Previous 2 Year Question Paper

Previous Two Year Question Paper of LPUNEST (B.
Tech)
Question Paper 1
Section – English
This section contains 25 Multiple Choice Questions. Each question has four choices
(A), (B), (C) and (D) out of which ONLY ONE is correct.
1. How many nouns are there in the given sentence?

Swimming is a good exercise
A. Three B. Two C. One D. Zero
2. Fill in the blank with the correct option.
Can you see the black clouds up in the sky? So, let's go ____ to protect ourselves
from the rain.
A. Someone B. Somewhere else
C. Nowhere D. All of these
3. “Ought to” is a?
A. Primary Verb B. Lexical Verb
C. Main verb D. Modal helping verb
4. Choose the correct option.
Which of the following is an adverb of place?
A. Abroad B. resoundingly C. very D. generally
5. Choose the correct sentence
A. Kolkata is bigger than any city in India.
B. Kolkata is bigger than any other city in India.
C. Kolkata is more bigger than any other city in India.
D. All of these
6. Fill in the blank with the most appropriate option.
Either Rupali _____ Sonali is going to attend the meeting because no one else has
any nice dress to wear.
A. Or B. Nor C. For D. But
7. Fill in the blank with the most appropriate preposition.
The lion attacked the baby but was driven off ______ a group of hunters.
A. By B. from C. at D. on
8. Fill in the blank with the most appropriate interjection.
________, I could do that in half of the time.
A. Hmph B. Oops C. Eh D. Brr
9. Fill in the blank with the most appropriate option.
What is _____ first month of the year? Is it January or February
A. a B. an C. the D. No article
10. Fill in the blank with the most appropriate option
You _____ to feel sorry for what you’ve done
A. Should B. Ought C. Would D. may
If you _________ still ill tomorrow, you ought to stay home.
A. Will be B. Be C. Were D. are
One of my friends __________ while he ___________ the biggest tree in our garden.
A. was fell down / was climbing B. fell down / climbs
C. was falling down / climbed D. fell down / was climbing
13. Select the word that most nearly means the word
SOPORIFIC
A. Drunken B. Juvenile C. Delightful D. Hypnotic
14. Choose the correct tense from the options given.
Where ________ sleeping?
A. will you be B. will you
C. you be D. Will
15. Choose the correct antonym for the given capitalized word:
He is a person who understands his OBLIGATIONS and attends to them annoyances
A. Restrictions B. Duties C. Observations D. Irresponsibility
16. Choose the right option to fill the gap.
The train ________ very soon.
A. arrive B. will have arrived
C. will arrive D. both will have arrived and will arrive
17. Choose the right modal verb.
There are plenty of dresses in the almirah. You ____________ buy any.
A. will not B. must not C. may not D. should not
18. Choose the incorrect use of modal verb.
A. Arif wouldn’t eat garlic when he was a kid.
B. Arif wouldn’t eat garlic when he is a kid.
C. Arif will not eat garlic when he was a kid.
D. Arif wouldn’t eat garlic when he will a kid.
19. Identify the correct meaning of the idiom.
The ball is in your court.
A. Don’t take it too seriously B. A really good invention
C. It's your decision D. Postpone a plan
20. Choose one word for the following.
Someone having many skills
A. Projectile B. Cyclostyle C. Anglophile D. Versatile
21. Choose the correct form of the verb to fill the gap so as to make a meaningful
sentence.
I ________ cricket every Saturday morning.
A. playing B. play C. am playing D. am play
22. Choose the most suitable interjection to complete the sentence.
_________ I hear someone whispering my name.
A. Ah! B. Oh! C. Hush! D. Wow!
23. Change the voice of following sentence.
Why do you tell a lie?
A. Why a lie told by you? B. Why is a lie be told by you?
C. Why is a lie told by you? D. Why is a lie being told you?
24. Which of these words is most nearly the opposite of the word provided?
Withdraw
A. reduce B. need C. advance D. want
25. Choose the right option to fill the gaps.
When Airi _______ at school, she realized she _______ her textbook
A. Had arrived, forgot B. Arrived, had forgotten
C. Forgot, had arrived D. Had forgotten, arrived
Section – Physics
This section contains 25 Questions (20 Multiple Choice Questions and 5 Fill in the Blanks).
Each Multiple choice question has four choices (A), (B), (C) and (D) out of which ONLY ONE is
correct. For Fill in the Blank type question, enter the correct numerical value upto TWO decimal
places.
1. The displacement of a body moving along a straight line is given by : S = btn, where
‘b’ is a constant and ‘t’ is time. For what value of ‘n’ the body moves under the
action of constant
A. 3/2 B. 1 C. 2 D. 1/2
2. For the following question, enter the correct numerical value upto TWO decimal
places. If the numerical value has more than two decimal places, round-off the
value to TWO decimal places.
(For example: Numeric value 5 will be written as 5.00 and 2.346 will be written as
2.35)
The power of a water pump is 200 kW. If g = 10ms−2, then the amount of water it
can raise in 1 min to a height of 10 m is __________(in L).
3. Two particles of equal mass have velocities v1 =4 îand v2 =4ĵms-1. First particle
has an acceleration a1 = (5î+ 5ĵ)ms-2, while the acceleration of the other particle is
zero. The centre of mass of the two particles moves in a path of
A. Straight line B. Parabola C. Circle D. Ellipse
2.35)
The moment of inertia of a circular ring of mass 1 kg about an axis passing through
its centre and perpendicular to its plane is 4 kg-m2 . The diameter of the ring is
_______ m.
5. In an experiment, we measure quantities 𝑎, 𝑏and 𝑐. Then 𝑥 is calculated from the
𝑎𝑏 2
formula 𝑥 = . The percentage errors in 𝑎, 𝑏, 𝑐 are ±1%, ±3%, and ±2%
𝑐3
respectively. The percentage error in 𝑥 can be
A. ±1% B. ±4% C. 7% D. ±13%
6. If a car covers 2/5 of the total distance with 𝑣1 speed and 3/5𝑡ℎ distance with 𝑣2
𝑡ℎ
then average speed is

1 𝑣1 +𝑣2 2𝑣1 𝑣2 5𝑣1 𝑣2
A. 𝑣 𝑣 B. C. 𝑣 D. 3𝑣
2√ 1 2 2 1 +𝑣2 1 +2𝑣2
7. If A = 2ˆi + 4 ˆj − 5 kˆ the direction of cosines of the vector A are

