Dental 8

PROMETRIC
MODEL
QUESTIONS
DENTIST
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1. A material behaves in certain ways above and below the proportional limit on a stress strin curve, which of the .
following is correct______________?
A. Above the proportional limit a material function in a plastic manner, while below the proportional limit it
behaves as an elastic
B. Above the proportional limit a material functions in an elastic manner, while below the proportional limit
it behaves as an plastic
C. Either A or B
D. Neither A or B
2. Which of the following is correct________________?

A. Type I and Type II gold can be heat treated and annealed
B. Type III and Type IV gold can be heat treated and annealed
C. Type I and IV gold can be heat treated and annealed
D. All the type of gold can be heat treated and annealed
3. Which of the following is present in the powder of the acrylic resin______________?

A. Methyl methacrylate
B. Benzoyl peroxide
C. Hydroquinone
D. D-methyl paratolouidine
4. Boiling point of methyl methacrylate________________?

A. B.P of water
B. < B.P of water
C. Equal of BP of water
D. Is at normal room temperature
5. The main advantage of composites over unfilled direct filling resin is their_____________?
A. Higher solubility in saliva
B. Lower modulus of elasticity
C. Esthetic excellence
D. Lower thermal co-efficient of expansion
6. Composite has_______________?
A. Resin
B. Filler
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C. Resin & Filler
D. None
7. Acrylic resins are used for______________?

A. Anterior restorations
B. Temporary bridges
C. Denture base
D. All of the above
8. To prevent porosity in self-cure acrylic resin, curing should be carried in______________?

A. Cold water
B. Hot water
C. Under tap water
D. Under vacuum pressure
9. Porosity present in a acrylic denture is usually the result of______________?

A. A prolonged curing cycle
B. Lack of sufficient pressure applied to flask
C. Insufficient acrylic resin monomer
D. Prolonged bench cooling after curing
10. Cross linking in denture base resin is contributed by_____________?

A. Glycol dimetharylate
B. Benzoyl peroxide
C. N-para toluidine
D. Methyl methacrylate
11. Hydroquinone is added to methyl methacrylate monomer_________________?

A. To prevent polymerization during storage
B. To initiate release of free radicalls
C. To enable polymerization reaction at room temperature
D. All of the above
12. Which of the following inhibitor accelerator system uses light activation composite ?
A. Diketone-amine
B. Organic acid-metal oxide
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C. Organic acid-peroxide
D. Peroxide-amine
13. Which of the following is an example of a composite material ?

A. A filled resin
B. Colloidal silica
C. Gold alloy
D. Wax
14. In heat cure denture base acrylic resins the monomer is___________?
15. Methacrylate
2. Ethylmethacrylate
3. Methyl ethyl methacrylate
4. Polymethylmethacrylate
16. Light cure system, side effect is____________?

A. Iritis
B. Cataract
C. Conjunctivitis
D. Retinal damage
17. Bonding of composite resins to tooth structure is by________________?

A. Covalent bond
B. Ionic bond
C. Mechanical
D. Vanderval forces
18. The type of spatula used to mix composite is________________?

A. Plastic
B. Stainless steel
C. Iron
D. None of the above
19. Which of the following may result if an excessive amount of monomer is incorporated into an acrylic resin mixture
?
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A. Excessive expansion
B. Low impact strength
C. Excessive shrinkage
D. Excessive brittleness
20. Benzoin methyl ether in a polymer indicates that they may be cured in the presence of________________?
A. UV light
B. Visible light
C. Infrared light
D. Diketone
21. Porosity of denture base is due to_______________?

A. Packing at dough stage
B. Curing at 160°F for 9 hrs
C. Inadequate pressure
D. All of the above
22. The imperfection seen on the lingual flange of a lower denture caused by rapid heating during a curing cycle is
called_____________?
A. Localised Shrinkage porosity
B. Gas inclusion porosity
C. Micro porosity
D. Surface porosity
23. The particle size in microfilled composites is_____________?

A. 0.05 to 0.04mm
B. 0.5 to 1.0 microns
C. 0.01 to 0.1 microns
D. 0.3 to 0.4mm
24. A material which is a mixture of two different materials and its properties are_____________?
A. Composite
B. Complex material
C. Combined
D. Compound
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25. Co-efficient of thermal expansion is highest for_____________?
A. Amalgam
B. Silicate cement
C. Gold alloy
D. Acrylic resin
26. The latest method of curing denture base resins______________?

A. Heat
B. Visible light
C. Chemicals
D. Lasers
27. One of the claims for the superiority composite resin restoration over silicate cement restorations is that the resin
restorations_____________?
A. Prevent galvanic action
B. Are practically insoluble in oral fluids
C. Adapt to the walls of the cavity better
D. Have a higher coefficient of thermal expansion
28. To cure a heat cure resin, a proper heating cycle is necessary_____________?

A. To prevent the porosity
B. To prevent warpage
C. To prevent volume expansion
D. All of the above
29. When restoring a tooth with resin material, acid etching can do all of the following except______________?
A. Increase the surface area
B. Permit chemical bonding between resin and enamel
C. Create surface irregularities in enamel for better mechanical retention of resin
D. Condition the tooth surface for better wetting
30. For esthetic areas where high luster is required the restoration used usually______________?
A. Glass ionomer restoratives
B. Hybrid resin composites
C. Microfilled resin composites
D. Macrofilled resin composites
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31. Which of the following absorbs maximum amount of water ?
A. Microfilled resin
B. Macrofilled resin
C. Hybrid
D. Light cure activated
32. The restoration which shows percolation and shrinkage along the margins is_____________?
A. Composites
B. Unfilled resins
C. Amalgam
D. Polycarboxylate
33. The commonly used laser for curing composite resin is______________?
A. Nd:YAG
B. CO2
C. ER:YAG
D. Argon
34. What is the polymerization shrinkage if 3:1 powder: liquid ratio is used____________?
A. 6%
B. 8%
C. 10%
D. 21%
35. Macromolecules in Dental Resin is attached by______________?

A. Covalent bonds
B. sonic bonds
C. Vander Wall’s Forces
D. Hydrogen Bonds
36. Along with polymerisation shrinkage, one of the major disadvantages of polymethyl methacrylate as denture base
resin are its poor_____________?
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A. Biological properties
B. Thermal properties
C. Mechanical properties
D. Esthetic properties
37. The most common coupling agents are organic silicon compound called_______________?
A. Parabane
B. Ligane
C. Silane
D. Chelane
38. One bottle system of adhesive resins_____________?

A. 4th generation bonding agents
B. Separate etching step not required
C. Separate etching step is still required
D. Contains only primer
39. Most advantageous indication of acid etching is______________?

A. Decrease micro leakage
B. Decrease polymerization shrinkage
C. Decrease coefficient of thermal expansion
D. Decrease porosity in restorative material
40. VLC resins are also called as______________?

A. Microwave-activated resins
B. Tertiary amine-activated resins
C. Light activated resins
D. Heat activated resins
41. Cold cure acrylic expand in water by___________?

A. 1% by volume 0.23% by weight
B. 10% by volume 0.23% by weight
C. 0.1% by volume 0.23% by weight
42. Which of the following is NOT true of polymethyl methacrylate ?
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A. Knoop hardness number 18 to 20
B. Tensile strength of 60 MPa
C. Density of 1.13 g/cm3
D. Modulus of elasticity of 3.4 GPa
43. Etchant preferred in gel from than in liquid form________________?

A. Better control over placement
B. Enhance and concentrate the action of acid
C. Helps in visualization while placement
44. During polymerisation of acrylic resin, above what temperature benzoyl peroxide form
freeradicals_______________?
A. 25°C
B. 37°C
C. 50°C
D. 60°C
45. Etching depth after 30 sec for orthodontic bracket with orthophosphoric acid is_________________?
A. 10 um – 20 um
B. 3 um – 9 um
C. 50 um – 110 um
D. 200 um – 250 um
46. The accepted polymer to monomer ratio for packing of polymethyl methacrylate resin is____________?
A. 3:1
B. 4:1
C. 10:1
D. 5:1
47. Residual monomer content of chemically activated resins is______________?

A. 0.2% to 0.5%
B. 2% to 5%
C. 0.3% to 0.5%
D. 2% to 5%
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48. Dentin conditioner has the following function______________?
A. Removes smear layer
B. Increases surface energy of dentin
C. Forms a thin resin layer over exposed collagen fibrils
D. Helps in bonding with composite
49. The process wherein two or more chemically different monomers, each with some desirable property, can be
combined to yield specific physical properties of a polymer is known as_____________?
A. Step-growth polymerization
B. Addition polymerization
C. Condensation polymerization
D. Copolymerization
50. Denture acrylics contain cross-linking agents mainly to improve their_____________?

A. Internal color
B. Tissue compability
C. Surface hardness
D. Craze resistance
51. Subsurface porosity is due to_____________?

A. Thermal changes
B. Thickness of the resin
C. Lack of temperature
D. Packing past the dough stage
52. If resin is packed in sandy stage what will be seen in the processed denture ?
A. Distortion
B. Porosity
C. Inhomogeneous colour
D. Increased strength
53. Which one of the following is used as filler in composite resins ?

A. Quartz
B. Silicates
C. Zinc particles
D. Aluminium
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54. Insufficient closure of the flasks during packing of denture base resin can result in_____________?
A. Poor colour stability
B. Less polymerization shrinkage
C. Increase in vertical dimension
D. Decrease in vertical dimension
55. Quartz tungsten light cure device minimum output of energy should not be less than_____________?
A. 300 mw/sm2
B. 350 mw/cm2
C. 400 mw/cm2
D. 450 mw/cm2
56. Polymerisation of heat-cured methyl methacrylate is initiated by______________?

A. Tertiary amine
B. Benzoyl peroxide free radical
C. Hydroquinone
D. Methyl ether
57. In processing methyl methacrylate, the resin may show porosity if the flask is placed too soon porosity most likely
occur_____________?
A. Throughout the denture
B. Near the borders
C. In the thickest part
D. On the denture surface
58. Composite resins in comparison to acrylic have_______________?

A. Low compressive strength
B. High abrasive resistance
C. High water absorption
D. High polymerization shrinkage
59. Insufficient closure of the flasks during packing of denture base resin can result in_____________?
A. Poor colour stability
B. Less polymerization shrinkage
C. Increase in vertical dimension
D. Decrease in vertical dimension
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60. Subsurface porosity is due to_____________?
A. Thermal changes
B. Thickness of the resin
C. Lack of temperature
D. Packing past the dough stage
61. If resin is packed in sandy stage what will be seen in the processed denture ?
A. Distortion
B. Porosity
C. Inhomogeneous colour
D. Increased strength
62. Which one of the following is used as filler in composite resins ?

A. Quartz
B. Silicates
C. Zinc particles
D. Aluminium
63. The chemical used to etch enamel is_______________?

A. Zinc oxide
B. Methyl methacrylate
C. Phosphoric acid
D. Eugenol
64. Which of the following procedure is indicated to produce cross-linking in the polymerization of linear chains of
acrylic_______________?
A. Addition of grain refining agents
B. Addition of difunctional monomers
C. Increasing the amount of heat required for linear polymerization
D. Incorporation of terminating agents
65. For photo-curing the composite resin the light source______________?
A. Should be held at a millimeter distance from the restoration
B. Need no protection while in use
C. Will cure composite upto a depth of 5 millimeter thickness
D. Is fiber optic
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66. In self-cure acrylic resin, activator is_____________?
A. Toluidine
B. Quaternary ammonium compound
C. Benzoyl peroxide
D. Tertiary amine
67. Marginal leakage related to temperature change occurs to the greatest extent with_______________?
A. Amalgam alloy
B. Unfilled resin
C. Composite resin
D. Direct filling gold
68. Acrylic resins were first introduced as a denture base material in______________?
A. 1925
B. 1937
C. 1951
D. 1956
69. What is the disadvantage of using composites as restorative material ?

A. Increased thermal conductivity
B. Decreased wear resistance
C. Decreased thermal conductivity
70. The % of free monomer in a heat – cured acrylic resin is_______________?

A. 3% to 5%
B. 8% to 10%
C. 0.2% to 0.5%
D. 0.6% to 0.8%
71. Inadequate pressure application during flasking_______________?

A. Increases vertical dimension
B. Causes teeth to be shrunken in investment
C. Causes poor quality of colour
D. Causes fracture of denture
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72. Inorganic phase of the composites aid in_______________?
A. Increasing the mechanical strength
B. Decreasing the coefficient of thermal expansion
C. Reducing the polymerization shrinkage
D. All of the above
73. About polymerization shrinkage of composite all are true, except______________?

A. Polymerization shrinkage is greater if bonded surface area is lesser than unbounded surface area
B. Polymerization shrinkage is high if within the enamel margins
C. Acid etching and priming will decrease polymerization shrinkage
D. Microleakage can occur because of polymerization shrinkage
74. The advantage of unfilled methyl methacrylate is that______________?

A. It can be finished smoothly
B. It has a low degree of flow
C. It’s non-irritation to pulp
D. It’s wear resistant is high
75. Dentin bonding agents usually contain_____________?

A. Only Hydrophobic component
B. Only Hydrophilic component
C. Hydrophobic and hydrophilic component
D. Lyophillic and lyophobic component
76. Which of the following provide opacity to composite ?

A. TEGDMA
B. BIS-GMA
C. Ti02
77. The polymerization of self-curing resin takes faster in______________?
A. Cold water
B. Hot water
C. Under pressure
D. In vaccum
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78. Acid-etching is done for_______________?
A. 30 seconds
B. 60 seconds
C. 90 seconds
D. 120 seconds
79. No trail closure is necessary with which one of the technique during denture fabrication_____________?
A. Compression moulding technique
B. Injection moulding technique
C. Fluid resin technique
D. Light cured technique
80. The function of the coupling agent in a restorative resin is to allow______________?

