Ch5 TB Pinel

CHAPTER 5
THE RESEARCH METHODS OF BIOPSYCHOLOGY:

UNDERSTANDING WHAT BIOPSYCHOLOGISTS DO
MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS
1) Vestibular function can be assessed by assessing a patient's reaction to

A) facial nerve stimulation. D) needles inserted in the face.
B) electroencephalography. E) needles inserted in the foot.
C) cold water flushed in the ear.
Answer: C
Diff: 2 Page Ref: 102
Topic: Chapter 5 Introduction
2) The ironic case of Professor P. makes the point that

A) two brains are better than one.
B) Alzheimer's disease can have an early onset.
C) many research methods of biopsychology are used in clinical settings.
D) brain tumors can be bilateral.
E) cortical tumors are usually malignant.
Answer: C
Topic: Chapter 5 Introduction
3) Which contrast X-ray technique is designed to locate vascular abnormalities in the brains of human
patients?
A) cerebral angiography D) CT scans
B) X-ray photography E) PET scans
C) pneumoencephalography
Answer: A
Topic: 5.1 Methods of Visualizing the Living Human Brain
4) Which of the following is a contrast X-ray technique?

A) angiography D) structural magnetic resonance imaging
B) magnetoencephalography E) functional MRI
C) positron emission tomography
Answer: A
Topic: 5.1 Methods of Visualizing the Living Human Brain
5) A computed tomography (CT) scan of the brain is usually presented as a series of eight or nine
A) horizontal sections. D) sagittal sections.
B) frontal sections. E) midsagittal sections.
C) coronal sections.
Answer: A
Topic: 5.1 Methods of Visualizing and
Stimulating the Living Human Brain
Copyright © 2011 Pearson Education, Inc. All rights reserved.

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Test Bank for Biopsychology, 8/e
6) Which technique is illustrated here?

A) computed tomography
B) cerebral angiography
C) electroencephalography
D) magnetic resonance imaging
E) positron emission tomography
Answer: A
Topic: 5.1 Methods of Visualizing and
Stimulating the Living Human Brain
7) Which of the following procedures is not an adaptation of X-ray photography?

A) computed tomography D) angiography
B) MRI E) both A and C
C) CT
Answer: B
Topic: 5.1 Methods of Visualizing and Stimulating the Living Human Brain
8) Which of the following provides the most detailed three-dimensional view of the structure of the
living human brain?
A) CT D) EEG
B) PET E) MRI
C) angiography
Answer: E
9) Positron emission tomography is a valuable research tool because it

A) pictures the brain in fine detail. D) provides an image of brain structure.
B) involves angiography. E) involves low levels of radioactivity.
C) provides an image of brain function.
Answer: C
10) A patient is sometimes injected with radioactive 2-deoxyglucose before

A) a CT scan. D) positron emission tomography.
B) magnetic resonance imaging. E) a sodium amytal test.
C) a contrast X-ray.
Answer: D
Copyright © 2011 Pearson Education, Inc. All Rights Reserved.

102
Chapter 5: The Research Methods of Biopsychology
11) The reason why radioactive 2-DG is useful for revealing the level of activity of neurons in different
parts of the brain is that 2-DG
A) is absorbed by neurons in relation to their level of activity.
B) is metabolized by neurons in relation to their level of activity.
C) is not metabolized by neurons.
D) both A and C
E) both A and B
Answer: D
12) Functional MRI generates images of increases to areas of the brain of

A) oxygenated blood flow. D) alpha waves.
B) water flow. E) 2-DG.
C) nitric oxide flow.
Answer: A
13) Which technique records the BOLD signal?

A) MRI D) PET
B) CT E) MEG
C) fMRI
Answer: C
14) Functional MRI requires the injection of radioactive

A) water. D) oxygen.
B) glucose. E) none of the above
C) 2-DG.
Answer: E
15) Which method provides structural and functional information about the living human brain on the
same image?
A) functional MRI D) CT
B) angiography E) EEG
C) PET
Answer: A
16) Which of the following technique measures changes in magnetic fields on the surface of the brain?
A) MRI D) EMG
B) fMRI E) EEG
C) MEG
Answer: C

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17) Which of the following is a method used by cognitive neuroscientists to turn off part of the brain
while the effects on cognition and behavior are assessed?
A) 2-DG. D) PET.
B) ERP. E) EEG.
C) TMS.
Answer: C
18) Unlike brain-imaging techniques, TMS permits the study of __________ between human cortical
activity and cognition.
A) links D) neural connections
B) causal relations E) communication
C) correlations
Answer: B
19) An electroencephalograph is
A) a gross measure of the electrical activity of the brain.
B) a gross measure of the electrical activity of the cortex.
C) a gross measure of the electrical activity of neurons.
D) a gross measure of the electrical activity of groups of neurons.
E) an EEG machine.
Answer: E
Topic: 5.2 Recording Human Psychophysiological Activity
20) In human patients, EEG activity is commonly recorded directly from