2 4 −5 1 2 3
A. , and B. , and
45 45 45 45 45 45
4 4 3 2 5
C. , 0 and D. , and
45 45 45 45 45
8. A body is taken to a height of 𝑛𝑅 from the surface of the earth. The ratio of the
acceleration due to gravity on the surface to that at the altitude is
A. (𝑛 + 𝐴)2 B.(𝑛 + 1)−2 C. (𝑛 + 𝐴)−1 D. (𝑛 + 𝐴)
9. The bob of a simple pendulum executes simple harmonic motion in water with a
period 𝑡, while the period of oscillation of the bob is 𝑡0 in air. Neglecting frictional
force of water and given that the density of the bob is ((4⁄3) × 1000 kg − m3 ). What
relationship between 𝑡 and𝑡0 is true?
A. 𝑡 = 𝑡0 B. 𝑡 = 𝑡0 ⁄2
C. 𝑡 = 2𝑡0 D. 𝑡 = 4𝑡0
2.35)
If the velocity of sound in air is 336 m/s. The 𝑚𝑎𝑥𝑖𝑚𝑢𝑚 length of a closed pipe that
would produce a just audible sound will be ___________ cm.
11. Mercury thermometers can be used to measure temperatures up to
A. 100℃ B. 212℃ C. 360℃ D. 500℃
12. A liquid of density 𝜌 is filled in a U-tube is accelerated with an acceleration 𝑎 so
that the height of liquid in its two vertical arms are ℎ1 andℎ2 as shown in the figure.
If 𝑙 is the length of horizontal arm of the tube, the acceleration 𝑎 is
g(ℎ1 −ℎ2 ) g(ℎ1 −ℎ2 )

A. towards right B. towards left
2𝑙 2𝑙
g(ℎ1 −ℎ2 ) g(ℎ1 −ℎ2 )
B. towards right D. towards left
𝑙 𝑙
13. A balloon is filled with a mixture of ideal gases. The pressure 𝑃 in the balloon is
related to the volume 𝑉as 𝑃𝑉 2/3 = 𝑘, where 𝑘 is a constant. If 𝑇 is the
temperature of the mixture, volume 𝑉 is proportional to
A. 𝑇 B. 𝑇 2 C. 𝑇 3 D. 𝑇 4
14. A sample of ideal gas is expanded to twice its original volume of 1 m3 in a quasi-
static process for which
𝑃 = 𝛼𝑉 2 with 𝛼 = 3 × 105 Pa/m6 as shown in figure. Work done by the expanding
gas is
A. 8 × 105 J B. 7 × 105 J
C. 6 × 105 J D. 3 × 105 J
15. Two charges each equal to 𝜂𝑞(𝜂−1 < √3) are placed at corners of an equilateral
triangle of side 𝑎. The electric field at the third corner is 𝐸3 then (where 𝐸0 =
𝑞/4𝜋𝜀0 𝑎2 )
A. 𝐸3 = 𝐸0 B. 𝐸3 < 𝐸0 C. 𝐸3 > 𝐸0 D. 𝐸3 ≥ 𝐸0
16. The electron is projected from a distance d and with initial velocity u parallel to a
uniformly charged flat conducting plate as shown in figure. It strikes the plate after
travelling a distance 𝑙 along the direction. The surface charge density of conducting
plate is equal to
2d 0 mu 2 2d 0 mu
A. e 2 B. e 2
d 0 mu 2 d 0 mu
C. e D. e
2.35)
When two resistances 𝑅1 and 𝑅2 are connected in series, they consume 12 W
powers. When they are connected in parallel, they consume 50 W powers. The
ratio of the powers of 𝑅1 and 𝑅2 Is _________.
18. The magnetic field at the centre of a circular coil of radius 𝑟 carrying current 𝐼 is
𝐵1. The field at the centre of another coil of radius 2 𝑟 carrying same current 𝐼 is
𝐵
𝐵2. The ratio 𝐵1 is
2
A. ½ B. 1 C. 2 D. 4
19. A magnet of magnetic moment 20 CGS units is freely suspended in a uniform
magnetic field of intensity 0.3 CGS units. The amount of work done in deflecting
it by an angle of 30° in CGS units is
A. 6 B. 3√3 C. 3(2 − √3) D. 3
20. The distance of closest approach of an 𝛼-particle fired towards a nucleus with
momentum 𝑝, is 𝑟. If the momentum of the 𝛼-particle is 2𝑝, the corresponding
distance of closest approach is
A. 𝑟/2 B. 2𝑟 C. 4𝑟 D. 𝑟/4
21. If half-life of radium is 77days, its decay constant will be
A. 3 × 10−3 - day −1
B. 9 × 10−3 - day −1
C. 1 × 10−3 - day −1
D. 6 × 10−3 -day −1
22. A photon in motion has a mass
A. 𝑐/ℎ𝑣 B. ℎ/𝑣 C. ℎ𝑣 D. ℎ𝑣/𝑐 2
2.35)
The objective lens of a compound microscope produces magnification of 10. In
order to get an overall magnification of 100 when image is formed at 25 𝑐𝑚 from
the eye, the focal length of the eye lens should be ___________ cm.
24. The idea of secondary wavelets for the propagation of a wave was first given by
A. Newton B. Huygens C. Maxwell D. Fresnel
25. A transformer is employed to reduce 220 𝑉 to 11 𝑉. The primary draws a current
of 5 𝐴 and the secondary 90 𝐴. The efficiency of the transformer is
A. 20% B. 40% C. 70% D. 90%
Section – Chemistry
places.
2.35)
The volume of two moles of oxygen at STP is __________ L.
(for example: Numeric value 5 will be written as 5.00 and 2.346 will be written as
2.35)
The first ionization energy Helium is __________ eV.

