MRCOG PART 1 RECALLS JAN 2022

1. Nerve root of iliohypogastric, ilioinguinal

nerve :
A. T12
B. L1
C. L2
D. L3

2. Only structure that exit lesser sciatic foramen

:
A. Internal iliac artery
B. Nerve to obturator internus https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=C8D-04qegXo
C. Tendon of obturator internus

3. Ductus venosus connects :

A. Umbilical vein and portal vein
B. Umbilical vein and superior vena cava
C. Umbilical vein and inferior vena cava

4. Allantois derived from :

A. Ectoderm
B. Mesoderm
C. Endoderm
D. Lateral plate mesoderm https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=clNxxDlmvKI
E. Intermediate mesoderm

5. PCOS :
Insulin Estradiol SHBG Leptin
A. ↑ ↑ ↑ ↑
B. ↓ ↑ ↑ ↑
C. ↑ ↓ ↓ ↓

6. Odds ratio calculation : **2 questions

(Odds ratio is used in case control , there are three
possibilities
OR>1 higher associated with the disease
OR =1 No association
OR <1 Protective from
7.
a = 50 b = 50
c = 20 d = 80
A. 1
B. 2
C. 4

8. Odds ratio calculation :

a = 40 b = 40
c = 20 d = 60
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
9. Incidence of 45XO and its
mosaicism : A. 1 : 500
B. 1 : 3000
C. 1 : 5000
D. 1: 10 000
E. 1 : 20 000

10. Origin of ureteric bud :

A. Paramesonephric duct
B. Mesonephric duct
C. Endoderm

11. 10.
Mode of inheritance :
A. Autosomal dominant
B. Autosomal recessive
C. Codominant
D. X-liked dominant
E. X-linked recessive

12. Pedigree : 1st gen mother carrier, father normal, 2nd generation with 4 children : 1 son
normal, 1 son affected, 1 daughter carrier, 1 daughter normal. Mode of inheritance :
A. Autosomal dominant
B. Autosomal recessive
C. X-linked dominant
D. X-linked recessive https://medcaretips.com/genetic-inheritance/
13. Smoking adversely affects neurological function of newborns. Which receptor does
nicotine bind to that affects neurotransmitter in foetus :
A. Dopamine
B. Acetylcholine
C. Adrenaline

14. Function of BRCA :

A. Tumour suppressor gene
B. Tumour oncogene

15. Coagulation factors that increase during pregnancy

:
A. Factor V, IX, X, XIII
B. Factor IX, X
C. Factor VII, VIII, IX, X
D. Factor IX, X, XI

16. Structure lateral to internal iliac artery :

A. Common iliac artery
B. Ureter
C. Internal iliac vein
D. Ovarian artery

17. Ovary originate from :

A. Coelomic epithelium
B. Endoderm
C. Mesoderm
D. Ectoderm

18. Cleft palate result from :

A. Failure of development of 1st pharyngeal arch
B. Failure of development of 2nd pharyngeal arch
C. Failure of development of 1st and 2nd pharyngeal arch
D. Failure of development of 1st pharyngeal pouch
E. Failure of development of 2nd pharyngeal pouch

19. Derivatives of 2nd pharyngeal arch :

Stapedial atery Epiglottis Larynx Facial nerve
A. + - - +
B. + + - +
C. - + - -
20. Proximal internal carotid artery derived from :
A. 1st pharyngeal arch
B. 2nd pharyngeal arch
C. 3rd pharyngeal arch
D. 4th pharyngeal arch
E. 6th pharyngeal arch

21. Precursor of serotonin :

A. Alanine
B. Glutamine
C. Tryptophan
D. Tyrosine

22. Phosphate excreted by :

A. Lungs
B. Liver
C. Kidneys
D. Gut

23. Most of HCO3 reabsorbed in :

A. Proximal convoluted tubule
B. Loop of Henle
C. Distal convoluted tubule
D. Collecting duct

24. Site where active form of Vit D produced :

A. Liver
B. Kidney
C. Bone marrow

25. Mean 100, 95 CI : 92-108, calculate SEM ?

26. Nerve supply to structure below umbilicus :

A. Inferior hypogastric nerve
B. Splanchnic nerves
C. Superior epigastric nerve
D. Inferior epigastric nerve
E. Pudendal nerve