A. Adhesion of resin particles
B. Bonding between filler crystals
C. Bonding between filler and resin
D. Bonding between tooth and resin
81. Which of the following constituents is common in occlusal sealants, bonding agents, composite resins ?
A. BIS GMA
B. Polymethyl methacrylate
C. Benzoin methyl ether
D. Silica filter
82. The most important disadvantage of acrylic denture base is_______________?

A. porosity
B. Shrinkage
C. Tooth breakage
D. Water absorption
83. Radio opacity to composite resins is rendered by_______________?

A. Silica glass
B. Organic matrix
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C. Barium glass and strontium glasses
D. Fluoride particles
84. Acrylic (cold cure)______________?

A. Melts at 100°C
B. Softens at 100°C
C. Still requires heat for polymerization
D. Produces heat during polymerization
85. Use of dimethyl-P-toluidine is indicated for_______________?

A. Thermal polymerization of acrylic
B. Chemical polymerization
C. Retarding the polymerization reaction
D. To inhibit the action of benzoyl peroxide
86. If curing occurs at temperature more than 100°C porosity results in which area of denture______________?
87. Hard thick central area
2. Thin Palatal area
3. Thin area of flanges
4. Porosity is uniformly distributed
88. All of the following statements about the differences between self-polymerizing acrylic resins and heat-cured
resins are true EXCEPT______________?
A. The former have a lower molecular weight
B. The former have higher residual monomer content
C. The former are more porous
D. The former have greater transverse strength
89. Deformation that is recovered upon removal of an externally applied force or pressure is known
as_____________?
A. Young’s modulus
B. Plastic strain
C. Elastic strain
D. Flexural strain
90. Coefficienty of thermal expansion of tooth enamel is closest to_______________?
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A. Slicate cement
B. Composite
C. GIC
D. Polycarboxylate
91. The forces that hold atoms together are called_____________?

A. Primary forces
B. Secondary forces
C. Cohesive forces
D. Ionic forces
92. A material which partially transmits light & partially scatters it________________?
A. Reflector
B. Translucent
C. Transparent
D. Opaque
93. Angles between Adhesive and Adherent is Zero degree, it indicates_______________?

A. Complete wetting of surfaces
B. Rough surfaces between Adhesive & Adherent
C. Adherent and Adhesive molecules are tangent to each other
D. Irregularities present between Adherent surfaces
94. Brazilian test is used to determine the ultimates tensile strength of_________________?
A. Ductile materials
B. Flexible materials
C. Brittle materials
D. Malleable materials
95. For adhesion to be present between solid and liquid________________?

A. Liquid should wet solid surface
B. Mechanical interlocking should be present
C. Should have high contact angle
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96. When two metals are completely miscible in liquid state and they remain completely mixed on solidifiation, the
alloy formed is called________________?
A. Solid solution
B. Eutectic mixture
C. Peritectic mixture
D. Inter metallic compounds
97. A crystal in metal substructure is_______________?

A. Grain
B. Nucleus
C. Stroma
98. Munsell system is used to_________________?

A. Define and measure colour qualitatively
B. Define and measure physical properties of gold alloys
C. Evaluate brittleness of different alloys
D. Measures different colours quantitatively
99. Space lattice refers to_______________?

A. Inter atomic movement
B. Inter atomic imbalance
C. Arrangement of atoms
D. Arrangement of molecules
100. The strain that occurs when a material is stressed to its proportional limit is______________?
A. Resilience
B. Maximum flexibility
C. Toughness
D. Elastic limit
101. Liquids which become more rigid as the rate of deformation increases is termed as_____________?
A. Thixotropic
B. Pseudoplastic
C. Dilatant
D. Newton
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102. A restorative material which has a high proportional limit, compared with one with a lower proportional limit
would have________________?
A. Greater ductility
B. Greater toughness
C. A higher modulus of elasticity
D. A higher modulus of elasticity
E. More resistance to permanent deformation
103. Which of the following has the highest modulus of elasticity ?

A. Dentin
B. Enamel
C. Amalgam
D. Composite Resin
104. The wetting of an adherent surface by an adhesive is related to________________?

A. Surface energy of the adherent
B. Surface texture of the adherent
C. Surface tension of the adherent
D. Nature of the adherent that is crystalline or amorphous
105. Coefficient of thermal expansion of which of following is most similar to that of tooth ?
A. Gold inlay
B. Acrylic resin
C. Silicate cement
D. Gold foil
106. The stiffness of a dental gold alloy is determined by its________________?
A. Proportional limit
B. Modulus of elasticity
C. Ultimate tensile strength
D. Flow
107. Ductility of a material is a measure of it’s_______________?

A. Grain elongation
B. Anealing
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C. Cold working
D. Work hardening
108. Sublimation is the conversion of a___________________?

A. Solid directly to gas
B. Gas to liquid and then to soild
C. Gas directly to liquid
D. Solid to liquid and then to gas
109. Modulus of elasticity means_______________?

A. Rigidity or stiffness of the material
B. Ability to be stretched with permanent deformation
C. Ductility of a material
D. Malleability of the metal
110. When solid gets wet completely contact angle is______________?

A. 90°
B. 0°
C. 0 – 90°
D. >90°
111. Brinnel hardness number of a dental gold alloy is directly proportional to its______________?
A. Tensile strength
B. Elongation
C. Modulus of elasticity
D. Modulus of resilience
112. Hardness number which does not depend on the ductility of metal_____________?
A. KNH
B. VHN
C. RHN
D. BHN
113. The greatest stress which may be produced in a material such that stress is directly proportional to the strain
is know as_____________?
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A. The elastic limit
B. The proportional limit
C. The yield strength
D. Modulus of elasticity
114. The modulus of elasticity is defined as_______________?

A. The stress at the proportional limit
B. The strain at the proportional limit
C. The stress/strain ratio within the proportional limit
115. Strain is defined as_____________?

A. An applied load or force
B. A deformation resulting from an applied load
C. An external force opposing an applied load
D. An internal force opposing an applied load
116. A good adhesive should possess all of the following EXCEPT________________?

A. High adherend wetting
B. High contact angle
C. Low contact angle
D. High flow
117. In measuring Vickers hardness no. Which of the following is used________________?

A. Spherical indenter
B. Steel ball indentation
C. Rhomboid shaped indenter
D. 136-degree diamond pyramid
118. The simplest alloy is a_______________?

A. Solid solution
B. Eutectic alloy
C. Peritectic allowy
D. Ternary alloy
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119. Materials which has high compressive strength and low tensile strength is classified with property
of________________?
A. Ductility
B. Brittleness
C. Malleability
D. Resilient
120. Maxwell – Voigt Model is to determine________________?

A. Elastic Behaviour
B. Plastic Behaviour
C. Viscoelastic Behaviour
D. All of the above
121. KHN value of Amalgam is_________________?

A. 90
B. 343
C. 67
D. 450
122. The melting point of silver is_____________?

A. 1063° centigrade
B. 960° Centigrade
C. 850° Centrigrade
D. 1123° Centrigrade
123. Non metal which conducts elactricity______________?

A. Graphite
B. Carbon
C. Acrylic
D. Porcelain
124. Etching of dentin does not include_____________?

A. Removal of smear layer
B. Exposure of collagen fibers
C. Opening of dentinal tubules
D. Increases surface energy
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125. The Knoop Hardness Number of Microfilled composite Restorative material ranges from____________?
A. 50 – 60 KHN
B. 25 – 35 KHN
C. 15 – 20 KHN
D. 40 – 48 KHN
126. The elastic of plastic deformation to fracture a material is its_______________?

A. Toughness
B. Brittleness
C. Young’s modulus
D. Proportional limit
127. KHN of enamel is close to______________?

A. Pure gold
B. Amalgam
C. Prcelain
D. Composite
128. Which one of the following is the result of applying a load to a wire below its modulus of elasticity on a load
deflection diagram ?
A. Fracture of the wire
B. permanent deformation
C. Spring back
D. Increase in stiffness
129. A fluid having constant viscosity that does not depend upon the strain rate is said to be_______________?
A. Viscoelastic
B. Pseudoplastic
C. Plastic
D. Newtonian
130. Which of the following hardness test is a micro hardness test ?

A. Brinnel
B. Knoop
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C. Shore-A
D. Rockwell
131. Which of the following properties of dental materials is time dependent_______________?

A. Creep
B. Resillience
C. Elastic limit
D. Ultimate strength
132. Flow of a material refers to_______________?

A. Continued change of the material under a given load
B. The consistency of material when mixing
C. The homogencity of gypsum products
D. Dimensional change of the material during settings
133. The ability of the base to resist occlusal forces and to support the restoration is affected by_______________?
A. Compressive strength
B. Tensile strength
C. Young’s modulus
D. Modulus of elasticity
134. The ability of an alloy to withstand mechanical stresses without permanent deformation is reflected by
its______________?
A. Resilience
B. Elastic limit / Elastic strain
C. Hardness
D. Fatigue resistance
135. Which of the following physical property can be used to estimate indirectly the proportional limit of gold
alloys ?
A. Vickers’s hardness number
B. Knoop hardness number
C. Brinell hardness number
D. Rockwell hardness number
136. Property of the material, which describes the resistance to abrasion, is_________________?
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A. Hardness
B. Yield strength
C. Modulus of elasticity
137. Ultimate tensile strength refers to_________________?

A. Stress before rupture
B. Stress after rupture
C. Longitudinal compressive strength
D. Horizontal compressive strength
138. Ability of an orthodontic wire to spring back to its original shape is evaluated by_____________?
A. Brittleness
B. Resilience
C. Tensile strength
D. Toughness
139. The point at which a stress of a material exhibits a specific limited deviation P is called_______________?
A. Proportional limit
B. Tensile strength
C. Ultimate strength
D. Yield strength
140. Compressive stress is computed by dividing the external force by the_______________?

A. Area of the test specimen upon which the weight rests
B. Elasticity of the test specimen in strain
C. Length of the test specimen beneath the force
D. Strain of the test specimen per unit length
141. The proportional limit is defined as______________?

A. The maximum stress in a structure
B. The minimum force required to cause a structure to break
C. The maximum stress that can be induced without permanent deformation
D. The maximum elongation under tension that can be measured before failure
142. Stress in defined as_______________?
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A. An applied load or force
B. A deformation resulting from an applied load
C. An external force opposing an applied load
D. An internal force opposing an applied load
143. Setting expansion is advantageous in__________________?

A. Casts
B. Models
C. Investment
D. Dies
144. Back pressure porosity can be avoided by________________?

A. Using asbestos linear
B. Placing the sprue at least one quarter inch away form the end of casting ring
C. Preventing rapid heating the investment in burnout oven
D. Using a short and wide sprue
145. Which of the following zones is used for melting alloy during casting______________?
A. Reducing flame
B. Oxidizing flame
C. Green flame
D. All of the above
146. Cleaning of base metal alloy is done by______________?

A. Warm HCI
B. Cold HF
C. Cold H2SO4
D. Sand blasting with aluminium oxide
147. Which one of the following is most elastic ?

A. a titanium
B. B titanium
C. Chrome-cobalt-nickel
D. Nickel-titanium
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148. A thinner mix of a gypsum bonded investment will_______________?
A. Produce a smoother casting
B. Decrease setting expansion
C. Increase setting expansion
D. Increase thermal expansion
149. Stainless steel orthodontic wire can be hardened by________________?

A. Tempering
B. Work hardening
C. Age hardening
D. Precipitation hardening
150. Pickling________________?
A. Is accomplished by soaking the casting in baking soda
B. Causes porosity in gold
C. Removes surface oxides from gold castings
D. Remove investment from gold casting
151. NiTi alloy have_______________?

A. Shape memory
B. Hyper rigidity
C. Corrosion resistance
D. Weldable properties
152. The main form of iron carbide found in 18-8 steel________________?

A. Martensite
B. Ferrite
C. Austenite
D. Pearlite
153. The strength of a gypsum investment is dependent on_______________?

A. Carbon content
B. Silica content
C. Gypsum
D. Copper
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154. Ideal requirement of metal ceramic casting____________?
A. Low fusing ceramic and high fusing alloys
B. Matching of coefficients of thermal expansion of ceramics and alloy
C. Bonding between ceramic and alloy
D. All of the above
155. The pattern for the metallic framework of a removable partial denture is fabricated from________________?
A. Inlay wax type-II
B. Boxing wax
C. Modelling wax
D. Casting wax
156. The contraction of gold alloy on solidifying is approximately_____________?

A. 0.4%
B. 1.4%
C. 2.4%
D. 3.4%
157. Tempering of steel cause________________?

A. Increases its toughness
B. Increases hardness
C. Increase ductility
D. decreases its toughness
158. Which of the following will produce the most rigid restoration for framework of same dimension ?
A. Wrought alloy
B. Palladium alloys
C. Cobalt-chrome alloys
D. Partial denture casting gold in hardened condition
159. Apart from composites and ceramics, another material that could be copy milled easily and inexpensively
is_________________?
A. Molybdenum
B. Germanium
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C. Titanium
D. Chromium
160. Austenite is an alloy of iron of and carbon with the iron in______________?
A. Alpha form
B. Beta form
C. Gamma form
161. Which zone is the hottest and efficient burning zone of the flame used for casting ?
A. Oxidizing zone
B. Reducing zone
C. Combustion zone
162. Localised shrinkage porosity is seen when there________________?

A. Thin sprue
B. No reservoir
C. Investment heated strongly
D. Inadequate air discharge
163. Sub surface porosity can be decreased by_______________?

A. Decreasing the sprue length
B. Decreasing the sprue thickness
C. Increasing the melting temperature
D. Increasing the mould temperature
164. The inlay wax most commonly used for direct technique_____________________?
A. Type 1
B. Type 2
C. Type 3
D. Type 4
165. The purity of gold is expressed in________________?

