Review Innovations April 2024 CE Board Exam – Evaluation Exam 2

INSTRUCTION: Select the correct answer for each of the following questions.
Mark only one answer for each item by shading the box corresponding to the
letter of your choice on the answer sheet provided. STRICTLY NO ERASURES
ALLOWED.GOOD LUCK.

INSTRUCTION: Select the correct answer for each of the following questions.
GOOD LUCK.

PART 1: APPLIED MATHEMATICS, SURVEYING, PRINCIPLES OF TRANSPORTATION AND HIGHWAY

ENGINEERING, CONSTRUCTION MANAGEMENT AND METHODS

1. A swimming pool is constructed in the shape of two overlapping identical

circles having a radius of 9 m and each circle passes through the centers of
each other. Find the area common to the two circles.
A. 99.50 m2 C. 120.08 m2
B. 88.34 m 2 D. 81.56 m2

2. A 15-year municipal bond was issued 5 years ago. It pays 8% interest

semiannually on its face value of $15,000. At the end of 15 years, the face
value is paid. If your time value of money, or i, is 12.36%, what price should
you offer for the bond?
A. 11,560 C. 16,150
B. 15,160 D. 10,156

3. Ronron and Dandan run at constant speeds along the UP Diliman Academic Oval,
2,300 m loop. Running in opposite directions, they meet every 8 minutes, while
running in the same direction, they are together every 40 minutes. Find the
speed of the faster runner.
A. 115 m/min C. 164 m/min
B. 172 m/min D. 187 m/min

4. A goat is tied to a corner of a 30 ft by 35 ft building. If the rope is 40 ft

long and the goat can reach 1 ft farther than the rope length, what is the
maximum area the goat can cover?
A. 5281 ft2 C. 3961 ft2
B. 4084 ft2 D. 4970 ft2

5. If the time is 8:00 A.M. GMT +0, what is the time in Philippines, which is
located 120° East longitude?
A. 8:00 P.M. C. 4:00 A.M.
B. 8:00 A.M. D. 4:00 P.M.

6. If 8 men take 12 days to assemble 16 machines, how many days will it take 15
men to assemble 50 machines?
A. 18 C. 20
B. 22 D. 24

7. Jade the Legendary University must choose from among three plans for a new
classroom building. (1) Spending $21M now will meet the needs of the next 10
years. (2) Spending $13M now will meet the needs of the next 6 years. After 6
years, $12M would be spent on another building to meet the needs of the last
4 years. (3) For $15M now, the new building can be designed for expansion
later at a cost of $7M. If Metro U uses an interest rate of 5%, Which of the
following is the cheapest?
A. (3) is the cheapest with a present worth of 20.2 M.
B. (1) is the cheapest with a present worth of 21 M
C. (2) is the cheapest with a present worth of 22.3 M
D. (1) is the cheapest with a present worth of 19.2 M

8. What time after 3:00 o’clock would the hour-hand and the minute-hand of a
continuously driven clock subtends an angle of 45° for the second time?
A. 3:22.5 C. 3:23.5
B. 3:25.25 D. 3:24.54

9. Bea attends a college in Lucena, in which each class meets only once a week.
They are deciding between 30 non-overlapping classes. There are 6 classes to
choose from for each day of the week, Monday through Friday. Trusting in the
benevolence of randomness, she decides to register for 7 randomly selected

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 Review Innovations April 2024 CE Board Exam – Evaluation Exam 2

classes out of the 30, with all choices equally likely. What is the probability
that she will have classes every day, Monday through Friday?
A. 0.1501 C. 0.3091
B. 0.3019 D. 0.5110

10. VTech Drilling may buy a patent with 14 years of life left. If VTech spends
$1.5M to implement the technology, it expects net revenues of $650,000 per
year for the patent’s life. If VTech’s discount rate for money’s time value
is 10%, what is the maximum price that VTech can pay for the patent?
A. 2.2 M C. 4.4 M
B. 3.3 M D. 5.5 M

11. In a spherical triangle ABC, A = 116°19’, B = 55°30’, and C = 80°37’. What is

the value of side a.
A. 112.27° C. 113.21°
B. 115.57° D. 116.12°

12. A password used to gain access to a computer account consists of two lowercase
letters followed by four digits. Determine how many different passwords are
possible if the first letter must be a vowel (a, e, i, o, u) and the first
digit cannot be a 0, and repetition of letters and digits is not permitted.
A. 6,760,000 C. 567,000
B. 6,670,000 D. 3,276,000

