Test ID : 110

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GRAND TEST - 1
Std : XII (CBSE – Online & Offline) Max. Marks: 720
Test Date : 05.06.2023 Time : 3 Hrs.
Note :
For every correct answer four marks will be awarded. For every wrong answer one mark
will be reduced. For unanswered questions zero mark.
Choose the correct answer : 180 x 4 = 720
1. Three concentric metallic spherical shells of 4. Two pith balls carrying equal charges are

radii R, 2R, 3R, are given charges Q1, Q2, Q3 suspended from a common point by strings of
respectively. It is found that the surface charge equal length, the equilibrium separation
densities on the outer surfaces of the shells are between them is ‘r’. Now the strings are
equal. Then, the ratio of the charges given to rigidly clamped at half the height. The
the shells, Q1 : Q2 : Q3 , is equilibrium separation between the balls now
become
1) 1 : 2 : 3 2) 1 : 3 : 5
3) 1 : 4 : 9 4) 1 : 8 : 18
2. A charge Q is placed at each of the opposite
corners of a square. A charge q is placed at
each of the other two corners. If the net
2
Q  2r   1 
electrical force on Q is zero, then equals 1)   2) 
q 
 3  2
1) −2 2 2) -1 r  2r 
3) 4)  
1 3
2  3
3) 1 4) −
2 5. Four point charges –Q, -q, 2q and 2Q are
3. Suppose the charge of a proton and an electron placed, one at each corner of the square. The
differ slightly. One of them is –e, the other is relation between Q and q for which the
(e + ∆e). If the net of electrostatic force and potential at the centre of the square is zero is
gravitational force between two hydrogen 1
1) Q = -q 2) Q = −
atoms placed at a distance ‘d’ (much greater q
than atomic size) apart is zero, then ∆e is of 1
3) Q = q 4) Q =
the order of (Given mass of hydrogen mh = q
1.67 x 10-27 kg)
6. Two point charges +3µC and +8µC repel each
1) 10-20C 2) 10-23C other with a force of 40 N. If a charge of -5µC
3) 10-37C 4) 10-47C is added to each of them, then the force
between them will become
 2 Test ID : 110
1) – 10 N 2) + 10 N 11. A charge +q is placed at the origin O of X-Y
3) + 20 N 4) – 20 N axes as shown in the figure. The work done in
7. Two positive ions, each carrying a charge ‘q’, taking a charge Q from A to B along the
are separated by a distance d. If F is the force straight line AB is
of repulsion between the ions, the number of
electrons missing from each ion will be (e
being the charge on an electron)
4πε0 Fd 2 4πε0 Fd 2
1) 2)
q2 e2
qQ  a − b  qQ  b − a 
1)   2)  
4πε 0 Fe 2
4πε 0 Fd 2 4πε0  ab  4πε0  ab 
3) 4)
d2 e2 qQ  b 1  qQ  a 1 
3)  −  4)  − 
8. An infinite number of charges, each of charge 4πε0  a 2 b  4πε0  b 2 b 
1 µC are placed on the x-axis with co- 12. The number of electrons to be put on a
ordinates x = 1, 2, 4, 8… ∞. If a charge of 1 C spherical conductor of radius 0.1 m to produce
is kept at the origin, then what is the net force an electric field of 0.036 N/C just above its
acting on 1C charge surface is
1) 9000 N 2) 12000 N 1) 2.7 x 105 2) 2.6 x 105
3) 24000 N 4) 36000 N 3) 2.5 x 105 4) 2.4 x 105
9. Two identical charged spheres suspended from 13. Two point charges +10-7C and -10-7C are
a common point by two massless strings of placed at A and B, 20 cm apart as shown in
length l, are initially at a distance d (d << l) the figure. Calculate the electric field at C,
apart because of their mutual repulsion. The 20 cm apart from both A and B
charges begin to leak from both the spheres at
a constant rate. As a result, the spheres
approach each other with a velocity ‘v’. Then
‘v’ varies as a function of the distance x
between the spheres, as
1) v ∝ x1/2 2) v ∝ x
3) v ∝ x -1/2
4) v ∝ x-1 1) 1.5 x 10-5 N/C 2) 2.2 x 104 N/C
10. The electric potential V at any point O (x, y, z 3) 3.5 x 106 N/C 4) 3.0 x 105 N/C
all in metres) in space is given by V = 4x2 14. The potential at a point ‘x’ (measured in µm)
volt. The electric field at the point (1m, 0, 2m) due to some charges situated on the x-axis is
in volt/metre is 20
given by V(x) = volts. The electric
1) 8 along negative x-axis (x − 4)
2

2) 8 along positive x-axis field E at x = 4µm is given by

3) 16 along negative x-axis 1) 5.3 Volt / µm and in the –ve x direction
4) 16 along positive z-axis 2) 5.3 Volt / µm and in the +ve x direction
 3 Test ID : 110
10 charge +q, then the magnitude and direction of
3) Volt / µm and in the –ve x direction
9 the resultant electric field at O is
10 1) E along AO 2) 2E along AO
4) Volt / µm and in the +ve x direction
9 3) E along BO 4) E along CO
15. Figure shows a triangular array of three point 19. An infinite line charge produce a field of
charges. The electric potential V of these 7.182 x 108 N/C at a distance of 2 cm. The
source charges at the midpoint P of the base of linear charge density is

the triangle is (
1
= 9 x 109 Nm2C-2) 1) 7.27 x 10-4C/m 2) 7.98 x 10-4C/m
4πε0 3) 7.11 x 10-4C/m 4) 7.04 x 10-4C/m
20. A charged ball B bangs from a silk thread S,
which makes an angle θ with a large charged
conducting sheet P, as shown in the figure.
The surface charge density σ of the sheet is
proportional to

