ANATOMY

COMPREHENSIVE PRACTICE MCQ

1 What is the correct anatomical position in standing posture?

2 An anatomical position that divides the body into left and right halves is__?

3 A laryngeal cartilage that ossifies with age is__

4 Which type of gland is a mammary gland is:

A Merocrine B Holocrine C Apocrine

5 The following are examples of genes except:

A brca B ade C hox a

6 What are sesamoid bones?

7 The laryngeal cartilage that ossifies with age is

A epiglottis B cricoids C cuneiform D corniculate

8 Zona pellucida facilitates sperm binding T/F

9 Germ cells are derived from epiblast in week 2 T/F

10 Which of the following have satellite bodies?

A chromosome 13 B Chromosome 14 C Chromosome 15 D Chromosome 16 E Chromosome 17

11 Mendelian inheritance include the following except:

A mitochondrial B multifactorial C Y-linked D sporadic

12 Which is not aneuploidy

A triploidy B nullosomy C risomy D pentasomy E monosomy

13 Transverse sinus separates__

14 Which of the following is not a mucocilliary apparatus?

A smooth muscle cells. B basal cells C brush cells D small granular cells E goblet cells

15 Example of unipinnate muscle include:

Ans - longus femorus

16 Lesion of the anterior mediastinum causes?

17 structures traversing aortic opening include the following except:

