CHRISTIAN MEDICAL AND DENTAL ASSOCIATION STUDENTS’ CMDA-S

ANATOMY MOCK FOR 1ST PROFESSIONAL EXAMINATION

23rd OF OCTOBER, 2012 TIME: 2 HOURS
1. The floor of the anatomical snuff box ;
a. Base of the fifth metarcarpal
b. Scaphoid
c. Trapezium
d. Base of the first metarcarpal
e. Styloid process of the radius
2. The humero-radial part of the elbow joint is a
a. Pivot joint
b. Ball and socket joint
c. Hinge joint
d. Is held in place by the tough annular ligament
e. Undergoes subluxation in the young
3. The carrying angle
a. Is about 160 degrees
b. Particularly marked in males
c. Vanishes on flexing of the elbow
d. Is due to the lateral lip of the trochlear extending further inferiorly than the medial lip
e. Is due to the medial lip of the trochlear extending further inferiorly than the lateral lip
4. The breast has quite an organized lymphatic drainage with
a. About 20% draining into the internal mammary node
b. Axillary tail when present drains into the subscapular nodes
c. The lymphatic plexuses deep to the breast in pectoral fascia
d. 75% of the breast drain into the axillary nodes
e. Lymphatics can get to the sheath of the rectus abdominis as well as the subperitoneal and subhepatic plexuses
5. Palmar aponeurosis
a. Is triangular in shape
b. Is continuous with the Palmaris longus
c. Results in volkmans contracture when contracted
d. Has a proximal apex continous with the flexor retinaculum
e. Represents phenotypically degenerated tendon of Palmaris longus
6. Meiosis
a. In the leptotene stage,the chromosomes are visible
b. In the zygotene,synapsis is a feature
c. In the pachytene stage,there is crossing over
d. Diplotene stage is the last stage in metaphase
e. In the leptotene,there is crossing over
7. Spermiogenesis
a. Condensation of acrosomes
b. Formation of nucleus
c. Shedding of the nucleus
d. Condensation of the cytoplasm
e. Change from round ed spermatid to elongated spermatozoa
8. Dizygotic twins
a. Incidence is about 3-4 per 1000 births
b. May be of different sex
c. Erythrocyte mosaicism is a common feature
d. It is hereditary
e. Incidence is about 7-11 per 1000 births
9. Sacrococcygeal teratoma
a. Tumour arising from the remnant of primitive streak
b. Contains tissues derived from the ectoderm only
c. Usually becomes benign
d. Occurs commonly in males
e. Tumours arising from the remnant of the notochord
10. About the definitive yolk sac
a. It is also known as the primary yolk sac
b. Contains yolk and fluid
c. Does not contain fluid
d. The wall is a major site of heamatopoeisis
e. May persist to form the meckels diverticulum
11. Twin transfusion syndrome
a. Occurs in 5-15% monoamniotic dichorionic monozygotic twins
b. Shunt of venous blood to arterial circulation
c. Donor twin is anaemic

