OBSTETRIC AND GYNECOLOGY LOCAL EXAM OF

DECEMPER 2020-12-4

ANATOMY 18 ques
1-concerning ureter which is true?
A-has constriction when enter pelvic prim
B-mainly supply by left renal artery
c-inferior epigastric vein run on lateral side
d-run in direct contact with the tipe of transverse process of the lumber
vertebra
2-female 65 years diagnosed with pelvic tumour metastasis to medial
inguinal lymphnod what is the origin?
A-urinary bladder
B-ovaries
C-uterus
D-uterine tube

3-24 years got trauma to pelvis and penis come with swollen in
scrotum the fluid extravasated to:
A-deep perneal pouch
B-tunica vaginalis
C-douglas pouch
D-superficial perneal pouch

4-small(short) saphenous vein which is correct?

A-asend up on medial mallulous
B-always has valve in terminal end(12 valves
C-has relation with lateral sural nerve
D-perforate deep fascia in upper part of popliteal fossa

5- In exploration popliteal artery?

A-run anterior to sural nerve
B-run superior to popliteal vein
C- .anterior tibial artery is infront popliteal muscle in high division
D-go round and flat to words knee to be ant tibial artery

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6-lymphnode of trigone of bladder draine to?
A-internal
B-external
C-external and internal
D-para ortic

7-Which of the following concerning the penis is incorrect?

A-glans of penis form from bulbospongiosus
B-scheio covernosus cover the bulp of penis
C-penile urethra lie in bulbospongiosus
D-labia majora is bounded the vestibule

labia majora
Definition of labia majora
: the outer fatty folds of the vulva bounding the vestibule

Examples of labia majora in a Sentence

Recent Examples on the Web According to Davis, the labia majora's job is to protect the
more sensitive parts

Regional Anatomy and Histology:

Labia Majora
The labia majora arise from the labioscrotal folds
of the embryo, which, unlike those of the male,
do not fuse but instead remain open as a pair of
folds bounding the labia minora and the opening
of the vulvar vestibule

8-Which of the following concerning the perineum is

incorrect?
A-somatic sensory of clitoris and glans of penis come from internal
pudendal nerve
B-erection of penis and clitoris by parasympathetic
C-contraction of pulbospongiosus and covernousus muscles by
parasympathetic
D-bulpspongiousus cover RT and LEFT crura of clitoris

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9- INTERNAL SPERMATIC FASCIA MADE FROM?
A-external oblique ms
B-internal obligue ms
C-cremastric facia
D-transversalis fascia

10- CONSERNING SURGEY THE SCIATIC NERVE?

A-come anterior to piriformis
B-has relation with superior gluteal artery
C-save to deal with lateral site in gluteus

11-Regarding lymph draining to lower limbs all true except?

A-medial group of inguinal lymphnode is much in number than lateral
group
B-glans of penis drain to deep inguinal lymphnode
C-deep inquinal lymphnodes is fewer in number
D-popliteal glands drains entirely to the deep group of inguinal
lymphnode

12-Which of the following ligment attach to uterus and have

peritoneum?
A-cardinal ligament
B-broad ligament
C-round ligament
D-suspensory ligament

13-Following statement is incorrect about perineum structure :

A-anorectal ring formed by subcutaneus,superficial and 2deep
part of external anal sphincter
B. perineal membrane attach laterally to pubic arch and ischical spine.

14-cancer from pelvic viscera can deposits cancerous cells in the

vertebrae, this communication occurs between the internal iliac viens
and vertebral veins through:
a.lateral sacral veins
b.lumbar vein
c.umbilical veins
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d.prostatic plexus

15-CONCERNING PELVIC WHICH IS TRUE?

