Polity 2021-2022

31.
As the Act of Anti-Defection law

R: Independent members of the Parliament can lose his eligibility if he votes for
another political party against his own political party
S: Members of the Parliament and members of the legislative assembly will loose
their eligibility against the order of the political party.
(R) and (S) are True
(B) (R) is True and (S) is False
(C) (R) is False
D) (S) is True
(E) Answer not known
:5GuLOEuTES Gsh$@s0&siuLL ungmggiocmp GstsgsGi Inenit gEsgd

d u d sAui) Gstbsme) 1angi 2-pú9emt $66au puur.
6TGD 8LLÜU4
siLÜu sLAuc sLamkgunpms nsafigamgd a-pulnt sGAmu
pUntedT
( ) Loppib (6rehb) 2eT6Lo
(A)
(B) ( ) 2r LD (6Tab) sap
(C) ( ) 5aD
(D) (6T6b) a_dT DLD
(E) oflcn Asuchlomo

AHGS/2021
33. Which one of the following is offered by the Election Commission to a recognised
political party?
(A) Party name (B) Election funds
Electionsymbol (D) Election manifesto
apiGpgI?
(A) LA Guut (B) Cstsd BA
(C) Gshso AdTemb (D) Gsts &ms
(E)
32. Match the following committees with their purpose of setting up (Panchayat Raj
Committees)
Committees Purpose
(a) L.M. Singhvi Committee 1. Administrative arrangement for rural
development
(b) G.V.K. Rao Committee 2. Community development Programme
(c) Balwant Rai Mehta Committee 3. Revival and strengthening of Panchayat
System
(d) Ashok Mehta Committee 4. Revitalisation of Panchayat Raj
Institutions
(a) (b) (d)
(A) 3 2 4
(B 4 3 2 1
D) 3 1 4 2
(E) Answer not knownn
S9).
Gprbsd
(a) ard.GTLD. &IrIail GY 1. Algoúyp GuobumO&snT pliauns sDuTO
(b) G.V.K. gnái G 2.
(c) ubap gmus Guo$ST GU 3.
4.
(a) (b) (d)

(A) 1 3 2 4
(B) 4 3 2 1
(C) 4 1 2 3
(D) 3 1 2
(E)
30. Which of the following is not the function of finance commission?
(A) To recommend the distribution between union and state of the net
.
proceeds of
taxes
(B) Suggest the principles which should govern the grants-in-aid of the States
(C) Suggest measures to augment the consolidated fund of a State in order to
supplement the resources of the Panchayats and Municipalities
To formulate a plan for the most effective utilisation of the country's resources
(A)
urpsogiuS
(B) apeqauspsrT Lonefurusmar relás Gauckniqw Qsrcrenss@a
DrßlrusåG
utlbsn dsiagi
(C)
(D)
(E) oflc Gshlweldm
34. Consider the following statements:
)The Indian fundamental rights are absolute.
(11) The fundamental rights are enfprceable.
Which of the above statements are true?
(A) () only (II) only
(C) Both () and (I) (D) None of the above
hipssramuuGud assurismeT sGH8.
(1)bSunela) i4uumL 2fmwssT PHmowmemna
) 4iu@L flaussr poepu@ss snluw
GoGa srÚGD mDgsofido
sflumemenau r e e 7
(A) )oLQD (B) () LoOud
(C) )oppud (1) (D) GiopssTL TDauuledna
(E) ehlo Osfwoidmo
85. The following statements relate to the election of Indian President. Find out the
wrong statement.
(A)He should be a citizen of India

He is elected by members of two Houses of Parliament alone
(C) Should not hold any office of proñt
D) He is elected by the members of the electoral college
auráud Grmi sshGiq&6aqt).|

(A)
(B) ungrgodpsSet mymaisctidr apún@ertasanmdo unGub GptpasGsaúu@en
(C) Grauchguora muomen asnylgud aonnu
(D) Gsts sognf (electoral college) Ggta Gsiulp5
(E)
84. When was the legislative council in Tamil Nadu abolished?
1985
B) 1986
(C) 1987
1988
GTiGurs BippmL4o sLL Guewma somisiuLLgI?
(A) 1985
(B) i986
(C) 1987
1988
(E)
35. Consider the following statements:
T h e doctrine of Eclipse is applied in relation to a pre-constitutional law enacted
before 26th January 1950
(11) The Act is eclipsed when the constitution came into force and a shadow falls on
it because it is in consistent with the constitution.

(III) All laws governed by Articles 13 (1) and 13 (2) are pre-constitutional laws.
Wh of the above mentioned are correct?

) and (I) are correct
(B) ) and (III) are correct
(C) I) and (TII) are correct
(D) (), II) and (1I) are correct
8iphsrTUuGd aumsurssoaT sGSE.
() ls60Té GsmtLun@ sreTUGI 26 gTaul 1950-6 psbrudpúULL SIJlud
ensaT
sLL aT ETGD
Gumsns5
( ) aîA 13(1) wpgud 13(2)<T p aTAT s I BLLBsGÒ g#lud anaBB DE5
peTLITEGau eéreT LLT`BeTm(Gid
GoGo sr8TLIUmauldd srma gtlurerena?

(A) () opgub (1I) s
(B) )oppud (III) øsf
(C) (1) obpud (II1) sf
(D) 1), II) Lopg1ud (AII) sA
() oflm asluaidamw
95. The Parliamentary left in India is significantly denotes, a Ideologyy of
socio-economic and political désign in the Post Colonial situation
Revisionist
(B) Democracy
(C) Marxism
(D) Socialismn
burel unguosmp Gsrsros Gu@a

sroaisgsa$BDG Npmsu sps Qungerngng Lopgud sgåud al4amnúdáT &ssnpsb.
(A)
(B) T BTUI5b
(C) LOntsub
(D)
(E) al Asfluacbmw
23. Assertion (A) The 42nd Constitution Amendment has been referred to as the
Mini Constitution'
Reason (R) It was the bulkiest and most comprehensive amendment.

(ABoth (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(C) (A) is true but (R) is false
(D) (A) is false but (R) is true
aDD (A) 42 ug iyAuwmuiy DobsisLLi 9O GD gfuaauniy areng

GALUu@Apg
6T6RTLÒ (R) oldsnT PGTlmTÉ`BLILILL
ipoLuo.
(A) apg(A)b, sngemb (R)ö sflumencnasT JGÚ. sngeaTLd (R) 6mpo (A)ssTeOT FfluTa
eflaTssLoTGÒ
(B) 6abg(A)d sngamb (R)ò sflunarnasIGD. gnT sgeamb (R) apg(A)ésr
sMums eharésoldme
(C) (A) abg asf e T ) 8Tymo (R) sap
D) (A) pg sap a m sngemd (R) s

(E)
one of the following Constitution Amendment Act, four language are
28.
Under which
included under eighth schedule of the constitution of India, there by the number of
official language up to 22?
(Bodo, Dogri, Maithili, Santhali).
(A) Constitution Amendment 90 Act- 2003
(B) Constitution Amendment 91 Act-2003
( Constitution Amendment 92 Act 2003
(D) Constitution Amendment 93 Act- 2005
4 Guomylsnanenamsi. g a n s aomssi 22 s 2ug auf auGABS?