27. Sympathetic innervation of bladder :

A. Inferior gluteal nerve
B. Perineal nerve
C. Pelvic splanchnic nerve
D. Pudendal nerve
28. Innervation of pudendal nerve :
Sensory supply to Motor Sensory Motor Sensory
upper 1/3 of anal supply to supply to supply to supply to
canal EAS perianal IAS lower 2/3
region anal canal
A. - + - - +
B. + - + + -
C. - + + - +

29. You intent to prescribe COCP to 4 wks postpartum woman, not breastfeeding. How long
should additional contraception be used :
A. 7 days
B. 14 days
C. 21 days
D. 28 days
E. Always use additional contraceptive

30. Source of Vit K1 :

A. Eggs
B. Meat
C. Leafy green vegetables

31. Screening test for iron deficiency anaemia :

A. Serum iron
B. Serum ferritin
C. Total iron binding capacity

32. Pt came with fever, abdominal pain, hypotension, tachycardia. Worsening of sepsis and
inflammation in pregnancy due to :
A. Up regulation of nitric oxide and PG
B. Up regulation of nitric oxide and down regulation of PG
C. Down regulation of nitric oxide and upregulation of PG
D. Down regulation of nitric oxide and PG

33. Hormonal effect of prostaglandin :

A. Paracrine
B. Autocrine
C. Juxtacrine
D. Endocrine
E. Exocrine
34. 40% of pt with PCOS have hyperprolactinemia :
A. Estradiol excess leading to hyperprolactinemia
B. Women with PCOS consume medications containing dopamine

35. Pregnancy 3 fold increase cortisol. Mechanism :

A. Cortisol increased by increased unopposed oestrogens
B. Cortisol increased by increased circulating progesterones
C. Adrenocortocotrophin release suppressed
D. Adrenal corticotrophin suppressed by increased unopposed oestrogens
E. Placental corticotrophin releasing hormone suppressed

36. Prolactin levels in pregnancy compared to pre-pregnancy :

A. Remains the same
B. 3 fold increase
C. 10 fold increase
D. 50 fold increase (20-50 folds)

37. Structure passing through deep inguinal ring visualised easily on laparoscopy :
A. Genitofemoral nerve
B. Inguinal ligament
C. Round ligament

38. Ligament arising from lateral border of cervix and attached to endopelvic fascia :
A. Sacrospinous ligament
B. Cardinal ligament

39. Dorsal nerve of clitoris is terminal branch of :

A. Pudendal nerve
B. Perineal nerve
C. Femoral nerve
D. Obturator nerve

40. Nerve passing medial to ASIS :

A. Obturator nerve
B. Femoral nerve
C. Sciatic nerve
D. Lateral cutaneous nerve

41. Structure supplying majority of midgut branches from aorta at which level?
A. L1
B. L2
C. L3
D. L4
E. L5
42. Structure supplying majority of hindgut branches from aorta at which level?
A. L1
B. L2
C. L3
D. L4
E. L5

43. Main blood supply of transverse colon :

A. Left colic artery
B. Middle colic artery
C. Right colic artery
D. Ileocolic artery
E. Sigmoid artery

44. Pt underwent open appendectomy. Surgeon needs to ligate appendiceal artery. Origin
of appendiceal artery :
A. Left colic artery
B. Middle colic artery
C. Ileocolic artery
D. Superior mesenteric artery
E. Inferior mesenteric artery