A- Femoral ring is 1.25 inch lateral and below the pupic tubercle
B-The anterior superior illiac spine is at spinous level of second sacral
vertebra
C- The greater sciatic notch lies at the level of third sacral vertebra
D-The line that meat the anterior superior illiac spine with most
prominent point in ischeal tuberosity pass directly through the
acetabiulum

16-Primary support of uterus by:

A-Latral transverse cervical ligament
b.Round ligament
c. 5Pubocervial ligament
d.broad ligament

17-ischeorectal fossa communicates

A.anterioirly
B-posteriorly
C.inferioirly
D.anterolaterally

18-posterior fornix is a gate way to:

A.Retroperterinal space
B.Vesicouertine pouch
C-Retcouertin pouch dougaous pouch

MICRO 20

19- 20 years old female come with non offensive vaginal discharge ,
crudy milk, most likely diagnose is:
A. gardenella vaginalis
B. trichmonas vaginalis.
C. Candida albicans.
D. Bacterial vaginosis

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20-VDRL AND PRP for syphilis testing are;
a. specific
b.non specific
c.confermatory
d.diagnostic

21- periventricular calcification in TORCH infection commonly

associated with:-
A-Toxoplasmosis
B-Cytomegalovirus
C-rubella
D-syphilis

22-3year-old child presents at the physician’s office with symptoms of

coryza, conjunctivitis, low-grade fever, and Koplik’s spots. The
causative agent of this disease belongs to which group of viruses?
A. Adenovirus
B. Picornavirus
C. Orthomyxovirus
D. Paramyxovirus

23-The following are true about HIV/AIDS except:

A.type c is most common
B.HIV 1 not HIV 2 is responsible for current epidemic
C.cantransmited by sexual contact contaminated blood
D.can be caused by HBV

24-in late stage of HIV;

A.viral load is decreased
B.CD4 cells is depleted
C.acquired immunity unaffected
25- cause of painful genital ulcer ;
A.herpes simplex virus
B.syphilis
C.Haemophilusducreyi

26-Infection with hepatitis D occur with HBV aco infection or in acarrier

.What test can be used to determine patient with HDV IS HBV
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carrier?
A. HBsAg
B. HBc IgM
c. HBeAg
d. HBs IgM

27-Infectious mononucleosis, a viral disorder that can be debilitating, is

characterized by which of the following statements?
A. It is most prevalent in children less than 14 years old
B. It is caused by a rhabdovirus
C- The causative pathogen is an Epstein-Barr virus
d. Ribavirin is the treatment of choice

28-most common cause of UTI:

A.E.coli
b.proteus
c.pseudomonasaerigenosa

29-Purulent urethritis, most commonly caused by:

A.N. gonorrhea
B. Chlamydia trachomatis
C. Treponema lalledium
N. gonorrhoeae
Common cause of purulent urethritis rather than C. Trachomatis
(medscape)

30-acute febrile rash and produces disease in immunocompetent

children, associated with transient aplastic crisis in SCA persons:
A.reobulla
B.varecella zoster
C.parvovirus
d.rubella

31-urine culture is best specimen is from:

A.early morning urine
B.midstream urine

32-pt c/o of acute haemorrhagic conjunctivitis and blurring of vision

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whats the cause :
A.cryptovirus
B.enterovirus
c-barvovirus

33-The confirmative test for HIV

A.ELISA
b.western blots
c.total blood count
d.urine test

34- What is infection of women reproductive organs that often cause

spread from vagina to uterus to fallopian tube or ovary :
A.PID
b.trichomonus vaginalis
c-STDs
d.UTI

35-regarding HSV described by which of the following statements?

A. The CNS and visceral organs are usually involved
B. It rarely recurs in a host who has a high antibody titer
C. It can be reactivated by emotional disturbances or prolonged
exposure to sun light
D. Initial infection usually occurs by intestinal absorption of the virus e.
Infection
with type 1 virus is most common

36-All of the following is cause of sexual transmitted disease except:

A.neissria
B.chlamydia
C.gardenella
D.pseudomonas aeruginosa

37-which one of the following statements best describes interferon

suspected mode of action in producing resistance to viral infection:
A.it stimulates cell mediated immunity
B.it stimulates humeral immunity
c.its direct antiviral action related to the suppression of m RNA
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formation
D.its action is related to the synthesis of a protein that inhibits
translation or transcription

38-Mutation if which the following crossponding gene can result in

resistant to HIV infection:
A. T cell receptor
B. chemokine receptor
c. Fc receptor
d. CD28 receptor

Bio and genetic 22 ques

39-nucleosome:
A. contain negatively charged protein
B. Is coiling of each single strand of DNA and histone
C. Is association of each DNA and arginine rich protein
D. Is combination of DNA and chromatin

40-P53 IS?
A.Oncogen
B-cell replication
c.muted in most human cancer
D.responsible of DNA repaire

41-enzyme is specific for liver damage cells is only,

A.GPT
B.GOT
c.ALP

42- A palm of full term baby shawed single transverse palmer crease
the chromosomal abnormality most likely to be?
A.45 xy
B.47 xy +18
C. 47 xy +21
D.69 xxy

43-Lactic acidosis caused by deficiency of?