(GuGLT, GLrs, onßc, apsnel)
(A) 90 augi l u o mDÚy siLssosso 2003
(B) 91 ag ysuó sanÚyoiLssOISo 2003
(C) 92 aug isw sDUyaiLisOisó 2003
(D) 93 augi iAuo JauÚysiLsSOsso 2005
(E)
77. Assertion (A) : 73rd Amendment Act brought rural local bodies.
Reason (R) Democracy reached grass root level through local governments.
Directions Given below are two statements labelled as Assertion (A) and
Reason (R) in the context of two statements, which of the
following is correct
(A Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(C) (A) is true but (R) is false
D) (A) is false but (R) is true
6ap () 73-a 2_GTOT TL

SLDLILY&T
Hu@ssiuLLAT
TTLÒ ( ) LD6TTLêurangi 26T6TITL&I JET56JE6til60T p o 14,65LO
DaBOT daerpomL-bBEI.
S16MLDUY4 ( 6TETpyLd 5T0TLD () 6T6016LD

8tlumaTeU.
(A) ( ) Lobpo ( ) rn sflunagi, a.ngeTid ( ) abg ()sflurai oflaTssLom(gLh

(B) ()Lobpud () reimsuneg. nmed sngmò () Babgág () stlunm
afleTssLodw
(C) a b ( ) sfl jaTá) BNYERTLÒ ()5aug
(D) iaDD ( ) $an TTE) EITI O0TLÒ ( ) sfl
(E) of Asflueldamw
24. Consider the following correctly matched:
I. National emergency Article 362
II. War emergency Article 343
III. State emergency Article 356
IV. Financial emergency Article 360
(A) I, II and IV
(B) II, II and IV
CI, II and III
I II and V
I. aguy, 352
II. Guni Gpg&si4, Pena aguy, 343
apuy, 356
IV. BA@pGis4, fo 2pUy, 360
(A) I, II obgud IV
B) I, II oppio IV
(C) I, II obguo II
(D) 1, Ill opgo IV
(E) l Asuelne
25. When do we celebrate International Human Rights Day" every year?
(A) 10th September
(B10h December
(C) 14th November
D) 10th October
(A) 10 Gsibur
(B10 4shu
(C) 14 pabut
(D) 10 iGLmu
CE) oflnAsfuoilm
26. Who among the following recommends to the parliament for the abolition of the
legislative council in a state?
( The Legislative assembly of the concerned state
(B) The President of India
(C)The legislative council of the concerned state

(D) The Governor of the concerned state
9mgasamaupplo GG LomlajBa sLLocnp Guoauau 9lss ungmosnpsAbG

ufpgjny Qsuag
(A) B5 LonBlsbgouusLLwp Gugena
(B)
(C)
(E) afle asuofláen

27. The Supreme Court Judges has been appointed by the President in consultation with
(A) The Prime Minister
( cJI Lead Collegium
(C) The Law Minister
(D) The Vice President
aiesfuosnp usoneT G14ns smwai wurGaLu gGonemamuilcm Gul

lwulspni?
(A)
(B)
(C)
61. The voting age in general elections was reduced from 21 years to 18 by the
(A) 60th Amendment
(B61 Amendment
(C) 62nd Amendment
(D) 63rd Amendment

Qurgis Gshsolo ausscfisgd augi 21 gciTGseil QGtSI 18 6 GapåasúuLLgI?

(A) 60ag sLL BGEsD
(B) 61agi sL BGEsUb
(C) 62ag siL DGisD
(D) 63ag iLSG¢BiD
(E) aslc Gsfuaiema
63. Which Lok Sabha election had the VVPAT was came into existence?
(A2014 Lok Sabha election
(B) 2015 Lok Sabha election
(C) 2006 Lok Sabha election
(D) 2000 Lok Sabha election

(A) 2014 os6Tenau G$ig
(B) 2015 o&sarcnau Gstg
(C) 2006 wásana Gsirg
(D) 2000 Lossmanau Gsngo
(E) al Asfuofldhmw
65. Ramvilas Paswan made Guiness Record for winning
-
highest margin of votes in

parliamentary election of which state?
(A) Bhagalpur (B) Buxar

(C) Banka (Dlajipur
gmbeiereb urevaunen Ananciu Grásni@ Grigi Geubuwps GsnGAul Quui
(A) (B) ussmm
(C) (D) apruy
E) chn asfuem
64. According toConstitutional Act 338 A. Which commissionwas setup with effect from
19thFebruary 2004?
(A) National Human Rights Commission
(B) National Women's Commission

(CNational Commission for Scheduled Tribes
(D) National Commission for Backward Caste
(E) Answernot known
74. The order of following words seen in preamble is
1. Democratic
2. Socialist
3 Sovereign
4. Secular
5. Republic
( 3, 2, 4, 1,5
(B) 2, 3, 4, 1,5
(C) 3, 2, 1, 4, 5
(D) 3, 1, 2,5, 4
(E) Answer not knowvn
LD&5ATmA
2.
p u T ODLD
4.
LDgEnImGDLD
5.
(A) 3, 2, 4, 1, 5
(B) 2, 3, 4, 1, 5
(C) 3, 2, 1,4, 5
D) 3, 1, 2, 5, 4
E)
75. Which of the following is the Judiciary for Maharastra and Goa?
(A) Madras High Court
EMumbai High Court
(C) Supreme Court of India
(D) Madurai branch of High Court
sTgum Lobgub Gsraurayásnen Gungaura osmp

(A)
(B)pbnu aunsBuonp
(C)bsu a.6s Auonpà
(D) aumocp uwgany SamaT
(E) ol Gsuahlom
76. Whichfeature of the Indian constitution stipulatesthat it shall be the dutyof every
citizen of India to develop the scientifictemper, humanism,the spritof inquiry and
reform?
(AFundamental duties
(B) Fundamental rights
(C) Directive principles of state policy
D) Preamble

78. Lok Adalat was introduced in the year
(A) 1950 (B1987

(C) 1984 (D) 20000
E) Answer not known
Gom- 5mus Gsncin@ auuuLLBT
(A) 1950 (B) 1987
(C) 1984 D) 2000
(E)
79. 28 which organization is exempt the Right to Information Act?
(A)EducationalDepartment
(B) Highways Department
(oInteligenceBureau
D) Corporation Ofices
28 5sadfud aflanuo siLGGGbgI chwáGú Aubp ouoUy Gr51?