45. Sutures enclosing largest fontanelle :

A. Coronal and saggital
B. Frontal, coronal, saggital
C. Saggital and lambdoid

46. Diameter(s) widest in mid pelvis :

AP Oblique Transverse
A. √ √ X
B. √ √ √
C. X √ √
D. √ X √

47. Axes of ROC curve :

A. True positive / True positive + true negative
B. 1-Sensitivity / Specificity
C. Sensitivity / ( 1-Specificity)

48. Foetus born with absence of mastoid process. Which structure is at increased risk of
damage during delivery :
A. CN V
B. CN VII
49. Alcohol group attached to which carbon atom of prostaglandin structure :
A. C 18
B. C 20
C. C 22
D. C 25

50. Name the structure :

A. Superior fascia of urogenital diaphragm
B. Inferior fascia of urogenital diaphragm
C. Perineal membrane
D. Colle’s fascia
E. Scarpa fascia

51. Muscle of pelvic floor not inserted into perineal body :

A. Pubococcygeus
B. Iliococcygeus
C. Puborectalis
D. Ischiocavernosus
E. Bulbospongiosus

52. Negative predictive value calculation

TN/TN+FN

53. Term for condition in which statistical difference occurs purely by chance :
A. Type I error
B. Type II error
C. Actual hypothesis
D. Null hypothesis
E. Standard deviation
54. Major estrogen produced by placenta :
A. Estrone
B. Estradiol
C. Estriol

55. Major oestrogen produced in premenopausal :

A. Estrone
B. Estradiol
C. Estriol

56. Structurally similar hormones with TSH :

A. HPL, Prolactin, GH
B. HCG, FSH, LH
C. Oestrogen, progesterone

57. Commonest cause of hypothyroidism worldwide :

A. Hashimoto’s thyroiditis
B. Iodine deficiency
C. Autoimmune thyroiditis
D. MNG

58. Healthy normal adult, what is the response to a fall in blood glucose :
A. Decreased insulin, decreased glucagon
B. Increased insulin, increased glucagon
C. Decreased insulin, increased glucagon
D. Increased insulin, decreased glucagon
E. Insulin unchanged, increased glucagon

59. Type of atom released during MRI used to generate image :

A. Carbon
B. Hydrogen
C. Oxygen

60. Type of treatment where a device is inserted into vagina to deliver radioactive
substance :
A. Radiotherapy
B. Brachytherapy
C. Chemotherapy

61. Type of electrosurgery used in laparoscopy where a pad is placed on patient :

A. Bipolar diathermy
B. Monopolar diathermy
62. USG process causing lysis of cell and damage :
A. Heating
B. Cavitation
C. Attenuation

63. USG phase with best resolution :

A. Axial
B. Interface

64. Pt with underlying Chron’s disease presented with had numbness. Had hx of bowel
resection. Hb 10.5, MCV 122. Likely cause of symptoms :
A. Vit B 1 deficiency
B. Vit B3 deficiency
C. Vit B6 deficiency
D. Vit B12 deficiency

65. Pt complained of perioral numbness and spasm over upper limbs. *Diagram showed pic
of ECG : Prolonged QT interval. Likely electrolyte abnormality :
A. Hyponatremia
B. Hypokalemia
C. Hypomagnesemia
D. Hypocalcemia

66. Ig which is a pentamer :

A. IgG
B. IgA
C. IgM
D. IgD
E. IgE

67. Hepadnavirus containing DNA, can be transmitted via needle sharing, blood transfusion :
A. Hepatitis A
B. Hepatitis B
C. Hepatitis C
D. Hepatitis D
E. Hepatitis E

68. HBsAg +ve, HBsAb +ve, HBeAg –ve, HBeAb +ve, HbcAg +ve, HBcAb –ve. Which explains
the above :
A. Acute infection
B. Resolving acute infection
C. Chronic infection
D. Non-infective carrier
E. Vaccinated against Hep B
69. Lady with generalised fatigue. Non-pregnant. Done LFT
ALP 230 ( raised ). ALT, GGT, Alb, Bili within normal range. Possible dx :
A. Epstein Barr Virus infection
B. Non-alcoholic fatty liver dz
C. Hepatitis
D. Gallstone dz
E. Vit D deficiency