1) 55 kV 2) 45 kV
3) 63 kV 4) 49 kV
16. At a point 20 cm from the centre of a
uniformly charged dielectric sphere of radius
10 cm, the electric field is 100 V/m. The
electric field at 3 cm from the centre of the 1) sin θ 2) tan θ
sphere will be
3) cos θ 4) cot θ
1) 150 V/m 2) 125 V/m
21. A given charge is situated at a certain distance
3) 120 V/m 4) zero from an electric dipole in the end-on position
17. An electron moving with the speed 5 x 106 m experiences a force F. If the distance of the
per sec is shooted parallel to the electric field charge is doubled, the force acting on the
of intensity 1 x 10-3 N/C. Field is responsible charge will be
for the retardation of motion of electron. Now F
evaluated the distance travelled by the electron 1) 2 F 2)
2
before coming to rest for an instant (mass of e
F F
= 9 x 10-31 kg charge = 1.6 x 10-19C) 3) 4)
4 8
1) 7 m 2) 0.7 mm
22. The electric intensity due to a dipole of length
3) 7 cm 4) 0.7 cm
10 cm and having a charge of 500 µC, at a
18. Charges +2q, +q and +q are placed at the point on the axis at a distance 20 cm from one
corners A, B and C of an equilateral triangle of the charges in air, is
ABC. If E is the electric field at the
1) 6.25 x 107N/C 2) 9.28 x 107N/C
circumference O of the triangle, due to the
3) 13.1 x 1141N/C 4) 20.5 x 107N/C
 4 Test ID : 110
23. Two electric dipoles of moment P and 64P are 27. A point charge causes an electric flux of
placed in opposite direction on a line at a -1.0 x 103 Nm2C-1 to pass through a spherical
distance of 25 cm. The electric field will be Gaussian surface of 10.0 cm radius centred on
zero at point between the dipoles whose the charge. If the radius of the Gaussian
distance from the dipole of moment P is surface were three times, how much flux
25 would pass through the surface
1) 5 cm 2) cm
9
1)3.0 x 103 Nm2/C
4
3) 10 cm 4) cm 2) -1.0 x 103 Nm2/C
13
3) – 3.0 x 103 Nm2/C
24. A charge 10 µC is placed at the centre of a
hemisphere of radius R = 10 cm as shown. 4) - 2.0 x 103Nm2/C
The electric flux through the hemisphere (in 28. A series combination of n1 capacitors each of
MKS units) is value C1 is charged by a source of potential
difference 4V. When another parallel
combination of n2 capacitors, each of value C2,
is charged by a source of potential difference
V, it has the same (total) energy stored in it, as
the first combination has, the value of C2 , in
1) 20 x 105 2) 10 x 105
terms of C1 is then
3) 6 x 105 4) 2 x 105
25. The electrostatic potential inside a charged 16C1 2C1
1) 2)
spherical ball is given by φ = ar2 + b where ‘r’ n1n 2 n1 n 2
is the distance from the centre, a, b are n2 n2
3) 16 C1 4) 2 C1
constants. Then the charge density inside the n1 n1
ball is
29. If the charge on a capacitor is increased by 2
1) -24 πaε0r 2) – 6 aε0r
coulomb, the energy stored in it increases by
3) -24 πaε0 4) - 6 aε0 21%. The original charge on the capacitor is
26. A hollow cylinder has a charge ‘q’ coulomb 1) 10 C 2) 20 C
within it. If φ is the electric flux in units of
3) 30 C 4) 40 C
volt-meter associated with the curved surface
B, the flux linked with the plane surface A in 30. A parallel plate air capacitor has capacity C
units of volt-meter will be distance of separation between plates is d and
potential difference V is applied between the
plates. Force of attraction between the plates
of the parallel plate air capacitor is
1 q  q CV 2 CV 2
1)  − φ 2) 1) 2)
2  ε0  2ε 0 2d d
φ q C2 V 2 C2 V
3) 4) −φ 3) 4)
3 ε0 2d 2 2d 2
 5 Test ID : 110
31. The capacitance C of a capacitor is 1) 8 2) 4
1) Independent of the charge and potential of 3) 6 4) 2
the capacitor 35. The capacity of a parallel plate capacitor with
2) Dependent on the charge and independent no dielectric substance but with a separation of
of potential
0.4 cm is 2 µF. The separation is reduced to
3) Independent of the geometrical
half and it is filled with a dielectric substance
configuration of the capacitor
of value 2.8. The final capacity of the
4) Independent of the dielectric medium
capacitor is
between the two conducting surfaces of
the capacitor 1) 11.2 µF 2) 15.6 µF
32. A cylindrical capacitor has charge Q and 3) 19.2 µF 4) 22.4 µF
length L. If both the charge and length of the 36. A solid conducting sphere of radius R1 is
capacitor are doubled, by keeping other
surrounded by another concentric hollow
parameters fixed, the energy stored in the
conducting sphere of radius R2. The
capacitor
capacitance of this assembly is proportional to
1) remains same
2) increases two times R 2 − R1 R 2 + R1
1) 2)
R 1R 2 R1R 2
3) decreases two times
4) increases four times R1R 2 R 1R 2
3) 4)
33. In the given circuit, a charge of +80 µC is R1 + R 2 R 2 − R1
given to the upper plate of the 4 µF capacitor. 37. Consider a parallel plate capacitor of 10 µF
Then in the steady state, the charge on the (micro-farad) with air filled in the gap
upper plate of the 3 µF capacitor is between the plates. Now one half of the space
between the plates is filled with a dielectric of
dielectric constant 4, as shown in the figure.
The capacity of the capacitor changes to

