2018/19-ME

PHY

PAPER 1A
YOUTH NEW WORLD

2018/19 MOCK EXAMINATION FOR U

PHYSICS PAPER 1
9.00 pm – 11.30 pm (2½ hours)

This paper must be answered in English

GENERAL INSTRUCTIONS

(1) There are TWO sections, A and B, in this paper. You are advised to finish Section A in about
50 minutes.

(2) Section A consists of multiple-choice questions in this question book, while Section B contains
conventional questions printed separately in Question-Answer Book B.

(3) Answers to Section A should be marked on the Multiple-choice Answer Sheet while answers to
Section B should be written in the spaces provided in Question-Answer Book B. The Answer
Sheet for Section A and the Question-Answer Book for Section B will be collected
separately at the end of the examination.

(4) The diagrams in this paper are NOT necessarily drawn to scale.

(5) The last two pages of this question paper contain a list of data, formulae and relationships which
you may find useful.

INSTRUCTIONS FOR SECTION A (MULTIPLE-CHOICE QUESTIONS)

(1) Read carefully the instructions on the Answer Sheet. After the announcement of the start of the
examination, you should first stick a barcode label and insert the information required in the spaces
provided. No extra time will be given for sticking on the barcode label after the ‘Time is up’
announcement.

(2) When told to open this book, you should check that all the questions are there. Look for the words
‘END OF SECTION A’ after the last question.

(3) All questions carry equal marks.

(4) ANSWER ALL QUESTIONS. You are advised to use an HB pencil to mark all the answers on the
Answer Sheet, so that wrong marks can be completely erased with a rubber. You must mark the
answers clearly; otherwise you will lose marks if the answers cannot be captured.

(5) You should mark only ONE answer for each question. If you mark more than one answer, you will
receive NO MARKS for that question.

(6) No marks will be deducted for wrong answers.

© 青年新世界 保留版權 Not to be taken away before the

Youth New World end of the examination session
All Rights Reserved 2019

2018/19-ME-PHY 1A-1 1
Section A
There are 33 questions. Questions marked with * involved knowledge of the extension component.

1. Two objects A and B of the same mass are heated from liquid to gas under the same condition at the same
rate. The following figure shows how their temperatures vary with time.

temperature / °C

0 time / min

Which of the following statements is/are correct?

(1) Object A has a higher specific heat capacity in gaseous state than in liquid state.
(2) Object A has a higher specific latent heat of vaporization than object B.
(3) Object A has a higher boiling point than object B.

A. (2) only
B. (3) only
C. (1) and (2) only
D. (1) and (3) only

2. When an object A is in contact with another object B, heat flows from A to B. Which of the following
statements about the objects MUST be correct?

(1) The heat capacity of object A is higher than that of object B.

(2) The internal energy of object A is higher than that of object B.
(3) The temperature of object A is higher than that of object B.

A. (2) only
B. (3) only
C. (1) and (2) only
D. (1) and (3) only

2018/19-ME-PHY 1A-2 2
*3. Two containers, X and Y, of volumes 2V and 3V respectively are connected by a narrow tube with a tap as
shown. Initially, the tap is closed, and the containers X and Y contain the same kind of ideal gas at the same
temperature at pressures of 3p and 2p respectively. The tap is then opened, and equilibrium is eventually
reached with the temperature unchanged.

container Y
container X

tap
2V 3V
3p 2p

Which of the following statements is INCORRECT?

A. Before the tap is opened, both containers have the same number of gas molecules.
B. When the tap is opened, a net flow of gas from X to Y occurs.
C. When equilibrium is reached, the gas pressure in the containers is 2.4p.
D. When equilibrium is reached, the total kinetic energy of the gas molecules in X is equal to
that in Y.

*4. When an ideal gas is cooled from 80 °C to 40 °C, the average kinetic energy of its gas molecules will be

A. halved.
B. reduced by 5.84%.
C. reduced by 11.3%.
D. reduced by 70.7%.

5. A car undergoing uniform acceleration travels 100 m from rest in 5 s along a straight line. How long does it
take to travel a further 100 m?

A. 2.07 s
B. 2.34 s
C. 2.5 s
D. 5s

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6. A bead is released from rest and falls into a tube filled with oil. It eventually reaches a constant velocity.

bead

tube filled with oil

Which of the following statements best describes the motion of the bead before it reaches a constant
velocity?

A. zero acceleration
B. constant acceleration
C. increasing acceleration
D. decreasing acceleration

7. A cyclist rides along a straight track. The following graph shows how the velocity v of the cyclist varies with
time t.

v / m s−1

0 t/s
10 20

−8

At time t = 0, the cyclist is at point O. What is the farthest distance between the cyclist and point O during
the motion?