70. 60 yo postmenopausal. USG ET 3mm. Noted bilateral, multilocular cyst 5mm, moderate
ascites. Ca 125 level 150. Calculate RMI :
A. 3
B. 9
C. 1350
D. 450

71. Best sample for dx of chlamydia :

A. Urethral swab
B. Urine
C. Endocervical swab

72. Features of neonatal herpes :

Congenital Conjunctivitis Mucous membrane Pneumonitis
malformation vesicles
A. + + - -
B. + - + +
C. - - + +
D. + + - -

73. Pregnant lady contracted CMV infection in 2nd trimester. Risk of neonatal congenital
infection :
A. <10%
B. 10-15%
C. 30-40%
D. >40%
 A. Trichomonas
B. Treponema

74. Dx criteria in Amsel’s criteria :

Clue cells Vaginal fluid pH >4.5 Pale white yellow +ve whiff test
discharge with KOH
A. + - + +
B. + + + +
C. - + + +

75. Absolute contratindication in pt with hx of pulmonary embolism :

A. Etonogestrel-containing pill
B. LNG
C. COCP
D. Depo MPA
E. Progesterone only pill

76. Pt intends to take transdermal oestrogen for HRT. Risk factor for risk of breast Ca
compared to those not on HRT :
A. 1x risk
B. 3x risk
C. 5x risk

77. 20 y/o, had large complex ovarian cyst 30cm. Suggested tumour markers :
Ca 125 LDH AFP BHCG
A. - + + +
B. + + + +
C. + + + -
D. + - + +
E. + + - +

78. Mode of spread of choriocarcinoma :

A. Transcoelomic
B. Lymphatic
C. Direct spread
D. Haematogenous
 79. Origin of Ca 125
:
A. Endoder
m
B. Mesoderm
C. Coelomic epithelial structures
D. Ectoderm
80. Arias-Stella phenomenon seen in :
A. Cervix
B. Vagina
C. Endometrium
D. Myometrium

81. Ig that crosses placenta from mother to foetus :

A. IgM
B. IgA
C. IgG
D. IgE
E. IgD

82. Pt 22 y/o presented with prolonged heavy menses. Had heavy menses since menarche.
Pt is otherwise well. Took CBC. Additional investigations :
A. TFT
B. USG
C. Coag
D. No need for other ix

83. Likely test to give biological false +ve for syphilis :

A. VDRL
B. TPPA
C. TPHA

84. 2 groups of pt : Pt with no hx of hypertension vs pt with pre-eclampsia. Data is non-

parametric. Which statistical test : **incomplete Q
A. Chi square test
B. Student t-test
C. Mann Whitney U test

85. 3 groups of patient. BMI <25, BMI 25-30, BMI >30. If data is statistically significant, which
test most appropriate : ** incomplete Q
A. Analysis of bivarianve
B. ANOVA
C. Student t-test

86. Rheumatoid arthritis less frequently flare up in pregnancy. Which mechanism

contributes to this?
A. Suppression of T helper 1
B. Suppression of T helper 2
87. MoA hydralazine :
A. Calcium channel blocker
B. Reduce smooth muscle tone

88. MoA nifedipine :

A. Decrease cardiac output
B. Increase heart contractility
C. Decrease PVR

89. E. coli belongs to :

A. Spirochetaceae
B. Enterobacteriaceae
C. Pseudomonodacaeae

90. Type of toxin in strep infection :

A. Neurotoxin
B. Cyanotoxin
C. Enterotoxin

91. Action of antibiotics that renders bacteria inactive, but does not kill bacteria :
A. Bacteriostatic
B. Bactericidal

92. Group of abx treatment for syphilis infection :

A. Aminogylcoside
B. Carbapenem
C. Penicillin
D. Cephalosporin

93. Foetal head at level of pelvic floor, requires operative delivery. Type of delivery :
A. Low cavity
B. Mid cavity
C. High cavity
D. Outlet delivery
E. Operative delivery