(A)
(B)
(C) 2TaÝEI»D LIQutlLusD
(D) LompsgmiA sgansr6T
(E)
16. Match the following:
Act Year
Child Marriage Prohibition Act 1. 1961
(a)
(b)Dowry Prohibition Act 2 2005
()Domestic Violence Act 3. 2013
d) Sexual Harassment of 4. 2006

Women at Work Place Act
(a) ) C) (d)
(A) 2 4
(B) 1
(C4
D) 2 3 4
Gsragamapop QungAgIisdr:
1. 1961
2. 2005
(6) asLsa sosLLd
3. 2013
() avdrgpamps aoLLd
(d) Gauano driuyd LABa auersdr 4. 2006
(a) (b) (d)

(A) 2
(B)
(C) 4
4
D) 2 8.
(E) l L Gshucideo
66. Assertion (A): Most of the crimes committed against the SCs/STs go unreported
Reason (R) Though the Government has set up courts for preventing
untouchability and other offences committed against them yet
these provisions lack teeth' and an efective machinery for firmly
imparting justice to SC&/STs
(A) (A) is true but (R) is false
(BBoth (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(C) (A) is false but (R) is true
D) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
2- Lá aD¢) (2); uL4wolcT

Gopusofd Gugbunomarenau Lsnt ciésiuLTD Gumis
6TIYORTID (5T): uL4ul Bnpuae/uprig4ulet

pssuu@d Sp
BOuspams JeTsstd Sudprsmer sDLBGEENrg,
fpmpsgéG CunguonT smyb, 6 aupngaspsrar

Apps Grudgpsop Gundrpeoa o
(A) () a TITÓD (5T) 5aD
(B) (). (sm)rehrud sfl, D6gI (sr) cremigi (ea)-oidr afunar alarési
(C) (2) 5 p I T T D (647) 8
D) (a). (s) rend o 6 s L (6r) rmugs()-shich efluunar sflanéab s d
(2) cfa Gsfiuelbmo

30. Who is the Chairman of the Fifteenth Finance Commission
(A) K. Santhanam
(B) P.V. Rajamannar
(C) C. Rangarajan
DN.K. Singh
unt?
unenbsnas BAAGGeidn snveut
(A) K pnb
(B) P.V. gnguoemenmt
(C) C. gnsgmge
D) N.K. Ar
(E) l L Asfueidn
80. Consider the following statement
1. Finance Commission determines the resources transer to the States

2. Article 280(3) speaks about the functions of the Finance Commission
3. The tenure of Finance Commission is six years
4. The Finance Commission is appointed by President

From the above, which are correct statement?
(A) 1 and 2
(B) 1, 2 and 33
() 3 and 4
(D1,2 and 4
E) Answer not known
dragd apanp sae:
1.
9 s 280(3) BA& Gefldr ueafilsdr ubpl npaps

3.
4. ermupud BBssU uauutsiuGfpg

GoG scrLAUDDIT GraAI silunAT ab?
(A) 1 opgid 2
(B) 1,2 Loppub 3
(C) 3 obg 4
(D) 1,2 pgub 4
(E)
34. Which of the following statements about fundamental duties is not true?
(AN Swaran Singh Committee suggested

duties in the Constitution
the ineorporation of 10 fundamental
(B) Fundamental duties in the Indian Constitution are inspired by the

Constitution of USSR
(C) Fundamental duties were inclluded by the 42nd Amendment Act
(D) They are enforceable by law
4ÚUL aLonsamü upfu byésnmiLIGId aun&utiaais cmai sauprsrcoe ?
A) 9 a u aghu snsargBa 10 14uaL siaosar sppsiu@ss aydAts
(C) S19uLà sLDnaeT 42a15 BGAsd BLLU appsuu@sSug
(D)
36. The main purpose of including the Directive Principles of State policy in the Indian
Constitution is
(A) Legal Reforms and making laws
(BPeople Welfare State
(C) Special protection of the interests of the weaker section of society
D) Enforceable by Courts
bu gdwaenn9 j a1ylsmOud Opppap Qandtossmer aiuO$$usa
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(E) oflc Gslweldn
ACGS/2021
37. Consider the following statements about Directive Principles of State Policy (DPSP)
(a)The direct source of inspiration for DPSP was the instrument of instructions
issued under the government of India Act, 1935
(b) The Irish constitution of 1937 inspired to make the directive principles as a
non-enforceable entity
Choose the correct answer from the options given below
(A) (a) is correct but (b) is wrong
(B) (a) and (b) are correct
(C (a) is wrong but (b) is correct

(D) (a) and (6) are wrong
ITeappipnpulam-Otb dsndrenss¢T udplu &pásngb audurtisaeT
(a)
1935 aupruu afapesbadr 6 .
(6) 1937 t b d utonps gfuoowuidr aupLAgd Gsndramssemer
sfurer ehaLa Gshpas@&saqb
(A) (a) s and 6) sap
CB) (a) opgud (b) efl
(C)
D) (a) opd (b) saup
(E) alm Osuweidna

36. Private Bill in Indian Parliament
R Private Bill can be presented in the House with the consent of the President
S Private Bill is passed in the same way as the Public bill
(A) Sis true R is false
(B) Ris false S is true
(C) Rand S are false
DN R and S are true

(E Answer not known
614ugss 5mwaidt ßYLAr sailáaüuLGaekrQub.

STatb JeTrs uoGensnbsdr GumaGau sefl apu9art uoGangs" BoptajppiuOD
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(E) ehl dsflueildbane

82. Who told, "Constitution made India a quassi federal union invested
with several
important features of Unitary Government"
(A K.M. Munshi
(B) K.C. Wheare
C) Norman D. Palmer
D) G.N. Joshi
6Terpi aplwaut wrt?
(A) KM. qpTa
B) K.C. ofu
BTTLOeT D. umouot
(C)
D) G.N. Ggra
(E)
83. Who is / are elected in India by single transferable vote system?
(A) Lok Sabha in two Anglo-Indian numbers
(BPresident, Vice-President and Rajya Sabha members
(C) Only Vice President
(D) Prime Minister
Answer not known
bSu Gstgo apanpsfd gpcmp ombp aun&g0pmud Gshp@s@%siu@Apautsdr

(A) &h smuuio ror sl-butscidr Gste panp
(B)
(C)
(D) Snsoiar Cstpas@&gd gpanp
(E)
84. The quorum to convene
meeting of a House of the State Legislature shall be
a
(A) Thirty members or one tenth of Local

membership
(BTen members or one-tenth of total membership whichever is more
(C 1/3 of the totalmembership of the House
(D) 50% of the total membership of the House
onple sLLOcMptd aGaspsrer GapbsuLs 2pulatesefidr

Grebr aflscnsuTn
(A) 30.2pudentsdr Idog 10-6 gG utiG
2pulertsdr
(B) 10
agIentscr wgI Gonss 2p9at srekreoil&msuid ugßa gG uiG
(C)
(D) Qonss apuAentsafido unßagGud a-guientsr
(E)
85. Match List I (subject) with List II (case) and choose the correct option:
List I (Subject) List II (Cas)
1. Ashwinder Kaur Vs. Punjab
(a) Sexual Harassment against women
University
(b) Right to equality 2. Minerva Mills Ltd Va. Union of India
3. Visaka Vs. State of Rajasthan