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A.thymine
B.B1
c.folic acid
d.Biotin

44-Which clinical laboratory observation below is suggestive of

Hartnup disease (neutral amino acid transport deficiency)?
A. Burnt-sugar smell in urine
B. High plasma phenylalanine levels
c. Elevated plasma tyrosine and methionine levels
D. High indole derivatives

45-Beriberi?
A. not common in alcoholics
b.the deficiency of riboflavin
C. affect the nerves and the heart
d. is the combination of diarrhea ,dementia and Dermatit

46-Lipoprotein lipase:
A- Hydrolyses cholesteryl ester
B- Is present in the cytosol of adipocytes
C- Is active during starvation
D- Hydrolyses TAG in chylomicrons orVLDL
ANSWER IN PAGE 139 ORABY LIPID METABOLISM
Lipoprotein lipase hydrolysis TAG IN CHYLOMICRON AND VDR

47- Pyruvate carboxylase?

A-converts acetyl COA to pyruvate
B- require carnitine
C-converts pyruvate to oxaloacetate
D-is ac vated by high fructose 1,6 biphosphate

48-Synthesis of glucose from pyruvate by gluconeogenesis in the liver:

A. Occurs exclusively in the liver
B. Is inhibited during prolonged fasting
C. Requires participation of Biotin
d. Requires lactate as intermediate

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49-both glucogenic and ketogenic aminoacids except:
A.phenylalnine
B.tyrosine
C.valine
d.thrionine

50-in DNA Watson and crick model:

A.thymine base pairs with adenine
b.thymine base pairs with cytosine
c.DNA is a single strand

51-the bonds that stabilize the structure of DNA are:

A.hydrogen bonds and peptide ponds
B.glycosidic bonds and thioester bonds
C.phosphodiester bonds and hydrogen bonds
d.disulphide bonds and hydrogen bonds

52-why glutamate is important in transfere of ketoacid in

transdeamination reaction;
A-algha ketoglutrate is abundant in body
B. oxidative deamination in the liver

53-Cholesterol ?
A. Normal cell membrane constituent
B. Precursor of sphingilipids
c. Main source of energy in the body
d. Produced by HMG lyase

54-synthetic nucleotide analogs :

A. Can inhibit DNA synthesis
B. Are always modified purine nucleotides
c. Lack phosphate group
d. Allow replicaton to proceed at faster rate

55-All of the following are consumed in urea cycle except :

A. aspartate
B. Co2
C. Ornithine
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56- Which of the following statement about galactosemia is correct?
A-Treatment involves restriction of glucose in the diet
B- A deficiency of glucokinase is the major cause
C- Is treated by elimination of galactose from the diet
d- Can be treated by restricting sucrose in the diet

57-Arachidonic acid:
A. Is branched fatty acid
B. Contains 3 double bond
C. Is a precursor for eicosanoids
d. Contain 5 double bonds

58- the fallowing are purine nucleotides:

A.CTP– GDP
B.NAD– TDP
C. GMP – ADP
D.UDP– GTP

59- During prolonged fasting?

A-B-Oxidation of fatty acid is initiated
B-glycogenesis is very active
C-blood glucose level is maximum
D-ketogenesis is maximum

60-All the following use ketone bodies oxidation as significant source

of energy except:
A. liver
B. kidney
C. RBC
D. heart

Pathology 23 QUS

61-Which one of the following is not a characteristic of cancer cell?

A.Evansion of apoptosis
B.hypersensitivity to growth inhibitors signals
c.ability to invasion and metastasis
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D. development of sustain angiogenesis

62- excision of small subcutaneous nodule after appendectomy by 28

days microscopic biopsy shows macrophages,collagen, lymphocytes
and giant cells and refractile material are seen in nodule. Which
surgical complication is ?
A.chronic inflammation
B-suture granuloma
C.abcsess formation
SUTURE GRANULOMA
Complication occur following use of non absorbable suture following;
Post appendicectomy
Post lung segmentectom and post thyroidectomy

63-raised nodular scar a er 2 month of removing wound suture this is?

