Class X Social Science Notes English 1

ानं ल वा परां शाि तमिचरे णािधग छित॥
Prepared By:- Mr. Tarun Sharma

TGT (Social Science)
Sarvodaya Co-Ed. Senior Secondary School
Directorate of Education, New Delhi
Class-X Social Science notes by Tarun Sharma
The Rise of Nationalism in Europe

Lesson-1 (History)
Very Short Answer Type Questions: -
Q.1:- Who was Frederic Sorrieu?
Ans:- Frederic Sorrieu was a French artist who visualised a world, made up of democratic and social
republics, and put his dream down in series of four prints.
Q.2:- What is referred to as Absolutism?
Ans:- Unrestricted, despotic and authoritarian monarchical system of rule or government is referred to as
absolutism.
Q.3:- Define Nation.
Ans:- A body of people who are united by same past, culture, political system and common interests can
be defined as a nation.
Q.4:- What was the concept of a nation state ?
Ans:- The concept of a nation-state was one in which people and rulers of land came together to develop a
sense of common identity and shared history.
Q.5:- Define Plebiscite.
Ans:- Plebiscite is a system of direct vote by which the people of a region, themselves decide to accept or
reject a proposal.
Q.6:- What was the major change that occurred in the political and constitutional scenario due to French
Revolution in Europe ?
Ans:- The French Revolution led to the transfer of sovereignty from the monarchy to a body of French
citizens. It proclaimed that it was the people who would henceforth constitute the nation and shape
its destiny.
Q.7:- Name the provinces under the Habsburg Empire.
Ans:- The Habsburg Empire ruled over Austria-Hungary. It included the Alpine region of Tyrol, Austria,
Sudetenland as well as Bohemia along with Italian speaking provinces of Lombardy and Venetia.
Q.8:- Name the countries which met in Vienna in 1815 for the Vienna Congress.
Ans:- (1) Britain (2) Russia (3) Prussia (4) Austria
Q.9:- What was Treaty of Vienna?
Ans:- In 1815, representative of European powers Britain, Russia, Prussia, and Austria-who had
collectively defeated Napoleon, met at Vienna to draw up a settlement for Europe. The Congress
was hosted by the Austrian Chancellor Duke Metternich. The delegates drew up the Treaty of
Vienna of 1815 with the object of undoing most of the changes that had come about in Europe
during the Napoleon wars.
Q.10:- What was Treaty of Constantinople of 1832?
Ans:- Under this Treaty Greece which was part of Ottoman Empire was recongnised as an independent
nation.
Q.11:- Why was Frankfurt Parliament rejected by the Wilhelm IV, king of Prussia?
Ans:- Because the members had drafted a constitution for a German nation to be headed by a monarchy
subject to parliament.
Q.12:- Who was proclaimed the German Emperor in 1871?
Ans:- the Prussia king William I
Q.13:- What was the Act of Union?
Ans:- The Act of Union (1707) was an act between England and Scotland that resulted in the formation of
the “United Kingdom of Great Britain” meant, in effect, that England was able to impose its
influence on Scotland.
Q.14:- Who was proclaimed the king united Italy in 1861?

Ans:- Victor Emmanuel II
Q.15:- What do you mean by Germania?
Ans:- In Germany, Germania became the allegory in the German nation. She is represented as wearing a
crown of oak leaves because in Germany the oak stands for heroism.
Q.16:- Who remarked “When France Sneezes the Rest of Europe Catches Cold”?
Ans:- Austrian Chancellor Duke Metternich
Q.17:- Name the Treaty of 1832 that recognised Greece as an independent nation.
Ans:- Treaty of Constantinople of 1832
Assertion And Reason Based Questions: -
In the questions given below, there are two statements marked as Assertion (A) and Reason (R).
Read the statements and choose the correct option.
Options:-
(a) Both A and R are true and R is correct explanation of the assertion.
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of the assertion.
(c) A is true but R is false.
(d) A is false but R is true.
Q.1:- Assertion (A): Conservatism was opposed to monarchy.
Reason (R): Conservatism supported strong army and efficient bureaucracy.
Ans.:- (d) A is false but R is true.
Q.2:- Assertion (A): Treaty of Vienna marked the beginning of new conservatism in Europe.
Reason (R): The Vienna congress was meant to undo the changes made by Napoleonic regime.
Ans.:- (b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of the assertion.
Q.3:- Assertion (A) : Conservatives believed that established traditional institutions of state and society
should be preserved.
Reason (R) : Zollverein was formed to preserve conservatism
Ans.:- (c) A is true but R is false
Q.4:- Assertion (A) : The Scottish Highlanders were forbidden to speak their Gaelic language or wear
their national dress, and large numbers were forcibly driven out of their homeland.
Reason (R) : The English helped the Protestants of Ireland to establish their dominance over a
largely Catholic country.
Ans.:- (b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of assertion.
Q.5:- Assertion (A) : Culture played an important role in creating the idea of the nation.
Reason (R) : Weavers in Silesia had led a revolt against the contractors who supplied raw material
and gave them orders for finished textiles but drastically reduced their payments.
Q.6:- Assertion (A) : Italy was divided into seven states, of which only one was ruled by an Italian
princely house.
Reason (R) : The north was under the domination of the Bourbon kings of Spain.
Ans.:- (c) A is true but R is false.
Q.7 Assertion (A) : In France, were the ‘Bibliothéque Bleué, which were low-priced small books printed
on poor quality paper, and bound in cheap blue covers.
Reason (R) : In England, penny chapbooks were carried by petty pedlars known as chapmen, and
sold for a penny, so that even the poor could buy them.
Ans.- (a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of assertion.
Q.8:- Assertion (A) : In the areas conquered by Napoleon the reactions of the local population were
mixed.
Reason (R): Increased taxation, censorship etc. out-weigh the advantages of administrative changes.
Ans.- (a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of assertion.
Q.9:- Assertion (A) : Germany, Italy and Switzerland were divided into kingdoms, duchies and cantons
whose rulers had their autonomous territories.
Reason (R) : They were closely bound to each other in spite of their autonomous rule.
Q.10:- Assertion (A) : On 18 May 1848, 831 elected representatives revolted in the Frankfurt parliament.
Reason (R) : The elected representatives revolted against the issue of extending political rights to
women.
Ans.:- (d) Both A and R are false.
Q.11:- Assertion : Artists in the eighteenth and nineteenth centuries found a way out by personifying a
nation.
Reason : They represented a country as if it were a person.
Ans.:- (a) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of assertion A.
Q.12:- Assertion : Like Germany, Italy too had a long history of political fragmentation.
Reason : During the middle of the nineteenth century, Italy was divided into seven States.
Ans.:- (a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of assertion A.
Q.13:- Assertion (A) : By the settlement of Vienna, Belgium was annexed to Holland to set up a powerful
state in North East border of France.
Reason (R) : In the revolution of 1848, men and women of middle classes continued their
demands for constitutionalism.
Q.14:- Assertion (A) : Growth of printing press enabled wide circulation of ideas of enlightened thinkers.
Reason (R) : Printing press introduced a new platform of debate and discussion on tradition and
despotism.
Q.15:- Assertion (A) : In Britain, the formation pf the nation-state was not the result of a sudden
upheaval.
Reason (R) : Ethnic groups of Britain extended its influence.
Q.16:- Assertion (A) : Developments in France influenced Greek war of Independence which began in
the 1821against the Ottoman Empire.
Reason (R) : Guiseppe Garibaldi was a French artist who visualised people of Europe marching in
a long chain.
Q.17:- Assertion (A) : Weavers in Silesia had led a revolt against contractors in 1845.
Reason (R) : Contractors had drastically reduced their payments.
Q.18:- Assertion (A) : Italian unification was result of diplomatic alliance and series of diplomatic moves
and military events.
Reason (R) : Romanticism as a cultural movement focused on involving and mystical feelings
instead of reason and science.
Q.19:- Assertion (A) : The first clear expression of nationalism come with the French Revolution in
1789.
Reason (R) : The French revolutionaries declared that it was the mission and destiny of the
French nation to help other people of Europe to become nations.
Case Study based Question: -

Read the sources given below and answer the questions that follows: -
Following the defeat of Napoleon in 1815, European governments were driven by a spirit of
conservatism. Conservatives believed that established, traditional institutions of state and society – like
the monarchy, the Church, social hierarchies, property, and the family – should be preserved. Most
conservatives, however, did not propose a return to the society of pre-revolutionary days. Rather, they
realised, from the changes initiated by Napoleon, that modernisation could in fact strengthen traditional
institutions like the monarchy. It could make state power more effective and stronger. A modern army, an
efficient bureaucracy, a dynamic economy and the abolition of feudalism and serfdom could strengthen
the autocratic monarchies of Europe. In 1815, representatives of the European powers – Britain, Russia,
Prussia and Austria – who had collectively defeated Napoleon, met at Vienna to draw up a settlement for
Europe. The Congress was hosted by the Austrian Chancellor Duke Metternich. The delegates drew up
the Treaty of Vienna of 1815 with the object of undoing most of the changes that had come about in
Europe during the Napoleonic wars. The Bourbon dynasty, which had been deposed during the French
Revolution, was restored to power, and France lost the territories it had annexed under Napoleon. A series
of states were set up on the boundaries of France to prevent French expansion in future.
Q.1: - What were the main Conservation aims following Napoleon’s defeat?
Ans.:- The main conservative aims following Napoleon’s defeat were to preserve traditional institutions
of state and society and to modernise them.
Q.2: - What were the main changes that came about during the Napoleonic wars?
Ans.:- The main changes that came about during the Napoleonic wars were the abolition of feudalism and
serfdom, the growth of democracy, and the rise of the bourgeoisie.
Q.3: - What were the main changes that the Congress at Vienna attempted to undo?
Ans.:- The main changes attempted at Vienna were the abolition of feudalism and serfdom, the
establishment of a more efficient bureaucracy, the establishment of a more dynamic economy, and
the strengthening of autocratic monarchies.
Short Answer Type Questions: -
Q.1:- Who was Otto Von Bismarck? Explain his role in the unification of Germony.
Ans.:-
1. Otto Von Bismarck was the Chief Minister of Prussia.
2. Under his command Prussia took on the leadership of the movement for national unification.
3. He was the chief architect of the process of unification which was carried with the help of
Prussian army and bureaucracy.
4. On 18th January, 1871 Prussian Ministers including the Chief Minister Otto Von Bismarck
gathered in the Royal Palace of Versailles to proclaim the new German Empire headed by Kaiser
William-I of Prussia.
Q.2:- What changes did Napoleon introduce to make the administrative system more efficient in the
territories ruled by him?
OR
Explain main provisions of the Napoleon Civil Code, 1804.
Ans.:-
1. Napoleon introduced the Napoleonic Code which did away with all privileges based on birth,
established equality before the law and secured the right to property.
2. In many parts of Europe like in the Dutch Republic, Switzerland etc. he simplified the
administrative divisions, abolished the feudal system.
3. Napoleon removed the guild restrictions from the towns.
4. He laid stress on infrastructure liked transportation, communication and the banking system.
5. Uniform laws, standardised weights and measures, and a common national currency was
introduced.
6. These new reforms were appreciated by the peasants, workers and common people.
Q.3:- What were the major proposals of the Vienna Congress?

OR
Describe the main features of the “Vienna Treaty of 1815”
Ans.:-
1. The basic objective of the Treaty of Vienna of 1815 was undo most of the changes that had come
about the Europe.
2. The Bourbon dynasty, which had been deposed during the French Revolution, was restored to
power and France lost the territories it had annexed under Napoleon.
3. A series of states were set up on the boundaries of France to prevent the French expansion in
future.
4. Prussia was given important new territories on its western frontiers, while Austria was given
control of northern Italy.
5. The German Confederation of 39 states that had been set up by Napoleon was left untouched.
Long Answer Type Questions: -
Q.1:- Who was Giuseppe Mazzini? Explain his role in the unification of Italy.
Ans.:-
1. He became member of various secret societies such as young Italy or Young Europe.
2. He attempted a revolution in Liguria.
3. He wanted unification. with wider. alliance of nations.
4. He frightened conservatives through the opposition of monarchy and vision of democratic
republics.
5. He favoured war for a unification of Italy.
6. He wanted Economic development and Political dominance.
Q.2:- Describe the process of unification of Italy.
Ans.:- The following were the processes of unification of Italy.
1. In the 1830s, Mazzini made efforts to unite Italy by forming a secret society called Young Italy
which failed.
2. This led King Victor Emmanuel-II taking responsibility to unify the Italian states through wars.
3. Through a tactful diplomatic alliance with France, Cavour defeated Austrians forces in 1859.
4. Further, Garibaldi with his armed volunteers also joined the efforts.
5. They succeeded in gaining the support of local peasants and drove out the Spanish rulers and
freeing the Italian states from bourbon rulers.
6. With this the unification process of Italy was completed and Victor Emmanuel-II was proclaimed
the ruler of United Italy.
Q.3- Describe the process of unification Britain.
Ans.:-
1. Before the 18th century there was no British Nation. People of different identities and ethnic
groups - English, Welsh, Scot and irish - lived in British Isles. Each of these had their own cultural
and political traditions.
2. Unlike the rest of Europe, nationalism in Britain was not a result of sudden upheaval or
revolution. It was a result of long drawn process forged through the propagation of dominant
English culture. Symbols like the English language, the British flag and the national anthem was
actively promoted.
3. In 1688, through a bloodless revolution, the English Parliament seized power from the monarchy.
4. The Parliament became the chief instrument to set up a nation state with England at its centre.
5. By the act of union between England and Scott in 1707, United Kingdom of Great Britain was
formed.
6. Ireland also suffered a similar fate. It was deeply divided between catholics and protestants. The
English supported the protestant Irish over the largely Catholic population.
7. They brutally suppressed Catholic Revolt and forcibly incorporated Ireland within United
Kingdom in 1801.
8. Scotland and Ireland survived only as subordinate partners in the British Nation. It was through
parliamentary action and not by the means of revolution over that United Kingdom was forced
into a strong National state.
Q.4:- Describe the process of unification of Germany.
Ans:-
1. The process of unification of Germany started with liberal Nationalist movement of 1848 with the
formation of Frankfurt Parliament however the attempts failed.
2. Then the initiative was taken by Prussia’s king and the responsibility of unification of Germany
was handed over by him to the Chief Minister Otto Von Bismarck.
3. Bismarck led three wars over a period of seven years with Austria, Denmark & France that ended
up with Prussian Victory.
4. Finally, Germany got unified in January 1871.
5. The Prussian king, William I, was proclaimed German Emperor in a ceremony held at Versailles.
Nationalism In India
Lesson-2 (History)
Q.1:- What was the important feature of the “Satyagraha Movement” advocated by Gandhiji?
Ans.:- Gandhiji’s advocacy of truth and non-violence was the most important feature of Satyagraha.
Q.2:- Why was satyagraha organised in Champaran in 1917?
Ans.:- A satyagraha was organised in Champaran to oppose the oppressive plantation system.
Q.3:- Why did Gandhiji organise satyagraha in 1917 in Kheda district of Gujarat?
Ans.:- Gandhiji organised satyagraha in 1917 in Kheda district of Gujarat to protect against high revenue
demand from the peasants even after crop failure and crop epidemic.
Q.4:- With what object did General Dyer open fire on the peaceful gathering at Jallianwalla Bagh on 13 th
April 1919?
Ans.:- General Dyer’s objective was to create a feeling of terror and awe in the minds of the satyagrahis.
Q.5:- What does the term Khalifa refer to?
Ans.:- The term Khalifa refers to the spiritual leader of the Muslim Community.
Q.6:- In which Indian National Congress session, the idea of Khilafat-Non Cooperation Movement was
accepted?
Ans.:- The idea of Khilafat-Non-Cooperation was accepted at the Indian National Congress session in
Calcutta (Kolkata) in September 1920.
Q.7:- Who led the Khilafat movement in Bombay?
Ans.:- Muhammad Ali and Shaukat Ali led the Khilafat movement in Bombay.
Q.8:- Who wrote “Hind Swaraj”?
Ans.:- Hind Swaraj was written by Mahatma Gandhi.
Q.9:- What was the outcome of Congress session at Nagpur in 1920?
Ans.:- The adoption of Non-Cooperation programme was the outcome of Congress session at Nagpur in
1920.
Q.10:- What is meant by Begar?
Ans.:- Forced labour without payment is called beggar.
Q.11:- By whom was the Swaraj Party formed?
Ans.:- The Swaraj Party was formed by Motilal Nehru and C.R. Das.
Q.12:- Why was the Simon Commission sent to India?
Ans.:- The Simon Commission was sent to India to look into Indian constitutional matters and suggest
reforms.
Q.13:- Why was Simon Commission boycotted?
Ans.:- Simon Commission was boycotted because there was no Indian member in the commission.
Q.14:- At which session of Congress was the resolution of “Purna Swaraj” adopted?
Ans.:- The resolution on “Purna Swaraj” was adopted at the Lahore Indian National Session in December
1929.
Q.15:- Why did Gandhiji oppose the Salt Law?
Ans.:- The British government acquired monopoly rights over manufacture and sale of salt. It led to
increase in the price of salt. Therefore, Gandhiji opposed the salt law.
Q.16:- Who led the Civil Disobedience Movement in Peshawar?
Ans.:- Abdul Gaffer Khan, also known as Frontier Gandhi, led the Civil Disobedience Movement in
Peshawar.
Q.17:- Who organised the Dalits into Depressed Classes Association in 1930?
Ans.:- Dr. B.R. Ambedkar organised the Dalits into Depressed Classes Association in 1930.
Q.18:- Why did Mahatma Gandhi call off Rowlatt Satyagraha?

Ans.:- Gandhiji called off Rowlatt Satyagraha due to spread of violence.
Q.19:- Who was Baba Ramchandra?
Ans.:- He was a Sanyasi who led Non-cooperation movement in Awadh.
Q.20:- Who was Alluri Sitaram Raju?
Ans.:- He was a nationalist of Gudem Hills of Andra Pradesh who led the Non-cooperation of 1921.
Q.21:- What was the Inland Emigration Act of 1859?
Ans.:- Under the Inland Emigration Act of 1859, plantation workers were not permitted to leave the tea
gardens without permission.
Q.22:- When was Non-Cooperation Movement withdrawn by Gandhiji? Give reason.
Ans.:- The Non-cooperation movement was withdrawn in 1922 because of a violent incident in Chauri-
Chaura.
Q.23:- Why did Dr. B.R. Ambedkar clash with Mahatma Gandhi at Second Round Table Conference?
Ans.:- B.R. Ambedkar clashed over the issue of separate electorates for Dalits.
Q.24:- Who worte Vande Mataram?
Ans.:- Bankim Chandra Chattopadhyay wrote Vande Mataram.
Q.25:- Which agreement gave seats to the depressed classes in provincial and central legislative
councils?
Ans.:- Poona Pact of September 1932 gave seats to the depressed classes in provincial and central
legislative councils.

