QATAR

MoPH EXAM
QUESTIONS
FOR GP

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1. The renal medulla is composed of tissue called.
1. Renal pyramids ✔
2. Nephrons
3. Renal sinus
4. Renal pelvis
2. Which of the following is not in the sequence of proper kidney blood flow? The starting point is the renal artery and the
finishing point is the renal vein.
1. Arciform artery
2. Afferent arteriole
3. Interlobar vein ✔
4. Arciform vein
3. Which is found in the highest concentration in the urine?
1. Uric acid
2. Urea ✔
3. Glucose
4. Creatinine
4. The primary function of the ascending loop of Henle in the kidney is?
1. The active re-absorption of sodium
2. The active re-absorption of chloride ions ✔
3. The passive re-absorption of potassium
4. The passive re-absorption of urea
5. The middle layer of the urinary bladder is identified as
1. Mucous coat
2. Submucous coat ✔
3. Muscular Coat
4. Sphincter Coat
6. The micturition reflex center is located in the ?
1. Pons
2. Midbrain
3. Lumbar plexus
4. Sacral plexus ✔
7. Which of the following match with the definition: a poor output of urine?
1. Oliguria ✔
2. Pyruia
3. Enuresis
4. Diuresis
8. Capillary loops located in the medulla are also known as
1. Vasa recta ✔
2. Urea collectors
3. Trigone
4. Macula densa

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 9. The primary function of the descending loop of Henle in the kidney is?
1. Reabsorption of sodium ions
2. Reabsoption of water by osmosis ✔
3. Secretion of hydrogen ions
4. Secretion of potassium ions
10. Which Diagnosis and treating abnormalities, diseases, and disorders of the heart.
1. Cardiology ✔
2. Urology
3. Nephrology
4. Radiology

11. Which of the following is used to Diagnosing and treating tumors and cancer.
1. Gynecology
2. Urology
3. Oncology ✔
4. Radiology
12. Which is Similiar to general practice in nature, but centering around the family unit.
1. Geriatrics
2. Pediatrics
3. Family Practice ✔
4. Obstetrics
13. Which of the following is used to Diagnosing and treating conditions of altered immunologic reactivity ?
1. Allergy ✔
2. Urology
3. Radiology
4. Oncology
14. Which of the following is used to Diagnosing and treating diseases and disorders of the female reproductive tract; strong
emphasis on preventive measures.
1. Urology
2. Neurology
3. Oncology
4. Gynecology ✔
15. Which of the following is used to Diagnosing and treating diseases and disorders of the central nervous system.
1. Nephrology
2. Urology
3. Neurology ✔
4. Gynecology
16. Which of the following is used to Diagnosing and treating disorders and diseases of the ear, nose, and throat.
1. Otorhinolaryngology ✔
2. Endocrinology
3. Radiology
4. Ophthalmology
17. Which of the following is used to Diagnosing and treating diseases and disorders of the kidney.
1. Oncology
2. Urology
3. Nephrology ✔
4. Neurology
18. Which of the following is used to Diagnosing and treating diseases and disorders with Roentgen rays (x-rays) and other
forms of radiant energy.
1. Urology
2. Neurology
3. Cardiology
4. Radiology ✔

19. Which of the following is used to Diagnosing and treating disorders of the skin.
1. Radiology
2. Cardiology
3. Neurology

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 4. Dermatology ✔
20. Which of the following is used to Diagnosing and treating diseases and disorders of the stomach and intestines.
1. Nephrology
2. Dermatology
3. Gastroenterology ✔
4. Gynecology

21. The primary function of the descending loop of Henle in the kidney is ?
1. Reabsorption of sodium ions
2. Reabsoption of water by osmosis ✔
3. Secretion of hydrogen ions
4. Secretion of potassium ions
22. Which of the following is not considered a part of the male urethra?
1. Prostatic
2. Membranous
3. Vasapore ✔
4. Penile
23. When glucose if found in urine it is called.
1. Glucosuria ✔
2. Uremia
3. Ureteritis
4. Glucose intolerance
24. Which of the following is not considered a component of kidney stones?
1. Calcium phosphate
2. Uric Acid
3. Calcium oxalate
4. HCO3 ✔
25. The one of the functions occurring at the distal convoluted tubule in the kidney is?
1. Passive secretion of hydrogen ions
2. Passive secretion of potassium ions ✔
3. Limited re-absorption of water
4. No re-absorption of sodium
26. ADH has which of the following effects on the distal convoluted tubule?
1. Decrease water re-absorption
2. Increase water re-absorption ✔
3. Decrease the concentration of urine
4. Increase the urine volume
27. Which of the following is not associated with the role of the kidneys?
1. Release of erythropoietin (hormone)
2. Release of renin (enzyme)
3. Release of Vitamin E ✔
4. Activate Vitamin D
28. Each kidney contains approximately nephrons.
1. 10 million
2. 1 million ✔
3. 100, 000
4. 10, 000
29. The release of Angiotension II causes which of the following to occur?
1. Increased filtration rate ✔
2. Decreased glomerular hydrostatic pressure
3. Increase synthesis of Vitamin E
4. Increased release of erythropoietin
30. Which of the following is an effect of a diuretic?

1. Decreased Cardiac Output ✔

2. Increased fluid volume
3. Increased sodium re-absorption
4. Increased chloride ion re-absorption

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31. Which of the following is not considered a loop diuretic ?
1. Bumetadine (BUMEX)
2. Furosemide (LASIX)
3. Chlorthiazide (DIURIL) ✔
4. Ethacrynic Acid (EDECRIN)
32. Which of the following is not one of the key steps in the grief process?
1. Denial
2. Anger
3. Bargaining
4. Rejection ✔
33. Which of the following matches the definition: Covering up a weakness by stressing a desirable or stronger trait?
1. Compensation ✔
2. Projection
3. Rationalization
4. Dysphoria
34. Which of the following waveforms is most commonly found with light sleepers?
1. Theta ✔
2. Alpha
3. Beta
4. Zeta
35. Which of the following months matches with an infant first having the ability to sit-up independently?
1. 4 months
2. 6 months ✔
3. 8 months
4. 10 months
36. Object permanence for toddlers develops in this age range?
1. 5 − 10 months ✔
2. 10 − 14 months
3. 12 − 24 months
4. 15 − 24 months
37. Which of the following matches the definition: Attributing of our own unwanted trait onto another person?
1. Compensation
2. Projection ✔
3. Rationalization
4. Dysphoria
38. Which of the following matches the definition: The justification of behaviors using reason other than the real reason?
1. Compensation
2. Projection
3. Rationalization ✔
4. Dysphoria
39. Which of the following matches the definition: Response to severe emotion stress resulting in involuntary disturbance of
physical functions?
1. Conversion disorder ✔
2. Depressive reaction
3. Bipolar disorder
4. Alzheimer’s disease
40. Which of the following waveforms is most commonly found when you are awake?
1. Theta
2. Alpha
3. Beta ✔
4. Zeta
41. The REM sleep cycle occur approximately every minutes?
1. 45
2. 60
3. 75
4. 90 ✔
42. Which of the following reflexes is not found at birth?