1) +32 µC 2) +40 µC
3) + 48 µC 4) +80 µC
1) 25 µF 2) 20 µF
34. Capacitance of a parallel plate capacitor
4 3) 40 µF 4) 5 µF
becomes times its original value if a
3 38. In the figure shown, the effective capacitance
d between the points A and B, if each has
dielectric slab of thickness t = is inserted
2 capacitance C, is
between the plates (d is the separation between
the plates). The dielectric constant of the slab
is
 6 Test ID : 110
42. The charge on 4 µF capacitor in the given
circuit is … in µC

C
1) 2 C 2)
5
C
3) 5 C 4)
2 1) 12 2) 24
39. In the circuit as shown in the figure the 3) 36 4) 32
effective capacitance between A and B is 43. In the figure a potential of +1200 V is given to
point A and point B is earthed. What is the
potential at the point P?

1) 3 µF 2) 2 µF
3) 4 µF 4) 8 µF 1) 100 V 2) 200 V
40. Effective capacitance between A and B in the 3) 400 V 4) 600 V
figure shown is (all capacitance are in µF) 44. In the circuit shown here C1 = 6 µF, C2 = 3 µF
and battery B = 20 V. The switch S1 is first
closed. It is then opened and afterwards S2 is
closed. What is the charge finally on C2?

1) 21 µF 2) 23 µF
3 14
3) µF 4) µF
14 3
41. All capacitors used in the diagram are 1) 120 µC 2) 80 µC
identical and each is of capacitance C. Then 3) 40 µC 4) 20 µC
the effective capacitance between the points A 45. A 20 F capacitor is charged to 5V and
and B is isolated. It is then connected in parallel with
an uncharged 30 F capacitor. The decrease in
the energy of the system will be
1) 25 J 2) 200 J
1) 1.5 C 2) 6 C
3) 125 J 4) 150 J
3) C 4) 3 C
 7 Test ID : 110
46. The vapour pressure of water at room 51. The relationship between osmotic pressure at
temperature is lowered by 5% by dissolving a 273K, when 10g of glucose (π1) 10g urea (π2)
solute in it, then the approximately molality of and 10g sucrose (π3) are dissolved in 250ml of
solution is water is
1) 2 2) 1 1) π1 > π2 > π3 2) π3 > π1 > π2
3) 4 4) 3
3) π2 > π1 > π3 4) π2 > π3 > π1
47. The boiling points of C6H6, CH3OH,
52. Blood is isotonic with
C6H5NH2, and C6H5NO2 are 80oC, 65oC,
1) 0.9% (w/v) NaCl solution
184oC and 212oC respectively. Which of the
following will have highest vapour pressure at 2) 0.9g - NaCl solution
room temperature? 3) 0.9M - NaCl solution
1) C6H6 2) CH3OH 4) 9.0% (w/v) NaCl solution
3) C6H5NH2 4) C6H5NO2 53. A solution containing 260g non-electrolyte
48. For which of the following pair the heat solute in 200g of water boils at 100.130oC at
mixing ∆Hmix is approximately zero. 3atm what is the molar mass of the solute
[Kb(H2O)] = 0.52 K.kg/mol
1) CH3COOCH3 + CHCl3
1) 52.0 g mol–1 2) 152.0 g mol–1
2) CH3COOH + H2O
3) 104 g mol–1 4) 204 g mol–1
3) C2H5OH + CH3OH
54. The latent heat of vapourization of a liquid of
4) CH3COCH3+ C6H6
molar mass 80g/mol and boiling point 127oC
49. At a given temperature, the total vapour
is 8k cal/mol. The ebullioscopic constant of
pressure in torr of a mixture of volatite
the liquid is
compounds A and B is given by
1) 3.2 K.kg/mol 2) 0.04 K.kg/mol
P = 120 – 75 XB
3) 0.32 K.kg/mol 4) 0.52 K.kg/mol
Hence, vapour pressure of pure A and B
55. The limiting value of Van’t Hoff factor for
respectively (in Torr)
Na2SO4 is
1) 120,75 2) 120,195
1) 2 2) 3
3) 120,45 4) 75,45
3) 4 4) 5
50. An ideal solution is obtained by dissolving ‘n’
56. The mass of KCl required to depress the
moles of non-volatile non-electrolyte solute in
freezing point of 500g water by 2K is (Kf =
‘N’ moles of solvent. If the vapour pressure of
1.86, K = 39)
pure solvent is ‘p’ and the vapour pressure of
solution is ‘p’ then 1) 10.01 g 2) 40.05 g
3) 7.45 g 4) 20.03 g
po − p n po − p n
1) = 2) = 57. Which of the following aqueous solution will
p N po N
have the lowest freezing point
po − p N po − p N
3) = 4) = 1) 0.10M sucrose 2) 0.10M NiCl2
po n p n
3) 0.10M CuSO4 4) 0.10M NH4NO3
 8 Test ID : 110
58. Phenol dimerizes in benzene, if the observed 63. A2 + B2 → 2AB
molecular mass of phenol is solution is 120 Rate = K[A 2 ]a [B2 ]b
then its degree of dimerization is
Initial Initial Rate (Ms–1)
1) 0.600 2) 0.433
[A2] [B2]
3) 0.277 4) 0.866
0.2 0.2 0.04
59. If the density of methanol is 0.8 kg/L, what is
its volume needed for making 4L of its 0.25M 0.1 0.4 0.04
solution? 0.2 0.4 0.08
1) 4 ml 2) 8 ml Order of the reaction with respect to A2 and B2
3) 40 ml 4) 80 ml are respectively
60. Statement – I : Except osmotic pressure all 1) a = 1, b = 1 2) a = 2, b = 0
other colligative properties depend on the 3) a = 2, b = 1 4) a = 1, b = 2
nature of solvent 64. Statement – I : The order of reaction can have
Statement – II : Colligative properties one fractional value
intensive properties. Statement – II : For an elementary reaction
1) Both Statement-I and II are true the partial orders are determine by the reaction
2) Both Statement-I and II are false stoichiometry
3) Statement-I is true and Statement-II is false 1) Both Statement-I and II are true
4) Statement-I is false and Statement-II is true 2) Both Statement-I and II are false
61. The differential rate law equation for the 3) Statement-I is true and Statement-II is false
K
elementary reaction A + 2B → 3C is 4) Statement-I is false and Statement-II is true
−d[A] −d[B] d[C] 65. Column – I Column – II
1) = = = K[A][B]2 A) Units of K is always P) time–1
dt dt dt
−d[A] −1 d[B] 1 d[C] equal to
2) = = = K[A]2 [B] B) Unit of ‘K’ in zero Q) M time−1
dt 2 dt 3 dt
−d[A] −1 d[B] 1 d[C] order
3) = = = K[A][B]2
dt 2 dt 3 dt C) Unit of ‘K’ in first R) Time–1 M–1
−d[A] d[B] d[C] order
4) = −2 =3 = K[A][B]2
dt dt dt D) Units of K in second S) Unit of ‘A’ pre-
62. In the reaction order exponential factor
−d[A] 1) A-S, B-Q, C-P, D-R
A + 2B → 6C + D. If the initial rate at
dt 2) A-Q, B-S, C-R, D-P
t = 0 is 2.6 x 10–2 M sec–1. What will be the 3) A-P, B-Q, C-R, D-S
−d[B] 4) A-R, B-P, C-Q, D-S
value of at t = 0
dt 66. The rate constant of a reaction depends on
1) 8.5 x 10–2 M sec–1 1) Temperature
2) 2.5 x 10–2 M sec–1 2) Pressure
3) 5.2 x 10–2 M sec–1 3) Extent of reaction
4) 7.5 x 10–2 M sec–1 4) Initial concentration of reactants
 9 Test ID : 110
67. Consider the plots given below, for the types 2.303 Pi
3) K = log
of reaction. t Pi − Pt
nA → B + C 4) None