A. Carats
B. Percentage
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C. Fineness
D. Gram
166. In a metal ceramic crown for a FPD the function of tin, indium which are readily oxidized minor constituents is
to________________?
A. Improve bonding
B. Decrease porosity
C. They react with the porcelain opaque layer, which masks the metal
D. Improves the thermal expansion between the metal and porcelain
167. Investment material used for cobalt-chromium alloys is_____________?

A. Gypsum bonded
B. Phosphate bonded
C. Silica bonded
168. Silica sol__________________?

A. Is applied to the walls of the investment to produce hygroscopic expansion
B. Increase the strength and the setting expansion of the phosphate-bonded investment
C. Acts as a retarder in the silica bonded investments
D. Acts as a refractory in the Silica bonded investments
169. Boxing wax is also called as________________?

A. Carding wax
B. Inlay wax
C. Utility wax
D. Sticky wax
170. Shape memory in NiTi is because of stress induced form__________________?

A. Austenite to martensite
B. Martensite to austenite
C. Ferrite to austenite
D. Austenite to ferrite
171. Casting shrinkage is compensated by_______________?
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A. Thermal expansion
B. Hygroscopic expansion
C. Wax expansion
D. All of the above
172. The gold alloys used for casting contain at least…. percent of precious metal according to ADA specification
number 5________________?
A. 55
B. 65
C. 75
D. 85
173. Impurities in casting is removed by________________?

A. Annealing
B. Degassing
C. Pickling
D. Conditioning
174. Shape memory is seen in________________?

A. Stainless steel wire
B. NITTINOL wire
C. TMA wire
D. Aluminium
175. The best pickling solution for gypsum bonded investment is_______________?
A. Hydrochloric acid
B. Nitric acid
C. Sulphuric acid
D. Phosphoric acid
176. Corrosion of stainless steel is due to formulation of_________________?

A. Chromium carbide
B. Carbon carbide
C. Iron carbide
D. Nickel carbide
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177. The rapid decrease in tensile strength and increase in ductility of a wrought metal is seen in which stage of
annealing ?
A. Recovery stage
B. Recrystallisation stage
C. Grain growth stage
D. All of the above
178. Which one of the following categories of dental materials has the highest thermal
conductivity_________________?
A. Unfilled acrylic plastics
B. Gold alloys
C. Porcelains
D. Zinc phosphate cements
179. Most biocompatible material in oral cavity is_______________?

A. Platinium
B. Palladium
C. Titanium
D. Gold
180. Which of the waxes are derived from the lignite_________________?

A. Paraffin wax
B. Inlay wax
C. Microcrystalline wax
D. Montan wax
181. Silver plated dyes use an electrolytic bath of_______________?

A. Silver fluorides
B. Silver cyanide
C. Silver bromide
D. Silver iodide
182. Suck back porosity is due to_________________?

A. Attached impurities on undersurface of casting
B. Hot spot
C. No rapid cooling
D. Inadequate melting temperature
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183. Air bubbles formed on the surface of casting is probably due to________________?
A. Improper casting pressure
B. Improper heating of the investment
C. Improper angulation of sprue
D. Improper wetting of the wax pattern by the investment
184. Asbestos liner is used in a casting ring to________________?

A. Facilitate venting of the mold
B. Retard the heating of the investment
C. Permit expansion of the world
D. All of the above
185. Which of the following decrease with strain hardening______________?

A. Surface hardness
B. Strength
C. Proportion limit
D. Corrosion resistance
186. Suck back porosity in the casting can be eliminated by________________?

A. Increasing the mould metal temperature difference
B. Increasing the flow of molten metal
C. Flaring the point of the sprue attachment
D. All of the above
187. The component in very minor quantity in stainless steel that changes the properties to a maximum level
is____________?
A. Carbon
B. Molybdenum
C. Chromium
D. Nickel
188. Binder used in Gypsum investment is_________________?

A. Silica
B. Quartz
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C. Cristobolite
D. Calcium sulphate monohydrate
189. Nickel-Titanium alloy has__________________?

A. Unreliable spring back
B. low spring back
C. Minimal spring back
190. Advantage of titanium over other base metal alloys_______________?

A. Low weight
B. Low cost
C. Low strength
D. Low melting point
191. Component of inlay wax which makes it flake resistant is_____________?

A. Paraffin
B. Carnauba
C. Gum dammar
D. Canadelila
192. Microstructure of cobalt chromium alloy in cast condition is______________?

A. Fibrous
B. Homogeneous
C. Inhomogenous
D. amorphous
193. Dendrites in cst alloys form by mechanism of_________________?

A. Constitutional superconductivity
B. Constitutional supercooling
C. Constitutional supergriting
D. Constitutional supergraining
194. Compared with noble metals, base metals show_______________?

A. Increased hardness
B. Increased ductility
34 | P a g e
C. Better biocompatibility
D. Increased density
195. Mechanical properties of Cp Titanium are similar to alloys_____________?

A. Type III and Type IV gold
B. Type V and type VI gold
C. Type VII and type VIII gold
196. The effects associated with cold working can be eliminated by a heat treatment called______________?
A. Age hardening heat treatment
B. Annealing heat treatment
C. Homogenization heat treatment
D. Solution heat treatment
197. With indirect spruing. Which one of the following porosities can be minimised_______________?
A. Back pressure porosity
B. Localized shrinkage porosity
C. Pin hole porosity
D. Micro porosity
198. The linear solidification shrinkage of Type IV Ni-Cr based alloys is_______________?
A. 2.3%
B. 1.56%
C. 1.37%
D. 3%
199. Which of the following cast gold alloys is used for fabricating partial denture frameworks______________?
A. Type I – Soft
B. Type II – Hard
C. Type III – Hard
D. Type IV – Extra Hard
200. Modern dental noble metal casting alloys generally have equiaxed fine grain structures because of the
incorporation of small amounts of______________?
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A. Chromium
B. Indium
C. Irridium
D. Palladium
201. Nickel is added to wrought gold alloys as______________?

A. Strengtherner
B. Hardener
C. Whitens the alloy
D. Scavenger
202. Stages of annealing in order_________________?

A. Recovery recrystallization grain growth
B. Recrystallization recovery, grain growth
C. Grain Growth Recrystallization recovery
D. Melting point, grain growth, Recrystallization
203. The term ordered hardening heat treatment used in which of the following dental alloys ?
A. Gold-Copper
B. Nickel-Chromium
C. Nickel-Titanium
D. Silver-Palladium
204. Linear coefficient of thermal expansion of metal used for metal caramic restoration range
from________________?
A. 11.5-12.5×10-6/°C
B. 10.5-11.5×10-6/°C
C. 13.5-14.5×10-6/°C
D. 16.5-17.5×10-6/°C
205. Quartz is added to gypsum bonded investment to______________?

A. Increase the strength
B. Counter balance contraction of gypsum during heating
C. aid in hygroscopic expansion
D. Increase the shelf life of investment
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206. Annealing is also known as_______________?
A. Soft hardening treatment
B. Hard hardening treatment
C. Precipitating heat treatment
D. Stress relieving heat treatment
207. The best fuel gas when used with oxygen is______________?
A. Hydrogen
B. Natural gas
C. Propane
D. Acetylene
208. Which of the following fuel gases is the best choice of heat source to carry out soldering process ?
A. Propane
B. Acetylene
C. Natural gas
D. Hydrogen
209. Solder and flux used for joining Elgiloy wires are_____________?
A. Gold solder and borax flux
B. Gold solder and fluoride flux
C. Silver Solder and borax flux
D. Silver solder and fluoride flux
210. Fins and spines on the casting is seen due to_______________?

A. Prolonged heating:
B. Rapid heating me
C. Water film contamination
D. Too high pressure during casting
211. The castability of chromium-cobait base metal alloys when compared to gold based noble metal alloys
is_______________?
A. More
B. Less
37 | P a g e
C. Equal
D. Depends on the alloy type
212. In Base metal alloys, Corrosion resistance occurs due to___________________?

A. Passivity
B. High Fusion Temperature
C. High Molecular Weight
D. Co-efficient of Thermal Expansion
213. The solvent flux used for base metal soldering is_______________?
A. Boric acid
A. Borax
B. Fluoride
C. Rouge
214. During soldering, the solidus temperature of the filler material should be_____________?
A. Greater than the substrate material
B. Lesser than the substrate material
C. Equal to the substrate material
D. Temperature not relevant
215. Which of the following increases castability of base metal alloys________________?

A. Tin
B. Beryllium
C. Molybdenum
D. Carbon
216. Which of the following fuel gases used for soldering, has the highest heat content______________?
A. Hydrogen
B. Natural gas
C. Acetylene
D. Propane
217. Binder in phosphate bonded investment is______________?

A. Magnesium oxide & Phosphate
B. Magnesium oxide & Phosphoric acid
38 | P a g e
C. Magnesium oxide & Monoammonium phosphate
D. Magnesium oxide & Ortho Phosphoric acid
218. Which one of the following elements is NOT added is small amount to be used as grain refiners ?
A. Iridium
B. Ruthinium
C. Indium
D. Platinum
219. Within an hour after cementation of cast gold onlay patient complains of shooting pain every time the teeth
comes together Most probable explanation is ______________?
A. Supracocclusion of restoration
B. Retained cement in gingival sulcus
C. Excess acid in mix
D. Galvanic current caused by gold onlay occluding with a large restoration
220. The rate of tarnish and corrosion of class II cast material having VHN 200 is_______________?
A. 0%
B. 2 to 3%
C. 5 to 10%
D. <1%
221. Function of wetting agents used in casting procedure is_________________?

A. To felicitate wetting of ring liner
B. To felicitate mixing investment
C. To reduce contact angle of liquid with max surface
D. For better wax elimination
222. The deoxidizing agent added to dental alloys is______________?

A. Palladium
B. Silver
C. Copper
D. Zinc
223. Which of the following is function of fluoride flux in soldering process ?
39 | P a g e
A. It prevents the formation of copper oxide
B. It prevents the formation of chromium oxide or dissolves chromic oxide layer
C. It prevents the flow of material in undesirable area
D. Increase the strength of solder
224. Percentage of gold in high noble alloy is______________?

A. N 25%
B. 25%
C. >40%
D. 0%
225. Gases dissolved in molten metals are liberated when cooled giving rise to________________?
A. Suckback porosity
C. Localized shrinkage porosity
D. Microporosity
226. Casting flux is used to_______________?

A. Prevent the oxidation of the metal during melting
B. increase the melting point of the flux
C. Flaring the point of the sprue attachment
227. The main ingredient of inlay wax is__________________?

A. Candellila wax
B. Paraffin wax
C. Carnauba wax
D. Gum dammar
228. Who was the first person to introduce cast inlay restoration into dentistry ?
A. William H Taggart
B. Buonocore
C. G.V. Black
D. Bowen
229. Disadvantage of having a short sprue is________________?
40 | P a g e
A. Rapid solidification of metal
B. No place for reservoirs
C. Incomplete evacuation of gases
D. Difficulty in removing casting from investment
230. 18-B Stainless steel orthodontic wire has_______________?

A. 18% Nickel 8% Chrominum
B. 18% Chromium 8% Nickel
C. 18% Chromium 8% Cobalt
D. 18% Carbon 8% Iron
231. Inlay wax is used to_______________?

A. Temporarily cement inlays:
B. Make inlay wax patterns
C. Invest inlay patterns
D. Box models
232. Quartz in investment material is added for_______________?

A. Strength
B. Expansion components for casting shrinkage
C. Decrease strength
D. Contraction
233. The sprue in wax pattern should be placed________________?

A. At right angle
B. At 45°C angle
C. At obtuse angle
D. It depend upon type of wax pattern
234. Gold content of an 18 carat alloy is______________?

A. 25%
B. 50%
C. 75%
D. 100%
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235. Titanium casting is done_____________?
A. Under vacuum in argon atmosphere
B. Under air pressure in nitrogen atmosphere
C. In specially fabricated aluminium vanadium
D. Using CAD-CAM technique
236. Heat hardening is the process done at_______________?

A. Heating 750°C and slowly cooling to zero degree
B. Heating quickly upto 450°C followed by sudden quenching
C. Heating upto 250°C for 15 to 30 min
D. Heating at 750°C and then quenching to room temperature
237. Crucible indicated for casting base metal alloys is______________?

A. Carbon crucible
B. Clay crucible
C. Quartz crucible
D. High melting plastic crucible
238. Which of the following refractory is used to counteract most of the expansion________________?
A. Quartz
B. Cristobalite
C. Tridymite
D. Corundum
239. Passivating alloys are_______________?

A. Cr, Al, Ti
B. Cr, Mo, Ti
C. Cr, Gold, Ti
D. Cr, Fe, Ti
240. Waxes are used for_______________?

A. Primary impression
B. Corrective impressions
C. Impression of single tooth
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241. A common electrolyte used for plating copper indirect dies is_______________?
A. Copper cynide
B. Ionic copper
C. Acidic copper sulfate
D. Silver cyanide
242. Stainless steel is used mostly in dentistry_________________?

A. To strength amalgam
B. In orthodontic wires
C. To construct clasps for partial dentures
D. To replace internal gold restorations
243. The base constituents of dental waxes come from three main sources except______________?
A. Animal
B. Mineral
C. Insect
D. Vegetable
244. The standard perforated tray for us with alginate impression materials may be brought to more customized
contour by_______________?
A. Utility wax
B. Base plate wax
C. Beading wax
D. Boxing wax
245. The porosity formed due to simultaneous nucleation of solid grains and gas bubbles at the first moment that
metal freezes at the mold walls is called__________?
A. Pinhole porosity
C. Micro porosity
D. Subsurface porosity
246. Function of carnauba wax_________________?