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 d. Recipient twin is small
e. Donor twin dies of congestive heart failure
12. The classic O’donoghue triad is characterized by an injury to the following structures
a. Tibial collateral ligament
b. Medial meniscus
c. Posterior cruciate ligament
d. Anterior cruciate ligament
e. Fibula collateral ligament
13. The femoral canal
a. Is larger in males than in females
b. Is bounded laterally by the lacunar ligament
c. Is bounded anteriorly by the pectneal ligament of astley cooper
d. Is about 1.5cm long,1.5cm at its base
e. Extend distally into the femoral fossa
14. The medial group of superficial inguinal lymph nodes drains the
a. Penile urethra
b. Clitoris
c. Perineum
d. Testis
e. Scrotum
15. The femoral hernia
a. Never found in the new born and never due to a congenital sac
b. Is more common in men than in women
c. Is superomedial to the pubic tubercle
d. Is reduced when strangulated using incision on the lateral wall of the femoral ring
e. Is reduced by applying pressure downwards,backwards and upwards
16. Which of the following cell structures is correctly matched with their major chemical constituent?
a. Chromatin=DNA
b. Nucleolus=RNA
c. Ground substance=deoxyribose
d. Centrioles=protein
e. Zymogen=fat
17. The golgi body
a. Usuallyis juxtanuclear in position
b. Typically is composed of small vesicles in close proximity to the endoplasmic reticulum
c. Modifies,stores and routes products from the endoplasmic reticulum to the plasma membrane
d. Is involved in glcosylation and amidation
e. Is continous with inner nuclear membrane
18. Nucleoli are prominent in the;
a. Osteocyte
b. Nerve cells
c. Sertoli cells
d. Adult erythrocyte
e. Cells of the stratum lucidum of the skin
19. Non-membranous cell organelles however include;
a. Microvilli
b. Cilia
c. Centrioles
d. Flagellum
e. Ribosomes
20. A primary spermatocyte contains;
a. 46 chromosomes and 2N
b. 46 chromosomes and 4N
c. 23 chromosomes and 2N
d. 23 chromosomes and 1N
e. 46 chromosomes and 1N
21. The following are true concerning the clinical importance of the scalp
a. the skin of the scalp is prone furuncles and carbuncles because of abundance of sebaceous glands
b. scalp wounds bleed profusely and are very painful due to its high innervation and abundant blood supply respectively
c. splitting of the fibres of the galea apponeurotica in the sagittal plane is fatal due to contraction of the frontalis and occipitalis
in different directions
d. the loose areolar tissue contains emissary veins that connect veins of the scalp an the face
e. in caput succedoneum, the hematoma is restricted to the involved skull bone because of the attachment of the the skull
bones to fibrous tissue at the sutures
22. The following are true about the anterior and posterior triangles of the neck and their contents
a. the transverse cervical artery is crossed by the inferior belly of omohyoid
b. the space in between the two heads of the sternocleidomastoid muscle overlie the external jugular vein
c. the the common carotid artery has the carotid sinus and carotid body at its origin
d. the external carotid artery is a content of the subclavian triangle
e. the posterior part of the digastric muscle contains the anterior facial vein
23. The following muscles are appropriately grouped