Q.1:- What do you mean by Champaran Satyagrah?
Ans.:- Champaran is a district in Bihar. The movement was started by Gandhi against the exploitative
Indigo plantation systemin 1917. Under this system, poor farmers were forced to grow Indigo and
sell it to company officials on cheap prices. The land that has been once cultivated with Indigo
could not be cultivated with any other crop which also made the conditions of farmers poor. All
these events led to the movement against this oppressive system. As a result of his campaign, an
enquiry was conducted into the conditions of the peasants. This went a long way in giving the
indigo cultivators some relief.
Q.2:- What do you mean by Kheda Satyagraha?
Ans.:- The Kheda Movement or Satyagraha organised by Mahatma Gandhi in 1917 was for the support of
peasants of Kheda, Gujarat. This struggle is also known as no-tax peasant struggle. The movement
was launched under the leadership of Mahatma Gandhi, Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel, N.M. Joshi,
Indulal Yajnik, Shankerlal Pareek and several others. This movement was the one like in
Champaran, based on non-violence. A few causes of this movement are mentioned below –
1. On reassessing the land of Kheda and the crops, the revenue was increased which was
unacceptable for the peasants.
2. Peasants suffered from famine which resulted in crop failure. The government did not accept this
and insisted on full realisation of land tax. However peasantry emphasised persistently that the
government was not justified in demanding full tax.
3. The peasants were frequently plagued by poverty, famines, scant resource, untouchability,
alcoholism and British discrimination
4. The Bombay Presidency increased the taxes in 1917-18 by 23%
Q.3:- What do you mean by Ahmedabad Cotton Mill Strike?
Ans.:- In 1917, Ahmedabad witnessed a plague epidemic due to destruction of agricultural crops because
of heavy monsoon. Plague bonus was given to the mill workers by the mill owners to relieve them
from this worse situation. Gandhi used Satyagraha and hunger strike for the first time during an
industrial dispute between the owners and workers of a cotton mill in Ahmedabad. The owners
wanted to withdraw the plague bonus to the workers while the workers were demanding a hike of
35% in their wages. During the peaceful strike led by Gandhi, he underwent a hunger strike. The
Ahmedabad Mill strike was successful and the workers were granted the wage hike they wanted.
Q.4:- Discussing the Salt March, explain that it was an effective symbol of resistance against colonialism.
Ans.:- Salt March: On March 12, 1930, Gandhiji started the Dandi March or Salt Movement. He was
accompanied by 78 faithful followers. Mahatma Gandhi and his followers walked for 24 days and
covered a distance of 240 miles from Sabarmati to Dandi. Many other people joined them on the
way. On 6 April 1930, Gandhi broke this law symbolically by picking up a handful of salt.
Salt was a powerful symbol that could be linked to every person. Salt is used equally by every
class of people. It is not that a rich man will eat more salt and a poor man will eat less salt. For an
industrialist or businessman, there was a hope that many other taxes could be abolished which
were affecting the business. For a common man, the abolition of salt tax raised hopes of a fall in
the price of salt.
Q.5:- What was Non-Cooperation Movement?
Ans.:- Mahatma Gandhi wrote in his famous book Swaraj (1909) that British rule could be established in
India because the people of India cooperated with them. If the people of India did not cooperate, the
British would never have been able to rule here. Mahatma Gandhi believed that if the people of
India stopped cooperating, the British rule would collapse within a year and Swaraj would come.
Gandhiji had full faith that if this happened, the British would be left with no other option but to
leave India.
Q.6:- Explain some proposals of Non-Cooperation Movement.
Ans.:-
1. To return the titles conferred by the British Government.
2. Boycott of civil service, army, police, courts, legislative council and schools.
3. Boycott of foreign goods.
4. If the government does not desist from its repressive policies, then start a complete disobedience
movement.
Q.7:- Give reasons why the non-cooperation movement slowed down in the cities?
Ans.:-
1. Initially Indians actively boycotted schools, colleges, government institutions and courts, but there
were no alternative arrangements for education and employment in their place.
2. Therefore, students returned to schools and colleges in the cities and lawyers returned to the courts
to cooperate in the government system.
3. Indian Khadi clothes were costlier than foreign clothes. For this reason, the poor of the city again
started wearing clothes of foreign mills.
Q.8:- Who was Baba Ramchandra? Describe his role in the peasant movement.
Ans.:- Baba Ramchandra was a prominent leader of the peasant movement in Awadh, India. He was born
on 23 March 1889 in Barabanki district of Uttar Pradesh.
Leadership in farmer's movement: -
1. Baba Ramchandra was the leader of the peasant revolt in Awadh in the 1920s. He led the peasants
in the struggle against the landlords, who were exploiting them by charging high rents and taxes.
2. He was the founder of the Kisan Sabha of Awadh in October 1920 along with Jawaharlal Nehru.
The Kisan Sabha was a platform for the farmers to voice their grievances and demand their rights.
3. 3. The leadership of Baba Ramchandra had an important role in the success of the peasant
movement in Awadh. They organized massive protests and strikes to pressure the British colonial
government to address the farmers' issues.
4. He also played an important role in the Non-Cooperation Movement of 1920–22, which was
launched by Mahatma Gandhi to challenge the British rule in India.
Q.9:- Why were the people of India against the Rowlatt Act?
Ans:- The people of India were against the Rowlatt Act because of the following reasons: –
1. In 1919, Gandhiji launched the Satyagraha movement against the Rowlatt Act (1919).
2. The Rowlatt Act was hurriedly passed by the Imperial Legislative Council despite protests from
the Indian members. By which the government got the right to suppress political activities and
keep political prisoners in jail without trial for 2 years.
3. Mahatma Gandhi wanted non-violent civil disobedience against such unjust laws. That's why
people opposed the Rowlatt Act.
Q.1:- Describe in detail the non-cooperation movement in the urban areas.
Ans.:-
1. The middle-class people in the cities joined the non-cooperation movement in large numbers.
2. Teachers resigned, lawyers gave up their practice and thousands of students left government
schools and colleges.
3. Council elections were boycotted in most of the states except Madras.
4. There were people in the Justice Party of Madras who were not Brahmins.
5. For non-Brahmins, the election to the council was a means by which they could get into their
hands the power which was controlled only by the Brahmins.
6. Foreign goods were boycotted, liquor shops were picketed, and foreign clothes were burnt. The
effect of this was that from 1921 to 1922 the import of foreign cloth was reduced to half.
Q.2:- Who was Alluri Sitaram? Explain his role in the non-cooperation movement.
Answer:-
1. Alluri Sitarama Raju was an Indian revolutionary who led an armed campaign against British
colonial rule in India. He became a saint at the age of 18.
2. Born in present-day Andhra Pradesh, Sitaram Raju got involved in anti-British activities against
the Madras Forest Act of the year 1882.
3. The act restricted the free movement of adivasis (tribal communities) in their forest habitats and
their traditional form of podu (shifting cultivation jhum agriculture).
4. Growing discontent with the British led to the Rampa Rebellion/Manyam Rebellion of 1922, in
which Alluri Sitarama Raju played a prominent role as a leader.
5. He was nicknamed "Manyam Veerudu" (the hero of the forest) by the local villagers for his heroic
exploits.
6. In 1924 Alluri Sitarama Raju was taken into police custody, tied to a tree and shot in public,
effectively ending the armed rebellion.
Q.3:- Why were the people of India against the Rowlatt Act?
Ans.:- The Gandhi-Irwin Pact or the Gandhi-Irwin Pact was signed on March 5, 1931, between Mahatma
Gandhi and the then Viceroy of India, Lord Irwin. This agreement was a historic agreement in
itself. Features of Gandhi-Irwin Pact:-
1. The Indian National Congress (INC) agreed to participate in the Round Table Conference.
2. Congress will stop the Civil Disobedience Movement.
3. Withdrawal of all ordinances curbing the activities of the Congress.
4. Withdrawal of all convictions except for violent crimes.
5. Release of those arrested for participating in the Civil Disobedience Movement.
6. Removal of salt tax.
Q.4:- What was the Simon Commission? Why did the Indians oppose the Simon Commission?
Ans.:-
1. In 1927, the Tory government of Britain formed a seven-member statutory commission, known as
the Simon Commission, in response to the nationalist movement in India. The chairman of this
commission was Sir John Simon.
2. The work of this commission was to study the functioning of the constitutional system in India
and to give suggestions accordingly. All its members were English.
3. It was opposed in India because there was not a single Indian member in this commission. All the
members were English.
4. When the Simon Commission reached India in February 1928, it was greeted with slogans of
"Simon Commission go back".
5. Congress and Muslim League, all parties took part in the demonstrations.
6. Lala Lajpat Rai led the protest- against this commission in Punjab. The police lathi charged him so
much that he died in this way.
Important Maps of Nationalism in India (Histotry)
1. Indian National Congress Sessions:-
1. Calcutta (Sep. 1920) 2. Nagpur (Dec. 1920) 3. Madras (1927)
2. Important Centres of the Indian National Movement:-

1. Champaran (Bihar) - Movement of Indigo Planters
2. Kheda (Gujarat) - Peasant Satyagraha
3. Ahmedabad (Gujarat) - Cotton Mill Workers Satyagraha
4. Amritsar (Punjab) - Jallianwala Bagh Incident
5. Dandi (Gujarat) - Civil Disobedience Movement
The Making of Global World

Lesson-3 (History)

Q.1:- Give two examples of exchanges that took place before the seventeenth century. Choose one
example from Asia and one example from the Americas.
Ans.:- Examples of exchanges taking place before the seventeenth century between Asia and America are
as follows:-
1. Example of Asia:- Silk was traded from Asia to European countries and North Africa.
2. Example of America:- Half of potatoes, soybean, peanuts, corn, tomatoes, chillies were produced
in America and are eaten all over the world today. All these things were produced in America.
Today all these things have become a means of eating all over the world.
Q.2:- Explain how the global spread of diseases in the pre-modern world helped in the colonization of the
American territories.
Ans.:-
1. Due to being isolated from the world for millions of years, the people of America did not have the
immunity to protect against smallpox, which spread there.
2. When European powers started establishing their colonies there. For this reason, the European
powers did not have to use military weapons against the people of America.
3. Smallpox was a deadly disease that just decimated American communities. In this way the path to
victory for the infiltrators became clear.
4. Once this disease spread, it gradually spread throughout the world.
5. Thus, the global spread of diseases in the pre-modern world facilitated the colonization of the
American territories.
Q.3:- What do you understand by Silk Road?
Ans.:- The Silk Road was a group of historical trade-cultural routes in ancient and medieval times through
which Asia, Europe and Africa were connected. The most well-known part of this is the Northern
Silk Road, which ran westward through China, first into Central Asia and then into Europe, with a
branch leading to India.
Print Culture and The Modern World

Lesson-4 (History)
Q.1:- What do you mean by the word Calligraphy?
Ans:- The art of beautiful and stylish writing is known as calligraphy.
Q.2:- Who is compositor ?
Ans:- The person, who composes the text for printing.
Q.3:- What is Galley?
Ans:- Metal frame in which types are laid and the text composed.
Q.4:- What do you mean by Ballad ?
Ans:- A historical account or folk tale in verse, usually sung or recited.
Q.5:- What is Protestant Reformation?
Ans:- A sixteenth-century movement to reform the Catholic Church dominated by Rome. Marting Luther
was one of the main Protestant reformers. Several traditions of the anti-Catholic Christianity
developed out of the movement.
Q.6:- What is Seditious ?
Ans:- Action, speech or writing that is seen as opposing the government.
Q.7:- What is Chapbook?
Ans:- A term used to describe pocket-size books that are sold by travelling pedlars called chapmen. These
became popular from the time of the sixteenth century print revolution.
Q.8:- What do you mean by the term Ulemas ?
Ans:- Legal scholars of Islam and the Sharia (a body of the Islamic law).
Q.9:- What do you mean by the word Fatwa?
Ans:- A legal pronouncement on Islamic law usually given by a Mufti (legal scholar) to clarify issues on
which the law is uncertain.
Q.10:- Who was Marco Polo ?
Ans:- Macro Polo was a reformer and one of the greatest explore who returned to Italy in 1295 after many
years of exploration in China. Marco Polo brought the knowledge of woodblock printing to Europe.
Q.11:- What are Billiotheque Bleue ?
Ans:- These are low priced small books printed in France. These were printed on poor quality paper and
bound in cheap blue covers.
Q.12:- Who was Johann Gutenberg ?
Ans:- Johann Gutenberg was a German goldsmith and inventor credited with inventing the movable type
of printing in Europe.
Q.13:- When and by whom was hand printing technology introduced in Japan?
Ans:- Buddhist missionaries from China introduced hand printing technology into Japan around AD 768-
770.
Q.14:- Which is the oldest book to be printed?
Ans:- The oldest Japanese book, printed in AD 868, is the Buddhist Dimond Sutra, containing six sheets
of text and woodcut illustrations.
Q.15:- Which material was used to print pictures?
Ans:- Playing cards, textiles and paper money was used to print pictures.
Q.16:- What was print revolution ?
Ans:- It was a revolution which not only reduced the cost of production of books but also changed their
relationship with information and knowledge. It influenced popular perceptions and people started
looking the world in different way.
Q.17:- What was the basic objectives of Ninety Five Theses?
Ans:- The basic objectives of the Ninety Five Theses was to criticise many of the practices and rituals of
the Roman Catholic Church.
Q.18:- Name two scholars whose writings inspired French people.
Ans:- Voltaire and Rousseau.
Q.19:- Name any two languages in which Indian manuscript was prepared before the age of print.
Ans:- 1. Sanskrit 2. Arabic 3. Persian 4. Bengali.
Q.20:- When did the first printing press come to India ?
Ans:- The printing press first came to Goa with Portuguese missionaries in the mid 16 th century.
Q.20:- Who printed the first Tamil book?
Ans:- Catholic priest printed the first Tamil book in 1579.
Q.21:- Why were manuscripts not widely used in India before the age of Print ?
Ans:- Manuscripts were expensive, fragile and difficult to handle.
Q.22:- Name the first Weekly that appeared in India. Who bought it out ?
Ans:- Bengal Gazette: James Augustus Hickey.
Q.23:- Why did Governor General Warren Hastings persecute Hickey?
Ans:- Because he criticised the Brtish Government regarding slave trade.
Q.24:- Which was first Indian newspaper ? By whom was it brought ?
Ans:- Bengal Gazette. It was brought by Gangadhar Bhattacharya.
Q.25:- Who was the author of Amar Jiban?
Ans:- Rashsundari Debi.
Q.26:- Who wrote Istri Dharam Vichar ?
Ans:- Ram Chaddha.
Q.27:- Who wrote Gulamgiri?
Ans:- Jyotiba Phule.
Q.28:- Name any four Indian women writers of the 19th century ?
Ans:- 1. Rashsundari Debi 2. Kailashbashini Debi 3. Tarabai Shinde 4. Pandita Ramabai.
Q.29:- What was the theme of the book “Gulamgiri”?
OR
Why was “Gulamgiri” book written by Jyotiba Phule in 1871?
Ans:- The basic theme of the book was about the injustice of the caste system.
Q.30:- What was Vernacular Press Act ?
OR
Why was the Vernacular Press Act passed in 1878?
Ans:- It was an act which was passed by the colonial government to clamp the freedom of press. The Act
provided the government with extensive rights to censor reports and editorials in the Vernacular
press.
Q.31:- Name the paper with which Bal Gangadhar Tilak was associated?
Ans:- Kesari.
Q.1:- Explain any five reasons for bringing in large number of new readers among children, women and
workers during the late 19th century.
Ans.:-. The five reasons are:-

1. compulsory primary education.
2. women became important as readers.
3. lending libraries became instrumental for educating white collar workers, artisans and lower
middle-class people.
4. Self-educated working novelist were women who defined a new type of strong woman.
5. And best-known novelist was who defined a new type of strong woman.
Q.2:- How many earlier books printed (before 15th century) ? explain.
Ans.:-
1. Two earlier Chinese inventions, paper and ink, paved the way for wood block printing.
2. From AD 594 onwards, books in China were printed by rubbing paper against the inked surface of
woodblock.
3. Due to the need for a strong impression on the paper, it was necessary to print on only one side;
otherwise, the text would have been impossible to reads.
4. The traditional Chinese accordion book was folded and stitched at the side.
5. The beauty of Calligraphy was duplicated by skilled craftmen.
Q.3:- How did China remain a major producer of printed materials for a long time?
Ans.:-
1. Text books for civil service examination were printed in vast numbers under the sponsorship of
the imperial state.
2. Merchants used print in their everyday life as they collected trade information.
3. The new readership preferred fictional narratives, poetry, romantic plays.
4. Rich women began to read and many women began publishing their poetry and plays.
Q.4:- Who was Marco Polo? What was his contribution to print culture?
Ans.:- Marco Polo was a great Italian explorer. Contribution of Marco Polo was as follow:-
1. In 1925, Marco Polo returned to Italy after many years of exploration in China.
2. He brought the knowledge of woodblock printing with him.
3. Now in Italy, books started to be produced with woodblocks and soon the technology spread to
other parts of Europe.
Q.5:- Briefly describe China’s system of Woodblock printing.

Ans.
1. From AD 594 onwards, books in China were printed by rubbing paper against the inked surface of
woodblocks.
2. As both sides of the thin, porous sheet could not be printed, the traditional Chinese ‘accordion
book’ was folded and stitched at the side.
3. Superbly skilled craftsmen could duplicate, with remarkable accuracy, the beauty of calligraphy
(the art of beautiful and stylized writing).
Q.6:- “The production of handwritten manuscripts could not satisfy the ever-increasing demand for
books.” Give reasons to support this statement.
OR
Explain any three factors responsible for the invention of new printing techniques.
Ans.:- Factors responsible for the invention of new printing techniques:-
1. Copying was an expensive, laborious, and time-consuming business.
2. The manuscripts were highly expensive, fragile, and needed careful handling.
3. The handwritten manuscripts production was not sufficient to meet the demand.
Q.7:- Write about the impact of the printing press on the lives of women in Europe.
Ans.:- The impact of the printing press on the lives of women in Europe were:-
1. Women became important readers as well as writers.

2. Penny magazines and manuals teaching housekeeping and other such topics were printed
especially for women.
3. Women read as well as wrote novels.
4. Some popular women writers were Jane Austen, The Bronte Sisters, and George Elliot.
5. Their writings defined a new type of woman: a person with a will, the strength of personality,
determination, and the power to think.
Q.8:- Briefly describe Indian manuscripts and their drawbacks.

Ans. Indian Manuscripts: -
1. India had a rich tradition of handwritten manuscripts in Sanskrit, Arabic, and Persian as well as
vernacular languages.
2. Manuscripts were copied on palm leaves or on handmade paper and were sometimes beautifully
illustrated.
3. They were pressed between wooden covers or sewn together to ensure preservation.
Drawbacks: -
1. Manuscripts were highly expensive and fragile.
2. They had to be handled carefully.
3. They could not be read easily as the script was written in different styles.
4. So manuscripts were not used widely in daily life.
Q.9:- Explain the role of print in the religious reforms in India.

Ans.:-
1. From the early 19th century, there were intense debates around religious issues.
2. Some criticised existing practices and campaigned for reform, while others countered the
arguments of reformers.
3. To reach a wider audience, the ideas were printed in the spoken language of the ordinary people.
4. For example Raja Rammohan Roy published the ‘Sambad Kaumudi ’ and the Hindu orthodoxy
commissioned the ‘Samachar Chandrika’ to oppose his opinions.
Q.10:- Examine the role of missionaries in the growth of press in India.

Ans.:- The following points sum up the role of missionaries in the growth of press in India.
1. The printing press first came to Goa with Portuguese missionaries in the mid-sixteenth century.
Jesuit priests learnt Konkani and printed several tracts.
2. By 1674, about 50 books had been printed in the Konkani and in Kanara languages.
3. Catholic priests printed the first Tamil book in 1579 at Cochin and in 1713 the first Malayalam
book was printed by them.
4. By 1710, Dutch Protestant missionaries had printed 32 Tamil texts; many of them were translated
from older works.
Q.11:- Why was Martin Luther in favour of print? Explain three reasons. (2012)
Ans.:- Martin Luther was in favour of print and spoke out in praise of it, because:-
1. He wrote ‘Ninety-Five Theses’ criticizing many of the practices and rituals of the Roman Catholic
Church.
2. His ideas were reproduced in print in vast numbers and reached a large section of people,
3. According to him printing was the ultimate gift of God and the greatest one.
4. His protests ultimately led to the division of Church and beginning of the Protestant Reformation.
Q.1:- Explain with examples the role of print culture in the bringing of French Revolution.
Ans.:- The following points show the role of print culture in the bringing of French Revolution.
1. Print popularised the ideas of the enlightenment thinkers. The writings of Voltaire and Rousseau
were read widely.
2. These thinkers argued for the rule of reason rather than custom and demanded that everything
should be judged through the application of reason and rationality.
3. Print created a new culture of dialogue and debate.
4. All values, norms and institutions were re-evaluated and discussed by a public that had become
aware of the power of reason and recognised the need to question existing ideas and beliefs.
5. By the 1780s, there was an outpouring of literature that mocked the royalty and criticised their
morality. In the process, it raised questions about the, existing social order.
6. Print did not directly shape their minds, but it did open the possibility of thinking differently.
Q.2:- Explain the main features of the first printed Bible.

Ans.:- Main features of the first printed Bible:
1. The text was printed in the new Gutenberg press with metal type.
2. The borders were carefully designed, painted, and illuminated by hand by artists.
3. No two copies were the same. Every page of each copy was different.
4. Even when two copies look similar, a careful comparison will reveal differences.
5. There was lack of uniformity and every copy could be claimed as unique. for no one else owned a
copy that was the same.
Q.3:- “By the end of 19th century a new visual culture was taking shape.” Explain.
Ans.:- The nineteenth century saw the new visual culture taking shape. It was because of following
developments.
1. Along with the printed material, visual images could also be published and reproduced easily in
multiple copies.
2. Painters like Raja Ravi Varma used print culture to produce images for mass circulation. Wood
improvers began to be employed in print houses for making woodblocks.
3. People good at funny sketching developed cartoons and caricatures commenting on social and
political issues. Some openly criticized imperial rule, western tastes and clothes which attracted
large masses.
4. Mass production of visual images reduced the cost of production. Cheap prints and calendars were
available in market and even the poor could buy to decorate the walls of their homes.
5. The new visual culture acquired distinctively Indian form and style, as artists began to depict
scenes from Hindu religious mythology.
Resources and Development

Lesson-1 (Geography)
Q.1:- What is Resources?

Ans.:- Everything available in our environment, which can be used to satisfy our needs, provided, is
technologically accessible, economically feasible and culturally acceptable, can be called a
resources.
Q.2:- What are international resources?

Ans.:- International resources are the resources which belong to all human race and cannot be used by any
country without an agreement with international institutions.
Q.3:- To what distance do the territorial waters of India extend?
Ans.:- The territorial waters of India extend upto 12 nautical miles (22.2 km.) from the coast.
Q.4:- Where was the first International Earth Summit held?

Ans.:- The first International Earth Summit was held at Rio de Janeiro, in Brazil.
Q.5:- When was Rio de Janeiro Summit held?
Ans.:- Rio de Janeiro summit was held in June 1992.
Q.6:- What is the full form of UNCED?

Ans.:- United Nations Conference on Environment and Development.
Q.7:- What is resource planning?
Ans.:- Judicious use of resources is known as resource planning.
Q.8:- What is the area brought under cultivation in a year called?

Ans.:- Net sown area
Q.9:- Name the most widespread relief feature of India.
Ans.:- Plains are the most widespread relief feature of India. They form 43 percent of the land area.
Q.10:- What factor is responsible for maximum land degradation?