A vagus nerve B hemizygous vein C azygous vein D aorta E thoracic duct

18 The Lymphatic drainage of the heart is via__

19 Reproductive period of a woman

20 The following are banding techniques except

A. G banding B. E banding C. Brca D. R banding E. H banding

21 The breasts of a female are largely symmetrical T/F

22 The amount of subcutaneous tissue determines the size of the breast in a non lactating female
T/F

COMPREHENSIVE PRACTICE MCQ

1. With the aid of endoscope in the superior mediastinum, one could observe: a) brachiocephalic
trunk b) left brachiocephalic vein c) right recurrent laryngeal nerve d)left ventricle of the heart e)
brachiocephalic lymph node
2. A finger in the transverse sinus would separate the following structures: a) Oesophagus and
trachea b) pulmonary trunk and atria c) thoracic duct and vertebral column d) ascending aorta and
atria e)SVC and IVC
3. Blood neutrophil population usually increases under the following conditions:
a) Bacterial infection b) Use of glucocorticoids c) Malignancy d) Consumption of
carbohydrate diet e) Acute inflammation
4. The corpus luteum
a. Has a life span of 28 days in the absence of fertilization
b. Produces gonadotropin
c. Is sustained by FSH fertilization occurs
d. Possesses cells with abundant smooth endoplamic reticulum and cholesterol
e. Is usually active throughout of the first 20 weeks of pregnancy
5. Concerning the boarders of `Triangle of Koch`
a. The opening of the coronary sinus
b. The anterior portion of the tricuspid valve annular
c. The tendon of Todaro
d. None of a,b,c
e. All of a,b,c
6. Genetic trait:
a. It is characteristic determined by a gene
b. Is said to be dominant if it is expressed only in the homozygotes
c. It is said to be recessive if it is expressed in the heterozygotes
d. It is Co-dominant if the effect of both alleles are seen in the heterozygotes
e. It is determined by a pair of alleles.
7. In a typical of synovial joint
a. Fibrocartilage line articulating surfaces
b. Synovial fluid contain hyaluronic acid
c. Arthritis is more frequently associated with this joint type
d. Synovial fluid is devoid of cells
e. Synovial membrane is external to your joint capsule
8. Concerning the thoracic diaphragm
a. Central tendon contacts fibrous pericardium
b. Phrenic nerve has motor fibres only
c. Aortic hiatus lies at T10 vertebral level
d. Oesophagus traverse central tendon
e. It develops from a single embryonic primodium
9. Components of the mononuclear phagocyte system include:
a. Adipocytes of connective tissue
b. Type A synovial cells of joints
c. Reticular cell f the thymus
d. Kupffer cells of the liver
e. Dendric cell of the skin
10. Regarding skeletal muscle cells
a. Norepinephrine is the transmitter at myoneural junction
b. Myasthenia gravis is X – linked receive
c. Becker muscular dystrophy is an auto immune condition
d. Myocytes are spindled shapes
e. Each myocytes is multinucleated
11. Example of tissues frequently susceptible to malignancy include:
a. Urothelium
b. Skeletal muscle
c. Nerve cells
d. Simple columnar epithelium
e. Cardiac muscle
12. Which of the following genotypes causes klinefelter syndrome?
a. XO
b. XX
c. XXY
d. XXY
e. YYY
13. A stethoscope placed over the left 2nd interspace just lateral to the sternum would be the best
position to detect sounds associated with which heart valve?
a) Aortic b) Pulmonary c) Mitral d) Tricuspid e) Aorticopulmonary
14. Regarding the thymus
a. It enlarge with enhancing age
b. T cells attain immunocompetence
c. Thymocyte lies in the medulla
d. Hassall corpuscles are absent
e. It lack fibrous capsule
15. Match the following collagen type with the structure in which it is localized
a. Collagen type I tendrons
 b. Collagen type II – hyaline cartilage
c. Collagen type III – vitrous body
d. Collagen type IV – basement membrane
e. Collagen type V – placenta
16. Concerning period of organogenesis, whish of those are true?
a. Is a period of rapid changes in the embryo
b. Is sensitive to xenobiotic assaults
c. Limb buds appear in the 8th week
d. Occur in the pre – embryonic period
e. Endocardial heart tubes have appeared by the end of 3rd week
17. Sex linked inheritance include:
a. Albinism
b. Hemophilia A
c. Achondroplasia
d. Turner syndrome
18. During erythropoiesis the following cell
a. Ortho chromatophilic erythroblasts
b. Reticulocytes
c. Metanyekocytes
d. Promegakaryotes
e. Erythrocytes
19. Causes of Down syndrome do not include:
a. Translocation
b. Mosaicism
c. Non – disjunction;
d. Isochromosome;
e. Anaphase lag
20. The Tetralogy of fallot includes the following defect of the heart
a. Aortic stenosis
b. Dextroposition of the aorta
c. Left ventricular hypertrophy
d. Ventricular septal defect
e. Overriding aorta
21. The apex of the heart
a. Lies posterior to the left 5th intercostal space in adult
b. Remain motionless throughout the cardiac cycle
c. Formed by the left ventricles
d. Is mostly supplied by a branch of left coronary artery
e. Is the hearts posterior aspect
22. Which of the following could arrest cell division:
a) Colchicines b) somatotropin c) vinblastine d) ionizing radiation e) endogenous insulin
23. Events at the sternal angle of louis
a. Ribs are counted from this level downward, 3rd rib lies at sternal angle
b. It mark the plane of separation of superior and inferior mediastinum
c. Ascending aorta ends, arch of aorta begins
d. Bifurcation of the trachea occurs
e. Azygos vein drain into SVC
24. Concerning micro anatomy of the lung
a. Type II pneumocytes produce surfactant
b. Type I pneumocytes is cuboidal in shape with microvilli
c. Duct cell are macrophages
d. Alveolar epithelium is mesodermal in origin
e. Respiratory bronchioles lack cartilage
25. You are to perform a thoracocentesis; if you are to avoid injuring the lung and neurovascular
structures, where would you most likely insert the aspiration needle?
a) Top of intercostal space 8 at midclavicular line b) Bottom of intercostal space 8 at
midaxillary line c) Top of intercostal space 9 in the midaxillary line d) Bottom of
intercostal space 9 in the midaxillary line e) Top of intercostal space 11 in the scapular
line
26. Concerning radiologic anatomy of thorax
a. Pneumothorax can be detected using a plain chest radiograph
b. Retrosternal space lodges oesophagus
c. A left sided aortic arch is a rarity
d. Thrombus can be detected using angiogram
e. Ultrasound is the modality of choice for detecting intrauterine congenital abnormalities
27. Medial relation of the right lung include:
a. Right ventricle
b. Oesophagus
c. Arch of azygos vein
d. Superior venal cava
e. Descending thoracic aorta
28. In the posterior mediastinum, neoplasm or injury could involve
a. Oesophagus
b. Mediastinal lymph nodes
c. Thymus
d. Thoracic duct
e. Trachea
29. Which of these is correctly matched
a. Zygotene – separation of paired homologous chromosomes
b. Leptotene – duplication of DNA
c. Diplotene – alignment of chromosome at cell equator
d. Pachytene – thickening and shortening of chromosomes
e. Diakinesis – degeneration of cell membrane
30. The following are correctly matched with their main function except
a. Ribosome – protein synthesis
b. Desmosome – intercellular anchoring
c. Nucleolus – RNA production
d. Lysosome – release histamine
31. In the anatomical position
a. Arms are extended away from the body
b. Upper extremities are pronated
c. Body is erect and the palms face anteriorly
d. Body is recumbent and palms face posteriorly
e. Body is in a foetal position
32. At the end of 3rd week post fertilization which of these is incorrect?
a. Trilaminar embryonic disc is formed
b. Rostrat neuropore has normally closed
c. Heart primordium is present
d. Neurulation has commenced
e. Primitive uteroplacental circulation is possible
33. Placental membrane (barrier) is formed by the following except
a. Endothelium of villous capillaries
b. Placental septum
c. Mesenchyme of tertiary villus
d. Cytotrophoblast
e. Syncytriotrophoblast
34. Which of the following strand of DNA would be the complement strand to C-C-A-T-C-G
a. GGTAGC
b. GGATGC
c. AACGAT
d. AAUTAG
35. The offspring of two parents that are heterozygous for a given trait have __per cent chance of
being homozygous for the trait
a. 0
b. 25
c. 50
d. 100
e. 75
36. Stenosis of the pulmonary orifice could result in one of the following
a. Left ventricular hypertrophy
b. Systemic hypertension
c. Right ventricular hypertrophy
d. Left ventricular trophy
e. Right atrial hypertrophy
f. Left atrial hypertrophy
37. If the ductus arteriosus does not close soon after birth, it may have to be surgically ligated. When
ligating it , what important structure immediately behind it must be identified and spared?
a. Arch of azygos vein
b. Internal thoracic artery
c. Left phrenic nerve
d. Left recurrent laryngeal nerve
e. Right vagus nerve
38. In adult, heart sound associated with mitral valve is best heard.
a. Over the manubrium sterni
b. In the second left intercostal space
c. In the third right intercostal space
d. In the fifth left intercostal space
e. Just to the right of the xiphoid process
39. A supine patient aspirates some fluid while swallowing. The fluid would most likely end up in
which of the following?
a. Anterior segmental bronchus of right superior lobe
 b. Medial segmental bronchus of right middle lobe
c. Superior segmental bronchus of right inferior lobe
d. Medial basal segmental bronchus of left inferior lobe
e. Inferior segmental bronchus of the lingular lobe
40. An elderly person presented with oedema of the left upper limb due to poor venous return.
Examination revealed an aneurysm of the ascending aorta that was impinging on a vein lying
immediately anterosuperior to it, most likely the
a. Azygos vein
b. Left internal thoracic vein
c. Left superior intercostal vein
d. Left brachiocephalic vein
e. Superior vena cava

