the centre B of its other end-surface. The work
incorrect.
1
Statement I is correct and Statement II is done is: (k = 4πε )
4. 0

incorrect.

9. Each of the four identical point charges q, are

fixed at the corners of a square of side a. The
work done in bringing a point charge q, from
infinity and placing it at the centre of the
1
square is: (k = 4πε ) qQ qQ
0 1. k 2. k
2 2
H R
4q 4√2q
1. k. 2. k. qQ zero
a
2
a
3. k
√R2 +H 2
4.
4q
3. k. 4. zero
a√2

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 NEET Level Test (10-Dec-23)
Contact Number: 9667591930 / 8527521718

13. The electrostatic potential in a certain 17. Two identical balls of cork (C1 , C2 ) are
region is given by the following function: charged oppositely with equal amounts of
2
V (x, y) = x + xy charge distributed uniformly over their
The electric field at the point (1, 1) is given by: respective surfaces. Two similar (of same size)
balls of copper(M1 , M2 ) are charged in the
1. 3^i + j
^ 2. −(3^ ^
i + j)
same way as the previous two balls. C1 , C2 are
3. ^
i + j
^ 4. −(^ ^
i + j) allowed to touch each other briefly and are
separated, and the same is done with M1 , M2 .
The electrostatic force between C1 , C2 is FC
14. A parallel plate capacitor is charged by and that between M1 , M2 is FM at the same
connecting it to a battery. It is disconnected. separation. Then:
Then, the plates are moved apart so that their 1. FC = 0, FM ≠ 0
separation is doubled. As a result:
2. FC ≠ 0, FM = 0
The charge gets doubled, but potential
1. 3. FC = 0, FM = 0
difference remains same.
The potential difference gets doubled, but 4. FC ≠ 0, FM ≠ 0
2.
charge remains unchanged.
The potential difference gets halved, but
3. 18. The electrostatic potential in a region of
charge remains unchanged.
The charge gets halved, but the potential space is given by the function:
4. 2πx
), where A, a are
difference remains unchanged. V (x) = A cos (
a

constants.
a
The potential at x = 2 is:
15. A non-conducting circular ring is charged so 1. zero 2. A
that its upper half carries a charge q, while the A
lower half carries a charge 2q. The potential at 3. −A 4. 2
1
the centre of the ring (radius R) is: (k =
4πε0
)

3q 3q
1. k. 2. k.
2R
19. The electrostatic potential in a region of
R
q q space is given by the function:
3. k. 4. k. 2πx
), where A, a are
2R R
V (x) = A cos (
a

constants.
a

16. Given below are two statements: The electrostatic field at x =

4
is:
The plates of a parallel-plate 1. zero 2. 2πA

a
Assertion (A): capacitor attract each other 2πA

when it is charged. 3. −
a
4. infinity
The plates carry opposite
Reason (R): charges and hence they attract
by Coulomb's law. 20. If a capacitor of capacitance C be charged
by giving it a charge Q, the potential difference
Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the between its plates is observed to be V . The
1. energy stored in the capacitor is:
correct explanation of (A).
Q
Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the 1. QV 2.
2. V
correct explanation of (A). QV Q
3. 4.
3. (A) is true but (R) is false. 2 2V

4. (A) is false but (R) is true.

Page: 3
 NEET Level Test (10-Dec-23)
Contact Number: 9667591930 / 8527521718

21. A particle of charge q, mass m falls under
gravity starting from rest. It falls through a
height H , while being acted upon by an electric
field, in addition to gravity. At the end of its
motion, it briefly comes to rest. The potential
difference between the two extreme points of
its motion is:
25. A small ball of mass m is suspended from a
point by means of a light thread of length L. An
electric field E acts along the horizontal
direction, and it is observed that the thread
∘
makes an angle of 30 with the vertical, in
equilibrium. The charge on the ball is:
1.
mg
2.
mg

E 2E
mgH 2mgH
1. 2. √3 mg
mg
q q
3. 4. √3 E
2E
mgH
3. 2q
4. zero

26. A uniformly charged spherical surface has a

22. A point charge q is placed on the x-axis at potential of 10 V on its surface. The potential at
x = a; an identical charge is placed on the
the mid-point of a radius is:
y-axis at y = a. At the origin is placed a charge
1. 10 V 2. 20 V
(−2q). The dipole moment of the charge 3. 5 V 4. 0 V
distribution is:
1. 2qa 2. √2qa
qa
27. A particle having a positive charge q and
qa
3. 2
4. √2
mass m is accelerated through a potential
difference V . The speed of the particle, if it
starts from rest, is:
23. The capacitance of a sphere of radius a,
√
qV
√
mV

surface area A is: 1. m 2. q

4πε0 A 2πε0 A
1. a
2. a

ε0 A ε0 A 2qV mV
3. 4. √ √
a 2πa 3. m 4. 2q

24. Two uniformly charged spheres of radii R,

carrying charges Q1 and Q2 are placed with
their centres a distance r, apart. The force
between the spheres is: (r ≫ R)

Q1 Q2 Q1 Q2
1. k 2
2. k (r 2
−R )
2
r

Q1 Q2 Q1 Q2
3. k r 2
+R2
4. k (r+R) 2

Page: 4
 NEET Level Test (10-Dec-23)
Contact Number: 9667591930 / 8527521718

28. A small conducting sphere of variable 31. Consider an H Cl molecule, where one of its
radius is given a charge q. Consider the electrons is located exactly midway between
electrostatic field at a point P outside this the two nuclei, at a given instant. Ignore all the
sphere, due to the charge. other electrons and any quantum effects.

Let F→H be the electrostatic force exerted by the

electron on the H -nucleus and F→Cl be the force
As the radius of the sphere is slowly increased exerted by the electron on the Cl nucleus.
(like a balloon inflating), the electric field at P : Then:
→
|F Cl | = |F → |and F→ is opposite to F→H
remains constant in magnitude and 1. H Cl

1.
direction.
increases in magnitude, but retains its → → and F→ & F→H are in same
2. 2. |F Cl | = |F H | Cl

direction. direction
3.
decreases in magnitude, but retains its 3. |F→Cl | → and F→ is opposite to F→
> |F H Cl H
direction.
4. changes in magnitude and direction. 4. |F→ | < |F→ | and F→ is opposite to F→
Cl H Cl H

29. A pair of parallel plates of surface area A 32. A uniformly charged thin rod of length L
are placed at a small distance d from each carries a total charge q. The potential at a point
other. If a dielectric of dielectric constant K is A, on the perpendicular bisector of the rod,
inserted between the plates, the capacitance is: and at a distance L from its centre is:
1
ε0 A Kε0 A
1. 2. (k =
4πε0
)
d d

ε0 A (K+1)ε0 A
3. 4.
K d d

30. The superposition principle for an electric

field applies (i.e. valid): kq k q
1. 2. less than
L L

1. only when the charges are discrete. 3. greater than

k q
4. zero
L
only when the charges are continuous but
2.
uniformly distributed.
3. only for non-uniform charge distributions.
for all cases, whether charges are discrete or
4.
continuous; uniform or non-uniform.