A) muscle. D) the neocortex.
B) the hippocampus. E) the heart.
C) the scalp.
Answer: C
21) Alpha wave EEG activity is associated with

A) high arousal. D) epilepsy.
B) sleep. E) evoked potentials.
C) relaxed wakefulness.
Answer: C

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22) Which of the following biopsychologists would be most likely to study cortical ERPs in human
volunteers?
A) a neuropsychologist D) a psychopharmacologist
B) a psychophysiologist E) a comparative psychologist
C) a physiological psychologist
Answer: B
23) Signal averaging is commonly used in the recording of ERPs because it reduces the magnitude of
A) large signals. D) the P300.
B) sensory evoked potentials. E) far-field potentials.
C) random signals.
Answer: C
24) The main difference between an average evoked potential (AEP) and a "raw" evoked potential is that
A) an AEP is usually unobservable.
B) an AEP is an alpha wave.
C) a raw evoked potential is often unobservable amidst the random noise of the ongoing EEG signal.
D) an AEP is a unit response.
E) a raw evoked potential is likely to be larger.
Answer: C
25) The P300

A) is an EEG wave that often occurs after the presentation of a momentary stimulus meaningful to the
subject.
B) is a negative EEG wave.
C) is a far-field potential occurring 300 mm from the electrode.
D) occurs about 300 seconds prior to a response.
E) is a component of the potential evoked by a meaningless click.
Answer: A
26) The signals in the first few milliseconds of the average auditory evoked potential
A) always originate next to the scalp electrode.
B) are far-field potentials.
C) originate in the sensory nuclei of the brain stem.
D) all of the above
E) both B and C
Answer: E

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27) Components of AEPs recorded in the first few milliseconds after a stimulus are
A) almost always auditory.
B) almost always visual.
C) not usually influenced by the meaning of the stimulus.
D) of special interest to cognitive psychologists.
E) almost always influenced by the meaning of the stimulus.
Answer: C
28) The short-latency low-amplitude signals

(indicated by the arrow) in this average auditory
evoked potential are termed
A) the P300.
B) the P400.
C) the ERP.
D) the sensory evoked potential.
E) far-field potentials.
Answer: E
Topic: 5.2 Recording Human
Psychophysiological Activity
29) Modern computer techniques have made it possible to estimate the

A) time of particular EEG signals. C) frequency of particular EEG signals.
B) location of the source of particular EEG D) latency of far-field potentials.
signals. E) P300.
Answer: B
30) Muscle tension is monitored by

A) electroencephalography. D) ERPs.
B) electromyography. E) MEGs.
C) electrooculography.
Answer: B
31) Electrooculography is
A) usually performed with one electrode mounted on each cornea.
B) a method of estimating eye movement from eye muscle activity.
C) a method of measuring skin conductance.
D) an indirect method of measuring pupil constriction.
E) both A and B
Answer: B

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32) Electrooculography is a technique for monitoring

A) penile engorgement. D) eye movement.
B) cortical activity. E) muscle tension.
C) blood pressure.
Answer: D
33) In electrooculography, how many electrodes are typically used to monitor the movements of one
eye?
A) 4 D) 1
B) 8 E) 6
C) 2
Answer: A
34) Illustrated here is

A) electroencephalography.
B) magnetoencephalography.
C) electrooculography.
D) plethysmography.
E) electromyography.
Answer: C
Topic: 5.2 Recording Human
Psychophysiological Activity
35) If you were startled by a loud noise, there would be an increase in your skin's conductance of
electricity. This response is called
A) a skin conductance response. D) an average evoked potential.
B) an EKG. E) a P300 wave.
C) a skin conductance level.
Answer: A
36) Which gland or glands directly influence the SCL and the SCR?
A) gonads D) pancreas
B) pituitary gland E) thymus gland
C) sweat glands
Answer: C

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37) Which of the following is a record of a person's heart beat?