GIT/UGS PRACTICE MCQ

1. Which of these are at risk during excision or pancreatic head?

a) Abdominal aorta b) Vermiform appendix c) Bile duct d) Portal vein e) Left kidney
2. Perforation of posterior stomach wall could directly injure:
a) Pancreatic body b) Right kidney c) Splenic artery d) Gall bladder e) Spleen
3. Which of the following will promote detrusor contraction?
a) Parasympathetic fibres b) Somatic fibres c) Sympathetic fibres d) Pelvic splanchnic
nerve fibres e) Lumbar splanchnic nerve fibres
4. Blockage of which of these nerves would produce anesthesia in labium majus?
a) Ilioinguinal nerve b) Iliohypogastric nerve c) Pudendal nerve d) Posterior femoral
cutaneous nerve e) Obturator nerve
5. Cancer cells from ovary will form metastases primarily in the following:
a) Lumbar lymph nodes b) Superficial inguinal lymph nodes c) Deep inguinal lymph nodes
d) Internal iliac lymph nodes e) Lateral aortic lymph nodes
6. Concerning the penis,
a) Cavernous nerves are closely related to prostatic shealth b) Helicine arteries supply
cavernous spaces c)Sympathetic stimulation promotes secretion d) Navicular fossa
occupies bulb of the penis e) Inhibiting phosphodiesterase impairs erection
7. In peptic ulcer, perforation of posterior wall of 1st part of duodenum could erode:
a) Gastroduodenal artery b) Bile duct c) Portal vein d) Pancreatic tail e) Spleen
8. Tumor in the left hypochondrium could involve any of these structures:
a) Gall bladder b) Hepatic flexure c) Pancreatic tail d) Stomach e) Terminal ileum
9. The following are unpaired branches of abdominal aorta
a) Coeliac trunk b) Renal artery c) Superior phrenic artery d) Inferior mesenteric artery e)
Splenic artery
10. Sites of portocaval anastomoses include:
a) Umbilicus b) Upper end of oesophagus c) Rectum d) Labium minus e) Gland penis
11. Concerning the oesophagus,
a) Skeletal muscles fibres are absent b) It is lined by simple columnar epithelium c)
Submucosa lacks exocrine glands d) Motor fibres are from cranial nerve X e) Mucosa is
longitudinally folded
12. In the digestive system, lymph nodules are:
 a) Concentrated in the tonsils b) Concentrated in the appendix c) Scattered in lamina
propria d) Absent in Peyer`s patches e) Evenly distributed throughout the gut
13. Match the following cells with the secretory products:
a) Chief cell – hydrochloric acid
b) Parietal cell – pepsinogen
c) Enterochromaffin cell – histamine
d) Neck cell – mucus
e) Oxyntic cell – gastrin
14. Regarding the adrenal cortex
a) Zona glomerulosa release aldosterone b) Zona fasciculate produces glucocorticoid c)
Zona reticularis is absent in females d) Its cells lack smooth endoplasmic reticulum
15. Concerning pancreatic islets,
a) They are most numerous in pancreatic head b) Tumor of alpha cells would result in
chronic hypoglycaemia c) Insulin is also produced by delta cells d) Beta cells form
cellular cords e) Some cells produce somatostatin
16. Regarding the liver
a) Kupffer cells occupy space of disc b) Reticular fibres are abundant c) Bile is a product
of Ito cells d) All hepatocytes are mononucleated e) Sinusoids are fenestrated
17. Concerning the testis
a) Sertoll cells are the largest of germ cells b) Leydig cell share structural similarity with
luteal cells c) Spermatogonia are stem cells d) Cancer cells would metastasize to
superficial inguinal nodes e) testicular vein traverses spermatic cord.
18. Seminal vesicles contribute the following to the semen:
a) Prostate specific antigen b) Coagulating enzymes c) Fructose d) Prostaglandins e)
Testosterone
19. The ureteric bud
a) Is an outgrowth of the mesonephric duct b) Gives rise to renal collecting system c) Is
derived from the paramesonephric duct d) Forms the excretory system of the kidney e)
Induces the formation of nephrons
20. The primary sex cord
a) Appears in the 6th week post fertilization b) Is an outgrow of the gonadal ridge c)
Becomes seminiferous tubules in the male d) Is the primordium of the uterine tubes e)
Gives rise to the entire ovary
21. The following are derivatives of the urogenital sinus:
a) Greater vestibular glands b) Prostatic utricle c) Para urethral glands in males d)
Urinary bladder e) Entire vagina
22. Regarding congenital megacolon
a) Neural crest cells fail to reach the foregut b) Affected intestinal loop in tightly
contracted c) Postganglionic sympathetic neuron are absent d)Commonly involves
rectum and sigmoid colon e) Does not occur in males
23. Concerning epispadias
a) It occurs once in every fifty thousand birth b) Urethral opening is located on the
ventral penile surface c)Genital tubercle forms at the cranial margin of cloacal membrane
d) They usually occur as isolated defects e) Its is less often associated with exstrophy or
the bladder
24. The following are involved in the development of the vagina and uterus
 a) Wolffian duct b) Ureteric duct c) Urogenital sinus d) Mullerian ducts e) Pronephric
ducts
25. Anomalies of the uterus do present as:
a) Uterus bicornis b) Uterus tetracornis c) Uterus didelphys d) Uterus bicornis unicornis
e) Uterus arcuatus
26. The penile urethra is derived from:
a) Urogenital sinus b) Pelvis part of the vesicoureteral canal c) Phallic part of the
vesicoureteral canal d) Cloaca e) Mesonephric duct
27. The following structures are directly or indirectly derived from the Wolffian duct except:
a) Part of the epididymis b) Part of the kidney c) Part of the urinary bladder d) Seminal
vesicles e) Prostate
28. The ureteric bud appears as an outgrowth from the:
a) Metanephric mass b) Lateral plate mesoderm c) Urogenital sinus d) Aliantoic duct e)
Mesonephric duct
29. The following are anomalies of the kidney except:
a) Horse shoe kidney b) Polycystic kidneys c) Unilateral agenesis d) Bovine shoe kidney
e) Pelvis kidney
30. The embryonic origin of the labia minora is/are:
a) Urethral folds b) Genital tubercle c) Genital swelling d) Sinovaginal bulbs e) Cloacal
membrane
31. Which duct is not associated with the urinary system development?
a) Ureteric bud b) Paramesonephric duct c)Pronephric duct d) Wolffian duct e)
Mesonephric duct
32. Appendicular artery is normally a direct branch of :
a) Heocolic artery b) Internal iliac artery c) Left renal artery d) Right colic artery e)
Inferior mesenteric artery
33. Ligation of cocliac trunk would impair blood flow to which organ
a) Spleen b) Oesophagus c) Rectum d) Appendix e) Left suprarenal gland
34. Oesophagus is constricted at one of the following points except:
a) At its junction with the pharynx b) Where it is crossed by arch of aorta c) Where it
pierces the diaphragm d) Where it crosses left main bronchus e) Where it lies behind
pulmonary trunk
35. Lymph vessels from scrotum drain primarily inot:
a) Deep inguinal nodes b) Lumbar nodes c) Superficial inguinal nodes d) External iliac
nodes e) Internal iliac nodes
36. One of the following organs lack glandular cells
a) Uterine tube b) Vagina c) Uterine body d) Uterine cervix e) Seminal vesicle
37. External urethral sphincter receives somatic fibres from
a) Pelvic splanchnic nerves b) Iliophypogastric nerve c) Obturator nerve d) Pudental nerve e)
Inferior rectal nerve
38. The following are true concerning antral follicle except?
a) Granulosa cells could have as much as six layers b) Characterized by coalescence and
reorganization of its small spaces c) Theca externa secretes androstenedione d) It is under
the influence of follicle stimulating hormone of the adenohypophysis e) The
components of the cavity include plasma and proteoglycans
39. The urogenital system is derived from
 a) Urogenital fold b) Primary sex cord c) Intermediate mesoderm d) Intermediate
endoderm e) Ectoderm
b) Ureteric bud appears as an outgrowth from the?
A. metanephric mass B. lateral plate mesoderm C. Urogenital sinus D. Mesonephric duct