A. 20 m
B. 60 m
C. 80 m
D. 140 m

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8. A block is pushed by a force pointing to the right on a rough horizontal surface but it remains at rest as
shown.

Which of the following statements about the friction on the block is/are correct?

(1) The friction points to the left.

(2) The friction is equal to the pushing force.
(3) The friction and the pushing force form an action and reaction pair.

A. (2) only
B. (3) only
C. (1) and (2) only
D. (1) and (3) only

9. Three identical blocks are connected via light inextensible strings A and B over a light smooth pulley as
shown.

Find the ratio of the tension in string A to the tension in string B.

A. 1:3
B. 1:2
C. 2:1
D. 3:1

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10. A cable car of mass 5000 kg is lifted from the ground at an angle of 30° to the horizontal as shown. Initially,
the cable car is at rest. After travelling for 20 m, it reaches at a speed of 5 m s−1. Assume that the cable of the
cable car is inextensible and air resistance can be neglected.

20 m 5 m s−1

30°

Find the total work done on the cable car during the above process.

A. 490.5 kJ
B. 553 kJ
C. 981 kJ
D. 1043 kJ

11. A wooden block hangs freely from a light inextensible string, and a bullet travels towards the block at a high
speed. The bullet collides with the block and is immediately embedded in it, causing the block to swing
upwards from position A until reaching the highest position B. Neglect air resistance.

Which of the following statements is/are correct?

(1) The total momentum of the bullet and the block during the collision is conserved.
(2) The total mechanical energy of the bullet and the block during the collision is conserved.
(3) The total mechanical energy of the bullet and the block when the block moves from A to B after the
collision is conserved.

A. (1) only
B. (2) only
C. (1) and (3) only
D. (2) and (3) only

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12. Which of the following quantities are NOT vector quantities?

(1) work
(2) temperature
(3) electromotive force (e.m.f)

A. (1) and (2) only

B. (1) and (3) only
C. (2) and (3) only
D. (1), (2) and (3)

*13. A pendulum bob is swinging in a horizontal circle as shown when the string suddenly breaks.

Which of the following figures best shows all the forces acting on the bob just after the string breaks?
Note that
W = weight
T = tension
Fc = centripetal force

A. B.

W W

C. D.

Fc Fc

W W

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*14. Consider four planets with different values of mass and radius. Which of the planets have the largest
acceleration due to gravity at its surface?

mass radius
A. M R
B. M 2R
C. 2M R
D. 2M 2R

15. Three pins P, Q and R are placed upright in front of a plane mirror as shown.

observer

When the observer looks into the mirror, he can see the images of pins

A. P and Q only.
B. P and R only.
C. Q and R only.
D. P, Q and R.

16. The figure below shows the refraction of a light ray at the boundary of a medium X and vacuum.

medium X vacuum

50°
25°

What is the refractive index of X?

A. 1.41
B. 1.52
C. 1.81
D. 2.00

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17. A transverse wave of frequency 12.5 Hz and amplitude A is travelling to the right. The figure below shows its
waveform at a certain instant.

+A

displacement / m
distance / m
Q

−A

What is the shortest time needed for particle Q to return to the equilibrium position?

A. 0.01 s
B. 0.03 s
C. 0.05 s
D. 0.08 s

18. Two loudspeakers S1 and S2 produce sound waves of wavelength 2 m. Points P and Q form a rectangle of
length 4 m and width 3 m with the two loudspeakers as shown.

S1 4m S2

3m

P Q

If the two loudspeakers are operated in antiphase, what are the types of interference that take place at P and
Q respectively?

P Q
A. constructive constructive
B. constructive destructive
C. destructive constructive
D. destructive destructive

*19. Light of wavelength 600 nm is incident on a pair of slits, forming fringes with spacing of 4.0 mm on a screen.
If the wavelength of the light is changed to 400 nm and the separation of the slits is doubled, what is the
fringe spacing?

A. 1.3 mm
B. 3.0 mm
C. 5.3 mm
D. 12.0 mm

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20. A stationary wave of two loops is formed on a stretched string using an oscillator that vibrates at a frequency
of 600 Hz.

fixed point

oscillator

The frequency of the oscillator is then increased slowly. What is the lowest possible frequency for a
stationary wave to be formed again?

A. 700 Hz
B. 800 Hz
C. 900 Hz
D. 1200 Hz

21. When a beam of white light passes through a glass prism, it separates into light bands of different colours.

white light red

orange
yellow
green
glass prism blue
indigo
violet

Which of the following statements about the phenomenon are correct?