13. Going against the wind, a domestic plane can travel 5/8 of the distance it can
travel in one hour if it is going with the wind. If the plane can fly 300
kilometers an hour in calm air, what is the velocity of the wind?
A. 69.23 kph C. 63.92 kph
B. 62.93 kph D. 96.23 kph

14. Trebron with his brother Jade Olaes want to make a manufacturing plant. A
fixed capital investment of P 10,000,000 is required for a proposed
manufacturing plant and an estimated working capital of P2,000,000. Annual
depreciation is estimated to be 10% of the fixed capital investment. Determine
the rate of return on the total investment and the minimum pay out period of
the annual profit.
A. 20.83%; 2.86 years C. 23.80 %; 6.28 years
B. 20.38 %; 2.68 years D. 23.08%; 6.66 years

15. One hundred people lined up to board flight SG 1989 to Singapore, to watch the
concert of a very famous singer, Taylor Sheeesh. Each has a boarding pass with
an assigned seat. However, the first person to board has lost their boarding
pass and takes a random seat. After that, each person takes the assigned seat
if it is unoccupied, and one of unoccupied seats at random otherwise. What is
the probability that the last person to board gets to sit in their assigned
seat?
A. 1/100 C. 1/2
B. 1/10 D. 99/100

16. You own some municipal bonds that were issued at 8% with semiannual interest
payments. They were to be repaid in 20 years. Calculate the effective interest
rate for $10 K bond that you can now sell for $ 8200. The bond matures in 14
years.
A. 12.7% C. 10.8%
B. 13.4% D. 16.1%

17. A plywood manufacturer produces a piece of plywood at a labor cost of P0.50

and material at P3.00. The fixed charges on business are P50,000 a month a
variable cost is P 0.50 a piece. If one plywood sells for P6.00 each, how many
pieces must be produced each month for manufacturer to break even.
A. 23,000 C. 24,000
B. 27,000 D. 25,000

18. An airplane flew from Manila (14°36’N, 121°05’E) at a course of S30°E

maintaining a certain altitude and following a great circle path. If its
groundspeed is 350 knots, after how many hours will it cross the equator.
A. 2.12 hrs C. 2.87 hrs
B. 3.51 hrs D. 1.79 hrs

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 Review Innovations April 2024 CE Board Exam – Evaluation Exam 2

19. A businessman invests in a medium scale business which cost him P 47,000. The
net annual return estimated is P14,000 for each of the next 8 years. Compute
the benefit cost ratio if the annual rate of interest is 18%.
A. 1.21 C. 1.26
B. 1.31 D. 1.62

Situation 1. A man owns a triangular lot on the corner of two intersecting streets
which intersects at an angle of 62°. The frontage of one street is 200m and on
the other side is 150m.

20. Determine the perimeter of these lot.

A. 552.93 m C. 592.52 m
B. 555.32 m D. 535.29 m

21. If the land is worth P1000 per sq.m. and the man has P1.2million with which
to increase the size of the lot, by how much can he lengthen the 150m frontage?
A. 13.53 m C. 13.59 m
B. 19. 35 m D. 15.39 m

PART 2: HYDRAULICS AND PRINCIPLES OF GEOTECHNICAL ENGINEERING

22. A 120 mm square piece of wood (sg = 0.75) is 1.5 m long. How many Newtons of
lead weighing 110 kN/m3 must be fastened at one end of the stick so that it
will float upright with 0.3 m out of water.
A. 15.47 C. 12.95
B. 11.63 D. 13.88

23. A stone weighs 100 N in air, and when immersed in water it weighs 60 N. Compute
the specific gravity of the stone.
A. 2.5 C. 3.4
B. 1.9 D. 2.9

24. A spherical balloon 9.5 m in diameter weighs 1250 N. It is filled with helium
weighing 1.65 N/m3. Determine the maximum load (N) the balloon can lift. γair
= 12 N/m3.
A. 3671 C. 3519
B. 3408 D. 3396

Situation 2. Consider a wooden cylinder (sg = 0.6) 1 m in diameter and 0.8 m long.
It is placed to float with its axis vertical in oil (sg = 0.85).