2. Which of the following is not associated with urinary system development

A. Ureteric bud B. Paramesonephric duct C. Pronephric duct D. Wolfian duct E. Mesonephric duct

3. Blockage of which of these nerves would produce anaesthasia in the labium majoral?

A. Iliolinguinal nerve (T) B. Iliohypogastric nerve (F) C. Pudenda nerve (T) D. Posterior femoral
cutaneous nerve (T) E. Obturator nerve (F)

4. Organ in the posterior part of the first part of the duodenum

A. Gastroduodenal artery (T) B. Bile duct (T) C. Portal vein (T) D. Pancreatic tail (F) E. Spleen (F)

5. The following bare involved in the development of the vagina and the uterus

A. Wolfianduct(F) B. Ureteric duct(F) C. Urogeniatl sinus (T) D. Mullerian duct (T) E. Pronephric duct
(F)

6. About the ureteric bud

A. is an outgrowth of the mesonephric duct (T)

B Giuves rise to renbal collecting system (T)

C. Is derived from paramesonephric duct (F)

D. Induce the formatio0n of nephron (T)

E. Forms the excretory system of the Kidney (T)

MB PRACTICE QUESTIONS

1 Posterior relation of the kidney:

A splenic vein, B psoas muscle, C hepatorenal recess

2 A penetrating wound in the transpyloric plane would likely injure one of the flw except:

A fundus of gall bladder, B fundus of stomach, C 9 costal cartilage, D T1 vertebrae,

3 Blockage of the following nerves would produce anaesthesia in the labium majors except:

A Iliohypogastric B Ilioinguinal C Pudendal D S2-S4 E Posterior femoral cutaneous

4 Concerning the adrenal cortex:

A Zona Glomerulosa produces aldosterone B Zona Fasiculata produces glucocorticoids C Zona
Reticularis produces Androgens D Adrenal gland secretes monoamines

6 Lesion of oculomotor nerve will cause:

A Ipsilateral mydriasis B Contralateral miosis C Adduction of cornea D Loss of blinking reflex

7 Lesion of radial nerve:....

8 Which of the following is true:

9 Edward syndrome affects chromosome 21

A Patau affects C13 B Criduchat is due to deletion on short arm of chromosome 5 C Kleinfelter -
47 XYY D Turner - 45 X0

10 Lesion of s2-s4 will affect contractility of:

A Internal urethra sphincter B Detrusor muscle C Anal sphincter D Vas deferens

11 Varicocele affects left testicular vein more Cancer cell can metastasize to:

A lumbar node B Anterior cerebral artery C Middle cerebral artery

12 Lesion in Posterior part of internal capsule will cause:

13 Leydig cell is similar to lutein cell structurally

14 About Endoscope in superior mediastinum

A Prepyloric vein at cardial orifice

14 About Coeliac trunk

A supply the whole duodenum B directly supply right gastric C indirectly supply gall bladder

D arise at L2

15 A finger in transverse pericardial sinus......

16 A Stethoscope placed on the right 2nd intercoastal space is used to detect:

A Pulmonary B Aortic C Mitral D Tricuspid

16 Concerning Penis congenital anomaly

A Cryptorchidism B Epidpedia C Glanular hypospedia D Penile hypospedia

17 Aspiration of fluid when swallowing would end up in?

A Ant segmental bronchus of right lung B Med segmental bronchus of right C Sup segmental
bronchus of right D Inferior segmental of lingular

18 Which of the following is correctly paired:

A Lysosome- Hydrolyzes cholesterol B Golgi body - stores calcium C Mitochondria - involved

in post translational modification D Microbody - involved in B oxidation E Proxisome- catalyzes
H2O2

19 Corneal transplant and its chance of rejection?

20 Which of the following won’t affect Pupillary light reflex:

A Optic nerve. B Oculomotor nerve C Retina D Brainstem E Lacrimal nerve.

21 Concerning cutaneous nerve of the lower limb:

A Big Toe, L5 B Small toe, LI C Knee, L3 D Lateral leg, L4

22 Height is not a feature of which of the following

A Marfan Syndrome B Klinefelter C FGF mutation at gene 3 D Acromegaly

23 Types of Cartilage found in The Neck?

Hyaline cartilage, FibroCartilage And Elastic cartilage

24 Match the above cartilages to Epiglottis, Criocoid, arytenoid, Corniculate, Cuneiform

25 Injection of anesthesia in the infratemporal fossa will mostly likely affect which nerve

A Buccal branch of facial B Mandibular C Auriculotemporal.