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 a. trapezius and latissimus dorsi
b. levator scapulae, rhomboideus, serratus posterior superior and inferior and semispinalis
c. iliocostalis, longissimus, spinalis and splenius
d. multifidus, rotatores, interspinales, intertransversii ans occiptal muscles
e erector spinae and semospinalis
24. The following are true about the ear
a. the tympanic membrane is in contact with the chordsa tympani and the malleus
b. the pharyngotympanic tube is opened by an enlarged belly of contracted levator veli palati pushing against one wall while
the tensor veli palati pulls on the other
c. the head of the incus leacves in the epitympanic reccess the vestible contains the utricle and the saccule, parts of the
balancing apparatus
d. sensorineural hearing loss can result from defect in auditory meatus
e. the inner ear contains the semicircular canals, utricle and saccule only
25. The following statements about the tongue are not true
a. the lymphatics in the posterior one third of the tongue cross across the midline
b. the inferior longitudinal fibres shorten the tongue
c.the lingual artery gives of the dorsal lingual artery beneath the hyoglossus
d. in the anterior 2/3 of the tongue taste sensation is conveyed by the chorda tymoani nerve
e. the taste buds of the tongue are linked by synapses at their bases to one of the 3 CN; VI, IX and X
26. The following are true about the human eye
a. The absence of doll's eye in normal patietns is suggestive of brainstem injury
b. damage to the occulomotor nerve causes loss of pupillary light reflex
c. the dilator pupillae innervated by theb parasympathetic nerves causes the pupil to dilate on contraction
d. the choroid is the dark brown membrane that forms the posterior portion of the uvea
e. from inwards outside, the four layers of the sclera are; episclera, stroma, lamins fusca and the endothelium
27. Concerning the nose
a. A greater part of the nasal cavity is not concerned with smell
b. infections from the nose can spread to; lacrimal sac, pharynx and tympanic cavity
c. the cartilaginous part of the nasal septum is formed by septal cartilage and the septal processes of superior nasal cartilage
d.the middle part of bthe lateral wall is called the atrium of the middle meatus
e. the anteroinferior quadrant of the nasal septum is supplied by the superior labial branch of the facial and greater palatine
arteries
28. The following are true about the paranasal sinuses
a. the middle meatus recieves the opening of the opening of then frontal sinus in the posterior part of the hiatus
b. the floor of the maxillary sinus is formed palatine and alveolar proc esses of the mandible
c. the inferior concha is an independent bone
d. the mucous membrane of the sphenoid sinus is solely innervated by the orbital branches
of the pterygopalatine ganglion
e. maxillary sinusitis may be drained surgically from the floor of the sinus
29. Concerning the oral cavity and the teeth
a. last molar = 18years
b. the oral cavity is the area between the teeth and the gingiva
c. the buccal gingiva of the maxillary molars are supplied by the buccal nerve
d. the submandibulat ducts open on to the summit of the sublingual papilla
e. the ameloblasts remain while the odontoblasts disappear
30. Concerning the hard and the soft palate
a. the anterolateral margins of the hard palate are continous with the alveolar arches and gums
b. the hard palate is supplied by the greater palatine branch of the maxillary artery
c. the soft palate is madec up of the tensor palati, levator palati, musculus uvulae, palatoglossus and palatopharyngeus muscles
onlY
d. the passavant's ridge is formed by lower fibres of the palatopharngeus muscle forming a sphincter internal to the superior
constrictor.
e. the palatine aponeurosis is the flattened tendon of the tensor veli palatini
31. The following statements about the pharynx are not true
a. the wall of the nasopharynx is formed by the pharyngobasilar fascia and thye posterior median pharyngeal raphe
b. the salpinogopharyngeal fold and the fossa of rosenmuller are present on the lateral wall of the pharynx
c. the nasopharyngeal tonsil is better developed in adults
d. the lateral wall of the oropharynx presents the palatine tonsil that lies in the tonsillar fossa
e. the waldeyer's lymphatic ring is made up of palatine, pharyngeal, tubal and lingual tonsils
32. The following are true concerning the larynx
a. it is made up of 3 paired and 3 unpaired cxartilages
b. the lower fold of the cavity of the larynx is called the vetibular fold
c. the ventricle of the laryns is the ppart between the vocal and vestibular folds
d. the cricothyroid muscle is the only intrinsic muscle lying on the external aspect of the larynx
e. the posterior cricoarytenoids is the only adductor of the voxcal cords
33. Concerning the cervical fascia
a.it forms natural cleavage planes thus kimiting the spread of infection and abscesses
b. the carotid sheath is a modification of this fascia
c. the sphenomandibular and stylomandibular ligaments are modifications of the deep cervical fascia
d. the carotid sheath and the pretracheal fascia communicate freely with the mediastinum inferiorly and the cranial cavity
superiorly