94. Pt underwent forceps delivery, sustained <50% EAS tear. Grade of perineal tear :
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3A
D. 3B
E. 3C
95. % or Brenner tumour with malignant change :
A. 5%
B. 10%
C. 15%
D. 20%

96. Choriocarcinoma mode of spread :

A. Direct
B. Lymphatic
C. Haematogenous
D. Transcoelomic

97. Suture where ventouse cup is placed during flexion :

A. Frontal
B. Coronal
C. Saggital

98. A test had 100 pt. 4 have endometriosis. Pre-test MRI showed 3 out of 4 true positives
with endometriosis and 7 without endometriosis. Calculate sensitivity of MRI
**incomplete Q

99. Commonest type of vulval Ca :

A. Adenocarcinoma
B. Squamous cell carcinoma
C. Rhabdomyosarcoma

100. Commonest type of Fallopian tube malignancy :

A. Serous
B. Transitional
C. Clear cell Ca
D. Endometroid Ca

101. Pt no known medical illness, not on meds. Has red papules over bilateral labia
majora 20mm, 10mm until natal area. + lesions at umbilicus. Speculum examination
normal. Hair, skin, nails normal. Likely dx :
A. Eczema
B. Lichen planus
C. Lichen sclerosus
D. Psoriasis
E. Vaginal candidiasis
102. Pt day 1 post hysterectomy. Na 123. K, Urea, Creat normal range. Possible cause :
A. Excessive IV dextrose
B. Nephrogenic DI
C. Ureter injury

103. Commonest type of degeneration in fibroids :

A. Red
B. Hyaline
C. Liquefactive
D. Coagulative

104. Pt with spontaneous stillbirth at 34 wks. Done thrombophilia screening.

Lupus anticoagulant –ve
Favtor V Leiden –ve
Protein C : Normal
Protein S : Reduced
Anticardiolipin antibodies –ve

Possible condition :
A. Pt has acquired thrombophilia
B. Pt has inherited thrombophilia
C. Pt has both acquired and inherited thrombophilia
D. Pt blood results affected by pregnancy
E. Pt blood results affected by event leading to stillbirth

105. Commonest side effect of oxybutynin :

A. Dry eyes
B. Dry mouth
C. Constipation

106. Commonest feature of warfarin embryopathy :

A. Microcephaly
B. Ventriculomegaly
C. Microphthalmia
D. Nasal hypoplasia
E. Agenesis of corpus callosum
107. Pt amenorrhea 5 wks. UPT strongly +ve. USG sac-like structure 2mm, eccentric
location, ectopic pregnancy cannot be ruled out. Likely BHCG levels that correspond to
the findings :
A. 400
B. 1200
C. 2400
D. 4800
E. 9600
108. Max score for PUQE score :
A. 5
B. 10
C. 12
D. 15
E. 20

109. Anterior pelvic compartment prolapse. Pt underwent op, done sling via
transabdominal route. Most important ligament for the procedure :
A. Iliopectineal
B. Sacrospinous
C. Cardinal
D. Sacrotuberous

110. HLA types that down-regulated in pregnancy

HLA-A HLA-B HLA-C HLA-D HLA-G
A. √ √ - - -
B. √ √ - - √
C. - √ √ √ -
D. - - - - √

111. MoA finasteride :

A. 21β-hydroxylase inhibitor
B. 17-hydroxylase inhibitor
C. 5α-reductase inhibitor

112. Midwife activates red alert. In labour room, noted shoulder dystocia. What is the
first most appropriate step :
A. Suprapubic pressure
B. McRobert manoeuvre
C. Zavanelli manoeuvre
D. Cleidotomy
E. Get on all fours

113. Difference in MoA aspirin vs ibuprofen :

A. Aspirin irreversibly inhibits COX and is more selective towards COX 1 than
ibuprofen
B. Aspirin irreversibly inhibits COX and is more selective towards COX 2 than
ibuprofen
C. Aspirin reversibly inhibits COX and is more selective towards COX 1 than
ibuprofen
D. Aspirin reversibly inhibits COX and is more selective towards COX 2 than
ibuprofen
E. Aspirin reversibly inhibits COX and is more selective towards both COX 1 and COX
2 than ibuprofen
114. Dinoprostone :
A. PGE 1 analogue
B. PGE 2 analogue
C. PGF 2α analogue