26 Derivatives of Endoderm include:

A Epithelium of Trachea B Parenchyma of mammary gland C Parenchyma of Pancreas

D Dermis of skin E Lens of the eye

27 Spinal tap is at;

A L1-L2 B L2-L3 C S1-S2

28 Multiple myeloma affects plasma cell production T/F

PHYSIOLOGY

MB PRACTICE QUESTION

1 Cardiac index is higher in children than in adult. Heart rate is inversely proportional to surface
area

2 Zeitgber reset biological clock

3 Estrogen is responsible for rise in body temperature after ovulation

4 Leptin is increased in obese people

5 During diastasis there is increase in blood flow. Increase in coronary blood flow

6 Kuhn’s theory is the theory of countercurrent exchanger

7 Nerve injuries was classified into 5 types by Sunderland

8 Wallerian degeneration takes place in the cell body

9 Progesterone increases myometrial contractility

10 Oestrogen is responsible for the rise in basal temperature during ovulation

11 cells of the preganglionic sympathetic neurones are located in the...

12 Obese people have higher plasma leptin

13 SRY genes are present in both male and female False

14 Which of this is not a component of glabrous skin?

a) Hair follicle b) Merkel c) Meissner Corpuscle d) Free nerve ending
15 Trans neuronal degeneration occurs between more than two neurons

16 Neuropathic pain is a type of chronic pain

17 The following are components of semen except

a. citric acid b. fructose c. Ascorbic acid d. acid phosphatase e. Testosterone

18 Which of the following pathways use unmyelinated neuron to transmit to CNS

a. Proprioception b. Vision c. Pressure d. Vibration e. Temperature

19 End-plate potential can be recorded with spinal cord T/F.

20 Synapse en passant can be found within cerebral cortex T/F.

21 Fetal hemoglobin is different from Hemoglobin

a.Delta chain b.Gamma chain c.Beta chain d.None of the above fetal Hb has alpha and gamma
chains while adult Hb has alpha and beta chains or delta chain in A2

22 G cells of the gastric mucosa secrete:

a.Hydrochloric acid b.Lipase c.Gastrin d.Mucus, e.Pepsinogen

23 The commonest cause of Cushion's syndrome

a. Hypothalamic adenoma b. Pituitary adenoma c. Exogenous therapeutic intake of

glucocorticoids d. Adrenal cortex adenoma e. Ectopic secretion of ACTH

24 Glutamate is an excitatory neurotransmitter

25 Entrainment occurs in utero

26 Which of the following is not reabsorbed in the loop of Henle

A. Sodium B. Glucose C. Potassium D. Chloride E. B and C

27 Measures rate of muscle spindle contraction.

A. Nuclear chain fiber B. Nuclear bag fiber C. Golgi Tendon Organ

28 Bipolar neurons are first order neurons of both the auditory and visual pathway

29 Which of the following is not correct about pulmonary arteries?

a) it has thin vessels b) it has low peripheral resistance c) it has high elasticity and distensibility
d) it is made up of poor muscle cells e) none of the above

30 The speed of sperm cell is

a) 3mm/min b) 8mm/min c) 9mm/min d) 1mm/min e)10mm/min

31 Presence of vasopressin increases water reabsorption in

A. PCT B. Loop of Henle C. DCT D. Medullary collecting duct E. Cortical collecting duct

32 About the Fovea of the eye

A. Lowest light threshold B. Only rods C. Only cones D. Highest visual acquity E. Situated
over the head of the optic nerve

33 HIV enters Helper T cells by endocytosis

34 Association is the first stage of motor learning

35 The 4th heart sound coincides with P wave true tho it's abnormal

36 Bathmotropic leads to an increase in contractility False

37 Cornea is a transparent and a vascular part of the eye

38 Sunderland classification has 5 stages

39 Symptom of thalamic stroke includes loss of consciousness

40 Stroke volume is the difference in EDV and ESV True

41__ is not used in the breakdown of drug

A monoamine oxidase B COMT C acetylcholinestrase D L DOPA E none of the above

42 All of the following but one inhibits growth hormone synthesis

A obesity B Aging C Exercise D exogenous growth hormone E somatostatin

43 Which of the following cannot be used for the synthesis of glucose?

A Glycerol B free fatty acid C lactate D amino acid E none of the above

44 All post ganglionic fiber is adrenergic

45 Which of the following is not a characteristic in Cohn’s syndrome?

A hypokalemia B increased EC volume C increased cardiac output D increased plasma renin

concentration E None of the above

46 Rods are for scotopic vision

47 Cones are for the greatest visual acuity

49 Interpretation of visual stimuli takes place in the primary visual area

50 Which of the following muscle is not involved in inspiration?

A scalene B transversus thoracic C external intercostal D anterior serratus

E. Levator Costarum

51 Which of the following inhibits ADH

52 The change in size, shape and appearance of a cell is metaphasia. T/F

53 Bipolar neurons are found in auditory and visual pathway T/F

54 Auditopsychogenic are and Wernicke are involved in the perception of sound T/F

55 LH surge is due to a negative feedback of progesterone. T/F

56 Stimulus artefacts is present in ------- stimulation of action potential.... a. Electrical b.

Chemical. C. Mechanical. D. Electrical

57 Which of the following is true about A.P

A. K+ leads to depolarization. B. K+ channels open before Na+ C. First third is refractory. D.

Action potential can vary

58 Which of the following enzyme is not present in pancreatic juice

A lactate B pancreatic lipase C elastase D pancreatic amylase

59 Lingual lipase is secreted by ebner gland and is active in the stomach T/F

60 Surfactant is produced by type II alveolar cells T/F true

61 Eosinophils do not activate mast cells T/F True Basophil does

62 Tissue prothrombin activator inhibitor and nitric oxide are produced by the capillary
endothelium T/F

63 Ventricular depolarization is depicted by what wave on the ECG a) P wave b) QRS wave c) T
wave d) PR segment b) QRS complex