Page: 5
 NEET Level Test (10-Dec-23)
Contact Number: 9667591930 / 8527521718

33. Two dipoles are placed along the x-axis, as
shown in the figure, in two different
configurations: A and B. Then, they will:
1. attract in (A), repel in (B).
2. repel in (A), attract in (B).
3. attract in both (A) and (B).
4. repel in both (A) and (B).
Physics - Section B
36. Kirchhoff's current law (for nodes) is valid:
1. only for steady currents
2. only for circuits with resistances
3. only for currents carried by electrons
4. universally
37. The potential difference across the 2 Ω
resistance is:

34. A point charge q is placed at the centre of 1. 6 V 2. 4 V

the flat surface of a semi-infinite cylinder of
radius r. The flux of its electric field through
the curved surface of the cylinder is:
3. 2 V 4. 1 V
38. In a metre bridge arrangement the
resistances in the gaps P , Q differ by 100 Ω
and the balance length measured from the left,
is 25 cm (total length = 100 cm).
The unknown resistance Q is given by:

q q
1. ε0
2. 2ε0

2q
3. ε0
4. 0
1. 50 Ω 2. 100 Ω

3. 150 Ω 4. 400 Ω

35. Three identical capacitances C each are

connected in the form of a triangle:
39. Ohm's law can be re-stated in terms of other
quantities as (under appropriate assumptions):
Potential difference = (current density ×
1.
resistivity)
2. Electric field = (current density × resistivity)
The capacitance of the combination, between A
3. Current density = (electric field × resistivity)
and B, is:
Current density = (potential difference ×
1.
2
2. 4.
3
C 2C
conductivity)
3
3. 2
C 4. 3C

Page: 6
 NEET Level Test (10-Dec-23)
Contact Number: 9667591930 / 8527521718

40. A potential difference VAB is impressed 43. For the circuit shown in the figure, all the
across AB and the potential difference across three batteries are ideal. Match the column.
CD (VCD ) is measured. Assume,
VAB = 300 V.

The current through the 8 Ω resistance is:

300 300
1. 17
A 2. 8.5
A
Column-I Column-II
3. 30 A 4. (
300
+
300
) A The value of R such that
14 11
A. current through 3 V P. 1 Ω

battery is zero.
The value of R such that
41. If two incandescent bulbs, 50 W and B. current through 1 V Q. 2 Ω
100 W, are connected in series across the
battery is zero.
mains then (compared with their original The value of R such that
brightness): C. current through 2 V R. 3 Ω
100 W – glows brighter, 50 W – glows
1. battery is zero.
dimmer
The value of R for which
100 W – glows dimmer, 50 W – glows Not possible for
2. D. current through 3 V S.
brighter any value of R.
battery is 5/8 A.
3. 100 W, 50 W – both glow brighter Codes:
4. 100 W, 50 W – both glow dimmer A B C D
1. P P Q S
2. Q Q P S
42. A potential difference VAB is impressed
3. S S S P
across AB and the potential difference across
CD (VCD ) is measured. Assume, 4. S S P Q
VAB = 300 V.

44. The SI unit of current density is:

3 2
1. A/m 2. A/m

3. A/m 4. A-m

The potential difference across the 3 Ω resistor

is:
1. 90 V 2. 60 V
3. 240 V 4. 30 V

Page: 7
 NEET Level Test (10-Dec-23)
Contact Number: 9667591930 / 8527521718

45. Pick the correct graph between potential V 48. When the key K is closed, the currents
at distance r from centre for the uniformly through the 3 Ω and 6 Ω resistors are
charged spherical shell of radius R. (respectively):

1. 1 A, 2 A 2. zero, 2 A

3. zero, 1 A 4. 2 A, 1 A

1. 2.

49. Given below are two statements:

Electrical resistance of most
Assertion (A): metallic resistors increases with
3. 4. temperature.
This is mainly due to the
Reason (R): increase in their resistivity with
temperature.

46. A parallel plate capacitor (C) is charged by

Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the
connecting it to a battery (emf E ). A dielectric 1. correct explanation of (A).
slab is inserted into the space between the
Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the
plates. 2.
correct explanation of (A).
(I) The charge on the plates increases.
3. (A) is true but (R) is false.
The energy stored in the capacitor
(II) 4. (A) is false but (R) is true.
increases.
Work is done by the battery as the slab is
(III)
inserted.
50. The equivalent resistance between A and B
Choose the correct option: is:
1. I, II are true 2. I and III are true
3. only I is true 4. I, II, and III are true

47. Electric field due to a dipole at an equatorial

point depends upon r−n . Value of n is:
1. 0 2. 2

3. −3 4. 3
1. 20 Ω 2. 4.8 Ω

3. 10 Ω 4. 5 Ω

Page: 8
 NEET Level Test (10-Dec-23)
Contact Number: 9667591930 / 8527521718

Chemistry - Section
55. For the dissolution of a solid in a liquid,
choose the incorrect statement:

A
If the dissolution is endothermic, the
1. solubility should increase with rise in
51. KH values for Ar( g), CO2(g) , H CH O(g) temperature.
and CH4(g) are 40.39, 1.67, 1.83 × 10 and 2. If the dissolution is exothermic, the solubility
−5

should decrease with rise in temperature.

0.413 respectively. Arrange these gases in the
order of their increasing solubility. Pressure affects the solubility of solids in
1. H CH O < CH4 < CO2 < Ar 3. liquids such that on increasing pressure, the
solubility of solids in liquids increases.
2. H CH O < CO2 < CH4 < Ar
3. Ar < CO2 < CH4 < H CH O Solute dissolves in a solvent if the
4. Ar < CH4 < CO2 < H CH O 4. intermolecular interactions are similar in
the two.
52. Two metals ‘A’ and ‘B’ have standard
reduction potential (Eored) values equal to 0.36
56. This reaction is a zero-order with respect to
V and 1.23 V respectively. The correct cell N O.
2
equation will be:
2 N2 O(g) ⟶ 2 N2 ( g) + O2 ( g)
2+ 2+
A + B → A + B →
1. 2+
2. 2+
If the half-life for this reaction is 19.0 minutes
A + B A + B
and the initial concentration of N2O is 1.39 M,
3. Both 1 & 2 4. None of the above. then the value of rate constant k, is:
1. 0.0158 mol L–1min–1 2. 0.0263 mol L–1 min–1
53. The reduction potential at pH = 14 for the 3. 0.0366 mol L–1 min–1 4. 0.0526 mol L–1 min–1
Cu2+/Cu couples is:
[Given, ECu
o
= 0.34 V; Ksp Cu(OH)2 = 1×10-
/Cu 2+
57. At 300 K, when a solute is added to a
19] solvent, its vapour pressure over the mercury
1. 0.34 V 2. -0.34 V reduces from 50 mm to 45 mm. The value of the
3. 0.22 V 4. -0.22 V mole fraction of the solute will be:
1. 0.005 2. 0.010
3. 0.100 4. 0.900
54. The osmotic pressure of a 5 % (W/V)
solution of cane sugar at 150 °C is:
1. 1.45 atm 2. 5.07 atm 58. When two liquids A and B mix together,
3. 3.4 atm 4. 4 atm the boiling point of solution is found higher
than that of the individual liquids. The nature
of the solution is:
1. Ideal solution.
2. Positive deviation with a non-ideal solution.
3. Negative deviation with a non-ideal solution.
4. Normal solution.

Page: 9
 NEET Level Test (10-Dec-23)
Contact Number: 9667591930 / 8527521718

59. 62. The correct statement regarding dry cells

A mixture of chloroform and
acetone forms a solution with a
Assertion (A):
negative deviation from
Raoult's Law.
In such solutions, the
intermolecular forces of
attraction between the
molecules of the solution (A-B
Reason (R):
attractions) are weaker than
those of either of the pure
components (A-A attractions or
B-B attractions).
among the following is:
a. It is also known as the Leclanche cell.
The electrolyte is a moist paste of
b. ammonium chloride (NH4Cl) and zinc
chloride (ZnCl2 ).
The cathodic reaction is : MnO2 + NH4++ e-→
c.
MnO(OH) + NH3
1. Only a and b are correct 2. Only c is correct
3. Only b and c are correct 4. All are correct

1. Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the

correct explanation of (A). 63. If molar conductivity of Ca2+ and Cl- ions
Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the are 119 and 71 Scm2mol-1 respectively, then the
2.
correct explanation of (A). molar conductivity of CaCl2 at infinite dilution
3. (A) is true but (R) is false. is:
4. Both (A) and (R) are false. 1. 215 Scm2 mol−1 2. 340 Scm2 mol−1
3. 126 Scm2 mol−1 4. 261 Scm2 mol−1
60. An aqueous solution among the following,
that has the highest boiling point is:
64. The standard Gibbs free energy for the
1. 1.0 M NaOH 2. 1.0 M N a2 SO4
following reaction is:
3. 1.0 M N H4 N O3 4. 1.0 M KNO3 Fe
2+ +
(aq) + Ag (aq) → F e
3+
(aq) + Ag(s)