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 1. Babinski
2. Palmar
3. Moro
4. Flexion ✔
43. Parallel play for toddlers develops in this age range?
1. 5 − 10 months
2. 10 − 14 months
3. 12 − 24 months
4. 24 − 48 months ✔
44. Which of the following is not a sign of anxiety?
1. Dyspnea
2. Hyperventilation
3. Moist mouth ✔
4. GI symptoms
45. Which of the following best describes a person that is completely awake falling asleep spontaneously?
1. Cataplexy ✔
2. Narcolepsy
3. Transitional sleep
4. REM absence
46. Which of the following best describes a person that is unable to tell you were there hand or foot is?
1. Autotopagnosia ✔
2. Cataplexy
3. Ergophobia
4. Anosognosia
47. Which of the following is not a characteristic of a panic disorder?
1. Nausea
2. Excessive perspiration
3. Urination ✔
4. Chest pain
48. Which of the following categories would a 70 year old adult be placed in?
1. Intimacy vs. Isolation
2. Generativitiy vs. Stagnation ✔
3. Integrity vs. Despair
4. Longevity vs. Guilt
49. Which of the following categories would a 60 year old adult be placed in?
1. Intimacy vs. Isolation
2. Generativitiy vs. Stagnation ✔
3. Integrity vs. Despair
4. Longevity vs. Guilt
50. Which of the following categories would a 20 year old adult be placed in?
1. Intimacy vs. Isolation ✔
2. Generativitiy vs. Stagnation
3. Integrity vs. Despair
4. Longevity vs. Guilt

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51. A 48-year-old woman presents with intermenstrual bleeding for two months and episodes of bleeding
occurring any time inthe cycle. There is no associated pain. Differential diagnosis for intermenstrual
bleeding does not include:
1. Endocervical polyp
2. Cervical malignancy
3. Endometrial polyp
4. Ovarian teratoma ✔
5. Atrophic vaginitis.
52. All of the following drugs are associated with hyperprolactinaemia, apart from:
1. Reserpine
2. Progesterone-only contraceptive pill ✔
3. Methyldopa
4. Ranitidine
5. Chlorpromazine.
53. All of the following are effects of premature menopause, apart from:
1. Decreased cardiovascular risk ✔
2. Infertility
3. Osteoporosis
4. Vasomotor symptoms
5. Vaginal dryness.
54. A 32-year-old woman presents to the gynaecology clinic with infrequent periods. A hormone profi le is
done and all of thefollowing are consistent with polycystic ovarian syndrome, apart from:
1. Increased androgen levels
2. Normal FSH
3. Normal oestradiol
4. Decreased LH ✔
5. Low progesterone levels.
55. A 28-year-old woman attends the colposcopy clinic after an abnormal smear test. The smear is reported as
severe
dyskaryosis and she has an intrauterine contraceptive device in situ. All of the following statements are likely to be true,
apart from:
1. The cervix is macroscopically normal
2. Acetic acid is applied and an irregular white area is apparent to the left of the cervical os
3. Lugol’s iodine is applied and the same area stains dark brown while the rest of the cervix stains pale ✔
4. A biopsy is taken
5. The IUCD can stay, as it will not aggravate the cervical abnormality.
56. 24-year-old woman presents with the absence of periods for nine months. She started her periods at the
age of 13 years andhad a regular 28-day cycle until 18 months ago. The periods then became irregular,
occurring every two to three months
until they stopped completely. The following are all included in the differential diagnosis of secondary amenorrhoea, apart
from:
1. Excessive exercise
2. Hyperprolactinaemia
3. Hyperthyroidism ✔

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 4. Premature ovarian failure
5. Signifi cant weight loss
57. The following statements regarding adenomyosis are true, apart from one.
1. It tends to occur in women over 35 years.
2. Risk factors include increased parity, termination and quick labours. ✔
3. The condition commonly occurs in association with endometriosis.
4. With each period, bleeding occurs from the endometrial tissue into the smooth muscle.
5. The diagnosis can be made by ultrasound or magnetic resonance imaging scan.
58. A 20-year-old woman is referred with a problem of post-coital bleeding. Over the past two months it has occurred on six
occasions and there has been a small amount of bright red blood noticed after intercourse. There is no associated pain. The
following investigations should initially be performed, apart from:
1. Cervical smear
2. Endocervical swab for chlamydia
3. Colposcopy ✔
4. Dndocervical swab for gonorrhoea
5. Speculum examination to observe the cervix.
59. The following are all consistent with the diagnosis of antiphospholipid syndrome except:
1. Hydatidiform mole ✔
2. Severe early-onset pre-eclampsia
3. Arterial or venous thrombosis
4. Mid-trimester fetal loss
5. Placental abruption.
60. The following are all causes of recurrent miscarriage, apart from:
1. Parental chromosomal abnormality
2. Activated protein C-resistance
3. Uncontrolled hypothyroidism
4. Chlamydia infection ✔
5. Submucosal fi broids.
61. Which one of the following statements about pituitary tumours is true?
1. Weight loss is a common feature of pituitary failure (hypopituitarism) due to a pituitary tumour.
2. Visual fi eld loss in female patients with prolactin-secreting pituitary tumours (prolactinoma) is usual.
3. Adrenocorticotrophic hormone (ACTH) secreting pituitary tumours cause a syndrome of cortisol excess that can lead to
exaggerated vertical growth in adolescence.
4. Growth hormone defi ciency is a recognised feature in adult patients presenting with acromegaly due to a pituitary
macroadenoma.
5. A low testosterone level is more common than a low thyroxine level in men with non-functioning gonads. ✔
62. Which of the following statements concerning the anterior pituitary is true?
1. It develops in the embryo from a down-growth of the hypothalamus.
2. It secretes antidiuretic hormone (ADH).
3. It is regulated by hypothalamic-releasing hormones. ✔
4. It secretes its hormones into the pituitary portal system.
5. It is down-regulated by low oestrogen levels.
63. Which one of the following statements about the implantation of the human embryo is true?
1. It will occur at any time over a period of about 14 days.
2. It will occur whether or not the zona pellucida is present.
3. It will occur when the cytotrophoblast contacts the endometrial epithelium and begins to invade the maternal tissue.
4. It will occur with the inner cell mass closest to the endometrium. ✔
5. It will occur even if there is only cytotrophoblast present.
64. Which one of the following statements about puberty is true?
1. Puberty is preceded by falling plasma levels of adrenal androgens. ✔
2. The fi rst menstrual period is called the adrenarche.
3. The pubertal growth spurt is the fi rst sign of puberty.