Ans.:- Human activities.
Q.11:- According to the National Forest Policy , What should be the percentage of forest area in a
country?
Ans.:- 33%.
Q.12:- What is Banger?

Ans.:- Old alluvial soil is called Banger.
Q.13:- What term is used to identify the old and new alluvial respectively?
Ans.:- Old alluvial is called Banger and new alluvial is called Khadar.
Q.14:- What soil is the best for cotton cultivations?

Ans.:- Black Soil
Q.15:- What gives red and yellow colour to red and yellow soil?
Ans.:- Red and yellow soil develops a reddish colour due to diffusion of iron in crystalline and
metamorphic rocks. It looks yellow when it occurs in a hydrated form.
Q.16:- What is the name of the soil formed by intense leaching?

Ans.:- Laterite soil.
Q.17:- Where does the laterite soil develop?

Ans.:- Laterite soil develops in areas with high temperature and heavy rainfall.
Q.18:- What type of soil develops due to high temperature and evaporation?
Ans.:- Arid Soil
Q.19:- Name the natural forces which lead to soil erosion?
Ans.:- The natural forces which lead to soil erosion are wind, glacier and water.
Q.20:- What are gullies?

Ans.:- The running water cuts through clayey soils and makes deep channels, called gullies.
Q.21:- What are Badlands?
Ans.:- Due to the formation of gullies, the land becomes unfit for cultivation and is known as badland.
Q.22:- What is a ravine?

Ans.:- A ravine is a deep narrow valley on earth’s surface formed by running water.
Q.23:- What is sheet erosion?
Ans.:- Sometimes water flows as a sheet over large area down the slope. In such cases the top soil washes
away. It is called sheet erosion.
Q.24:- What is the main cause of land degradation in Madhya Pradesh?

Ans.:- Deforestation
Q.25:- Which is a special feature of the sustainable development?
Ans.:- Development should take place without damaging the environment.
Q.26:- What are Community owned resources?

Ans.:- The resources which are accessible to all the members of the community. For example:- village
ponds, public parks, playgrounds etc.
Q.27:- What are National resources?
Ans.:- All the resources which are under the control of state or union government are known as national
resources.
Q.28:- What are Potential resources?

Ans.:- Resources which are found in a region, but have not been utilised due to lack of capital or other
reasons. For example:- Solar Energy in India.
Q.29:- What are Developed resources?
Ans.:- These are the resources which have been surveyed and their quality and quantity have been
determined for utilisation.
Q.1:- What are the ways to classify resources?
Ans.:-
1. On the basis of origin- Biotic and Abiotic
2. On the basis of exhaustibility- Renewable and Non- Renewable.
3. On the basis of ownership- Individual, community, national and international.
4. On the basis of state of development- Potential, developed stock and reserves.
Q.2:- What is the role of humans in resource development?

Ans.:-
1. Resources are a function of human activities.
2. Human beings interact with nature through technology, and create institutions to accelerate their
economic development.
3. Human beings transfer material available in our environment into resources, and use them.
Q.3:- Explain the major factors which are responsible for the formation of soil.
Ans.:-
1. Relief, parent rock or bedrock, climate, vegetation and other forms of life and time are important
factors in the formation of soil.
2. Various forces of nature such as change in temperature, actions of running water, wind and
glaciers, activities of decomposers, etc.
3. Chemical and organic changes which take place in the soil are equally important.
4. Vegetation affects the rate of humus formation.
Q.4:- Distinguish between Khadar and Banger. Name any two states where alluvial soils are found?
Ans.:- Differences between khadar and banger
Sr. No. Khadar Soils Bangar Soils
1. On the basis of age, these are new alluvial 1. On the basis of age, these are old alluvial
soils. soils.
2.
These soils are fine and fertile. 2. These soils are coarse and less fertile than
Khadar soils.
3.
They are found in the lower reaches of river 3. They are found in the upper reaches of river
valleys. valleys.
Q.5:- Distinguish between renewable resources and non-renewable resources.
Ans.:-
Sr. No. Renewable Resources Non-renewable resources
1. These can be renewed or reproduced by 1. These occur over a very long period of time.
physical, chemical or mechanical processes.
2. These get renewed over a short period of 2. These are limited in availability.
time.
3. 3. These are exhaustible.
Also known as replenishable resources.
4. 4. These are divided into recyclable and non-
These are divided into continuous and flow. recyclable
5. Example:- Water, Wind Forest etc. 5. Example:- Mineral and fossil fuels.
Q.6:- Distinguish between red and laterite soils slanting five points of distinction.
Ans.:-
Sr. No. Red Soil Laterite Soil
1. It is formed due to weathering of igneous and 1. It is formed by the leaching process in the
metamorphic rocks. tropical areas of heavy rainfall.
2. It is highly porous and less fertile but where 2. It is less fertile, only grass grows on it in
it is deep. It is fertile. abundance.
3. It is less crystalline. 3. It is crystalline.
4. It is red in colour due to the presence of iron 4. It is red in colour due to little clay and much
in it. gravel of red sandstones.
5. It is found in parts of Tamil Nadu, Karnataka 5. It is found in hills of the Deccan, Karnataka,
etc. Kerala, Odisha etc.
Forest And Wildlife Resources

Q.1:- What is Biosphere?
Ans.:- Part of the earth which is covered by living organisms both plants and animals.
Q.2:- What is Ecosystem?

Ans.:- An integrated unit consisting of the community of living organisms and the physical environment.
Q.3:- What do you mean by the term Flora?
Ans.:- Plants of a particular region or period are referred to as flora.
Q.4:- What do you mean by the term Fauna?

Ans.:- Species of animals are known as fauna.
Q.5:- What is Wildlife sanctuary?
Ans.:- A reserved area for preserving natural beauty for example wildlife.
Q.6:- What do you mean by Biodiversity?

Ans.:- It is the sum total of all the varieties of species of plants, animals and microorganisms living on the
earth.
Q.7:- What is wasteland?
Ans.:- Land which is not fit for cultivation.
Q.8:- Define Normal Species.

Ans.:- Whose population levels are considered to be normal for their survival, such as cattle, sal, pine,
rodents etc.
Q.9:- Define Vulnerable species.
Ans.:- These are some species whose population has declined to levels from where it is likely to move
into the endangered category in the near future if the negative factors continue to operate.
Q.10:- What are rare species?

Ans.:- Species with small population may move into the endangered or vulnerable category if the
negative factors affecting them continue to operate.
Q.11:- “India is one of the world’s richest countries in terms of its vast array of biological diversity”.
Justify.
Ans.:- India has nearly 8% of the total number of species in the world.
Q.12:- What is IUCN?

Ans.:- International Union for Conservation of Nature and Natural Resources.
Q.13:- What is Biosphere?
Ans.:- Part of the earth which is covered by living organisms both plants and animals.
Q.14:- Mention any wildlife protection programme.

Ans.:- The Indian Wildlife Act 1972
Q.15:- What are permanent forests?
Ans.:- Reserved and protected forests are known as permanent forests.
Q.16:- Which state has the largest area under permanent forests?
Ans.:- Madhya Pradesh.
Q.17:- What is Chipko Movement?
Ans.:- It was a movement launched by the people of the Himalaya against deforest.
Q.18:- What is JFM?

Ans.:- JFM means Joint Forest Management. It was a movement launched to manage and restore
degraded forests by involving the local communities.
Q.19:- Name the state which was first to pass the JFM resolution.
Ans.:- Odisha.

Q.1:- “India has rich flora and fauna”. Explain.
Ans.:-
1. India is one of the world’s richest countries in terms of its vast array of biological diversity.
2. It has nearly 8% of the total number of species in the world.
3. Of the estimated 47,000 plant species, about 15,000 flowering species are indigenous to India.
Q.2:- What are the main objectives of JFM?.

Ans.:-
1. Under the Joint Forest Management programme, local communities are involved in the
management and restoration of degraded forests.
2. The major purpose of the JFM is to protect the forests from encroachments, grazing, theft and fire
and also to improve the forests in accordance with an approved Joint Forest Management plan.
3. In return, the members of these communities are entitled to intermediary benefits like non-timber
forest produces.
Q.3:-Write four major reasons for the depletion of forest cover.
Ans.:-
1. Deforestation for agricultural purposes.
2. Shifting cultivation which is still practised in substantial parts of tribal belts.
3. Large-scale development of river valley projects.
4. Mining activities have also resulted in deforestation. For example, the tiger reserve in West Bengal
is seriously threatened by the ongoing dolomite mining.
5. Environmental pollution and forest fires have also led to depletion of forests.
Q.4:- List six factors which have led to the decline in India’s biodiversity.
Ans.:-
1. Habitat destruction 2. Over-exploitation 3. Environmental pollution
4. Forest fires 5. Hunting and Poaching 6. Poisoning
Q.5:- Write four most important causes of environmental destruction/degradation.
Ans.:-
1. Unequal access to resources.
2. Inequitable consumption of resources.
3. Differential sharing of responsibility for environmental well being.
4. Over-population.
Q.6:- Write the major differences between reserved and protected forests.
Ans.:-Difference between Reserved and Protected forests are
Sr. No. Reserved Forests Protected Forests
1. They are permanently earmarked either for 1. They are protected from any further depletion.
production or other forest produce.
2. More than 50% of the total forest land has 2. Almost 1/3rd of the total forest area is called as
been declared as reserved forests. the protected forest.
3. They are controlled by the government. 3. They are controlled by the government
Water Resources
Q.1:- What is hydrological cycle?

Ans.:- Continuous circular of water between hydrosphere, atmosphere and lithosphere, in which water
changes its physical state is called hydrological cycle.
Q.2:- Name two places where 70 per cent of the freshwater is found as ice sheets and glaciers.
Ans.:- Antarctica and Greenland.
Q.3:- What is main cause of water scarcity ?
Ans.:- Growing population and less rainfall.
Q.4:- Name the tank built in Delhi by Iltutmish for supplying water to Siri Fort area.
Ans.:- Hauz Khas Tank.
Q.5:- Name the largest artificial lake built in the 11th Century.
Ans.:- Bhopal lake.
Q.6:- What is a dam?

Ans.:- A dam is a barrier across flowing water that obstructs directs or retards the flow often creating a
reservoir.
Q.7:- Who proclaimed the dams as the “Temple of Modern India”?
Ans.:- Pandit Jawaharlal Nehru.
Q.8:- What is irrigation?.

Ans.:- Artificial means supplying water to farmlands in the form of canals, wells and tanks is called
irrigation.
Q.9:- What are the diversion channels of Western Himalayas called?
Ans.:- They are called Kuls or Guls.
Q.10:- What is Palar Pani?

Ans.:- It is rain water.
Q.11:- What is water scarcity?
Ans.:- Water scarcity is the lack of sufficient available water resources to meet the demand is known as
water scarcity.
Q.12:- What do you mean by Rainwater harvesting?

Ans.:- It is a technique of increasing the recharge of groundwater by capturing and storing rainwater, by
constructing structures such as percolating pits, check dams etc.
Q.13:- What is multipurpose project?
Ans.:- A multipurpose project is that which fulfils a variety of purpose at the same time, for example-
irrigation, generation of electricity, flood control, fish breeding, soil conservation etc.
Q.14:- What is Kul?

Ans.:- It is a circular village tank from which water is released and taken when required.
Q.15:- Name the river on which the Hirakud dam is located?
Ans.:- Mahanadi.
Q.16:- Name the river on which the Nagarjuna Sagar Dam dam is located?
Ans.:- Tungabhadra
Q.17:- Name the river on which the Bhakra Nangal dam is located?
Ans.:- Satkuj River
Q.1:- Why is the need for water increasing day by day? Explain three reasons.
Ans.:-
1. Water availability varies over space and time mainly due to variation in seasonal and annual
precipitation.
2. Rapid urbanisation is another factor for water scarcity.
3. Rapid increase in population that demand more and more water.
4. Industrialization is another factor for water scarcity.
Q.2:- Explain any four reasons responsible for water scarcity in India.
Ans.:- The reasons for water scarcity in India are:-
1. Post-independence India has witnessed intensive industrialisation and urbanisation which
increased water demand.
2. Large urban centres with large and dense population and urban lifestyles have only added to water
requirement.
3. Population explosion after independence led to over exploitation of underground water for
irrigation.
4. The water is getting polluted by domestic and industrial waste, chemical pesticides and fertilizers.
Q.3:- Why do we conserve water resources?

Ans.:- We conserve water resources to:-
1. Protect ourselves from health hazards.
2. Ensure food security.
3. Protect natural ecosystem.
Q.1:- What is Multipurpose River Project? Explain advantages and disadvantages of multipurpose river
project.
Ans.:- A multipurpose project is that which fulfils a variety of purpose at the same time, for example-
irrigation, generation of electricity, flood control, fish breeding, soil conservation etc.
1. Advantages of multipurpose project:-

1. It is used to generate hydroelectricity.
2. It supplies water for the domestic and industrial purpose.
3. It helps to control flood.
4. It provide recreation facilities/picnic/boating.
5. They are also for land navigation.
6. Useful for pisciculture.
2. Disadvantages:-
1. Multipurpose project affects the natural flow of water.
2. It causes the excessive sediments at the bottom of the river which makes stream beds rockier.
3. It causes the poor habitat of aquatic life. Multipurpose projects causes no migration of aquatic
fauna.
4. The dam submerged the vegetation and soil at the both bank of the river and causes flood
plains.
5. Multipurpose projects also causes new social movement like Narmada Bachao Andolan.
Q.2:- What is Rainwater Harvesting? State the objectives of Rainwater Harvesting.
Ans.:- It is a technique of increasing the recharge of groundwater by capturing and storing rainwater, by
constructing structures such as percolating pits, check dams etc. Major objectives and advantages of
rainwater harvesting are:-
1. To meet the increasing demands of water

2. To supplement groundwater supplies during lean seasons
3. To raise the water table by recharging groundwater
4. Reducing groundwater contamination.
5. Reduce flooding and erosion.
6. Avoiding flooding of roads.
7. Avoiding flooding of roads.
Maps of Important Dams of India (Geography)
Agriculture
Q.1:- What is Agriculture ?

Ans.:- The art and science of cultivating soil, raising crops and rearing livestock including fishing and
forests.
Q.2:- Name any two farming system (agriculture type) which are practised in India.
Ans.:- 1. Primitive Subsistence 2. Commercial Farming
Q.3:- What is primitive subsistence farming ?
OR
What type of farming is practised by using primitive tools
Ans.:- It is a type of agriculture which is practised on small patches of land with the help of primitive
tools like hoe, doa, digging sticks and family/ community labour.
Q.4:- What is intensive subsistence farming?

Ans.:- It is a type of farming practised in areas with high density of population using modern inputs.
Q.5:- Name any two states where commercial farming is practised.
Ans.:- Punjab and Haryana
Q.6:- What is commercial agriculture?.

Ans.:- Farming in which farmer grows the crop with the aim of selling it in the market.
Q.7:- What do you mean by Cash crops ?
Ans.:- Cash crops are those crops which are grown by the farmers to sell in the markets. For example:-
Tobacco, Cotton.
Q.8:- What is Dry Farming?

Ans.:- Dry farming is adopted in scanty rainfall areas. Such types of crops are grown which require less
irrigation facilities.
Q.9:- Define the term Green Revolution.
Ans.:- A breakthrough in seed technology which has led to a considerable increase in agricultural
production especially in wheat and rice as a result of better inputs.
Q.10:- What is Horticulture ?
Ans.:- Intensive cultivation of vegetables, fruits and flowers.
Q.11:- Define Kharif Season.

Ans.:- Kharif season starts with the onset of the monsoon i.e. June-July and continues till the beginning of
winter i.e. October- November. For example, rice millets etc.
Q.12:- Define Rabi Season.
Ans.:- The crops which are grown in winter from October to December and harvested in summer from
April to June. For example:- Wheat, Barley, Peas, Gram.
Q.13:- Define Mixed Farming.
Ans.:- Farming in which animals are also used on the farm while raising crops.
Q.14:- What is Multiple Cropping?

Ans.:- When two or more than two crops are grown simultaneously on the same field.
Q.15:- What is Net Sown Area ?
Ans.:- The land cultivated in a year is called the Net Sown Area.
Q.16:- Define Plantation Agriculture.

Ans.:- A large-scale farming of one crop resembling the factory production using capital investment and
application of modern science and technology in cultivating.
Q.17:- What do you mean by Slash and Burn?
Ans.:- It is a method of farming that involves clearing land by destroying and burning all the trees and
plants on it.
Q.18:- What is Sericulture?

Ans.:- Rearing of silkworms and producing raw silk.
Q.19:- What is Support Price ?
Ans.:- Support price is the minimum and reasonable price fixed by the government at which the farmer
can sell his produce either in the open market or to the government.
Q.20:- What is shifting Agriculture?

Ans.:- It is that type of agriculture in which farmers clear the forest land and use it for growing crops. The
crops are grown for 2 to 3 years. When the fertility of the soil decreases, the farmer shifts to a new
land.
Q.21:- What is White Revolution?
Ans.:- It is also known as “Operation Flood” and is related to the increase in the production of milk.
Q.22:- What is Zaid Crops?

Ans.:- These are crops which are sown between the rabi and the kharif crops. Watermelon, muskmelon,
cucumber and vegetables are some example of zaid crops.
Q.23:- Which is the staple crop of a majority of the people in India ?
Ans.:- China.
Q.24:- Name the two most important wheat producing states of India.
Ans.:- Uttar Pradesh and Punjab.
Q.25:- Which states are the major producers of rice in India?
Ans.:- West Bengal, Uttar Pradesh, Andhra Pradesh, Punjab and Tamil Nadu.
Q.26:- Name the major pulses of India.

Ans.:- Tur, moong, masur, peas and gram.
Q.27:- What is organic farming ?
Ans.:- It is an environment friendly farming where the crops are grown without using chemical such as
fertilisers and pesticides.
Q.28:- Why was Champaran movement started.

Ans.:- Champaran movement was started in 1917 in Bihar because farmers of that region were forced to
grow indigo instead of foodgrains on their land.
Q.29:- What was the new challenges faced by Indian farmers, under globalisation after 1990?.
Ans.:- Indian farmers lost their domestic as well as international market due to subsidised agriculture in
developed countries.
Q.30:- List two characteristics of Green Revolution?

Ans.:- 1. Increase in production of wheat and rice.
2. Use of high yielding varieties of wheat and rice.
Q.31:- Which states are the major producers of jute in India ?
Ans.:- West Bengal, Bihar, Assam, Odisha and Meghalaya.
Q.32:- Why is Shifting Agriculture discouraged?

Ans.:- 1. It leads to deforestation.
2. The per hectare yield is very low.

Q.33:- Which region is ideal for the cultivation of cotton?
Ans.:- Black soil region of Deccan Plateau is ideal for the cotton cultivation.
Q.34:- Name any four fibre crops of India?

Ans.:- Cotton, Jute, Hemp and Natural Silk are the four major fibre crops of India.
Q.35:- Name an equatorial crop which is grown in India.
Ans.:- Rubber.
Q.36:- Name the rubber producing states of India.

Ans.:- Kerala, Tamil Nadu, Karnataka and Andaman and Nicobar.
Q.37:- Name any two schemes introduced by the government to benefit farmers.
Ans.:- Kissan Credit Card (KCC).
Q.38:- Name any four cereal crops of India.