A. To provide a smooth and glossy surface
B. Increase toughness
43 | P a g e
C. Decrease toughness
D. Decrease flow at room temperature
247. Reduction in the fusion temperature of dental gold casting alloys is caused by presence of______________?
A. Platinum
B. Copper
C. Silver
D. Gold
248. Softening heat treatment of alloy increases_________________?

A. Tensile strength
B. Proportional limit
C. Ductility
D. Hardness
249. The function of a sprue is to_______________?

A. Form an opening of molten metal to enter the mold
B. Help polish cast restorations
C. Eliminate air bubbles on the wax pattern
D. Reproduce fine detail
250. Stabilization of stainless steel is achieved by adding____________?
A. Carbon
B. Chromium
C. Nickel
D. Titanium
251. The yield strength of AUstenite (NiTi alloy) is______________?

A. 100 Mpa
B. 240 Mpa
C. 560 Mpa
D. 700 Mpa
252. A highly polished surface on a metallic dental restoration aids considerably in the prevention of
the____________?
A. Dimensional change
B. Thermal conductivity
44 | P a g e
C. Warpage
D. Tarnish and corrosion
253. Tublulence of molten gold is due to _____________?

A. Impurities in gold
B. Improper venting
C. A and B
254. In a patient with allergy to costume jewelry, which of the following is contraindicated______________?
A. High gold
B. Low gold
C. Palladium – Ag
D. Ni – Cr
255. Indium in metal alloys_______________?

A. Improve bonding
B. Harden the metal ceramic Ag-Pd alloy
C. Both A and B
256. Mouth temperature waxes are_______________?

A. Iowa wax
B. Modeling wax
C. Green stick wax
257. Incomplete casting is the result of_____________?

A. More porous investment in the mould
B. Narrow sprue diameter
C. Hollow sprue pin
D. Large reservoir
258. Glossy smooth margins of a casting are due to_____________?
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A. Shrinkage of alloy on cooling
B. Investment breakdown
C. Incomplete wax elimination
D. Incomplete gas elimination
259. Gypsum bonded investment should not be heated over______________?

A. 700°C
B. 1,300°C
C. 1,063°C
D. 900°C
260. Cobalt-Chrominum alloys contains_______________?

A. 30% cobalt and 60% chrominum
B. 60% cobalt and 30% chrominum
C. 1% palladium
D. 20% gold
261. The most commonly used Titanium alloy for dental and medical purposes is________________?
A. Ti 6Al 4V
B. Ti 5Al 4V
C. Ti 5Al 5V
D. Ti 6Al 6V
262. Wax pattern is ideally invested immediately to decrease the dimensional changes caused
by_______________?
A. Decrease flow
B. Continuous expansion
C. Relaxation of the internal stresses
D. Water loss
263. The maximum carbon content of steel used in dentistry is__________________?

A. 19%
B. 2%
C. 1.7%
D. 4%
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264. Flux is used during casting to________________?
A. Remove the oxides formed on the gold alloy
B. Lower the melting point
C. Replace casting wax
D. Speed the burnout process
265. Resistance to corrosion in a cobalt-chrome casting is due to presence of_______________?

A. High quality iron
B. Chrome
C. Cobalt
D. Nickel
266. Which is the use of boxing an impression______________?

A. Ease of construction of denture
B. Preserving the sulci
C. Ease of pouring an impression
D. All of the above
267. Gap between true end of casting ring and wax pattern should be______________?
A. ¼ inch
B. ½ inch
C. 3/8 inch
D. one inch
268. Addition of large amounts of platinum to a casting gold alloy will________________?

A. Decrease its strength and ability to be hardened
B. Decrease its tarnish resistance
C. Increase its fusion temperature
D. Redden the alloy
269. All of the following statements about cast cobalt alloy are true EXCEPT_____________?
A. They have a modulus of elasticity twice that of gold alloys
B. They are more rigid than gold alloys
C. They have higher ductility than gold alloys
D. They have a lower proportional limit than gold alloys
47 | P a g e
270. 4th state of matter is______________?
A. Solid
B. Liquid
C. Gas
D. Colloid
271. All of the following statements about an alginate impression are EXCEPT________________?
A. It should be rapidly displaced from the mouth
B. It may exhibit fluid exudates on the surface as a result of imbibition of water
C. It will take up water and expand if kept wet
D. It will shrink as a result of syneresis
272. Type I and Type II zinc oxide impression paste differ with respect to_______________?
A. Their use
B. Their hardness after setting
C. Water content
D. Eugenol content
273. The term given to the phenomenon of moisture absorption by an alginate impression in________________?
A. Imbibition
B. Syneresis
C. Hysteresis
D. Gelation
274. The impression with the least dimensional change upon disinfection is_______________?
A. Addition poly silicone
B. Agar-agar
C. Polysulphide
D. Polyether
275. Palladium is added to polyvinyl siloxane to_____________?

A. Act as a scavenger
B. Helps as surfactant
48 | P a g e
C. Acts as plasticizer
D. Acts as a catalyst
276. Immediate pouring of impressions is most critical in_____________?

A. Condensation polysillicon
B. Addition Polysilicon
C. Polyether
D. A and B
277. The impression material used to record the prepared areas on abutment teeth is______________?
A. High viscosity elastomeric impression material
B. Medium viscosity elastomeric impression material
C. Low viscosity elastomeric impression material
278. Alginate impression material is________________?

A. Non-elastic impression material
B. Thermoplastic impression material
C. More mucostatic than ZOE
D. Less mucostatic than ZOE
279. Syringe material is______________?

A. High viscosity elastomer
B. Medium viscosity elastomer
C. Medium & low viscosity elastomer
D. Low viscosity elastomer
280. The impression for a diagnostic cast of a partial edentulous mouth should be taken in_______________?
A. Impression wax
B. Modelling compound
C. Hydro-colloid
D. Hydro cal
281. Agar impression materials differ from alginate impression materials in that the former sets
by_______________?
49 | P a g e
A. Mechanical action of saliva
B. Physical change
C. Evolution
D. Chemical change
282. Which material undergoes hysteresis ?

A. Irreversible hydrocolloid
B. Reversible hydrocolloid
C. Impression plaster
D. Metallic oxide paste
283. The setting time of irreversible hydrocolloids can be decreased by_____________?

A. Raising the temperature of water used for maxing
B. Using excess water for maxing
C. Lowering the temperature of water used for mixing
284. Rubber base impressions are poured immediately as they_______________?

A. Continue to polymerize
B. Become elastic
C. Show imbibition and syneresis
D. Show gelation
285. The most mucostatic impression material is_______________?

A. Thin mix of plaster of paris
B. Zinc oxide eugenol impression paste
C. Free flowing wax
D. Reversible hydrocolloids
286. The best way to remove a hydrocolloid impression from the patient’s mouth is____________?
A. Slight rocking of the impression to disengage it from the undercut
B. Wetting the periphery of the impression with moist cotton to break the peripheral seal
C. Sudden jerking of the impression to prevent tearing
D. Supporting the impression along with the tray to prevent disengaging of the tray alone
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287. Palatal secretions affect the setting of all the impression materials except_______________?
A. Silicone
B. Agar-agar
C. Impression paste
D. Impression plaster
288. Lenolin is added is ZOE paste to______________?

A. Decrease flow
B. Increase flow
C. Accelerate reaction
D. Decrease irritation due to eugenol
289. Agar is prepared from_______________________?

A. Bullock heart
B. Chemicals
C. Sea weed
D. Chick cells
290. Perforated impression tray are used for_______________?

A. Alginate
B. Zinc oxide-eugenol
C. Agar-agar
D. Impression compound
291. During setting of alginate impression materials________________?

A. Trisodium phosphate reacts with sodium alginate
B. Trisodium phosphate reacts with calcium sulphate
C. Colloidal changes to sol
D. Material in contact with soft tissues sets last
292. K2SO4 in agar-agar is for_______________?

A. Accelerating the setting stage of gypsum
B. Increase strength
C. Give dimensional stability
51 | P a g e
293. Wash or corrective impression is done by______________?
A. Impression plaster
B. Impression paste
C. Alginate
D. Rubber base impression material
294. The plasticizers used in polyether impression material is_______________?

A. polyether polymer
B. Colloidal silica
C. Glycol ether
D. Di-vinyl poly (dimethyl siloxane)
295. In reversible hydrocolloid the property by which the transformation from sol to gel and gel to sol is a function
of the_____________?
A. Concentration of filler and plasticizer
B. Percentage composition by weight of water
C. Concentration of potassium sulphate
D. Temperature
296. Alginates are_____________?

A. Sol
B. Gel
C. Hydrocolloid
D. Colloid
297. Syneresis is associated with______________?

A. Hydrocolloids
B. Elastomers
C. Zinc oxide eugenol
D. Plaster of paris
298. The advantage of ZOE impression paste_______________?

A. Has dimensional stability
B. Does not adhere to tissues
52 | P a g e
C. Is easy manipulation
D. Does not require special trays
299. Rinsing of the impression is important to________________?

A. Remove excess impression material
B. Remove saliva
C. Hydrate the impression
D. Accelerate the setting
300. Which is best material for RPD impression_______________?

B. Irreversible hydrocolloid
C. Reversible hydroollioid
301. Which of the following is not affected by saliva ?

B. Impression paste
C. Silicon impression material
302. Retarder in Zinc oxide eugenol is______________?

A. CaCl2
B. Zinc acetate
C. Alcohol
D. Glycerine
303. The cross linking agent of polysulphide rubber base impression material is______________?
A. Aromatic sulfonate esters
B. Stannous octate
C. Platinum salt catalyst
D. Lead dioxide
304. When making a polysulphide impression for a caste crown, custom trays are usually preferred over stock trays
for all of the following reasons except_______________?
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A. Custom trays facilitate uniform contraction of impression material
B. Custom trays require less impression material
C. Stock trays may be short in the flange area
D. Impressions made n the custom trays are easier to remove from the mouth
305. Name the accelerator used in Zinc oxide eugenol paste______________?

A. Olive oil
B. Linseed oil
C. Zinc acetate
D. All of these
306. Linear contraction of elostomeric impression with passage of time is highest in______________?
A. Addition silicone
B. Polysulphide
C. Polyetner
D. Condensation silicone
307. Which of the following is true about Agar hydrocolloid impression material ?
A. Liquefies between 71 – 100°C
B. Solidfies between 50 – 70°C
C. Facilitates fabrication of metal dyes
D. Cannot register fine surface details
308. Which one of the following increase the strength and reduce viscosity of agar hydrocolloid impression
material_____________?
A. Borax
B. Water
C. Sulfates
D. Carbonates
309. The water powder ratio of alginate is______________?

A. 100 ml of water to 60 gms of powder
B. 40 ml of water to 40 gms of powder
C. 40 ml of water to 15 gms of powder
D. 15 ml of water to 40 gms of powder
54 | P a g e
310. Best impression material to be used for securing impression after crown preparation_______________?
A. Alginate
B. Agar
C. Elastome
D. Zno paste
311. Which of the following is correct glass transition temperature of Impression compound ?
A. 43.5°C
B. 39°C
C. 65°C
D. 100°C
312. Rough and irregular surface produced on the impression is because of_______________?
A. Air incorporated during mixing
B. Improper application of pressure during impression making
C. Presence of excessive saliva in impression area
D. Due to improper ratio of polymer and monomer
313. Minimum flow of Type-I impression compound at mouth temperature is___________________?

A. 4%
B. 6%
C. 8%
D. 10%
314. Polysulfide material is routinely not recommended because of_______________?

A. Unpleasant odor and taste
B. Low accuracy
C. Least permanent deformation
D. Highest curing shrinkage
315. Hydrocolloid material, show all except______________?

A. Hysterisis
B. Imbibition
C. Recrytallisation
D. Syneresis
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316. Impression material that Do NOT harden by chemical reaction_______________?
A. Zinc oxide eugenol
B. Impression compound
C. Alginate
D. Plaster of paris
317. Putty wash technique_________________?

A. Light body and putty used at the same time
B. Putty used first and light body used second
C. Light body first and putty later
318. What is the minimum thickness of the elastomeric impression material for an accurate
impression_______________?
A. 2 mm
B. 2-4 mm
C. Greater than 3 mm
D. Maximum in the area of operation
319. The relative hardness of elastomere is determined using________________?

A. Rockwell tester
B. Barcol indenter
C. Knoop pyramid
D. Shore durometer
320. Rough surface of elastomeric impression results from_______________?

A. Inadequate mixing
B. Air bubbles
C. Too rapid polymerization
D. Incomplete polymerization caused by premature removal from mouth
321. Most rigid elastomer is___________________?

A. Polyether
B. Polysulphide
C. Addition silicone
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322. Most ideally elastic among the following_______________?
A. Polyether
B. Addition silicone
C. Polysulphide
323. Which one of the following impression materials is elastic, sets by a chemical reaction and is catalyzed by
chloroplatinic acid_______________?
A. Condensation silicone
B. Polyether
C. Polysulfide
D. Poly vinyl siloxane
324. Which of the following best describes the working time of elastomeric impression material ?
A. After the start of appearing elastic properties of impression material
B. Just after the start of appearing elastic properties of impression material
C. Just before the start of appearing elastic properties of impression material
D. Loss of luster of impression material
325. Final product in alginate is________________?

A. Sodium alginate
B. Potassium alginate
C. Trisodium phosphate
D. Calcium alginate
326. Dustless alginate is produced by______________?

A. Reducing the diatomaceous earth
B. Adding heavy metal salts
C. Coating with dihydric alcohol
D. Altering the matrix
327. Two in one stage impression materials include______________?

A. Zinc Oxide eugenol impression paste
B. Hydrocolloid impression material
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C. Elastomeric impression material
D. All of the above
328. A technique of combining reversible and irreversible hydrocolloid that could bond to irreversible hydrocolloid
is known as________________?
A. Injecting technique
B. Laminate technique
C. Immersion technique
D. Tempering technique
329. Which of the following impression materials is easy to pour and difficult to remove the stone cast from the
impression ?
A. Addition polysilicone
B. Condensation polysilicone
C. Polyether
D. Polysulfide
330. Rough and irregular surface produced on the impression is because of ?