4. Pubic hair growth is stimulated in girls by oestrogen.

5. Spermatogenesis starts at puberty.
65. Which is the most appropriate statement concerning pulmonary embolism?
1. It is now rarely fatal, with the introduction of modern diagnostic tests and treatments.

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 2. It gives an area of lung which is unventilated on a ventilationperfusion scan.
3. It does not usually show up on a CT pulmonary angiogram.
4. It is likely that the patient has symptoms of deep-vein thrombosis.
5. It may give symptoms similar to pneumonia. ✔
66. One of the following is true. It is recognised that the positive predictive value of initial mammography for breast cancer
within the national screening programme in the UK is 16%. This means that:
1. 16% of people who have breast cancer are detected on initial mammography
2. 84% of people without breast cancer have a normal mammogram
3. 16% of initial mammograms are abnormal
4. A patient with an abnormal initial mammogram has a 16% chance of having breast cancer ✔
5. Out of every 100 patients with an abnormal mammogram,
67. 17. One of the following is true. Successful fertilisation and subsequent normal embryonic development:-
1. Require at least two spermatozoa
2. Require the retention of the cortical granules in the oocyte
3. Are most likely when the oocytes have been ovulated in an immature stage
4. Require exclusion of the second polar body ✔
5. Often occur when the oocyte has lost its zona pellucida.
68. One of the following is true. The increase in maternal blood volume in pregnancy occurs as a result of:
1. Peripheral vasoconstriction
2. A reduction in progesterone
3. Decreased synthesis of vasopressin
4. Increased aldosterone synthesis ✔
5. Reduced renin activity.
69. One of the following is true. Decreased peripheral resistance in pregnancy has been attributed to an increase in synthesis of:
1. Angiotensin
2. Endothelin
3. Nitric oxide ✔
4. Renin
5. Thromboxane.
70. A 25-year-old woman on liver enzyme inducers is requesting contraceptive advice. The method providing her with the most
reliable form of contraception would be:
1. Combined oral contraceptive pill
2. Depo-Provera injection ✔
3. Diaphragm
4. Male condom
5. Progesterone-only pill.
71. A 35-year-old woman comes requesting long-term reversible contraception. You advise that the method that can provide
the longest protection is:
1. Contraceptive implant
2. Copper intrauterine device ✔
3. Depo-Provera injection
4. Intrauterine hormonal system (IUS)
5. laparoscopic sterilisation.
72. Regarding cervical cancer, which is the true statement?
1. HPV types 6 and 12 are high risk for developing cervical cancer.
2. The new vaccines can prevent invasive carcinoma but not CIN.
3. As soon as the new vaccination is introduced, cervical screening programmes can cease.
4. HPV types 16 and 18 account for the majority of cervical cancer in the world. ✔
5. HPV is an oncogenic virus for squamous cell but not adenocarcinoma of the cervix.
73. Regarding the menstrual cycle, which is the true statement?
1. Menstruation occurs with vasodilation of the spiral arteries.
2. The LH surge triggers menstruation.
3. The Graafi an follicle develops during the luteal phase.

4. Both the follicle and the corpus luteum secrete oestradiol. ✔

5. Progesterone levels fall after the onset of menstruation.
74. Regarding Müllerian duct abnormalities which is the true statement?
1. Occur about 1 in 500

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 2. The commonest uterine abnormality is septate uterus ✔
3. Occur not infrequently with gastrointestinal abnormalities
4. Surgical correction of a septate uterus is followed by fetal salvage in <60% of cases
5. Longitudinal vaginal septa are more common than transverseones.
75. Choose the correct statement: Uterine leiomyosarcomas:
1. Are associated with exposure to tamoxifen ✔
2. Originate from leiomyomas
3. Pelvic radiotherapy has a signifi cant impact on survival
4. Commonly metastasise to the brain
5. Anthracycline-based chemotherapy has no place in treatment.
76. Which one of the following statements about the menopause is correct?
1. Progesterone levels rise after the menopause.
2. LH levels rise after the menopause. ✔
3. The pituitary stops secreting LH and FSH at the menopause.
4. Menstrual cycles remain regular until the last menstrual period.
5. The number of oocytes in the ovary remains constant until the menopause.
77. Choose the correct statement: The female reproductive tract plays important roles in sperm transport by:
1. Trapping most spermatozoa in the cervical crypt for many days
2. Regulating sperm transport so that cells reach the site of fertilisation around the time of ovulation ✔
3. Allowing sperm transport at all stages of the ovarian cycle
4. Preventing spermatozoa from swimming out of the peritoneal cavity
5. Providing an acidic environment to keep the spermatozoa active.
78. Which one of the following statements is true: Semen analysis:
1. Identifi es men with high-quality fertile spermatozoa
2. Identifi es men with low sperm ✔ concentrations that might affect fertility
3. Can always be used to predict fertility
4. Cannot identify abnormal spermatozoa
5. Identifi es men with hypopituitarism.
79. One of the following is true. A malignant tumour arising in the mesenchymal tissue is called:
1. Adenoma
2. Carcinoma
3. Lymphoma
4. Melanoma
5. Sarcoma. ✔
80. One of the following is true. Affording moral status to a human embryo/fetus means that it now has:
1. An inalienable right to life
2. A right to life
3. A right to consideration
4. A right dependent on moral consensus ✔
5. A right not to be harmed.

81. At term amniotic fluid volume is

1. 800 ml ✔
2. 500 ml
3. 400 ml
4. 600 ml
82. what is the principal carbohydrate present in Amniotic fluid ?
1. Glucose ✔
2. Fructose
3. Mannose
4. Galactose
83. Oligohydramnios is related which of the following condition ?
1. Enal Agenesis ✔