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 e. the prevertebral fascia fuses with the posterior longitudinal ligament at the base of the skull
34.Concerning the temporomandibular joint
a.it is related anteriorly to medial pterygoid and masseteric nerve and vessels
b. lateral pterygoid is involved in protusion
c. the sphenomandibular ligament serves as a fulcrum and check ligament foe the movements of the mandible at the TMJ
d. the temporal, masseter and medial pterygoid muscles depress the mandible
e. when a person is unable to close their mouth after opening it, the masseter is the affected muscle
35. Concerning the brachial apparatus
a.hyoid bone is derived from the third brachial arch
b. the auditory tube is from the second brachial pouch
c. the greater horn of the hyoid bone is from the third brachial arch
d. stylopharyngeus is from the fourth brachial arch
e pierre robin syndrome includes mandibular hypoplasia, eye and ear defects and nasal cleft
36. Concerning the embryology of the face
a. the alae of the nose are from the lateral nasal prominence
b. the philtrum is from the maxillary prominence
c. the fore head and the bridge of the nose are from the frontonasal prominence
d. all the muscles of mastication are derived from the lst pharyngeal arch and thus supplied by V3
e. the philtrum is supplied by V1 in an adult
37. Concerning the embryology of the nervous system
a. the mesencephalic flexure forms the region of the midbrain
b. the neurons of the sensory ganglia of CNs 5,6,8,9 and 10 are derivatives of neural crest cells
c. the alar lamina becomes the motor part of the spinal cord
d. the ependymal layer gives rise to the celaa surrounding the central canal
e. the dorsal and ventral parts of the neural tube are separated by the sulcus limitans
38. The adenohypophysis is subdivided into pars distalis, pars intermedia and pars tuberalis, the folllowing are features of pars
tuberalis and pars intermedia
a. pars tuberalis is a collar of tissue around the infundibulum
b. pars intermedia lies between the pars distalis and pars nevosa
c. pars tuberalis media is not well developed in humans
d. pars intermedia is not well developed in humans
e. pars tuberalis contains little or no connective tissue
39. Features of the cornea include;
a. it has simple columnar epithelium
b. corneal epithelium rests on bowman’s membrane
c. the substantia propria is the thinnest corneal layer
d. corneal epihelium lacks free nerve endings
e. corneal epithelium does nothave capacity to regenerate
40. Concerning the teeth
a. are derived from endoderm
b.are derived from ectoderm
c. form gomphosis with the bony socket
d. consist predominantly of the enamel which is said to be the hardest material in the body
e. the crown of the teeth rests on the dentine
41.Neurotrophins control neuronal plasticity and they are produced by
a.Ependymal cells
b.Schwann cells
c.Neurons
d.Microglia
e.Astrocytes
42.Nissl bodies are composed of
a. Granular endoplasmic reticulae
b. Smooth endoplasmic reticulae
c. Golgi complexes
d. Neurofilaments
e. Microtubules
43.The spinal ganglion comprises
a. Large neuronal cell bodies with prominent fine bodies
b. Cell bodies surrounded by abundant glial cells called satellite cells
c. Multipolar neurons
d. Unipolar neurons
e. Efferent neurons
44. In peripheral nerves
a. The endoneurium is interrupted at nodes of Ranvier
b. Schwann cell consists neurolemma
c. Perineurium encloses fascicles
d. The axolemma is the plasma membrane of the axon
e. There are no elastic fibres
45.The following are unencapsulated afferent nerve endings
a. Pacinian corpuscles
b. Pertrichial endings

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 c. Meissner’s corpuscles
d. Merkel’s corpuscles
e. Ruffini corpuscles
46. Concerning development of the spinal cord
a. Alar lamina ====> sensory part of the spinal cord
b. Basal lamina ====> motor part
c. Mantle layer ====> grey matter
d. Marginal layer ====> white matter
e. Ependymal layer ====> cells surrounding the central canal
47. Concerning development of the midbrain
a. Develops from the mesencephalon
b. Alar lamina forms cells of the superior and inferior colliculus
c. Alar lamina forms cells of the red nucleus and substantia nigra
d. Basal lamina gives rise to the oculomotor nerve nucleus
e. Basal lamina gives rise to the Edinger-Westphal nucleus