115. PG with highest level pre-menstruation :

A. PGE 1
B. PGE 2
C. PGF 2α

116. Advantage of PGE 2 vs PGE 1 analogue :

A. Can be stored at room temperature
B. Decrease risk of hyperstimulation
C. More effective at cervical ripening

117. Defective structure in thalassemia :

A. Haem
B. Globulin
C. Globin

118. Lung volume decreased in pregnancy :

A. Functional residual capacity
B. Peak expiratory flow
C. Forced vital capacity
D. Minute ventilation

119. Baby with extra chromosome 18 with limb abnormalities :

A. Patau syndrome
B. Edward syndrome
C. Down syndrome

120. Rett syndrome associated with profound neurological impairment. Mode

of inheritance :
A. Autosomal recessive
B. Autosomal dominant
C. X-linked dominant
D. X-linked recessive

121. In males, FSH secreted by :

A. Leydig cells
B. Sex cord stromal cells
C. Sertoli cells
D. Spermatogonia
E. Spermatocytes
122. Enzyme for androgen synthesis in ovary :
A. 5α reductase
B. Aromatase
C. 21β-hydroxylase

123. Pt with primary amenorrhoea, scant pubic and axillary hair. Hx of bilateral inguinal
hernia in her childhood. Dx :
A. Androgen insensitivity syndrome
B. Turner syndrome
C. Kallman syndrome

124. Patient with primary amenorrhoea, normal secondary sexual characteristics, blind
ended vagina. USG shows absent uterus. Dx :
A. Androgen insensitivity syndrome
B. MRKH syndrome
C. Congenital adrenal hyperplasia

125. Treatment for central precocious puberty :

A. GnRH analogue
B. GnRH antagonist
C. Gonadotropins

126. Class of drugs associated with hyperprolactinemia :

A. Antiepileptics
B. Antiemetics
C. Antihistamines

127. Types of bile acid :

A. Cholic and chenocholic acid
B. Cholic and chenodeoxycholic acid
C. Glycolic acid

128. Site of production of vasopressin ( antidiuretic hormone ):

A. Anterior pituitary
B. Posterior pituitary
C. Hypothalamus

129. Where does leptin originate from :

A. Hypothalamus
B. Hippocampus
C. Liver
D. Kidney
E. Adipose tissue
130. Methods that reduce risk of SSI during C-sec according to RCOG :
A. Shaving prior to surgery
B. Antibiotics before skin incision
C. Manual removal of placenta
D. Avoid exteriorisation of uterus when closing 1st layer
E. Changing of surgical blade when making uterine incision

131. Bacterial vaginosis occurs primarily due to depletion of :

A. Gardnerella vaginalis
B. Lactobacillus
C. E. coli

132. Pt presents with hyperemesis, 8 wks amenorrhoea. T4 0.04 (↓), TSH 18 (N).
Interpretation :
A. Hyperthyroidism
B. Multinodular goitre
C. Graves
D. Normal findings for 8 wks pregnancy

133. Pt with BMI 34. FPG 5.8, 2HPP 7.9. Dx :

A. Impaired glucose tolerance
B. Diabetes mellitus
C. Gestational diabetes

134. Half life of LH :

A. 10 mins
B. 20mins
C. 30 mins
D. 1 hour
E. 2 hours

135. Pt experiencing PPH. Given oxytocin. Onset of action of oxytocin :

A. 1 min
B. 5 mins
C. 30 mins

136. Pt came for appointment for amniocentesis. What is the additional risk of
miscarriage?
A. 1%
B. 2%
C. 5%
D. 10%
137. Direct activator of aldosterone :
A. Renin
B. Angiotensin 1
C. Angiotensin 2

