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Health Psychology 1st Edition Frazier

Test Bank
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1. Stress is BEST defined as a:
A) situation or event that triggers discomfort in some way.
B) positive emotional state associated with physiological and behavioral changes.
C) negative emotional state associated with physiological and behavioral changes.
D) situation or event that triggers either a positive or negative reaction.

2. Amanda sees that she received a D- on her chemistry test and is scared that she might
not pass the class. The event of receiving a low grade on a test is an example of:
A) stress.
B) a stressor.
C) chronic stress.
D) acute stress.

3. A situation or event that triggers stress is known as:


A) stress.
B) a stressor.
C) chronic stress.
D) acute stress.

4. Acute stress is _____ in onset and _____ in duration.


A) rapid; short
B) rapid; long
C) slow; short
D) slow; long

5. An individual who got into a car crash likely experienced:


A) acute stress.
B) chronic stress.
C) chronic strain.
D) an ambiguous event.

6. An individual who experiences financial hardship each day for the past two years is an
example of:
A) acute stress.
B) chronic stress.
C) an ambiguous event.
D) an unpredictable event.

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7. Being fired from a job is to _____ as experiencing discrimination every day is to _____.
A) normative events; non-normative events
B) uncontrollable events; unpredictable events
C) chronic stress; acute stress
D) acute stress; chronic stress

8. According to the textbook, which type of events are most difficult to confront,
potentially producing greater distress?
A) Uncontrollable events
B) Unpredictable events
C) Negative events
D) Ambiguous events

9. The fire alarm goes off in your dorm room while you are showering. This is an example
of a _____ type of stressful event.
A) ambiguous
B) uncontrollable
C) normative, on-time
D) non-normative, off-time

10. Which types of events are characterized by being particularly stressful because they are
unexpected and unpredictable?
A) Ambiguous
B) On-time, normative
C) Off-time, non-normative
D) Acute stress

11. A married couple are both 40 years old, and they have two teenage children. They have
long-since decided that they did not want to have any more children, but the wife just
found out that she is pregnant. Which type of event is this?
A) Ambiguous
B) On-time, normative
C) Off-time, non-normative
D) Chronic stress

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12. A couple are both 25 years old and are planning their wedding. They are feeling
overwhelmed by everything they have to get ready for the wedding, such as booking a
venue and sending out invitations. This event is an example of a(n):
A) ambiguous event.
B) on-time, normative event.
C) off-time, non-normative event.
D) chronic stress event.

13. Which system is composed of the sensory neurons?


A) The peripheral nervous system
B) The central nervous system
C) The autonomic nervous system
D) The sympathetic nervous system

14. The system that coordinates basic bodily functioning is the _____ nervous system.
A) peripheral
B) central
C) autonomic
D) sympathetic

15. Which system is composed of the brain and the spinal cord?
A) The peripheral nervous system
B) The central nervous system
C) The autonomic nervous system
D) The sympathetic nervous system

16. The_____ nervous system regulates internal functioning such as our heartbeat and
respiration.
A) peripheral
B) central
C) autonomic
D) sympathetic

17. The _____ nervous system is responsible for mobilizing the body in response to stress.
A) peripheral
B) central
C) autonomic
D) sympathetic

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18. The autonomic nervous system is divided into:
A) the peripheral nervous system and the central nervous system.
B) the sympathetic nervous system and the parasympathetic nervous system.
C) the thalamus and the homeostasis.
D) the brain and the spinal cord.

19. Brad thinks that he sees a spider on the wall, and jumps back in surprise. Which system
was activated?
A) The peripheral nervous system
B) The central nervous system
C) The autonomic nervous system
D) The sympathetic nervous system

20. The _____ is the relay station in the brain that interprets the messages from the
sympathetic nervous system.
A) thalamus
B) peripheral nervous system
C) central nervous system
D) autonomic nervous system

21. Calmly reading a book is to _____ as being spooked by a weird sound in your house is
to the _____.
A) homeostasis; sympathetic nervous system
B) homeostasis; parasympathetic nervous system
C) the sympathetic nervous system; parasympathetic nervous system
D) the thalamus; sympathetic nervous system

22. John was doing construction on the roof of an apartment buiding and almost slipped.
His heart was racing, but eventually his body was able to make him calm again. Which
system was able to regulate his sense of equilibrium?
A) The peripheral nervous system
B) The parasympathetic nervous system
C) The autonomic nervous system
D) The sympathetic nervous system

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23. Devon was doing construction on the roof of a house and almost slipped. His heart was
racing, but eventually his body was able to make him calm again. What is the sense of
equilibrium or balance he is experiencing called?
A) Adrenaline
B) Noradrenaline
C) Acetylcholine
D) Homeostasis