Ans.:- Wheat, Rice, Millet and Maize
Q.39:- Name two cotton producing states of India.
Ans.:- Maharashtra and Gujarat
Q.40:- Which country is the largest producer of pulses in the world?
Ans.:- India.
Q.1:- Mention any three features of slash and burn agriculture.
Ans.:-
1. Farmers clear a patch of land and produce cereals and other food crops to sustain their family.
2. When the soil fertility decreases, the farmers shift and clear a fresh patch of land for cultivation.
3. This type of shifting allows nature to replenish the fertility of the soil through natural processes.
4. In this type of agriculture is low as the farmer does not use fertilisers or other modern inputs.
Q.2:- Distinguish between intensive subsistence and primitive subsistence farming.
Ans.:-
Sr. No. Primitive Subsistence Farming Intensive Subsistence Farming
1. Land productivity under this type of 1. Land productivity under this type of
agriculture remains very low. agriculture is high.
2. This type of agriculture is practised in North- 2. This type of agriculture is practised in
East states. northern plains.
3. This type of farming is practised on small 3. This type of farming is practised with the help
patches of land with the help of primitive tools of modern tools and equitments.
like hoe, dao and digging sticks etc.
Q.3:- What is commercial farming? Mention its major features.
Ans.:- Commercial farming is a type of farming under which farmers grow crops to sell in the market.
Features of Commercial Farming:-
1. Farmers use higher doses of modern inputs, for example High Yielding Variety (HYV) seeds,
chemical fertilisers, insecticides etc.
2. The per hectare productivity is very high.
3. Rice, sugarcane, tea, coffee are the major crops which are grown under this.
Q.4:- Give any three features of Zaid Crops.
Ans.:-
1. The crops which are grown in between rabi and the Kharif crops are known as Zaid crops.
2. These crops are of short duration.
3. Watermelon, cucumber, vegetables and fodder crops are most important examples of zaid crops.
4. It allow nature to replenish the fertility of the soil through natural process.
Q.1:- Why is agriculture called the mainstay of Indian Economy?
OR
What is the important of agriculture in Indian Economy?
Ans.:-
1. Agriculture is the mainly of Indian economy because about 60% of our population depends
directly or indirectly on agriculture.
2. It provides raw materials to the industries.
3. India earns foreign exchange by exporting agricultural products.
4. It contributes approximately one third to the Gross Domestic Product.
5. It provides food to over 1210.2 million population.
Q.2:-What are the geographical conditions required for the growth of Rice?
Ans.:- Rice is a Kharif crop and it is a staple crop of India. The geographical conditions required for the
growth of rice are as follows:-
(1) Temperature:- Rice is a kharif crop which requires high temperature and high humidity. It
requires high temperature about 24° C to 28° C i.e. more than 25° C.
(2) Rainfall:- Rice needs abundant rainfall, i.e. more than 100 cm rainfall annually.
(3) Soils:- Rice can grown in a variety of soils including silts loamy and gravels. But it is grown best
in alluvial soil.
(4) Lands:- Plain land or gentle slopes land are ideal for growth of rice because big amount of water
is must for the cultivation of rice.
(5) Regions:- Rice is grown in the northern plain like Punjab, Haryana, Uttar Pradesh, north-east
India and coastal areas as well as delta areas..
(6) Position of India:- India is the second largest producer country of rice in the world after China.
Q.3:-What are the geographical conditions required for the growth of Wheat?
Ans.:- Wheat is Rabi Crop. It is the main food crop in north and north western part of India. The
geographical conditions required for the growth of wheat are as follows:-
(1) Temperature:- Wheat is a Rabi crop and requires a cool growing season, average temperature
should be between 10° C to 15° C at the time of sowing but higher temperature and bright
sunshine required at the time of harvesting.
(2) Rainfall:- Wheat requires moderate rainfall of 50 cm to 75 cm annually evenly distributed over
the growing season.
(3) Soils:- Deep alluvial clayey soil of Northern plain and even black soil of Deccan are most suitable
for the growth of Wheat.
(4) Lands:- Plain land with gentle slope is ideal for wheat cultivation..
(5) Regions:- There are two important wheat growing regions in India.
(1) Ganga Satluj plain in the North-west
(2) Black soil region of the deccan.
(6) Major Producing states:- Uttar Pradesh, Punjab, Haryana, Bihar, Rajasthan, Madhya Pradesh.
Q.4:-What are the geographical conditions required for the growth of Cotton?
Ans.:- Cotton is also a staple crop of India. India is largest producer country of cotton in the world. It has
been called Universal Fiber. In India cotton has been used since 3000 BCE. Geographical
conditions requires for the growth of cotton are as follows:-
(1) Temperature:- Cotton need high summer temperature between 22°C to 32°C. it also requires
bright sunshine.
(2) Rainfall:- Cotton needs light to moderate rainfall between 50 to 100 cm rainfall annually.
(3) Soils:- Black soils are most suitable for the growth of cotton on besides this loamy soil mixed with
lime and potash is good for cotton cultivation.
(4) Lands:- Plain lands or gentle slope lands are good for cotton cultivation.
(5) Major Producing States:- Maharashtra, Gujarat, Punjab Uttar Pradesh etc.
Q.5:-What are the geographical conditions required for the growth of Jute?
Ans.:- Jute is a Kharif crop. It is also known as Golden Fiber. It shown in March-April on low land and in
May-June on up lands. The geographical and climate conditions for the cultivation of Jute are as
follows:-
(1) Temperature:- Jute requires average monthly temperature 30°C to 34°C. Average humidity of
80% to 90% is necessary for jute growth.
(2) Rainfall:- Jute is a thrusty plant so it requires more than 100 cm annually rainfall.
(3) Soils:- New alluvial are most suitable for the cultivation of Jute.
(4) Lands:- Plain and gentle slope land is good for Jute cultivation.
(5) Major Producing States:- West Bengal, Assam, Meghalaya, Bihar, Odissa and Jharkhand.
Q.6:-What are the geographical conditions required for the growth of Sugarcane?
Ans.:- India is the largest sugarcane producing country in the world. Though her per hectare production is
lower than Cuba. Sugarcane is a product of tropical and sub- tropical countries. The climate and
geographical conditions for the growth of sugarcane are as follows:-
(1) Temperature:- The ideal temperature for the cultivation of Sugarcane 21°C to 28°C annually.
(2) Rainfall:- 75-100cm rainfall is ideal for sugarcane production in tropical and sub-tropical regions.
Sugarcane is grown abundantly due to long period of rainy season.
(3) Soils:- Loamy fertile soil mixed with salt and Lime is good for sugarcane production.
(4) Lands:- Plain land with gentle slope is ideal for sugarcane cultivation..
(5) Regions:- Uttar Pradesh, is the largest producing state of sugarcane in India followed by Punjab,
Haryana, Bihar, Maharashtra.
Q.7:-What are the geographical conditions required for the growth of Tea?
Ans.:- Tea is a beverage crop. Tea is often called the “Queen of Beverages”. It is a plantation crop
introduced by the Britishers in India in 1823. Geographical conditions for the growth of Tea are as
follows:-
(1) Temperature:- Tea requires uniformly high temperature i.e. 20°C to 30°C annually. Cold
temperature is harmful for the growth of tea leaves.
(2) Rainfall:- An annual rainfall of 150 cm to 300 cm essential for the growth of Tea plantation.
(3) Soils:- Tea requires a deep fertile hilly soil.
(4) Lands:- Tea is grown on well drained gentle hilly slopes land and valley side lands.
(5) Major Producing States:- Assam is the largest Tea producing state of India followed by
Meghalaya, West Bengal, Karnataka and Tamil Nadu.
(6) Position of India:- India is the second largest producer country of Tea in the world after china.
Q.8:-Describe the impact of globalisation on Indian agriculture.
Ans.:- Globalization is the new trend in the world scenario, which aims at integrating our economy with
that of the world:
1. Its aim is to be realised within a certain time frame.
2. It is based on free and open international trade.
3. It ensures that only quality and competitive goods would survive the world market.
Impact of globalisation on Indian agriculture:-
1. Indian farmers now are exposed to a new industrial environment.
2. They would have to compete with other farmers of other countries in producing quality and
competitive goods.
3. With the use of favourable climatic conditions and soil conditions, improved and new implements,
efficient labour we would have to produce goods, which could complete in the world markets.
4. India would need the technologies being used by foreign countries. Infrastructure like the
development of roads, electricity, irrigation, and credit facilities will have to be developed.
Important Maps of Agriculture (Geography)

1. Rice:- The main rice-producing states are Tamil Nadu, West Bengal, Andhra Pradesh, Bihar, Odisha,
Uttar Pradesh, etc.
2. Wheat:- The major wheat-producing states are Uttar Pradesh, Punjab, Haryana, Madhya Pradesh, and
Rajasthan.
3. Sugarcane:- The major sugarcane-producing states are Uttar Pradesh, Maharashtra, Karnataka, Tamil
Nadu, Bihar, etc.
4. Tea:- Major tea-producing states are Assam, the hills of Darjeeling and Jalpaiguri districts, West
Bengal, Tamil Nadu, and Kerala.
5. Coffee:- Karnataka, Kerala, and Tamil Nadu are the main states of coffee production in India.
6. Rubber:- Rubber is mainly grown in Kerala, Tamil Nadu, Karnataka, and the Garo hills of Meghalaya.
7. Cotton:- Major cotton-producing states are Maharashtra, Gujarat, Madhya Pradesh, Karnataka, etc.
8. Jute:- West Bengal, Bihar, Assam, Odisha, and Meghalaya are the major jute-producing states.
Minerals and Energy Resources

Q.1:- What is Mineral ?

Ans.:- A substance which is found in the earth’s crust and which generally has a definite chemical
composition.
Q.2:- What is Mineral Ore?

Ans.:- Mineral ore is the raw metal extracted from the earth. It is found mixed with soil and other
impurities.
Q.3:- What is Minig ?

Ans.:- Mining is an economic activity of extracting minerals from the earth.
Q.4:- What is Fossil Fuels?

Ans.:- These are fuels formed by the decomposition of organism under the earth or the seabed.
Q.5:- What are Non-ferrous minerals ?

Ans.:- Mineral devoid of iron contents are termed as non-ferrous minerals. For example:- Zinc and lead.
Q.6:- What are Ferrous minerals?

Ans.:- These are the metals which contain iron. For example:- Iron ore and manganese ore.
Q.7:- Define Thermal Electricity.

Ans.:- The electricity produced by using Coal, petroleum or splitting atomic minerals in controlled
condition.
Q.8:- What is Hydroelectricity?

Ans.:- The electricity generated from water.
Q.9:- What are Conventional Resources ?

Ans.:- These are non-renewable sources of energy. For example Coal.
Q.10:- What are Non-conventional resources ?

Ans.:- These are renewable sources of energy. For example- Solar Energy.
Q.11:- What is Nuclear Energy ?

Ans.:- It is the energy which is obtained by splitting the atom, under controlled conditions. As the power
is derived by splitting the nucleus of an atom. It is known as the nuclear energy.
Q.12:- What are Veins and Lodes?

Ans.:- In igneous and metamorphic rocks, minerals may occur in the cracks, crevices faults or joints. The
smaller occurrences are called the Veins and the larger ones are called the Lodes.
Q.13:- What is Magnetite ?

Ans.:- This is the best quality of iron ore and contains about 72% iron. It has excellent magnetite
qualities, especially valuable in the electrical industry.
Q.14:- What is Hematite?

Ans.:- It is the most important industrial iron ore in terms of the quantity used. It contains about 50% to
60% of pure iron.
Q.15:- Define Energy.

Ans.:- The resources which are used for generating energy are known as energy resources. Coal
petroleum, uranium, etc. are some of the important energy resources.
Q.16:- Who is Geologist?

Ans.:- A scientist who study origin and structure of earth.
Q.17:- Why do minerals have wide range of colours, hardness, crystal forms, lustre and density?
Ans.:- This is because minerals are formed under different physical and chemical conditions.
Q.18:- Mention any two properties which are used by the geologist to classify minerals.
Ans.:- Colour, hardness, lustre and density.
Q.19:- List any two energy mineral?

Ans.:- Coal and Petroleum.
Q.20:- What is an ore? Name any two iron ores.

Ans.:- A naturally occurring solid material from which a metal or valuable mineral can be extracted
profitably. For example, Magnetite and hematite.
Q.21:- Name any two carrier rocks of minerals.

Ans.:- Igneous and metamorphic rocks.
Q.22:- Name any two minerals which have been formed as a result of evaporation.
Ans.:- Gypsum, potash salt and sodium salt.
Q.23:- What are placer deposits?

Ans.:- The alluvial deposits containing minerals that occur in sands of valley floors and the base of hills.
Gold, silver, tin and platinum are obtained from placer deposits.
Q.24:- Which is the best variety of iron ore ?

Ans.:- Magnetite- 70% iron.
Q.25:- Which state is the largest producer of manganese ?

Ans.:- Odisha.
Q.26:- Which state is the largest producer of copper?

Q.27:- Name any two important copper mines of India.

Ans.:- 1. Balaghat mines – Madhya Pradesh 2. Khetri mines - Rajasthan
Q.28:- Mention any two mica belt of India.

Ans.:- 1. Koderma Gaya- Hazaribagh belt of Jharkhand 2. Nellore – Andhra Pradesh.
Q.29:- Name any two states which are the leading producers of mica.
Ans.:- Jharkhand and Rajasthan.
Q.30:- Which is the most popular coal for commercial use?

Ans.:- Bituminous.
Q.31:- Which is the highest quality hard coal?

Ans.:- Anthracite.
Q.32:- What is CNG? Why is it gaining popularity ?

Ans.:- CNG is Compressed Natural Gas which is a clean fuel. It is gaining popularity because it is an
environment friendly fuel.
Q.33:- What is H.V.J. ?

Ans.:- H.V.J. or Hazira-Vijaipur- Jagdishpur pipeline is a gas pipeline which links Mumbai High and
Bassien with the fertilizer, power and industrial complexes in western and northern India.
Q.34:- What is bio-gas ?

Ans.:- Bio-gas is the energy obtained from organic waste which is converted into energy by direct
combustion or by conversion of such wastes into alcohol, methane or other storage fuels.
Q.35:- How is bauxite ore formed?

Ans.:- Bauxite ore is formed through the decomposition of surface rocks and the removal of soluble
constituents, leaving a residual mass of weathered material containing ores.
Q.36:- Which state is the largest producer of copper?

Q.1:- Explain the distribution of coal in India.

Ans.:-
1. In India coal occurs in rocks series of two main geological ages, namely Gondawana, a little over
200 million years in age and in tertiary deposits which are only about 55 million years old.
2. The major resources of Gondawana coal, which are metallurgical coal, are located in Damodar
Valley (West Bengal-Jharkhand), Jharia, Raniganj, Bokaro are important coalfields.
3. The Godavari, Mahanadi, Son a d Wardha Valleys also contain coal deposits.
4. Tertiary coals occur in the north eastern states of Meghalaya, Assam, Arunachal Pradesh and
Nagaland.
Q.2:- What is the importance of mineral oil or petroleum for the Indian Economy?
Ans.:-
1. Petroleum or mineral oil is the second most important energy source of India.
2. It provides fuel for heat and lighting, lubricants for machinery and raw materials for a number of
manufacturing industries.
3. Petroleum refineries act as a “nodal industry” for synthetic textile, fertiliser and numerous
chemical industries.
Q.3:- “Natural gas is an important clean energy resource.” Justify by giving three reasons.
OR
What is the importance of natural gas?
Ans.:-
1. Natural gas is an important clean energy resource because of low carbon dioxide emission.
2. It is used as a source of energy as well as an industrial raw material in the petrochemical industry.
3. Compressed Natural Gas (CNG) is gaining wide popularity as fuel for vehicles.
Q.4:- “Natural gas is considered an environmental friendly fuel. Suggest and explain and three ways to
make it popular.
OR
Suggest and explain any three ways to reduce the use of petrol.
Ans.:-
1. We need to invest more to discover reserves of natural gas.
2. We need to lay more gas pipe lines like those of H.V.J. or Hazira-Vijaipur- Jagdishpur pipeline
3. We need to replace liquid fuel with Compressed Natural gas.
4. The availability of natural gas and other energy resources will reduce the demand of liquid fuel
like petrol.
Q.5:- How is atomic energy produced? Explain.

Ans.:-
1. The energy which is obtained by altering the structure of an atom is known as nuclear or atomic
energy.
2. A tremendous amount of energy is released when the structure of a radioactive atom (such as
uranium, thorium or plutonium) is alternated.
3. The heat released during such a reaction in used to generate electric power.
Q.6:- What is the utility of manganese ? Describe its distibution.

Ans.:-
1. It is an important mineral which is used for making iron and steel.
2. It acts as a basic raw material for manufacturing its alloy.
3. It is also used for the manufacturing of bleaching power, insecticide, paints, batteries etc.
4. Odisha, Madhya Pradesh, Maharastra, Karnataka are the largest producer states of manganese.
Q.7:- Explain the formation of bauxite and name metal obtained from it.
Ans.:-
1. Bauxite is formed by the intense weathering of surface rocks.
2. Bauxite deposits are formed by the decomposition of a wide variety of rocks rich in aluminium
silicates.
3. Aluminium is extracted from Bauxite.
Q.8:- What are the uses of copper? Mention any two leading copper producing states of India.
Ans.:-
1. Copper is malleable and ductile. So, it is used in electrical cables, electronics, and chemical
industries.
2. It is also used in making cooking utensils, radiators, and refrigerators.
3. Madhya Pradesh and Rajasthan are the leading copper producing states of India.
Q.9:- What is Solar System? What is its importance?

Ans.:- The energy obtained from the sun is called the solar energy.
1. Solar energy is free of cost.
2. It does not cause any pollution.
3. It is a non-conventional source of energy.
4. It will reduce the dependence of rural households on firewood and dung cakes.
Q.10:- Differentiate between hydroelectricity and thermal electricity.

Ans.:-
Sr. No. Hydroelectricity Thermal electricity
1. Hydroelectricity is generated by fast flowing 1. Thermal electricity is generated by using
water which drives turbines to generate coal, petroleum and natural gas.
electricity.
2. It is a renewable resource and is cheap. 2. The thermal power stations use non-
renewable fossil fuels.
3. India has several multipurpose projects like 3. There are over 310 thermal power plants in
the Bhakra Nangal, Damodar Valley India.
Cor-poration etc. producing hydroelectric
power.
Q.11:- Distinguish between Metallic minerals and Non-metallic minerals.

Ans.:-
Sr. No. Metallic minerals Non-metallic
1. Metallic minerals are those which provide 1. Non-metallic minerals are those which do
metal after processing such as iron, copper, not provide metals such as mica, potash,
aluminium, etc. coal, limestone, etc.
2. They are often hard. 2. They are not so hard.
3. They are generally associated with igneous 3. They are generally associated with
rocks. sedimentary rocks.
4. They have a lustre or shine of their own. 4. They do not have a shine.
5. They are ductile and malleable. 5. They are not ductile and malleable.
Q.12:- Suggest ways to conserve energy resources in India.

Ans.:- Ways to conserve energy resources are:
1. We must adopt a cautious approach to the judicious use of our limited energy resources.
2. Using public transport systems instead of individual vehicles.
3. Switching off electricity when not in use.
4. Using power-saving devices
5. Using non-conventional sources of energy.
Q.13:- How is tidal energy generated?

Ans.:-
1. Floodgate dams are built across inlets.
2. The water flows into the inlet during high tide and gets trapped when the gate is closed.
3. Once the tide recedes, the gates are opened so that water can flow back to the sea/ocean.
4. The flow of water is used to run the turbine to generate electricity.
Q.14:- Why do you think that solar energy has a bright future in India?
Ans.:- Solar energy has a bright future in India because:-
1. India is blessed with plenty of solar energy because most parts of the country receive a bright
monsoon period.
2. India has developed technology to use solar energy for cooking, water heating, space heating, crop
drying, etc.
3. It is an abundant, inexhaustible, and universal source of energy.
4. India is a tropical country.
5. It is pollution-free.
Q.15:- Distinguish between Anthracite Coal and Bituminous Coal.

Ans.:-
Sr. No. Anthracite Coal Bituminous Coal.
1. Contains more than 80% carbon. 1. Contains 60% to 80% carbon.
2. It is hard, black and compact. 2. It is of a lower grade than anthracite.
3. It is of the best quality. 3. It is of medium quality.
4. It is found in J & K. 4. It is found in Jharkhand, Orissa, West
Bengal, Madhya Pradesh and Chhattisgarh.
Q.1:- Why should we conserve minerals? Suggest three ways to conserve minerals.
Ans.:- We need to conserve minerals because:-
1. The strong dependence of industry and agriculture upon mineral deposits and the substances
manufactured from them.
2. The geological processes of mineral formation are very slow.
3. Mineral resources are finite and non-renewable.
4. Continued extraction of ores leads to increasing costs as mineral extraction comes from greater
depths along with a decrease in quality.
Ways to conserve minerals:
1. A concerted effort has to be made in order to use mineral resources in a planned and sustainable
manner.
2. Improved technologies need to be constantly evolved to allow the use of low-grade ores at low
costs.
3. Recycling of metals, using scrap metals and other substitutes.
Q.2:- Why do you think that solar energy has a bright future in India?
Ans.:- Solar energy has a promising future in India for a few key reasons.
1. Firstly, India enjoys a lot of sunshine throughout the year, making it an ideal place to harness solar
power. The country receives ample solar radiation, which means solar energy production is highly
efficient.
2. Secondly, the Indian government is strongly committed to promoting renewable energy, especially
solar power. They have implemented various policies and initiatives like the National Solar
Mission, which aims to achieve a substantial solar power capacity by 2022. This has created a
positive regulatory environment and attractive incentives for solar energy projects.
3. Thirdly, the costs of solar technologies have been decreasing, making solar energy more
affordable and competitive compared to traditional sources. This has led to an increased adoption
of solar power in India.
Q.3:- “There is an urgent need to develop a sustainable path of energy development” Explain.
Ans.:-
1. Energy is a basic input which is required for all human activities such as to cook food, for light
and heat etc.
2. Most of the energy sources like coal, mineral oil etc. are limited. So we should use them
judiciously.
3. We are rapidly consuming energy resources that required millions of years to be created and
concentrated.
4. Overuse of energy especially the non-renewable can lead to environmental pollution.
5. While using our energy resources we have to keep in mind the need of future generations.
Important Maps of Minerals and Energy Resources

1. Minerals (Identification only):-
1. Iron Ore mines:- 1. Mayurbhanj 2. Durg 3. Bailadila 4. Bellary 5. Kudremukh
2. Coal Mines:- 1. Raniganj 2. Bokaro 3. Talcher 4. Neyveli

3. Oil Fields:- 1. Digboi 2. Naharkatia 3. Mumbai High 4. Bassien 5. Kalol 6. Ankleshwar
2. Power Plants (Locating and Labelling only)

1. Thermal Power Plants:- 1. Namrup 2. Singrauli 3. Ramagundam
2. Power Plants (Locating and Labelling only)
1. Thermal:- 1. Namrup 2. Singrauli 3. Ramagundam

2. Nuclear Power Plants:- 1. Narora 2.Kakrapara 3. Tarapur 4. Kalpakkam

Manufacturing Industries
Q.1:- Define the term Industry.