(c)Doublejeopardy
Basic features of the constitution 4. Makbool Vs. State of Bombay
(d)
(b) (c)
A3 4 2
(B) 1
(C) 3 2
(D)
89 is not involved in the preparation of Budget.
(A) Finance Ministry

(B) NITI Aayog
(C) Comptroller and Auditor-General
DFinance Commission
u@gu sunMiuAeb urt Qupnp

(A)
(B)
(C)
D) B n0TuJ LD
(E) ah GsMuchcbn
33. Following are the list of few duty's collected by the Union and State Governments in
India
. Customs duty
2. Duties in respects of succession to Agricultural Land
. Excise duty
4. Estate duty in respect of Agricultural land
Select the duty collected by the Union Government by using the codes
(A) 1 only (B) 4 only
(C1 and 3 (D) 2 and 4
ssu onßl i1ssam) aiGbsuuGd auflseido lagsGs QsngásiuLQrra
2. elaemu lapßen oßiuy auf
8.
4.
(A) 1 uoLQb (B) 4 100td
(C) 1 oppub 3 (D) 2 ppud 4
(E)
14. How many persons were registered their names in electoral roll in the 17h lokshaba
election in 2019?
(A) 80 crores
(B) 84 crores
(C) 89 crores
90 crores
2019, 17-ag Lo660TmA Gsisclo aumssneTTEeTT% uBa Gsug Gsnemasefle

eTfl&cDs srÁJAISTa?
(A) 80 Gama
(B) 84 Gsm
(C) 89 Gama
D) 90 Gama
(E) slL Gshueino

15.
Which of the following article of Indian Constitution deals with election commission?
Article 324
(B) Article 325
(C) Article 323
D) Article 326
(A) f l 324
(B) chl325
(C) efl 323
(D) 326
(E) eflAsuehlbene
24. Which year was introduced proxy voting system for on their behalf of those who
seryes in Military?
2003
(B) 2004
(C) 2010
(D) 2018
sg ngagsó uh yfuatsat 5rschn snmus uBl anag sfisgn yop

Gsmi augiuiL?
(A) 2003
(B) 2004
(C) 2010
(D) 2018
(E) eflen Gsflueflében

59. In yhich year were Electronic Voting Machines used first time in India?
1998
(B) 1997
(C) 1996
(D) 1999
(A) 1998
(B) 1997
(C) 1996
(D) 1999
(E)
25. the
Who among following elected as
the Indian Constitution Assembly?
a Temporary Chairman of the fîrst meetingof
(A) J.B. Kiripalani

Dr. Sachchidananda Sinha
(C) Dr. Rajendra Prasad

(D) Dr. B.R. Ambedkar
GlsuuUuLLad un?
(A) Gg.guarnet
(B) n&Lh. s*fgramps Aaaor
(C) TLi.gmGbSy 1Myens

(D)TLi. . .bCugsnir
(E) aflL asuoflóian
26. Which articleprovides the Constitutional Remedies to the citizens at Supreme Court
of India?
(A) Article 21 (B) Article 226
Article 32 (D) Article 18
LLutTgid QupaspG a ansdoiudinpgi?

(A) u d SmuÚY ELLÚIAa 21 (B) I$lud smuÚysLLÚIfia 226
(C) Agfud auiY#iLiAha 32 (D) uud sanúyaiLúiia 18
(E)
27. Match the List I with List II
List I List II
(a) Article 14 1. Abolition of titles
(b) Article 15 2. Equality of opportunity in public employment
() Article 16 3. Equality before law
(d) Article 18 4. The Prohibition of Discrimination
Codes
(a) b) C) (d)
(A)
B) 2
3
4 2 1
E) Answer not known
uLw I 8uigwo I 2L GuGSGis.

ULIGuII
(a) s s 14 1.
(b) 5 15 2. 1 Gamoaumuúysaió saaagigd soaumÚY
(c)#vp5 16
(d) 18 4. umSumO snciTLas 5adsips
(a) (b) (d)

(A) 3 4 2
(B) 3 2
(C)4 3
D) 3 2 1
(E) chla Asueloena

75. When was the Article No. 370 removed from the Indian Constitution?
(A) 5th January 2019
(B) 5th March 2019

5th August 2019
(D) 5th December 2019
@su guamoúleoss 370-augi svg riQumgs Básiuig?

(A) 5 garau 2019
(B) 5 Lone 2019
(C) 5scvL 2019

(D) 5 4,5dut 2019
(E)
28. Which one of the following statements about a money bill is not correct?
A money bill can be tabled in either House of Parliament
(B) The speaker of lok sabha is the final authority to decide whether a bill is
money bill or not
(C) The Rajasabha must return a money bill passed by the lok sabha and send it
to consideration within 14 days
(D) The President cannot return a money bill to the lok sabha for reconsideration
(A)
(B)
(C) uG0T LDGngTma dupgs aumy Lomßloriise 14 BmiLagaGT LD`sT SIasG
D) uGRT LDGEmBrenau dumpsgaay G4ugs s a a npugaenansG LD`sST SIAsG
(E) olcn Asflwoildvmw

29. Which year, the Indian Parliament had passed the "Protection of women from
Domestic Violence" Act, to provide justice and protection from violence within their
homes.
(A) 2003
(B) 2004
2005
D) 2006
6Tpbs Tngmioempid (bBu) G0hu apanp Quctsc wingsmUy¢ sLLEaps
(A) 2003
(B) 2004
(C) 2005
(D) 2006
(E) oln Gshluuelébme

73. The National Commission for Women was setup in
(A) 1989 (B) 1990
1992 D) 1994
GueT (T6sTT Gs8u ne0T ULI LD SDDÉSLLULL T

(A) 1989 (B) 1990
(C) 1992 (D) 1994
(E) oflm asfuoilom

60. How many BRICS summit were conducted till the year 2020?
(A) 10 (B) 11
12 D) 13
2020-b aung aggaoan BRICS wnpm@«h penLGunprang?