3. Energy levels A, B, C of a certain atoms corresponding to increasing values of
energy level i.e., E A  EB  EC . If 1 , 2 and 3 are the wavelengths of radiations
corresponding to the transitions C to B, B to A and C to A respectively which of the
following statement is correct?
12
A. 3 = 1 + 2 B. 3 =
1 + 2
C. 1 + 2 + 3 = 0 D. 32 = 12 + 22
4. The compound which contains both ionic and covalent bonds is
A. CH4 B. C2H2 C. KCN D. KCl
5. 𝑁2 + 3𝐻2 → 2𝑁𝐻3 ∆𝐻 = 46𝐾 𝐶𝑎𝑙𝑠
From the above reaction, heat of formation of ammonia is
A. 46 K.Cals B. –46 K.Cals
C. –23 K.Cals D. 23 K.Cals
6. Zinc reacts with CuSO4 according to the equation Zn + CuSO4 → ZnSO4 + Cu.
If excess of zinc is added to 100ml of 0.05M CuSO4, the amount of copper formed
is ____________ g.
A. 0.6354 g. B. 0.3177 g.
C. 3.177 g. D. 6.354 g.
2.35)
A mixture of Nitrogen and Hydrogen is at an initial pressure of 200atm. If 20% of
the mixture reacts by the time equilibrium is reached, the equilibrium pressure of
the mixture is _________ atm.
2.35)
The limiting molar conductivities ( Λ 0 ) for NaCl, KBr an KCl are 126, 152 and 150
S cm2 mol–1 respectively. Then Λ 0 for NaBr is ___________ S cm2 mol–1
2.35)
The rate of reaction becomes 2 times for every 10ºC rise in temperature. How
many times when temperature is increased from 30ºC to 80ºC, then the rate of
reaction will increase _________ times.
10. An example of autocatalysis is
A. Oxidation of NO to NO2
B. Oxitdation of SO2 to SO3
C. Decomposition of KClO3 to KCl and O2
D. Oxidation of oxalic acid by acidified KMnO4
11. The pair of atomic numbers which represent the p-block elements
A. 6, 12 B. 7, 53 C. 19, 35 D. 38, 51
12. A metal which is refined by poling is:
A. Zinc B. blister copper C. sodium D. silver
13. Identify B in the following H 4SiO4 ⎯⎯⎯ → A ⎯⎯⎯ → B + CO
0
1000 C Carbon
-H 2O Δ
A. Corundum B. Quartz
C. Silica D. Carborundum
14. The acid containing S - O - O - S bond is
A. H 2 SO5 B. H 2 S2O7
C. H 2 S2O6 D. H 2 S2O8
15. CrO42– and MnO4– ions exhibit colour due to
A. presence of unpaired electrons in 'd' orbtials of Cr and Mn
B. charge transfer phenomenon
C. d-d electron transition
D. close packing crystal structure
16. Crystal field stabilization energy for high spin d4 octahedral complex is
A. –0.6  0 B. –1.8  0 C. –1.6  0 + P D. –1.2  0
17. Eutrophication in lakes takes place due to
A. Excess of dissolved O2
B. Increase in soil pH
C. Large concetrations of phospate nutrients in water
D. Dissolved fluorides
18. Chromatography is a technique based on
A. Solubilities of solute
B. Adsorption of solute
C. Chemical adsorption followed by dispersion
D. Differential adsorption of different constituents of a mixture
19. Which of the following biphenyl is optically active?
Br Br Br I
A. I I B. Br I
I
Br
C. I D. Br
20. Consider the following reactions:
CH3
HOH/H2SO4
CH3– C – CH=CH2 [X]
As major
CH3 product
(i) Hg (OAc)2
(ii) NaBH4
[Y] as major product, [X] and [Y] respectively be:

A. 2,3-Dimethyl-2-butanol and 3,3- Dimethyl-2-butanol
B. 2,3-Dimethyl-2-butanol and 2,3-Dimethyl-2-butanol
C. 3, 3-Dimethyl-2-butanol and 3, 3-Dimethyl-2-butanol
D. None of these
21. The correctly reported answer of the addition of 154.21, 6.142 and 23 will be
A. 183.352 B. 183.35 C. 183.4 D. 183
22. In Bohr theory, the ratio of Kinetic energy and potential energy of an electron in
any of orbit of hydrogen atom is:
A. 1/2 B. -1/2 C. 1/4 D. -1/4
23. Which of the following is most reactive towards the acid - catalysed dehydration?
OH
OH
A. B.
OH OH
C. D.
24. In which of the following reactions, the final product is 2-methyl-2-propanol?
CH 3CHO ⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯
→
3 ( i ) CH MgBr / dry ether
A. +
( ii ) H 3O
CH 3CHO ⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯→
2 5 ( i ) C H MgBr / dry ether
B. +
( ii ) H 3O
CH 3COCH 3 ⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯
→
3 (i ) CH MgBr / dry ether
C. +
(ii ) H 3O
CH 3COCH 3 ⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯
→
3 (i ) CH MgBr / wet ether
D. +
(ii ) H 3O
25. Which of the following gives hofmann bromamide reaction very easily?
CONH 2
CONH 2
A. NO2
B. OCH 3
CONH 2 CONH 2
C. SO3 H
D.
Section – Mathematics
places.
1. If 𝑋 = {4𝑛 − 3𝑛 − 1 ∶ 𝑛 ∈ 𝑁} and 𝑌 = {9(𝑛 − 1): 𝑛 ∈ 𝑁}, then 𝑋 ∪ 𝑌 is equal to

A. X B. Y C. N D. None of these
2.35)
If C(2n, 3) : C(n, 2) = 12 : 1, then n =________.

−1, for − 2  x  0
3. Suppose f : [–2, 2] → R is defined by f(x) =  then {x  [–2, 2]:x  0
x − 1, for 0  x  2,
and f ( x ) = x } =
 −1 
A. {–1} B. {0} C.   D. 
2
6i −3i 1
4. If, 4 3i −1 = x + iy then
20 3 i
A. x = 3, y = 1 B. x = 0, y = 0
C. x = 1, y = 3 D. x = 0 , y = 3
5. If  ,  are the roots of the equation 8x – 3x + 27 = 0, then the value of
2
[(α2/β)1/3+(β2/α)1/3] is
1 3 1
A. B. C. D. 4
6 2 4
6. The value of 2log3 7 − 7log3 2 is
A. log 2 B. 1 C. 0 D. None of these
7. If A = diag(1, –1, 2), B = diag (2, 3, –1) then 3A + 4B =
A. diag (11, 9, 2) B. diag (11, 9, -2)
C. diag (11, -9, 2) D. diag (11, -9, -2)
 1 2 x
8. If  4 −1 7  is a singular matrix then x =
 2 4 −6 

A. 0 B. 1 C. -3 D. 3
9. The ratio in which i + 2 j + 3k divides the join of − 2i + 3 j + 5k and 7i − k is :
A. 1 : 2 B. 2 : 3 C. 3 : 4 D. 1 : 4
2.35)
The distance travelled s(in meteres) by a particle in t second is given by