Ans.:- Industry refers to an economic activity that mainly deals with the production of goods like iron and
steel industry, extraction of minerals like coal mining industry and the provision of services like
tourism industry. The industry is mainly divided into three sectors as primary, secondary and
tertiary sectors.
Q.2:- What do you mean by manufacturing?
Ans.:- Production of goods in the factories in large quantities after processing from raw materials to more
valuable products is called manufacturing.
Q.3:- What are Agro-based Industries?

Ans.:- The industry which converts the agricultural products into industrial products are called agro-based
industries.
Q.4:- Define the term Basic Industries.

Ans.:- These are the heavy industries which are fundamental to other industries. For example:- Iron and
Steel Industry.
Q.5:- What are Co-operative Industries.
Ans.:- These industries are organised by a group of people who are also the producers of raw materials
and help in running industries by co-operating with each.
Q.6:- Define Consumer Industries.

Ans.:- These industries provide goods primarily for the consumption of people.
Q.7:- What are Cottage Industries?

Ans.:- These industries are the ones which are practiced on a small scale in homes or villages.
Q.8:- What are Heavy Industries?
Ans.:- These industries use heavy raw materials and manufacture finished products. For example:- Iron
and Steel Industry.
Q.9:- What are Joint Sector Industries?

Ans.:- These industries are owned by the state and some private industrialist or firms.
Q.10:- What are Light Industries?

Ans.:- These industries use light raw materials and make light finished products in weight. For example
electronics and fans.
Q.11:- What are Large Scale Industries?
Ans.:- These industries employ large production level. For example:- Jute, Textile, Iron and Steel etc.
Q.12:- What are Mineral based industries?

Ans.:- The industry in which mineral products are processed and turned into finished goods are called
mineral based industries. For example:- Iron and Steel Industries and Aluminium Industry.
Q.13:- What are Public Sector Industries?

Ans.:- The industries which are owned and managed by government (Central or State government)
through its agencies are called public sector industries.
Q.14:- What are Private Sector Industries?

Ans.:- The industries which are owned and managed by individuals and group of people, firms or
companies are called private sector industries.
Q.15:- Define primary industries.
Ans.:- The industries which are produce raw materials are called primary industries.
Q.16:- Define Secondary industries.

Ans.:- The industries which are manufacture goods by using processed materials of the primary industry.
Q.17:- What are Small Scale Industries?

Ans.:- These industries employ small number of workers and invest capital less than 1 crore. For example
readymade garments etc.
Q.18:- Why has the government set up the National Manufacturing Competitiveness Council?
Ans.:- To improve the productivity of the manufacturing industries so that it can achieve higher growth
rate.
Q.19:- “State any two components through which countries economic strength is measured.
Ans.:- 1. Development of manufacturing industries.
2. Development of agriculture.
Q.20:- Define Agglomeration economies.

Ans.:- Agglomeration economics are the benefits that come when firms and people locate near one
another in cities and industrial clusters.
Q.21:- State any two physical factors that affect the location of industries.
Ans.:- 1. Availability of raw materials. 2. Availability of power resources
Q.22:- Which is the largest industry of India? Name any four states where this industry is located.
Ans.:- Cotton textile industry. Maharashtra, Gujarat, West Bengal and Uttar Pradesh.
Q.23:- Name any two important cotton textile centres of Maharashtra.

Ans.:- Mumbai, Pune, Nagpur and Wardha.
Q.24:- Name any two important cotton textile centres of Gujarat.

Ans.:- Ahmedabad, Rajkot, Vadodra and Porbander.
Q.25:- Name the two states in which most of the sugar mills are concentrated.
Ans.:- 1. Uttar Pradesh 2. Bihar.
Q.24:- “Sugar industry is ideally suited to the co-operative sector”. Give reasons.
Ans.:- 1. Sugar industry is seasonal in nature.
2. This industry is dependent on raw material which cannot be produced by a single producer.
Q.26:- “Cotton textile industry has close links with agriculture”. Justify.
Ans.:- 1. The industry has close links with agriculture and provides a living to farmers, cotton ball
pluckers and workers engaged in ginning.
2. Agriculture provides raw material to the industry i.e., raw cotton.
Q.27:- Which state is the leading producer of jute products in India?

Ans.:- West Bengal.
Q.28:- Name Iron and Steel plants of Jharkhand.

Ans.:- Bokaro and Jamshedpur.
Q.29:- Which steel plant is located in Chhattisgarh?

Ans.:- The Bhilai Steel plant is located in Chhattisgarh.
Q.30:- “Iron and Steel Industry is known as the basic industry.” Give a reason.
Ans.:- All the other industries- heavy, medium and light depend on it for their machinery.
Q.31:- Where and when was the first cement plant established?
Ans.:- Chennai in 1904.
Q.32:- What are the harmful effects of nuclear energy? Mention any two points.
Ans.:- 1. Wastes from nuclear power plants cause cancer, birth defects and miscarriages.
2. The radioactive materials cause adverse impact on the aquatic life.
Q.33:- Where and when was the first successful textile mill established in India?
Ans.:- The first successful textile mill was established in Bombay (now Mumbai) in 1854.
Q.34:- From which mineral is aluminium obtained?

Ans.:- Aluminium is obtained from Bauxite.
Q.35:- Which city is known as the electronic capital of India?
Ans.:- Bengaluru is known as the electronic capital of India.
Q.36:- What is a software technology park? How many such parks do we have? Name the technology
park which is closest to Delhi.
Ans.:- Software technology parks provide single window service and high data communication facility to
software experts.We have 18 software technology parks. Noida Software Technology Park is the
closest to Delhi.
Q.1:- What is the meaning of a manufacturing industry? Why is it considered the backbone of economic
development? Give two reasons.
Ans.:- Production of goods in the factories in large quantities after processing from raw materials to more
valuable products is called manufacturing industry.
1. It helps in modernizing agriculture, which is the base of our economy.
2. It reduces heavy dependence on agricultural income by providing jobs in non-agricultural
sectors.
3. Industrial development is necessary for eradication of poverty and unemployment because
people get jobs and generate more income.
4. Export of manufactured goods expands trade and brings in much needed foreign exchange.
5. Industries bring riches faster to a nation because manufacturing changes raw materials into
finished goods of a higher value, so industrial development brings prosperity to the country.
Q.2:- “Agriculture and Industry move hand in hand.” Analyse the statement with three examples.
OR
“Agriculture and Industry are complimentary to each other.” Support the statement giving three
points.
Ans.:- A close relationship exists between agriculture and manufacturing industries. They are complement
each other because.
1. There are various industries which require the inputs from the agricultural sector. For example, the
cotton textile industry requires cotton from the agricultural sector.
2. Agriculture sector requires various input for its modernization which are provided by the
industrial sector. For example, insecticides, pesticides, PVC pipes, irrigation systems etc.
3. The agriculture sector provides a market to the industrial sector's goods. The consumer the
products produced by the industries such as clothes, television etc.
4. The excess labour from the agricultural sector gets absorbed in the industrial sector.
5. The agriculture sector provide the food grains the labours employed in the industrial sector to keep
them healthy and making them productive.
Q.3:- List the major factors which affect the location of an industry at a place. What is the key to the
decision of ‘factory location’?
Ans.:-
1. Raw material. Cheap and abundant availability of raw material. Industries which use heavy and
perishable raw material must be located close to the source of raw material.
2. Labour. Availability of cheap labour is necessary for keeping the cost of production low.
3. Power. Cheap and continuous supply of power is extremely necessary for continuity in the
production process.
4. Capital. It is necessary for developing infrastructure, for the entire manufacturing process and for
meeting manufacturing expenditure.
5. Banking and insurance facilities, favourable government policies are other factors which affect
location of an industry.
6. The ‘key’ to the decision of a factory location is least cost so that the venture is profitable.
Q.4:- State any five basis on which industries are classified.

Ans.:-
1. On the basis of source of raw materials used — Agro-based and mineral-based.
2. According to their main role — Basic and Consumer industries.
3. On the basis of capital investment—Small-scale and large-scale industries.
4. On the basis of ownership — Public Sector, Private Sector, Cooperative Sector, Joint Sector.
5. Based on the bulk and weight of raw material and finished goods—Heavy industries, Light
industries.
Q.5:- Why is iron and steel industry called the basic or key industry? Explain. (2012 OD)
Ans.:-
1. Since all the other industries heavy, medium and light, depend on it for their machinery.
2. Steel is needed to manufacture a variety of engineering goods.
3. Steel is needed for construction material, defence and medical equipment’s.
4. Steel is needed for telephonic, scientific equipment and a variety of consumer goods.
5. Production and consumption of steel is often regarded as the index of a country’s development.
Q.6:- Why are most of the iron and steel industries concentrated in and around Chotanagpur Plateau
Region? Give reasons.
Ans.:-
1. Low cost of iron-ore which is mined here.
2. High grade raw materials in close proximity.
3. Availability of cheap labour.
4. Vast growth potential in the home market.
5. Efficient transport network for their distribution to the markets and consumers.
6. Availability of power because this region has many thermal and hydel power plants.
7. Liberalisation and FDI have also given boost to the industry with efforts of private entrepreneurs.
Q.7:- Explain how do industries cause air pollution.

Ans.:- Air pollution is caused by the industries in the following ways:
1. The presence of high proportion of undesirable gases, such as sulphur dioxide and carbon
monoxide in the smoke emitted from the industries causes air pollution.
2. Smoke is emitted by chemical and paper factories, brick kilns, refineries, and smelting plants, and
burning of fossil fuels in factories that ignore pollution norms.
3. Air-borne particulate materials contain both solid and liquid particles like dust, sprays, mist, and
smoke.
4. Toxic gas leaks can be very hazardous with long-term effects, e.g., Bhopal gas leak tragedy.
Q.8:- Classify industries on the basis of capital investment. How are they different from one another?
Explain with examples.
Ans.:- On the basis of capital investment industries can be classified as:
1. Small-scale industry: - If the investment is less than one crore rupees in any industry, it is
considered as a large scale industry. For example, Plastic industry, Toys industry.
2. Large-scale industry:- If the investment is more than ten crore rupees in any industry, it is
considered as a small scale industry. For example, Iron and Steel industry, Cement industry.
Q.9:- Distinguish between the Light industry and the Heavy industry.
Ans.:-
Sr. No. Light Industry Heavy Industry
1. These industries use light raw materials. 1. These industries use heavy and bulk raw
materials.
2. Finished product of these industries are light. 2. Finished product of these industries are
heavy.
3. Electronic industry, manufacturing of pen
etc. 3. Iron and steel, sugar and cement industry.
Q.10:- Distinguish between the Co-operative Sector industry and the Private Sector industry.
Ans.:-
Sr. No. Co-operative Sector Private Sector industry
1. These industries are run on a co-operative 1. These industries are owned by the
basis by a group of people. individuals or firms.
2. The capital is invested by shareholders. 2. The capital is invested by individuals or

firms organised by the individuals.
3. Examples:- Anand Milk Union Limited in 3. Examples:- TATA Iron and Steel Company,
Gujarat and Sugar industries in Uttar Pradesh Air Tel, Reliance etc.
and Maharashtra.
Q.11:- Distinguish between the Agro based industry and the Mineral based industry.
Ans.:-
Sr. No. Agro based Industries Mineral based Industries
1. These industries derive their raw materials 1. These industries derive their raw materials
from agriculture. from minerals.
2. The capital is invested by shareholders. 2. They usually provide employment both rural
and the urban areas.
3. They mostly produce consumer goods. 3. These industries produce both consumer and
value based goods.
4. Examples:- Sugar, Jute, Textile, Vegetable 4. Examples:- Iron and steel, engineering ship
Oil etc. building, machine tools etc.
Q.12:- Distinguish between the Joint Sector Industry and the Co-operative industry.
Ans.:-
Sr. No. Joint Sector Industry Co-operative industry
1. Joint industries are jointly run by the state 1. Co-operative sector industries are owned and
and individuals or a group of individuals . operated by the produce or suppliers of raw
materials, workers or both.
2. Raw material providers do not get any share

in the profit made by the industry. 2. They pool in the resources and share the
profit and losses proportionately.
3. For example, Oil India Ltd.
3. For example, sugar industry Maharashtra and
Uttar Pradesh.
Q.1:- Classification of Industries on the base of ownership

Ans.:- Classification of industries on the base of ownership
Public Sector Private Sector Joint Sector Co-operative Sector

Industries Industries Industries Industries
1. Public Sector Industries:- These type of industries are owned and operated by the Government.
Hindustan Aeronautics Limited (HAL), Bharat Heavy Electricals Ltd (BHEL), Steel Authority of
India Ltd (SAIL) are the examples of Public sector industries.
2. Private Sector Industries:- These type of industries are owned and operated by individuals or a
group of individuals. Example: Bajaj Auto, Reliance, etc.
3. Joint Sector Industries:- These types of industries are owned and operated jointly by the
Government and Individuals or a Group of Individuals. Example: Indian Oil Sky Tanking Ltd,
Indian Synthetic Rubber Ltd, Mahanagar Gas Ltd, Maruti Udyog etc.,
4. Co-operative Sector Industries:- Industries of this kind are owned and operated by the producers
or suppliers of raw materials or workers or both. Anand Milk Union Limited (AMUL) is the best
example of the Co-operative sector.
Q.2:- What is the importance of the manufacturing industries?
OR
“The economic strength of a country is measured by the development of manufacturing industries.”
Support the statement with arguments.
OR
“Manufacturing sector is the backbone of economic development.” Explain with examples.
Ans.:-
1. Employment:- Manufacturing industry is the main source of employment for a large number of
skilled as well as unskilled workers.
2. Foreign Exchange:-Export of manufactured goods brings foreign exchange to India.
3. Reduction of pressure on land:- Manufacturing industry reduces pressure on land by providing
employment to workers.
4. Daily needs:- Manufacturing industry produces products of daily needs, and helps the common
people to fulfil their basic needs.
5. Utilisation of Natural Resources:- Utilisation of huge volume of natural resources has become
possible with the development of industries in the country.
Important Maps of Minerals and Energy Resources

1. Manufacturing Industries (Locating and Labelling Only)
A. Cotton Textile Industries:- 1. Mumbai 2. Indore 3. Surat 4. Kanpur 5. Coimbatore
2. Iron and Steel Plants:- 1. Durgapur 2. Bokaro 3. Jamshedpur 4. Bhilai 5. Vijayanagar 6.

Salem
3. Software Technology Parks:- 1. Noida 2. Gandhinagar 3. Mumbai 4. Pune

5. Hyderabad 6. Bengaluru 7. Chennai 8.
Thiruvananthapuram
Important Maps of Lifeline of National Economy (Geography)

1. Major Sea Ports (Locating and Labelling):- 1. Kandla 2. Mumbai 3. Marmagao
4. New Mangalore 5. Kochi 6. Tuticorin 7. Chennai 8. Vishakhapatnam 9. Paradip 10. Haldia
2. International Airports:- 1. Amritsar (Raja Sansi - Sri Guru Ram Dass Jee)
2. Delhi (Indira Gandhi) 3. Mumbai (Chhatrapati Shivaji) 4. Chennai (Meenam Bakkam)
5. Kolkata (Netaji Subhash Chandra Bose) 6. Hyderabad (Rajiv Gandhi)
Power Sharing
Lesson-1 (Civics)
Q.1:- Which community in Belgium was relatively rich and powerful?

Ans.:- The Minority French speaking.
Q.2:- Which are the most important social groups of Sri Lanka?
Ans.:- (1) Sinhala speaking (2) Tamil speaking
Q.3:- Which ethnic group is in majority in Sri Lanka?

Ans.:- Sinhala
Q.4:- Name the two subgroups of Tamils in Sri Lanka.

Ans.:- (1) Sri Lanka Tamils (2) Indian Tamils
Q.5:- When did Sri Lanka emerge as an independent nation?

Ans.:- 4th February 1948
Q.6:- Name the ethnic groups of Sri Lanka which were involved in a Civil War.
Ans.:- (1) Sri Lankan Tamils of the Sinhalese
(2) Indian Tamils
Q.7:- What is Majoritarianism? Name a country which has lost peace due to this.
Ans.:- A belief that the majority community should be able to rule a country in whichever way it wants,
by disregarding the wishes and needs of the minority. Sri Lanka.
Q.8:- What is a Federal Government?

Ans.:- It is a government under which two or more than two sets of governments govern the country.
Q.9:- What is a reserved constituency?

Ans.:- A reserved constituency is a constituency which is reserved for a particular section of the society.
Q.10:- What is the importance of reserved constituency ?

Ans.:- This type of arrangement is meant to give space in the government and administration to diverse
social group who otherwise would fell alienated from the government.
Q.11:- What is the system of checks and balances in power sharing ?

Ans.:- Under this system, one organ of the government keeps the check over the other. None of the organs
can exercise unlimited powers. This keeps a balance of power among various institutions.
Q.12:- What is a Coalition Government?

Ans.:- A coalition government is a cabinet of parliament government in which several parties cooperate. It
generally happens when no party gets majority in the parliament and several parties join together
to prove their majority.
Q.13:- Which is the state religion of Sri Lanka?

Ans.:- Buddhism.
Q.14:- Which two languages are generally spoken in Belgium?

Ans.:- French and Dutch
Q.15:- Give one example of horizontal sharing of power.

Ans.:- Power sharing among Legislature, Executive and Judiciary.
Q.16:- Who elects the community government in Belgium?

Ans.:- People belonging to one language community Dutch, French and German.
Q.17:- What is the language spoken by the people residing in the Wallonia region of Belgium?
Ans.:- French
Q.18:- State any one step taken in Belgium to rule out the problem of regional differences and cultural
diversities.
Ans.:- To accommodate people belonging to different ethnic groups Belgium formed a Community
government.
Q.19:- How were Dutch and French speaking people accommodated in the “Community Government” in
Belgium?
Ans.:- By giving equal share to both the communities in the Union Government.
Q.20:- What is separation of power?

Ans:- The separation of power is the power sharing among the different organs of government with their
specific jurisdiction.
Q.21:- What does the federal division of power imply?

Ans.:- The term federal division implies power sharing at different levels government.
Q.1:- Why is the ethnic composition of Belgium very complex?

Ans.:- The ethnic composition of Belgium is very complex because of various language speaking people
like:-
1. Belgium is a small country in Europe. Its population is little over one crore.
2. It has borders with Netherlands, France, Germany and Luxembourg.
3. Of the country’s total population, 59 percent lives in the Flemish region and speaks Dutch
language.
4. Another 40 percent lives in the Wallonia region and speaks French.
5. Remaining one per cent of the Belgium speaks German.
6. Besides, in the capital city of Brussels, 80 percent people speak French while 20 percent are Dutch
speaking.
Q.2:- Describe the geographical and ethnic composition of Sri Lanka.

Ans.:- The geographical and ethnic composition of Sri Lanka is given below:-
1. Sri Lanka is an island country just a few kilometers off the southern coast of Tamil Nadu.
2. Its population is about Two Crore.
3. Sinhala speaking accounts for 74 percent of the total population and enjoys majoritarian status in
the country.
4. The another community is Tamil speaking which has two sub-groups.
(1) The Sri Lankan Tamils which are 13 percent.
(2) The Indian Tamils which are 5 percent.
5. About 7 percent of the population is Christians (both Tamils and Sinhalas)
6. Rest 1 percent are Muslims.
Q.3:- What do you mean by power sharing?

Ans.:-
1. Power sharing means sharing of responsibility and powers among different organs and levels of
government.
2. It is a strategy for resolving disputes over exercising of power.
3. It is a powerful approach to unite the diversities by making them party to the decision making
process.
Q.4:- Mention any four steps which were taken by the Sri Lankan government to achieve majoritarianism.
Ans.:-
1. In 1956, an Act was passed under which English was replaced as the country’s official language
not by the Sinhala and Tamil but by the Sinhala only.
2. The government followed preferential policies that favoured the Sinhala applicants for university
positions and government jobs.
3. A new constitution stipulated that the state shall protect and foster Buddhism.
4. Denial of citizenship to estate Tamils.
Q.5:- What is a Civil War? Explain with Context to Sri Lanka.

Ans.:-
1. It is a violent conflict between the opposing groups within a country, for example, the Sinhalese
and the Tamils.
2. Due to the violent conflict between both these ethnic group, thousands of people of both the
communities have been killed.
3. Many families were forced to leave the country as refugees and many more lost their livelihoods.
4. The civil war has caused a terrible setback to the social, cultural and economic life of the country.
Q.6:- What is community government? Explain the concept of community government with context to
Belgium.
Ans.:-
1. A community government is one in which different social groups are given the power to handle
the affairs related to their communities.
2. They are expected to work jointly for the benefit of the common masses without undermining any
one community.
3. The community government is elected by people belonging to one language community-Dutch,
French and German-Speaking- no matter where they live
4. The government has the power regarding cultural, educational and language- related issues.
Q.7:- What is the difference between prudential and moral reasons for power sharing?
Ans.:-
Sr. No. Prudential Reasons Moral Reasons
1. Prudential reasons are based on careful 4. Moral reasons are based purely on moral
calculation of gains and losses . considerations.
2. These reasons help to reduce the possibility 5. These reasons are considered as the basic
of conflict between social groups. spirit of democracy.
3. Reservation of constituencies for minorities 6. Decentralisation of power in India is an
and women in India is a prudential reason. example of moral reason.
Q.8:- Why is Power Sharing desirable ?