(A) 10 (B) 11
(C) 12 (D) 13
(E) olcn Gshluaiben

61. Who give permission to produce State Budget?
(A) Prime Minister
(B) Minister
(C) Chairman
Governor
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(E) ofe shueibmo

76. Under the Constitution of India which one of the following is not related to
fundamental duties?
(A) To develop the scientific temper
To vote in public elections
(C) To safeguard public property

D) To abide by the constitution and respect its ideals
(A)
u n p auenigso
(B) QLum Cissschdo aumsafigsa
(C) ampapmu msslii0 Qung Qsnggásoer ungisnsgo
(D)
(E)
77. Who among the following control the entire financial system of the country at both
the level central and state is?
(A) Reserve Bank Governor
(B) Finance Secretary

Comptroller and Auditor General of India
(D) Niti Aayog Secretary
wmfd rang?
(A)
(B) BB p Qsuat
(C)
D)
(E) ahc Gsuoiéoen
78. None of the following is a Lok Sabha Session?
(A) The Monsoon Session
The Summer Session
(C) The Winter Session

(D) The budget Session
(A)
B) GsmsT aLL`dsmt
(C) afhsro aaiLsasmL

(D)
(E)
79. Which one of the following language was not added in the 8th schedule of the
constitution by the 71st Amendment act 1992?
Dongri
(B) Konkani
(C) Manipuri
(D) Nepali
igásei Qomlsger ang 71-g Aohs* aiLb 1992- apaus apAuwauiien 8-ag
LLa@eRTuIG) Gsis6ÚLLalávmw?
(A) GLITru
(B) GsTrsa
(C) Loafiyf
(D) GpoLuma
(E) afl Gsfluoilbenw
80. Central information commission comes under which ministry?
(A) Ministry of Home affairs
Ministry of Personal
(C) Ministry of social and empowerment
(D) Ministry of Broadcasting
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D) gofiuuy smiss
(E)
13. When was the National Early Childhood Care and Education (NECCE) Policy
launched?
2013 B) 2017
(C) 2018 D) 2019
(A) 2013 (B) 2017
(C) 2018 (D) 2019

(E) slmu Gsfuoflana
15. The correct statements about citizenship are
1. The constitution deals citizenship from articles 5 to 11 under Part IVv
2. In India both a citizen by birth as well as a naturalised citizen are eligible for
the Office of President
3. Renunciation, Termination and Deprivation are the three ways of loosing8

citizenship
4. Citizens and aliens enjoy all civil and political rights
(A) 1,2, 3 and4 2 and 3
(C)1,2 and 3 (D) 1,3 and 4
G4tmio ubplu efluro Gurásugng ngs
1. Ddu aéluvnuoiy G IV asTeT 5Ly 5 1 1 aumy G4ufmonus
plsalps
2.
3.
G14 lnunemupssomb
4.
2flmwamoT GugIlepeni.
(A) 1, 2,3 uopd4 (B) 2 bpd 3
(C) 1,2 opgub 3 (D) 1,3 Lobb 4

(E) ol Ashluaflenav
16. The word "Secular" added to the Preamble of Indian Constitution, is according to
which of the following Amendments?
(A) 40th Amendment

42nd Amendment
(C) 44th Amendment
(D) 43rd Amendment
b u iálusaauoúit (psayengus9sb "togsnnlenenus' QsneDs inagamaupflár rbs

i L BOSDßanug, aiLiuiL5?
(A) 4005 DGSBD

(B) 42ag ai JG$SD
(C) 44a5 LLPOAED
D) 43agi sLL PGBD
(E) l Qsflueiláeo
17. "The PM shall be appointed by the President and other Ministers shall be appointed
by the President on the advice of the PM is according to which of the following
Articles
(A) Article 74 (1) Article 75 (1)
(C) Article 75 (2) (D) Article 74 (2)
(A) n74(1) (B) 7 5 (1)

(C) chs 75 (2) (D) 7 4 (2)
(E) olcn asflwoildbne
33. The Government is preparing devolution index which will measure social
empowerment of people at the
Panchayat level
(B) Block level
(C) District level
D) State level
(A) uGTGI Bevevuio/sIeTaA

(B) agsnG enavuG/sarai
(C) LDIrAILL Bvui/sref
(D) omflo anaustáo/ srareild
(E) ehlc uelábene
38 Expansion of NIC is
(A) National Institute of Computation
(B) National Institute of Crime

(C) National Information Centre
National Informatics Centre
NIC aflMaurss
(A) Gpblu samákLO Bpaand

(B) Gplu GhD Bpamo
(C)
(D) Gp6lu ssadlus muwd
(E) olcn Gsfluolomw

66. Which committeerecommended the establishmentof Central Vigilance Commission?
(A) Sri Krishna Committee (B) Swaran Singh Committee
(C) Kelkar Committee Santhanam Committee
(E) Answer not lknown
(A) GT G
(C) (D) shsnd GY
(E) ahlc asfuwaioaw
67. According to Right to Education Act, children of which age group will be provided
free and compulsory education?
(A) 7-14 years 6-14years
(C) upto 14 years .
D) upto 10 years
(A) 7 Ppo 14 augi aun (B) 6 p o 14 anugi awy

C) 14 augi amg D) 10 augi auny
(E) chlen asiucfléeno

70. National Emergency is declared under Article
Art. 352
(B) Art. 366
(C) Art. 360
(D) None of the above
Gpu poåsi4 fevwcmw 19sLemiu®bgb e s

(A) a7$5I 352
(B) 90$ 366
(C) s 360
(D) Guopaw o5ja|dbaD

(E) olasuuchláne
69. Which Article of Indian Constitution, speaks about 'Abolition of Titles'?
Art.18
(B) Art.19
(C) Art.20
(D) Art.21
(A) 18
(B) 19
(C) a f 20
(D) afl 21
(E oflmAshlusilben
68. The President administers the Union Territories and he / she exercises their powers
through which of the following Ministry?
The Home Ministry
B) The Ministry and External Affairs
(C) The Defence Ministry
D) The Finance Ministry
oiucr yGgsrisnar g4ua ganwaut &peugid ajps sDboajf po StaS&lpmi?

(A)
(B) Gaafleflasng SD s8id
(C) ingismUy ID`GKU
(D) B ImuD`GsD
(E) oflm Asfhwaiome

72. Match the List I with List II and select the correct answer using the codes given
below
List I List II
(a) Second Finance Commission 1. C. Rangarajan
(b) Seventh Finance Commission 2. K. Santhanam
(c)Twelfth Finance Commission 3. J.M. Shelat
(a) (b)
2 3 1
(B) 1 3
(C) 3 1
(D) 2
uL4u I bguo II Qungss EGpå GsnGssiui@rTefumm cfeLCDu Gsra Qsis
(a) pimL_MAIZI BBëGy 1. a. yrssmg
(b) qpmeagi BBög 2. Gs. apsnd
3. Gg.GTÒ. Gsdoi
(a) b) (c)
(A) 2
(B) 1 3 2
(C) 3 1
(D) 2 3
(E)
9. Match List I (Article) with List II (Powers of President of India) and cho0se the
correct answer using the options given below:
List I List II
(a) Art. 53 1. National emergency

(b) Art. 352 2. Appointment of Prime Minister
(c) Art.76 3. Executive power of the Union vested with the
President
d) Art. 75 4. Appointment of Attorney General of India
(a) b) () (d)
(A)
(BN8
(C) 3 4 2
(D) 4 3
gRIm@ bu) uiiu Iguiu II aLn gpúdGs:

uLi I ULl4u II
(a) chy 53 1. Gpu A151 fea

b) o 352 2. 95uit Blwun
(c) 76 3. Luu siyicn bpuunehein Aitauns -any
(d) 75 bpu senamu aipáGaIET fluoemb
(a) (b) (c) d)

(A) 1 3 2
(B) 3 2
3 4 2 1
(C)
(D) 4 2 1
(E) oilm Asfluoláben

11. Consider the following statements relating to the Union Council of Ministers:
Article 74 of the Indian Constitution deals with the Council of Ministers
II. It does not have the collective Responsibility.