64 CO2 is mostly transported in blood by

a) Dissolving in plasma b) carbamino hemoglobin c) HCO3 c) bicarbonate

MB PRACTICE QUESTIONS
1. Na+ mediate secondary Active transport T/F
2. All cell have electric potential T
3. Pepsinogen is cleaved by HCL in stomach to give pepsin T/F
4. Which hormone maintains corpus luteum after ovulation? A. Progesterone B. LH C. FSH
D. Estrogen
5. Blood is ___% of body weight A. 10 B. 15 C. 8 D. 20
6. Type 1 cells secrete pulmonary Surfactant. T/F
7. Average number of oocytes ovulated throughout a female's reproductive......is 700 T/F
8. Male produces anti-mullerian hormone T
9. Testosterone is responsible for the enlargement of the clitoris in the female. T/F
10. CO2 diffusing capacity is 20 times less than that of oxygenT/F
11. Membrane of all cells in the body have electrical potential T/F
12. Heat stroke is accompanied by profuse sweating T/F
13. The average hemoglobin level in an adult male is 16g/dl and in an adult female is 14g/dl
T/F
14. Anti D is normally absent in the plasma of rhesus negative T/F
15. Adrenache occurs in females at age 10-12 years T/F
16. Eosinophil increased in bacteria infection. T/F
17. Na-k ATPase contributes abt -3mv to rmp. T/F
18. R-R interval of 12mm is seen in Sinus Bradycardia T/F
19. ArterialPO2 is greater than Alveolar PO2. F
20. Tachycardia sinus rhythm is seen in hyperthyroidism. T
21. The fluid in Gastric tube is refer to as.... a) transcellular b) extracellular c)intracellular d)
interstitial
22. Vital capacity is inversely proportional to body surface area F
23. Periodic breathing is seen in sleep
24. Cortisol release is ultradian release.T
25. Diffusion potential of K+ is +94 T/F
26. Diffusion potential of Na+ is -61 F
27. Chief cell produce pepsin F
28. Rectum is the most suitable site for determining temp T
29. Chief cells produce HCL and inactivation of digested ,bacteriaF
30. IgD is present in saliva
31. FVC is ≥ 80% in obstructive lung diseaseT
32. Platelet bind to von willie brand factor during injury to blood vessel wall T
33. Non excitable tissue have resting membrane potential T/F
34. Plateau in cardiac muscle is caused by? (A) K+ (B) Cl- (C) Ca2+ (D) Na+
35. RMP of cardiac muscle is -90mv T/F
36. The following enzymes act on carbohydrates except a)amylase b) Maltase c) Trypsin d)
Lactase
37. The Diameter of redblood cell is a)7x10^-3 b)7x10^-6 c)7x10^-9m
38. Muscle spindle is a receptor T/F
39. What is the EDD if the LMP is 01/04/2018? ANS - 08/01/2019
40. Addison syndrome causes metabolic acidosis T/F
41. RBC antigen A and B is present in a)saliva b)semen c)pancreas d) amniotic fluid e) all of
the above
42. Classical haemophilia is caused by defect in factor VIII (T)
43. Arterial pulse is greater than blood flow in velocity (T)
44. Podocytes are formed in alveolar membrane(F)
45. Adrenaline secretion is four times noradrenaline secretion
46. Integrity of the stomach is needed for the absorption of VB12 in the small intestine (T)
47. Acetylcoline is found in presynaptic neuron (T)
48. Heart does not produce ADH (T)
49. Fetal haemoglobin shifts curve to the left (T)
50. Flare is due to capillary constriction (F)
51. Nitric Oxide would affect glucose delivery to tissue (T)
52. Meissner corpuscles are numerous in non glaborous skin
53. Excessivedilation of blood vessel results in vascular shock
54. Sympathetic stimuli causes vasoconstriction and transient vasodilation of coronary
vessels (T)
55. Spermatogenesis involves the production of spermatogonia from spermatid (F)
56. Reflexes are stereotyped (T)
57. Colour vision is a function cones (T)
58. Simple muscle twitch involvescontraction and relaxation (T)
59. RH incompatibility occurs in first childbirth (T)
60. Synapse en passant is found in skeletal muscles (F)
61. Deficiency of calcium andphosphate is responsible for osteoporosis (F)
62. Increase in high in altitude causes anemic hypoxia (F)
63. Re4nshaw cell under reversible inhibition (F)
64. In a reflex arc afferent and efferent are always neurons (
65. ECF is measured with Evans blue (F)
66. Kidney is gluconeogenic organ (T)
67. Progesterone is secreted only by corpus luteum (F)
68. Hypoglycemia is 60mg/dl (T)
69. Inspiratory reserve volume is 2.2l (F)
70. Spermatogenesis does not occur in theepididymis (T)
 71. Interstitial cell do not peristalsis (F)
72. NA/K ATPase contributes about 20% of resting membrane potential (T)
73. Site of two discrimination is on the back of t5ye scapular (T)
74. Zonal reticularis produce aldosterone (F)
75. Incretine has nothing to do with glucose homeostasis (F)
76. Progesterone stimulates via positive feedback (T)
77. Clearance of PAH is 125ml/min (F)
78. Luteal phase of ovarian cycle correspond to the secretive phase if uterine cycle(T)
79. CO2 is the most potent metabolite for cerebral circulation (T)
80. Cardiopulmonary resuscitation cannot restart heart (T)
81. Auditory receptor is not a chemoreceptor (T)
82. Concentrated urine is caused by ADH and Osmotic medulla (T)
83. Liver produce somatostatin and store it in the pancreases (F)
84. Cerebrospinal fluid is not ICF (F)
85. Neuropraxia is irreversible (F)
86. Local potential is graded (T)
87. The near point of adult is 10cm (F)
88. Thyroid hormone does not use cyclic AMP (T)
89. Chronic Pain is not physiological (T)
90. The rise in blood volume during pregnancy is not the same with increase in high altitude
91. Glycine is an inhibitory neurotransmitter