OR
Why is power sharing desirable? Give any three prudential reasons.
Ans.:- (1) Prudential reasons:- Prudential reasons are the reasons which tell us that Power sharing is
reasonable, wisely chosen or necessary for a society or a country.
1. Power-sharing reduces the possibility of conflicts between the social groups.
2. Power-sharing is a good way to ensure the stability of political order.
3. Power-sharing maintains the unity of the nation.
(2) Moral reasons:- Moral reasons are the reasons which are based on moral considerations.
1. Power sharing is a very spirit of democracy.
2. People have a right to be consulted on how they are to be governed.
3. Decentralisation of power formation of state governments, local governments is an example of
moral reason.
Federalism
Lesson-2 (Civics)
Q.1:- Name the government having two or more levels of government.

Ans.:- Federal government has two or more levels of government.
Q.2:- What does the ‘coming together’ involve?.

Ans.:- The ‘coming together’ involves independent states come together on their own to form bigger unit
where the constituent states have equal powers.
Q.3:- Name the countries having ‘coming together’ federalism and ‘holding together’ federalism.
Ans.:- Countries having ‘coming together’ federalism are- USA, Switzerland, Australia
Countries having ‘holding together’ federalism are- India, Spain, Belgium.
Q.4:- How can the fundamental provisions of the Indian constitution be changed?
Ans.:- The fundamental provisions of the Indian constitution can be changed in a bilateral way wherein
the consent of both the levels of government is required.
Q.5:- What is federalism?
Ans.:- Federalism is a system of government under which power is divided between a central authority
and its various constituent units. The various constituent units and central authority run their
administration independently.
Q.6:- What is unitary government?
Ans.:- Under the unitary system either there is only one level of government or the subunits are
subordinate to the central government.
Q.7:- “The Federal system has dual objective”. Mention the dual objectives.
Ans.:- To safeguard and promote the unity of the country, while at the same time accommodate regional
diversity.
Q.8:- What are Residuary Powers?
Ans.:- Matters which are not included in the division of powers, are known as residuary powers. It was
felt that there can be subjects which are not mentioned in either of these lists. The Central
government has been given the power to legislate on these residuary subjects.
Q.9:- Give one example of decentralisation of power in India.
Ans.:- Formation of local government bodies.
Q.10:- What is Panchayat Samiti?.
Ans.:- A few gram panchayats are grouped together to form a Panchayat Samiti or block or mandal.
Q.11:- What is Zila Parishad?
Ans.:- All the Panchayat Samiti’s or Mandals in a district together constitute the Zila Parishad.
Q.12:- What was the main objective of the Constitutional Amendment made in 1992 in India?
Ans.:- To strengthen the three tier system of governance under Panchayati Raj Institution as well as the
Urban local bodies.
Q.1:- Belgium shifted from a Unitary to a Federal form of government”. What key changes were brought
in the political system under the above-mentioned shift?
Ans.:-
1. Many powers of the Central Government were given to state government of the two regions of the
country.
2. The regional governments were given constitutional powers that were no longer dependent on the
central government.
3. Apart from the central government and state government there is a third kind of government
known as Community government. This government has the power regarding cultural, educational
and language related issues.
Q.2:- What are the difference between Unitary Government and Federal Government ?
Ans.:-
Sr. No. Unitary Government Federal Government
1. In Unitary form of Government All Powers 1. In Federal type of government in which one
are vested with the single Central Central government is there for the country
Government which is Supreme and and different provincial governments are
Powerful. there. It is a form of Government where
power is divided between Government and
at different levels.
2.
In a unitary form of government in which the 2. In a federal system of government the
central government can pass any order to the central government is not authorised to
state or local governments on any specific instruct the state government on any
issue. particular issue. State governments are free
to work on any issue related to the state
3. according to its will.
Countries with unitary form of government: 3. Countries with Federal government:

countries like England, Italy, Japan, China, countries like India, USA ,Canada, Australia
France ,e.t.c have a unitary form of ,Brazil, Argentina, Russia , etc. have a
government. federal type of government..
Q.2:- Distinguish between the Coming Together Federalism and the Holding Together Federalism ?
Ans.:-
Sr. No. Coming Together Federalism Holding Together Federalism
1. Under this, the independent states come 1. Under this, a large country decides to divide
together on their own to form a bigger unit. its power between the constituent states and
the national government.
2. Under this, all the constituent states usually 2. Under this, Central government tends to be
have equal powers. more powerful.
3. For Example:- USA, Switzerland and 3. India, Spain, and Belgium etc.
Australia.
Q.4:- Examine the holding together nature of Indian federation.
Ans.:- Indian federalism is formed by holding together nature of federalism. It does not give equal powers
to its constituent units.
1. States have not been given identical powers with central government.
2. Few states have been given special status. For example, North Eastern States in order to protect
and preserve their custom, traditions, cultural and linguistic diversity.
3. Apart from these some territories of the Indian Union like Chandigarh, the capital city of Delhi are
administered by the Union government and hence they are known as Union Territories.
Q.5:- Mention any four difficulties of the local government in India ?

Ans.:-
1. Most states have not transferred significant powers to the local governments.
2. There is a shortage of resources.
3. Elections are not held regularly.
4. The Gram Sabhas are not held regularly.

Q.6:- How federalism practised in India?
Ans:-Federalism Practiced in India is practiced in three major ways, which are:-
1. Formation of Linguistic States: - The creation of linguistic states was the first and major test of
democratic politics in India. The regions, boundaries, and names of states have been changed from
1947 to 2019.
2. Centre-State Relations: - Restructuring of center-state relations is another way in which

federalism is practiced. If no single party gets a clear majority, the major national parties may
form alliances with several parties, including several regional parties, to form the government.
This has created a new culture of power sharing and respect for the autonomy of state
governments.
3. Language Policy: - Hindi was recognized as the official language of the Union of India, with 21
other languages recognized as scheduled languages by the Constitution. States also have their own
official language, and official work is done in the official language of the respective state.
Q.7:- What Makes India a Federal Country?
Ans.:-In India, there are three lists divided between the centre and state governments. These are:-
1. Union List:- It includes areas of national importance like defense, foreign affairs, currency,
banking, and communications. The union government holds the power to make laws on the
regions mentioned in the union list.
2. State List:- It includes areas of state-level and local importance like agriculture, trade, commerce,
irrigation, and police. The state government alone has the power to make laws regarding the
subjects on this list.
3. Concurrent List:- It includes subjects that are of common interest to both the central and state
governments. It includes trade unions, forest, education, marriage, succession, and adoption. Both
the centre and state can make laws on these subjects. If there is a conflict, the laws made by the
centre will prevail.
Q.8:- Explain the major key features of federalism?
Ans.:-Main Features of Federalism are :-
1. There are two or more levels of government. India has three levels.
2. Each level of government has its own jurisdiction in matters of legislation, taxation, and
administration even though they govern the same citizens.
3. Powers and functions of each tier of government are specified and guaranteed by Constitution.
4. The Supreme Court has been given the power to settle disputes between federal governments.
5. Fundamental provisions of Constitution cannot be altered by any one level of government. It
applies to India also.
6. Sources of revenue between different levels are specified by Constitution.
7. There are mutual trust and agreement between the government at different levels.
Gender, Religion and Caste

Lesson-3 (Civics)
Q.1:- What do you mean by Sexual division of labour?

Ans.:- A system in which all work inside the home is either done by the women of the family, or
organised by them through the labour of domestic workers.
Q.2:- Define the term Feminist.

Ans.:- A woman or a man who believes in equal rights and opportunities for women and men.
Q.3:- What do you mean by the term Patriarchy?
Ans.:- Literally, rule by father, this concept is used to refer to a system that values men more, and gives
them power over women.
Q.4:- What are Family Laws?

Ans.:- Those laws that deal with family related matters such as marriage, divorce, adoption, inheritance,
etc. In our country, different family laws apply to followers of different religions.
Q.5:- Define Urbanisation.
Ans.:- Shift of population from rural areas to urban areas.
Q.6:- What is Feminist movements?

Ans.:- The movements which aimed at equally of men and women in all spheres of life.
Q.7:- What do you mean by Sex Ratio?
Ans.:- Number of girl children per thousand boys.
Q.8:- What do you mean by a Secular State?

Ans.:- A state in which the constitution provides to all individuals and communities freedom to profess,
practice and propagate any religion, or not to follow any.
Q.9:- Name any two countries in which the participation of woman in public life is very high.
Ans.:- Sweden, Norway and Finland.
Q.10:- What is Patriarchal Society?

Ans.:- This is a system that values men more and gives them power over women.
Q.11:- What is Equal Wages Act?
Ans.:- According to this act equal wages should be paid to equal work.
Q.12:- Name any four social reformers who advocated and worked to establish a society in which caste
inequalities are absent.
Ans.:- Jotiba Phule , Gandhiji, B.R. Ambedkar and Periyar Ramaswami.
Q.13:- Suggest any two ways to break caste hierarchy.
Ans.:- (1) Spread of Education (2) Urbanisation
Short Answer type Questions: -
Q.1:- Explain the term “Sexual division of labour” Analyse the result of sexual division of labour in India.
Ans.:- A system in which all work inside the home is either done by the women of the family, or
organised by them through the labour of domestic workers.
Impact:- Women constitutes half of the population but their role in public, economic and political life is
limited.
Q.2:- What were Gandhiji’s views regarding religion and politics ? Explain.
Ans.:-
1. Gandhiji used to say that religion can never be separated from politics.
2. What he meant by religion was not any particular religion like Hinduism or Islam but moral
values that from the basis of all religions.
3. He believed that politics must be guided by ethics drawn from religions.
Q.3:- How has the principle of Universal Adult Franchise helped in combating casteism?
Ans:-
1. Under the universal adult franchise all the citizens of India who are at least 18 years of age are a
voter to elect the representatives to the Parliament and the State Legislatures.
2. They possess this right without any discrimination of caste, creed, colour, sex, religion or belief.
3. Universal adult franchise and the principle of one-person-one-vote has compelled political leaders
to gear up to the task of mobilising and securing political support.
4. It also brought new consciousness among the people of castes that were hitherto treated as inferior
and low.
4.Q:- Suggest any three steps to improve the women’s participation in politics.
Ans.:-
1. To make it legally binding to have a fair proportion of women in the elected bodies.
2. By reserving some seats in the Lok Sabha and the State Assemblies for women.
3. Political parties should also give due representation to women members.
4. By raising the literacy rate.
5.Q:- Name the movements which agitate for women’s rights. How have these movements helped in
improving women’s conditions?
Ans.:-
1. Political expression of gender division and political mobilisation on this question helped to
improve the women’s role in public life.
2. Now, women are working in occupations such as scientists, doctors, engineers, lawyers, mangers
and college and university teaches which were earlier not considered suitable for women.
3. In some parts of the world, for example, in the Scandinavian countries such as Sweden, Norway
and Finland, the participation of women in public life is very high.
Q.6:- How can religion influence politics? Explain.
Ans.:-
1. Gandhi ji believed that politics must be guided by ethics drawn from all religions.
2. Ideas, ideals, and values drawn from different religions can and perhaps should play a role in
politics.
3. People should be able to express in politics, their needs, interests and demands as a member of a
religious community.
4. Those who hold political power should sometimes be able to regulate the practice of religion so as
to prevent discrimination and oppression.
5. These political acts are not wrong as long as they treat every religion equal.
Political Parties
Lesson-4 (Civics)
Q.1:- Define a political party.
Ans.:- A political party is a group of people having same ideology and who come together to contest
election and control political power.
Q.2:- Can we have a party-less democracy? Why/ why not?

Ans.:- No, it is not possible to have a party-less democracy because parties are necessary to conduct
elections and to make parliamentary system more systematic.
Q.3:- In what way do political parties play the role of opposition?
Ans.:- Political parties play the role of opposition by voicing different views and criticising the
government in power for its failures or wrong policies.
Q.4:- Which institution allots symbols to political parties?

Ans.:- The Election Commission of India allots symbols political parties.
Q.5:- How many parties are registered with the Election Commission of India?
Ans.:- As per latest publications dated May 2023 from Election Commission of India, and subsequent
notifications, there are 6 national parties, 54 state parties, and 2,597 unrecognised parties. All
registered parties contesting elections need to choose a symbol from a list of available symbols
offered by the Election Commission of India.
Q.6:- What do you mean by two-party or bi-party system?

Ans.:- The two-party or bi-party system is a political where there are two major parties. Power usually
changes between two main parties, for instances, the United Kingdom and the United States of
America.
Q.7:- Define multiparty system.
Ans.:- The multiparty is a political system where more than two parties exist and context elections to
come to power, for example, India.
Q.8:- What does the term coalition government imply?

Ans.:- The term coalition government implies a government which is formed by various parties coming
together in the situation when no single party wins the majority of seats.
Q.9:- What is a national party?
Ans.:- A party that is present in the most part of the country and at least six percent valid votes in the last
General Election is known as a national party.
Q.10:- What is a regional political party?

Ans.:- The party which originates in a particular region or state and works for it and its people is called
the regional political party.
Q.11:- How many recognised national parties are there in India?
Ans.:- There are six recognised national parties in India.
Q.12:- Name the oldest political party of India.

Ans.:- The Indian National Congress (INC) is the oldest political party of India, formed in 28 th
December, 1985.
Q.13:- Under whose leadership was the Bahujan Samaj Party formed?
Ans.:- The Bahujan Samaj Party was formed under the leadership of Kanshi Ram.
Q.14:- Which political party seeks to represent and secure power for Dalits, OBCs and adivasis?
Ans.:- The Bahujan Samaj Party (BSP) seeks to represent and secure power for Dalits, OBCs and
Adivasis.
Q.15:- Which political party believes in Marxism-Leninism?

Ans.:- The Communist Party of India (CPI) and Communist Party of India- Marxist (CPI-M) believe in
Marxism-Leninism.
Q.16:- In which state does Biju Janta Dal exist as a regional political party?
Ans.:- The Biju Janata Dal exist as a regional political party in Odisha.
Q.17:- Which state has maximum number of recognised regional or state parties?
Ans.:- Tamil Nadu has maximum number of recognised regional or state parties.
Q.18:- What is an alliance?

Ans.:- Several parties in a multiparty system join for the purpose of contesting elections and wining
power. This is known as an alliance. In India, UPA, NDA and Left Front are the example of
alliances.
Q.20:- Define defection.

Ans.:- Defection is a new concept which advocates the changing of allegiance from the party in which a
person got elected to a different party. It means leaving a political party to join another for some
personal gains.
Q.21:- Which constitutional bodies suggest reforms in political parties?

Ans.:- The Constitution of India and the Election Commission of India suggest reforms in political
parties.
Q.22:- Define Single party system.

Ans.:- In some countries, only one party is allowed to control and run the government. This is called the
single party system. For example:- China.
Q.23:- Name the three components of political parties.
Ans.:- (1) The Leader (2) The Active Members (3) The Followers.
Q.24:- What is a ruling party?

Ans.:- A political party that runs the government.

Q.1:- Compare and contrast Multiparty System and One Party System.
Ans.:-
Sr. No. Multi Party System One Party System
1. It is a system in which more than two parties 1. A system in which only a single party is
function, and several parties have reasonable allowed to work, control and run the
chance of coming to power either on their government is called a one-party system.
own or in alliance with others, is called For example China.
multiparty system. For example India
2. This system provide a political choice to the 2. This does not provide any political choice
people. to the people.
3. It allow a variety of interests and opinion to 3. It does not allow a variety of interests and
enjoy political representations. opinion to enjoy political representations.

4. This system accommodate diversity so it 4. One party system is near to dictatorship.
helps to deepen democracy.
Q.2:- “Parties play a decisive role in making laws for country”. Explain.
Ans.:-
1. Laws are debated and passed in the legislature is made by parties.
2. Parties play a decisive role in making laws for a country. Formally, laws are debated and passed in
the legislature. But since most of the members belong to a party, they go by the direction of the
party leadership, irrespective of their personal opinions.
3. The party in power supports the bill, whereas the opposition tries to find the negative points. So
the common people can know the positive and negative points of the bill.
Q.3:- What is meant by bi-party or two party system. Explain its two advantages and two disadvantages?
Ans.:- The two-party or bi-party system is a political where there are two major parties. Power usually
changes between two main parties, for instances, the United Kingdom and the United States of
America.
Advantages:-
1. This system leads to political stability.
2. There is no chance of hung assembly.
Disadvantages:-
1. It does not suit to a diverse country like India.
2. The voters do not enjoy much choice.
Q.4:- How do the political parties help in the formation of public opinion? Explain.
Ans.:-
1. They raise and highlight public issues through mass media.
2. Parties have lakhs of members and activists spread all over the country.
3. Many of the pressure groups are the extensions of political parties among different sections of the
society.
4. Parties sometimes also launch movements for the solution of problems faced by the people. Often
opinions in the society crystallise on the lines parties take.
Q.5:- Examine the role of opposition in a democracy.
Ans.:- The party or parties which fail to form the government, constitute the opposition, and perform the
most important function of criticism of the working of the government, its policies and failures.
1. Opposition plays an important role in the Parliament by debating on different issues.
2. It checks the government from assuming dictatorial powers.
3. Opposition moves different motions such as the adjournment and the no-confidence motion in the
Legislature.
4. Even outside the Legislature, it continues to make an organised criticism of the government.
Q.6:- When was the Indian National Congress (INC) formed? Mention its major ideologies.
Ans.:- The party was formed before independence, i.e., in 28th December, 1885. So it is one of the oldest
parties in India.
Ideology of the Congress:-
1. It is a centrist party (neither rightist nor leftist) in its ideological orientation.
2. The party supports new economic reforms but with a human face.
3. The party has full faith in secularism.
4. The party aims at the welfare of the weaker sections and minorities.
Q.7:- When was the Bhartiya Janata Party (BJP) formed? Mention its major ideologies.
Ans.:- The party was founded in 1979-80 by reviving the erstwhile Bhartiya Jana Sangh.
Ideology of the Bhartiya Janata Party:-
1. The party wants to build a strong and modern India by drawing inspiration from India’s ancient
culture and values.
2. Cultural nationalism (or Hindutva) is an important element in its conception of Indian nationhood
and politics.
3. The party wants full territorial and political integration of Jammu and Kashmir with India.
4. A common civil code for all the people living in the country irrespective of religion, and ban on
the religious conversions.
Q.8:- When was the Communist Party of India (M) formed? Mention its major ideologies.
Ans.:- The party was founded in 1964.
Ideology of the Communist Party of India (M):-
1. The party believes in ideology of Marxism-Leninism.
2. The party supports socialism, secularism and democracy, and opposes imperialism and
communalism.
3. The party accepts democratic elections as a useful and helpful means for securing the objective of
socio-economic justice in India.
4. The party is critical of the new economic policies that allow the free flow of foreign capital and
goods into the country.
Q.1:- What is the need to have political parties?
OR
“Political parties are a necessary condition for a democracy”. Explain.
Ans.:-
1. Parties contest elections:- Political parties are the axis of the government. In most democracies,
elections are fought mainly among the candidates put up by political parties.
2. Formation of policies:- It is very difficult to imagine democracy with out political parties because
without every candidate in the elections will be independent. So no one will be able t make any
promise to the people about any major policy changes and new policies.
3. Uncertain Government:- The government may be formed, but its life will remain ever uncertain.
Elected representatives will be accountable to their constituency for what they did to the locality.
But no one will be responsible as to how the country will run.
4. Representative democracy:- The rise of political parties is directly linked to the emergence of
representative democracies. Large-scale societies need a representative democracy.
5. To gather public opinion:- As societies became large and complex, they also needed some
agency to gather different views on various issues, and to present these to the government. This is
fulfilled by the political parties.
Q.2:- State the various functions political parties perform in a democracy.
Ans.:- The following are the various functions political parties perform in democracy.
1. Contest Elections:- Parties contest elections. In countries like India, top party leaders choose
candidates for contesting elections.
2. Put forward policies and programmes:- Parties put forward different policies and programmes
and voters choose from them. Political parties accommodate different views and opinions.
3. Play an important role in making laws:- Political parties play a very important role in making
laws for a country.
4. Form and run government:- To run the government, political parties prepare council of ministers
by recruiting and training the leaders.
5. Play the role of opposition:- The party which loses election plays the role of opposition.
Opposition party tries to put checks on the ruling party by constantly criticizing its policies.
6. Shape public opinon:- one of the most important functions of political parties is that they shape
public opinion on relevant issues for the proper functioning of the government and to deepen the
concept of democracy.
Q.3:- What are the characteristics of a political party?