A. Improper application of pressure during impression making
B. Air incorporated during mixing
C. Too rapid polymerization
D. Presence of moisture in impression area
331. The impression materials with lowest viscosity is_____________?

A. Plaster of paris
B. Agar – agar
D. Elastomers
332. The ranking of tear strength from the lowest to highest of all impression materials generally is as
follows_______________?
A. Hydrocolloids, silicones, polyether, polysulfide
B. Silicones, hydrocolloids, polyether, polysulfide
C. Polysulfide, hydrocolloids, silicones, polyether
D. Hydrocolloids, polyether, silicones, polysulfide
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333. Most mucostatic among the following_____________?
A. Impression compound
B. Alginate
C. ZOE paste
D. Elastomer
334. Which of the following impression material requires a hardener ?

A. Agar
B. Alginate
C. Elastomers
335. By product of condensation reaction between silicone base and alkyl silicate in presence of tin
octate_______________?
A. Ethyl alcohol
B. Glycol
C. Acetate
D. Propanolol
336. Which of the following component acts as an accelerator in ZOE impression paste ?
A. Zinc Sulphate & Zinc chloride
B. Zinc chloride & Eugenol
C. Zinc Sulphate & Eugenol
D. Glycerin
337. Dimensional stability of elastomeric impression material can be given in descending order as_____________?
A. Polysulphide > polyether > Condensation silicone > Addition silicone
B. polyether > Condensation silicone > Polysulphide > Addition silicone
C. Addition silicone > polyether > Polysulphide > Condensation silicone
D. Addition silicone> Condensation silicone > Polysulphide > polyether
338. A laminate impression technique utilizes_______________?

A. Syringe agar and chilled tray alginate
B. Syringe agar and tray agar
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C. Syringe agar and impression compound
D. Chilled alginate and impression compound
339. Most flexible impression material______________?

B. Impression paste
C. Addition silicone
D. Alginate
340. Which of the following is correct arrangement of impression material regarding linear contraction in
ascending order ?
A. Addition silicone < polyether < polysulfide < condensation silicone
B. Addition silicone < polysulfide < Polyether < condensation silicone
C. condensation silicone < polyether < polysulfide < Addition silicone
D. condensation silicone < polysulfide < polyether < Addition silicone
341. Which of the following best describes the working time of impression material ?
A. After the start of appearing elastic properties of impression material
B. Just after the start of appearing elastic properties of impression material
C. The time for start of mixing till just before the start of appearing elastic properties of impression
material
D. Loss of lusture of impression material
342. Which of the following is used as surface hardener in Impression material ?

A. 2% Potassium sulfate
B. 0.2% Potassium sulfate
C. 2% sodium sulfate
D. 4% Potassium sulfate
343. Which of the following is correct regarding chemical setting of condensation silicone_______________?
A. Polymerization occurs with repeated elimination of small molecules
B. Polymerization occurs with elimination of single byproduct
C. By condensation of repeated molecules of monomers
D. Condensation does not occur at all
344. Dimensional stability of hydrocolloid impressions may be achieved by_________________?
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A. Using less water powder ratio
B. Storing the impression under water
C. Prolonged manipulation
D. Using humidor
345. To make the vinyl Polysiloxane hydrophilic the following is added_______________?

A. Mineral oil
B. Surfactant
C. Water
D. Plasticizer
346. The role of magnesium chloride in zinc oxide eugenol impression paste_________________?
A. Retarder
B. Modifier
C. Plasticier
D. Accelerator
347. Alginates are made dust free by adding______________?

A. Glycol
B. Glyecrol
C. Glutamic acid
D. alcohol
348. The process of changing the rubber base product or liquid polymer, to a rubber like material is generally
known as_____________?
A. Boiling
B. Condensation
C. Vulconization
D. Chain lengthening
349. Which of the following is not true about elastomeric impression ?

A. Single mix material have higher viscosity
B. Shear thinning is related to viscosity of non phase impression material
C. Improper mixing of material can cause permanent deformation of impression
D. Putty – wash technique of impression reduces dimensional change of setting
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350. Impression compound is characterized by all of the following except_______________?
A. Warps at room temperature
B. Is a thermoset material
C. Shows increased flow when kneaded with water
D. Low coefficient of thermal conductivity
351. Rapid removal of rubber impression with a single firm motion results in____________________?
A. Reduced dimensional instability
B. Improved adhesion of the impression to the tray
C. Minimal permanent deformation
D. Reduced contamination by saliva
352. Which of the following impression material is rigid ?

A. Zinc oxide-eugenol
C. Alginate
D. Polysulphide rubber
353. Elastomers except: Polyether are_______________?

A. Hydrophilic
B. Hydrophobic
C. Water loving impression materials
D. Potassium alginates
354. Hardening solutions are used with impression made of________________?

A. Hydrocolloid
B. Impression compound
C. Elastomer
D. Zinc oxide eugenol
355. Alginate impression material is similar to Agar-agar impression material in the following
respect________________?
A. Gelation increase in both on increase in temperature
B. Mixing time is increased to reduce the setting time
C. Deformation during removal of impression occurs due to distortion of gel fibers
D. Both can be re-used for fresh impressions
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356. Gelation temparature of agar is between________________?
A. 20°C to 25°C
B. 27°C to 33°C
C. 37°C to 50°C
D. 55°C to 60°C
357. Brush heap structure is found in______________?

A. Zinc oxide impression material
B. Agar
C. Condensation silicone
D. Polyether
358. Masterial causing minimum tissue distortion is______________?

A. Polysulphide
B. Silicone
D. Zinc oxide eugenol paster
359. Inelastic impression material is_____________?

B. Alginate
C. Agar-agar
D. Polyether
360. One of the most important advantages of truly elastic impression material would be its capacity
for______________?
A. Close adaptation to soft tissues
B. With drawl without permanent distortion
C. Reproduction of surface details
D. Compatibility with gypsum products
361. Impression compound base_____________?

A. Low thermal conductivity
B. Crystalline structure
63 | P a g e
C. Formation of cross linkage with heating
D. High fusion temperature
362. Hypersensitivity reactions like contact dermatitis can be caused by______________?

A. polysulfides
B. Condensation silicones
C. addition silicones
D. Polyether
363. Trisodium phosphate in alginate acts are_______________?

A. Retarder
B. Reactor
C. Accelerator
D. Plasticizer
364. Which of the following impression material is elastic________________?

B. Zinc Oxide eugenol (ZOE) paste
C. Wax
D. Polyvinyl siloxane
365. The American dental association (ADA) specification number for non-aqueous elastomeric dental impression
material is______________?
A. 19
B. 20
C. 21
D. 26
366. Elastomers are_________________?

A. Alginate
B. Agar
C. Polyethers
D. Imp. Compound
367. Tear strength for impression material is highest for__________?
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A. Condensation silicone
B. Alginate
C. Polysulfide
D. Addition silicone
368. Trisodium phosphate added to alginate contributes towards_______________?

A. increasing the working time of alginate impression material
B. Acts as an accelerator
C. Initiating the setting reaction
D. Provides gel strength
369. Agar syringe material can be used with/as______________?

A. Agar
B. Alginate impression material
C. Both of the above
D. Primary impression
370. Impression compound has which of the following characteristic property ?

A. Low thermal conductivity
B. High flow property
C. Degradation is presence of moisture
D. Remain distortion free up to 72 hrs. pouring can be safely delayed
371. Heavy and light body impression materials are use with______________?
A. Mercaptan
B. Silicone
C. Reversible hydrocolloid
D. A and B
372. Which material is the most difficult to remove from the patients mouth ?
A. Metallic oxide paste
A. Silicone impression material
373. Before pouring an elastic impression it is washed with slurry of water and stone to______________?
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A. Increase gel strength
B. Prevent syneresis
C. Prevent distortion
D. Wash off saliva on impression
374. The basic constituent of reversible hydrocolloid impression material is________________?

A. Agar
B. Alginic acid
C. Gelatin
D. alginate
375. Sol – gel transformation is seen in________________?

B. Hydrocolloids
C. Elastomer
376. Setting time of ZOE is best controlled by______________?

A. Adding a drop of eugenol
B. Adding a drop of water
C. Cooling the glass slab
D. Altering ratio of two pastes
377. Impression plaster is_____________?

A. Less compressive than alginate
B. More compressive than alginate
C. As compressive as alginate
D. More compressive than hydrocolloids
378. Vulcanization refers to the setting of__________________?

A. Reversible hydrocolloid
B. Mercaptan impression material
C. Zinc Phosphate cement
D. Zinc oxide-eugenol
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379. Impression techniques are used for recording________________?
A. Oral mucosal tissues
B. Dental hard tissues
C. Oral mucosal tissues and dental hard tissues
380. Syneresis seen in hydrocolloid gel is______________?

A. Seen as water loss
B. Water absorption
C. Shrinkage
D. Gelation
381. Best material for duplicating cast is_______________?

A. Agar-agar
B. Alginate
D. Plaster of paris
382. The base paste of the condensation poly sillicone has a low molecular weight dimethyl siloxane with a
terminal-group_______________?
A. Marcaptan group
B. Hydroxyl group
C. Silane group
D. Virryl group
383. Hysteresis in a hydrocolloid gel is______________?

A. Moisture absorption
B. Temperature lag between gelation and liquefaction temperature
C. Phenomenon of conversion of gel into sol
D. All of the above
384. All of the following can be used to slow down the setting of Zinc oxide eugenol impression paste
EXCEPT_________________?
A. Adding a small amount of glycerine
B. Adding a small amount of water
67 | P a g e
C. Altering the amounts of the two pastes used
D. Cooling mixing slab
385. All of the following statements about Type II silicon impression material are true EXCEPT_______________?
A. They evolve hydrogen when cast if they are not fully cured
B. They exhibit a very low setting shrinkage
C. They have a lower tear resistance than polysulphide rubbers
D. They set by condensation polymerisation
386. The Zinc oxide-eugenol impression pastes harden by________________?

A. Chemical reaction
B. Cold
C. Heat
D. Pressure
387. Plaster mix____________?

A. Rapid spatulation results in decreased setting time
B. 2% potassium sulphate is accelerator
C. Citrates are retarders
D. All of the above
388. A rough / Chalky surface of the cast is due to_______________?

A. Not waiting for 20 min before pouring
B. High speed accelerator
C. Air incorporation in the mix
D. All of the above
389. The setting expansion of gypsum products can be reduced by________________?

A. Increased spatulation
B. Adding potassium sulfate
C. Less water powder ratio
D. Allowing setting under water
390. Most commonly used retarder in gypsum_____________?

A. Na2 So4
B. Nacl
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C. Citrales
D. K2 So4
391. Gypsum product having least expansion_____________?

B. Model plaster
C. Stone plaster
D. Die stone
392. Gillmore needle is used for_______________?

A. Testing the strength of plaster of paris
B. Evaluating the setting time of plaster of pris
C. Testing the metal hardness
D. Testing the purity of noble metals
393. Setting of POP is result of______________?

A. Difference in solubility of CaSo4 ½ H2O + CaSO4+ 2H2O
B. Reaction between CaSO4+ 2H2O and water
C. Nucleation and growth of CaSo4 ½ H2O crystals
D. Reaction between hemihydrate and hihydrate
394. Type I gypsum product is also called_______________?

B. Class I stone / Hydrocal
C. Class II stone/Densite
D. Model plaster
395. Plaster of paris _____________?

A. Is wet calcined hemihydrate
B. Has porous and irregular crystals
C. Is a – hamihydrate
D. Has a W / P of 0.2
396. As per DNA No. 25, minimum amount of setting expansion required for type V gypsum
products_______________?
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A. 0.05
B. 0.10
C. 0.15
D. 0.20
397. The main difference between dental stone and dental plaster is______________?
A. Chemical composition
B. Self life
C. Sharpe and size of particles
D. Solubility in water
398. Gypsum is used for________________?

A. Impressions
B. Casts
C. Die
D. Casts and Dies
399. The strength of the gypsum specimen when the water in excess of that required for the hydrate of the
hemihydrate is left in the specimen is called____________?
A. Dry strength
B. Green strength
C. Water strength
D. Compressive strength
400. Balanced stone is dental stone_______________?

A. Which undergoes rapid expansion
B. In which accelerators or retarders have been added according to need
C. In which amount of water of hydration is controlled
D. In which the crystals are all of uniform size
401. Impression plaster containing potato starch is called______________?

A. Plaster of paris
B. Soluble plaster
C. Anti – expansion solution
D. Die stones
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402. Powders of dental plaster and dental stone differ mainly in____________?
A. Solubility
B. Shelf life
C. Chemical formula
D. Particle porosity
403. Beta hemihydrate particles absorb______________?

A. More water
B. Less water
C. no water
404. Type III Dental gypsum is__________________?

A. Class II stone
B. Densite
C. Class I stone or hydrocal
D. Model or lab plaster
405. The product, which is obtained by calcining gypsum under steam pressure at 120-130°C or by dehydrating
gypsum in the presence of sodium succinate is_______________?
A. Alpha – hemihydrates
B. Beta – hemihydrates
C. Calcium sulphate dihydrate
D. Orthorhombic anhydrate
406. The strength of gypsum prouducts is generally expressed in terms of______________?

A. Tensile strength
B. Wet strength
C. Green strength
D. compressive strength
407. The function of 2% potassium sulphate in a gypsum product is_____________?

A. To regulate the setting expansion
B. Regulate setting time
C. Acts as retarder
D. None
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408. Finer particle size of silica______________?
A. Slower the hygroscopic expansion
B. Greater the hygroscopic expansion
C. Normal setting expansion
D. No setting expansion
409. ADA specification number of gypsum products are described under____________?