2. Esophageal atresia
3. Anencephaly
4. Down’s syndrome
84. Early amniocentesis is done in which period of pregnancy

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 1. 12-14 wks
2. 14-16 wks ✔
3. 16-18 wks
4. 9-11 wk
85. Immune rejection of fetus prevented by
1. HCG ✔
2. HPL
3. Oestrogen
4. progesterone
86. what happens to GFR in a case of Pre-eclampsia ?
1. GFR Decreases ✔
2. GFR increases
3. Remains same
4. None of the above
87. Shortest diameter of pelvic Cavity
1. Interspinous ✔
2. Transverse
3. Antero-posterior
4. Oblique
88. Large Chorioangioma associated with
1. Polyhydroamnios ✔
2. Oligohydramnios
3. Both
4. None
89. Commonest presentation of Choriocarcinoma
1. Vaginal bleeding ✔
2. Abdominal pain
3. Breathlessness
4. Perforation of the uterus
90. Frog eye appearance is seen in
1. Anencephaly ✔
2. Acardia
3. Down’s syndrome
4. Patau’s syndrome
91. what of the following is seen in Partial mole
1. Triploidy ✔
2. Haploidy
3. Polyploidy
4. Diploidy
92. Cervical changes in pregnancy are all except ?
1. Increased collagen
2. Increased Hyaluronic acid ✔
3. Increased glands
4. Increased vascularity
93. Symptoms of circulatory systemic overload during excessive IV fluids include all except
1. Oliguria ✔
2. Increased BP
3. Anxiety
4. Pulmonary edema
94. Succinylcholine can produce all except
1. Induce malignant hyperthermia in susceptible patients
2. Prolonged paralysis occurs in case of butyrylcholinesterase abnormalities (as succinylcholine is not metabolized)
3. Tachycardia, particularly in children ✔
4. Increase intraocular pressure
95. Life threatening risks of anesthesia include all except
1. Hypoxic brain injury
2. Myocardial infarction

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 3. Postoperative nausea and vomiting ✔
4. Cerebrovascular accident
96. In a lower segment caesarean section, which of the following techniques of anesthesia is desirable
1. Spinal anesthesia
2. Caudal anesthesi
3. Combined Spinal Epidural ✔
4. General anesthesia
97. Predictors of difficult intubation include.
1. Short muscular neck
2. Prominent upper incisor
3. Protruding mandible
4. All of the above ✔
98. ASA standard monitors include all except
1. Pulse oximeter
2. CVP ✔
3. NIBP cuff
4. ECG
99. Ketamine; all are true except
1. Induction of anesthesia by IV route
2. Induction of anesthesia
3. Supplementation of sedation…
4. Decrease cerebral blood flow ✔
100. Signs of low perfusion include all except
1. Hypotension
2. Tachycardia
3. High Urine Output ✔
4. Poor Capillary refill

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101. Which of the following describes a person using words that have no known meaning?
1. Neologisms ✔
2. Neolithic
3. Verbalism
4. Delusional blocking
102. Which of the following is the mRNA start codon in most cases?
1. UAA
2. AGU
3. AUG ✔
4. UGA
103. Which of the types of RNA is the smallest?
1. mRNA
2. tRNA ✔
3. rRNA
104. Signs of low perfusion include all except.
1. Hypotension
2. Tachycardia
3. High Urine Output ✔
4. Poor Capillary refill
105. Balanced General Anesthesia includes
1. Skeletal muscle relaxant
2. Loss of consciousness
3. Analgesia
4. All of the above ✔
106. Depolarizing block may be done by
1. Atracurium
2. Neostegmin
3. Succinylcholine ✔
4. Rocuronuim
107. Intravenous regional anesthesia is more commonly used for operations of .
1. Neck surgeries
2. Lower abdomen
3. Upper limbs ✔
4. Lower limbs
108. Regarding morphine, all are true Except
1. Respiratory depression … effect
2. Can be IV subcutaneously, rectally and epidurally
3. Can cause nausea and vomiting
4. Less effective against pain of myocardial ischemia ✔
109. ASA III is
1. Normal, healthy patient

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 2. Patient with mild, well controlled systemic disease
3. Patient with sever systemic disease that limits activity ✔
4. Patient with sever life threatening disease
110. Premedication that can be given
1. Anxiolysis
2. Anti- emetic
3. Antacid
4. All of the above ✔

111. Mallampati grade suggests difficult intubation

1. Grade I
2. Grade II
3. Grade IV ✔
4. All of the above
112. Factor at increase risk of aspiration includes
1. Drinking clear fluids 8 hours before operation
2. Gastro esophageal reflux ✔
3. Chewing gum
4. Two hours preoperative oral clear fluid administration
113. In 70 kg patient one unit of platelet concentrate should increase platelet count
1. 2000 – 5000 mm3
2. 5000 – 10000 mm3 ✔
3. 10000 – 20000 mm3
4. More than 20000 ;mm3
114. The following are the classical hemolytic transfusion reaction in general anesthesia except
1. Hypotension
2. Wheezing
3. Hemoglobinuria
4. Bradycardia ✔
115. The mean arterial pressure of a blood pressure of 160/80 is
1. 90 mmHg
2. 100 mmHg
3. 110 mmHg ✔
4. 120 mmHg
116. Indication of rapid sequence anesthesia include all except
1. Patient ASA I undergoing elective cholecytectomy. ✔
2. Patient presented with bowel obstruction
3. Morbid Obesity Patients
4. Pregnancy
117. Thiopental (sodium thiopental, Thiopentone, STP) characterized by the following except
1. Prepares as a pale yellow 10.5 (alkaline)
2. After iv bolus, rapidly …
3. Effects include decrease cerebral blood flow and O2 requirements
4. Has good analgesic … ✔
118. An ECG is performed and reveals a progressively increasing PR interval and dropping of QRS complexes at regular intervals.
Which ofthe following is the most likely diagnosis?
1. First-degree heart block
2. Second-degree heart block (Mobitz type 2)
3. Second-degree heart block (Mobitz type 1) ✔
4. Hyperkalaemia
119. What view of the heart do leads V1 and V2 represent?
1. Inferior
2. Septal ✔

3. Anterior
4. Lateral
120. Which artery is most likely to be affected in the context of ST elevation being present in leads V3 and V4?
1. Left anterior descending coronary artery ✔

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 2. Right coronary artery
3. All of the above
4. Left circumflex coronary artery
121. What is the most common cause of left axis deviation?
1. Defects of the conduction system ✔
2. Left ventricular hypertrophy
3. Right ventricular hypertrophy
4. Atrial septal defects
122. Which of the following is a common cause of right axis deviation?
1. Right ventricular hypertrophy ✔
2. Ventricular septal defect
3. Left ventricular hypertrophy
4. Atrial septal defect
123. What does ST-elevation suggest?
1. Myocardial infarction ✔
2. Heart murmur
3. Heart block – Mobitz type II
4. Bundle branch block
124. A patient is noted to have an abnormally shortened PR-interval on their ECG. Which of the following is the most likely
cause?
1. Right bundle branch block
2. Atrioventricular nodal fibrosis
3. Wolff-Parkinson-White (WPW) syndrome ✔
4. Left bundle branch block
125. If ST-elevation was noted in leads II, III and aVF, what would it suggest?
1. A posterior myocardial infarction
2. An inferior myocardial infarction ✔
3. A septal myocardial infarction
4. An anterior myocardial infarction
126. What view of the heart do leads V3 and V4 represent ?
1. Anterior✔
2. Septal
3. Inferior
4. Lateral
127. What is the normal duration of a QRS complex?
1. 0.04 seconds (1 small square)
2. 0.08 seconds (2 small squares)
3. 0.16 seconds (4 small squares)
4. 0.12 seconds (3 small squares) ✔
128. If there were 3 large squares in an R-R interval what would the heart rate be?
1. 70 bpm
2. 80 bpm
3. 90 bpm
4. 100 bpm ✔
129. What view of the heart do leads I, aVL, V5 and V6 represent?
1. Inferior
2. Septal
3. Lateral ✔
4. Anterior
130. An ECG reveals an absence of P-waves and an irregular rhythm. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
1. 2nd-degree heart block
2. 1st-degree heart block
3. Atrial fibrillation ✔
4. Ventricular tachycardia
131. What is the duration of a normal PR-interval?
1. 0.04 – 0.08 seconds (1-2 small squares)
2. 0.08 – 0.12 seconds (2-3 small squares)