24. The parasympathetic nervous system performs activities such as _____, while the
sympathetic nervous system performs activities such as _____.
A) constricting the pupils; dilating the pupils
B) dilating the pupils; constricting the pupils
C) inhibiting digestion; stimulating digestion
D) relaxing the bladder; contracting the bladder

25. When an individual experiences stress, _____ are secreted.


A) acetylcholine
B) catecholamines
C) feelings of homeostasis
D) hormones from the thalamus

26. Which is NOT an example of a catecholamine?


A) Noradrenaline
B) Adrenaline
C) Norepinephrine
D) Acetylcholine

27. _____ prepares the body for attacking a threat or running from it.
A) Fight-or-flight
B) Tend-and-befriend
C) General adaptation syndrome
D) Alarm phase

28. After a fight-or-flight response, the _____ kicks in to return the body to homeostasis.
A) sympathetic nervous system
B) central nervous system
C) peripheral nervous system
D) parasympathetic nervous system

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29. Seeking help from others and the release of oxytocin are major parts of:
A) the fight-or-flight response.
B) the tend-and-befriend response.
C) general adaptation syndrome.
D) the exhaustion phase.

30. Which is NOT true about the tend-and-befriend response?


A) Oxytocin is released during a stress response and has an important role in bonding
between the mother and infant.
B) Men tend to respond with “fight or flight” while women tend to respond to stress
by seeking out others.
C) The tend-and-befriend response is exclusive to females, because females are
evolved to develop a response to protect, nurture, and comfort their offspring.
D) The tend-and-befriend response brings social behavior more prominently in the
stress process.

31. What is the correct order of stages in the general adaptation syndrome?
A) Resistance, exhaustion, alarm
B) Exhaustion, resistance, alarm
C) Alarm, resistance, exhaustion
D) Alarm, exhaustion, resistance

32. Kate is quickly realizing that she is going to be late to take an important exam, and may
not be able to take it. Kate is likely in the _____ phase.
A) alarm
B) resistance
C) exhaustion
D) allostatic

33. Kate was driving to take an important exam and realized she was late. She initially was
very nervous and stressed. Now she is attempting to adapt to this stressor by thinking
about how she can best handle the situation. Kate is likely in the _____ phase.
A) alarm
B) resistance
C) exhaustion
D) allostatic

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34. Kate had a whirlwind of a morning. She was driving to take an important exam and
realized she was going to be late. She was initially very distraught, then tried to figure
out how to best adapt given the circumstances. At this point she is depleted from all of
the stress she has endured. Kate is likely in the _____ phase.
A) alarm
B) resistance
C) exhaustion
D) allostatic

35. The _____ phase is characterized by the sympathetic nervous system becoming
activated, thereby activating the adrenal glands and producing stress hormones.
A) alarm
B) resistance
C) exhaustion
D) allostatic

36. The _____ phase is characterized by attempts to defend against or adapt to the stressor.
The sympathetic nervous system activity is diminishing.
A) alarm
B) resistance
C) exhaustion
D) allostatic

37. The _____ phase is characterized by feelings of depletion from expending a great deal
of energy.
A) alarm
B) resistance
C) exhaustion
D) allostatic

38. Constant adaptation as a result of exposure to neural, endocrine, and immune stress
mediators can build up a(n):
A) allostatic load.
B) exhaustion phase.
C) hypothalamic-pituitary-adrenocortical axis.
D) sympathetic-adrenomedullary activation.

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39. Someone who frequently experiences discrimination as a result of their race or ethnicity
may have a high:
A) allostatic load.
B) resistance phase.
C) hypothalamic-pituitary-adrenocortical axis.
D) sympathetic-adrenomedullary activation.

40. Physiological reactivity is BEST defined as the:


A) pattern of responses given exposure to a stressor.
B) degree of change in the sympathetic nervous system and the production of
hormones in response to stress.
C) accumulated wear and tear on the body.
D) activation of the sympathetic nervous system and activation of the adrenal glands.

41. In Ms. Bass's fifth-grade classroom, students are asked to take turns reading aloud to the
class. Jake always gets very nervous whenever Ms. Bass is deciding who to call on next.
His palms start to sweat and his heart starts to race. Jake likely has a high _____ in
response to reading in the classroom.
A) allostatic load
B) resistance phase
C) physiological reactivity
D) general adaptation syndrome

42. According to the textbook, which factor does NOT help determine an individual's
response to stress?
A) Amount of exposure
B) Genetic influence
C) Magnitude of reactivity
D) Rate of recovery

43. _____ is defined as the way in which stress is perceived.


A) Person-environment fit
B) Transactional model of stress
C) Secondary appraisal
D) Primary appraisal

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44. Although many people are excited for the holidays, Desi feels that gearing up for the
holidays is incredibly stressful. Desi's perception of the holidays is an example of a:
A) person-environment fit.
B) transactional model of stress.
C) secondary appraisal.
D) primary appraisal.