Given:
o o o
(E +
= 0.80V ; E 3+ 2+
= 0.77V ; E 2+
= 0.44V )
61.
Ag /Ag Fe /F e Fe /F e

.
The freezing point of 0.05 M
1. - 2.895 kJ/mol 2. - 2.895 J/mol
urea solution is different from
Assertion (A): 3. - 239.287 kJ/mol 4. 239.287 kJ/mol
that of 0.05 M sodium chloride
solution.
The depression in the freezing
point is directly proportional to 65. By significant changes in pressure, the
Reason (R): solubility of solids in liquids:
the number of species present
in the solution. 1. Increases 2. Decreases
Either increases or Remains
3. 4.
Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the decreases unaffected
1.
correct explanation of (A).
Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the
2.
correct explanation of (A).
3. (A) is true but (R) is false.
4. Both (A) and (R) are false.

Page: 10
 NEET Level Test (10-Dec-23)
Contact Number: 9667591930 / 8527521718

66. The molar conductance at infinite dilution 70. The molar conductivity of a 0.15 M solution
of K+ and Cl- ions are 62.12 × 10 Sm /mol of KCl at 298 K, whose conductivity is 0.0152 S
−4 2

-1
and 73.54 × 10−4 Sm /mol respectively. The cm , will be:
2

molar conductance at infinite dilution for 1. 124 Ω−1 cm2 mol−1

−1 2 −1

potassium chloride is: 2. 204 Ω cm mol

2 2 3. 101 Ω−1 cm2 mol−1
1. 124.66 Scm /mol 2. 135.66 Scm /mol
2 2
4. 300 Ω−1 cm2 mol−1
3. 198.20 Scm /mol 4. 175.78 Scm /mol
71. Given the cell reaction
P b + Sn
2+
⟶ Pb
2+
+ Sn . Also, given
67. A volatile solute (A) is mixed with a volatile that, Pb ⟶ Pb
2+
,E
0
= 0.13 V and
solvent (B). For this solution, vapour pressure is Sn2+ + 2e− ⟶ Sn; E 0 = −0.14 V . What
represented as P = 125 XA + 45 torr (XA = Mole would be the ratio of log of concentration of
fraction of A in liquid phase) The vapour cation of lead to the conc of cation of tin for
pressures of A and B in a pure state, which E = 0?
respectively, are: 1. 1/4 2. 1/2
1. 125 torr and 45 torr 2. 170 torr and 45 torr 3. 1/3 4. 1/1
3. 125 torr and 170 torr 4. 45 torr and 170 torr

72. An immiscible mixture among the following

68. The incorrect statement regarding H2 − O2 is:
fuel cell among the following is: 1. C5H12 + Alcohol 2. Alcohol + Amine
3. H2O + Alcohol 4. Toluene + Benzene
The cell was used for providing electrical
1.
power in the Apollo space program.
The energy of combustion is directly
2. 73. If the osmotic pressure of the 4 % (w/v)
converted into electrical energy.
solution of sucrose is the same as the 2 % (w/v)
Concentrated aqueous NaOH solution is solution of 'X' , then the molecular mass of X is:
3.
used as an electrolyte.
1. 570 g/mol 2. 205.2 g/mol
The reaction at anode is 4H2O(l) + 4e– → 3. 171 g/mol 4. None of these
4.
2H2(g) + 4OH– (aq).

74. Consider the following solutions:

69. Consider the following facts: A=0.1 M glucose,
A. Copper solution can be stirred with a silver B= 0.05 M NaCl
spoon. C= 0.05 M BaCl2
B. Zinc solution can be stirred with a silver D= 0.1 M AlCl3
spoon. Isotonic pair among the following is:
C. Copper solution cannot be stored in a zinc 1. A and B 2. A and D
pot. 3. A and C 4. B and C
Based on the above facts, choose the correct
order of the standard reduction potential of
/Zn and Ag /Ag:
2+ 2+ +
Cu /Cu; Zn
75. A solution that has the highest osmotic
1. ECu /Cu > EAg /Ag > EZn /Zn
o
2+
o o
+
pressure among the following is:
2+

2. ECuo
< E
o
< E
o
0.5 M Glucose
2+
/Cu Ag
+
/Ag Zn
2+
/Zn 1. 0.1 M NaCl solution 2.
solution
3. EAgo
+
> E
o

Cu2+ /Cu
> E
o

Zn2+ /Zn
/Ag
0.1
4. EZno
> E
o
> E
o
3. M MgCl solution 4. 0.2 M KCl solution
2
2+ 2+ +
/Zn Cu /Cu Ag /Ag

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Contact Number: 9667591930 / 8527521718

76. 79. Al2O3 is reduced by electrolysis at low

Conductivity decreases with
the decrease in the
Assertion (A):
concentration of both the weak
and strong electrolytes.
The number of ions per unit
volume that carry the current
Reason (R):
in a solution decreases on
dilution.
potentials and high currents. If 4.0 x 104 A of
current is passed through molten Al2O3 for 6
hours, the mass of aluminum produced is:
(Assume 100 % current efficiency, the atomic
mass of Al = 27 g mol-1)
1. 9.0 x 103 g 2. 8.1 x 104 g
3. 2.4 x 105 g 4. 1.3 x 104 g

Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the

1. 80. The electrolytes (A) and (B) in the below
correct explanation of (A).
Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the graph, respectively, may be:
2.
correct explanation of (A).
3. (A) is true but (R) is false.
4. (A) is false but (R) is true.

77. The conductivity of 0.0024 mol/L solution of

methanoic acid is 110 × 10 S cm−1 . The
−6

degree of dissociation of a weak acid is: 1. A = KCl; B = ​NH4OH

{Given: 2. A = NH4OH; B = CH3COOH
Λ
o 2
= 350Scm mol
+
−1
;Λ
o
−
2
= 55Scm mol 3.−1A}= CH3COOH; B= CH3COONa
H H COO
4. A = NH4OH; B = NaCl
1. 0.981 2. 0.792
3. 0.113 4. 0.501 81. The correct statements among the following
is:
A porous membrane used in reverse
78. (i) osmosis is a film of cellulose acetate placed
The voltage of the mercury cell over a suitable support.
Assertion(A): remains constant for a longer To increase the solubility of CO2 in soft
period of time. (ii) drinks and soda water, the bottle is sealed
The net cell reaction does not under high pressure.
Reason(R):
involve any ions in a solution.
In osmosis, only the solvent moves while in
(iii)
diffusion both solute and solvent move.
1. Both A and R are true, and R is the correct
explanation of A. 1. Only (i) and (ii) 2. Only (ii)
2. Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct 3. Only (ii) and (iii) 4. (i), (ii) and (iii)
explanation of A.
3. A is true, and R is false.
4. A is false, and R is true. 82. The conductivity of pure water is
. The resistance measured
−8 −1 −1
5.5 × 10 Ω cm

for this sample of water in the conductivity cell

(Cell constant = 0.21 cm-1) is:
1. 3.82 × 106 Ω 2. 3.82 × 104 Ω
3. 3.82 × 102 Ω 4. 3.82 × 1010 Ω

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 NEET Level Test (10-Dec-23)
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83. During electrolysis of aqueous NaCl solution 88. The formula for the half-life of a zero-order
using 'Pt' electrodes, the products is/are: reaction is:
(a)H2 (Given: Co = Initial concentration of reactant)
(b) Cl2 [C0 ]
1.
(c) NaOH k
[C0 ]
1. Only (a) and (b) 2. Only (b) and (c) 2.
2k