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 3. 0.12 – 0.2 seconds (3-5 small squares) ✔
4. 0.04 – 0.12 seconds (1-3 small squares)
132. What view of the heart do leads II, III and aVF represent?
1. Inferior ✔
2. Septal
3. Lateral
4. Anterior
133. Which of the following are functions of progesterone?
1. Inhibition of oestrogen production
2. Inhibition of LH and FSH production ✔
3. Initiation of the secretory phase of the endometrium ✔
4. Increase in basal body temperature ✔
134. Where are luteinizing hormone (LH) and follicle stimulating hormone (FSH) produced?
1. Hypothalamus
2. Anterior pituitary ✔
3. Posterior pituitary
4. Adrenal glands
135. At which stage in the uterine cycle does the proliferative phase occur?
1. Days 1-5
2. Days 5-14 ✔
3. Days 15-28
136. Which of the following symptoms indicate that a woman is about to ovulate?
1. Decrease in basal body temperature
2. Increase in basal body temperature ✔
3. Thickening of cervical mucous
4. Thinning of cervical mucous
137. Where is gonadotrophin-releasing hormone produced?
1. Anterior pituitary
2. Posterior pituitary
3. Hypothalamus ✔
4. Adrenal glands
138. At which point in the menstrual cycle is a woman most fertile?
1. Days 1-5
2. Days 9-16 ✔
3. Days 17-21
4. Days 22-28
139. Which of the following statements are true about menstruation?
1. In a normal 28 day menstrual cycle you would expect menstruation to last approximately 3-5 days. ✔
2. During menstruation the entire endometrium is shed.
3. During menstruation only the functional layer of the endometrium is shed, with the basal layer remaining intact. ✔
4. Absence of menstruation always indicates an active pregnancy.
140. At which stage of the uterine cycle does the menstrual phase occur?
1. Days 1-5 ✔
2. Days 5-14
3. Days 14-28
141. At which stage in the uterine cycle does the secretory phase occur?
1. Days 1-5
2. Days 5-14
3. Days 14-28 ✔
142. Which of the following are functions of luteinizing hormone (LH)?
1. Formation and maintenance of the corpus luteum ✔
2. Thinning of the Graafian follicles membrane ✔
3. Stimulation of follicle development
4. Stimulation of GnRH production
143. In a normal 28 day menstrual cycle, when would you expect the LH surge to occur?
1. Days 8-10
2. Days 11-13 ✔

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 3. Days 14-16
4. Days 17-19
144. Which one of the following is the primary source of progesterone in the later stages of pregnancy?
1. Fetus
2. Endometrium
3. Corpus luteum
4. Placenta ✔
145. Which hormone is the corpus luteum responsible for producing?
1. Oestrogen
2. Progesterone ✔
3. Follicle-stimulating hormone
4. Luteinizing hormone
146. Which of the following are effects of increased levels of oestrogen in the follicular phase of the menstrual cycle?
1. Hair thinning
2. Thickening of cervical mucous
3. Thinning of cervical mucous ✔
4. Thickening of the endometrium ✔
147. At 22 weeks gestation where would you expect to find the uterine fundus?
1. Halfway between umbilicus and xiphisternum
2. Umbilicus ✔
3. Xiphisternum
4. Symphysis pubis
148. Which of the following are causes of postpartum haemorrhage?
1. Vaginal or vulval lacerations
2. Uterine atony
3. Retained placenta
4. Coagulapathy
5. All of Above ✔
149. Which of the following are recognised causes of intrauterine growth restriction (IUGR)?
1. Diabetes
2. Pre-eclampsia
3. Smoking
4. Hypertension
5. Alcohol
6. All of above ✔
150. Which period of gestation does the 3rd trimester represent?
1. 30-41 weeks
2. 27-39 weeks
3. 28-40 weeks
4. 29-40 weeks ✔

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201. In males which hormone stimulates Sertoli cells to produce androgen binding globulin (ABG)?
1. Luteinizing hormone (LH)
2. Follicle stimulating hormone (FSH) ✔
3. Oxytocin
4. Gonadotrophin releasing hormone (GnRH)
202. At what age should a child be referred to a paediatrician if they have not begun to walk?
1. 18 months ✔
2. 12 months
3. 15 months
4. 9 months
203. A resurgence of which hormone precipitates puberty?
1. Oestrogen
2. GnRH ✔
3. Testosterone
4. LH
5. FSH
204. How is the seasonal flu vaccination usually administered in children aged 2 and 3?
1. SC injection
2. Orally
3. Rectally
4. Nasally ✔
5. EIM injection
205. Which of the following sentences best describes meconium?
1. The first stool when a child has been fully weaned.
2. green stool.
3. The first stool passed by a child. ✔
4. The first stool after introduction of wheat.
5. The first stool after introduction of feeds.
206. Around what age should a child be able to build a tower of three building blocks?
1. 21 months
2. 18 months ✔
3. 15 months
4. 9 months
5. 12 months
207. At what age should a child develop a mature pincer grip?
1. 3-6 months
2. 2 years
3. 9-12 months ✔
4. 6-9 months
5. 12-18 months
208. In normal fine motor development, which of the following should occur first?
1. Copying a triangle
2. Copying a circle ✔
3. Drawing a square
4. Tripod pencil grip
5. Copying a cross

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209. What is the cut-off for an acceptable weight loss in the first 7 days
of life?1. 7%
2. 10% ✔
3. 5%
4. 20%
5. 15%
210. Which of the following should be avoided when weaning a child of 7 months?
1. Wheat
2. Formula milk
3. Honey ✔
4. Meat-containing products
5. Breastmilk