A) electrocardiogram D) all of the above
B) ECG E) both A and B
C) EKG
Answer: D
38) Hypertension is
A) stress. D) chronic low blood pressure.
B) caused by excitement. E) a sphygmomanometer.
C) chronic high blood pressure.
Answer: C
39) The level of 130/70 mmHg is

A) indicative of stress. .
B) the ratio of diastolic to total systolic blood D) a healthy human blood pressure.
pressure. E) both A and C
C) indicative of hypertension
Answer: D
40) Which of the following have traditionally been used by physicians to measure blood pressure?
A) sphygmomanometers D) electrodes
B) plethysmographs E) ERPs
C) oscilloscopes
Answer: A
41) Penile erection is

A) a muscular response. D) a sphygmomanometric response.
B) an electromyographic response. E) an aberrant response.
C) a plethysmographic response.
Answer: C
42) Stereotaxic surgery typically requires

A) a stereotaxic atlas. D) an electrode holder.
B) a stereotaxic instrument. E) all of the above
C) a head holder.
Answer: E
Topic: 5.3 Invasive Physiological Research Methods

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43) The method by which the experimental devices are accurately positioned in subcortical structures is
A) autoradiography. D) stereotaxic surgery.
B) cryogenesis. E) aspiration.
C) perfusion.
Answer: D
44) Bregma is
A) the point of intersection between two major skull sutures.
B) a common reference point for rat stereotaxic brain surgery.
C) a naughty word.
D) a type of electrode holder.
E) both A and B
Answer: E
45) The reference point for many stereotaxic atlases of the rat brain is
A) smegma. D) bregma.
B) lambda. E) both C and D
C) the intersection between two major fissures.
Answer: D
46) Unlike subcortical lesions, cortical lesions are often made by

A) the electrolytic method. D) transection.
B) aspiration. E) stereotaxic surgery.
C) radio-frequency current.
Answer: B
47) Which of the following brain lesion techniques is least likely to be associated with the destruction of
major blood vessels?
A) aspiration lesions D) knife cuts
B) electrolytic lesions E) lobotomy
C) radio-frequency lesions
Answer: A
48) The __________ created by the current is the main cause of tissue damage produced be a radio-
frequency lesion.
A) vibration D) ion deposits
B) current induction E) acid
C) heat
Answer: C

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49) Cryogenic blockade, if properly done,

A) destroys only those neurons that have been cooled.
B) produces a discrete area of permanent damage.
C) destroys neurons by freezing them.
D) produces little or no permanent neural damage.
E) eliminates all neural activity in the brain.
Answer: D
50) Cryogenic blockade is often referred to as a functional or reversible lesion because

A) the damage that it produces lasts only a few weeks.
B) the damage that it produces lasts only a day or two.
C) it temporarily eliminates the contribution of a particular area of the brain without damaging the brain.
D) it produces lesions that can be reversed with drugs.
E) the subjects always survive.
Answer: C
51) A temporary or reversible lesion can be produced by

A) excision or cutting. D) radio-frequency current.
B) aspiration or suction. E) invasive EEG.
C) cryogenic blockade.
Answer: C
52) Reversible lesions can be produced by microinjection directly into the target brain structure of
A) a local anesthetic. D) all of the above
B) lidocaine. E) both A and B
C) a coolant.
Answer: E
53) Lesions that are commonly referred to as amygdala lesions often

A) damage neural structures other than the amygdala.
B) do not destroy the entire amygdala.
C) damage prefrontal cortex.
D) both A and B
E) both B and C
Answer: D

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54) Lesions restricted to structures on one half of the brain are called
A) unilateral lesions. D) bipolar lesions.
B) bilateral lesions. E) unitary lesions.
C) monopolar lesions.
Answer: A
55) Lesions restricted to structures in one half of the brain usually have effects that are much less severe
than comparable
A) unilateral lesions. D) aspiration lesions.
B) bipolar lesions. E) bilateral lesions.
C) cryogenic lesions.
Answer: E
56) Intracellular unit recording is not commonly used in biopsychological research because
A) it is too difficult for biopsychologists.
B) biopsychologists are usually not interested in neurons.
C) it is a neurophysiological procedure.
D) it is very difficult to keep the tip of a microelectrode inside a single neuron in a moving subject.
E) all of the above
Answer: D
57) Intracellular unit recording is very difficult in

A) humans. D) freely moving animals.
B) monkeys. E) higher species.
C) rats.
Answer: D
58) Which method was used to record this

signal?
A) extracellular unit recording
B) intracellular unit recording
D) integrated multiple-unit recording
E) plethysmography
Answer: B
Topic: 5.3 Invasive Physiological Research
Methods

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59) Unlike other electrophysiological methods of recording neural activity, intracellular unit recording
provides measurements of
A) cell firing. D) reductions in neural firing.
B) action potentials. E) EEG activity.
C) the membrane potential.
Answer: C
60) Extracellular unit recording provides information about

A) the magnitude of the membrane potential. D) all of the above
B) the wave form of action potentials. E) none of the above
C) EPSPs.
Answer: E
61) Which method was used to record this

signal?
A) extracellular unit recording
B) intracellular unit recording
D) integrated multiple unit recording
E) plethysmography
Answer: A
Topic: 5.3 Invasive Physiological Research
Methods
62) Multiple-unit signals are typically