48. Which of the following is/are true

a. Spinal bifida belongs to a group of congenital anomalies of the spinal cord called neural tube defects
b. Spinal bifida is due to non-fusion of the embryonic halves of the vertebral arches
c. In spinal bifida occulta there’s a dimple and a tuft of hair arising from it
d. In spinal bifida cystic there’s protrusion of the spinal cord or meninges through the defect
e. Spinal bifida with meningocele involves protrusion of the meninges and neural tissue
49. Which of the following is/are not true about cranium bifidum
a. Is due to defect in the formation of the cranium
b. With meningocele there’s protrusion of the meninges through the defect
c. With meningoencephalocele there’s protrusion of meninges and part of the brain
d. With meningohydroencephalocele there’s protrusion of the meninges, part of the brain and ventricles
e. Meroancephaly is due to failure of closure of the rostral neuropore
50. The spinal meninges:
a. Have no arachnoid villi
b. Its dura mater has only one layer:endosteal
c. Pia mater is less vascular compared to that of the cranial meninges
d. Pia mater is thickened to form linea splendens
e. Pia mater is thickened to form ligamentum denticulatum
51. Cranial meninges:
a. Is not intimately attached to the brain like the spinal meninges
b. Forms vascular sheaths around blood vessels
c. Pia mater is thickened to form tela choroidea
d. Gives prolongations to the cranial nerves
e. Its subarachnoid space forms the lumbar cistern
52. The following are associated with the roof of the fourth ventricle
a. Tectum of the midbrain
b. Choroid plexus
c. Pineal gland
d. Corpus callosum
e. Temporal lobes of the cerebral hemispheres
53. Concerning the subarachnoid space
a. An interval between the arachnoid mater and pia mater
b. Contains CSF,cerebral arteries but not cerebral veins
c. Does not communicate with the cisterns
d. The fourth ventricle drains into it through a single foramen
e. Extends around the spinal and cranial nerves where they leave the vertebral canal and skull respectively
54. Hypoglossal nerve
a. A lesion involving it will result in deviation of the tongue to the same side of the lesion
b. Conducts taste impulses from the posterior third of the tongue
c. Emerges from the brainstem between the olive and the inferior cerebellar peduncle
d. Carries fibres from the first cervical nerve
e. Fibres of the accessory nerve wind round its nucleus beneath the floor of the 4th ventricle
55. Concerning the thalamus
a. All types of sensory information reach the thalamic nuclei with the exception of smell
b. Few afferents reach the thalamic nuclei from the cerebral cortex
c. The intralaminar nuclei of the thalamus are connected to the reticular formation
d. The intralaminar nuclei cannot influence the levels of consciousness and alertness
e. It is covered on its superior surface by the stratum zonale
56. The following are structures you pass through in doing a lumbar puncture
a. Skin –superficial fascia- supraspinous ligament-interspinous ligament-ligamentum flavum-areolar tissue-dura mater-
arachnoid mater-subarachnoid space
b. Skin –superficial fascia -interspinous ligament- supraspinous ligament -ligamentum flavum-areolar tissue-dura mater-
arachnoid mater-subarachnoid space
c. Skin –superficial fascia- supraspinous ligament-interspinous ligament -areolar tissue-ligamentum flavum -dura mater-
arachnoid mater-subarachnoid space