211. Which of the following is an example of “Double-syllable babble” displayed by an infant around 9-12 months?
1. Ma-da
2. Ba-ma
3. Ma-ba
4. Ba-da
5. Ba-ba ✔
212. What type of cardiomyopathy is most commonly associated with the sudden death of young athletes?
1. Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy ✔
2. Restrictive cardiomyopathy
3. Dilated cardiomyopathy
213. What are the classic signs of a cardiac tamponade?
1. Hypotension, muffled heart sounds, increased jugular venous distension (JVD) ✔
2. Tachycardia, dyspnoea, fever
3. Bradycardia, weakness in arms, diaphoresis
4. Hypertension, palpitations, chest pain
214. Ventricular septal defect (VSD) is the most common congenital heart defect, what condition is it most likely to be
associated with?
1. Congenital rubella
2. Down’s syndrome
3. Fetal alcohol syndrome ✔
4. Maternal diabetes
215. What are the characteristics of stable angina?
1. Chest pain that occurs with exertion and/or emotional stress ✔
2. Severe and crushing chest pain (>20 mins)
3. Chest pain that occurs at rest
4. Bradycardia
216. What is the most frequent etiologic agent of acute infective endocarditis in IV drug abusers?
1. Streptococcus viridans
2. Staphylococcus aureus ✔
3. Staphylococcus epidermidis
4. Streptococcus bovis
217. What is the key complication in the first 24 hours of an MI?
1. Fibrinous pericarditis
2. Coronary artery aneurysm
3. Arrhythmia ✔
4. Mitral insufficiency

218. What is the most commonly involved coronary artery in myocardial infarction (MI) ?
1. Right coronary artery (RCA)
2. Left anterior descending artery (LAD) ✔
3. Left circumflex artery (LCA)

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 4. Posterior descending artery (PDA)
219. What is the best description of Eisenmenger’s syndrome?
1. It occurs when a right to left shunt becomes left to right due to a build-up of pressure on the left side of the heart.
2. It is due to failure of the aorticopulmonary septum to spiral.
3. It is due to lack or aorticopulmonary septum formation.
4. An initial left to right shunt becomes right to left due to increased pulmonary blood flow and eventual right ventricular
hypertrophy (RVH). ✔
220. What is the most common cause of right-sided heart failure?
1. Left-sided heart failure ✔
2. Chronic lung disease (Cor Pulmonale)
3. Hypothyroidism
221. What gross histological change correlates with white blood cells’ (WBCs) invasion into cardiac tissue during the first
week after anMI?
1. Yellow pallor ✔
2. Dark discolouration
3. White scar
4. Red border around yellow pallor
222. What is the most common cause of sudden cardiac death (SCD)?
1. Cocaine abuse
2. Mitral valve prolapse
3. Cardiomyopathy
4. Ventricular arrhythmia ✔
223. What heart condition is Turner’s syndrome associated with?
1. Tricuspid atresia
2. Truncus arteriosus
3. Coarctation of the aorta ✔
4. Patent ductus arteriosus
224. What is the main complication of the macrophage phase (4 to 7 days) after an MI?
1. Fibrinous pericarditis
2. Arrhythmia
3. Aneurysm / Mural thrombus / Dressler’s syndrome
4. Cardiac tamponade / Shunt through the ventricular wall / Mitral insufficiency ✔
225. Choose the complete and accurate grouping of right to left shunts
1. Atrial septal defect (ASD), Patent ductus arteriosus (PDA), Ventricular septal defect (VSD)
2. Truncus arteriosus, Transposition of great vessels, Tricuspid atresia, Tetralogy of Fallot, Total anomalous pulmonary venous return
(TAPVR) ✔
3. ASD, TAPVR, VSD
4. PDA, Truncus arteriosus, tetralogy of fallot
226. What is the most common cause of mitral stenosis?
1. Chronic rheumatic valve disease ✔
2. Acute rheumatic fever
3. Congestive heart failure
4. Infective endocarditis
227. What does the ECG show in prinzmetal angina?
1. ST segment elevation ✔
2. ST segment depression
3. Absent P waves
4. Prolonged PR interval
228. Which of the following conditions is Marfan’s syndrome most commonly associated with?
1. Endocarditis
2. Restrictive cardiomyopathy
3. Arrhythmia
4. Aortic dissection ✔
229. What bone disorder is caused by an autosomal dominant defect in the synthesis of collagen type 1?
1. Osteogenesis imperfecta ✔
2. Achondroplasia
3. Osteopetrosis

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 4. Osteomyelitis
230. A patient presents with a heliotrope rash, a malar rash and Gottron’s papules on the elbows and knees. She cannot comb her
hair or climb the stairs due to muscle weakness. Lab results show an increased creatine kinase, positive antinuclear antibody
(ANA) and anti-
Jo-1 antibody. Biopsy reveals perimysial inflammation with perifascicular atrophy. She is treated with corticosteroids.
What diseasedoes the patient have?
1. Polymyositis
2. X- linked muscular dystrophy
3. Dermatomyositis ✔
4. Rheumatoid arthritis
231. What bone tumour is associated with lifting of periosteum off bone producing the Codman triangle and a sunburst
appearance onX-ray?
1. Osteosarcoma ✔
2. Osteoma
3. Ewing sarcoma
4. Chondroma
232. On biopsy, a mosaic pattern of lamellar bone is revealed. What disease is associated with these results?
1. Osteoporosis
2. Sickle cell disease
3. Paget’s disease of bone ✔
4. Osteopetrosis
233. Select the cause/s of vitamin D deficiency.
1. Minimal sun exposure ✔
2. Poor diet ✔
3. Liver failure and renal failure ✔
4. Malabsorption ✔
234. Acute gout presents as painful inflammation of the big toe which is referred to as podagra. What is an acute treatment for
gout?
1. Allopurinol
2. Probenecid
3. Febuxostat
4. Colchicine ✔
235. What are the key lab features in osteomalacia?
1. Normal serum calcium, normal serum phosphate, normal PTH, normal alkaline phosphatase
2. ↑ serum calcium, ↓serum phosphate, ↑PTH, ↑alkaline phosphatase
3. ↓ serum calcium, ↓ serum phosphate, ↑ PTH, ↑ alkaline phosphatase ✔
4. ↓ serum calcium , ↑ serum phosphate , ↑PTH, ↑alkaline phosphatase
236. Synovial fluid was sampled for a joint condition and rhomboid shaped crystals with weak positive birefringence under
polarised light were found. What joint disease is this an indicator of?
1. Pseudogout ✔
2. Gout
3. Rheumatoid arthritis
4. Osteoarthritis
237. Achondroplasia is a disorder of bone whereby there is a mutation in the fibroblast growth factor receptor 3 (FGFR3) gene
leading toimpaired cartilage proliferation in the growth plate. Why is it that affected children have a normal sized head
and vertebral column whilst arms and legs are shortened?
1. Growth hormone and insulin like growth factor 1 levels only affect long bones
2. Intramembranous bone formation (flat bones) vs endochondral bone formation (long bones) ✔
3. Flat bones are less susceptible to fracture
4. Difference in bone density
238. What is the pathogenesis of osteopetrosis (marble bone disease)?
1. Poor osteoclast function due to a carbonic anhydrase II mutation ✔
2. Defective mineralization of osteoid
3. Reduction in trabecular bone mass
4. Imbalance between osteoclast and osteoblast activity with an osteoclastic phase, a mixed osteoclastic- osteoblastic phase
followed by an osteoblastic phase
239. Which joint disease is associated with morning stiffness that improves with activity?
1. Osteoarthritis