A) recorded through microelectrodes.
B) recorded through electrodes that are larger than microelectrodes.
C) integrated to facilitate their interpretation.
D) both A and C
E) both B and C
Answer: E
63) In laboratory animals, cortical EEG signals are commonly recorded through
A) stainless steel skull screws. D) disk electrodes taped to the scalp.
B) electrodes placed around the eyes. E) cortical pipettes.
C) subcortical electrodes.
Answer: A

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64) IP, SC, and IM are all

A) recording methods. D) cranial nerves.
B) drugs. E) routes of drug administration.
C) stimulation methods.
Answer: E
Topic: 5.4 Pharmacological Research Methods
65) Drugs that don't penetrate the blood brain barrier can be administered to brain tissue
A) by SC injection.
B) through a stereotaxically positioned cerebral cannula.
C) through an intracerebral microelectrode.
D) by IV injection.
E) by injection into a carotid artery.
Answer: B
66) Both ibotenic acid and kainic acid

A) are neurotoxins.
B) destroy neurons whose cell bodies are at the tip of an intracerebral cannula, while leaving axons
passing through the region undamaged.
C) are selective dopamine agonists.
D) are selective dopamine antagonists.
E) both A and B
Answer: E
67) The neurotoxin, 6-hydroxydopamine (6-OHDA) selectively destroys

A) neurons that release dopamine or norepinephrine.
B) axons.
C) cell bodies.
D) multipolar neurons.
E) the hypothalamus.
Answer: A
68) A method of identifying all of the brain areas of a laboratory animal that were particularly active
during a behavioral test is
A) cerebral dialysis. D) the 6-OHDA technique.
B) the 2-deoxyglucose technique. E) the kainic acid technique.
C) immunocytochemistry.
Answer: B

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69) The final stage of the 2-deoxyglucose technique involves

A) autoradiography. D) immunocytochemistry.
B) injecting 2-DG. E) cerebral dialysis.
C) injecting radioactive 2-DG.
Answer: A
70) A method of measuring the levels of neurochemicals in particular sites in the brains of active
laboratory animals is
A) cerebral dialysis. D) immunocytochemistry.
B) the 6-OHDA histological technique. E) electroencephalography.
C) in situ hybridization.
Answer: A
71) Cerebral dialysis is a method of

A) stimulating the brain.
B) stimulating the neuroendocrine system.
C) measuring changes in the extracellular concentrations of various neurochemicals at particular sites in
the brains of active animals.
D) 6-OHDA.
E) recording AEPs.
Answer: C
72) Which of the following is a technique for locating particular proteins in the brain?
A) immunocytochemistry. D) both A and B
B) the 6-OHDA technique. E) both A and C
C) in situ hybridization.
Answer: E
73) Which of the following procedures employs labeled antibodies?

A) immunocytochemistry D) electroencephalography
B) in situ hybridization E) both A and B
C) cerebral dialysis
Answer: A
74) In immunocytochemistry, the labeled ligand is

A) an amino acid. D) a neurotransmitter.
B) a microelectrode. E) a receptor.
C) an antibody.
Answer: C

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75) Immunocytochemistry is to in situ hybridization as

A) antibody is to messenger RNA. D) antibody is to DNA.
B) DNA is to antibody. E) RNA is to antibody.
C) neurotransmitter is to cell body.
Answer: A
76) Knockout mice are mice that

A) have had a concussion. D) both A and C
B) are susceptible to concussion. E) none of the above
C) have amnesia.
Answer: E
Topic: 5.5 Genetic Engineering
77) Which of the following is a weakness of the gene knockout technique as a method of
biopsychological research?
A) Most behavioral traits are influenced by many interacting genes.
B) Elimination of one gene often influences the expression of other genes.
C) The effects of some gene knockouts are likely to depend on experience.
D) all of the above
E) none of the above
Answer: D
78) Melanopsin knockout mice have difficulty

A) adjusting their circadian rhythms in response to changes in the daily light-dark cycle.
B) seeing.
C) sleeping on a regular schedule.
D) displaying circadian rhythms.
E) recognizing circadian signals.
Answer: A
79) Transgenic mice always possess

A) more genes than normal. D) fewer chromosomes than normal.
B) fewer genes than normal. E) genes of another species.
C) the characteristics of the other sex.
Answer: E

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80) Green fluorescent protein

A) was first isolated from a species of jelly fish.
B) fluoresces when exposed to blue light.
C) has been used to visualize neurons in a few plants and invertebrates, but not in higher organisms.
D) all of the above
E) both A and B
Answer: E
81) The brainbow technique

A) is an extension of the green fluorescent protein technique.
B) is a technique for labeling neurons in an animal different colors so that each can be traced.
C) has not yet been applied to neural tissue in multicellular animals.
D) both A and B
E) both A and C
Answer: D
82) A behavioral paradigm normally includes a method for