Ans.:-
1. A political party contests elections through peaceful constitutional means and refrains from
electoral malpractices. It holds power in the government.
2. It agrees on certain programmes and policies, with a view to placing national interest before the
party interest.
3. It rites to persuade people as to why their policies are better than those of other parties.
4. It seeks to implement its policies by wining support through elections.
5. It reflects fundamental political division in a society.
Q.4:- Differentiate between national political parties and regional political parties.
Ans:- The following are the differences between the national parties and regional parties.
Sr. No. National Political Parties Regional Political Parties
1. National political parties have influence all 1. The influence of regional parties is limited to
over the country. a particular region or state.
2. National political parties deal with national 2. Regional parties are concerned with the
problems. problems and demands of a particular region
only.
3. The activities of the national parties give 3. The activities of regional parties are
priority to the national problems over the restricted to the region or the state in which
regional problems. they function. They focussed more on local
problems.
4. In order to become a national party, a party 4. In order to become regional party, a party
has to secure at least six percent of total has to secure at least six percent of total
votes in Lok Sabha or Assembly elections votes in the State Assembly election and win
and win at least four seats in the Lok Sabha. at least two seats.
5. For example- BJP, Congress, BSP etc. 5. For example- Rashtriya Janta Dal, DMK etc.
Outcomes of Democracy
Lesson-5 (Civics)
Q.1:- What do you mean by the term Transparency?
Ans.:- In democracy, to examine the process of decisions making in a democracy is known as
transparency.
Q.2:- What do mean by Accountable government?

Ans.:- A government which is answerable to the people is known as accountable government.
Q.3:- What is a responsive government?

Ans.:- A government that takes decisions by following the norms and a proper procedure is known as
responsive government.
Q.4:- Define the word Corruption.

Ans.:- According to the World Bank, the term corruption is using the public office for private profit.
Q.5:- How can we say that a democratic government is a legitimate government?

Ans.:- A democratic government is legitimate government because it is people’s own government.
Q.6:- In today’s world, which type of democratic government are most popular ?
Ans.:- Representative democratic government.
Q.7:- Democratic government is a better choice. Justify by giving two reasons.

Ans.:- 1. It promotes equality among citizens.
2. As decisions are taken by following a procedure so it improves the quality of decision making.
Q.8:- Non-democratic rulers are very quick and efficient in decision making and implementation. Give
reason.
Ans.:- Non-democratic ruler do not have to bother about deliberation in assemblies or worry about
majorities and public opinion.
Q.9:- “Democratic government is a transparent government”. Do you agree? Justify.

Ans.:- Democratic government is a transparent government because the people have the right.
Q.10:- What is political equality ?

Ans.:- Under political equality all individuals have equal weight in electing representatives.
Q.11:- What is economic inequality ?

Ans.:- Economic inequality is a situation in which a very few people enjoy a large share of the nation's
wealth. Whereas a very large section of the population owns a very small amount of the nation's
wealth.
Q.12:- What should be the basic outcome of democracy?

Ans.:- The most basic outcome of democracy should be that it produces an accountable, responsive and
legitimate government.
Q.14:- How can you say that democracies are based on political equality?
Ans.:- Democracies are based on political equality as they ensure and promote universal adult franchise.
All citizens have weight in electing representatives.

Q.1:- Gives reasons why a democratic government is preferred to other forms of governments.
Ans.:- 1. Democracy promotes equality among its citizens.
2. It enhances the dignity of the individual and people are free to make decisions.
3. In a democracy conflicts are solved amicably and there is room to correct mistakes.
4. These are the reasons why a democracy is preferred to other forms of governments
Q.2:- What is political equality ? Explain.

Ans:- 1. Democracy is based on the principle of the political equality i.e. each adult citizen having one
vote and each vote having.
2. In India we follow the principle of Universal Adult Franchise i.e., all adult citizens have the
Right to Vote irrespective of their age, colour, creed etc.
3. People are not subject of a ruler, they are the rulers themselves.
Q.3:- How does democracy produce an accountable, responsive and legitimate government?
Ans.:- 1. Democracy produces an accountable government because it provides regular, free and fair
elections regularly.
2. Open discussions are held on all major issues and legislations.
3. Democracy gives its citizens the right to information about the government and its functioning.
4. Democracy provides a responsive government as it is formed by elected representatives of the
people. 5. These representatives discuss the problems of the society and make policies and
programmes accordingly. The representatives also ensure that the programmes are implemented.
6. Democracies follow a constitution, so they are legitimate.

Q.1:- What are the challenges faced by democratic governments ?
Ans.:- Even though democracy has been accepted as the best form of Government in this modern world.
Yet it has its own problems. Some of these areas are stated below:
1. Growing economic and social inequalities among the people:- It is quite evident that all the
citizens have the right to vote and fight elections but only rich people have a chance to win the
election. The underprivileged are forced to sell their votes to fulfil their necessities of life like
food, clothing, and shelter.
2. Role of anti-social elements:- During elections, the role of anti-social elements gets a sudden
rise. Voters are forced to vote for a particular candidate or party. Rigging also takes place during
the elections.
3. Corruption and inefficiency:- In most democratic countries, political leaders and government
officials are dishonest, corrupt, and inefficient. As a result, citizens generally do not take any
interest in elections. They even have no faith in government officials. That adversely affects the
working of democracy in a country.
4. Casteism and communalism:- These two are the biggest challenges in many democratic
countries. Political parties try to brainwash people while distributing tickets for the election. We
have seen that representatives elected based on community and caste work for the welfare of the
people belonging only to their group.
Q.2:- Differentiate between democratic and non-democratic government.
Ans:- Differentiate between democratic and non-democratic government is as under:-
1. A democratic government is elected by the people while a non-democratic government is not
elected by the people.
2. Under democracy people are given basic rights while under non-democratic conditions people are
not given basic rights.
3. In democracy there are regular elections though which people can change their government but
not in non-democratic conditions.
4. Under democracy the government works within the constitution but in non-democratic country
these conditions do not apply.
5. In democracy Parliament is supreme but under non-democratic conditions, ruler is supreme.
Q.3:- Describe the social outcomes of democracy.
Ans:-
1. It produces a harmonious social life.
2. Democracy can handle social differences, divisions, and conflicts.

3. Democracy provides equal opportunities to all the social groups. To provide equal opportunities
seats are reserved for SC and ST and other weaker sections like women.
4. It reduces tension becoming explosive and violent an develop mechanism to negotiate the
differences.
5. It provides basic rights to all without any discrimination based on caste, colour and creed.
Development
Lesson-1 (Economics)
Q.1:- What do people need to get more income?
Ans.:- People need regular work, better wages and decent price for crops to get more income.
Q.2:- What does national development refer to?
Ans.:- National development refers to the ability of a country to improve the social welfare of the people.
For example, by providing social amenities such as quality education, portable water,
transportation, infrastructure, and medical care.
Q.3:- Define average income.
Ans.:- Per capita income or average income is calculated by dividing the total income of a country with
its population.
Q.4:- What does HDI stand for?
Ans.:- HDI stands for Human Development Index. It is a tool development by the United Nations to
measure a country’s overall achievement in its social and economics dimensions.
Q.5:- Define sustainable development.

Ans.:- Sustainable development refers to the development that meets the needs of the present without
compromising the needs of the future generation.
Q.6:- What does national income refer to?
Ans.:- National income refers to the value of the total goods and services produced within a country in a
year.
Q.7:- Why does Kerala have low infant mortality rate?
Ans.:- Kerala has low infant mortality rate because it has adequate provisions of basic health and
educational facilities.
Q.8:- Besides more income, what other things do the people seek?
Ans.:- Besides more income, people seek to have equal treatment, freedom, security and health.
Q.9:- Define sex ratio.
Ans.:- The total number of females per thousands males in a country is termed as sex ratio.
Q.10:- Define Economic Growth
Ans.:- Economic growth refers to the increase in per capita GDP of an economy over a long period of
time.
Q.11:- Define infant mortality rate.
Ans.:- The number of children that die before the age of one year as a proportion of 1000 live children
born in that particular year is known as infant mortality rate.
Q.12:- What is Life Expectancy at Birth?
Ans.:- Life Expectancy at Birth is the average expected length of life of a person at the time of birth.
Q.13:- Why do different people have different development goals?
Ans.:- Different people have different developmental goals because people have diverse wishes, likes and
dislikes and aspirations.
Q.14:- What is net attendance ratio?
Ans.:- Net attendance ratio is the total number of children of age group 14 and 15 years attending school
as a percentage of total number of children in the same age group.
Q.15:- Why is the total income of countries not used to make comparisons between them?
Ans.:- The total income of the countries is not used to make comparisons between them because the
population of different countries is different.
Q.16:- Besides the size of per capita income, which other property of income is important in comparing
two or more countries?
Ans.:- Per Capita Income is an important but not the only criterion for development. Along with average
income, equitable distribution of income in a country should also be considered.
Q.17:- Among Maharashtra, Kerala and Bihar, which one has the lowest infant mortality rate?
Ans.:- Kerala has the lowest infant mortality rate.
Q.18:- Mention any two developmental goals of a landless rural labourer.
Ans.:- (1) More days of work and better wages .
(2) Quality education for his children,
Q.19:- Which criteria is used by the World Bank to classify different countries?
Ans.:- Per Capita Income
Q.20:- What is Literacy Rate?
Ans.:- It measures the proportion of literate population in the seven and above age group.
Q.21:- What is Gross Enrolment Ratio?
Ans.:- It is the enrolment ratio for primary, secondary and higher education.
Q.22:- What is Public Distribution System?
Ans.:- It is a food security programme under which government provided foodgrains and other essential
items to the poor at an affordable price.
Q.23:- What is Human Development Index?
Ans.:- It is an index prepared by the World Bank under which all the nations of the world are indexed or
ranked according to their performance in various parameters like Per Capita Income, Life
Expectancy, Literacy Rate etc.
Q.24:- What is Sustainable Development?
Ans.:- Sustainable development is that process of economic development which aims at maintaining the
quality of life of both the present and the future generations without harming the natural resources
and environment.
Q.25:- What may be development goal of a rich farmer ?
Ans.:- Cheap labour, high price for the produce.
Q.1:- What is the main criterion used by the World Bank in classifying different countries? What are the
limitations of this criterion?
Ans.:- The World Development Report, 2017, brought out by the World Bank has given the following
criterion in classifying countries.
(1) Rich or High Income countries:- Countries with the per capita income of US$ 12,056 per annum
and above in 2017, are called rich countries.
(2) Poor or Low Income countries:- The countries with the per capita income of US$ 955 or less are
called low income countries. India comes in the category of low middle income countries because
its per capita income in 2017 was just US$ 1820 per annum.
Limitations:-
1. It covers only the economics aspect ignoring peace, health environment, education etc.
2. The method does not provide us the distribution of income.
Q.2:- Why do we use averages? Are there any limitations to their use? Illustrate with your own examples
related to the development.
Ans.:- We use averages for comparison between two countries, two persons or any two or more things.
There are the following limitations to the use of averages:-
1. Averages do not tell us about similarities or differences between two countries or persons or
things.
2. By averages only one aspect income, size etc. in case of country, marks or participation in sports
activities etc. in case of student, can be compared. All aspects or achievements are not compared.
3. As only one aspect is compared, it does not give true picture of different countries, persons or
things. For example, students differ in height, health, talents and interests. The healthiest student
may not be the most intelligent or topper in studies.
4. Similar is the case in respect of countries or states.
5. A country may be ahead than the other country in one field but may lag behind in the other field.
So averages do not give the correct picture.
Q.2:- “The criterion used by the United Nations Development Programme (UNDP) is different from the
one used by the World Bank for measuring development of countries.” Support the statement with
examples.
Ans.:-
UNDP World Bank
1. UNDP has taken education, health, life 1. World Bank has taken per capita income
expectancy and other important components as the base for economic development.
as the base for development.
2. It is a broad concept as it takes into account 2. It is a narrow concept as it takes into
all the important components of human account only the income as the base.
development.
3. UNDP has ranked the different components 3. World Bank has divided the countries into
of development. For example, India has been low, upper and high income countries.
awarded 130 rank. India comes under Lower middle income
group.
Q.4:- Kerala, with a lower per capita income has a better human development ranking than Haryana.
Hence, the per capita income is not a useful criterion at all, and should not be used to compare
states. Do you agree? Discuss.
Ans.:- The per capita income is one of the most important components of human development. No
country of the world can ignore this. Increasing national income and the per capita income are the
two main goals of all the developing as well as developed countries. So we cannot ignore the per
capita income.
Q.5:- Why is the issue of Sustainability important for development ?
Ans.:-
1. It cares for the needs of the future generations.
2. It promotes an efficient use of natural resources.
3. It lays emphasis on quality life.
4. It provides long-term solution.
Q.6:- What is infant mortality rate? Suggest two measures to keep the infant mortality rate low.
Ans.:- Infant Mortality Rate:- The number of children that die before the age of one year per 1000
children born alive in a particular year is called infant Mortality Rate.
Measures to keep Infant Mortality Rate low:-
1. Provision of basic health.
2. Provision of proper education facility.
3. Proper functioning of Public Distribution System.
Q.7:- Distinguish between developed and developing countries.
Ans.:-
Developed Countries Developing Countries
1. The countries have high per capita income. 1. These countries have low per capita
income.
2. The standard of living of the people is high. 2. The standard of living of the people is
low.
3. These countries have high level of

industrialisation. 3. These countries have low level of
industrialisation.
4. Economy of these countries are based on
industries. 4. Economy of these countries are based on
agriculture.
5. The rate of capital formation is high.
5. The rate of capital formation is low.
6. For example- USA, UK, Japan etc.
6. For example- Nepal, Pakistan etc.
Q.8:- Distinguish between Human and Economic Development.
Ans.:-
Human Development Economic Development
1. It is a broader aspect of development as it 1. It is a narrow concept as it includes only
includes monetary as well as the non- the monetary aspects.
monetary aspects.
2. It is the process of both quantitative and 2. It includes only the qualitative growth.
qualitative growth.
3. Human development is the end or the final 3. It is a mean to achieve human

goal of all developments. development.
Q.9:- Mention any three characteristics of development,

Ans.:- The following are the three major characteristics of development.
1. Different people can have different development goals.
2. What may be development for one may not be development for the other. It may be destructive for
the other.
3. People tend to look at a mix of goals for their development.
Q.10:- What is Human Development Index (HDI) ? Name its variables.

Ans.:- The Human Development Index (HDI) is a tool developed by the United Nations to measure a
country’s overall achievement in its social and economic dimensions. The HDI ranks countries
based on per capita income, health of people, their level of education and their standard of living.
The three variables of Human Development Index are:-
1. Long and Healthy Life
2. Knowledge
3. A decent standard of living
Sectors of The Indian Economy

Lesson-2 (Economy)
Q.1:- What is Economic Development?

Ans.:- Economic development is the process by which an economy's real per capita income increases over
a long period of time.
Q.2:- What does the tertiary sector include?

Ans.:- Tertiary sector includes distribution of services, training and support.
Q.3:- Which sector has grown considerably in the recent years?
Ans.:- In the recent years, the tertiary sector has shown a considerable growth.
Q.4:- Biscuits for the consumer in the market are an example of which type of goods?
Ans.:- Biscuits for the consumer in the market are an example of final goods.
Q.5:- Which sector has contributed the most to the employment?
Ans.:- Primary sector has contributed the most to the employment.
Q.6:- Where are most of the underemployed people found?

Ans.:- Most of the underemployed people are found in agriculture.
Q.7:- What is per capita income?
Ans.:- Per capita income of a nation is national income divided by the total population.
Q.8:- What is economic activity?

Ans.:- An activity which gives an income in return is called an economic activity. For example, a teacher
teaching in a school is performing an economic.
Q.9:- What is a non-economic activity?
Ans.:- An activity which does not give any income in return is called a non-economic activity. For
example, a father teaching his son is performing a non-economic activity.
Q.10:- State any two factors of production.

Ans.:- Capital and labour are the two factors of production.
Q.11:- Define the term Enterprise?

Ans.:- When a person or a group of persons are engaged in the production or distribution of goods or
services meant mainly for the purpose of sale, it is called an enterprise.
Q.12:- Where is the disguised unemployed found mostly?

Ans.:- Disguised unemployment is mostly found in the agriculture sector.
Q.13:- In which sector are a large number of workers losing their jobs since 1990?
Ans.:- Workers in the organised sector are losing their jobs since 1990.
Q.14:- What was the most important sector of economic activities at the earliest stages of development?
Ans.:- Primary sector was the most important sector of economic activities at the earliest stages of
development.
Q.15:- Through which act is Right to Work implemented?
Ans.:- Right to work is implemented through National Employment Guarantee Act (MNREGA) 2005.
Q.16:- Suggest any one way to solve underemployment situation in rural area.
Ans.:- Underemployment in the rural areas can be solved by providing an easy access to the financial
institutions like banks and cooperatives to the rural population so that easy loans can be availed by
them.
Q.17:- Define the term GDP.

Ans.:- It is the value of all final goods and services produced with in a country during a financial years.
Q.18:- What are final goods?

Ans.:- Final goods are the goods which are ready for use. For example, a pen.
Q.19:- What are intermediate goods?
Ans.:- These are the goods which are used up during the production process. For example fertilizer used
by farmers.
Q.20:- What is Right to Work?

Ans.:- Under this right all those who are ready to work at prevailing wages are given work by the
government.
Q.21:- What is public sector?
Ans.:- The sector which is controlled and managed by the government is known as public sector. For
example, Indian Railway.
Q.22:- What is Private Sector?

Ans.:- The sector which is controlled and manage by private individual and a group of people is known as
private sector. For example- Air Tel, Reliance, TATA.
Q.23:- Define the term Primary Activity.

Ans.:- Primary activity includes those activities which are closely related to natural environment. For
example- Agriculture, Fishing, Mining etc.
Q.24:- What is Secondary Activity?
Ans.:- Secondary activities are those activities which produce finished goods by using raw material
produce by primary activity. For example- Manufacturing of cloth from cotton, Sugar from
Sugarcane.
Q.25:- What is Tertiary Sector?

Ans.:- Tertiary activity consists of all service occupations. For example- Transport, Education, Health,
Communication etc.
Q.1:- Distinguish between economic and non-economic activities.
Ans.:-
Sr. No. Economic Activities Non-Economic Activities
1. These activities give an income in return. 1. These activities do not give any income in
return.
These are done to earn a livelihood. 2. These are done out of compassion, love and
2. care.
3. For Example:- People going for work in 3. For Example:- Doing social work, helping
factories, farms, banks, hospital, schools etc. the poor, going to temple etc.
Q.2:- What are sectors ? Classify the economic activities.
Ans.:- Sectors are group of economic activities classified on the basis of some criteria.
1. On the basis of nature of activity:- 1. Primary Sector 2. Secondary Sector 3. Tertiary Sector
2. On the basis of conditions of work:- 1. Organised Sector 2. Unorganised Sector
3. On the basis of ownership of assets:- 1. Public Sector 2. Private Sector
Q.3:- What is disguised unemployment?

Ans.:-
1. Disguised unemployment is a situation when we engage more people in an activity than actual
needed. The people who are actually engaged in such activity appear to be employed, but are not
fully employed.
2. For example, if for the cultivation of one hectare land, 10 workers are required, but instead of 10
workers, 15 workers are working.
3. In this case, 5 workers are disguised unemployed. If the surplus workers are removed, the
production will not change.
4. This type of unemployment is basically found in agriculture. And also known as
underemployment because workers perform below their productivity level.
Q.4:- Distinguish between final goods and the intermediate goods.
Ans.:-
Sr. No. Final Goods Intermediate Goods
1. The goods which are used for final 1. The goods which are used up in producing
consumption is known as final goods. the final goods and services.
2. The values of final goods are included in the 2. The value of intermediate goods is not
national income. included in the national income.
3. For Example:- Television, bread or bakery 3. For Example:- Flour, cotton etc.
products etc.
Q.5:- Distinguish between the organised and the unorganised sector.
Ans.:-
Sr. No. Organised Sector Unorganised Sector
1. The sector is registered by the government. 1. The sector is not registered by the
government.
2. The terms of employment are regular.
2. The terms of employment are not regular.
3. The Sector is governed by various laws such
as the Factories Act, Minimum Wages Act 3. The sector is not governed by any act.
etc.
4.
This sector includes banks, hospitals, school 4. This sector includes large number of people
etc. who are employed on own doing small jobs,
etc.
Q.6:- Distinguish between the Public Sector and the Private sector.
Ans.:-
Sr. No. Public Sector Private Sector
1. It is controlled and managed by the 1. The sector which is controlled and manage
government. by private individual and a group of people
is known as private sector.
2. 2. The main aim of the sector is to earn

The main aim of the sector is public welfare. maximum profits.
3. 3. The sector provides consumer goods to the

The sector provides basic facilities like people.
education, health, food and security to the
people.
4. 4. For Example:- Reliance Industries, TISCO
For Example:- Indian Railways, BSNL etc. etc.
Q.7:- What are the objectives of MGNREGA 2005?

Ans.:-
1. This scheme targets the Scheduled castes, Scheduled Tribes and the poor women, who suffer from
poverty.
2. To provide livelihood to the people below the poverty line, this scheme guarantees 100 days of
wage employment in a year to every rural household in the country.
3. Under this scheme the Gram Panchayat after proper verification will register households.
4. The job card is the legal document that entitles a person to ask for work under the Act and to get
work within 15 days of the demand for work, failing which an unemployment allowance would be
payable.
Q.8:- Describe any four points of importance of primary sector in the Indian economy.
Ans.:-
1. Primary sector contributes more than 20% to the GDP of India.
2. Its employment share is more than 55%.
3. It is the most labouring sector of Indian economy.
4. It covers agriculture, dairy, fishing, forestry which all contribute to the Indian economy.
Q.9:- Describe the various causes of rural unemployment in India.
Ans.:-
1. Lack of skill and education:- The most important factor responsible for rural unemployment is
lack of education and skill.
2. Domination of Primary Sector:- Most of the people of rural areas are involved in primary
activities. The possibility of unemployment in primary sector is more.
3. Lack of Industrialisation:- Even after more than 60 years of independence more than 80% of the
people are dependent on agriculture and their related activities for their livelihood.
Q.10:- How can employment opportunities be generated in the tourism and information and technology
centres?
Ans.:-
1. Government should encourage tourism by providing more facilities to the tourists.
2. Medical treatment in India is very cheap as compared to developed nations.
3. Vocational training should be merged in main stream education pattern.
4. Research and development work should be promoted.
5. Government should set up more technology parks.
Money and Credit

Q.1:- Define the word Money.