Of these
(A I is true
(B) II is true
(C) I and II are true
(D) I and II are false
u Dobayenau GgmLums SenaugÒ mbgásoer m i :

bSu syuwnoiy s4 74eugi DLDàgenaLeou cilarágApg
II.
(A) I wLQb 8flumng
(B) II oibflurng
(C) I Loppud II afiuunengi
D) I wpgb II gaprag
(E) oeGsuedm
62. The first Article of the Constitution declares that India is
(A) United States

(BUnion of States
C) Federal states
D) All are correct
(A) l u uomflovrasdr Grppsapg

B) penglu omfleoràussr Grenpnpèslcmpg
(C) 5aLLILA omfloraser
(E)
10. Which part of the Indian Constitution envisages a three-tier system of Panchayats?
(A Part IX B) Part XX
C) Part XI D) Part XII
agsapgI?
(A) u-IX (B) uGS- X
(C) uGS-XI (D) uGS- XII
(E) ehl Gsflweilbene
12. Among of the following statements identify which is not related with the 42nd
Amendment of the Indian Constitution?
(A) The word 'Secular added to the Preamble
(B) The state protects all religions equaly

It lays emphasis on secular and socialist aspects
(C)
DIt made changes in the last paragraph of the Preamble
9cnacis aunáSurscis 42a15i @bDu sipâuomuoiy BoissgL durobng amjo

6T51?
(A) FLDL ETTUDD GT6Tp aunihn5 JduaMLDUY LPpaúLymquiá GarsaÜULLSI
(B)
(C) GLD gnupp Lobò Garasueils GTOp umtgengsáG pásubgaud
asmgsaILILLG
(E) alGgfluoiábne
56. To Reform Centre-State relations, major recommendations are made by
Sarkaria commission
(i) Punchhi commission

(ii) Rajamannar committee
(iv) Royal commission
Select the correct answers by using the code
(A) ) and (i)
(B) ) , i ) and (iv)
(C) ). (i) and (iv)
(D i) and (i)
osBu uoppu Lona a paysaoem fibsAB. PåduwneT uflbgmpacoer auprGuma

)
ii)
ii)
(iv)
GolusnT aLIGuTdsgI sfunai sleLu GsipasGss
(A) ) oppo (ii)
(B) i), (Gii) uojgò (iv)
(C).Gii) wobpub iv)

(D) ). i) ooguò (ii)
(E)
58. Which of the following recommended the establishment of Lokpal?
(AN First Administrative Reform Commission
(B) Second Administrative Reform Commission
(C) Veerappa Moily Committee
(D) Singhvi Committee
ipscr_aupgsr agi GaTáur) SIenuDLIML LÍlpgingsssi?

(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
() ola asfuchlom
59. Thefirst District which established Panchayat Rajin Rajasthan was
(A) Kota (B) Jhalawar
(C)Madhopur D Nagaur
(E) Answernot known
(A) GsTLT (B) garauT

(C) (D) prsur
(E) chm asfuailvma
60. For getting recognition as 'National Party' a party has to fulfill which of the following
criteria?
(i) Atleast 6% of votes in atleast 4 states

(ii) In the loksabha elections, atleast 2% members from atleast three states
elected to Loksabha
(ii) Recognition as a state party in atleast four states
(iv) Atleast 8% votes in atleast three states
(AN Any one of the (i), (i) and (i) criteria is required
(B) Any one of the (iii) and (iv) criteria is required
(C) Any one of the (ii), (i) and (iv) criteria is required
(D) Any one of the (i), (ii) and (iv) criteria is required
GaairGub
gGzgo 4 omlorsscniáo 6% auné-gscner Aubdoiga
(ii) w6sTDAI6sn Gsirsal 2% 2-gúlasmaT Esg 3 LomlariseiaiGib5
GpipasGssúui4gss GaiciGu
(ii) TEgo 4 omflorsai Lomgw sLA Gremp dngens AupoBABo
(iv) s g u apangi Lomlorásciáb, 8% aunégsaer AupDGLsA
(A) i), (Gi) uoppuo (iii) aipflo qtsg gag Iauflud

(B) (i) oppuò (iv) @apfli gtpa pap sa6uo
C) i), (ii) unpgs (iv) @aupló gCpgh gagI SaLAuw
(D) ), (Gi) opgpus (iv) apflá gtpg gngi aAu
(E) al sfueflavenav
61. The Supreme
Court has stated that the basic features of the Constitution cannot be
amended in which of the following cases?
(A) Shankari Prasad Deo Vs) Union of India

(B) Saijan Singh (Vs) State of Rajasthan
(C) Raghuvir Singh (Vs) Union of India
(DMinerva Mills (Vs) Union of India
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D) TToIT 1áa (Vs) Auor
91: Who was the first women M.L.A. in Madras Presidency (1926)?
(A Dr. Muthulaxmi
(B) Ramamirtham Ammaiyar
(C) Dr. Subbulaxmi
(D) Dr. Annie Besant Ammaiyar

1926, GlscAME 601 LDITSTm B B 601 (PBÓ AucT &LL&uapúdarT Lum?
(A) LITLi. PåzILsÍ

(B) omuomltgid bLDUm
(C) LITSLT. 8ÚLyDLGIS
(D) LTELT. S6016 GlLI8ML LbD LDLITT
(E) almAsfMuoilame
94. Name the Chief Minister of Madras Presidency (Tamil Nadu) when India got
independence in 1947.
(AN Tanguturi Prakasam

(B) O.P. Ramasami
(C) C. Rajagopalachari
D) P.S. Kumaraswamy Raja
1947, bSur s5bATd SGungi Arnene osrehéo (spm@) wsaaDsyns
(A)
(B) O.P. pmoeT
C. gmgGaTLITADTÈT
D) P.S. Giomøms gmgr
(E)
31. The Indian Parliament adopted the Scientific policy resolution in the year
CA) 1960 (B) 1959

(C1968 (D) 1957
(E) Answer not knowm
b uTgrgioipsS plasud)
GsrdeTULuLL?
(A) 1960 B) 1959
(C) 1958 (D) 1957
(E) al Asfuoildbon
43. The institution of ombudsman was first created in
(B) Sweden
CAN Norway
Denmark (D) U.S.A.
(C)
(B) saiLd
(A) pGa
(C) QLsarLonts (D) Gofil&s