138. Commonest tumour in newborn :

A. Nephroblastoma
B. Meningocoele
C. Sacrococcygeal teratoma
D. Lymphoma

139. Pt presents with amenorrhoea, diagnosed with anorexia nervosa. BMI 18 dropped to
16. Likely cause of amenorrhoea :
A. Hypothyroidism
B. Hyperprolactinemia
C. Hypogonadism
D. Premature ovarian failure

140. Pellagra is characterised by diarrhoea, dermatitis, dementia. Vitamin deficiency in

pellagra :
A. Riboflavin
B. Thiamine
C. Niacin
D. Cobalamin
E. Pyridoxine

141. Structure on HIV allowing it to enter cells :

A. Glycoprotein
B. Lipoprotein
C. Lipopolysaccharides
D. Polysaccharides

142. Calcitonin secreted by :

A. Thyroid gland
B. Parathyroid gland
C. Bone marrow

143. Lithium associated with which anomaly :

A. Ebstein anomaly

144. Most common cause of prolactin-secreting tumour :

A. Adenoma
145. What is the best way to perform intermittent auscultation during 1st stage of labour :
A. During contraction, for at least 1 minute, every 15 mins
B. During contraction, for at least 1 minute, every 30 mins
C. Immediately after contraction, for at least 1 minute, every 15 mins
D. Immediately after contraction, for at least 1 minute, every 30 mins
E. Immediately before contraction, for at least 1 minute, every 15 mins

146. Ratio of T4 : T3 in blood :

A. 1:7
B. 2:1
C. 3:1
D. 7:1
E. 14:1

147. Plasmodium species causing heaviest burden of malaria :

A. Falciparum
B. Vivax
C. Ovale
D. Malariae
E. Knowlesii

148. Frequency of TVS :

A. 3-5 MHz
B. 5-10 MHz
C. 10-15 MHz
D. 15-20 MHz

149. Minimum amount of sperm concentration per mL of ejaculate :

A. 1 000 000
B. 5 000 000
C. 10 000 000
D. 15 000 000
E. 30 000 000

150. Percentage of free T3 in circulation :

A. 1 %
B. 3%
C. 5%
D. 10%

151. Protein for coiling of DNA :

A. Histone
152. Drosperinone unique feature :
A. Androgenic
B. Anti-oestrogenic
C. Anti-androgenic

153. Agent that cannot be used as tocolytic :

A. Atosiban
B. Nifedipine
C. Indomethacin
D. Prostacyclin
E. Terbutaline

154. Commonest cause of female urethral caruncle :

A. Hypo-oestrogenism

155. Chancroid causative agent :

A. Haemophilus ducreyi
B. Treponema pallidum
C. Neisseria gonorrhoea
D. Chlamydia trachomatis

156. Most important parasitic infection worldwide leading to miscarriage, stillbirth and
mortality :
A. Entamoeba
B. Plasmodium
C. Giardia

157. Pain score is what type of variable :

A. Nominal
B. Ordinal
C. Categorical

158. Measured blood loss type of variable :

A. Nominal
B. Ordinal
C. Ratio
D. Interval
E. Variable

159. Adverse effect of COCP :

A. Irregular bleeding
B. Migraine
C. Venous thromboembolism
D. Stroke
160. In what active disease is COC contraindicated :
A. Asthma
B. SLE
C. Thyrotoxicosis

161. Rotterdam criteria requires biochemical evidence of :

A. Hyperoestrogenism
B. Hyperandrogenism
C. Hyperinsulinemia

162. Nerve supply of 2nd pharyngeal arch derivatives :

A. Trigeminal nerve
B. Facial nerve
C. Glossopharyngeal nerve
D. Vagus nerve

163. Space where external urethral sphincter can be found :

A. Superficial perineal space
B. Deep perineal space

164. Organism most likely to colonise intrauterine contraceptive device :

A. E.coli
B. Staph
C. Actinomyces

165. HPL levels plateau at which trimester :

A. Remains same throughout pregnancy
B. 1st trimester
C. 2nd trimester
D. 3rd trimester

166. Gestation at which differentiation of external genitalia occurs :

A. 3-5 wks
B. 5-7 wks
C. 9-11 wks

167. Androgens produced in which layer of adrenal gland :

A. Zona glomerulosa
B. Zona fasciculate
C. Zona reticularis
168. Drug causing kernicterus :
A. Aminoglycosides
B. Cephalosporins
C. Sulphonamides