25. Compute the draft, in meters.

A. 0.565 C. 0.343
B. 0.454 D. 0.676

26. What is the metacentric height, in meters?

A. 0.003 C. 0.007
B. 0.005 D. 0.009

27. The cylinder will be:

A. in stable equilibrium C. in neutral equilibrium
B. in unstable equilibrium D. statically determinate

Situation 3. A dam 4 m on top, 18 m at the bottom and 24 m high has water 20 m

deep acting on its vertical side. Assume weight of masonry to be 2400 kg/m3.
Coefficient of friction between the base of the dam and the foundation is
0.80.

28. Calculate the factor of safety against sliding.

A. 2.53 C. 3.53
B. 1.53 D. 4.53

29. Compute the stress at the heel, in kPa.

A. 0 C. 270.5
B. 420.1 D. 345.3

30. Compute the stress at the toe, in kPa.

A. 0 C. 270.5
B. 420.1 D. 345.3

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 Review Innovations April 2024 CE Board Exam – Evaluation Exam 2

Situation 4. A surface load of 60 kPa is applied on the ground surface over a large
area. The soil profile consists of a sand layer 2 m thick, the top of which
is the ground surface, overlying a 4 m thick clay layer. An impermeable
boundary is located at the base of the clay layer. The water table is 1 m
below the ground surface. If the pre-consolidation for a sample of soil from
the midpoint of the clay layer is 60 kPa. The sand layer has a dry density of
1.6 g/cc and saturated density of 1.9 g/cc, while the clay layer has saturated
unit weight of 1.65 g/cc, e = 1.5, Cc = 0.6 and Cr = 0.1.

31. Find the effective overburden pressure.

A. 37.3 kPa C. 97.3 kPa
B. 39.6 kPa D. 99.6 kPa

32. Find the over consolidation ratio.

A. 1.78 C. 1.61
B. 2.14 D. 1.42

33. Settlement of clay layer.

A. 269 mm C. 222 mm
B. 235 mm D. 245 mm

Situation 5. A layer of sand 5 meters deep overlies a 4 m thick bed of clay. Assume
sand has saturated unit weight & dry unit weight of 20.9 kN/m3 & 17.4 kN/m3
respectively, while the clay has saturated unit weight of 17.8 kN/m3. Determine
the effective stress 9 m below the ground surface if:

34. The water table is at the ground level.

A. 118.96 kPa C. 87.41 kPa
B. 88.29 kPa D. 107. 03 kPa

35. The water table is at 2 meters below ground level and the sand above remains
saturated with capillary moisture.
A. 118.96 kPa C. 87.41 kPa
B. 88.29 kPa D. 107.03 kPa

36. If the water table is at the top of the clay.

A. 118.96 kPa C. 87.41 kPa
B. 88.29 kPa D. 107. 03 kPa

Situation 6. An embankment has a mass density of 1900 kg/m3. Laboratory test shows
that the soil has a dry density of 1550 kg/m3 and the void ratio at its loosest
and densest states were 0.85 and 0.42 respectively. The specific gravity of
soil particles is 2.66.

37. Determine the moisture content of the embankment.

A. 32.41% C. 28.63%
B. 18.14% D. 22.58%

38. Determine the saturated density in kg/m3.

A. 1967.3 C. 2056.2
B. 1852.3 D. 1753.1 kg/m3

39. Determine the relative density of the embankment.

A. 31.13% C. 45.21%
B. 36.53% D. 54.78%

PART 3: PRINCIPLES OF STRUCTURAL ANALYSIS AND DESIGN

Situation 7. A 4m reinforced concrete cantilever beam has a width of 300 mm and a

total depth of 600 mm with an effective depth of 536 mm. It is reinforced for
tension only with 5 - φ28mm tension bars. f’c = 27.5 MPa and fy = 415
MPa. In addition to live load and its own weight, the beam carries a 100-
mm-thick concrete slab (casted monolithically with the beam) with a
tributary width of 4 m. The unit weight of concrete is 23.5 kN/m3 Use
2010/2015 NSCP.