A) producing the behavioral phenomenon under investigation.
B) measuring the behavioral phenomenon under investigation.
C) recording brain activity.
D) all of the above
E) both A and B
Answer: E
Topic: Introduction: Behavioral Research Methods
83) The main difference between neurologists and neuropsychologists is that

A) neurologists deal with brain-damaged people.
B) neuropsychologists tend to focus on the assessment of complex behavioral problems.
C) neuropsychologists generally refer patients to neurologists, but not vice versa.
D) neurologists deal with behavior.
E) neurologists are scientists.
Answer: B
Topic: 5.6 Neuropsychological Testing
84) Neuropsychological assessment is useful because it can

A) assist diagnosis. D) all of the above
B) influence treatment. E) both A and B
C) be the basis for effective counseling.
Answer: D

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85) Before the 1950s, neuropsychological testing usually employed the

A) standardized-test-battery approach. D) neurological approach.
B) single-test approach. E) psychophysical approach.
C) customized-test-battery approach.
Answer: B
86) The primary purpose of the single-test and standardized-test-battery approaches to

neuropsychological testing was to
A) identify brain-damaged patients.
B) locate the area of brain damage.
C) characterize the nature of the psychological deficits.
D) measure brain activity.
E) compete with neurologists.
Answer: A
87) The modern customized-test-battery approach to neuropsychological testing typically begins with a
A) test of memory. D) test of emotion.
B) test of speech. E) battery of tests.
C) test of motor function.
Answer: E
88) Tests used in the modern customized-test-battery approach to neuropsychological testing

A) are often specifically designed to measure aspects of psychological function that have been spotlighted
by modern theories and data.
B) often focus on the cognitive strategies employed by the patient, rather than on just how well the patient
does.
C) often require skilled practitioners for their prescription, administration, and interpretation.
D) all of the above
E) both A and B
Answer: D
89) Many current neuropsychological assessments begin with the

A) sodium amytal test. D) Neuropsychiatric Test Inventory (NTI).
B) dichotic listening test. E) ERP.
C) WAIS.
Answer: C

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90) The digit-span test is a common test of

A) short-term memory. D) intelligence.
B) counting. E) lateralization.
C) arithmetic.
Answer: A
91) On the digit-span test, most people score about

A) 65%. D) 100%.
B) 85%. E) none of the above
C) 50%.
Answer: E
92) Which of the following is a test of language ability that employs objects of two shapes, two sizes,
and five different colors?
A) block-span test
B) token test
C) aphasia subtest of the Halstead-Reitan Neuropsychological Test Battery
D) paired-associate test
E) Wechsler Language Scale Test
Answer: B
93) Which of the following WAIS subtests is part of the Performance Scale?
A) Picture Completion D) Object Assembly
B) Digit Symbol E) all of the above
C) Block Design
Answer: E
94) Which of the following subtests of the WAIS involves cartoon drawings?
A) Object Assembly D) Similarities
B) Picture Arrangement E) Digit Span
C) Picture Coloring
Answer: B
95) The sodium amytal test and dichotic listening test are tests of
A) audition. D) language lateralization.
B) memory. E) language.
C) intelligence.
Answer: D

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96) In the sodium amytal test, injections are sequentially made into the left and right
A) language areas of the cortex. D) auditory cortex.
B) speech areas of the cortex. E) motor cortex.
C) carotid arteries.
Answer: C
97) In the sodium amytal test, an injection into the carotid artery contralateral to the dominant
hemisphere for speech renders the subject completely mute for
A) 50 seconds. D) 30 minutes.
B) 2 minutes. E) none of the above
C) 4 minutes.
Answer: E
98) In the conventional dichotic listening test of language lateralization,

A) seven digits are presented.
B) three digits are presented twice in rapid succession.
C) seven pairs of digits are presented.
D) three pairs of digits are presented.
E) seven dichotic stimuli are presented.
Answer: D
99) Memories that are demonstrated by improved performance in the absence of conscious awareness of
the memories are called
A) implicit memories. D) episodic memories.
B) explicit memories. E) short-term memories.
C) semantic memories.
Answer: A
100) Repetition priming tests are tests of

A) explicit memory. D) semantic memory.
B) implicit memory. E) consolidated memory.
C) episodic memory.
Answer: B

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101) Brain damage may produce selective language deficits associated with the sounds, grammar, or
meaning of language. In other words, they may disrupt
A) syntax, phonology, or semantics, respectively.
B) phonology, semantics, or syntax, respectively.
C) phonology, syntax, or semantics, respectively.
D) semantics, syntax, or phonology, respectively.
E) semantics, phonology, or syntax, respectively.
Answer: C
102) Dyslexia is a difficulty in