169. Drug causing teeth discolouration in neonates :

A. Tetracycline
B. Macrolides
C. Aminoglycosides

170. What substance is secreted by granulosa cells :

A. Oestrogen
B. Progesterone
C. Inhibin A
D. Inhibin B

171. Erythrocytes formed from :

A. Myeloid progenitor cells
B. Lymphoid progenitor cells
C. Pluripotent haematopoetic stem cells

172. Percentage of non-epithelial ovarian Ca :

A. 1%
B. 10%
C. 15%
D. 20%
E. 30%

173. βHCG is a tumour marker for :

A. Yolk sac tumour
B. Sex cord stromal tumour
C. Choriocarcinoma
D. Dysgerminoma
E. Mature teratoma

174. Couple intends to know risk of child developing cystic fibrosis. Mother is carrier.
Father not tested for CF, however general population has 1 in 25 risk. What is the risk of
child developing cystic fibrosis?
A. 1%
B. 4%
C. 25%
D. 50%
E. 100%
175. Pt planned for hysterectomy and is having a headache. She has diabetes and
hypothyroidism. Blood gas analysis : pH 7.5, pCO2 decreased, anion gap normal, pO2
normal. Likely cause :
A. Diabetic ketoacidosis
B. Hypothyroidism
C. Excessive vomiting
D. Hyperventilation

176. Site where prostaglandin deactivated :

A. Lung
B. Liver
C. Kidney

177. BRCA 1, BRCA 2 mode of inheritance :

A. Autosomal dominant
B. Autosomal recessive
C. X-linked dominant
D. X-linked recessive

178. Lateral border of ischiorectal fossa :

A. Obturator internus fascia
B. Obturator externus

179. 179.
Identify the structure :
A. Umbilical artery
B. Umbilical vein

180. True statement regarding inheritance of achondroplasia :

A. Characterised by skipped generations
B. If one parent is affected, there is 1:4 chance of getting the dz
C. Roughly equal number of males and females affected
D. If both parents are carriers, half their children will be carriers
181. Non-ergot agent used to supress lactation postpartum :
A. Cabergoline
B. Quinagolide
C. Dopamine

182. Enzyme for conversion of testosterone to DHT :

A. 5α reductase

183. Macrophage derived from :

A. Lymphocyte
B. Monocyte
C. Mast cell
D. Basophil

184. Histamine released from :

A. Mast cell, eosinophil, basophil
B. Lymphocyte, monocyte

185. Oxytocin cannot be given orally because :

A. Damage gastric mucosa
B. Destroyed by gastric juice
C. Decreases gastric emptying

186. Psamomma bodies contain :

A. Calcium
B. Sodium
C. Potassium
D. Phosphate

187. Medical treatment of ectopic pregnancy :

A. Misoprostol
B. Mifepristone
C. Methotrexate

188. Enzymes for glycolysis found in :

A. Mitochondria
B. Cytoplasm
C. Nucleus
D. Ribosome
189. 15 y/o British came to see you for contraceptive advice, does not wish to let parents
know. Which guideline will you follow?
A. Fraser guideline
B. Gillick competency
C. British guideline

190. Remifentanyl is an ideal controlled analgesia during labour because :

A. Cannot cross placenta
B. Long duration of action
C. Rapidly metabolised by tissue esterase
D. More effective than epidural analgesia

191. Pt underwent surgery for ovarian mass. Histology showed benign spindle shaped
cells. Dx :
A. Glioma
B. Leiomyoma
C. Adenoma
D. Sarcoma
E. Fibroma

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