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 d. Skin –superficial fascia- supraspinous ligament-interspinous ligament-ligamentum flavum-areolar tissue-dura mater-
subarachnoid space -arachnoid mater
e. Skin –superficial fascia- supraspinous ligament-interspinous ligament-ligamentum flavum-dura mater -areolar tissue -
arachnoid mater-subarachnoid space
57. Olfactory pathway
a. It regenerates throughout life
b. Has to relay in the thalamus
c. Does not have third order neuron
d. It is the only pathway whose neuron has direct contact with the environment
e. Only sensory pathway that bypasses the thalamus
58. The following are signs presented in a patient with cerebello-pontine angle lesion
a. Loss of salivation and lacrimation
b. Reduced taste on the same side of anterior 2/3rd of the tongue
c. Deafness on opposite side
d. Nystagmus on opposite side
e. Truncal ataxia
59. Amygdaloid body
a. Present at the head of the caudate nucleus
b. Lies anterioinferior to the superior horn of the lateral ventricle
c. Functionally related to the striae terminalis
d. Is a part of the limbic system
e. Receives afferent from the olfactory tract
60. Trigeminal nuclei and its homologous tract in the limbs
a. Spinal nucleus – anterior spinothalamic tract
b. Sensory nucleus- lateral spinothalamic tract
c. Motor nucleus – corticospinal tract
d. Mesencephalic nucleus – posterior column
e. Motor nucleus – posterior column
61. The following are anatomically correct pertaining to rib fracture
a. The angle is the shortest part of the rib and therefore the least fractured part
b. The middle ribs are the most commonly fractured
c. The 1st rib is the least protected therefore fractures commonly
d. The lower ribs which are unattached are the least commonly fractured
62. In an x-ray of the chest at least 3 sternabrae were visible, how old would the patient be approximately
a. Between 6 to 10 years
b. About 10 years
c. About 20 years
d. About 5 years
63.The following are true about movements of the thoracic wall
a. Bucket-handle movement is the forward and upward movement of the sternum
b. Bucket-handle movement takes place mainly in the ribs of the costal margin
c. Pump handle is rising of the centre of the ribs like one is raising a handle
d. Pump handle movement takes place mainly in the vertebrosternal ribs
64. About the nerve supply of the pleura
a. Collateral branches of the intercostals nerve supply the costal pleura
b. Phrenic nerve supplies the diaphragmatic pleura over the dome
c. Phrenic nerve supplies the mediastinal pleura
d. Visceral pleura gets its somatic nerve supply from the collateral branches of the intercostal nerve
65. A Bronchopulmonary segment has the following characteristics
a. It is a bronchovascular segment
b. Has a segmental bronchus, segmental artery and segmental vein
c. Is pyramidal in shape with its apex pointing towards the pleural surfaces and bases facing the lung root
d. It is separated from adjacent segment by CT which contains the segmental vein
66. External features of the heart
a. The right border is formed entirely by the right atrium
b. The left border is formed mainly by the left atrium
c. The base is formed mainly by the left atrium
d. The inferior border is formed mainly by the right atrium but also by the right ventricle
67. Cardiac opening
a. The left atrioventricular orifice is the only opening that is guarded by two cusps
b. The pulmonary trunk orifice is the most anterior and superior opening of all cardiac openings
c. The inferior vena cava and the coronary sinus are guarded by rudimentary valves
d. The pulmonary veins and inferior vena cava opening lack valves
68. The following statements are true about coronary dominalnce
a. Right coronary dominance is the usual situation because the right coronary artery is larger than the left artery
b. Coronary dominance is determined by the vessel that supplies the posterolateral wall of the left ventricle
c. Dominance of coronary arterial system is defined by which artery gives rise to the posterior interventricular artery
d. The heart is said to have left dominance if the posterior interventricular artery arises from the circumflex branch
69. The venae cordis minimi
a. Opens directly into the all the four chambers of the heart
b. Are like the oblique vein of marshal, a remnant of the embryonic left SVC