(E) ahln Gsfluafdbona
14. Article 326 of the Indian constitution is related to which of the following?
Election to the lower house to be based on universal adult suffirage
(A
(B) President
C) Parliament
D) Supreme Court
CE) Answer not known
aJÅuoaDuLIT 326-6 a snaTÚILIQLD rna/Tens GDl&áilenpgi

bB
(upplug) ?
LDseTma&ara Gstrs aug absGsTt aumdigitlenuo-dT 14.ILIDLU pLÈIa

(A)
(B) 14ugasEDaat
(C) umIgregoTDLb
(D)
(E)
45. Under Art 78 of the Indian constitution it is the
duty of the Prime Minister to
(A)Communicate to the President all decisions of the council of Ministers
(B) Communicate to the parliament all decisions of the council of Ministers
(C) Communicate to the Supreme Court all decisions of the council of Ministers
(D) Communicate to the comptroller and Auditor general of India all decisionsof
the council of Ministers
AsrdbwiuGag
(A)
(B) LDamauidt SaDsi pi,aEoTujd
ugmegioem pssDES Ostlapsd)
(C)
ga&msufiLtd slaips
(E) aflen asfluwei dno
93. Under which Article, the parliament has power to give financial assistance to the
states?
(A) Article 285 (B) Article 245
(CArticle 275 (D) Article 265
(E Answer not known
Qupgdrang?
cfl 235 (B) a f 245
(A)
(C) e f 275 (D) ch 265
(E) chla astuehcbene

46. Fundamental duties were added to the Indian constitution by which amendment?
(A) 12th (B) 22nd

(C) 32nd (D42nd
Get&siu4Gdlps ?
(A) 12 u (B) 22 b
(C) 32 u (D) 42 b
(E)
94. Who among the following is the first citizen of a city in India?
(A Mayor
(B) Chairman
(C) Sheriff
(D) MLA
u sIereio &ipscmautsafid onpaymiAicT (pssd G9066 euaut unt?

(A) LompsgniA oenp gmwat
B)
(C) trsgmwa
(D) sLosrD 2pudart
(E) L Asfusidbma
95. Under the Indian Citizenship Act 1955, one can acquire Citizenship by
Birth
Descent
ii) Marriage
iv) Registration
(A) ) only B) () only
(C) .Gi) and (ii) D , (i) and (iv)
E) Answer not known
96. In which year the preamble of the Indian constitution was amended?
(A) 1956 (B) 1966

(D) 1980
(C1976
Answer not known
CA) 1956 (B) 1966
(C) 1976 (D) 1980
E) lmL Qsflueiloama
6. Who designed The National Flag of India?
(A) Udaya Kumar Dharmalingam
(B) Venkata Subba Rao
Pingali Venkayya
(D) Rabindranath Tagore
(A) 5GDnn stLOeDriJ&LD
(B) CaraL 6ÚuTgnsu
(C) grsrel a sun
(D) pBopns sna
(E) elen dsflussloma

14. Which constitutional Amendment reduced the age of right to vote from 21 years to
18 years?
(A) 52nd Constitutional Amendment

61 Constitutional Amendment
(C) 75th Constitutional Amendment
(D) 86h Constitutional Amendment

m puuwDunÚL* EiLLsBa uy aun&gfleno euas 21 eops 18 ausns GaDisS?
(A) 52 au5 siyâuwauúé eLLd
(B) 61 a i ITlLanÚLË siLLH
(C) 75 ag iyueauiys sLLD

(D) 86 aug fuavanDinj oiLd
(E)
15. Article 200 explains about
(A) Parliament entitled to legislate laws in State List
Governor reserves a Bill for the assent

ofthe President
(C) Power of the High Court Chief Judge
(D) Power of the Speaker of Lok Sabha
cal 200 ienágagi
(A)
(B)
(D)
(E) elco agiluuelévena)
6. Which of the following is/are true regarding Directive principles of State Policy?
) Directive principles of state policy are enumerated in Part IV of the Indian

Constitution
(i) Court can uphold the validity of a law on the ground that it was enacted to
give effect to a Directive principle of state policy
(A) only (B) (i) only

Both i) and (ii) (D) All the above
&ihsconaogir auylsm Apolpanps GsmiLLunGs uo QsndoiuLLoasgT suTaT

aD Ti/STDau?
uGSi (Part 1V) 6ULÜuL@orng

(ti) aulsi popapá Csmumgsofir Bgi udpüL@id aLLsner $uoempid
(A)
(B) (i) oOu
(C)
D) Guopaplu smaijú
(E) oflen fuwesidenu
17. According to Article 359
President has the power to suspend Fundamental Rights
(B) Governor has the power to remove Chief Minister
(C) Speaker of Lok Sabha has the power to dissolve Lok Sabha
(D) Prime Minister has the power to remove Vice-President
c 359-T L
(A) G4u snavauit 4iuL aflanusama vig Gsiuh spsnyb Quppaut
(C)Lo66arara Funpmust wásaraiamu smwágò sIsngh Quppau
(E) ehlea Gsfuaio

11 CSGS/2022
56. Which of the following anti-corruption bodies were established by Santhanam
Committee recommendation?
Central Vigilance Commission
2. Central Bureau of Investigation
8. Lokpal and Lokayuktha
State Information Commission
(A) 1 and 3
(B 2 and 4
1and 2
(D) 3 and 4
opBu elanyene neTLID

3. Ceonsuno uobgud Gamsruåpm
. Lomsl gsad gaaru
(A) 1 oppb 3
(B) 2 bgud 4
(C) 1 obg 2
D) 3 opguò 4
(E)
67. The Central Bureau of Investigation (CBI) was created in
(A) April 1953
April 1963
(C) April 1973
(D) April 1969
LoBu yemia GsuuDsH aÜdunnpg qiu@ssiuLLg?

(A) Jugd 1953
(B) quJó 1963
(C) qu 1973
(D) qugo 1969
(E)
68. The Council of states is considered
Assertion (A): as a permanent House of the
Parliament
Reason (R): The Members of the Council of states are representative of the
states; not the people.
(A) (A) is false but (R) is true
(B) (A) is true but (R) is false
(C) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
B o t h (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
abp (A): urgruneDST 66DLIITS

LoTblaraia6TMA
sryeTD (R): LomflonivsarwAI 2gusantscr Lomperissaficn 9nbDsarns áApniacn
(A) (A) sag cmad (R) a.circLD

(B) (A) .cimanuo LGImD (R) paup
(C) (A) opgo (R) Qyeú amnus, obgo (R) aénugi (A)-ehpsnen asfunan lonásd
D) (A) bgo (R) Sren©o asno, n ) (R) aaug (A}-8ipsna eflura
(E) oflm Gsfluehloma

59 The Jammu and Kashmir reorganization Act, 2019 is enacted for the purpose of
(i) Creation of Union Territory of Ladakh;
(i) Creation of Union Territory of Jammu and Kashmir;
ii) Bifurcation of the State of Jammu and Kashmir;
iv) Delimitation of Parliamentary Constituencies in Jammu and Kashmir;
(A) only
(B) (i) only
)and only
(D) (iv) only
ghp-siaußn uogaoguwapå si 2019 ss Gprsspbisns BopGappüuLLG
(4
(11) 881D-5Tbng yaiu SGgsiomás
iv) 8bp-any1ahlgreT uTJmgioeaps @snGjsoan LoD éyeDuoLUys dsiu
(A)
(B) (ii) o O
(D) (iv) ui@