BIOCHEMISTRY
MB PRACTICE QUESTIONS
1. Which of the following monosacharides is correctly paired
a) D-glucose and D-galactose are C-4 epimer b) D-mannose and D-galactose are C-6 epimer
c) D-glucose and D-galactose are C-2 epimer d) D-glucose and D-fructose are C-2 epimer
2. The following are carbohydrate rich diet except
a) fructose b) fucose c) glucose d) galactose
3 all the following define an acid except
a) feel slippery b) corrosive to metal c) accept electron pair d) changes litmus red
4 NaHCO3 acts as a base by
a) releasing hydroxide in water b) donating an electron pair c) accepting an hydrogen ion
d) accepting an electron pair
5 In non-competitive inhibition there is no alteration in Km T/F
6 Hexokinase has mg as prosthetic group T/F
7 At pH 4,ATP has 4 negative charges. T/F
8 The level at which the concentration of acid and its conjugate base is equal is pH>pKa. T/F
9 The desaturation of fatty acid occurs in endoplasmic reticulum T/F
10 D fructose can be synthesized from glucose in a sorbitol in the Polypol pathway T or F
11 Glutamic acid is the transport form of ammonia from the brain t/f
12 Acetyl CoA is formed in the mitochondria from a source;B-oxidation of fatty acid T/F
13 Secondary structure of protein denotes linear sequence t/f
14 The following are destroyed in denatured protein except?
A. Hydrogen Bond B. Covalent bond C. Disulphide bond D. Ionic bond
15 Nitrogen bases possess _____ numbers?
A. Cardinal B. Prime C. Whole D. Numerals
16 Which of the following is not an essential amino acid
A. Glycine B. Valine C. Leucine D. Lysine
17 Which of the following is not a rate limiting enzyme in gluconeogenesis
A. Pyruvate carboxylase B. Glucose 6 phosphatase C. Fructose 1,6 bisphosphatase D. Pyruvate
dehydrogenase
18 Adenine and thiamine are common for both RNA and DNA T/F
19 2/3 of ATP is needed to power Na/K pump. T/F
20 Compounds that have the same molecular formular but have different arrangement of atoms
in space are called isomers T/F
21 Deficiency of phenylalanine hydroxylase leads to accumulation of homogentisic acid T/F
22 Lifespan of a RBC is 120days. T/F
23 Higher circulating levels of cortisol or testosterone will result in increased red blood cell
mass. T/F
24. Passive transport mechanism include
A. Exocytosis B. Endocytosis C. Pinocytosis D. Facilitated diffusion E. None
25 Allopurinol is involved in uric acid Formation T/F
26 Vilikin is used in Brunner's gland T/F
27 ALA synthase uses pyridoxal phosphate as a prosthetic group. T/F
28 UDP glucoronate transferase is present in the endoplasmic reticulum T/F
29 Desaturation of fatty acid occurs in the endoplasmic reticulum T/F
30 CCK and PZ are similar so they joined together to be called CCK – PZ T/F
31 Which of the following enzyme is odd
A. NADH B. FAD C. TTP D. Biotin
32 Tamoxifen is a selective endogenous receptor modulator
33 Which of this is not correct about cytochrome P450?
A. It's a repressible enzyme B. It is involved in oxidation and reduction C. Has NADH and
molecular oxygen D. It is the terminal oxidase
34 There are five major classes of fatty acids T/F
35 Clomiphene citrate is selective for:
A. Estrogen receptors B. Progesterone receptors C. Prolactin receptors D. Testosterone
receptors
36 A surge in FSH induces ovulation T/F
37 Pompe's disease is due to deficiency of lysosome phosphrylase T/F
38 Which of the following is true about the molecular basis of muscular dystrophy?
A. Dystrophin gene is located on the long arm near the P-21 locus B. Dystrophin codes for the
large protein Dp- 5427 C. Dystrophin gene is located on the short arm near the Q-21 locus
D. Dystrophin codes for the protein DP-427
39 Heme proteins contains heme as a prosthetic group T/F
40 ALA synthase requires pyridoxal phosphorus as its CO- enzyme in heme biosynthesis T/F
41 Gamma amino levulinic acid is a product of succinyl COA and glycine in heme biosynthesis
T/F
42 UDP glucoronide reductase is used for conjugation of xenobiotics T/F
43 Complex I, II and IV pump protons into the imtermembrane space T/F
44 In obstructive jaundice, bilirubin will be increased in urine during diagnosis T/F
45 Creatinine phosphate has a higher energy level than ATP T/F
46 In skeletal muscle, the product of glycogenolysis is Lactate and glucose -1 phosphate T/F
47 The following influences Calcium absorption in the intestine except
A. PTH B. Vit. D C. Calcitonin D. Phosphate levels in diet
47 The partial pressure of a gas depends on:
A. Temperature B. Volume of the gas D. No of moles in that volume of gas
48 An enzyme ______ transports citrate from mitochondria to cytosol?
A.Translocase B.Transferase C. Deamminase D. Phosphatase.
49 Glucagon is a hyperglycemic glycogenolytic factor T/F
50 UDP glucoronyl reductase is located in the ER T/F
51 Elevated level of prostate specific antigen is indicative of Prostate cancer T/F
52 Arsenate inhibits Enolase in Glycolysis T/F
53 Calcium ion prevents muscle from contracting due to “false Alarm”T/F
54 NADH is used for reductive biosynthesis T/F
55 The following are correctly matched except:
A. Isotonic to plasma - Na+ B. Hypertonic to plasma - Cl- C. Hypotonic to plasma - K+ D. PH of
the brain ECF is 7.8
56 The following are inducing agents except:
A. Rifampicin B. Spiralolactone C. Phenolbarbitone D. Cimetidine
57 Beta oxidation of fatty acids occurs in the mitochondria T/F
58 DMT 1 transfers iron from the blood to cell
59 The hydrogen ion concentration is directly proportional to bicarbonate and inversely
proportional to CO2. T/F
60 Collagen is globular protein T/F
61 Which of the following does not have an intracellular receptor?
A. Vitamin D B. Retinoic acid C. Calcitonin D. Triiodothyrionine
62 Megaloblastic anaemia does not occur due to Folate deficiency, but rather deficiency of Vit.
B12 T/F