A. 1
B. 4
C. 12
D. 25
410. Modiffiers are added to gypsum mainly to_______________?

A. Modify setting time
B. Modify setting expansion
C. Modify strength
D. Decrease the porosity
411. Placing cast under tap water is to be avoided as______________?

A. H2O interferes with hygroscopic expansion
B. H2O inhibits polymerization of dental resin
C. H2O interferes with Crystallization of dihydrate
D. Gypsum is slightly soluble in water and the surface of the cast will be eroded
412. The β (Beta) hemihydrate of gypsum requires more water to float its powder particles
because______________?
A. They are more regular in shape and dense
B. They are more regular in shape and highly porous
C. They are more irregular in shape and porous
D. They are more dense and prismatic in shape
413. In plaster of paris the setting time is primarily altered by_________________?

A. Altering P / L Ratio
B. Altering temperature of mixing water
72 | P a g e
C. Speed and length of hand spatulation
D. Addition of accelerators and retarders
414. Which is gypsum product_______________?

A. Stone
B. Plaster
C. Investment
D. All of the above
415. The most commonly used accelerator in gypsum product is___________________?

A. Sodium fluoride
B. Potassium fluoride
C. Potassium sulfate
D. Aluminium sulfate
416. The hygroscopic technique is associated with______________?

A. Investment
B. Hydrocolloids
C. Amalgam
D. Silicate
417. Accelerators and retarders are used with gypsum products mainly to control_______________?
A. Setting time
B. Setting expansion
C. Hardness of the set product
418. The main ingredient in dental plaster in_______________?

A. Calcium sulphate hemihydrate
B. Calcium phosphate
C. Calcium anhydrate
D. Calcium sulphate dihydrate
419. Die is________________?
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A. Impression of single tooth
B. Impression of whole teeth
C. Replica of single tooth
D. Replica of whole teeth
420. Plaster of paris is mixed in________________?

A. Plastic bowl
B. Rubber bowl
C. Glass bowl
D. Metal bowl
421. Water of reaction needed to react completely with 100 g of calcium sulphate hemihydrates to convert it to
calcium sulphate dihydrate______________?
A. 18.6ml
B. 22.2ml
C. 30.4ml
D. 45.3ml
422. Green strength with reference to plaster means_____________?

A. Dry strength
B. Compressive strength
C. Strength of dental stone due to green colour
D. The wet strength
423. Water powder ratio of dental stone and plaster is respectively_________________?

A. 0.28 and 0.6
B. 0.6 and 0.28
C. 0.6 and 3.2
D. 0.28 and 0.98
424. Model plaster (white) used to cast study models before mixing with water, is largely composed
of____________?
A. CaO
B. CaCO3
C. (CaSO4)2-½H2O
D. CaSO4-2H2O
74 | P a g e
425. White gold alloy predominantly is______________?
A. Gold added with palladium
B. Gold added with calcium
C. Gold with much of chromium
D. Gold with silver
426. In type II gold alloys _______ Karat gold is used?

A. 24 K
B. 22 K
C. 18 K
D. 10 K
427. The material used in its pure form in dentistry is______________?

A. Composite
B. Silver
C. Gold
D. Amalgam
428. Cohesion of gold foil is an example of______________?

A. Atomic attraction and welding
B. Annealing
C. Wedging
D. Adaptation
429. Average particle size of powdered gold is________________?

A. 10 um
B. 15 um
C. 30 um
D. 0.1 um
430. The pure form of gold used in dentistry is known as___________________?

A. Cohesive gold
B. Non cohesive gold
C. Class I casting gold
D. Class IV casting gold
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431. Electralloy is an alloy of________________?
A. Gold and Platinum
B. Cobalt and Chromium
C. Gold and Calcium
D. Tin and chromium
432. The carat for Au foil used for restorations is_______________?

A. 18
B. 20
C. 22
D. 24
433. Direct filling gold formed by electrolytic precipitation is called by all the terms EXCEPT______________?
A. Crystalline
B. Granular gold
C. Mat gold
D. Sponge gold
434. When Gold fused with porcelain is fired at very high temperature greenish discoloration of cervical margin is
due to________________?
A. High firing temperature
B. Disintegration of opaque layer
C. Presence of copper
D. Formation of excess oxides
435. Powdered gold is___________________?

A. Made by a combination of chemical precipitation and atomization
B. Made by electrolytic precipitation
C. Made by beating pure gold at high temperatures
D. Made by milling pure gold ingots
436. Which of the following is true about direct filling gold______________?

A. Properly condensed mat gold has no voids
B. Whatever may be the type voids are inherent
76 | P a g e
C. Voids can be avoided with manual condensation
437. The malleting force is directed______________?

A. Perpendicular to the walls
B. Parallel to long axis of crown
C. 45° to the wall
438. Pitting of direct filling old restoration usually results from_________________?

A. Using contaminated gold foil
B. Poor finished preparation
C. Improper stepping of condenser point
D. Using small condenser point
439. The cohesive gold used as bulk filler is_____________?

A. Electra alloy
B. Mat gold
C. Spherical gold
D. Gold foll
440. Chemical tempering in porcelains is done to interrupt crack propagation by______________?

A. Transformation toughening
B. Dispersion of crystalline phase
C. Inducing residual compressive strength
D. All of the above
441. To prevent porosity in dental porcelain it should be backed________________?

A. Boric oxide
B. In vacuum
C. For long period
D. Under pressure
442. Pyroplastic flow of porcelain is due to___________________?

A. High temperature during glazing
B. Low temperature during glazing
77 | P a g e
C. Improper condensation
D. High firing temperature
443. Condensation shrinkage of porcelain during firing depends on__________________?

A. Rate of arriving at firing temperature
B. Uniformity of particle size
C. Shape and size of particle
D. Type of investment used
444. Porcelain is best fired__________________?

A. In open air
B. Under air compression
C. When several layer are fired simultaneously
D. Under minimum pressure
445. Porosity in porcelain can be prevented by_______________?

A. Thoroughness of condensation
B. Rapidity of firing
C. High firing temperature
D. All of the above
446. Which of the following is the main constituent of porcelain__________________?

A. Feldspar
B. Kaolin
C. Quartz
D. Clay
447. The best tissue tolerated material for crown and bridge_______________?
A. Highly polished porcelain
B. Highly polished acrylic
C. Highly glazed porcelain
D. Highly polished metal
448. Dental porcelains are crystalline materials of________________?

A. Rubber
B. Plastic
78 | P a g e
C. Organic substances
D. Glass
449. The main purpose of adding metallic oxides in ceramic is________________?

A. Colour matching
B. Transparency
C. Opacity
450. Coefficient of thermal expansion of metal-ceramic alloys is________________?

A. Same as porcelain
B. More than porcelain
C. Less than porcelain
D. More than or equal to porcelain but not less
451. Stage recognized in the firing of dental porcelain given below. Which of state is not correct ?
A. Cold stage bisque
B. Low bisque
C. Medium bisque
D. High bisque
452. The maximum shrinkage during firing proces in ceramic occurs in__________________?
A. High Bisque stage
B. Low Bisque stage
C. Medium Bisque stage
D. Fusion stage
453. Super abrasive is________________?

A. Sand
B. Silicon arbide
C. Diamond
D. Aluminum oxide
454. The preferred material for repair of fractured denture base is______________?
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A. Chemically cure resin
B. Heat curve resin
C. Light cure resin
D. Vinyl resin
455. Dispersion of crystalline phase to strengthen ceramics results in_________________?

A. dispersed porcelain
B. Glazed porcelain
C. aluminium porcelain
D. All of the above
456. For porcelain fused to metal crown, the porcelain should have ______________?
A. High fusion expansion
B. High fusion temperature
C. Linear coefficient of thermal expansion less than that of metal
D. Linear coefficient of thermal expansion more than that of metal
457. The ideal temperature of water bath for softening fluid wax is about________________?
A. 51 to 54 degree F
B. 51 to 54 degree C
C. 70 to 75 degree F
D. 70 to 75 degree C
458. Crocus cloth is________________?

A. Emery
B. Garnet
C. Pumice
D. Rouge
459. The most toxic form of mercury is_________________?

A. Methyl and ethyl mercury
B. Mercury vapour
C. Inorganic mercury forms
D. Mercury sulphide
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460. Ceramics fired to metals are processed by_______________?
A. Heat pressing
B. Machining
C. Sintering
D. Slip casting
461. When porcelain is basked against metal, it should possess a________________?

A. high fusion expansion
B. high fusion temperature
C. linear coefficient of thermal expansion less than but close to that of metal
D. Linear coefficient of thermal expansion greater than, but close to that of the metal
462. Clogging of an abrasive wheel with debris causing reduction of abrasive action is called________________?
A. Blinding
B. Buffing
C. Dressing
D. Truing
463. Which of the following releases single wavelength of energy ?

A. QTH
B. PAC
C. LED
D. Argon lasers
464. The melting point of titanium is __________ degree celsius?

A. 1056
B. 1560
C. 1668
D. 1886
465. Electrolyte used for plating copper dies is________________?

A. Ionic copper
B. Copper cyanide
C. Silver cyanide
D. Acidic copper sulphate
81 | P a g e
466. Greening occuring when porcelains are fired on silver free alloys may be attributed to________________?
A. Vaporization of silver from the walls of contaminated furnaces
B. Surface diffusion of silver from the marginal metal
C. More rapid silver diffusion in sodium containing glass
D. Silver ionization by porcelains with high oxygen potential
467. Compared with dental alloys, CERAMICS show____________________?

A. High ductility
B. High hardness
C. Low esthetic value
D. Susceptibility to brittle fracture
468. Chemical method of strengthening porcelain involves_________________?

A. Exchange of aluminium and sodium ions
B. Exchange of aluminium and potassium ions
C. Exchange of sodium and potassium ions
469. The first porcelain tooth material was introduced by______________?

A. DeChemant
B. Ash
C. Plateau
D. McClean
470. Which of the following bur is used in the preparation of cavity restored with porcelain fused to metal ?
A. Carbide bur
B. Diamond bur
C. Stainless steel bur
D. Diamond but for porcelain and carbide bur for metal
471. Quartz is Dental porcelain is______________?

A. Strengthener
B. Binder
C. Pigment
D. Crack minimzer
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472. In method of firing: A shorter firing period at a higher temperature is considered better_______________?
A. A large time period at a lower temperature is preferred
B. A long firing period at a very high temperature is preferred
C. A short firing period at a very low temperature is preferred
D. none of these
473. Porcelain binds to metal in PFM crown by_________________?

A. Metallic bind
B. Transparency
C. Chemical bond
D. B and C
474. Dicor restoration is_______________?

A. Two coloured restorations
B. Heat pressed ceramics
C. Castabel ceramic
475. Opaque porcelain________________?

A. Is Feldspathic glass
B. Contains opacifier like zirconium and titanium oxide
C. Not used to mask the colour of the cement used in placing of restoration
D. Used to produce the characteristic translucence, which is an inherent aspect of the incisal edge in natural
teeth
476. Flux used in dental ceramic is________________?

A. Alumina
B. Silica
C. Kaolin
D. Boric oxide
477. Which is not present in porcelain________________?

A. Silica
B. Feldspar
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C. Calcium carbonate
D. Amorphous material
478. Machineable glass ceramic is________________?

A. Cerestore
B. Decor MGC
C. Infusium
D. Leucite
479. Phenomenon in which porcelain appears different under varying light condition is______________?
A. Translucency
B. Refractive optics
C. Metamerism
D. Opacification
480. In porcelain metal elements are embedded in the matrix of________________?

A. Rubber matrix
B. Glass
C. Plastic
D. Resin matrix
481. Porosity in porcelain at condensation stage depends on_________________?

A. Shape and size of particle
B. Uniform distribution of particle size
C. Number of particles
482. The opacity in ceramics is achieved by adding_______________?

A. Boric oxide
B. Copper oxide
C. Silica
D. Titanium oxide
483. Porcelain denture teeth________________?
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A. Have a higher coefficient of thermal expansion than acrylic teeth:
B. Have a lower abrasion resistance than enamel
C. Should be used where the inter dental clearance is small
D. Have a higher abrasion resistance than gold
484. Glass ionomer cements are composed of______________?

A. Alumino silicate powder and phosphoric acid
B. Aluminosillicate powder and polyacrylate
C. Zinc oxide powder and phosphoric acid
D. Zinc oxide powder and polyacrylate liquid
485. Minimum thickness for type I zinc phosphate cement should be_______________?
A. 15 microns
B. 25 microns
C. 50 microns
D. 100 microns
486. Which of the following is common to both zinc eugenol cement and polycarboxylate cement?
A. Polyacrylic acid is liquid
B. Chemical bond to tooth structure
C. Chelation
D. Substitution o eugenol by EBA to increase strength of cement
487. The addition of which of the following can accelerate the setting time of zinc oxide cement_____________?
A. Zinc acetate
B. Barium sulphate
C. Zinc sulphate
D. Barium chloride
488. pH of fully set zinc phosphate______________?

A. 3-4
B. 4-5
C. 6-7
D. 7-8
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489. Which of the following cements is most irritant to pulpal tissues ?
A. Zinc phosphate
B. Silicate
C. Glass ionomer
D. Polycarboxylate
490. PH of polycarboxylate liquid is____________?

A. 5
B. 7
C. 8
D. 1.7
491. When selection the colour of cement to use for cementing a porcelain jacket crown, the powder being tested
is best mixed with______________?
A. Glycerin-water solution
B. Cement liquid
C. Alcohol
D. Only water
492. The setting of zinc phosphate may be retarded by ?

A. Increased in the ratio of powder to liquid
B. Diluting the liquid with water
C. Increase the addition of powder to liquid
D. Decrease the addition of powder to liquid
493. Thickness of luting cement is_____________?