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 2. Gout
3. Rheumatoid arthritis (RA)D ✔
4. Ankylosing spondylitis
240. What is the pathogenesis of pemphigus vulgaris?
1. IgG antibody against desmoglein ✔
2. IgG antibody against hemidesmosome components
3. Autoimmune deposition of IgA at tips of dermal papillae
4. DEnzyme defect in tyrosinase
241. What condition is associated with this presentation? A pink pearly nodule with telangiectasias, ulceration and rolled
borders on theupper lip.
1. Squamous cell carcinoma
2. Basal cell carcinoma ✔
3. Melanoma
4. Eczema
242. How does impetigo present?
1. Golden honey coloured crust over an erythematous base✔
2. Salmon coloured plaque with silvery scale
3. Comedones, pustules and nodules
4. Flesh coloured papule with a rough surface
243. What is the pathogenesis of
vitiligo?
1. Congenital lack of pigmentation
2. Increase in the number of melanosomes
3. Autoimmune destruction of melanocytes✔
4. Benign proliferation of melanocytes
244. What disease is associated with dermatitis herpetiformis?
1. Herpes
2. Coeliac disease ✔
3. Atopic dermatitis
4. Melanoma
245. What childhood infection is associated with Koplik spots?
1. Measles✔
2. Rubella
3. Varicella
4. Fifth disease
246. What type of melanoma is often seen in dark skinned individuals?
1. Superficial spreading
2. Lentigo maligna melanoma
3. Nodular
4. Acral lentiginous✔
247. What is the best indicator of prognosis for a melanoma?
1. Asymmetry
2. Colour
3. Diameter
4. Invasion of the dermis ✔
248. How does lichen planus present clinically?
1. Salmon coloured plaques with silvery scale
2. Pruritic, red, oozing rash with edema
3. Golden coloured crusts
4. Pruritic, purple, polygonal, planar papules and plaques ✔
249. What are the histological findings of psoriasis?
1. Inflammation of the dermal-epidermal junction
2. Peripheral palisading of basal cells
3. Acanthosis, Parakeratosis and Munro microabscesses ✔

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 4. Keratin pseudocysts
250. What is the most common causative agent of erythema multiforme (EM)?
1. Penicillin and sulphonamides
2. Systemic lupus erythematosus
3. HSV infection ✔
4. Malignancy

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251. What is the most common mole found in adults?
1. Junctional nevus
2. Compound nevus
3. Intradermal nevus ✔
4. Congenital nevus
252. What condition is associated with acanthosis nigricans?
1. Type 2 diabetes and gastric adenocarcinoma ✔
2. Rubella
3. Varicella zoster
4. Basal cell carcinoma
253. What disorder is characterised by an initial ‘herald patch’ which is then followed by scaly erythematous plaques
usually in a‘Christmas tree’ distribution?
1. Pityriasis rosea ✔
2. Herpes
3. Varicella zoster virus
4. Erysipelas
254. What is the infective agent implicated in acne?
1. Staphylococcus aureus
2. Streptococcus pyogenes
3. Staphylococcus epidermidis
4. Propionibacterium acnes ✔
255. What is a precursor to squamous cell carcinoma (SCC)?
1. Keratoacanthoma
2. Actinic keratosis ✔
3. Leser-Trélat sign
4. Measles
256. What is Leser-Trélat sign?
1. Sudden appearance of multiple seborrhoeic keratoses and is an indicator of a gastrointestinal tract carcinoma. ✔
2. A left supraclavicular node associated with gastric carcinoma
3. Metastasis of gastric carcinoma to the periumbilical region
4. Metastasis of gastric carcinoma to the bilateral ovaries
257. What skin condition is caused by poxvirus?
1. Verruca
2. Molluscum contagiosum ✔
3. Impetigo
4. Cellulitis
258. An elderly lady presents to her doctor with a raised, round discoloured plaque, ‘stuck on appearance’ on her face. What skin
condition is this?
1. Rubella
2. Seborrheic keratosis ✔
3. Basal cell carcinoma

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 4. Melasma
259. What is the grading system for prostatic cancer?
1. Breslow thickness
2. Bloom Richardson
3. Gleason ✔
4. Fuhrman
260. What is priapism?
1. Inability to void the bladder
2. Abnormal curvature of the penis
3. Painful erection lasting > 4 hours ✔
4. Cyst due to a dilated testicular duct
261. What area does prostate cancer spread to most frequently?
1. Brain
2. Lung
3. Pancreas
4. Lumbar spine ✔
262. What tumour is characterised by findings of ‘Schiller Duval bodies’ on histology and raised levels of AFP on blood tests?
1. Yolk sac tumour ✔
2. Embryonal carcinoma
3. Teratoma
4. Sertoli cell tumour
263. What is the most common congenital male reproductive disorder?
1. Hydrocoele
2. Testicular torsion
3. Peyronie’s disease
4. Cryptorchidism ✔
264. What are the risk factors for developing germ cell tumours?
1. Orchitis
2. Hydrocoele and varicocele
3. Klinefelter syndrome and cryptorchidism ✔
4. Hypospadias and epispadias
265. How does testicular torsion typically present?
1. Sudden pain in the scrotum and an absent cremasteric reflex ✔
2. Swelling of the scrotum and fever
3. A painless testicular mass that cannot be transilluminated
4. ‘Bag of worms’ appearance of the scrotum
266. Are testicular tumours usually biopsied?
1. Yes
2. No ✔
267. What type of testicular tumour fits this description? A homogenous and painless mass with the absence of
haemorrhage. On histology, findings include large cells in lobules with clear cytoplasm ‘fried egg appearance’.
1. Teratoma
2. Choriocarcinoma
3. Leydig cell tumour
4. Seminoma ✔
268. What is the causative agent of condyloma acuminatum?
1. Chlamydia trachomatis
2. HPV 6 or 11 ✔
3. HSV
4. E-coli
269. Do varicoceles typically appear on the right side or the left side?
1. Right