(1) This phenomenon is called dispersion.

(2) The frequency of violet light is reduced by the largest degree among all the coloured lights after
entering the glass prism from air.
(3) The speed of red light is reduced by the smallest degree among all the coloured lights after entering
the glass prism from air.

A. (1) and (2) only

B (1) and (3) only
C. (2) and (3) only
D. (1), (2) and (3)

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22. The frequency of the shortest wavelength of visible light can be expressed approximately as 10m Hz. What is
the value of m?

A. 11
B. 13
C. 15
D. 17

23. A metal ball is suspended by an insulating string from the ceiling. Initially, the ball is electrically neutral. A
positively charged rod is then placed below the ball without touching it.

string

metal ball

+ + + + + + rod

Which of the following statements about the metal ball are correct?

(1) The ball is attracted by the rod.

(2) The ball remains electrically neutral.
(3) The ball becomes positively charged when it is touched by the rod.

A. (1) and (2) only

B. (1) and (3) only
C. (2) and (3) only
D. (1), (2) and (3)

24. Three resistors of resistance 1 Ω, 2 Ω and 3 Ω respectively are installed in the empty slots in the circuit
shown below.

A B

What is the maximum possible equivalent resistance across A and B?

A. 2.2 Ω
B. 2.75 Ω
C. 3.67 Ω
D. 6Ω

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25. A battery of negligible internal resistance is connected to a set of resistors and an ideal ammeter as shown.

1Ω
A

4Ω 2Ω
B

The potential difference across A and B is 6 V. What is the ammeter reading?

A. 1.2 A
B. 3A
C. 7.5 A
D. It cannot be determined as the e.m.f. of the battery is not given.

26. Two light bulbs A and B have rated values of ‘110 V, 100 W’ and ‘110 V, 40 W’ respectively. In which of
the following circuits may both of the bulbs work at their rated values? The variable resistor can take any
resistance value larger than zero.
(1) (2) 220 V a.c. (3) 220 V a.c.
220 V a.c.

B A
A B A B

A. (2) only
B. (3) only
C. (1) and (2) only
D. (1) and (3) only

27. Which of the following statements about the live and neutral wires of an electrical appliance under a normal
working condition is correct?

A. The neutral wire is always at a high potential.

B. An electric current always flows from the live wire to the neutral wire.
C. The fuse is connected to the live wire.
D. The switch is connected to the neutral wire.

28. Which of the following statements about magnetic fields is correct?

A. The magnetic field outside a solenoid is uniform.

B. An electric current cannot produce a magnetic field.
C. The magnet field strength around a long straight wire increases with the distance to the
wire.
D. Magnetic field lines never intersect.

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29. Two long straight wires carrying currents of 8 A and 3 A respectively are placed perpendicular to each other.
Point X is 3 cm away from the 3 A wire and 4 cm away from the 8 A wire.

3 cm
X

3A 4 cm

8A

What are the magnitude and the direction of the magnetic field at point X?

magnitude direction
A. 20 μT out of paper
B. 20 μT into paper
C. 60 μT out of paper
D. 60 μT into paper

30. A square loop with a finite resistance moves at a constant velocity v across a region of uniform magnetic
field B into the paper as shown.

v
B

Which of the following graphs best describes how the current I flowing in the loop changes with time t? The
anticlockwise direction is taken as positive.

A. I B. I

0 t 0 t

C. I D. I

0 t 0 t

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*31. An ideal transformer has a primary coil of 20 turns and a secondary coil of 100 turns. An alternating voltage
of peak value 4 V is applied across the primary coil. Which of the following statements about the voltage
across the secondary coil are INCORRECT?

(1) The voltage has a higher frequency than the voltage across the primary coil.
(2) The voltage has a peak value of 0.8 V when the circuit connecting to the secondary coil is closed.
(3) The voltage is zero when the circuit connecting to the secondary coil is open.

A. (1) and (2) only

B. (1) and (3) only
C. (2) and (3) only
D. (1), (2) and (3)

32. A nucleus P turns into a nucleus T through a series of radioactive decays as shown.

⎯⎯ ⎯⎯ ⎯⎯ ⎯⎯

Which of the following statements is/are correct?

(1) P and T are isotopes of the same element.

(2) Q and T are isotopes of the same element.
(3) P has 4 more protons than T.

A. (1) only
B. (2) only
C. (1) and (3) only
D. (2) and (3) only

*33. The activity of a radioactive sample drops from 200 Bq to 80 Bq in 10 hours. Calculate the half-life of the
sample.

A. 7.56 hours
B. 7.86 hours
C. 8.14 hours
D. 8.43 hours

END OF SECTION A

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