A. 20-40μ
B. 10-20μ
C. 60-80μ
D. 1-2μ
494. The chief advantage of zinc phosphate cement is its___________?

A. Good compressive strength
B. Film thickness
C. Lack of irritation
D. Low solubility
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495. Which of the following cements is most biocompatible with pulp ?
A. GIC
B. Copper cement
C. Zinc phosphate cement
D. Zinc oxide eugenol cement
496. The major component of zinc phosphate cement is_____________?

A. Zinc oxide
B. Phosphoric acid
C. Zinc
497. Polycarboxylate cement is used for_____________?

A. Temporary restoration
B. Leuting
C. Permanent restoration
D. Die material
498. The dual cure cements should not be used with light transmitting prostheses thicker than____________?
A. mm
B. 1.5 mm
C. mm
D. 2.5 mm
499. Which of the following is most important in strength ZOE_____________?

A. Liquid powder ratio
B. Temperature of mixing stab
C. Speed of mixing
D. Addition of few drops of water
500. The effect of zinc oxide-eugenol on the pulp ?

A. Is irritating
B. Encourages pulpal fibrosis
C. Is sedating
D. Has no effect
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501. Best marginal seal is provided by____________?
A. Zinc phosphate
B. Zinc oxide eugenol
C. Gutta-percha
D. Resin
502. Secondary caries is least likely seen with_______________?

A. Silicate cement
B. Zinc phosphate
C. Polycarboxylate
D. GIC
503. Most preferable cement for temporary restoration______________?

A. GIC
B. ZOE
C. Ca (OH)2
D. Zinc polycarboxylate cement
504. Why GIC is best restorative material in children_____________?

A. High strength
B. Good marginal integrity
C. It can bond enamel & dentin
D. It has less occlusal wear
505. The setting of zinc phosphate is accelerated by_____________?

A. Adding a drop of water
B. Increasing mixing time
C. Cooling the slab
D. Adding a drop of oleic acid
506. PH of which cement remain below 7 even after 1 month after insertion into the cavity ?
A. Glass Ionomer Cement
B. Zinc Phosphate
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C. Resin cement
D. Silicate cement
507. The most commonly used, most biocompatible and adhesive cement is______________?
A. Zinc phosphate
B. Zinc oxide eugenol
C. Calcium hydroxide
D. Glass ionomer
508. Torsional force is_______________?

A. Compression
B. Tensile force
C. Shear
D. Transverse bending force
509. All of the following is used as accelerator in zinc oxide eugenol cement except_______________?
A. Acetic acid
B. Zinc acetate dehydrate
C. Calcium chloride
D. Bromoglycerine
510. The principal constituent of set silicate cement matrix is_______________?

A. Hydrated Aluminium phosphate
B. Hydrated Aluminium Phosphate with calcium fluoride
C. Hydrate Aluminosilicate gel
D. Hydrated Aluminium phosphate crystal, CAF2 alluminosiliate gel
511. Age hardening is a process done at______________?

A. Heating up to 200 – 450°C for 15 – 30 min and quenching in water
B. Heating at 700°C for 10 – 15 min and quenching in water
C. Heating at 700°C for 1 hour and quenching in water
D. Heating above 700°C for 30 min and quenching in water
512. Frozen slab technique is applicable to_____________?

A. Zinc phosphate cement
B. Glass Ionomer cement
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C. Zinc oxide Eugenol cement
D. Resin cement
513. Which of the following acts as accelerator in Zinc oxide eugenol______________?

A. ZnCl2 + Eugenol
B. ZnCl2 + ZnSO2
C. Eugenol + ZnO
D. Zn(OH)2 + ZnO
514. Strength of zinc phosphate is effected by_______________?

A. Temp of glass slab
B. P:L ratio
C. Consistency of mix
D. Alteration of mixing time
515. Frozen slab technique of mixing zinc phosphate is used for_______________?

A. Cementing crowns
B. Temporary dressing
C. base
D. cementing orthodontic bands
516. About zinc oxide eugenol all are true except_______________?

A. ZnO is converted to Zn(OH)2
B. Reaction is autocatalytic
C. Water is the byproduct of reaction
D. Dehydrated ZnO reacts with dehydrated eugenol
517. Which glass ionomer cement develops early resistance to water intake on setting ?
A. Reinforced auto care glass ionomer cement
B. Compomer
C. Resin modified glass ionomer cement
D. Ceramic reinforced glass ionomer cement
518. All of the following statements are true for zinc oxide eugenol cements except______________?
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A. Equal lengths of base paste and accelerator paste are mixed together until the mix has a uniform colour
B. Increase in temperature and humidity shorten the setting time
C. The mix appear thick at the start of mixing but after 30 seconds of additional spatulation it becomes more
fluid
D. Water accelerates but heat retards the setting of zinc oxide eugenol cements
E. Both C & D
519. Advantage of zinc phosphate over GIC is______________?

A. High compressive strength
B. Tensile strength
C. High modulus of elasticity
D. Diametral strength
520. Cavity varnishes have_____________?

A. Average bonding to tooth
B. Low bonding to tooth
C. Excellent bonding to tooth
D. No bonding to tooth
521. Which one of the following dental cements does not contain water as part of the composition of the liquid
component ?
A. Zinc Phosphate cement
B. Zinc oxide equgenol cement
C. Zinc silicophosphate cement
D. Zinc polycarboxylate cement
522. Which one of the following restorative materials is having coefficient of thermal expansion close to that of
tooth enamel and dentin ?
A. Microfilled composite resins
B. Pure gold
C. Silver amalgam
D. Type II Glass ionomer cement
523. Mode of failure during dislodgement of prosthesis cemented with zinc poly carboxylate cement is usually seen
at the_____________?
A. Cement tooth interface
B. Cement prosthesis interface
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C. Cleavage through the cement layer
D. Fracture of tooth or prosthesis
524. The setting time of ZnPO4 cement can be retarded by_____________?

A. mixing more powder to the liquid
B. mixing powder to liquid, checked by water
C. slower addition of powder to liquid
D. faster addition of powder to liquid
525. MEchanism of adhesion of GIC restoration with tooth surface is by mean of ______________?
A. Carboxyl group
B. Chelates with Metal Ions
C. C=C double bond
D. Polymer chains
526. In non-eugenol pastes the constituents are mixed in______________?

A. Phosphoric Acid
B. Ethyl alcohol
C. Benzoic acid
527. Ethoxy benzoic acid increases the strength and solubility of the cement______________?
B. Polycarboxylate cement
C. Zinc phosphate cement
D. Silicate cement
528. Which cement base has the highest modulus of elasticity ?

A. Zinc polycarboxylate
B. Polymer reinforced ZOE cement
C. Zinc phosphate
D. Glass inomer cement
529. The cavity varnish applied reduces post operative sensitivity in amalgam restoration by____________?
A. Decreasing conduction of heat to pulp
B. Minimize marginal leakage around restoration
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C. By altering the chemical composition of restoration materials
D. By preventing penetration of corrosion products into the dentinal tubules
530. The average life of silicate cement restoration is______________?

A. 2 years
B. 4 years
C. 6 years
D. 8 years
531. All of the following are true for traditional solution liner, except_________________?
A. It is not necessary in moderately deep cavities under glass ionomer restoration
B. Have Film thickness of 1 – 50 microns
C. Do not provide thermal or electric insulation
D. Protect the pulp from reaction products leaching out of restoration
532. Which of the following cements bonds to tooth structure, which has an anticariogenic effect, has a degree of
translucency and does not irritate the pulp ?
A. Polycarboxylate cement
B. Resin cement
C. Silicate cement
D. Glass ionomer cement
533. Which of the following characterizes the silicate cement______________?

A. It is pulpal irritant
B. It is highly cariogenic
C. Chemically attaches to the tooth structure
D. It produces thinnest film surface
534. Which of the following cements have anti cariogenic properly________________?

A. ZOE
B. Calcium Hydroxide
C. Zinc silicophosphate
D. Zinc phosphate
535. The principle application of zinc phosphate cement is_____________?
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A. In final cementation
B. As temporary cementation
C. As a temporary filling material
D. It has less occlusal wear
536. Which of the following cements is contraindicated in mouth breathers_______________?

A. Silicate
B. ASPA
C. Polycarboxylate
D. Zinc phosphate
537. Percentage of zinc in ZOE cement is__________________?

A. 60%
B. 70%
C. 80%
D. 90%
538. The main components is sillicophosphate cement________________?

A. Zinc phosphate and GIC
B. Silicate and GIC
C. ZOE and Silicate
D. Zinc phosphate and SIlicate
539. Which component of zinc oxide-eugenol cement gives its strength ?

A. Rosin
B. Zinc oxide
C. Zinc acetate
D. Oil of cloves
540. Which cement is irritating to the pulp ?

A. Carboxylate cement
B. Zinc oxide-eugenol cement
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C. Zinc phosphate
D. Ethoxybenzoic acid
541. The cement Which is least soluble in oral cavity______________?

A. Glass ionomer
B. Resin cement
C. Polycarboxylate cement
D. Silico-Phosphate cement
542. Silicate cement is indicated in________________?

A. Mouth breathers
B. Patients with high caries index
C. In the restoration of posterior tooth
543. Which of the following cements is most kind to pulp ?

A. Glass ionomer
B. Polycarboxylate
C. Silicate
D. Resin cement
544. What is the working time of zinc polyacrylate cement ?

A. 1 Minutes
B. 2 Minutes
C. 3 Minutes
D. 4 Minutes
545. All of the following is used as accelerator in zinc oxide eugenol cement except_____________?
A. Acetic acid
B. Zinc acetate dehydrate
C. Calcium chloride
D. Bromoglycerine
546. The tow cements which hold with the tooth are_______________?
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A. GIC and polycarboxylate
B. GIC and ZnPO4
C. ZnPO4 and silicate
D. GIC and silicate
547. The logical explanation for the unique anticariogenic property of most silicate cements is______________?
A. The reduction in enamel solubility due to fluoride uptake by enamel
B. That beryllium flux is used in silicates
C. That silicates show very little leakage at the margins of the restoration
D. Due to the high silica content
548. Thermal conductivity of which material is close to dentin____________?

A. Amalgam
B. Silicate
C. Composite resin
D. Cavity varnish
549. Eugenol may be replaced in the zinc oxide eugenol cement by______________?
A. Acetic acid
B. Alginic acid
C. Phosphoric acid
D. Ortho-ethoxy acid
550. Which is the cement with adhesive properties ?

B. Zinc polycarboxylate
C. SIlicate
D. Glass ionomer
E. Both B & D
551. Which of the following do polycarboxylate and GIC have in common ?

A. Polysiloxane
B. Phosphoric acid
C. Polyacrylic acid
D. Ion leachable glass
96 | P a g e
552. Which of the following show chemical bond with enamel (Calcified tissues)______________?
A. Composites
B. Direct filling resins
C. Polycarboxylate cements
D. BIS-GMA resins in pit and fissure sealants
553. Increased amount of powder in zinc phosphate cement mixture will cause_______________?
A. Decreased strength
B. Decreased film thickness
C. Decreased solubility
D. Increased setting time
554. The temperature (in °F) of the mixing slab for silicate cements should be_____________?
A. 55 – 65
B. 65 – 75
C. 75 – 85
D. 85 – 95
555. Which one of the following dental cement accelerates the formation of reparative dentin ?
A. Eugenol
B. Calcium Hydroxide
C. Zinc oxide
D. Silica
556. Fluoride rich materials include ?

A. Silicate cement
B. Glass ionomer cement
C. Polycarboxylate cement
D. All of the above
557. Dynamic creep is the______________?

A. Continuing alloying between silver-tin alloy and mercury during the life of restoration
B. Deformation of set amalgam during function
C. Process whereby alloy is wetted by murcury
D. Spread of amalgam during packing
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558. The dental amalgam is most resistant to________________?
A. Compressive stress
B. Impact stress
C. Shear stress
D. Tensile stress
559. According of ADA specification No or number 1, the minimum compressive strength for silver amalgam filling
aftr one hour should be________________?
A. 80 Mpa
B. 140 Mpa
C. 260 Mpa
D. 510 Mpa
560. Admixed high copper alloy powder contains_________________?

A. 9-20% copper
B. 13-20% copper
C. 9-30% copper
D. 13-30% copper
561. Finishing and polishing of Amalgam make the restoration______________?

A. Increase in tarnish and corrosion resistance
B. Increase the marginal strength
C. Decrease the tarnish and corrosion resistance
D. Increased compressive strength
562. Setting time of Amalgam is best controlled by _______________?

A. Using spherical particles
B. Lathe cut alloy
C. Altering Hg-Alloy ratio
D. Trituration time
563. In non zinc containing dental amalgam alloy the percentage of zinc present is______________?
A. Less than 0.02%
B. Less than 0.1%
C. Less than 0.01%
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564. High copper dental amalgams are superior to other amalgams because high copper dental
amalgems______________?
A. Have less marginal breakdown
B. Are workable at lower Hg-alloy ratio
C. Have a higher ratio of tensile to compressive strength
D. Have less resistance to tarnish and corrosion
565. The largest component of amalgam alloy is_____________?

A. Silver
B. Tin
C. Zinc
D. Copper
566. During amalgamation, trituration is done to_____________?

A. Dissolve the alloy in mercury
B. Coat the alloy particle with mercury
C. Remove excess mercury from the amalgam
D. Dissolve Hg in alloy
567. Amalgam restorations give the best clinical service when the residual mercury content is_______________?
A. 38-42%
B. 48-52%
C. 58-62%
D. 68-72%
568. Percentage of tin in low copper alloy is______________?

A. 30-35%
B. 26-28%
C. 13-32%
D. 22-30%
569. Cause of expansion in zinc containing amalgam is_____________?

A. Zinc and water
B. Water
99 | P a g e
C. Hydrogen
D. Nascent oxygen
570. What is common in amalgam and ceramics ?

A. More compressive strength but less tensile strength
B. More compressive strength and tensile strength
C. Less compressive strength but more tensile strength
D. Less compressive strength and tensile strength
571. Which of the following constituents of amalgam alloy decreases expansion____________?