2. Left ✔
270. What is hypospadias?
1. Opening of urethra on the ventral surface of the penis ✔
2. Opening of urethra on dorsal surface of the penis

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 3. Inflammation of the testicles
4. Benign warty growth on genital skin
271. What is the best description for the area of the prostate that the carcinoma usually affects?
1. Posterior and peripheral region ✔
2. Anterior and peripheral region
3. Periurethral region
4. Entire anterior region
272. The vocal cords are attached anteriorly by the arytenoid cartilage.
1. True
2. False ✔
273. The bridge of the nose is made out of cartilage.
1. True
2. False ✔
274. Waldeyer’s ring is the ring that surrounds the tympanic membrane.
1. True
2. False ✔
275. The superior part of the tympanic membrane is known as the pars flaccida.
1. True ✔
2. False
276. The bones of the ear from the outside to inside
are:Incus
Stapes
Malleus
1. True
2. False ✔
277. The ‘cone of light’ is a reflection of light on the tympanic membrane that points superiorly.
1. True
2. False ✔
278. The Eustachian tube connects the eye to the nose.
1. True
2. False ✔
279. The tensor tympani is the only muscle present in the inner ear.
1. True
2. False ✔
280. The tongue is partially innervated by the facial nerve
1. True ✔
2. False

281. The cochlea is responsible for balance.

1. True
2. False ✔
282. A 28-year-old man presents to his GP with a 4cm mobile anterior neck mass. A fine needle aspirate is performed which
reveals cellswith ‘orphan Annie eye’ nuclei and psammoma bodies.
What is the most likely diagnosis?
1. Thyroglossal duct cyst
2. Follicular carcinoma
3. Medullary carcinoma
4. Papillary carcinoma ✔
5. Lingual thyroid
283. What is the most common type of thyroid carcinoma?
1. Follicular carcinoma
2. Papillary carcinoma ✔
3. Medullary carcinoma

4. Anaplastic carcinoma
284. Which of the following features is NOT typical for Graves disease?
1. Hyperplasia of the follicles
2. Scalloping of the colloid

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 3. Irregular shaped follicles
4. Infiltration of mononuclear cells into retro-orbital connective tissues
5. Extensive infiltration of the mononuclear cells into the thyroid parenchyma ✔
285. A 37-year-old woman presents to the clinic with 2 days of sudden onset pain in the anterior neck radiating to the
jaw. She isotherwise well having reported a full recovery from a ‘cold’ a week ago.
What findings are NOT consistent with her diagnosis?
1. Plasma cells aggregating around damaged thyroid follicles
2. Dense fibrosis of the thyroid gland ✔
3. Neutrophilic infiltration of the thyroid
4. Formation of microabscesses
5. Multinucleated giant cells encapsulating colloid fragments
286. A 62-year-old gentleman presents to the clinic with a 5cm painless neck mass as well as diarrhoea for the past 3 months. A
biopsy istaken and he is subsequently diagnosed with medullary carcinoma.
Which of the following features is consistent with a medullary carcinoma?
1. Grossly soft and tender mass
2. Diagnosis of MEN-1 syndrome
3. Haematologic metastatic spread
4. High levels of calcitonin ✔
5. Localised amyloid deposits
287. Which of the following features is NOT consistent with follicular carcinoma?
1. Malignant proliferation of follicular cells
2. Follicular carcinomas are diagnosed via fine needle aspiration ✔
3. More common in women than men
4. Commonly have PI-3K/AKT signalling pathway mutations
5. Uniform cells forming small colloid containing follicles
288. A 46-year-old female presents to the preadmission clinic and is found to have a 3cm anterolateral firm painless neck mass
along witha minor decrease in calcium serum levels.
What is the most likely diagnosis?
1. Anaplastic carcinoma
2. Medullary carcinoma ✔
3. Follicular carcinoma
4. Papillary carcinoma
5. Parathyroid carcinoma
289. Which of the following features are NOT consistent with anaplastic carcinoma?
1. Large, pleomorphic giant cells
2. Occasional osteoclast-like multinucleated giant cells
3. Spindle cells
4. Poor prognosis
5. Positive thyroglobulin markers ✔
290. What thyroid cancer has the worst prognosis? (choose the answer that shows the correct descending order, the first being
the cancerwith the worst prognosis and the last being the one with the best prognosis)
1. anaplastic > medullary > follicular > papillary ✔
2. anaplastic > medullary > papillary > follicular
3. anaplastic > papillary > medullary > follicular
4. medullary > anaplastic > papillary > follicular
5. medullary > anaplastic > follicular > papillary
291. An 18-year-old female presents with a painless 1cm mass in the anterior neck region. A biopsy is taken revealing fluid
contained within pseudostratified columnar epithelium.
What is the most likely diagnosis?
1. Follicular adenoma
2. Branchial cyst
3. Thyroglossal duct cyst ✔
4. Thyroid cystitis

5. Parotid tumour
292. Conjoint tendon is formed by ?
1. External and internal oblique
2. External oblique and transversus abdominis

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 3. Internal oblique and transversus abdominis ✔
4. Internal oblique
293. Multiple bilateral dentigerous cysts are seen in ?
1. Down’s syndrome
2. Maroteaux lamy syndrome ✔
3. Teacher collin syndrome
4. Gorlin Goltz syndrome
294. COC is now called as?
1. Odontogenic ghost cell tumor
2. Dentinogenic ghost cell tumor ✔
3. Keratcysticodontogenic tumour
4. A & C
295. Facial nerve paralysis is common with?
1. Pleomorphic adenoma
2. Epidermoid carcinoma
3. Warthin’s stumour
4. Lymphoepithelial carcinoma ✔
296. The most aggressive and destructive cyst is ?
1. Periapical cyst
2. Dentigerous cyst✔
3. Globulomaxillary cyst
4. Nasopalatine cyst
297. Standard treatment of ameloblastoma ?
1. Segmental resection with 1 cm of normal bone ✔
2. Enbloc resection
3. Enucleation
4. Enucleation with cauterization
298. The most common odontogenic cyst is ?
1. Primordial cyst
2. Dentigerous cyst
3. Radicular cyst ✔
4. Mucocele
299. Cyst arising from dental lamina ?
1. Radicular cyst
2. Paradental cyst
3. Eruption cyst
4. Glandular odontogenic cyst ✔
300. Adenomatoid odontogenic tumour is characterized histologically by ?
1. Polyhedral epithelial cells
2. Tubular / duct like cells ✔
3. Stellate shaped cells
4. Stratified squamous epithelial cells

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 Editorial Staff
Lab Tests Guide Founder

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