3. Only (a) and (c) 4. (a), (b) and (c) [2C0 ]

3.
k
[2C0 ]
4. 3k
84. For the reaction:
2N O2 (g) → 2N O(g) + O2 (g)
89. For a reaction, A + B → Product; the rate law
at a certain temperature, the initial rate of
is given by, r=k[A]1/2[B]2. The order of the
decomposition of N O2 is 0.0036 mol L-1s-1. The reaction is:
initial rate of formation of O2(g) in mol L-1 s- 1. -1.5 2. 1.5
1 is:
3. 0.5 4. 2.5
1. 0.0018 2. 0.0036
3. 0.0054 4. 0.0072
90. For a reaction, A + B → products, the rate is
double when the concentration of B is halved
85. The vapour pressure of two (keeping [A] constant), while the rate is halved
liquids P and Q are 80 and 60 torr respectively. when the concentration of A is halved (keeping
The total vapour pressure of solution obtained [B] constant). The overall order of the reaction
by mixing 3 moles of P and 2 moles of Q would is:
be:
1. 140 torr 2. 20 torr 1. 1 2. 0.5
3. 68 torr 4. 72 torr 3. 0 4. 2

91. For the general reaction X→ Y, the plot of

Chemistry - Section concentration of X vs. time is given in the
figure. The order of the reaction and units of
B rate constant, respectively, are:
86. For a first order reaction A → B, the reaction
rate at reactant concentration of 0.01 M is
found to be 2.0×10-5 mol L-1s-1. The half-life
period of the reaction is:
1. 220 s 2. 30 s
3. 300 s 4. 347 s

1. Zero, mol-1 L-1 s-1 2. First, mol L-1 s-1

87. The rate law for the dimerisation of N O2 is: 3. First, s-1 4. Zero, L-1 mol s-1

d[NO2 ] 2
− = k[NO2 ]
dt 92. The value of k at T→ ∞ in the Arrhenius
The value of the specific rate constant, k can be equation would be:
changed by: 1. A 2. −A
1. Doubling the total pressure on the system.
2. Doubling the temperature. 3. e
A
4. e
−A

3. Both of (1) and (2)

4. None of the above.

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 NEET Level Test (10-Dec-23)
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93. Values of the standard reduction potential 97. For the reaction,
of three metallic ions P, Q, and R are 0.77 V, ‐ H + + BrO− 3
+ 3Br
−
→ 5Br2 + H2 O the
2.93 V, and ‐0.13 V, respectively. The correct correct representation of the consumption &
order of stronger reducing agents is: formation of reactants and products is:
1. R > Q > P 2. P > Q > R d[Br ] 3 d[Br ]
−
2

1. dt = − 5 dt
3. Q > R > P 4. R > P > Q −
d[Br ] 3 d[Br ] 2

2. dt = 5 dt
−
d[Br ] 5 d[Br2 ]

94. Incorrect statement about zero-order 3. dt

= −
3 dt

reaction among the following is:

−
d[Br ] d[Br2 ]
5
4. =
The concentration of reactant decreases dt 3 dt

1.
linearly with time
98. The INCORRECT statement among the
The concentration of reactant increases
2. following regarding the collision theory of
linearly with time
chemical reactions is:
Half‐life is directly proportional to the initial
3.
concentration of the reactant The reactant molecule is assumed to be a
4. The unit of rate constant, k is mol L-1 time-1 1.
hard sphere.
Collision frequency between reactants is the
2. only factor that determines the rate of the
95. reaction.
Order is applicable only for The steric factor takes into account the
elementary reactions whereas 3. relative orientation of the reactant molecules
Statement
molecularity is applicable for both during collisions.
I:
elementary as well as complex The theory does not take into account the
reactions. 4. structural aspects of the molecules during a
Statement Order of a reaction is an collision.
II: experimental quantity.
In the light of the above statements, identify the
correct option: 99. A 100 mL water sample from a polluted lake
1. Both statement I and statement II are correct contains 21.2 mg of Arsenic (As). The
2. Both statement I and statement II are concentration of arsenic in ppm in the lake is:
incorrect (Given: Density of water = 1 g/mL)
3. Statement I is incorrect but statement II is 1. 212000 ppm 2. 212 ppm
correct
3. 2120 ppm 4. 21.2 ppm
4. Statement I is correct but statement II is
incorrect

96. Consider the following reaction:

A(g) → B(g) + C(g)

The initial pressure isP o and the pressure at 't'

time isPt (Pt > P o ). Assuming that the above
reaction is of first order, the rate expression
will be:
o
2.303 P
1. K = t log P
t
o
2.303 2P
2. K =
t
log
P o
−Pt
o
2.303 P
3. K =
t
log
2P
o
−Pt
o
2.303 2P
4. K =
t
log
3P
o
−Pt

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 NEET Level Test (10-Dec-23)
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100. Consider the following statements:
The function of a catalyst in a chemical
(i). reaction is to reduce the enthalpy of the
reaction.
For a chemical reaction with a rise in
(ii). temperature by 10°, the rate constant
nearly doubles.
Order is applicable to elementary as well
as complex reactions whereas
(iii).
molecularity is applicable only for
elementary reactions.
True statement(s) among the options given 3. Assertion is true but Reason is false
above is:
1. ii and i only 2. i and iii only
3. iii only 4. ii and iii only
Biololgy I - Section A
101. Parthenium or carrot grass that came into
India as a contaminant with imported wheat:
1. is an important source for biodiesel
2. cures pollen allergy
3. has become ubiquitous in occurrence
4. is very important for organic farmers as bio-
fertilizer
102. Dioecy condition in flowering plants 3. Statement I is correct; Statement II is
prevents:
1. autogamy but not geitonogamy and
xenogamy
2. autogamy and geitonogamy but not
xenogamy
3. xenogamy and geitonogamy but not 105. The cells of which of following layers in
autogamy
3. autogamy, geitonogamy and xenogamy
103. Consider the given two statements:
Cleistogamous flowers produce
Assertion: assured seed-set even in the absence
of pollinators.
Cleistogamous flowers are
Reason:
invariably autogamous.
Both Assertion and Reason are true and
1.
Reason explains Assertion
Both Assertion and Reason are true and
2.
Reason does not explain Assertion
4. Assertion is false but Reason is true
104. Consider the given two statements:
Pollination plays a critical role in
Statement
I:
the sexual reproduction in
flowering plants.
As both types of gametes are non-
Statement
motile, they have to be brought
II:
together for fertilisation to occur.
1. Statement I is correct; Statement II is correct
Statement I is incorrect; Statement II is
2.
correct
incorrect
Statement I is incorrect; Statement II is
4.
incorrect
the wall of a typical microsporangium possess
dense cytoplasm and generally have more than
one nucleus?
1. Epidermis 2. Middle layers
3. Endothecium 4. Tapetum
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 NEET Level Test (10-Dec-23)
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106. Study the given two statements:
In some angiosperm species, pollen release
A:
and stigma receptivity are not synchronised.
In some other angiosperm species, the
B: anther and stigma are placed at different
positions.
Both these devices:
I. prevent autogamy.
II: necessitates the use of wind or water as
pollinating agents.
1. Only I is true 2. Only II is true
3. Both I and II are true 4. Both I and II are false 3. incorrect
107. For megasporogenesis ovules generally
differentiate a single megaspore mother cell,
(MMC) in:
1. the chalazal region of the nucellus.
2. the micropylar region of the nucellus.
3. the micropylar region of the embryo sac.
4. the chalazal region of the embryo sac.
111. Consider the given two statements:
In water pollinated plants such as
Statement
seagrasses, female flowers remain
I:
submerged in water.
Statement Pollen grains in such plants are
II: released on to the surface of water.
1. Statement I is correct; Statement II is correct
Statement I is incorrect; Statement II is
2.
correct
Statement I is correct; Statement II is
Statement I is incorrect; Statement II is
4.
incorrect
112. In the given diagram of corn plant, tassels
are represented by the alphabet:

108. In the given diagram:

I: A is filiform apparatus, B is synergid,

II: C is PEN, D are egg cells
III: E is generative nucleus, F is antipodal 1. A 2. B
1. Only I is correct 2. Only I and III are correct 3. C 4. D
3. Only II is correct 4. Only II and III are correct

109. For the organisation of the typical female

gametophyte or embryo sac how many of the
nuclei are surrounded by cell walls and
organised into cells:
1. 6 2. 7
3. 8 4. 4

110. Pollen grain intine:

I: is the inner wall
II: is composed of sporopollenin
III: has prominent apertures
1. Only I is correct 2. Only I and III are correct
3. Only II is correct 4. I, II, III are incorrect

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 NEET Level Test (10-Dec-23)
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113. Consider the given two statements: 115. Consider the given two statements:
Flowering plants have developed Pollen grains are generally sticky in
Assertion:
many devices to discourage self- animal pollinated flowers.
Assertion:
pollination and to encourage cross- In general, pollination by animals
pollination. Reason: occurs after they reach inside the
Majority of flowering plants produce flowers for nectar.
hermaphrodite flowers and pollen
Reason:
grains are likely to come in contact Both Assertion and Reason are true and
with the stigma of the same flower. 1.
Reason explains Assertion
Both Assertion and Reason are true and
Both Assertion and Reason are true and 2.
1. Reason does not explain Assertion
Reason explains Assertion 3. Assertion is true but Reason is false
Both Assertion and Reason are true and 4. Assertion is false but Reason is true
2.
Reason does not explain Assertion
3. Assertion is true but Reason is false
4. Assertion is false but Reason is true 116. In a typical female gametophyte [embryo
sac] of angiosperms:
Three cells are at the chalazal end and are
114. Consider the given two statements: I:
called the antipodals.
In a normal flower which opens II: The large central cell has two polar nuclei.
Statement and exposes the anthers and the 1. Only I is correct 2. Only II is correct
I: stigma, complete autogamy is
Both I and II are Both I and II are
rather rare. 3. 4.
correct incorrect
Self-pollination can lead to
Statement inbreeding depression due to
II: expression of deleterious recessive
117. There are many ovules in the ovary in all
mutations.
the following angiosperms, except:
1. orchids 2. paddy
1. Statement I is correct; Statement II is correct
3. papaya 4. water melon
Statement I is incorrect; Statement II is
2.
correct
Statement I is correct; Statement II is 118. Integuments of an ovule encircle the
3.
incorrect nucellus except at the tip where a small
Statement I is incorrect; Statement II is opening is organised, called the:
4.
incorrect 1. germ pore 2. chalaza
3. micropyle 4. filiform apparatus

119. Seeds retain a part of endosperm as it is

not completely used up during embryo
development in all of the following, except:
1. wheat 2. maize
3. castor 4. groundnut

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 NEET Level Test (10-Dec-23)
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120. Consider the given two statements: 123. Consider the given two statements:
In over 60 per cent of angiosperms, Relationship between a species of
Statement Statement
pollen grains are shed at 2-celled moth and the plant Yucca is
I: I:
stage. obligatory.
In the remaining species, the The moth deposits its eggs in the
Statement
vegetative cell divides mitotically to locule of the ovary and the flower,
Statement II:
give rise to the two male gametes in turn, gets pollinated by the moth.
II:
before pollen grains are shed (3-
celled stage). 1. Statement I is correct; Statement II is correct
Statement I is incorrect; Statement II is
1. Statement I is correct; Statement II is correct 2.
correct
Statement I is incorrect; Statement II is Statement I is correct; Statement II is
2. 3.
correct incorrect
Statement I is correct; Statement II is Statement I is incorrect; Statement II is
3. 4.
incorrect incorrect
Statement I is incorrect; Statement II is
4.
incorrect
124. How many of the given statements are
correct?
121. Regarding the use of animals as pollinating I: Vallisneria and Hydrilla grow in fresh water
agents by flowering plants, how many of the II: Zostera is a marine sea-grass
given statements are true? III: All aquatic plants use water for pollination.
Majority of flowering plants use a range of IV: Water lily is pollinated by insect.
I:
animals as pollinating agents. 1. 1 2. 2
Birds except sunbirds and humming birds 3. 3 4. 4
II:
are common pollinators.
III: Bats also pollinate some plants.
Among the animals, insects, particularly 125. Xenogamy:
IV: bees are the dominant biotic pollinating is the transfer of pollen grains from anther
I:
agents. to the stigma of a different plant.
No known reptile is a pollinating agent for is the only type of pollination which during
V: II: pollination brings genetically different
any plant.
1. 2 2. 3 types of pollen grains to the stigma.
3. 4 4. 5 III: is cross pollination.
Only II and III are
1. Only I is correct 2.
correct
122. Endosperm development precedes embryo I, II and III are I, II and III are
3. 4.
development. Why? correct incorrect
1. Endosperm is triploid tissue in angiosperms.
Endosperm can be free nuclear or cellular
2. 126. To sustain animal visits, the flowers have
type.
Endosperm contains growth factors to provide rewards to the animals.
3. necessary to induce dormancy if conditions Nectar and pollen grains are the usual floral
A:
are unfavourable. rewards.
Endosperm cells are filled with reserve food In some species floral rewards are in
B:
4. materials and are used for the nutrition of providing safe places to lay eggs.
the developing embryo. 1. Only A is correct 2. Only B is correct
Both A and B are Both A and B are
3. 4.
correct incorrect

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 NEET Level Test (10-Dec-23)
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127. Following compatible pollination:
the pollen germinates on the stigma to
I: produce a pollen tube through one of the
germ pores present in the pollen intine.
the contents of the pollen grain move into
II:
the pollen tube.
pollen tube grows through the tissues of the
III:
stigma and style and reaches the ovary.
if pollen grains are shed at two-celled
condition the generative cell divides and
IV:
forms the two male gametes during the
growth of pollen tube in the stigma.
1. Only I, II and III are correct
2. Only I, III and IV are correct
3. Only II, III and IV are correct
4. I, II, III and IV are correct
128. Consider the two statements regarding 3. egg cell which play an important role in
angiosperms:
Statement I: Pollen tube is the male
gametophyte.
Statement II: Ovule contains the female
gametophyte.
1. Statement I is correct; Statement II is correct
Statement I is incorrect; Statement II is
2.
correct
Statement I is correct; Statement II is
3.
incorrect
Statement I is incorrect; Statement II is
4.
incorrect
129. In a majority of flowering plants:
One of the megaspores is functional while
I:
the other three degenerate.
Only the functional megaspore develops into 1. Statement I is correct; Statement II is correct
II:
the female gametophyte (embryo sac).
1. Only I is correct 2. Only II is correct
Both I and II are Both I and II are
3. 4.
correct incorrect
130. Identify the incorrect statement:
1. Pollination by wind is more common
amongst abiotic pollinations.
2. Wind-pollination is quite common in grasses.
3. Almost all gymnosperms are pollinated by
wind.
4. Almost all angiosperms are pollinated by
wind.
131. Two nuclei that migrate to the center of the
embryo sac in angiosperms and fuse with a
male nucleus (sperm) to form the primary
endosperm nucleus which divides and forms
the endosperm, are called:
1. restitution nuclei 2. blasts
3. polar nuclei 4. unreduced nuclei
132. Filiform apparatus:
is special cellular thickening present in the
1. synergids which play an important role in
guiding the pollen tubes into the synergid.
is special cellular thickening present in the
2. synergids which play an important role in
guiding the pollen tubes into the egg cell.
is special cellular thickening present in the
guiding the pollen tubes into the synergid.
is special cellular thickening present in the
4. antipodals which play an important role in
guiding the pollen tubes into the synergid.
133. Consider the given two statements:
Cryopreservation or
cryoconservation is a process where
Statement biological material - cells, tissues, or
I: organs - are frozen to preserve the
material for an extended period of
time.
It is not possible to store pollen
Statement
grains of angiosperms by
II:
cryopreservation.
Statement I is incorrect; Statement II is
2.
correct
Statement I is correct; Statement II is
3.
incorrect
Statement I is incorrect; Statement II is
4.
incorrect
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 NEET Level Test (10-Dec-23)
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134. How many of the given statements are 138. Parthenocarpy:

correct? I: is production of seeds without fertilisation
Majority of insect-pollinated flowers are means that fruits develop without
I: II:
large, colourful, fragrant and rich in nectar. fertilisation
When insect pollinated flowers are small, a can be induced through the application of
II: number of flowers are clustered into an III:
growth hormones
inflorescence. IV: leads to production of seedless fruits
Animals are attracted to flowers by colour 1. Only I, II and III are correct
III:
and/or fragrance. 2. Only I, III and IV are correct
The relationship between plants and their 3. Only II, III and IV are correct
IV: animal pollinators is one of the best 4. I, II, III and IV are correct
examples of mutualism.
1. 1 2. 2 139. Consider the given statements:
3. 3 4. 4 As ovules mature into seeds, the ovary
I:
develops into a fruit.
The transformation of ovules into seeds and
II:
135. In papaya: ovary into fruit proceeds simultaneously.
both male and female flowers are present The wall of the ovary develops into the wall
I: III:
on the same plant of fruit called endocarp.
II: autogamy is prevented, but not geitonogamy Only I and II are Only I and III are
1. 2.
1. Only I is true 2. Only II is true correct correct
3. Both I and II are true 4. Both I and II are false Only II and III are I, II and III are
3. 4.
correct correct

Biology I - Section B 140. Consider the given two statements:

136. In angiosperms, after entering one of the Endosperm tissue of angiosperms
synergids, the number of male gametes Assertion: can be a source of nutrition in
released into the cytoplasm of the synergid by animal diet.
the pollen tube is: Wheat endosperm is ground into
1. 1 2. 2 flour for bread, while barley
Reason:
3. 3 4. 4 endosperm is the main source of
sugars for beer production.

137. During double fertilisation in angiosperms: Both Assertion and Reason are true and
1.
Syngamy results in the formation of a Reason explains Assertion
I: Both Assertion and Reason are true and
diploid cell, the zygote. 2.
Triple fusion results in a triploid primary Reason does not explain Assertion
II: 3. Assertion is true but Reason is false
endosperm nucleus (PEN).
4. Assertion is false but Reason is true
1. Only I is true
2. Only II is true
141. Nucellar embryony:
3. Both I and II are true
I: is a type of apomixes
4. Both I and II are false II: occurs in many citrus varieties
1. Only I is correct 2. Only II is correct
Both I and II are Both I and II are
3. 4.
correct incorrect

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 NEET Level Test (10-Dec-23)
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142. Match each item in Column I with one in 145. Consider the given two statements:
Column II and select the best match from the Assertion: Seed is the basis of our agriculture.
codes given: Seeds are normally the products of
COLUMN I COLUMN II Reason:
sexual reproduction in angiosperms.
A Non- albuminous seeds P pea, groundnut
B Albuminous seeds Q wheat, maize Both Assertion and Reason are true and
1.
C Perisperm present R black pepper, beet Reason explains Assertion
Both Assertion and Reason are true and
2.
Codes: Reason does not explain Assertion
A B C 3. Assertion is true but Reason is false
1. P Q R 4. Assertion is false but Reason is true
2. P R Q
3. R P Q
4. R Q P 146. The science of changing the traits of plants
in order to produce desired characteristics is
known as:
143. Self-incompatibility: 1. Plant breeding 2. Horticulture
I: prevents inbreeding 3. Plantlet regeneration 4. Organogenesis
II: is a genetic mechanism
prevents self-pollen from fertilising the
147. A typical dicotyledonous embryo consists
III: ovules by inhibiting pollen germination or
of an embryonal axis and two cotyledons,
pollen tube growth in the pistil.
where:
Only I and II are Only I and III are The portion of embryonal axis above the
1. 2.
correct correct I: level of cotyledons is the epicotyl, which
Only II and III are I, II and III are terminates with the plumule or stem tip.
3. 4.
correct correct The cylindrical portion below the level of
II: cotyledons is hypocotyl that terminates at its
lower end in the radicle or root tip.
144. In angiosperms:
I: the seed is the final product of sexual
1. Only I is true
reproduction.
II: the seed is often described as a fertilised 2. Only II is true
ovule. 3. Both I and II are true
III: seeds are formed inside fruits. 4. Both I and II are false
Only I and II are Only I and III are
1. 2.
correct correct
Only II and III are I, II and III are
3. 4.
correct correct

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148. Consider the given two statements 150. Consider the given two statements:
regarding artificial hybridisation experiments Pollination by water is quite rare in
carried out by plant breeders: Statement
flowering plants, limited to about 30
I:
If the female parent bears bisexual genera, mostly monocotyledons.
flowers, removal of anthers from Water is a regular mode of
Statement
the flower bud before the anther transport for the male gametes
I: Statement
dehisces using a pair of forceps is among the lower plant groups such
necessary. II:
as algae, bryophytes and
If the female parent produces pteridophytes.
Statement
unisexual flowers, there is no need
II:
for emasculation. 1. Statement I is correct; Statement II is correct
Statement I is incorrect; Statement II is
1. Statement I is correct; Statement II is correct 2.
correct
Statement I is incorrect; Statement II is Statement I is correct; Statement II is
2. 3.
correct incorrect
Statement I is correct; Statement II is Statement I is incorrect; Statement II is
3. 4.
incorrect incorrect
Statement I is incorrect; Statement II is
4.
incorrect

Biology II - Section A
149. Some plants such as Viola (common 151. Consider the given two statements:
pansy), Oxalis, and Commelina produce two The blastomeres in the blastocyst
types of flowers: are arranged into an inner layer
Cleistogamous flowers which are similar to Statement called trophoblast and an outer
I: flowers of other species with exposed I: group of cells attached to
anthers and stigma trophoblast called the outer cell
Chasmogamous flowers which do not open mass.
II:
at all. The outer cell mass then gets
Statement attached to the myometrium and
1. Statement I is correct; Statement II is correct II: the trophoblast cells get
Statement I is incorrect; Statement II is differentiated as the embryo.
2.
correct
Statement I is correct; Statement II is 1. Statement I is correct; Statement II is correct
3.
incorrect Statement I is incorrect; Statement II is
2.
Statement I is incorrect; Statement II is correct
4.
incorrect Statement I is correct; Statement II is
3.
incorrect
Statement I is incorrect; Statement II is
4.
incorrect

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152. Each seminiferous tubule is lined on its 155. Spermatogenesis starts at the age of
inside by two types of cells: puberty due to significant increase in the
male germ cells which undergo meiotic secretion of:
I:
divisions finally leading to sperm formation LH by anterior Inhibin by Sertoli
1. 2.
II: Sertoli cells that secrete the androgens pituitary cells
1. Only I is correct 2. Only II is correct GnRH by Androgens by Leydig
3. 4.
Both I and II are Both I and II are hypothalamus cells
3. 4.
correct incorrect

156. Identify the incorrectly matched pair, from

153. Identify the correct match for A, B, C and D following:
in the given figure: Shape of non-
1. Inverted pear like
pregnant uterus
Perimetrium of Outermost thick, tough
2.
uterus and inelastic ligament
Myometrium of Middle thick layer of
3.
uterus smooth muscle
Endometrium of
4. Inner glandular layer
uterus

A B C D 157. Which alphabet in the given figure

represents the structure that carries hydrolytic
1. 46 46 23 Second
enzymes that facilitates the entry of the sperm
2. 46 23 23 Secondary into the ovum?
3. 46 23 23 Second
4. 23 23 46 Secondary

154. What will be true for the parts labels A and

B in the given diagram?