A. Copper
B. Zinc
C. Silver
D. Tin
572. The higher the Hg alloy ratio in dental amalgam________________?

A. Higher the strength
B. Lower the creep value
C. More matrix matrial formed
D. More gamma 1 phase formed
573. Ag-Cu eutectic alloy has a characteristic Property of that fusion temp of_____________?
A. The resultant alloy is greater
B. The resultant alloy is lesser
C. The resultant alloy varies according to the content of Ag of Cu
574. What is the recommended for condensation of dental amalgam ?

A. 35 pounds
B. 3 pounds
C. 15 lb
D. 25 lb
575. Which is not true about high copper amalgam alloys______________?

A. Low tensile and compressive strength
B. Low Hg: Alloy ratio
100 | P a g e
C. High tensile strength
D. Low creep
576. Amalgam means_____________?

A. A metallic powder composed of silver, tin, copper and zinc
B. An alloy of two or more metals one of which is mercury
C. An alloy of two or more metals that have been dissolved in each other in the molten state
D. A metallic substances in powder or tablet from that is mixed with mercury
577. In amalgam alloy which acts as oxygen scavenger_____________?

A. Cu
B. Zn
C. Pd
D. Ag
578. By increasing the percentage of which metal, the strength and hardness of amalgam
increases_____________?
A. Ag
B. Zn
C. Cu
D. Hg
579. Which of the following statement is true regarding lathe cut low Copper silver alloy ?
A. Requires least amount of mercury
B. Achieves high compressive strength at 1 hr.
C. Has tensile strength both at 15 minutes and 7 days is comparable to high copper, unicompositional
alloys
D. Has lower cree value
580. Creep value of which of the following is the highest ?

A. Low copper amalgam alloy
B. Admix alloy
C. Single composition alloys
D. Creep value of all the above mentioned alloys is same
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581. Amalgam achieves 70% of the strength by____________?
A. hours
B. 4 hours
C. 8 hours
D. 16 hours
582. Amalgam achieves 70% of the strength by____________?

A. hours
B. 4 hours
C. 8 hours
D. 16 hours
583. Mercury is toxic because it_____________?

A. Complexes with hemoglobinto form methemoglobin
B. Inhibits hemoglobin synthesis, producing anemia
C. Inhibits anaerobic glycolysis
D. Binds to sulfhydryl groups
584. What fraction of inhaled mercury vapors retained in the body ?

A. 45-55%
B. 55-65%
C. 65-85%
D. More than 85%
585. The effect of trituration on strength in an amalgam restoration depends on______________?

A. Amalgam alloy
B. Trituration time
C. Speed of amalgamator
D. All of the above
586. Decrease in creep occurs in_______________?

A. Under trituration or over trituration of amalgam
B. Decreases with condensation pressure
C. Increase with condensation pressure
D. Cannot be predictable
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587. Cavo surface angle for amalgam resoration is butt joint as____________?
A. It increases compresssive and tensile strengths
B. Decreased compressive, increased strength
C. Decreased compressive, decrease tensile strength
D. Increased compressive, increased tensile strength
588. Which of the following are characteristic feature of high copper amalgam alloy ?
A. Low compressive strength
B. High marginal breakdown
C. Less marginal #
D. High creep
589. Co-efficient of Thermal exansion of amalgam is______________?

A. 6.6 a (ppm k-1)
B. 11.4 a (ppm k-1)
C. 14.0 a (ppm k-1)
D. 25.0 a (ppm k-1)
590. A patient who has had a recent amalgam filling in the upper teeth has a gold filling in the lower teeth, the
patient complains of pain. The reason for this can be mainly_____________?
A. Improper amalgam filling
B. Pulp exposure
C. Galvanism
591. Outstanding clinical performance of dental amalgam restoration is related to its____________?

A. Compressive strength
B. Tensile strength
C. Corrosion
D. Creep
592. Absorption of mercury in the human body occurs least from_____________?

A. Lungs
B. Gastro-intestinal Track
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C. Skin
D. Kidneys
593. High copper amalgam can be produced_____________?

A. From smooth atomized particles
B. From irregular and spherical particles
C. From lathe cut particles
D. From traditional alloy particles
594. Which one of the following is not an objective of trituration ?

A. Remove oxides from powder particle surface
B. Keep the amount of gamma-1 or gamma-2 matrix crystals to maximum
C. Pulverize pelletes into particles to aid in attack by mercury
D. Achieve a workable mass of amalgam in minimum time
595. Gallium and indium added to Amalgam replace______________?

A. Silver
B. Tin
C. Mercury
D. Zinc
596. Which is true regarding lathe cut silver alloy_______________?

A. Requires least amount of mercury
B. Achieves lowest compressive strength at 1 hr.
C. Has tensile strength both at 15 min & 7 days comparable to high copper unicompositional alloy
D. Has low creep
597. Adequate mixing of mercury is indicated by_______________?

A. Dry Mix
B. Shiny Mix
C. Short Mixing Time
598. For dental amalgam, the elastic modulus and tensile strength is______________?
A. 40 Gpa and 60 – 100 Mpa
B. 21 Gpa and 27 – 55 Mpa
104 | P a g e
C. 350 Gpa and 10 – 120 Mpa
D. 360 Gpa and 125 – 130 Mpa
599. Which of the following does not occur in High Copper Amalgam ?
A. Electrochemical Corrosion
B. Chemical Corrosion
C. Penetrating Corrosion
D. Corrosion does not occur at all
600. High strength amalgam is achieved by_____________?

A. Maximum matrix and minimum alloy phase
B. Minimum matrix and maximum alloy phase
C. Maximum matrix phase
D. Minimum alloy phase
601. Once triturated, the Dental amalgam should be condensed with in_____________?
A. 5 minutes
B. 6 minutes
C. 3 minutes
D. 15 minutes
602. The solid solution of silver and mercury is called_______________?

A. y1
B. y2
C. B1
D. y
603. Advantage of minimum mercury technique or Eames technique is all Except________________?

A. High strength
B. Sets quickly
C. Needs no squeezing of excess mercury
D. Greater plasticity and adapts well to cavity walls
604. Mercury rich condition in a slow setting amalgam alloy system in a resoration in______________?
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A. Accelerated corrosion
B. Fracture of the restoration
C. Merginal damage
D. All of the above
605. Over-trituration of silver alloy and mercury_______________?

A. Reduces contraction
B. Increases the strength of lathe cut alloy but reduces the strength of spherical alloy amalgam
C. Decreases creep
D. Gives al dull and crumbly amalgam
606. Mercury intoxication in dental office mainly results from____________?

A. Direct contact with the mercury
B. Inhalation of mercury vapours
C. Ingestion of mercury
607. The threshold limit value of mercury exposures is_______________?

A. mg / m3
B. 0.05 mg / m3
C. mg / m3
D. mg / m3
608. The tarnished layer of silver amalgam consists of________________?

A. Sulphides of silver
B. Oxides of tin
C. Chlorides of tin
D. All of the above
609. Which phase provides maximum strength in hardened mercury/silver alloy ?

A. Silver / Mercury phase
B. Silver / Tin phase
C. Tin / Mercury phase
D. Zinc / Mercury phase
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610. Copper content in low copper amalgam is________________?
A. 6%
B. 12-30%
C. 29%
D. 19%
611. Which of the following silver amalgam alloy have the maximum strength________________?
A. Lathe cut
B. Spherical
C. Admixed
D. Single composition
612. What is the most frequently used restorative material ?

A. Silicate
B. Amalgam
C. Composite
D. Gold
613. How soon after a moisture contamination does a zinc containing amalgam alloy start
expanding________________?
A. 24 hours
B. 1-2 days
C. 3-5 days
D. 7 days
614. The percentage of copper in high copper alloy is______________?

A. 10-12%
B. 0-6%
C. 13-30%
D. 20-30%
615. What is the working time of amalgam?

A. One to two minutes
B. Three to four minutes
C. Five to six minutes
D. Seven to eight minutes
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616. Advantage of zinc containing amalgam is_______________?
A. Better handling property
B. Dimensional Stability
C. Resistance to creep
D. Toxicity to pulp and dentin
617. Discolouration of silver alloy is due to_____________?

A. Tarnish
B. Tarnish and corrosion
C. Wet corrosion
D. Dry corrosion
618. Moisture contamination of amalgam can lead to_____________?

A. Marginal breakdown
B. Shrinkage
C. Delayed expansion
D. increased stresses
619. In a high copper amalgam the phase, which is eliminated is_______________?

A. Gamma 1
B. Gamma 2
C. Gamma 1 and 2
D. No phase is eliminated
620. Well premeasured capsules of amalgam can release mercury vapour during_______________?
A. Mulling
B. Carving
C. Condensation
D. Trituration
621. In spherical alloys as compared to lathe cut____________?

A. Less condensing force is required
B. More condensing force is required
108 | P a g e
C. Both require same condensing force
D. Manipulation is easy
622. Chronic mercury toxicity results from_____________?

A. Ingestion while removing old amalgam
B. Skin contact
C. Mercury vapour
D. All of the above
623. Increase in the residual mercury in silver amalgam filling can_____________?

A. Cause fracture of the filling
B. Tarnish and corrosion
C. Increase the strength
D. Decrease condensation pressure
624. Which of the following statements about high copper silver alloy compared to conventional alloy is not true ?
A. It has increased tensile and compressive strength
B. It has poor tarnish and corrosion resistance
C. It’s edge strength is greater
D. Mercury content in the final restoration is less
625. Compare to conventional amalgams, spherical amalgams_______________?

A. Require more mercury
B. Require heavy compection forces
C. Have longer setting times
626. Which of the following phases of dental amalgam has minimum strength____________?
A. Gamma 1
B. Gamma 2
C. Epsilon 1
D. Gamma 3
627. The ADA specification No 1 for composition of amalgam alloy recommends______________?
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A. 65% silver, 32% tin and 3% copper
B. 49% silver, 32% tin and 19% cooper
C. 65% silver, 29% tin and 5-6% copper
628. The highest mercury concentration in amalgam filling is found_____________?

A. At the margin of the restoration
B. In the centre of the restoration
C. In the deepest part of the restoration
629. The term trituration means____________?

A. Lysing amalgam alloy
B. Mixing of amalgam alloy and mercury
C. Removal of excess of mercury
110 | P a g e

Dental 8

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PROMETRIC

2. Which of the following is correct________________?

3. Which of the following is present in the powder of the acrylic resin______________?

4. Boiling point of methyl methacrylate________________?

7. Acrylic resins are used for______________?

8. To prevent porosity in self-cure acrylic resin, curing should be carried in______________?

9. Porosity present in a acrylic denture is usually the result of______________?

10. Cross linking in denture base resin is contributed by_____________?

11. Hydroquinone is added to methyl methacrylate monomer_________________?

13. Which of the following is an example of a composite material ?

16. Light cure system, side effect is____________?

17. Bonding of composite resins to tooth structure is by________________?

18. The type of spatula used to mix composite is________________?

21. Porosity of denture base is due to_______________?

23. The particle size in microfilled composites is_____________?

26. The latest method of curing denture base resins______________?

28. To cure a heat cure resin, a proper heating cycle is necessary_____________?

35. Macromolecules in Dental Resin is attached by______________?

38. One bottle system of adhesive resins_____________?

39. Most advantageous indication of acid etching is______________?

40. VLC resins are also called as______________?

41. Cold cure acrylic expand in water by___________?

42. Which of the following is NOT true of polymethyl methacrylate ?

43. Etchant preferred in gel from than in liquid form________________?

47. Residual monomer content of chemically activated resins is______________?

50. Denture acrylics contain cross-linking agents mainly to improve their_____________?

51. Subsurface porosity is due to_____________?

53. Which one of the following is used as filler in composite resins ?

56. Polymerisation of heat-cured methyl methacrylate is initiated by______________?

58. Composite resins in comparison to acrylic have_______________?

62. Which one of the following is used as filler in composite resins ?

63. The chemical used to etch enamel is_______________?

69. What is the disadvantage of using composites as restorative material ?

70. The % of free monomer in a heat – cured acrylic resin is_______________?

71. Inadequate pressure application during flasking_______________?

73. About polymerization shrinkage of composite all are true, except______________?

74. The advantage of unfilled methyl methacrylate is that______________?

75. Dentin bonding agents usually contain_____________?

76. Which of the following provide opacity to composite ?

80. The function of the coupling agent in a restorative resin is to allow______________?

82. The most important disadvantage of acrylic denture base is_______________?

83. Radio opacity to composite resins is rendered by_______________?

84. Acrylic (cold cure)______________?

85. Use of dimethyl-P-toluidine is indicated for_______________?

90. Coefficienty of thermal expansion of tooth enamel is closest to_______________?

91. The forces that hold atoms together are called_____________?

93. Angles between Adhesive and Adherent is Zero degree, it indicates_______________?

95. For adhesion to be present between solid and liquid________________?

97. A crystal in metal substructure is_______________?

98. Munsell system is used to_________________?

99. Space lattice refers to_______________?

103. Which of the following has the highest modulus of elasticity ?

104. The wetting of an adherent surface by an adhesive is related to________________?

107. Ductility of a material is a measure of it’s_______________?

108. Sublimation is the conversion of a___________________?

109. Modulus of elasticity means_______________?

110. When solid gets wet completely contact angle is______________?

114. The modulus of elasticity is defined as_______________?

115. Strain is defined as_____________?

116. A good adhesive should possess all of the following EXCEPT________________?

117. In measuring Vickers hardness no. Which of the following is used________________?

118. The simplest alloy is a_______________?

120. Maxwell – Voigt Model is to determine________________?