t1/2 72. For an endothermic reaction where ‘∆H’

t1/2 t1/2
represents the enthalpy of reaction in kJ/mol
the minimum value for the energy of
[A] [A] 1/[A]
activation will be
These plots respectively correspond to the
1) < ∆H 2) > ∆H
reaction orders
3) ∆H 4) None
1) 0, 1, 2 2) 1, 2, 0
3) 1, 0, 2 4) None 73. A following mechanism has been proposed for
H O a reaction
68. CH3COOC2H5(aq) 
2 (l)
H+
→ CH3COOH(aq) +
2A + B → D + E (fast)
C2H5OH(aq)
What type of reaction is this? A + B → C + D (slow)
1) Unimolecular reaction A + C → E (fast)
2) Pseudo first order The rate law expression for reaction by RDS
3) Zero order method
4) Second order 1) r = K[A]2[B] 2) r = K[A][B]
69. 99% of a first order reaction was completed in 3) r = K[A] 2
4) r = K[A][C]
32minutes when 99.9% of the reaction will
74. The plot of ln K versus 1/T is linear with slope
complete
of
1) 50 min 2) 46 min
1) –Ea/R 2) Ea/R
3) 48 min 4) 49 min
70. Which of the following represents the −Ea
3) Ea/2.303 R 4)
3 2.303R
expression for th litre of first order reaction
4 75. Identify true statements
K 4 2.303 3 1) A catalyst is chemically unchanged at the
1) log 2) log
2.303 3 K 4 end of a reaction
2.303 2.303 2) A catalyst may appear in the kinetic rate
3) log 4 4) log 3
K K equation of the reaction
71. For first order ion homogeneous gaseous 3) A catalyst will not effect the composition of
reaction A → 2B + C then initial partial an equilibrium
pressure was Pi while total pressure after time
4) All the above
‘t’ was pt. The right expression for the rate
constants K terms of Pi, Pt and t is 76. Two faraday of electricity is passed through a
2.303 2Pi solution of CuSO4. The mass of copper
1) K = log deposited at the cathode is
t 3Pi − Pt
1) 6.35 g 2) 635 g
2.303 2Pi
2) K = log 3) 63.5 g 4) 0.635 g
t 2Pi − Pt
 10 Test ID : 110
77. When same amount of charge is passed the
deposited mole ratio of Ag, Cu and Al is
1) 1 : 1 : 1 2) 1 : 2 : 3 3) 4) (1) and (3)
1 1
3) 1 : : 4) 3 : 2 : 1
2 3
o + +2 +
78. SRP at 25 C of Li /Li, Ba /Ba, Na /Na and
83. Find out Kc for the cell reaction
Mg+2/Mg are –3.05, –2.90, –2.71 and –2.37
2+ +
volts respectively. Which one of the following A (aq) + 2B(s) → 2B(aq) + A (s)
is strongest oxidant?
E ocell =0.2364 V
1) Ba+2 2) Mg+2
1) 108 2) 107
3) Na+ 4) Li+
3) 106 4) 105
79. In the electrochemical cell
84. Consider the following redox reaction
Zn(s) / ZnSO4(aq) (10–2 M) // CuSO4(aq) (10–2 M) / Cu(s)
occurring in acidic medium
E ocell = 1.1V find out Ecell
1) 1.16 V 2) 1.10 V
3) 1.04 V 4) 1.32 V
80. What will be the emf of the given cell
The unknown standard reduction potential is
Pt / H2(p1) / H +(aq) (1M) / H +(aq) (1M) / H2(p2) / Pt
1) –1.6 V 2) 1.6 V
RT P1 RT P1
1) ln 2) ln 3) –1.52 V 4) 1.52 V
F P2 2F P2
85. Column – I Column – II
RT P2 RT P2 A) Conductance P) Sm–1
3) ln 4) ln
F P1 2F P1
B) Conductivity Q) S–1 m
81. The Gibbs energy for the decomposition of C) Molar conductivity R) Sm2 mol–1
Al2O3 at 500oC is as follows
D) Resistivity S) S
2 4
Al2O3 → Al + O2 ∆rG = +960 kJ 1) A-S, B-P, C-R, D-Q
3 3
2) A-R, B-S, C-Q, D-P
The voltage needed for the electrolytic
3) A-R, B-P, C-S, D-Q
reduction of aluminium oxide (Al2O3) at
500oC is at least 4) A-S, B-P, C-Q, D-R
1) –4.5 V 2) –3.0 V 86. Statement – I : Conductivity decreases with
the decreases in concentration both the weak
3) –2.5 V 4) –5.0 V
and strong electrolytes
82. Which of the following graph is/are correct?
Statement – II : Number of ions per unit
volume linearly decreases in both electrolytes
1) Both Statement-I and II are true
1) 2)
2) Both Statement-I and II are false
3) Statement-I is true and Statement-II is false
4) Statement-I is false and Statement-II is true
 11 Test ID : 110
87. Resistance of 0.1M KCl solution in a 1) Both the statements are correct
conductance cell is 300 ohm and conductivity 2) Both the statements are incorrect
is 0.013 S cm–1. The value of cell constant is 3) Statement – I is correct, statement – II is
1) 3.9 cm–1 2) 39 m–1 incorrect
3) 3.9 m–1 4) none 4) Statement – I is incorrect, statement – II is
correct
88. The limiting equivalent conductivity of NaCl,
93. Match the following w.r.t life span of the
KCl and KBr are 126.5, 150.0 and 151.5 S
organisms.
cm2 eq–1 respectively. The limiting equivalent
Column – I Column – II
ionic conductivity for NaBr would be
1) 125 2) 128 A) Rose I) 60 years
3) 157.5 4) 126.5 B) Crocodile II) 1 – 2 weeks
89. Equivalent conductivity can be expressed in C) Butterfly III) 140 years
terms of specific conductance (K) and D) Parrot IV) 5 – 7 years
concentration (M) in gram equivalent dm–3 as 1) A – IV, B – I, C – II, D – III
k x1000 2) A – III, B – II, C – I, D – IV
1) k x N 2)
N 3) A – IV, B – II, C – III, D – I
kxN 4) A – I, B – II, C – IV, D – III
3) 4) k x N x 1000
1000 94. Identify the incorrect statements
90. In an electrochemical process, a salt bridge is 1) Life span of organisms is correlated with
used their sizes
1) to maintain electrical neutrality in each 2) Mango tree has much shorter life span than
solution peepal tree
3) Crow and parrot are almost similar in size
2) to complete the external circuit so that
but differ in their life span
current flow for long time
4) Continuity of vast number of plants and
3) to mix the solution of anodic and cathodic animal species for several thousands of
compartment years is due to reproduction
4) to supply voltage 95. The factors responsible for how an organism
91. P. Maheshwari is an eminent Indian reproduces include
embryologist known for introducing 1) Internal physiology
techniques such as 2) Organism’s habitat
1) Test tube fertilization in angiosperms 3) Genetic and environmental factors
2) Intra ovarian pollination 4) All of the above
3) Artificial culture of immature embryos 96. In protists and monerans
4) All of the above 1) Cell division is not a mode of reproduction
92. Statement – I : Single celled organisms are 2) Cells divide meiotically only
immortal. 3) Asexual reproduction is common
Statement – II : Amoeba and paramoecium 4) Gamete formation is common
are immortal.
 12 Test ID : 110
97. The most common asexual reproductive 103. Select the correct match
structures in algae are 1) Rhizome – Grasses
1) Gemmules 2) Buds 2) Bulbil – Onion
3) Zoospores 4) Conidia 3) Offset – Eicchornia
98. Asexual method of reproduction by binary 4) Amoeba – Gemmules
fission is commonly found in
104. Vegetative reproduction in Bryophyllum is by
1) Amoeba 2) Bacteria
1) Epiphyllous buds
3) Paramoecium 4) All of the above
2) Adventitious buds on stem
99. Zoospores are
3) Buds on roots
1) Motile
4) Both (1) and (3)
2) Endogenous asexual structures
105. Identify the correct option/s w.r.t to terror of
3) Commonly found in fungi and algae
Bengal
4) All of the above
100. Match the following correctly. 1) It is Eicchornia or water hyacinth