,s=t3+2t2+t. The speed of the particle after 18 will be ______ cm/Sec.
11. Eight different letters of an alphabet are given. Words of four letters from these are
formed. The number of such words with atleast one letter repeated is :
8  8 
A.   − 8 P4 B. 84 +  
 4  4
8 
C. 84 − 8P4 D. 84 −  
 4
12. If n Cr denotes the number of combinations of n things taken r things at a time, then
the expression
n
Cr +1 + nCr −1 + 2 nCr is __________
n+ 2 n +1 n +1 n+2
A. Cr +1 B. Cr C. Cr +1 D. Cr
13. 1.2+2.3+3.4+ ..... n terms =
n(n + 1)(n + 5) n( n + 1)( n + 2)
A. B.
3 3
4(4n2 + 6n − 1)
C. D. n(n + 1) (n + 1)2
3
2.35)
The value of (1+cos π/8) (1+cos 3π/8) (1+cos 5π/8)(1+cos 7π/8) is equal to
______.
dy
15. If 2 x 2 − 3xy + y 2 + x + 2 y − 8 = 0 then =
dx
3y − 4x −1 3 y + 4x + 1
A. B.
2 y − 3x + 2 2 y + 3x + 2
3y − 4x + 1 3y − 4x + 1
C. D.
2 y − 3x − 2 2 y + 3x + 2
16. A particle moves along the curve y = x2+2x. Then the point on the curve such that
x and y coordinates of the particle change with same rate
−1 −3
B.  ,  C.  , 
1 5
A. (1, 3) D. (-1, -1)
 2 2  
2 4 
sin 3 x + cos 3 x
17.  dx =
sin 2 x .cos 2 x
A. sin x + cos x + c B. tan x + cot x + c
C. sec x – cosec x + c D. sin x – cos x + c
1
18.  dx =
9 − x2
1 3− x 1 3+ x
A. log +c B. log +c
6 3+ x 3 3− x
1 3+ x 1 3− x
C. log +c D. log +c
6 3− x 3 3+ x
 1
19. 0 dx =
1 + sin x
A. 1 B. 2 C. –1 D. –2
2.35)
If in a frequency distribution, the mean and median are 21 and 22 respectively,

then it’s mode is ________ approximately.
21. The points A(1, 2), B(–3, 4), C(7, –1) are collinear. The ratio in which A divides
BC is
A. 2 : 3 B. 3 : 2 C. –2 : 3 D. –3 : 2
22. A straight line passes through the fixed point  ,  . The sum of the reciprocals
1 1
k k 
of its intercepts on the coordinate axes is
A. 2/k B. k/2 C. k D. 1/k
2.35)
The radius of the largest circle lying in the first quadrant, touching 4x+3y=12 and
co-ordinate axes is _____ .
24. The vertex of the parabola x2+12x–9y= 0 is
A. (6, -4) B. (-6, 4) C. (6, 4) D. (-6, -4)
25. If n = 2 i − 3 j + 4k , m = i − j , l = 2 i − j + k , then the Cartesian equation of the
plane passing through the line of intersection of two planes r .n = 1 and r .m = −4
and perpendicular to the plane r .l = −8 is
A. 5x − 20 y − 12 z − 44 = 0 B. x − 2 y − 12z − 45 = 0
C. 5x − 20 y − 12 z − 47 = 0 D. None of these
Section – Biology
This section contains 25 Multiple Choice Questions. Each question has four choices
(A), (B), (C) and (D) out of which ONLY ONE is correct.
1. Why are biodiversity hotspots important?

A. Due to the high vulnerability of habitats and high irreplaceability of species
found within large geographic regions.
B. The identification of an area as a biodiversity hotspot increases the likelihood
of conservation investment. In addition, other designations for biodiversity
conservation are likely to be present within these broad areas which may have
more formal management structures.
C. It is because it provides grants to organizations around the world that are
working to help protect biodiversity hotspots
D. All of the above
2. The inflammation of bronchi or bronchioles is called
A. Bronchitis B. Lung Cancer C. Asthma D. Emphysema
3. Primary product of photosynthesis
A. Proteins B. Water C. Carbohydrates D. Minerals
4. _________ is one of the most prevalent hotspots of biodiversity in India
A. Himalayas B. Western Ghats C. Ganges D. None of these
5. Paramecium is
A. Bacterium B. Protozoan C. Virus D. Annelid
6. The cells that release heparin and histamines in the blood are:
A. Basophils B. Mast cells C. Eosinophils D. Neutrophils
7. Bacillus thuringiensis is used for
A. Fermentation of beer B. Biopesticide
C. Antibiotic D. None of the above
8. ———– is used as a vector for cloning into higher organisms
A. Retrovirus B. Baculovirus
C. Salmonella typhimurium D. Rhizopus nigricans
9. Niche Density is _________
A. Extinction of species in a new habitat
B. A New emerging population of species in a new habitat
C. The abundance of a population of species outside its habitat
D. The abundance of a population of species within its habitat
10. If a double stranded DNA has 20% of cytosine, what will be the percentage of
adenine in it?
A. 20% B. 60% C. 40% D. 30%
11. Who is known as father of genetics?
A. Gregor Mendel B. Augustinian friar
C. Norman Borlaug D. M.S Swaminathan
12. Somaclones are obtained by__________
A. Genetic engineering B. Tissue culture
C. Plant breeding D. Irradiation
13. The salivary gland chromosomes in the dipteran larvae are useful in gene mapping
because
A. These are much longer in size
B. These are easy to stain
C. These are fused
D. They have endoreduplicated chromosomes
14. No membrane surrounds this organelle
A. Lysosome B. Nucleolus C. Golgi body D. Nucleus
15. Angiosperm differ from the gymnosperms
A. in having compound leaves
B. being evergreen
C. being smaller in size
D. in having ovules enclosed in ovary
16. Brunner's gland are characteristic feature of: -
A. jejunum of small intestine
B. ileum
C. duodenum
D. fundic region of stomach
17. The trachea leads to the ________
A. Pulmonary vessels B. Esophagus
C. Bronchi D. Bronchioles
18. The opening of right atrium into right ventricle is guarded by _______
A. mitral valve B. tricuspid valve
C. bicuspid valve D. aortic semilunar valve
19. ________ are cells present in the Bowman capsule that wrap around the
capillaries of the glomerulus
A. Zymogenic cells B. Enterochromaffin-like cells
C. Parietal cells D. Podocytes
20. _________ is not a skull bone
A. Pterygoid B. Occipital bone C. Vomer D. Sternum
21. Neurotransmitters, released by the presynaptic neurons bind to the receptors on
the ____
A. Cell body B. Post synovial fluid
C. Postsynaptic membrane D. None of the above
22. The bottom area where production is less than respiration in a pond ecosystem is
termed as.
A. Profundal zone B. Tidal zone
C. Benthic zone D. Limnetic zone
23. Which of the following has the maximum genetic diversity in India?
A. Mango B. Potato C. Teak D. Tea
24. Measuring BOD (biological oxygen demand) is primarily used for.
A. Estimating the quantity of organic matter in sewage water
B. Determine the level of dissolved oxygen
C. Estimating the types of microbes
D. None of the above
25. The movement of materials from the leaves to other tissues of the plant is called
________
A. Tropic movement B. Guttation
C. Transpiration D. Translocation
Previous Two Year Question Paper of LPUNEST (B.Tech)
Question Paper 2
Section – English
This section contains 25 Multiple Choice Questions. Each question has four choices (A), (B),
(C) and (D) out of which ONLY ONE is correct.
1. Choose the correct article and fill in the blanks:

Michael didn’t want to spend his holidays in London, but in ________end he did.
A. The B. No article C. a D. an
2. Choose the correct modal verb and fill in the blanks:
The 7:30 train to Bristol _________ be leaving yet; it’s only 7:10.
A. Can’t B. Could C. Must D. Have to
3. Use the correct form of adjective in the sentence below.
Life is Beautiful is the _______ movie I have ever seen.
A. Most excited B. Most exciting
C. More excited D. More exciting
4. Complete the sentence with the correct conjunctions from the choices given
She was aware of the fact that she was not responsible for her cousin’s failure in exams,
______ was she responsible for his expulsion from the school.
A. either B. but C. and D. nor
5. Select the correct conjunction from the choices given to join the sentence.
Everyone in the office respects him. He is an honest man.
A. as a result B. although C. though D. because
6. Choose the sentence with ‘Down’ used as Noun
A. He ran down the hill
B. He has seen many ups and downs in life
C. He is coming by the down trains
D. The enemy plane has been downed
7. The sentence “He found that himself” contains:
A. Personal Pronoun and Indefinite Pronoun
B. Personal Pronoun and Demonstrative Pronoun
C. Personal Pronoun and Relative Pronoun
D. Personal Pronoun and Reflexive Pronoun
8. Suresh went there ___ my bike. Choose the appropriate prepositions.
A. With B. Upon C. Till D. On
9. Hurrah! We have won the match. Identify the interjection which is most suited to the one
underlined.
A. Alas! B. Bravo! C. Enjoy! D. Nah!
10. ______, I've struck gold! Identify the interjection which is not appropriate for use.
A. Aww B. Eureka C. Please D. Shh!
11. Choose the correct verb to complete the following sentence:
Carol and her cousins _________ every afternoon.
A. Exercise B. Exercises
C. Had been exercising D. is exercising
12. What is an adverb?
A. An adverb gives more information about the noun.
B. An adverb gives more information about the verb.
C. An adverb gives more information about the pronoun.
D. An adverb gives more information about the punctuation in a sentence.
13. Fill in the blanks.
Because of Istanbul’s geographical location, it ____ a place of trade since civilization ___.
A. Is/ was being B. Has been/ began
C. Was/ has begun D. Will be/ had begun
14. Fill in the blanks.
When I ___________ the window, the cat ___________ out.
A. was opening/ jumping B. opened/ jumped
C. have opened/ was jumping D. had opened/ jumped
15. Choose the correct option:
It’s been more than three years since I have been working in this company and in the
coming December, I ………………. my 4 years of association with this organization.
A. Will be working B. Will have completed
C. Will complete D. None of above
16. Find out the synonyms of ‘Disdain’?
A. Praise B. Detest
C. Approve D. None of the above
17. Which of the following options is an antonym for ‘Veracity’?
A. Truthfulness B. Sincerity C. Honesty D. Falsity
18. ‘A person who is blindly devoted to an idea’ provide one word for the expression.
A. Immigrant B. Chauvinist C. Epicurean D. Octogenarian
19. Choose the correct meaning of the underlined phrase.
An honest person never plays fast and loose with his friends.
A. delay tactics B. to be inconsistent
C. deceives D. Ignores
20. Which word is used for “Parasite”?
A. Leach B. Leech C. Leeach D. Liech
21. Choose the appropriate homonym:
My brother narrated series of ___________ events.
A. Descreet B. Descrete C. Discreet D. Diescreet
22. Read the sentence and Choose the Independent clause –
We can go camping unless the campground is closed.
A. we can go camping
B. unless the campground is closed
C. the campground
D. We can go camping unless the campground is closed
23. What is true of the following example with regards to subordinate clause?
All the passengers who were aboard the runaway train were frightened.
A. It contains a prepositional phrase.
B. It contains an adjectival clause.
C. It contains an adverbial clause.
D. It contains a noun clause.
24. Spot the error in the sentence below. If no error, then you may choose the required option
as well
I and my colleague / have carefully considered the important issues raised by / the report
which you sent me and / we have decided to take the following action.
A. I and my colleague
B. have carefully considered the important issues raised by
C. we have decided to take the following action.
D. the report which you sent me and
25. Choose the correct modal verb to complete the following conversation.
“Do you have any ideas for our publicity campaign?”
“Yes, I’ve got a few ideas. I ________ put advertisements on Facebook and Google.
We_________ also give out pamphlets in our neighborhood. Maybe John ___________
even contact local TV stations.”
A. Could/could/can B. Could/can/will
C. Cold/would/might D. Could/could/could
Section – Chemistry
places.
1. The charge of one electron is 16 10−19 C . What will be the charge of one Mg+2 ion
A. 1.6 10−19 C B. 3.2 10−19 C C. 2.4 10−19 C D. 111.6 10−19 C
2. The packing efficiency of a metallic element crystallising in a ABCABC___ type lattice

pattern in:
A. 26% B. 52% C. 68% D. 74%
3. The number of neutrons in the dipositive zinc ion (Mass no. of Zn = 65)
A. 35 B. 33 C. 65 D. 67
4. In which of the following the hybrid state of the central atom is sp3d?
A. IF7 B. IF5 C. SF6 D. PF5
5. The heat of neutralisation of 60 g of CH3COOH by 40 g NaOH in aqueous medium is:
A. equal to 57.3 KJ C. more than 57.3 KJ
B. less than 57.3 KJ D. equal to 13.7 KJ
6. In which of the following pairs of solutions will the values of the van’t Hoff Factor be the
same?
A. 0.05 M K 4 Fe ( CN )6  and 0.10 M FeSO4
B. 0.20 M NaCl and 0.10 M BaCl 2
C. 0.05 M FeSO4 ( NH4 )2 SO4 .6H2O and 0.02 M KCl. MgCl2 .6H 2O
D. All have same value
7. 4.5 moles each of hydrogen and iodine are heated in a sealed 10 litre vessel. At equilibrium
3 moles of hydrogen iodide was found. The equilibrium constant for
H2 ( g ) + I 2 ( g ) → 2HI ( g )
A. 1 B. 10 C. 5 D. 0.33
8. The value of  
m for KCl and KNO3 are 149.86 and 154.96 −1cm2 mol −1. Also Cl is
71.44ohm−1cm2 mol −1 The value of NO