A) speaking. D) thinking.
B) reading. E) fleeming.
C) understanding.
Answer: B
103) A common neuropsychological test of frontal-lobe damage is the

A) Wisconsin Card Sorting Test. D) digit-span test.
B) token test. E) block-design test.
C) Rey-Osterrieth Complex Figure Test.
Answer: A
104) Illustrated here is the

A) Washington Symbols Test.
B) Wisconsin Card-Sorting Test.
C) a classic test of parietal-lobe damage.
D) both A and C
E) both B and C
Answer: B
105) Most cognitive neuroscientific research is based on the assumption that

A) complex cognitive processes result from the combination of simple constituent cognitive processes.
B) each constituent cognitive process is mediated by activity in a particular area of the brain.
C) constituent cognitive processes tend to be localized in subcortical structures.
D) all of the above
E) both A and B
Answer: E
Topic: 5.7 Behavioral Methods of Cognitive Neuroscience

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106) If a PET image is recorded while a subject is reading, many areas of activity on the PET image will
have nothing to do with the cognitive activity of reading. That is why cognitive neuroscientists often use
A) functional MRI. D) the additive-image control procedure.
B) structural MRI. E) EEG.
C) the paired-image subtraction technique.
Answer: C
107) A network of brain structures that tends to be active when a person sits quietly and lets her mind
wander has been termed the
A) limbic system. D) cerebral paradigm.
B) constituent cognitive processor. E) paired-image subtraction mode.
C) default mode network.
Answer: C
108) In most PET and functional MRI studies of cognitive processes, the signal-to-noise ratio is
increased by
A) subtraction. D) signal splitting.
B) addition. E) multiplication.
C) averaging.
Answer: C
109) Which of the following is a commonly studied species-common behavior?

A) copulating D) swimming
B) nest building E) all of the above
C) grooming
Answer: E
Topic: 5.8 Biopsychological Paradigms of Animal Behavior
110) The open-field test is usually conducted in

A) a large, empty chamber. D) a thigmotaxic chamber.
B) the animals' natural habitat. E) Iowa.
C) an open space in the animals' natural habitat.
Answer: A
111) In the open-field test, a high bolus count is frequently used as an indicator of
A) aggression. D) attention.
B) fearfulness. E) defense.
C) motor activity.
Answer: B

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112) In the open-field test, thigmotaxia is often used as a measure of

A) body temperature. D) obesity.
B) fearfulness. E) aggression.
C) sexual motivation.
Answer: B
113) If a rat with its hair erect, moves sideways towards another rat and then pushes against it, the
A) first rat is likely sexually motivated.
B) second rat is likely a female.
C) first rat is likely a female.
D) first rat is likely a dominant male displaying social aggression.
E) second rat is likely dominant to the first.
Answer: D
Diff:2 Page Ref: 125
114) In rats, "boxing" is usually a sign of

A) sexual motivation. D) defense against conspecific attack.
B) aggression. E) a lack of sexual motivation in alpha males.
C) predation.
Answer: D
115) The elevated plus maze is a commonly used test of

A) balance. D) all of the above
B) learning. E) none of the above
C) memory.
Answer: E
116) The elevated plus maze is commonly employed to study

A) memory. D) all of the above
B) anxiety or defensiveness. E) both A and C
C) aggression.
Answer: B
117) Normally, a male rat cannot intromit unless

A) it is by itself. D) the female has a low lordosis quotient.
B) it displays lordosis. E) it first ejaculates.
C) the female displays lordosis.
Answer: C

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118) Which of the following is a commonly used measure of male rat sexual behavior?
A) number of mounts required to achieve an intromission
B) number of intromissions required to achieve an ejaculation
C) duration of the interval between an ejaculation and the reinitiation of mounting
D) all of the above
E) both A and B
Answer: D
119) Which of the following is a commonly used measure of the sexual receptivity of female rats?
A) postejaculatory interval D) number of intromissions to ejaculation
B) mount frequency E) number of ejaculations to intromission
C) lordosis quotient
Answer: C
120) During conventional Pavlovian conditioning, the conditional stimulus is repeatedly presented just
before the
A) conditional response. D) operant response.
B) unconditional stimulus. E) classical stimulus.
C) other conditional stimulus.
Answer: B
121) In operant conditioning paradigms, the rate of a voluntary response is increased by __________ and
decreased by __________.
A) positive reinforcement; negative reinforcement
B) reinforcement; punishment
C) brain stimulation; food
D) food; brain stimulation
E) conditional stimuli; unconditional stimuli
Answer: B
122) The self-stimulation paradigm is