Column – I Column – II 2) It drains oxygen from the water and leads

to death of fishes
A) Conidia I) Chlamydomonas
3) It was introduced to India due to its
B) Gemmule II) Hydra
medicinal value
C) Buds III) Sponges 4) Both (1) and (2)
D) Zoospore IV) Penicillum 106. Asexualreproduction is seen in which of the
1) A – II, B – III, C – IV, D – I follow members?
2) A – IV, B – III, C – I, D – II 1) Monera 2) Plantae
3) A – IV, B – III, C – II, D – I 3) Animalia 4) All of these
4) A – III, B – IV, C – II, D – I 107. Inmost of the higher plants buds useful for
101. Vegetative reproduction or vegetative vegetative propagation are arised from
propagation is also refers to 1) nodes 2) internodes
1) Sexual reproduction in plants 3) margins of leaves 4) all of the above
2) Asexual reproduction in lower group of 108. Clear
cut Juvenile, reproductive and senescent
animals
phases cannot be observed in
3) Asexual reproduction in plants
1) Biennial plants 2) Annual plants
4) Sexual reproduction in animals
3) Ephemerals 4) Perennial plants
102. Which of the following are not vegetative
109. Sexual reproduction involves
propagules?
1) Gamete production
1) Bulb and bulbil
2) Rhizome and corm 2) Gametic union

3) Tuber and bud 3) Biparental condition

4) Archegonium and Oogonium 4) All of these
 13 Test ID : 110
110. Neelakurinji is similar to Bambusa in 117. Select the correct sequence of events in

1) Being polycarpic sexual reproduction in organisms

2) Being monocarpic 1) Gametogenesis → gamete transfer →
3) Length of the vegetative phase Fertilization → Embryogenesis
4) All of the above 2) Gamete transfer → Gametogenesis →
111. Identify the seasonal breeders from the fertilization → Embryogenesis
following options. 3) Gamete transfer → Fertilization →
1) Frogs, Birds, Cattle Gametogenesis