− is
3
A. 76.54 ohm−1cm2 mol −1 C. 37.7 ohm−1cm2 mol −1

B. 133.08 ohm−1cm2 mol −1 D. Unpredictable.
9. In a first order reaction, 50 minutes’ time is taken for the completion of 93.75% of a reaction.
Half-life of the reaction is
A. 25 min B. 12.5 min C. 20 min D. 10 min
10. Formula of sodium stearate is
A. C12H25OSO3Na C. C17H35COONa
B. C12H21OSO3Na D. C17H35SO3Na
11. An element with electronic arrangement as 2, 8, 18, 1 will exhibit the following stable
oxidation states
A. + 2 & + 4 B. + 1 & + 2 C. + 2 & + 7 D. + 1 only
12. The method of zone refining of metals is based on the principle of
A. Greater mobility of the pure metal than that of impurity
B. Higher melting point of the impurity than that of the pure metal
C. Greater noble character of the solid metal than that of the impurity
D. Greater solubility of the impurity in the molten state than in the solid
13. The solution is used for the preparation of H2O2 by electrolytic procedure is
A. 0.2N NaOH B. 50%H2SO4 C. 20% NaOH D. 5% NaCl
14. The salt which gives crimson red colour in flame test is
A. BaCl2 B. CaCl2 C. BeCl2 D. SrCl2
15. A metal X on heating in nitrogen gas gives Y, Y on treatment with H2O gives a colorless
gas which when passed through CuSO4, solution gives a blue colour, Y is
A. Mg (NO3)2 B. Mg3N2 C. NH3 D. MgO
16. The structure XeOF4 of is
A. Square planar C. Pyramidal
B. Square pyramidal D. Trigonal bipyramidal
17. Match the following.
Set -I Set -II
A) Nichrome 1) Pb, Bi, Sn,Cd
B) Type metal 2) Pb, Sb,Sn
C) Wood’s metal 3) Cu, Al, Zn
D) Devarda’s alloy 4) Fe, Ni, Cr
The correct matching is
A. A-2, B-1, C- 4, D-3
B. A-4, B-2, C- 1, D-3
C. A-3, B-4, C- 2, D-1
D. A-3, B-4, C- 1, D-2
18. Nessler’s reagent is
A. K 2 HgI 4 B. K 2 HgI 2 C. K 2 HgCl4 D. HgI 2
19. Arrange the following in increasing order of their, stability.
+ + +
+ CH 2 CH 2
CH 2 CH 2
NO2 OH CH 3 NH 2
I) II) III) IV)
A. I < II < III< IV C. I < III < II< IV
B. II < III < I< IV D. II < I < III< IV
20. Heroin is the derivative of
A. Cocaine B. Nicotine C. Caffeine D. Morphine
21. For the following question, enter the correct numerical value upto TWO decimal places. If the
numerical value has more than two decimal places, round-off the value to TWO decimal places.
(For example: Numeric value 5 will be written as 5.00 and 2.346 will be written as 2.35)
Number of lone pairs present in melamine_____?
If H+ + OH– → H2O; H = –57.3 KJ, then the heat of neutralisation for complete Neutralisation of 1
mole H2SO4 by a base is _________ KJ?
No. of hydrogen bonds present between G and C_____?
The maximum prescribed concentration of copper in drinking water is ______ppm
0.5g of an organic compound containing nitrogen on kjeldhlizing required 29ml of N/5
H 2 SO4 for complete neutralization of ammonia. The percentage of nitrogen in the
compound is ______.
Section – Mathematics
places.

1. If X = 4 − 3n − 1: n  N
n
  
and Y = 9 ( n −1) : n  N , where N is the set of natural
numbers, then X  Y is equal to:
A. X B. Y C. N D. Y-X
2. Let R be the real line. Consider the following subsets of the plane R  R
S = {(x, y): y = x + 1 and 0 < x < 2}
T = {(x, y): x – y is an integer}.
Which one of the following is true?
A. Neither S nor T is an equivalence relation on R
B. Both S and T are equivalence relation on R
C. S is an equivalence relation on R but T is not
D. T is an equivalence relation on R but S is not
 ( e x − 1)
2
 ,x  0
  x  x
3. Let k be a non-zero real number. If f ( x ) =  sin   log 1 + 
 k   4
12 ,x =0

is a continuous function, then the value of k is:
A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 4
4. 7 − 24i =
A. ± (3 - 4i) B. ± (4 - 3i) C. ± (5 - 8i) D. ± (6 - 2i)
5. If  ,  are the roots of x + px + 1 = 0 and  ,  are two roots of x + qx + 1 = 0 then
2 2
( −  )(  −  )( +  )(  +  ) =
A. q2 - p2 B. p2 - q2 C. p2 + q2 D. p2q2
6. If the arithmetic mean of two numbers a and b, a > b > 0, is five times their geometric mean,
a+b
then is equal to
a −b
6 3 2 5 6 7 3
A. B. C. D.
2 4 12 12
 y
1 2 x 
7. If A =  =  x  be such that AB = 6  , then
 and B   8 
3 −1 2   1   
A. y = 2 x B. y = −2 x C. y = x D. y = − x
5a −b 
8. If A =   and A ( adj A) = A A , then 5a + b is equal to
T
 3 2 
A. -1 B. 5 C. 4 D. 13
9. The vector AB = 3i + 4k and AC = 5i + 2 j + 4k are the sides of a triangle ABC.
The length of the median through A is
A. 72 B. 18 C. 33 D. 288
10. The statement p → ( q → p ) is equivalent to :
A. p → q B. p → ( p → q ) C. p → ( p  q ) D. p → ( p  q )
11. The number of four digit odd numbers that can be formed with 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 7, 8, 9 is
A. 4 . 8 P3 B. 5 . 8 P3 C. 4 . 7 P3 D. 5 . 7 P3
12. If n C4 ,n C5 and nC6 are in A.P. then n can be:
A. 9 B. 12 C. 11 D. 14
5
1 + 2 + ...... + k
3 3 3
13. 
k =1 1 + 3 + 5 + ........ + (2k − 1)
=
A. 22.5 B. 24.5 C. 28.5 D. 32.5

x in the expansion of (1 + x )
k 2005
14. If C k is the coefficient of and if a, d are real numbers,
2005
then  ( a + kd )C
k =0
k =
A. ( 2a + 2005d ) 22004 C. ( 2a + 2004d ) 22005