Ans.:- Money can be anything which is legally accepted as a medium of exchange and which has the legal
power of the government behind it.
Q.2:- What is Barter System?

Ans.:- The system of exchanging goods is known as the barter system.
Q.3:- Define the term coincidence of wants.
Ans.:- It means both parties, i.e., the buyer and the seller have to agree to sell and buy each other’s
commodities.
Q.4:- What is Cash Reserve Ratio (CRR)?

Ans.:- Cash Reserve Ratio or CRR is the minimum amount as specified by the Central Bank, to be
maintained by the Commercial banks of the public deposits with the Central Bank.
Q.5:- Define Credit.
Ans.:- It refers to an agreement in which the lender supplies the borrows with money, goods or services in
return for the promise of future payment.
Q.6:- What are formal lender resources?

Ans.:- These include those resources which are controlled by the government. Banks and cooperatives fall
into the formal category.
Q.7:- What is bank?
Ans.:- A bank is an institution that accepts the surplus deposits and grants loan to the people or
businessmen.
Q.8:- Mention the most essential feature of barter system.

Ans.:- Double coincidence of wants.
Q.9- Why money is called a medium of exchange ?
Ans.:- Because it acts as an intermediate in the exchange process.
Q.10:- What are demand deposits?

Ans.:- The deposits with the bank which can be withdrawn on demand are known as demand deposits.
Q.11:- What is included in the modern form of money.
Ans.:- (1) Paper Notes (2) Coins (3) Demand Deposits (4) Cheques etc.
Q.12:- Mention any two functions of banks.

Ans.:- 1. Banks accept deposits of the public. 2. Banks provides loan to the needy.
Q.13:- Which is the main source of credit for the poor? Give one reason.
Ans.:- Informal sources like money lenders, traders, relatives etc. Absence of collateral is one of the
major reasons which prevents the poor from getting bank loans.
Q.14:- Mention any two main sources of credit for rural households.
Ans.:- 1. Cooperative and Commercial Banks 2. Professional and agriculture money lenders.
Q.15:- Who is widely known as the father of Grameen bank in Bangladesh?
Ans.:- Muhammad Yunus, the Bangladeshi economist, widely known as the Father of Microfinance
founded the Grameen Bank to make small loans to the poor in Bangladesh.
Q.16:- When was Grameen Bank of Bangladesh started?

Ans.:- Grameen Bank of Bangladesh was started in October, 1983 by Muhammad Yunus.
Q.17:- What are Self Help Group (SHG’s)?
Ans.:- They are Self Help Groups formed by the poor rural women in rural areas.
Q.18:- What is a debt-trap ?

Ans.:- A debt-trap is situation when it becomes impossible to repay the loan and the borrower adds on a
new debt to pay the existing debt.
Q.19:- Who is collateral ?
Ans.:- Collateral is an asset, such as land, vehicle, building, livestock and deposits with banks, that the
borrower owns and uses this as guarantee to a lender until the loan is repaid.
Q.20:- What kind of credit is crucial for a country’s development ?

Ans.:- Cheap and affordable credit plays a crucial role in country’s development.
Q.1:- In situations with high risks, credit might create further problems for the borrower. Explain?
Ans.:-
1. High-risk situations occur in rural areas because there the main demand for credit is for crop
production which involves considerable costs on seeds, fertilisers, pesticides, water, electricity,
repair of equipment.
2. There is a minimum stretch of three of four months between the time when farmers buy these
inputs and when they sell the crop.
3. Farmers generally take crop loans at the beginning of the season and repay the loan after harvest.
4. Repayment of the loan is crucially dependent on the income from farming.
5. If a crop fails due to shortage of rain or for any other reason, a small farmer has to sell a part of
the land to repay the loan.
6. Credit in high risks situations pushes the borrower into a debt trap, a situation from which
recovery is very painful.
Q.2:- How does money solve the problem of double coincidence of wants? Explain with example of your
own.
Ans.:-
1. In a barter system where goods are directly exchanged without the use of money, double
coincidence of wants is an essential feature.
2. By serving as a medium of exchanges, money removes the need for double coincidence of wants
and the difficulties associated with the barter system.
3. For example, it is no longer necessary for the farmer to look for a book publisher who will buy his
cereals at the same time sell him books. All he has to do is find a buyer for his cereals.
4. If he has exchanged his cereals for money, he can purchase any goods or service which he needs.
This is because money acts as a medium of exchange.
Q.3:- How do banks mediate between those who have surplus money and those who need money?
Ans.:-
1. Banks accept deposits from people who have surplus money, paying interest on these deposits.
2. The banks use the major portion of the deposits to extend loans to those who need money,
charging them slightly higher interest than what they pay to the depositors.
3. It is with the banks help both the people benefit, person having surplus money and the person in
need of money.
4. In this way, banks mediate between those who have surplus money and those who need money.
Q.4:- Why do we need to expand formal sources of credit in India?
Ans.:- We need to expand formal sources of credit in India because:-
1. These sources offer cheap loans, which results in higher incomes and higher profits and help in the
expansion of business.
2. These sources of loans are under the supervision of a centralized agency, i.e. Reserve Bank of
India.
3. In the rural areas where people have to rely on informal sources, this can help farmers to take up
agricultural and non-agricultural activities, small scale industries etc.
4. Credit can be distributed more equality, benefitting the poor with the help of cheaper loans.
Q.5:- What is the basic idea behind the SHGs for the poor? Explain in your own words..
Ans.:- The basic behind the SHGs is to provide a financial resource for the poor through organizing the
rural poor especially women, into small Self Help Groups. They also provide timely loans at a
responsible interest rate without collateral. Thus, the main objectives of the SHGs are:
1. To organize rural poor especially women into small Self Help Groups.
2. To collect savings of their members.
3. To provide loans without collateral.
4. To provide timely loans for a variety of purposes.
5. To provide loans at a responsible rate of interest and easy terms.
6. To provide a platform to discuss and act on a variety of social issues such as education, health,
nutrition, domestic violence, etc.
Q.6:- What are the reasons why the banks might not be willing to lend to certain borrowers?
Ans.:- The banks might not be willing to lend certain borrowers due to the following reasons:
1. Banks require proper documents and collateral as security against loans. Some persons fail to meet
these requirements.
2. The borrowers who have not repaid previous loans, the banks might not be willing to lend them
further.
3. The banks might not be willing to lend those entrepreneurs who are going to invest in the business
with high risks.
4. One of the principal objectives of a bank is to earn more profits after meeting a number of
expenses.
5. For this purpose, it must adopt a judicious loan and investment policies which ensure fair and
stable return on the funds.
Q.7:- Distinguish between the modern and traditional forms of money.

Ans.:-
Sr. No. Modern Forms of Money Traditional Form of Money
1. Modern forms of money include currency- 1. Traditional forms of money include gold,
paper notes, coins, plastic and electronic silver, and copper.
money, bank cheques etc.
2. The modern currency is without any use of 2. The traditional forms of money had its own
its own. uses.
Q.8:- What is a cheque? What are its advantages?

Ans.:- A cheque is a paper instructing the bank to pay a specific amount from the person’s account to the
person in whose name the cheque has been made.
Advantages:-
1. It is the safest mode of transaction.
2. It is easy to carry a cheque as compared to money.
Q.9:- What are demand deposits? What are their advantages?

Ans.:- The deposits in the bank accounts which can be withdrawn on demand are known as demand
deposits.
1. People earn interest on the demand deposits.
2. The depositor can make the payment.
Q.10:- Why are demand deposits considered as money?

OR
How do demand deposits facilitate transactions ?
Ans.:-
1. Demand deposits are the deposits which can be encashed by the account holder any time.
2. They can be used as a medium of exchange.
3. They are easily acceptable.
4. They help in setting payments without the use of cash.
Q.11:- What is collateral ? Explain.

Ans.:-
1. Collateral is an asset that a borrower owns like a house, property, gold, shares, etc.
2. The owner can use this collateral to take loans from the banks.
3. It is used as a guarantee by the owner, if the owner is unable to repay the loan, the bank has the
right to sell his collateral and recover the loan amount.
4. For example- Mohan needs a loan of Rs. 500000 he can use his house as collateral and take a loan
from a bank.
5. On repayment, he can take back his property from Bank.
Q.12:- How is money used in everyday life? Explain with examples

Ans.:-
1. We use money to purchase goods and services.
2. People put their surplus money in banks to earn profit.
3. Money is used for international trade.
4. Money is used to pay factors of production.
5. Money is also used to create wealth.
Long Answer Type questions: -

Q.1:- Distinguish between formal and informal credit resources.
Ans.:-
Sr. No. Formal Informal
1. These resources work under the supervision 1. These do not work under any government
of the Reserve Bank of India (RBI). organisation.
2. They charge a low rate of interest. 2. They charge a high rate of interest.
3. They follow rules and regulations formed by 3. They do not follow any rules and
the government. regulations.
4. They provide cheap and affordable credit

with common terms of credit for all. 4. They exploit the borrowers for their own
benefits.
5. Commercial banks, cooperative societies, 5. Relatives, money lenders and landlords are
etc. are the main sources of formal credit. the main source of informal credit.
Q.2:- What is the idea behind forming the Self Help Groups or the SHGs ? Explain the functioning of the
Self-Help Groups or the SHGs.
Ans.:-
1. A typical SHG has 15-20 members, usually belonging to one neighbourhood, who meet and save
regularly.
2. Saving per member varies from Rs 25 to Rs 100 or more, depending on the ability of the people to
save.
3. Members can take small loans from the group itself to meet their needs.
4. The group charges interest on these loans but this is still less than what the moneylender charges.
5. After a year or two, if the group is regular in savings, it becomes eligible for availing loan from
the bank.
6. Loan is sanctioned in the name of the group and is meant to create self-employment opportunities
for the members.
Q.3:- Why should the banks and cooperative societies provide more loan facilities to the rural households
in India? Give reasons.
Ans.:-
1. Most of the farmers are very poor, they do not have any surplus money.
2. Moneylenders charge very high rate of interest. This leads to increasing debt and debt trap.
3. Moneylenders use unfair means to get their money back.
4. Cheap and affordable credit is must for rural development.
5. Cheap credit helps in lowering the cost of production.]
Q.4:- How do banks play an important role in the economy of India? Explain.
Ans.:-
1. Banks help people to save their money in safe custody. To save their money, people deposit their
money with banks.
2. Banks give interest on the money deposited by the people. Thus, they add to the income of the
family.
3. Many families survive on the bank interest.
4. Banks provide loans to people for a variety of purposes.
5. Banks charge low interest rate.
6. Credit provided by banks is crucial for the country’s growth and economy.
7. Banks boost the industrial sector by providing cheap loans.
8. They are the backbone of the country’s trade.
9. Banks employ a large number of people and as such they solve the employment to some extent.
Q.5:- Why is cheap and affordable credit important for a country’s development? Explain with reasons.
Ans.:- Cheap and affordable credit is crucial for the country’s growth and economic development
because:-
1. Credit is in great demand for various types of economic activities. They could grow crops, do
business, set up small-scale industries or trade in goods.
2. In rural areas, credit helps in the development of agriculture by providing funds to the farmers to
buy seeds, fertilizers, expensive pesticides.
3. Manufacturers need credit for buying raw material or meet ongoing expenditure of production.
4. Some people may need to borrow for studies illness, marriages etc.
5. Thus, cheap and affordable credit is need for the growth of economic development and betterment.
Globalisation and the Indian Economy

Q.1:- What is Investment?

Ans.:- The money that is spent to buy assets such as land, building machines and other equipment is
called investment.
Q.2:- What is foreign investment?

Ans.:- Investment by citizens or company of one nation to other nation is known as investment.
Investment made by MNCs is also called foreign.
Q.3:- What is globalisation?
Ans.:- “Globalisation is the process of integration or interconnection between countries.” Globalisation
allows free flow of trade, capital, and human resource across borders.
Q.4:- Define liberalisation.

Ans.:- Removing unwanted barriers or restrictions set by the government from trade and industry is
known as liberalisation.
Q.5- What is Privatisation?

Ans.:- Privatisation means allowing the private sector to set up industries which were earlier reserved for
the public sector.
Q.6:- What are Multinational Corporations? Explain with the help of examples.
Ans.:- “A Multinational Corporation or a MNC is a company that owns or controls production in more
than one country.” For example, Pepsi, Samsung, Microsoft etc.
Q.8:- Mention any two ways through which MNCs expand production.
Ans.:- 1. By setting up partnership with local companies.
2. By buying the local companies.
Q.9:- What are trade barriers ? Give one example.

Ans.:- Any kind of restrictions which are imposed by the government of a country to check free flow of
goods and services are known as trade barriers. For example, to check the free flow of Chinese toys
in the Indian market Indian government can impose tax on imports.
Q.11:- What is importance of trade barrier for the government?

Ans.:- Government can use trade barriers to increase or decrease foreign trade and to decide what kinds of
goods and how much of each, should come into the country.
Q.12:- Name an organisation whose aim is to liberate international trade.
Ans.:- World Trade Organisation.
Q.13:- Name any two Indian MNCs.

Ans.:- Tata Motors, Infosys, Ranbaxy, Asian Paints.
Q.14:- What are SEZs?
Ans.:- Indian government has taken special steps to attract the foreign investors to invest in India.
Industrial Zones called Special Economic Zones (SEZs) are being set up for the same purpose.
SEZs are to have world class facilities such as electricity, water, roads and transport.
Q.15:- What special benefit is offered to the companies setting up their production units in the Special
Economic Zones (SEZs) ?
Ans.:- The companies which set up their production units in the SEZs, do not have to pay taxes for an
initial period of five years.
Q.16:- What do you mean by Fair Globalisation ?

Ans.:- Fair globalisation means creating opportunities for all. It also ensures better sharing of the benefits
of globalisation.
Q.1:- What do you understand by globalisation ? Explain in your own words.
Ans.:- Globalisation refers to the process of integration of economies of the world under condition of free
flow of trade, capital and movement of persons across borders. In this process, goods and services
are produced and marked throughout the world. Under this, the companies set up their production
units or branches in more than one country for its operations.
1. Increase in foreign trade.
2. Import and export of techniques of production.
3. Flow of capital from one country to another.
4. Migration of people from one country to another.
Q.2:- What are the various ways in which MNCs set up, or control production in other countries?
Ans.:- MNCs stand for multinational companies. These are usually foreign companies which set up their
business organisations. They control production, while they operate, through numerous ways.
Some of these are:-
1. They set up production centres close to the markets.
2. They employ workers who are skilled.
3. They establish their installations where the factors of production are easily available.
4. They set up their organisations usually jointly with local companies so that the benefits are shared
between the native and foreign companies.
5. Products so made is sold under their brand names, employing the locals in the companies.
Q.3:- What are Special Economic Zones (SEZs)? Write two characteristics of Special Economic Zones
(SEZs).
Ans.:- To attract the foreign investment in India, the Government of India has set up industrial zones
which are known as Special Economic Zones. The following are the characteristics of Special
Economic Zones.
1. These zones are expected to have world-class facilities such as electricity, water, roads, transport,
educational etc.
2. Companies setting up their production units in the SEZs are exempted from the payment of taxes
for initial five years.
3. Government has also allowed flexibility in the labour laws to attract foreign investment.
Q.4:-State main drawback of globalisation.
OR
Give some arguments against globalisation.
Ans.:-
1. Globalisation has failed to solve the problem of poverty.
2. Globalisation and the pressure of competition have substantially changed the lives of the workers.
3. Due to increasing competition, most employers have started preferring to hire temporary
employees instead of permanent employees, due to which workers' jobs are no longer secure.
4. Only rich and educated class has benefitted from globalisation.
5. Globalisation has widened the gap between the rich and the poor.
Q.5:- What are Special Economic Zones? Why have they been set up?
OR
Explain some facilities available in the Special Economic Zones developed by the government.
Ans.:-
1. SEZs are Special Economic Zones where world class facilities like water, electricity, roads and
transpost, recreation, education are available.
2. They have been set up to attract foreign companies to invest in India.
3. Companies with production units in the SEZs do not have to pay taxes for the initial period of five
years.
4. Government has also allowed flexibility in the labour laws to attract foreign investment.
Q.6:- What are the factors that have enabled globalisation ?
Ans.:- Factors that have enabled globalisation in India are technology, WTO and liberalisation.
1. Technology- Advancement in the quality of products and services has become possible only
through technology. It plays a major role in increasing globalisation across the globe.
2. The World Trade Organisation is an international trade organisation through which suggestions
for removing trade barriers have become possible in India.
3. Liberalisation- It means removing trade restrictions. By liberalising trade policies, the government
of India has adopted globalisation.
Long Answer Type questions: -
Q.1:- What are the advantages and disadvantages of globalisation?

Ans.:- Following are the main advantages and disadvantages of globalisation:-
1. Advantages of globalisation: -
1. Globalisation helps in pooling all the resources together.
2. Globalisation helps in the development of underdeveloped countries.
3. Globalisation helps in the development of infrastructure of the country.
4. Globalisation encourages free trade among nations.
5. Globalisation creates more employment opportunities.
6. It helps to increase the foreign investment in the country.
7. Globalisation boast to the service sector in the country.
2. Disadvantages of globalisation: -
1. Globalisation, privatization, and liberalization may lead to unemployment.
2. The abolition of import tax has reduced national income.
3. The multi-national companies are using the natural resources of poor nations indiscriminately.
4. Due to uncontrolled competition local, small scale industries are suffering loss.
5. Inequality between the rich and the poor nations in the world is created.
6. Degeneration of basic values.

Class X Social Science Notes English 1

Uploaded by

Document Information

Copyright

Available Formats

Share this document

Share or Embed Document

Sharing Options

Did you find this document useful?

Is this content inappropriate?

Copyright:

Available Formats

Class X Social Science Notes English 1

Uploaded by

Copyright:

Available Formats

ानं ल वा परां शाि तमिचरे णािधग छित॥

Prepared By:- Mr. Tarun Sharma

The Rise of Nationalism in Europe

Q.14:- Who was proclaimed the king united Italy in 1861?

Case Study based Question: -

Q.3:- What were the major proposals of the Vienna Congress?

Q.18:- Why did Mahatma Gandhi call off Rowlatt Satyagraha?

Short Answer Type Questions: -

2. Important Centres of the Indian National Movement:-

The Making of Global World

Short Answer Type Questions: -

Print Culture and The Modern World

Ans.:-. The five reasons are:-

Q.5:- Briefly describe China’s system of Woodblock printing.

1. Women became important readers as well as writers.

Q.8:- Briefly describe Indian manuscripts and their drawbacks.

Q.9:- Explain the role of print in the religious reforms in India.

Q.10:- Examine the role of missionaries in the growth of press in India.

Long Answer Type Questions: -

Q.2:- Explain the main features of the first printed Bible.

Resources and Development

Q.1:- What is Resources?

Q.2:- What are international resources?

Q.4:- Where was the first International Earth Summit held?

Q.6:- What is the full form of UNCED?

Q.8:- What is the area brought under cultivation in a year called?

Q.10:- What factor is responsible for maximum land degradation?

Q.12:- What is Banger?

Q.14:- What soil is the best for cotton cultivations?

Q.16:- What is the name of the soil formed by intense leaching?

Q.17:- Where does the laterite soil develop?

Q.20:- What are gullies?

Q.22:- What is a ravine?

Q.24:- What is the main cause of land degradation in Madhya Pradesh?

Q.26:- What are Community owned resources?

Q.28:- What are Potential resources?

Q.2:- What is the role of humans in resource development?

Forest And Wildlife Resources

Q.2:- What is Ecosystem?

Q.4:- What do you mean by the term Fauna?

Q.6:- What do you mean by Biodiversity?

Q.8:- Define Normal Species.

Q.10:- What are rare species?

Q.12:- What is IUCN?

Q.14:- Mention any wildlife protection programme.

Q.18:- What is JFM?

Short Answer Type Questions: -

Q.2:- What are the main objectives of JFM?.

Q.1:- What is hydrological cycle?

Q.6:- What is a dam?

Q.8:- What is irrigation?.

Q.10:- What is Palar Pani?

Q.12:- What do you mean by Rainwater harvesting?

Q.14:- What is Kul?

Q.3:- Why do we conserve water resources?

1. Advantages of multipurpose project:-

1. To meet the increasing demands of water

Q.1:- What is Agriculture ?

Q.4:- What is intensive subsistence farming?

Q.6:- What is commercial agriculture?.

Q.8:- What is Dry Farming?

Q.11:- Define Kharif Season.

Q.14:- What is Multiple Cropping?

Q.16:- Define Plantation Agriculture.