1. A 2. B
3. C 4. D

158. When a female is born, her ovary contains

a large number of:
A is the longest male sex accessory duct and primary follicles with primary oocytes
I: 1.
stores sperms. arrested at Meiosis I
B is the only gland that does not contribute primary follicles with primary oocytes
2.
II: significantly to the composition of the arrested at Meiosis II
seminal plasma. secondary follicles with secondary oocytes
3.
1. Only I is correct 2. Only II is correct arrested at Meiosis I
Both I and II are Both I and II are secondary follicles with secondary oocytes
3. 4. 4.
correct incorrect arrested at Meiosis II

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 NEET Level Test (10-Dec-23)
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159. The glycoprotein layer surrounding the 163. In the given figure which two terms can be
secondary oocyte is known as: used to describe the phases A and B?
1. corona radiata 2. oolemma
3. zona pellucida 4. chorion

160. At what stage of follicular development

does the occyte completes its first meiotic
division?
1. Primordial follicle 2. Primary follicle
3. Secondary follicle 4. Tertiary follicle

161. At puberty, the number of follicles

remaining in each ovary is between:
1. 30000-40000 2. 60,000-80,000
3. 120000-160000 4. 240000-320000

A B
162. How many of the given statements Follicular /
regarding the male sex accessory ducts are 1. Luteal / Secretory
Proliferative
correct?
2. Follicular / Secretory Luteal / Proliferative
The male sex accessory ducts include rete
Proliferative /
I: testis, vasa efferentia, epididymis and vas 3. Luteal / Proliferative
Secretory
deferens.
Proliferative /
The seminiferous tubules of the testis open 4. Luteal / Secretory
II: Follicular
into the vasa efferentia through rete testis.
The vasa efferentia leave the testis and
III: open into epididymis located along the
164. The mitotic division in the zygote:
posterior surface of each testis.
I: starts when the zygote reaches the uterine
The epididymis leads to vas deferens that fundus
IV: ascends to the abdomen and loops over the II: are called cleavage divisions
urinary bladder. III: results in daughter cells called blastomeres
Vas deferens receives a duct from seminal Only I and II are Only I and III are
V: vesicle and opens into urethra as the 1. 2.
correct correct
ejaculatory duct. Only II and III are I, II and III are
Ejaculatory ducts store and transport the 3. 4.
correct correct
VI: sperms from the testis to the outside
through urethra.
The urethra originates from the urinary
bladder and extends through the penis to
VII:
its external opening called urethral
meatus.

1. 4 2. 5
3. 6 4. 7

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165. Consider the given two statements: 168. What is A in the given figure?
The testes are situated outside the
Assertion: abdominal cavity within a pouch
called scrotum.
The scrotum helps in maintaining
Reason: the low temperature of the testes
necessary for spermatogenesis.

Both Assertion and Reason are true and

1.
Reason explains the Assertion.
Both Assertion and Reason are true but
2.
Reason does not explain the Assertion.
3. Assertion is true but Reason is False
4. Assertion is False but Reason is true 1. Ooplasm 2. Perivitelline space
3. Periplasmic space 4. Theca interna

166. The changes in the ovary and the uterus

during menstrual cycle are induced by changes
in the levels of pituitary and ovarian hormones,
where:
The secretion of gonadotropins (LH and
FSH) increases gradually during the
I: follicular phase, and stimulates follicular
development as well as secretion of
estrogens by the growing follicles.
Both LH and FSH attain a peak level in the
II:
middle of cycle (about 14th day).
1. Only I is correct
2. Only II is correct
3. Both I and II are correct
4. Both I and II are incorrect
167. What is ‘X’ called in the given figure?
169. Human chorionic gonadotropin is secreted
by trophoblast cells as well and this hormone
resembles in action to:
1. LH 2. FSH
3. Oestrogen 4. Progesterone
170. All of the following will be true for ovaries,
except:
Ovaries are the primary female sex organs
1. that produce the female gamete and several
gonadotropins.
The ovaries are located one on each side of
2.
the lower abdomen
Each ovary is about 2 to 4 cm in length and is
3. connected to the pelvic wall and uterus by
ligaments.
Each ovary is covered by a thin epithelium
which encloses the ovarian stroma. The
4.
stroma is divided into two zones – a
peripheral cortex and an inner medulla.

1. ampulla 2. antrum
3. blastocoel 4. enterocoel

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171. Identify the correct statements: 174. See carefully the given figure. The cleavage
The reproductive cycle in the non-primate divisions in early embryonic stage in humans
I: should be regarded as:
female mammals is called menstrual cycle.
The first menstruation begins at puberty
II:
and is called menarche.
In human females, menstruation is
repeated at an average interval of about
III: 28/29 days, and the cycle of events starting
from one menstruation till the next one is Holoblastic and Holoblastic and
1. 2.
called the menstrual cycle. unequal equal
1. Only I and II 2. Only I and III Meroblastic and Meroblastic and
3. 4.
3. Only II and III 4. I, II and III unequal equal

172. Identify the correct match for Leydig cells: 175. The first polar body born out of first
meiotic division during oogenesis:
Stimulated
Location Secrete I: may divide further
by
II: may degenerate
Seminiferous tubule
1. LH Androgens 1. Only I is correct
lining
2. Only II is correct
Seminiferous tubule
2. FSH Inhibin 3. Both I and II are correct
lining
Interstitial space in 4. Both I and II are incorrect
3. LH Androgens
testis
Interstitial space in
4. FSH Inhibin 176. Consider the given two statements:
testis
The secondary oocyte retains bulk of
Assertion: the nutrient rich cytoplasm of the
173. How many of the given statements are primary oocyte.
correct? The division of primary oocyte is an
One ovum is released (ovulation) during unequal division resulting in the
I: Reason: formation of a large haploid
the middle of each menstrual cycle.
secondary oocyte and a tiny first
The cycle starts with the menstrual phase,
polar body.
II: when menstrual flow occurs and it lasts for
3-5 days. 1. Both Assertion and Reason are true and
Reason explains the Assertion.
The menstrual flow results due to
2. Both Assertion and Reason are true but
breakdown of endometrial lining of the
III: Reason does not explain the Assertion.
uterus and its blood vessels which forms
3. Assertion is true but Reason is False
liquid that comes out through vagina.
4. Assertion is False but Reason is true
Menstruation only occurs if the released
IV:
ovum is not fertilised. 177. What induces the completion of the
Lack of menstruation is always due to meiotic division of the secondary oocyte?
V:
pregnancy. 1. LH surge
2. Ovulation itself
1. 2 2. 3 3. Contact of sperm with zona pellucida
3. 4 4. 5 4. Entry of sperm into the cytoplasm of oocyte