B. ( 2a + 2005d ) 22005 D. ( 2a + 2004) 2
2005
 dy 
 2x 
15. If y = Tan  −1
2 
, x  1 , then   1=
 1− x   dx  x =
2
1 2 4 8
A. B. C. D.
5 5 5 5
16. If f ( x) = a log x + bx + x has extreme values at x = −1 and x = 2 , then the ordered pair
2
(a, b) =
 1  1 
A. (2, −1) B.  2, −  C. (−1, 2) D.  − , 2 
 2  2 
dx
17.  cos x cos 2x
=
A. cos–1 (tan x) +c C. sin–1 (tan x) + c

B. cos (tan–1x) +c D. tan (sin–1x) +c
1 + x + x + x2
18.  x + 1 + x dx =
1 2
A. 1+ x + c B. (1 + x)3/2 + c C. 1+ x + c D. 2(1 + x)3/2 + c
2 3
1
1 + x + x2 - 1- x + x 2
19. 
-1 1 + x + x2 + 1- x + x 2
dx =
3 
A. B. C. 0 D. -1
2 2
dy 3 1  −    4  
20. If + y= , x  ,  and y   = , then y  −  equals
 3 3 4 3  4
2 2
dx cos x cos x
1 3 4 1 6 1
A. +e B. − C. + e D.
3 3 3 3
x −1 y + 3 z + 5
If the line = = lies in the plane 2 x + ly + mz = 16, then l 2 + m2 is equal to
4 −2 1
________
Suppose, a population A has 100 observations 101, 102, ....... 200 and another population
B has 100 observations 151, 152, .... 250. If VA and VB represent the variances of the two
VA
population respectively, then is _______
VB
Minimum number of times a fair coin must be tossed so that the probability of getting at
least one head is more than 99% is _______
If the roots of the Quadratic equation x 2 + px + q = 0 are tan 300 and tan150 then the
value of 2 + q − p is _____.
 x 5 
If sin −1   + cos ec −1   = then the value of x is ______
5 4 2
Section – Physics
places.
1. A particle of mass m is moving in a straight line with momentum p. Starting at time t=0, a
force F=kt acts in the same direction on the moving particle during time interval T so that
its momentum changes from p to 3p. Here k is a constant. The value of T is:
2k p 2p k
2 2
A.
p B. k C. k D.
p
2. A particle is moving in a circular path of radius a under the action of an attractive potential
k
U =− . Its total energy is
2r 2
k 3 k k
− −
A. 2 a
2
B. Zero C. 2 a2 D. 4a 2
3. A metal rod of uniform thickness and of length 1 m is suspended at its 25 cm division with
help of a string. The rod remains horizontally straight when a block of mass 2 kg is
suspended to the rod at its 10 cm division. The mass of rod is
A. 0.4 kg B. 0.8 kg C. 1.2 kg D. 1.6 kg
4. An equilateral triangle ABC is out from a thin solid sheet of wood. (See figure) D, E and F
are the mid-points of its sides as shown and G is the centre of the triangle. The moment
of inertia of the triangle about an axis passing through G and perpendicular to the plane
of the triangle is I 0 . If the smaller triangle DEF is removed from ABC, the moment of inertia
of the remaining figure about the same axis is I. Then:
9 15 3 I0
A. I = I0 B. I = I0 C. I = I0 D. I =
16 16 4 4
5. Diameter of a steel ball is measured using a Vernier calipers which has divisions of 0.1 cm
on its main scale (MS) and 10 divisions of its Vernier scale (VS) match 9 divisions on the
main scale. Three such measurements for a ball are given as:
S.No MS(cm) VS divisions
1 0.5 8
2 0.5 4
3 0.5 6
A. 0.56 cm B. 0.53 cm C. 0.52 cm D. 0.59 cm