45. Taking information in from one's environment, processing it, interpreting it, and
figuring out how to respond to it is known as:
A) person-environment fit.
B) the transactional model of stress.
C) secondary appraisal.
D) primary appraisal.

46. Framing the event in one's mind, determining whether the event is harmful, determining
whether the event represents a threat, and determining if the stressor presents itself as a
personal challenge is part of the _____ process.
A) primary appraisal
B) secondary appraisal
C) reappraisal
D) person-environment fit

47. Deciding what can be done to deal with a stressor, such as reducing it, neutralizing it, or
getting rid of it, is part of the _____ process.
A) primary appraisal
B) secondary appraisal
C) reappraisal
D) person-environment fit

48. Internal and external coping strategies primarily come into play in the _____ process.
A) primary appraisal
B) secondary appraisal
C) magnitude of reactivity
D) person-environment fit

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49. An ongoing evaluation of one's ability to cope with a stressor is known as the _____
phase.
A) primary appraisal
B) secondary appraisal
C) reappraisal
D) person-environment fit

50. Fred got fired from his job this morning. He is currently determining whether he is upset
about being fired, since he never really liked his job anyway. However, this job
provided him with a fairly decent salary. Fred is assessing whether any harm or loss
occurred as a result of this firing. Fred is currently engaging in the _____ process.
A) primary appraisal
B) secondary appraisal
C) reappraisal
D) person-environment fit

51. Claire is a supermodel who was walking down the runway in very tall stilettos. Despite
her best efforts, she tripped and fell on the runway stage. The audience gasped and
waited for her reaction. Claire simply got up, smiled, and turned around acting like
nothing happened. At this time, Claire decided that it was best to ignore the situation so
that she would be displaying confidence. Claire assessing the costs and benefits of how
to handle her fall indicates that Claire was in the _____ process.
A) primary appraisal
B) secondary appraisal
C) reappraisal
D) person-environment fit

52. Amber is currently seeing a psychotherapist to deal with her ongoing anxiety. The
therapist suggests several techniques to help her cope when she feels panic coming on.
Amber periodically evaluates whether these coping strategies are helping reduce her
anxiety. Amber is in the _____ process.
A) primary appraisal
B) secondary appraisal
C) reappraisal
D) person-environment fit

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53. In the experiment described in the textbook, which group experienced the most stress in
anticipation of seeing a film about a painful tribal ritual?
A) The excitement group
B) The scientific group
C) The trauma group
D) The control group

54. Dr. Johnson is conducting an experiment in which she asks participants to deliver a
speech in front of an audience. She randomly assigns participants into four groups,
where she tells them different scenarios about what will happen when they deliver the
speech. Based on what the information on anticipating stress found in the textbook, who
is likely to experience the most stress?
A) The group who hears that the audience is very kind and will be very receptive to
whatever the speaker has to say.
B) The group who hears that the audience is extremely judgmental and will be
critically listening to everything that the speaker has to say.
C) The group who hears that the audience probably will not be paying attention to
anything the speaker says.
D) Everyone will experience the same level of stress because everyone is equally
nervous to give a speech to a large group no matter what they are told.

55. The stress generation hypothesis suggests that:


A) stress is solely a matter of appraisal.
B) some people may create negative life experiences because of their personality.
C) there are individual differences in appraisal that affect individuals' perceptions of
stress.
D) one's reaction to stress is passed down from generation to generation.

56. Someone who thinks more about themselves as an independent person before the
interdependence of the community is coming from a:
A) primary appraisal.
B) secondary appraisal.
C) individualist orientation.
D) collectivist orientation.

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57. Cathy sees her place in life primarily as part of a family and the larger community.
Thus, when she makes decisions, she always considers the impact of her family before
the impact it may have on her. Cathy has a:
A) primary appraisal.
B) secondary appraisal.
C) individualist orientation.
D) collectivist orientation.

58. An individual who considers the interdependence of the community and shared goals of
the community before themselves as an individual has a:
A) primary appraisal.
B) secondary appraisal.
C) individualist orientation.
D) collectivist orientation.

59. Which is NOT true regarding stress?


A) Individuals with a collectivist orientation versus an individualistic orientation tend
to be impacted by daily stressors in different ways.
B) Life expectancies for whites are generally lower than other racial/ethnic groups
because whites tend to experience more stress.
C) Nearly 90 percent of college students experience a high level of stress.
D) People without a high school diploma experience more stressors on a daily basis
than those with higher levels of education.

60. Sitting in traffic on the way to work is an example of:


A) a life event.
B) uplifts.
C) a daily hassle.
D) perceived stress.