(E) ohl Gpluildn
8. Name of 23rd Indian chief Election Commissoner
(A) Sunil Varma

(B) Sunil Singh
() Sunil Dhatta
DSunil Aroro
bsureicr 23 smou Gstg gomut Guut
(A) sflo auLo
(B)
(C)
(D)
(E) chl asfluaidbmo
15. Theconcept of equality before law is an element of theconcept of
(A) Administrative law (B) International law
(C Ruleof law (D) Constitutional law
() Answernot known
2-pUuMGd.
(A) (B) uIATTE sLLD
(C) D) AJAuwauùyë sLLD
(E) ahlasluaildn
16. Which of the following are the limitations on the sovereignty of Indian Parliament?
. Fundamental Rights
2. Judicial Review
3. Federalism
4. Written Constitution
(A) 1,3 and 4
(B) 1,2 and 3
(C) 1 and 2
(D1,2, 3 and 4
() Answer not known
GerdaiuLQcrarappsr bdu umgrgiodpgßr pureduoáG 2¢T

ugbLysdT
1.
2. BBUymgmisa
4.
(A) 1, 3 Lopitd 4
B) 1,2oppub 8
(C) 1 Logb 2
(D) 1, 2,3uoppub 4
(E) a asluwahldoma
17. The duties of the state have been listed in which part of the Indian Constitution?
(A) Preamble
(B) Fundamental Rights

(C Directive principles of State Policy
(D) Fundamental Duties
ULOumassT uL LÚuLgeraeT?
(A)
(B)
(C) lpsneT aufsm apMapopadr
D) Il4ÜuL` 6LMDs4r
()
18. Articles 14 to 18 of the Indian Constitution explain
(A) Fundamental Duties

B) Election
(CN Right to Equality
(D) Judiciary
CE) Answer not known
AuouDÚy ellsdr 14 P d 18 aa cieardk5agI
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D) 6As5j@p
(E) oflan Gsuaisbm
65. The First Al India conference of Lokayuktas and Upa-Lokayuktas was held in
(A Shimla
(B) Calcutta
(C) Goa
(D) Banglore
(A) Ab
(B)
(C) Gasra
D)
(B) afl Gshlwehon
66. Who will act as President of India when the office of the President
the and the Vice
President are vacant?
(A) The Chief Election Commission
(B) The Prime Minister
(CThe Chief Justice of India

(D) The Speaker of Lok Sabha
Gung g4.UT$ Baauyns aaudu@uat unt?

(A)
(B)
C)
(D) Gonssun 8LmBTLJsir
(E) olm Gsfluwaildbenw

67. When was the first Lok Sabha dissolved?
(A) 26 January, 1957

(B04 April, 1957
(C) 15 August, 1957
D) 02 October, 1957
PETE Lo&asreneu 6TÚGunGI swwisüutL?

(A) 26 garau, 1957
(B) 04 ugo. 1967
(C) 15 s a v , 1957
D) 02 s%GLTur, 1957
(E)
68. In the Kesavananda Bharati Case, the Supreme Court declared that
the preamble to the constitution of India is not a part of the constitution;

)
the constitution of India is a source of power and a source of
i) the preamble to
limitation and prohibition;
the preamble is integral part of the Indian constitution

ii) an
(A) i) only
(B Gi) only
C) ) and (i)
(D) i ) and (ii)
Gasanabs uTJS aupsld akatBLoerpd auprilu ShùA sTgmbeors4 &ipsscTL

abgiseidd 6T5i/ 618a sflunaICDU ?
6)
(ii) u Auaaniyë 6iLssér psamy. sysBsnsDar Gsnbparunsad

Isessmgá sL0uu@bgd augbIpG 2LuLLSNsajd a_arésÚuLLI
i) gpaaoy adug Abßu syAuaauDiy eiL4B 9G@omps ugsungh.
(A)
(B) ii) oQh
(C) () Lopgud (i)
(D) i) Lopgd (ii)
(E) oflm asfuoidena

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31.

As the Act of Anti-Defection law

their eligibility against the order of the political party.

(R) and (S) are True

(B) (R) is True and (S) is False

(C) (R) is False

(E) Answer not known

:5GuLOEuTES Gsh$@s0&siuLL ungmggiocmp GstsgsGi Inenit gEsgd

(B) ( ) 2r LD (6Tab) sap

(D) (6T6b) a_dT DLD

(E) oflcn Asuchlomo

(a) (b) (d)

(A)He should be a citizen of India

(C) Should not hold any office of proñt

D) He is elected by the members of the electoral college

(E) Answer not known

auráud Grmi sshGiq&6aqt).|

(E) Answer not known

GTiGurs BippmL4o sLL Guewma somisiuLLgI?

it because it is in consistent with the constitution.

Wh of the above mentioned are correct?

GoGo sr8TLIUmauldd srma gtlurerena?

burel unguosmp Gsrsros Gu@a

Reason (R) It was the bulkiest and most comprehensive amendment.

(E) Answer not known

aDD (A) 42 ug iyAuwmuiy DobsisLLi 9O GD gfuaauniy areng

(C) (A) abg asf e T ) 8Tymo (R) sap

D) (A) pg sap a m sngemd (R) s

4 Guomylsnanenamsi. g a n s aomssi 22 s 2ug auf auGABS?

D) (A) is false but (R) is true

(E) Answer not known

6ap () 73-a 2_GTOT TL

S16MLDUY4 ( 6TETpyLd 5T0TLD () 6T6016LD

(A) ( ) Lobpo ( ) rn sflunagi, a.ngeTid ( ) abg ()sflurai oflaTssLom(gLh

(C) a b ( ) sfl jaTá) BNYERTLÒ ()5aug

(D) iaDD ( ) $an TTE) EITI O0TLÒ ( ) sfl

II. War emergency Article 343

III. State emergency Article 356

IV. Financial emergency Article 360

(B) II, II and IV

CI, II and III

(E) Answer not known

II. Guni Gpg&si4, Pena aguy, 343

IV. BA@pGis4, fo 2pUy, 360

(D) 1, Ill opgo IV

(C)The legislative council of the concerned state

9mgasamaupplo GG LomlajBa sLLocnp Guoauau 9lss ungmosnpsAbG

(E) afle asuofláen

aiesfuosnp usoneT G14ns smwai wurGaLu gGonemamuilcm Gul

(D) 63rd Amendment

Qurgis Gshsolo ausscfisgd augi 21 gciTGseil QGtSI 18 6 GapåasúuLLgI?

(C) 2006 Lok Sabha election

(D) 2000 Lok Sabha election

(A) 2014 os6Tenau G$ig

(B) 2015 o&sarcnau Gstg

(C) 2006 wásana Gsirg

(D) 2000 Lossmanau Gsngo

highest margin of votes in

(A) Bhagalpur (B) Buxar

gmbeiereb urevaunen Ananciu Grásni@ Grigi Geubuwps GsnGAul Quui

(A) (B) ussmm

(C) (D) apruy

(B) National Women's Commission

(E) Answer not knowvn