A.keloid
B.2ndary union
C-orgnization
64- heart alteration following long untreated HTN?
A. atrophy
B.Hyperplasia
c.Glycogen storage
D.Hypertrophy

65-predominent cell type in acute inflamation is:

A.Neutrophil
B.monocyte
c.macrophage
d.esinophil

66-calf muscle affected after long period of immbolization by;

A.hypertrophy
B.atrophy
c.dystrophy

67-esinophilic staining with loss of nuclei and striation in myocardial

tissue?
A-coronary artery thrombosis
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B-viral infection
C-chest trauma

68-tumer markers useful in:

a- diagnosis of Ca
b.determining staging
c.assessment of response to treatment
d-prediction prognosis
How are tumor markers used in cancer care?
There are two main types of tumor markers that have different uses in cancer care:
circulating tumor markers and tumor tissue markers.
Circulating tumor markers can be found in the blood, urine, stool, or other bodily
fluids of some patients with cancer. Circulating tumor markers are used to:

estimate prognosis ●
detect cancer that remains after treatment (residual disease) or that has returned ●
after treatment
assess the response to treatment ●
monitor whether a cancer has become resistant to treatment ●

Although an elevated level of a circulating tumor marker may suggest the presence of
cancer, this alone is not enough to diagnose cancer. For example, noncancerous
conditions can sometimes cause the levels of certain tumor markers to increase. In
addition, not everyone with a particular type of cancer will have a higher level of a
tumor marker associated with that cancer. Therefore, measurements of circulating
tumor markers are usually combined with the results of other tests, such as biopsies or
imaging, to diagnose cancer.
Tumor markers may also be measured periodically during cancer therapy. For
example, a decrease in the level of a circulating tumor marker may indicate that the
cancer is responding to treatment, whereas an increasing or unchanged level may
indicate that the cancer is not responding.
Circulating tumor markers may also be measured after treatment has ended to check
Tumor tissue markers are found in the actual tumors themselves, typically in a
sample of the tumor that is removed during a biopsy. Tumor tissue markers are used
to:

diagnose, stage, and/or classify cancer ●

estimate prognosis ●
select an appropriate treatment (eg, treatment with a targeted therapy) ●

or recurrence (the return of cancer).

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69- Arterial infarction is least likely to be occur in:
A.intestine
B.spleen
C.liver
d.kidney

70-antitumor mechanism:
A. Direct killing by NK Cell
B. phagcytosis by lymphocyte
c. Neutralised by AB
d. Phagocytosis by neutrophils

71-metastatic calcification:
A.In TB
B.Vit D intoxication
c.amylodosis
d-acute haemorrhgic pancretitis

72-increased rate of deposition and decrease bone adsorption:

A.increase estrogen
B.decrease parathyroid hormone
C.increase calcitonin

73-Which of the following premaligant lesion:

A.hetropia
B.hamartoma
C.metaplesia
d.hypertrophy

74- in pheochromocytoma which is medullary carcinoma with

increased secretion of epinephrine, this lead to :
A.decreased VMA
B.decreased heart rate
C.decreased blood pressure
D.sweat calmy skin

75-8 years old female is able to bend her thumb to touch her forearm,
skin pull out about 8 cm, she has difficulty in healing of skin cuts. The
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underlying disease is caused by defect in:
A.collagen
B.factor VIII
c.antitrypsin
d.retinoblastoma protein

76-pathology of necrosis in Brain :

A.coagulative necrosis
B.liquifactive necrosis
C.karyorexis

77-creatinine kinase is a value test in:

A.muscle disease
B.congestive heart failure
C.liver cirrhosis
D.heamolytic anemia

78-after femur fracture, the patient complains of SOB and took his
blood for investigation , they found that is not clot what is the most
likely diagnosis:
A.air embolism
B.fat embolism
C.pulmonary thromboembolism

79- generalized edema in heart failure is due to:

A.Lymphatic Obstruction
B.Decreased oncotic pressure
C.Increased hydrostatic pressure
d-acute inflammation

80-in septic shock lead to:

A.generalised vasodilatation
B.loss of consciousness
c-hypotension

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81-The substance synthesized by fibroblast and connect the cellular
integrin to extracellular collagen and to basement membrane
A- fiberonectin
B- procollagen
c- dermatan sulphate
d- hyalouronic acid

physiology19 QUES
82-Glomerular filteration rate would be increased by:
A. increase in afferent arteriolar pressure
B. decrease in efferent arteriolar resistance
C.increase in the concentration of plasma proteins
d.compression of renal capsule

83-In the ECG the p wave denotes:

A. atrial contraction
B. atrial depolarization
c. ventricular repolarize
d. SA node depolarization

84-ST segment elevate in II, III, IVF is represents:

A.posterior MI
B.anterolateral MI
C.inferior MI

85-which substance increased effective renal surface area ;

A.ADH
B.histamine
C.Endothelin
D.dopamine

86-Podocytes associated with which part of urinary tract systems:

A.DCT
B. Bowman capsule

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c.Minorcalycas
d. Major calycas

87-vomiting and diarrhea results ni:

A. decrease ECF
B.occurs after delivery
c.plasma loss

88-sickling of RBS triggered by

A.increased dehydration, increased p H and decrease oxygenation
B.decreased p H and decrease oxygenation
C. decreased dehydration, decreased p H and decrease oxygenation
D. increased dehydration, decreased p H and decrease oxygenation

89- Which of the following hormones act on the anterior lobe of the
putaitry to inhibit secretion of prolactin:
A.dopamine
B.growth hormone
c-somatoststin

90- after a long period of corticosteroid therapy, the wound healing is

delayed due to:
A.collagen damage
b.fibroblast elaboration
c-infection

91-Renal response due to hyperaldosteronism cause :

A.increase excretion of bicarbonate
B. increase Hydrogen secretion
C. increase K reabsorptiin
d. increase Hydrogen reabsorption
92-About renal circulation :
A.recive 10% of COP
B.in exercise COP increase and renal flow increase
c.Angiotensin II maintains GFR when renal blood flow increase

93-total peripheral resistance is controlled by

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A.arteriolar tone
B-venule
C.external and internal iliac A

94-baroreceptors:
A.its stimulation leads to sympathetic activity
B.located in carotid sinus and aortic arch
C.stimulated by hypoxia

95-shock is:
A.decrease tissue perfusion
B-bacterial infection
c-microbial in blood

96-ammonia is a good buffer in urine because

A.renal produce large amounts of NH3 in chronic acidosis
B.renal wall impermeable to NH3
c.renal wall permeable to NH4
d.reabsorbed in thick ascending loop

97- in excecise man mesuring ACTH and cortison at evening and they
found it in hight level its occure in :
A.cushing
B.normally found this result in healthy excersisable man
c. Addison disease
d.conns disease

98-compensated respiratory acidosis marked by:

A.increased acidity of the urine
B.increased secretion of chloride
C.ammonia production by the kidney

99-failure to correct hypokalemia is concomittent caused by:

A.decrease sodium count
B. decrease magnesium count
C.decrease chloride count
Hypomagnesemia
Most patient with hypokalemia have hypomagnesemia as well
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Treatment of hypomagnesemia may be recurred to effectively treat
hypokalemia.
Expedient treatment of hypomagnesemia may reduce the risk of torsade
depointes

100- hypokalemia diagnose clinically mainly by :

A. cardiac arrhythmia
B.antagonised digoxin effect
C.dierrhea
d.hyperreflexes

101-the following statement concerning the defecation are true

except:
A.the act is often preceded by the entrance of the feces into rectum.
B.the anterior abdominal muscles contract
C.the internal sphincter contracts and causes evacuation of feces
D.the external anal sphincter and puborectalis relaxes

Stastes c 4 ques
102-Two or more group 0f subjects follow for 5 yrs to compare
treatment OF sidroblastic aneamia .the most analysis of different to be
use is?
A-regression analysis
B-squar test
C-ANOVA .i

103-Following alarge group of cigara e smoker for 10 years for

complication like COPD ,ca lung…
A-cross sectional study
B-case control
C-cohort study
104-Whitch is incorrect in sample distribution of sample mean?
A-stander error of sample mean decrease as sample increase
B-stander error of sample mean is measure different of sample mean in
reapeated sample
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C-sample mean is unbiased for true( unknown population

105-Which of the following is correct?