61. Which is NOT an example of a life event?


A) Filing for divorce
B) Preparing for one's first child
C) Getting a large bill in the mail
D) Planning a wedding

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62. Which is NOT true about stress experiences?
A) Life events always pose greater health risks than daily hassles.
B) Daily hassles can be offset by experiencing uplifts.
C) The cumulative effect of daily hassles can be more detrimental than a life event.
D) Daily hassles can worsen the symptoms of poor health that already exist.

63. When a group of risk factors such as high blood pressure and high cholesterol cluster
together to elevate the risk of experiencing negative health outcomes, this is known as:
A) allostatic load.
B) metabolic syndrome.
C) immunodeficiency.
D) diseases of adaptation.

64. An individual turning to alcohol or other substances in order to cope with their daily
stress from work is an example of which model or theory?
A) Tension-reducing theory
B) Diathesis-stress model
C) Metabolic syndrome
D) Transactional model of stress

65. _____ of women experience migraines.


A) 10 percent
B) 25 percent
C) 33 percent
D) 50 percent

66. The diathesis stress model states that:


A) the development of a severe mental illness is based on one's coping competency
skills.
B) individuals born with a biological predisposition to severe mental illness may
develop severe mental illness after being exposed to a significant stressor.
C) all individuals with a family history of severe mental illness will develop a severe
mental illness.
D) individuals with a family history of severe mental illness are likely to experience
more stress.

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67. John is a 24-year-old male with a family history of mental illness. While walking home
from work one night he is violently assaulted and robbed by a group of young men.
According to the diathesis stress model, what is a likely outcome of this experience?
A) John will develop a mental health disorder.
B) John will experience little to no stress response.
C) John will become an advocate for neighborhood safety awareness.
D) John will become violent.

68. _____ often develop(s) after an individual is exposed to a life-threatening event and
begins to experience intrusive symptoms, avoidance, negative alterations in cognitions
and mood, and alterations in arousal and reactivity.
A) High allostatic loads
B) Migraines
C) Post-traumatic Stress Disorder
D) Physiological reactivity

69. Ellen is a former Navy SEAL who recently returned home from her second deployment
to Iraq. She tells her therapist that she has been feeling depressed, is significantly more
aware of her surroundings, has developed a sensitivity to loud noises, and sometimes
feels like she is experiencing combat all over again. Ellen MOST likely has:
A) a high allostatic load.
B) migraines.
C) post-traumatic stress disorder.
D) physiological reactivity.

70. Approximately _____ of women and _____ of men experience post-traumatic stress
disorder.
A) 5 percent; 10 percent
B) 10 percent; 5 percent
C) 20 percent; 10 percent
D) 10 percent; 20 percent

71. _____ is the feeling or re-experiencing of the traumatic event as if it were still
occurring.
A) Intrusion
B) Avoidant symptoms
C) Negative alterations in mood or cognitions
D) Increased arousal

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72. Jacob was in a bad car accident last year and developed post-traumatic stress disorder as
a result. He feels incredibly sad and guilty about the car accident and strongly blames
himself for what happened because he was driving the car. He has even started to isolate
himself from his family and friends. Jacob is experiencing:
A) intrusion, or re-experiencing symptoms.
B) avoidant symptoms.
C) negative alterations in mood or cognitions.
D) increased arousal.

73. Jamie was robbed while walking to her car after working late one night. Ever since this
happened, she refuses to park in the same lot. She experiences a crippling level of
anxiety even thinking about walking through that parking lot again. Jamie is
experiencing:
A) intrusion, or re-experiencing symptoms.
B) avoidant symptoms.
C) negative alterations in mood or cognitions.
D) increased arousal.

74. Constantly feeling on edge, having a hard time concentrating, and being very suspicious
of others is a symptom of post-traumatic stress disorder known as:
A) intrusion, or re-experiencing symptoms.
B) avoidant symptoms.
C) negative alterations in mood or cognitions.
D) increased arousal.

75. Ever since Mark came back from combat, he has had a hard time concentrating on a task
for very long. He is always looking around him, afraid that something may happen or
that someone is plotting against him. Mark is experiencing:
A) intrusion, or re-experiencing symptoms.
B) avoidant symptoms.
C) negative alterations in mood or cognitions.
D) increased arousal.

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Answer Key
1. C
2. B
3. B
4. A
5. A
6. B
7. D
8. D
9. B
10. C
11. C
12. C
13. A
14. B
15. B
16. C
17. D
18. B
19. D
20. A
21. A
22. B
23. D
24. A
25. B
26. D
27. A
28. D
29. B
30. C
31. C
32. A
33. B
34. C
35. A
36. B
37. C
38. A
39. A
40. B
41. C
42. B
43. A
44. A

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45. B
46. A
47. B
48. B
49. C
50. A
51. B
52. C
53. C
54. B
55. B
56. C
57. D
58. D
59. B
60. C
61. C
62. A
63. B
64. A
65. B
66. B
67. A
68. C
69. C
70. B
71. A
72. C
73. B
74. D
75. D

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