A) a Pavlovian conditioning paradigm. D) both A and C
B) an operant conditioning paradigm. E) both B and C
C) a punishment procedure.
Answer: B

123
123) In most self-stimulation paradigms,

A) laboratory animals press levers.
B) laboratory animals stimulate their own brains through implanted electrodes.
C) there is punishment, but no reinforcement.
D) all of the above
E) both A and B
Answer: E
124) The first time a wild rat encounters a food that it has never tasted before, it usually displays
A) conditioned taste aversion. D) temporal contiguity.
B) neophobia. E) an emetic reaction.
C) thigmotaxis.
Answer: B
125) Cancer patients sometimes develop conditioned taste aversions in response to their
A) tumors. D) X-rays.
B) bad news. E) ulcers.
C) chemotherapy.
Answer: C
126) The discovery of conditioned taste aversion challenged the

A) principle of equipotentiality.
B) belief that temporal contiguity is necessary for conditioning.
C) the engram theory of memory.
D) all of the above
E) both A and B
Answer: E
127) The radial arm maze is commonly used to study

A) eating. D) Pavlovian conditioning.
B) motor activity. E) discrimination learning.
C) foraging for food.
Answer: C
128) This apparatus is Diff: 2 Page Ref: 126

A) an elevated plus maze. Topic: 5.7 Behavioral Methods of Cognitive
B) a Hebb-Williams maze. Neuroscience
C) a wheel maze.
D) a Morris maze.
E) none of the above
Answer: E

124
129) Most radial arm mazes have

A) 8 or more arms radiating out from a central starting area.
B) 8 or more arms radiating out from a central goal area.
C) 8 arms that continuously revolve.
D) no goal areas.
E) no starting area.
Answer: A
130) In the typical radial arm maze, rats tend to orient themselves on the basis of
A) the colors of the arms. D) the length of the arms.
B) the size of the arms. E) external room cues.
C) the number of the arms.
Answer: E
131) The Morris water maze is commonly used to study

A) fish behavior. D) passive avoidance.
B) spatial ability. E) swimming.
C) maze running.
Answer: B
132) The typical Morris water maze

A) is circular. D) all of the above
B) contains a clearly visible escape platform. E) both B and C
C) is filled with clear water.
Answer: A

125
133) If a rat receives a single painful stimulus from a small object in a test box containing commercial
bedding material, the rat will usually investigate the object and then
A) flee. D) escape.
B) bury it. E) build a nest.
C) dig a tunnel.
Answer: B
134) Antianxiety (anxiolytic) drugs tend to reduce the amount of

A) conditioned taste aversion.
B) time spent in the closed arms of the elevated plus maze.
C) self-stimulation.
D) conditioned defensive burying.
E) both B and D
Answer: E
Diff: 3 Page Ref: 125&127

126
FILL-IN-THE-BLANK QUESTIONS
1) The patient is often injected with radioactive 2-DG before positron __________.
Answer: emission tomography
2) The two most common techniques for producing images of human brain function are PET and
functional __________.
Answer: MRI
3) A technique for disrupting activity in an area of cortex in healthy human subjects is __________
stimulation.
Answer: transcranial magnetic
4) In human subjects, EEG electrodes are often fixed to the __________ .

Answer: scalp
5) The unabbreviated name of the procedure used to record muscle tension is __________.
Answer: electromyography
6) The SCL and SCR are influenced by __________ glands.

Answer: sweat
7) Electrodes are typically implanted in subcortical structures by __________ surgery.

Answer: stereotaxic
8) Intracellular unit recording provides a measure of the __________ over time.

Answer: membrane potential
9) As the final step in the 2-deoxyglucose technique, brain slices are subjected to __________.
Answer: autoradiography

127
10) To facilitate immunochemistry, neurochemists have created stocks of __________ to most

neuropeptides.
Answer: antibodies
11) Gene __________ techniques are used to create organisms that lack particular genes.
Answer: knockout
12) The test of intelligence that is most frequently used in neuropsychological assessment is abbreviated
__________.
Answer: WAIS
13) A commonly used test of short-term memory is the __________ subtest of the WAIS.
Answer: digit span
14) In the open-field test, fearful rats are __________, that is, they stay near the walls of the test box.
Answer: thigmotaxic
15) Sexually receptive female rats often assume the __________ posture when mounted by a male rat.
Answer: lordosis
16) Pavlovian conditioning typically involves repeatedly presenting the conditional stimulus just before
the __________.
Answer: unconditional stimulus
17) Many cancer patients receiving chemotherapy develop conditioned __________.

Answer: taste aversions
18) The __________ maze typically has eight or more arms and is used to study the spatial abilities of
rats.
Answer: radial arm

128
19) The typical __________ maze contains a hidden escape platform.