2) Frogs, Birds, Lizards 4) Gametogenesis → Fertilization → Gamete

transfer → Embryogenesis
3) Cattle, Rabbit mice
118. Inseed plants, male gametes are transferred
4) Birds in captivity, Deer, Mice
through
112. The females exhibit cyclical changes in the
1) Pollen grains 2) Water
activities of ovaries of
3) Air current 4) Insects
1) Primates
119. Development of new organism from a female
2) Non primates
gamete without fertilization is known as
3) All animals 1) Syngamy 2) Parthenogenesis
4) More than one option is correct 3) Parthenocarpy 4) All of the above
113. Identify the odd one w.r.t Oestrous cycle 120. Parthenogenesis occurs in
1) Cow 2) Sheep 1) Rotifers 2) Honey bees
3) Apes 4) Tiger 3) Some lizards and birds 4) All of the above
114. Identify the correct statement 121. External fertilization occurs in
1) Isogametes – Fucus A) Algae B) Fishes
2) Heterogametes – Human C) Amphibians D) Bryophytes
3) Homogametes – Volvox E) Pteridophytes
4) Disimilar gametes – Cladophora 1) A, B and C 2) A, B, C and D
115. In
organisms that show haplontic life cycle, 3) B and C 4) A, B, C, D and E
gametes are formed by 122. Typical anther is
1) Mitosis 1) Dithecous and bilobed
2) Meiosis 2) Tetra sporangiate
3) Heterotypic cell division 3) Tetragonal in outline through cross section
4) Both (1) and (2) 4) All of the above
116. Ifthe meiocyte of potato has 48 chromosomes 123. Statement – I : Matured male gametophyte is
its embryo, zygote would have 3 celled in angiosperms.
Statement – II : Pollen grain is shed from
1) 48, 48 2) 24, 48
anther usually at 2 – celled stage and contains
3) 48, 24 4) 24, 24
one vegetative cell and one generative cell.
 14 Test ID : 110
1) Both statement – I and statement – II is 130. The number of asymmetric spindle apparati
incorrect formed during development of 1200 male
2) Both statement – I and statement – II is gametes in angiosperms is
correct 1) 300 2) 150
3) Statement – I is correct, statement – II is 3) 1200 4) 600
incorrect 131. Calculate the number of generations, mitotic
4) Statement – I is incorrect, statement – II is divisions required for the development of one
correct female gametophyte in angiosperms
124. Find out wrongly matched pair of the respectively
following 1) 3, 8 2) 2, 7
1) Nucellus – Megasporangium property 3) 7, 3 4) 3, 7
2) Ovule – Integumented megasporangium 132. Cellsof embryosac associated with filiform
3) Tapetum – Nutritive tissue to embryo sac apparatus are
4) Chalaza – Base of ovule 1) Antipodals 2) Central cell
125. The gynoecium of papaver is 3) Egg cell 4) Synergids
1) Multicarpellary syncarpous 133. Inangiosperms a single ovule produces how
2) Monocarpellary, Uilocular many female gametes?
3) Multicarpellary apocarpous 1) 2 2) 3
4) Both (1) and (3) 3) 1 4) 4
126. Free– nuclear divisions in flowering plant 134. Whichof the following is not a adaptation for
body occur in anemophily?
1) Megaspore 2) PEC 1) Small flowers
3) Tapetum cells 4) All of the above 2) Uniovulated ovary
127. A typical angiosperm embryosac at maturity is 3) Feathery (or) Brushy stigma
1) 7 celled and 7 nucleated 4) Flowers are large and pollens are sticky
2) 8 nucleated and 7 celled 135. Complete male flower reaches the site of
3) 7 nucleated and 8 celled female flower during pollination in
4) 8 celled and 8 nucleated 1) Maize 2) Zostera
128. The
type of possible pollination that occurs in 3) Vallisneria 4) waterlily
Commelina is 136. Arrange the following reproductive events in
1) Autogamy 2) Geitonogamy correct order.
3) Xenogamy 4) All of the above A. Insemination B. Gametogenesis
129. Which of the following events involve meiosis C. Gestation D. Fertilization
in flowering plants? E. Parturition F. Implantation
i) Microsporogenesis ii) Gametogenesis 1) B - A - D - F - C - E
iii) Mega sporogenesis iv) Embryogenesis 2) B - A - D - E - C - F
3) B - D - A - F - C - E
1) i, ii 2) iii, iv
4) A - B - D - F - C - E
3) i, iii 4) ii, iv
 15 Test ID : 110
137. Each testicular lobule of testis consist of 1) A - iv, B - ii, C - iii, D - i
1) 250 highly coiled seminiferous tubules 2) A - ii, B -iv, C - iii, D - i
2) 1 - 3 uncoiled seminiferous tubules 3) A - iii, B - i, C - iv, D - ii
3) 15 - 20 highly coiled seminiferous tubules 4) A - iv, B - ii, C - i, D - iii
4) 1 - 3 highly coiled seminiferous tubules 142. Statement - I: Leydig cells are found in
138. Pick the male accessory ducts from the given between seminiferous tubules of testis.
option. Statement - II: Interstitial cells of testis are
i) rete testis ii) vasa efferentia found in seminiferous tubules.
iii) seminiferous tubules iv) vas deferens 1) Both Statement I and II are correct
v) epididymis vi) ureters 2) Statement I is correct and Statement II is
1) i, ii, iii only 2) iii, iv, v only incorrect
3) i, ii, iv, v 4) all the above 3) Statement I is incorrect and Statement II is
139. Select the correct sequence of transport of correct