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 Review Innovations April 2024 CE Board Exam – Evaluation Exam 2

40. Determine the net tensile strain in the extreme tension steel when concrete
reaches the strain of 0.003.
A. 0.0020 C. 0.0065
B. 0.0045 D. 0.0055

41. Calculate the design moment capacity of the beam, in kN-m.

A. 568.4 C. 487.70
B. 511.6 D. 369.50

42. If a concentrated service live load will be placed at a distance of 2m from

support, determine its maximum safe value in kN.
A. 113.60 C. 285.40
B. 192.10 D. 98.70

Situation 8. The center diagonals of the truss in the figure can support tension
only.

B D F 300 lb

20’

A C H
20’ 20’ E 15’ G 15’

200 lb 600 lb 600 lb

43. Which of the following most nearly gives the reaction at H?

A. 460 lb C. 550 lb
B. 40 lb D. 990 lb

44. In space BCDE, find which diagonal is acting and the force in it.
A. BE, 1050 lb C. BE, 198 lb
B. CD, 1050 lb D. CD, 198 lb

45. In space DEFG, find which diagonal is acting and the force in it.
A. DG, 233 lb C. DG, 175 lb
B. EF, 233 lb D. EF, 175 lb

Situation 9. A 0.4 m x 0.8 m block is subjected to a 40 kN compressive load on

one of its corners as shown in the figure.

46. Determine the normal stress (MPa) at point A.

A. 0.375 C. 0.625
B. 0.250 D. 0.150

47. Determine the normal stress (MPa) at point B.

A. 0.375 C. 0.125
B. -0.125 D. 0

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 Review Innovations April 2024 CE Board Exam – Evaluation Exam 2

48. Determine the maximum normal stress (MPa).

A. -0.625 C. 0.625
B. 0.875 D. -0.875

Situation 10. A curved quarter-circular beam having a diameter of 100mm is shown

in the figure. Load P = 8 kN, R = 0.80 m, and θ = 50 deg.

49. What is the maximum shear stress (MPa) due to flexure alone at cross-section
A?
A. 0.849 C. 1.102
B. 1.358 D. 0.679

50. What is the maximum shear stress (MPa) due to torsion alone at cross-section
A?
A. 2.729 C. 7.625
B. 3.813 D. 11.643

51. What is the maximum bending stress (MPa) at cross-section A?

A. 20.372 C. 30.213
B. 41.903 D. 49.938

Situation 11. Given EI = 29 x 109 kN.mm2 , determine the following:

52. What is the theoretical deflection at the free end if the spring will be
removed?
A. 6.4 m C. 7.8 m
B. 5.1 m D. 1.3 m

53. What is the deflection of the spring?

A. 5.44 mm C. 22.35 mm
B. 19.76 mm D. 9.18 mm

54. Determine the moment at the fixed support.

A. 544.14 kN.m C. 1255.8 kN.m
B. 945.01 kN.m D. 501.92 kN.m

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 Review Innovations April 2024 CE Board Exam – Evaluation Exam 2

Situation 12. Given dataof a reinforced concrete beam.

Beam width = 300mm
Effective depth = 600mm
Stirrups = 2-legs 10mm𝜙
Materials: fc’ = 21 MPa (Normal weight concrete)
fy t= 275 MPa (for shear reinforcement)
Strength reduction factor = 0.75, use 2010 NSCP. Apply necessary provisions on
spacing limit.

55. Determine the required spacing of stirrups (mm) if Vu = 195 kN

A. 100 C. 300
B. 200 D. 400

56. Determine the required spacing of stirrups (mm) if Vu = 160 kN

A. 100 C. 200
B. 150 D. 300

57. If spacing of stirrups is 75 mm, determine the design shear of the section.
A. 313.00 C. 485.80
B. 364.35 D. 234.75

Situation 13. An 8 m W18x76 A36 steel beam has adequate lateral support.
Determine the following:

Properties of W18x76: bf = 280mm tf = 17.3 mm d = 462.5 mm tw = 10.8 mm

58. Find the allowable bending stress (MPa) of the beam.

A. 176 C. 149
B. 164 D. 205

59. Determine the allowable moment (kN-m).

A. 355 C. 390
B. 488 D. 419

60. Compute the safe uniform load (kN) if the beam is simply supported.
A. 48.7 C. 52.4
B. 61.0 D. 44.4

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