Answer: Morris water
20) If a rat is hurt by an object in a test chamber containing commercial bedding material, the rat will
often __________ the object.
Answer: bury

129
ESSAY AND OTHER MULTIPLE-MARK QUESTIONS
1) Describe and compare the various techniques commonly used for obtaining structural images of the
living human brain.
Answer:
50% for describing contrast X-rays (e.g., cerebral angiography), CT, and MRI
50% for comparing them
Diff: 2 Page Ref: 103-104
2) Describe and compare the various methods for recording the electrical activity of the brain through
invasive electrodes.
Answer:
50% for describing intracellular unit recording, extracellular unit recording, multiple unit recording, and
invasive EEG recording
50% for comparing them
3) Describe the modern customized-test-battery approach to assessing the psychological deficits of

neuropsychological patients. Give examples of two specific tests. How is this approach an improvement
over previous approaches?
Answer:
40% for describing the two phases of this approach
40% for describing how this is an improvement over the standardized-test-battery approach
20% for intelligently discussing two specific tests
4) Discuss the assessment of memory deficits in neuropsychological patients. Discuss the effectiveness
of the memory span and repetition priming tests.
Answer:
50% for explaining that assessing memory deficits is complex because there are so many different kinds
of memory deficits
25% for describing the memory span test and its insensitivity to brain damage
25% for describing the repetition priming tests and that it is particularly sensitive to brain damage
5) Describe both the paired-image subtraction and the averaging techniques that are used in cognitive
neuroscience research. Why are they employed?
Answer:
35% for describing paired-image subtraction
35% for describing averaging
30% for explaining why they are used

130
6) Describe the conditioned taste aversion phenomenon and how it changed how researchers thought
about learning.
Answer:
20% for describing the step-by-step assumption
20% for describing the equipotentiality assumption
20% for describing the temporal contiguity assumption
40% for explaining how the discovery of conditioned taste aversion challenged these three assumptions
7) Your text describes three categories of paradigms for studying the behavior of laboratory animals.
Name and describe the three categories, and describe one example of each.
Answer:
25% for naming and describing "paradigms for the assessment of species common behaviors"
25% for naming and describing "traditional conditioning paradigms"
25% for naming and describing "seminatural animal learning paradigms"
25% for naming and describing one test from each category

131

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CHAPTER 5

THE RESEARCH METHODS OF BIOPSYCHOLOGY:

MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS

1) Vestibular function can be assessed by assessing a patient's reaction to

2) The ironic case of Professor P. makes the point that

4) Which of the following is a contrast X-ray technique?

Copyright © 2011 Pearson Education, Inc. All rights reserved.

6) Which technique is illustrated here?

7) Which of the following procedures is not an adaptation of X-ray photography?

9) Positron emission tomography is a valuable research tool because it

10) A patient is sometimes injected with radioactive 2-deoxyglucose before

Copyright © 2011 Pearson Education, Inc. All Rights Reserved.

12) Functional MRI generates images of increases to areas of the brain of

13) Which technique records the BOLD signal?

14) Functional MRI requires the injection of radioactive

Copyright © 2011 Pearson Education, Inc. All Rights Reserved.

20) In human patients, EEG activity is commonly recorded directly from

21) Alpha wave EEG activity is associated with

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25) The P300

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28) The short-latency low-amplitude signals

29) Modern computer techniques have made it possible to estimate the

30) Muscle tension is monitored by

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32) Electrooculography is a technique for monitoring

34) Illustrated here is

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37) Which of the following is a record of a person's heart beat?

39) The level of 130/70 mmHg is

41) Penile erection is

42) Stereotaxic surgery typically requires

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46) Unlike subcortical lesions, cortical lesions are often made by

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49) Cryogenic blockade, if properly done,

50) Cryogenic blockade is often referred to as a functional or reversible lesion because

51) A temporary or reversible lesion can be produced by

53) Lesions that are commonly referred to as amygdala lesions often

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57) Intracellular unit recording is very difficult in

58) Which method was used to record this

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60) Extracellular unit recording provides information about

61) Which method was used to record this

62) Multiple-unit signals are typically

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64) IP, SC, and IM are all

66) Both ibotenic acid and kainic acid

67) The neurotoxin, 6-hydroxydopamine (6-OHDA) selectively destroys

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69) The final stage of the 2-deoxyglucose technique involves

71) Cerebral dialysis is a method of

73) Which of the following procedures employs labeled antibodies?

74) In immunocytochemistry, the labeled ligand is

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75) Immunocytochemistry is to in situ hybridization as

76) Knockout mice are mice that

78) Melanopsin knockout mice have difficulty

79) Transgenic mice always possess

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80) Green fluorescent protein

81) The brainbow technique

82) A behavioral paradigm normally includes a method for