MB PRACTICE QUESTIONS
1 Malonate inhibit succinate dehydrogenase True
2 Antibacterial activities in toothpaste glycolysis inhibition fluoride

3 Phenylalanine hydroxylase in phenylketonuria True

4 GABA b open Cl channel

5 Which is correctly matched?

a) Glut1 – Pancreas b) Glut 2- Kidney c) Glut 3- Brain d) Glut 4- Adipose tissue

6 Aminobutyrate acts as presynaptic inhibitor only in CNS

7 Testosterone is the direct precursor of estrogen

8 Zn is a co-factor for d following except

a) Carbonic anhydrase b) Carboxyl peptidase c) Phosphoglucomutase d) Alcohol dehydrogenase

9 Clomiophene cutrate binds to Estrogen receptor

10 Heme proteins contains heme as a prosthetic group True

11 Adrenal medulla Produces 80% Norepinephrine, 20% Epinephrine and small amount of
dopamine

12 Pyridoxal phosphate in ALA synthesis. True it is a prosthetic group and to ALA synthase

13 The rate limiting enzyme usually has the lowest km True

14 Gamma amino levulinic acid is a product of succinyl and glycine

15 First step in peroxisomal B oxidation involves a reductase that transfers electron to oxygen
producing H2O

16 Theories of Ageing
a) Replicative Senescense. b) Cellular theory c) Autoimmune d) Oxidative stress
18 HbE is a single point mutation variant. True

19 B oxidation yields 7FADH, 7NADH and 8 acetylcoA

20 Which of the following hb has glutamic acid replaced with lysine

a) Hb d b) HbC c) Hb s
21 Biochemical basis of Thallasemia involves increased synthesis of globin chain True

22 B carotene yields 3retinal on oxidation

23 Each turn of DNA has 10 residues. True

24 Alpha 1 protease inhibitor deficiency causes emphysema

25 Second step in cholesterol synthesis is formation of isoprenoid unit by decarboxylation of
mevalonate. False

26 Glycolysis and PPP are both cytosolic. True

27 Match d pH

a) Lysosome 4-5
b) Gastric acid 8-8.3
c) Pancreatic secretion
d) Saliva
28 Cyclopentanoperhydrophenanthrene is found in Triglycerides. False

29 Lynen spiral is by fatty acid synthase and NADPH

30 Glutathione is a tripeptide

31 CSF formation and absorption is pressure dependent

32 Uronic pathway gives ascorbic acid in man

33 Where is CSF produced majorly?

a) Choroid cuboidal epithelial cell

b) Ependyma cell
c) Capillary epithelial cells
34 Catecholamines are regulated by negative feedback

35 Prodrugs are not activated by metabolism

36 UDP-Glucoronide reductase is used for conjugation of xenobiotics

37 Ionophores are in carrier molecule

38 Which of the following is not a product of Glucuronic pathway...

a) Synthesis of Glycosaminoglycans
b) Synthesis of Steroids.
c) Conjugation of Xenobiotics
d) Synthesis of Ascorbic Acid
39 Complex i ii iv pump proton i, iii, iv are proton pumps, ii doesn't pump protons

40 Function of co-Q

Transfer electron from FADH to cytochrome b

41 Homocitrullinemia is caused argininosuccinate lyase False

42 Argininosuccinate lyase is the rate limiting enzyme False

43 Which of the following isn't true about ETC.

a) For every electron transport from NADH to Co-Q, 6 protons are generated
b) Movement of protons from inside to outside generate the electrochemical gradients.
c) Proton motive force drives ATP synthesis by ATP synthase
44 Acute phase protein reduce during inflammation

45 AcetylCoA carboxylase is the main enzyme of regulation in Fatty acid synthesis...

46 Bilayer of membrane is formed by Phospholipid intercalated with cholesterol. True

47 Bilayer of membrane is formed by Hydrophobic tail and hydrophobic head False

48 Which of the following is the reason for the energy requirements of the body?

49 Lynen Spiral is the opposite of B oxidation

50 Hormones with intracellular receptor is/are

a) Thyroid
b) Epinephrine
c) Glucocorticoids
51 Example of positive nitrogen balance is pregnancy T/F True

52 Transamination of glutamate yield glutamine False

53 Insulin does of one of the following except

a) Depression of acetyl CoA carboxylase

b) Depression of hormone sensitive lipase
c) Increases acetyl CoA concentration.
54 Half-life of Albumin is 15- 20 days

55 Enzymes are compartmentalized True

a) Are specific True b) Are biologic catalyst True c) Only Substrate Specific True d)
Enzymes are highly efficient. True
56 The rate limiting enzyme for cholesterol synthesis is HMG-CoA synthase. False it's HMG
CoA reductase

57 All these amino acids can produce glucose except

a) Leucine True b) Isoleucine False c) Phenylalanine False
58 Menedione is a synthetic form of vitamin k....

59 Medical biochemistry is a basis for all of the following life courses except:
A physiology, B pharmacology, C organic chemistry, D zoology

60 Rate limiting enzyme has low km True

61 Classical hemophilia is as a result of deficiency of factor ix

62 Fructose can causes hypercholesterolemia

63 enhanced or unopposed metabolic driven oxidative stress has no role in age related diseases

64 Enzyme deficiency in secondary disorder of bile synthesis

Cholesterol hydroxylase

65 Chloride shift occurs in renal regulation of acid/base balance

66 Retroviruses replicate in non-dividing cells

67 The antibacterial effect of fluoride in toothpaste is due to inhibition of glycolysis on bacteria

68 Hypercalcemia is a feature of chronic renal failure

69 Which of the following affects Calcium absorption in the intestine...

A. PTH B. Vit. D C. Calcitonin D. Phosphate levels