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 c. Unite to form the small cardiac vein
d. Also called the smallest cardiac vein
70. Which of the following statement is true about the
a. Approximately 15cm long
b. Has its cartilage bridged anteriorly by the trachealis muscle
c. Its thoracic part is related posteriorly to the left recurrent laryngeal nerve
d. The thoracic part is related on the left to the arch of the azygos
71.Concerning the esophagus
a. Has its upper limit defined by the cricopharyngeus
b. Pierces the central tendon of the diaphgram at the level of TI0
c. It is indented by the left bronchus
d. It is indented by the left atrium
72. Course of the thoracic duct
a. Slopes to the left in the mid-thorax at the level of T4
b. Crosses from right to left at at T5
c. Lies to the right of the azygos vein in the aortic hiatus
d. Enters the beginning of the left brachicephalic vein
73. Thoracic sympathetic chain
a. Crosses the bodies of T11 and T12 vertebrae
b. Passes behind the median arcuate ligament
c. Stellate ganglion formed by fusion of the inferior cervical and first thoracic ganglion
d. The greater splanchnic nerve arises from T5-T9 ganglia
74. Concerning the diaphragm
a. Esophageal opening transmits the esophagus, azygos vein and tributaries of gastric vein
b. Caval opening transmits branches of the left phrenic nerve and the inferior vena cava
c. The aortic opening transmits the thoracic duct and abdominal aorta
d. The medial arcuate ligament overlies the quadratus lumborum
75. The anterior abdominal wall
a. Fascia of scarpa is continuous with the colle’s fascia in the perineum
b. T11 and the suncostal nerve supply the skin around the umbilicus
c. Transumbilical plane traverse the posterior body of L5
d. Fascia of scarpa represents the deep fascia of the abdomen
76.Concerning the inguinal canal
a. Its roof is partly formed by the external oblique abdominis
b. Its posterior wall is formed by the conjoint tendon medially
c. Its floor is formed by the lacunar ligament
d. The superficial inguinal ring is formed by the aponeurosis of external oblique abdominis
77. The peritoneum
a. Its parietal layer is derived from the splanchnopleuroc layer of the lateral plate mesoderm
b. The peritoneal cavity is only a potential space
c. The root of the mesentery is crossed by the first part of the duodenum
d. The epiploic foramen usually admits two fingers
78. The stomach
a. The stomach bed
b. The posterior vagal trunk supplies the body of the stomach
c. Pancreaticosplenic lymphnodes receive lymph from the right portion of the greater curvature
d. The pain of posterior gastric ulcer radiates to the back
79.Concerning the intestines
a. The second part of the duodenum passes infront of the IVC and L3 vertebra
b. The ligament of treitz is made up of smooth muscle fibres in its middle part
c. The mobile part of the small intestine is completely covered with peritoneum
d. The jejunum has a larger and more developed plicae circularis than the duodenum
80.The liver and gall bladder
a. The right and left lobes are separated by the attachment of the falciform ligament on the medial side and the anterior
part of the diaphgrammatic surface
b. The ligamaentum teres hepatis is related to the caudate lobe
c. The neck of the gall bladder on its right wall has a dilatation (hartmann pouch) which is not associated with a pathological
condition
d. The pain felt in the shoulder in inflammation of the gall bladder may be due to irritation of the central part of the
subdiaphragmmatic peritoneum supplied by phrenic nerve.
81. The following part of the kidney develop from the mesonephros
a. proximal convoluted tubule
b. loops of henle
c. distal convoluted tubule
d. major and minor calyces
e. the vesicles
82. Derivatives of the urogenital sinus include
a. prostatic glands
b. paraurethral glands
c. all part of urinary bladder
d. lower part of the vagina