sperm cell in male reproductive system. 4) Both Statement I and II are incorrect
1) Seminiferous tubules → Rete testis → Vasa 143. Ovarian stroma is enclosed by
efferentia → Epididymis → Vas deferens 1) thick epithelium
→ Ejaculatory duct → Urethra → Urethral
2) thin epithelium
meatus
2) Rete testis → Seminiferous tubules → Vasa 3) connective tissue
efferentia → Epididymis → Vas deferens 4) muscular tissue
→ Ejaculatory duct → Urethra → Urethral 144. Nutritive cells of seminiferous tubules are
meatus called
3) Seminiferous tubules → Rete testis → Vasa 1) spermatogonia 2) Leydig cells
efferentia →Vas deferens → Epididymis → 3) interstitial cells 4) sertoli cells
Ejaculatory duct → Urethral meatus → 145. The foetus develops limbs and digits by the
Urethra
end of
4) Seminiferous tubules → Rete testis → Vasa
1) 1st month of pregnancy
efferentia → Ejaculatory duct → Urethra →
Urethral meatus → Epididymis → Vas 2) 2nd month of pregnancy
deferens 3) 3rd month of pregnancy
140. Identify the false statements. 4) 4th month of pregnancy
i) Androgens are synthesized by sertoli cells 146. Match column I with column II and choose the
ii) Leydig cells synthesize androgens correct option.
iii) Mammary alveoli secrete milk Column - I Column - II
1) i and ii 2) only i a) provide nutrition to germ
3) ii and iii 4) i, ii and iii i) Leydig cells
cells
141. Match the following.
ii) Spermatogonia b) secrete androgens
Column - I Column - II c) undergo mitosis to form
A) Length of testis i) 2 - 3 cm iii) sertoli cells
primary spermatocytes
B) Length of ovary ii) 2 - 4 cm d) Undergo spermiogenesis
C) width of testis iii) 10 - 12 cm 1) i - a, ii - d, iii - b 2) i - b, ii - c, iii - a
D) length of fallopian tube iv) 4 - 5 cm 3) i - b, ii - d, iii - c 4) i - c, ii - b, iii - a
 16 Test ID : 110
147. Identify the odd one out. 154. Assertion (A): The scrotum helps in
1) vasa efferentia 2) epididymis maintaining the low temperature (2 - 2.5oC
3) vas deferens 4) fallopian tube lesser than body temperature) of the testes.
148. Semen is Reason(R): The low temperature of the testes is
1) oogonia + spermatozoa necessary for spermatogenesis.
2) seminal plasma + sperms 1) Both A and R are true and R is the correct
3) spermatogonia + spermatozoa explanation of A
4) seminal plasma + ova 2) Both A and R are true and R is the not
correct explanation of A
149. Complete the following analogy with respect
to male reproductive system. 3) A is true but R is false
Epididymis : Accessory duct :: ____ : 4) A is false but R is true
accessory gland 155. Which of the following ducts / tubes are
1) rete testis 2) vasa efferentia included into intratesticular region of testes?
3) seminal vesicles 4) vas deferens a) vasa efferentia
150. How many meiotic divisions are required for b) seminiferous tubules
the formation of 100 sperms? c) epididymis
1) 25 2) 50 d) vas deferens
3) 75 4) 100 e) ejaculatory duct
151. In humans, the unpaired male reproductive f) rete testis
gland is 1) a, b, c, d 2) b, c, d, f
1) seminal vesicle 2) prostate gland 3) a, b, f 4) all the above
3) bulbourethral gland 4) vas deferens 156. Mismatch is
152. Seminal plasma is contributed by
1) Interstitial cells - androgens
i) seminal vesicles 2) Leydig cells - line the seminiferous tubules
ii) prostate gland 3) Sertoli cells - nourishment to the germ cells
iii) urethra 4) Interstitial space of seminiferous tubules -
iv) bulbourethral glands immunocompetent cells
1) i and ii 2) i, ii and iv 157. Incorrect statement is
3) i, iii and iv 4) i and iv 1) In male, testes are situated outside the
153. Match column I with column II and select the abdominal cavity
correct option.
2) Male reproductive system includes a pair of
Column - I Column - II testes along with accessory ducts, glands
A) Penis i) loose fold of skin and the external genitalia
B) Glans penis ii) male external genitalia 3) Prostate is a paired gland present in male
reproductive system
iii) external urethral
C) Fore skin 4) Increased levels of GnRH acts on the
opening
anterior pituitary gland and stimulates the
D) Urethral meatus iv) enlarged end of penis secretion of LH and FSH
1) A - ii, B - iv, C - i, D - iii 158. Process of transformation of spermatids into
2) A - iii, B -iv, C - i, D - ii sperms in called
3) A - ii, B - iv, C - iii, D - i 1) spermiation 2) spermiogenesis
4) A - iv, B - iii, C - ii, D - i 3) ejaculation 4) insemination
 17 Test ID : 110
159. In spermatogenesis, four primary 1) Both Statement I and II are correct
spermatocytes produce 2) Statement I is correct and Statement II is
1) 4 spermatids 2) 8 spermatozoa incorrect
3) 16 spermatogonia 4) 16 spermatozoa 3) Statement I is incorrect and Statement II is
160. Which one of the following, correctly
correct
represents the process of spermiogenesis?
4) Both Statement I and II are incorrect
1) spermatozoa → spermatids
2) spermatids → spermatozoa 165. Which of the following is a primary sex organ