6. From a tower of height H, a particle is thrown vertically upwards with a speed u. The time
taken by the particle, to hit the ground, is n times that taken by it to reach the highest point
of its path.
A. 2gH = n 2 u 2 B. gH = (n-2) 2 u 2 C. 2gH = nu 2 (n − 2) D. gH = (n − 2)u 2
7. If the angle of projection is 60o, the height of the projectile when it has travelled a distance
3R
Where R is the range
4
3 3R 2 3R 4
A. B. R C. D. R
16 3 16 5
8. A test particle is moving in a circular orbit in the gravitational field produced by a mass
K
density  ( r ) = . Identify the correct relation between the radius R of the particle’s orbit
r2
and its period T:
A. TR is a constant C. T / R is a constant
2
B. T / R is a constant D. T 2 / R3 is a constant
9. The time period of a simple pendulum is T . When the length is increased by 10cm, its
period is T1 . When the length is decreased by 10 cm, its period is T2 . Then relation
between T , T1 and T2 is :
2 1 1 2 2 2
A. 2
= 2+ 2 C. 2T = T1 + T2
T T1 T2
2 1 1 2 2 2
B. 2
= 2- 2 D. 2T = T1 - T2
T T1 T2
10. A travelling harmonic wave is represented by the equation y ( x, y ) = 10−3 sin ( 50t + 2x ) ,
where x and y are in meter and t is in seconds. Which of the following is a correct statement
about the wave?
A. The wave is propagating along the positive x-axis with speed 25 ms −1
B. The wave is propagating along the negative x-axis with speed 25 ms −1
C. The wave is propagating along the negative x-axis with speed 100 ms −1
D. The wave is propagating along the positive x-axis with speed 100 ms −1
11. The mass of a lead ball is M. It falls down in a viscous liquid with terminal velocity V. The
terminal velocity of another lead ball of mass 8M in the same liquid will be
A. 64V B. 4V C. 8V D. V
12. Drops of liquid of density d are floating half immersed in a liquid of density r (if the surface
tension of liquid is T) then the radius of the drop will be.
3T 6T 2T 3T
A. B. C. D.
g (2d - r ) g (2d - r ) g (2d - r ) g (4d - 3r )
aT 3
13. A gas is governed by an equation V = where P, V and T are pressure, volume and
P
temperature of the gas respectively and 'a' is a constant. If the temperature of the gas is
doubled at constant pressure, then the work done by the gas is
A. 6aT3 B. 8aT3 C. 9aT3 D. 7aT3
14. Using equipartition of energy, the specific heat (in J kg-1 K-1) of aluminum at room
temperature can be estimated to be (atomic weight of aluminum = 27)
A. 25 B. 410 C. 925 D. 1850
15. The flat base of a hemisphere of radius a with no charge inside it lies in a horizontal plane.
r
A uniform electric field E is applied at an angle p / 4 with the vertical direction. The electric
flux through the curved surface of the hemisphere is
p a2 E p a2 E
A. (p + 2)p a2 E / 2 2 B. p a2 E C. D.
2 2 2
16. Four equal point charges Q each are placed in the xy- plane at (0,2), (4,2), (4, -2) and (0,
-2). The work required to put a fifth charge Q at the origin of the coordinate system will be
Q2  1  Q2
A.  1+  C.
4 o  3 4 o
Q2  1  Q2
B.  1+  D.
4 o  5 2 2 0
17. In Fig the effective resistance between A and B is
A. R B. R ( 3 −1 ) C. 3R D. R ( 3 +1 )
18. A conducting rod of length and mass m is moving down a smooth inclined plane of
inclination  with constant velocity V. A current i is flowing in the conductor in a direction
perpendicular to paper inwards. The magnitude of field B is
mg mg mg cos  mg
A. .sin  B. . tan  C. D.
i i i i sin 
19. The magnetic field at point C as shown in figure is
0 M 0 2 0 M 0 2 0 M 0
A. B. C. zero D.
2 r 3
0 2 r03 4 r03
20. A stationary hydrogen atom emits a photon corresponding to first line of Lyman series.
Recoil velocity of the atom is nearly
A. 3.2ms- 1 B. 0.63ms −1 C. 8.2ms −1 D. 0.1ms −1
In the given circuit, current (in A) through the diode is ______
5
10V +
5 ideal
In the following logic circuit the value of Y1 is____.
A car of mass 1000kg moving with a velocity of 10ms–1 is acted upon by a forward force
of 1000 N due to engine and retarding force of 500N due to friction. Its velocity (in ms–
1) after 10s is ______
numerical value has more than two decimal places, round-off the value to TWO decimal places
The current gain of transistor in a common emitter circuit is 40. The ratio of emitter current
to base current is ________
A galvanometer requires 10 mA for one division of its scale. It is to be used to measure a
current of 1 amp to the full scale deflection. The scale has 100 divisions. The value of
shunt if the resistance (in Ω) of the galvanometer is _____
Section – Biology
This section contains 25 Multiple Choice Questions. Each question has four choices (A), (B),
(C) and (D) out of which ONLY ONE is correct.
1. As the potassium ions move out of the axon, the oscilloscope records a _______
A. Repolarization
B. Depolarization
C. Equalizing of negative and positive ions
D. shutdown of the membrane pumps
2. Luteinizing hormone (LH) in female
A. Helps in the appearance of secondary sexual characters
B. Stimulates ovary to secrete oestradiol
C. Helps in release of the ovum from the ovary
D. Control the blood pressure
3. Kranz anatomy is found in
A. C4 plants C. C3 plants
B. succulents D. none of the above
4. During seed germination hypocotyl transforms into
A. Root B. Shoot C. Leaf D. Rhizome
5. What does high biological oxygen demand in a water body mean?
A. Water is not polluted
B. Water is polluted with biodegradable pollutants
C. Alcohol is present in water
D. Inorganic pollutants are present in water
6. The properties of integral membrane proteins can be studied by
A. Atomic force microscopy
B. Cryo-sectioning and electron microscopy
C. Freeze-fracture technique and electron microscopy
D. All of the above
7. One of the following nucleic acids has a left handed helix
A. M-RNA B. T-RNA C. A-DNA D. Z-DNA
8. A single stranded DNA/RNA molecule used to detect the presence of a complementary
nucleic acid is called
A. Sensor B. Insert C. Detector D. Probe
9. When there is an increase in the condensation of chromatin during the process of cell
division –
A. Heretochromain increases
B. Euchromatin increases
C. Differentiation of euchromatin & heterochromatin decreases
D. Differentiation of euchromatin & heterochromatin increases
10. The foods made from genetically modified crops required to Pass human testing because
A. they may cause allergies
B. they may alter genes
C. they may cause mutations and release toxins
D. all above
11. Enterokinase helps in the conversion of
A. Lactose to Sucrose
B. Trypsinogen into trypsin
C. Pepsinogen into pepsin
D. Proteins into polypeptide
12. Which of the following options correctly represents the lung conditions in asthma and
emphysema, respectively?
A. Increased respiratory surface; Inflammation
B. Increased number of bronchioles; Increased
C. Inflammation of bronchioles; Decreased
D. Decreased respiratory surface
13. Bacterial artificial chromosomes are the __________________ of bacterial cells.
A. Polymerase enzyme B. Proteases C. F-factors D. Exonucleases
14. In Crassulacean plant stomata are open in the dark due to the accumulation of:
A. Oxaloacetic acid C. Malic acid
B. Monosaccharides D. Phosphoenolic pyruvic acid
15. Carbon dioxide is necessary for photosynthesis. The chemical used to remove this gas
most effectively from entering a control apparatus is
A. Calcium oxide C. Potassium hydroxide solution
B. Distilled water D. Sodium carbonate
16. Sarcoplasmic reticulum is related with:
A. Movement of Ca++
B. Muscle metabolism
C. Movement of Ca++ and muscle metabolism
D. Rapid transmission of the action potential
17. Renal Calculi is:
A. Inflammation of the urinary bladder
B. Inflammation of glomerulus
C. Stone like precipitation in the renal tract
D. Inflammation of the nephron
18. A population that exhibits birth rates that are identical to the death rate implies
A. Initial growth C. Acceleration Phase
B. Plateau phase D. None of the above
19. Which one of the following statements is correct for secondary succession?
A. It begins on a bare rock.
B. It is similar to primary succession except that primary succession has a relatively fast
pace.
C. It follows primary succession.
D. It occurs on a deforested site.
20. Animal pharming can be defined as
A. growing animals for farming
B. programming animals to produce novel products
C. generating transgenic animals for farming
D. none of the above
21. Chemicals, that can induce cancer are called
A. mutagenic agents and produce benign tumor
B. carcinogens and produce non-malignant tumor
C. Carcinogens and produce malignant tumor
D. mutagenic agents and do not produce malignant tumor
22. ____________ is defined as an ecological state of a species being unique to a specific
geographic location.
A. Exotic Species C. Ecosystem
B. Endemic Species D. None of the Above
23. Why certain parts of water bodies contain more number of algae?
A. Due to favorable environment C. Due to lack of fertilizers
B. Due to run-off excess fertilizers D. Due to water pollution
24. New Systematics differs from Classical Systematics in employing
A. Experimental Taxono
B. Biochemical and Cytotaxonomy
C. All biological parameters
D. Numerical Taxonomy
25. Most ancient life form is
A. Archaebacteria B. Eubacteria C. Eukarya D. Progenote

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Previous Two Year Question Paper of LPUNEST (B.

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