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 e. urethra
83. Phenotypical sexual differentiation
a. it begins by week 7
(b)male and female sexual characteristics can be recognized before week 12
(c)paramesonephric duct plays a major role in male
(d)wolffian duct plays a major role in the female
(e)primordial germ cells are visible in the 4th
84. Androgen insensitivity syndrome (AIS)
(a)also known as testicular ferminization syndrome
(b) karyotype is 46xx
(c) the vagina is short and blind
(d)testes are undescended
(e)androgen is unable to induce the formation of male external genitalia
85. Hypospadias
(a)the external urethral meatus is on the dorsal aspect of the penis
(b)usually the penis is well developed
(c)the penis curves dorsally
(d)usually corrected by urethraplasty
(e)usually associated with crytorchidism
86. Transitional epithelium is found in the
(a)minor calyces
(b)trigonal part of urinary bladder
(c)upper part of the urethral
(d)renal pelvis
(e)collecting duct
87. The prostrate
(a)the peripheral zone is the major site of BPH
(b)the transitional zone is the major of CA of prostrate
(c)show centrally located nuclei in it epithelium
(d)shows lamellated glycoprotein masses; corpora amylacea which increases with age and may calcify as prostatic
concretions
(e) the peripheral zone forms the major part of the gland
88. Spermiogenesis include the following major changes
(a) formation of acrosome
(b)condensation of the nucleus
(c)loss of excess cytoplasm
(d)formation of tail
(e)fusion of membraneous oraganelle to the cell body plasma membrane
89. Electron microscopy of the zona fasciculate
(a)presence of anastomosing network of tubules
(b)numerous mitochondria with lamellar crista in the cytoplasm
(c)abundant smooth endoplasmic reticulum
(d)numerous secondary lysosomes
(e)numerous mitochondria with tubular crista
90.Vaginal mucosa
(a)exhibit longitudinal folds or rugae
(b)lined with thin stratified squmous epithelium
(c)appear vacuolated in most histoligical sections (presence of gly cosodes)
(d)lamina propria is composed of tight connective tissue that is very rich in fibre
(e)they are presence of Polymornucleic cells, leucocytes and associate lymph nodes in the lamina propria.
91. Deep boundaries of the perineum
(a)lateral angle by sacrotuberous ligament
(b)posterior side by ischial tuberosity
(c)posterior angle by tops of coccyx
(d)anterior angle by pubic arches
(e)angle side by inferior pubic ligament
92. Perineal body
(a)the point where urogenital septum and cloacal membrane meet
(b)it is a regular fibromuscular node
(c)situated in the medial plane at 1.25cm in front of the anal margin
(d)a midpoint of a line connecting the ischial tuberosity
(e)contain collagenous and elastic fibre
93. Sacral plexus
(a)located behind the piriformis muscle
(b)formed by lumbosacral trunk
(c)formed by ventral rami of s1to s3
(d)formed by lower part of ventral rami of s4
(e)nerve to piriformis is a branch from the root
94.Clinical importance of inferior epigastric artery
(a)form the lateral branch of the hasselbach triangle
(b)it demacate the direct and indirect hernia

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 (c)it is between the two limbs of pantaloon hernia
(d)it can serve as anastomosis to testicular artery in orchedopexy
(e)it can give rise to an abnormal obturator artery
95. Branches from the posterior division of internal iliac artery are
(a)superior vesical
(b)obturator artery
(c)iliolumbar artery
(d)lateral sacral artery
(e)superior gluteal artery
96. The following structures can be palpated by the finger passed per rectum in a normal male patient
(a)anosectal ring
(b)prostrate
(c)seminal vessicles
(d)perineal body
(e)faecal impaction
97. An ureteric calculus is likely to lodge at
(a)at the junction of the pelvis of the ureter with its abdominal part
(b)at the pelvic brim
(c)at the ureteric part of the ureter
(e)where it enter the bladder
98. The dimple constantly seen on each side immediately above the buttock, defines the following
(a)the posterior superior iliac spine
(b)the center of sacroiliac joint
(c)the level of the 3rd sacral segment
(d)the level of the end of the dural of the spinal meninges
(e)the level of spinal puncture
99. Comparison of male and female pelvis
(a)pelvic outlet comparatively larger in males than in females
(b)pelvic inlet is oval in male and heartshaped in female
(c)acetabulum smaller in male than in female
(d)obturator foramen oval in male and rounded in female
(e)ischial tuberosity everted in male and inturned in female
100. Vaginal examination
(a)anteriorly, bladder and pelvis symphysis are felt
(b)posteriorly, the rectum is felt
(c)laterally the ovaries and the tubes are felt
(d)apex, the cervix is felt
(e)posteriorly, pouch of douglas

WISHING YOU SUCCESS

CMDA STUDENT…………caring for the whole man

The labour of the righteous tendeth to life: the fruit of the wicked is
sin……….prov 10 vs 16

CMDA STUDENTS.............caring for the whole man. Page 9