3) secondary spermatocytes → spermatids in females?

4) spermatozoa → spermatogonia 1) Uterus 2) Cervix
161. Study the following with regard to 3) Oviducts 4) Ovaries
spermatogenesis. 166. Read the given statements and select the
i) Spermatogonia correct option.
ii) secondary spermatocyte Statement - I: Each ovary is connected to the
iii) primary spermatocyte pelvic wall and uterus by ligaments.
iv) spermatid
Statement - II: The oviduct extends from the
v) spermatozoa
periphery of each ovary to the uterus.
Arrange them in the correct sequence.
1) iii → iv → ii → i → v 1) Both Statement I and II are correct
2) i → iii → ii → iv → v 2) Statement I is correct and Statement II is
3) i → iii → ii → v → iv incorrect
4) iii → iv → i → ii → v 3) Statement I is incorrect and Statement II is
162. Identify the correct set of structures having 23 correct
chromosomes per cell. 4) Both Statement I and II are incorrect
1) spermatogonia, secondary oocyte, 167. If a female has menstrual cycle of 30 days,
secondary spermatocyte what would be the day of ovulation?
2) spermatids, secondary oocyte, 2nd polar
1) 14th day 2) 16th day
body
3) oogonia, secondary oocyte, primary 3) 18th day 4) 20th day
spermatocyte 168. A female of 40 years had her menarche at the
4) oogonia, spermatozoa, primary beginning of 11 years. She gave birth to two
spermatocyte children, how many secondary oocytes are
163. How many primary spermatocytes required for produced by her till now? (each menstrual
the formation of 100 sperms? cycle is of 30 days)
1) 25 2) 50 1) 360 2) 330
3) 75 4) 100 3) 318 4) 530
164. Read the given statements and select the
169. Uterine endometrium and blood vessels are
correct option.
broken down in the menstrual cycle, due to the
Statement - I: Human male ejaculates about
200 to 300 million sperms during a coitus. 1) lack to Cortisol
Statement - II: Out of the total ejaculate 2) lack of FSH
during coitus, for normal fertility, at least 40% 3) lack of progesterone
sperms must have normal shape and size, and 4) over prodcution of Cortisol
at least 60% of them must show vigorous
motility.
 18 Test ID : 110
170. The blastomeres in the blastocyst are arranged 175. Assertion (A): Oogenesis is initiated at
into an outer layer called puberty.
1) ectoderm Reason(R): Millions of oogonia are formed
2) trophoblast within the each ovary every month.
3) inner cell mass 1) Both A and R are true and R is the correct
4) endoderm explanation of A
171. Assertion (A): Placenta produces several 2) Both A and R are true and R is the not
hormones. correct explanation of A
Reason(R): Placenta acts as structural and 3) A is true but R is false
functional unit between foetus and maternal 4) both A and R false
body. 176. The finger like projections that appear on the
1) Both A and R are true and R is the correct trophoblast after implantation are called
explanation of A
1) umbilical cord 2) chorionic villi
2) Both A and R are true and R is the not
3) ammiotic villi 4) placenta
correct explanation of A
177. The process of milk production is called
3) A is true but R is false
4) A is false but R is true 1) parturition 2) lactation
172. Which of the following hormones are
3) colostrum 4) micturition
produced in women during pregnancy? 178. Assertion (A): Breast feeding during the

1) hCG 2) hPL initial period of infant growth is recommended

3) Relaxin 4) all the above by doctors for bringing up a healthy baby.
173. The first movements of foetus is observed
Reason(R): Colostrum contains antibodies
during the _____ month of gestation period. 1) Both A and R are true and R is the correct
1) 5 2) 3 explanation of A
3) 2 4)1 2) Both A and R are true and R is the not
174. Match the following.
correct explanation of A
3) A is true but R is false
Column - I Column - II
4) A is false but R is true
A) Oogania i) antrum
179. In a developing foetus, most of the major
B) Tertiary follicle ii) gamete mother cell organ systems are developed by the end of
C) Secondary ____ weeks of pregnancy.
iii) haploid
follicle 1) 14 2) 12
D) secondary iv) more layers of 3) 16 4) 18
oocyte granulosa cells 180. How many secondary spermatocytes are
1) A - iv, B - iii, C - ii, D - i required to form 500 sperpmatozoa?
2) A - ii, B - i, C - iv, D - iii 1) 2000 2) 125
3) A - iii, B - i, C - iv, D - ii 3) 250 4) 500
4) A - iv, B - ii, C - i, D - iii
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