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 NEET Level Test (10-Dec-23)
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178. Implantation is the event that leads to the 182. Consider the given two statements:
establishment of pregnancy. What structure A primary spermatocyte completes
gets implanted on the endometrium? the first meiotic division (reduction
1. Morula 2. Blastocyst Statement division) leading to formation of
3. Gastrula 4. Teratoma I: two equal, haploid cells called
secondary spermatocytes, which
have only 23 chromosomes each.
179. Match each item in Column I with one in The secondary spermatocytes
Column II and select the correct match from the Statement undergo the second meiotic division
codes given: to produce four equal, haploid
II:
COLUMN I COLUMN II spermatids, which have 23
A Insemination P embryonic development chromosomes each.
1. Statement I is correct; Statement II is correct
transfer of sperms into the
B Implantation Q 2. Statement I is incorrect; Statement II is
female genital tract
correct
C Gestation R delivery of the baby 3. Statement I is correct; Statement II is
attachment of blastocyst to incorrect
D Parturition S
the uterine wall 4. Statement I is incorrect; Statement II is
Codes: incorrect
A B C D
1. Q S R P 183. For normal male fertility:
2. S Q R P at least 60 per cent sperms must have
I:
3. Q S P R normal shape and size
4. S Q P R at least 40 per cent of them must show
II:
vigorous motility
1. Only I is correct 2. Only II is correct
180. The Graafian follicle ruptures to release: Both I and II are Both I and II are
3. 4.
the secondary oocyte arrested at Meiosis I correct incorrect
1.
from the ovary into the abdominal cavity.
the primary oocyte arrested at Meiosis I
2. 184. What induces the changes in zona
from the ovary into the uterine cavity.
pellucida leading to prevention of polyspermy?
the secondary oocyte arrested at Meiosis II
3. 1. LH surge
from the ovary into the abdominal cavity.
2. Ovulation itself
the primary oocyte arrested at Meiosis II 3. Contact of sperm with zona pellucida
4.
from the ovary into the uterine cavity. 4. Entry of sperm into the cytoplasm of oocyte

185. Consider the given two statements:

181. The sex of the baby in humans is decided Fertilisation occurs in the ampullary
at: Assertion:
region of the oviduct.
1. fertilization 2. implantation
Ampulla is the widest region of the
first cleavage division of Reason:
3. 4. puberty oviduct.
zygote
Both Assertion and Reason are true and
1.
Reason explains the Assertion.
Both Assertion and Reason are true but
2.
Reason does not explain the Assertion.
3. Assertion is true but Reason is False
4. Assertion is False but Reason is true

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 NEET Level Test (10-Dec-23)
Contact Number: 9667591930 / 8527521718
Biology II - Section B
186. Consider the given two statements:
Introduction of sex education in
Statement schools should also be encouraged
I: to provide right information to the
young.
Proper information about
reproductive organs, adolescence
and related changes, safe and
Statement hygienic sexual practices, sexually
II: transmitted diseases (STD), AIDS,
etc., would help people, especially
those in the adolescent age group to
lead a reproductively healthy life.
1. Statement I is correct; Statement II is
incorrect
2. Statement I is incorrect; Statement II is
incorrect
3. Statement I is correct; Statement II is correct
4. Statement I is incorrect; Statement II is
correct
187. Consider the given two statements:
India has made prenatal sex
Assertion:
determination illegal.
Amniocentesis can be misused for
Reason:
pre-natal sex determination.
1. Assertion is false but Reason is true
Both Assertion and Reason are true and the
2.
Reason explains the Assertion.
Both Assertion and Reason are true but the
3. Reason does not correctly explain the
Assertion.
4. Assertion is true bur Reason is false.
188. Consider the given two statements:
The inadequacy of the secretion of
Assertion: oxytocin may interfere with the
process of parturition.
Oxytocin is a peptide hormone
Reason: synthesised and secreted by
pituitary gland.
Both Assertion and Reason are true and
1.
Reason explains the Assertion.
Both Assertion and Reason are true but
2.
Reason does not explain the Assertion.
3. Assertion is true but Reason is False
4. Assertion is False but Reason is true
189. The signals for parturition originate from:
1. Maternal pituitary
2. Maternal hypothalamus
3. Fully developed foetus and placenta
4. Maternal ovary
190. Consider the given statements:
In the later phase of pregnancy, a hormone
I:
called relaxin is also secreted by the ovary.
hCG, hPL and relaxin are produced in
II:
women only during pregnancy.
1. Only I is correct 2. Only II is correct
Both I and II are Both I and II are
3. 4.
correct incorrect
191. Consider the given two statements:
Statement Lactational amenorrhea is a natural
I: method for contraception.
Lactational amenorrhea method is
based on the fact that ovulation and
Statement
therefore the cycle do not occur
II:
during the period of intense
lactation following parturition.
1. Statement I is correct; Statement II is
incorrect
2. Statement I is incorrect; Statement II is
incorrect
3. Statement I is correct; Statement II is correct
4. Statement I is incorrect; Statement II is
correct
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 NEET Level Test (10-Dec-23)
192. Consider the given two statements:
A society with people having
physically and functionally normal
reproductive organs and normal
Statement
emotional and behavioural
I:
interactions among them in all sex-
related aspects might be called
reproductively healthy.
According to the World Health
Organisation (WHO), reproductive
Statement health means a total well-being in
II: all aspects of reproduction, i.e.,
physical, emotional, behavioural
and social.
Statement I is correct; Statement II is
1.
incorrect
Statement I is incorrect; Statement II is
2.
incorrect
3. Statement I is correct; Statement II is correct
Statement I is incorrect; Statement II is
4.
correct
193. In the last century an all-round II:
development in various fields significantly
improved the quality of life of the people.
Currently in our country all the following are in
decline, except:
1. Maternal mortality 2. Infant mortality
3. Life expectancy 4. Death rate
194. MTP was first legalised in India in:
1. 1951 2. 1971
3. 2017 4. 2023
Contact Number: 9667591930 / 8527521718
195. How many of the given statements
regarding human placenta are correct?
I: It is formed only by the maternal tissue.
It facilitates the supply of oxygen and
nutrients to the embryo and also removal
II:
of carbon dioxide and excretory/waste
materials produced by the embryo.
The placenta is connected to the embryo
through an umbilical cord which helps in
III:
the transport of substances to and from the
embryo.
Placenta allows mixing of maternal blood
IV: and foetal blood from the middle of the
pregnancy.
1. 1 2. 2
3. 3 4. 4
196. Consider the given two statements:
The three germ layers [ectoderm,
Statement
mesoderm and endoderm] give rise
I:
to all tissues (organs) in adults.
The inner cell mass contains certain
Statement cells called stem cells which have
the potency to give rise to all the
tissues and organs.
Statement I is correct; Statement II is
1.
incorrect
Statement I is incorrect; Statement II is
2.
correct
3. Statement I is correct; Statement II is correct
Statement I is incorrect; Statement II is
4.
incorrect
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 NEET Level Test (10-Dec-23)
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197. Consider the given two statements:
The government in India has been
Assertion: forced to take up serious measures
to check population growth rate.
An alarming growth rate could lead
Reason: to an absolute scarcity of even the
basic requirements for our citizens.
200. Consider the given two statements:
In periodic abstinence, the couples
Assertion: avoid or abstain from coitus from
day 10 to 17 of the menstrual cycle.
Chances of fertilisation are very
Reason: high during this period and it is
called the fertile period.

1. Assertion is false but Reason is true
Both Assertion and Reason are true and the
2.
Reason explains the Assertion.
Both Assertion and Reason are true but the
3. Reason does not correctly explain the
Assertion.
4. Assertion is true bur Reason is false.
1. Assertion is false but Reason is true
Both Assertion and Reason are true and the
2.
Reason explains the Assertion.
Both Assertion and Reason are true but the
3. Reason does not correctly explain the
Assertion.
4. Assertion is true bur Reason is false

198. Statutory marriageable age in India:

1. is 18 years for both males and females. Fill OMR Sheet*
2. is 21 years for both males and females.
3. is 18 years for females and 21 years for *If above link doesn't work, please go to test link
males. from where you got the pdf and fill OMR from
4. is 18 years for males and 21 years for there
females.

199. Consider the given two statements:

Oral Pills have to be taken daily for a
period of 21 days starting preferably
Assertion:
within the first five days of CLICK HERE to get
menstrual cycle.
After a gap of 7 days (during which FREE ACCESS for 2
menstruation occurs) it has to be
Reason: repeated in the same pattern till the days of ANY
female desires to prevent
conception. NEETprep course
1. Assertion is false but Reason is true
Both Assertion and Reason are true and the
2.
Reason explains the Assertion.
Both Assertion and Reason are true but the
3. Reason does not correctly explain the
Assertion.
4. Assertion is true bur Reason is false

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