A-alarge sample always ensure that sample is represent of population

B-in random samples the randomization ensure that we have precise
and accurate estimate
C- we do not need to randomize if our sample size is sufficiency enogh
D- if all other things are equal,we need alarger sample size

Pharma15 ques
106-reversible inhibition of cycloxgenase in platelet is caused by?
A-alprostadil
B-asprin
C-paracetamol
D-ibuprofien

107-Cardiotoxicity limits the clinical usefulness of which one of the

following antitumor antibiotics :
A.Doxorubicin
b. Bleomycin
c. Dactinomycin
d. Plicamycin

108-A nucleophilic attack on deoxyribonucleic acid which cause

disruption of base pairing occurs as a result :
A) Cyclophosphamide
b) Thioguanine
c) Prednisone
d) Methotrexate

109-19 yrs female diagnosed with TB. before prescribing treatment you
should be aware of that one an tuberculus induce cytochrome P450
enzyme in the liver :
A.rifampicin

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B.isoniazid
c.pyrazinamide
d.ethambiotol

110- Which of the following antiviral agents is a purine nucleoside

analogue that has shown promise with Lassa fever, influenza A and B,
and respiratory syncytial virus (RSV)?
A. Amantadine
B. Rimantadine
C. Ribavirin
d. Acyclovir

111-drug use to treat angina conistantly caouse reduction of HR and

prevent vasopasmodic angina ?
A.nitroglycerate
B.propranolol
C.verapamil
d.isosorbide dinitrate

pretest pharma

Recall the profile of verapamil and diltiazem: a vasodilator effect plus a

direct cardiac “depressant” effect that includes
(slowing of AV conduction and potential depression of other cardiac
contractile and electrophysiologic phenomena).

Nitroglycerin (d) might reduce the incidence or severity of spasm

through nitricoxide-mediated vasodilation. Verapamil (f) would
probably be one of the most rational drugs to give, since its vascular
calcium channel blocking activity would help suppress spasm; its
negative inotropic and chronotropic effects would, additionally, reduce
myocardial oxygen demand and be beneficia

the B.BLOCKERS are important for ischemic ptient but can do more
harm in patient with vasospasm ingina.betareceptor activation cause
vasodilatation
with an effect to adegree counteract simultaneous alpha mediated

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constrictor
effect vasospasm are left unopposed.variant angina is likely to be
worse.

112- Coombs test is positive and associated with heamolyticanaemia in

?
A.methyledopa
B.captopril
C.clonidine

113-atropine overdose lead to:

A.bronchoconstrection
B.increase HR
C.increased gastric secretion
D.pupillary constriction

114-45 years old treated for ovarian cancer developed difficulty

hearing:
A.paclitaxil
B.bleomycin
C.cisplatin

115-asthma induced by:

A.type I hypersensitivity
B.adrenergic agonists
c.beta 1-antagonst

116-benzodiazipine action:
A.enhance GABA B neurotransmitters
B.enhance GABA A in spinal cord
C.enhanced Cl channels that act on GABA neurotransmitters

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117-amiloride potent diuretic action by:
A. aldesteron antagonist
B.acts on ENaC
C.Na -K blocker

118-drug to used in lowering blood pressure, analegesic and

spasmolytic And given intrthecally:
A.tomolol
B.clonidine
C.morphine
D.nitropuriside

119-primary mechanism of flurosemide:

A.inhibition of sodium potassium ATPase
B.inhibtion of Na k cl co-transorter
c.inhibtion of Na Cl co-transporter
e-inhibtion of Cl transporter

120-anaphactic shock treatment is by

A.epinephrine
B-chorpheniramine maleat
C-atropine
D-hydrocortisone

‫ﻛﻞ اﻟﺸﻜﺮ ﻟﻤﻦ ﺳﺎھﻢ ﻓﻲ ﺟﻤﻊ وﺣﻞ اﻻﺳﺌﻠﺔ اﺗﻤﻨﻰ ﻣﻦ اﷲ اﻟﺘﻮﻓﯿﻖ ﻟﻠﺠﻤﯿﻊ‬

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